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MATH PROFICIENCY (55 ITEMS FOR 1 HOUR ONLY) 9. I am 27 years old.

9. I am 27 years old. In how many years will my future age be 16 years more than my past age
when I was the same number of years younger?
6𝑎(2𝑎2 𝑏−𝑎𝑏2 +3𝑏) A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 12
1.What is the simplified form of ?
−6𝑎𝑏
10. Which value will satisfy √2 + 𝑥 = 2 − √𝑥 ?
A. −2𝑎2 + 𝑎𝑏 − 3 C. −2𝑎2 + 𝑎𝑏 − 2𝑎 A. -1/4 B. ¼ C. ½ D. 0
B. 2𝑎3 − 𝑎𝑏 − 2𝑎 D. – (2𝑎2 ) − 𝑎𝑏 + 3
11. What is the solution set of the inequality |𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 6| ≤ 0?
2. Twenty-five workers can make 50 engines in 2 weeks. How many engines will be made by
A. { } B. all real C. {2,3} D. {𝑥|2 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3}
30 workers in 7 days assuming that they work at the same rate?
A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 40
1
12. The simplified form of 1 is
3. What are the x-intercepts of ℎ(𝑥) = 2𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 10? 1− 1
A. 5/2, -2 B. 2, -5/2 C. -10, 1 D. -1, 10 1− 1
1−
𝑦+1
3 𝑥 −2(5𝑥−𝑦2 )0 𝑦5 −1
1
4. √ √( ) in its simplest form is equal to A. 1+y B. y-1 C.
1
D. 𝑦−1
𝑥 3 𝑦 −2 𝑥 −1 𝑦 6 1+𝑦

13. Ang isang anggulo ng tatsulok ay triple ang laki sa pinakamaliit, at ang isa pang anggulo ay
𝑦 6 𝑦 𝑦 6 5 nakalalamang naman ng 5⁰ sa triple ng pinakamaliit. Ano ang sukat ng pinakamaliit na
A. 2 √𝑥 c. √𝑥 𝑦 anggulo?
𝑥 𝑥3
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25
6 𝑦 𝑦 6
B. 𝑦 √ D. 8 √𝑥 5 𝑦 40
𝑥 𝑥 14. If sin 𝜃 < 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 tan 𝜃 = − 9
, what is cos 𝜃?
A. -40/41 B. -9/41 C. 9/41 D. 40/41
5. The solution set of 𝑥 4 − 3𝑥 2 + 2 = 0 is
A. {1, √2} C. {1, −1, √2, −√2} 15. Gaano karaming tubig ang dapat na pasingawin mula sa isang 100mL tubig alat na may
B. {1, −1} D. {2, −2, √2, −√2} 35% na asin upang maitaas ang konsentrasyon nito sa 40%?
A. 12mL B. 12.5 mL C. 14 mL D. 14.5 mL
6. The square of a positive number increased by another number equals 36. If the sum of the
two numbers is 16, what is the greater number? 16. An inlet pipe can fill a tank in 4 hours. An outlet pipe can drain the same tank in 12 hours.
A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 How long will it take to fill the tank if both pipes are open?
A. 6 hrs B. 8 hrs C. 10 hrs D. 12 hrs
7. What is the product of the GCF and LCM of 12 and 18?
A. 96 B. 216 C. 108 D. 432 17. Ang sukat laki (area ng isang parihaba) ay 240 metro kuwadrado at nag kanyang diyagonal
ay 26 metro ang haba. Ano ang dimensyon ng parihaba?
8. What is one-fourth of 216 ? A. 12 at 20 metro C. 8 at 30 metro
B. 10 at 24 metro D. 6 at 40 metro
A. (1/2)16 B. 28 C. 24 D. 214
18. In the diagram, 𝑚∡3 = 110 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚∡2 = 130. What is 𝑚∡1? 23. Three angles have measures 2x-4; 5x and 7x + 2. If their mean is 60, what is the measure
of the smallest angle?
A. 13 B. 22 C. 26 D. 65

1
24. If the operation * is defined by 𝑎 ∗ 𝑏 = − 𝑏, then what is x in x * 18 = 14?
3
A. -4 B. 7/9 C. 1 D. 5

25. What is the measure of the acute angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of
the clock at 3:30 AM?
A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90
A.20 B. 50 C. 110 D. 160
26. Given the diagram below, what is cos A?
5
19. In sin 𝐴 = , what is the area of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶?
8

A.1/2 B. 5/12 C. 12/13 D. 13/5

A.50 B. 80 C. 100 D. 150 27. In the figure what is x?

20. A pair of dice is rolled. What is the probability of getting an even sum?
A. 1/36 B. ½ C. ¼ D. 2/3

21. What is the mean, median and mode of the given data?
38, 39, 37, 37, 38, 39, 35, 38, 40, 34
A.37, 38.5, 38 C. 37.5, 39.5, 37
B. 37.5, 38, 38 D. 38, 39, 38

1𝑥 A.132 B. 33 C. 32 D. 16
256 2 3
22. If ( ) = , what is the value of ?
81 4 28. ABCD is a square with side AB = 4 inches and arcs AEB and CED are tangent semicircles.
A. -3/2 B. -1/2 C. 1/4 D. 1/2 What is the area of the shaded portion in square inches?
A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12

34. There are 3 buildings A, B and C with heights 500 ft, 700 ft and 300 ft, respectively. C is
between A and B. C and B are 200 ft apart. On the top of building C is a fountain that if a bird
flew from the roof of building A or B, it would travel the same distance. Find the distance from
C to A?
A. 600 B. 400 C. 300 D. 200

35. If 3 is subtracted from the numerator of a certain fraction, the value of the fraction
becomes 3/5. If 1 is subtracted from the denominator of the same fraction, it becomes 2/3.
A. 8-π B. 8-2π C. 16-2π D. 16-4π Find the original fraction.
A. 35/55 B. 36/55 C. 4/7 D. 6/11
29. In the figure, what is 𝑚∡𝐴 + 𝑚∡𝐷?
36. A deli has five types of meat, two types of cheese, three types of bread. How many
different sandwiches, consisting of one type of meat, one type of cheese and one type of
bread, does the deli serve?
A. 10 B. 25 C. 30 D. 75

37. What should be the value of x such that ̅̅̅̅


𝑁𝑂 ∥ ̅̅̅̅̅
𝐾𝑀?

A.90 B. 180 C. 270 D. 360

30. A certain number of students were grouped into three with the ratio 3:7:8. Which of the
following is a possible total number of students?
A. 32 B. 40 C. 64 D. 90

̅̅̅̅
31. What is the exact value of 8−0.33 ?
A. 1/8 B. 2 C. 1/2 D. 8-3/10

4 A.-2/7 B. -1 C. 3 D. 4
32. Given √8 3√2√8𝑥 = 2 . Find x.
A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2 38. Solve the compound inequality. Other than ø, use interval notation to express the solution
set and graph the solution set on a number line.
-24 ≤-5x + 1 < -9
33. Country A has a population of 7200, which is decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year.
Country B has a population of 5000 and is gaining 120 people per year. In how many years
will the population of country A and B be the same? A.
B. A. 4π B. 3π C. 5π D. 8π

42. 3102 + 9*3100 + 3103/3 = ?


c. A. 3101 B. 3102 C. 3103 D. 3104

43. In the figure below, AC is parallel to DE. AE, FG and CD intersect at the point B. FG is
perpendicular to AC and DE. The length of DE is 5 inches, the length of BG is 8 inches and the
D. length of AC is 6 inches. What is the area, in square inches, of triangle ABC?

39. What is the domain and the range based on the graph below?

A. 28.8 B. 20 C. 24 D. 15

44. Points A, B and C are defined by their coordinates in a standard rectangular system of
axes. What positive value of b makes triangle ABC a right triangle with AC its hypotenuse?

A. domain: [0, ∞) range: (-∞, ∞)


B. domain: (-∞, ∞) range: [-3, ∞)
C. domain: [0, ∞) range: [0, ∞)
D. domain: [0, ∞) range: [-3, ∞)

40. What is the equation of a line passing through (3, 4) and perpendicular to the line whose
equation is y = 6x + 7? .
A. y - 3 =-1/6(x - 4) C. y = - 6x - 27
B. y - 4 =-1/6(x+3) D. y-4=-1/6(x - 3) A. 4 B. 6 C. √6 D. 1 + √6

41. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the graph of (x + 3)2 + (y + 5)2 = 16 is a circle. 45. Line L passes through the points (-2,0) and (0,a). Line LL passes through the points (4,0)
What is the circumference of the circle, expressed in coordinate units? and (6,2). What value of a makes the two lines parallel?
A. 1/2 B. -2 C. 2 D. -1/2 52. ABCD is a parallelogram and MN is parallel to to DC. The length of BN is 1/3 of the length
of BC. What is the ratio of the area of triangle BNM to the area of the parallelogram ABCD?
46. If 60% of a is equal to 120% of b, then 2a - 4b = ?
A. 2a B. 0.5a C. 0 D. 3a

47. If x, y and z are positive numbers such that 5x = y/4, y/4 = z/5 and y + z = x/k, what is the
value of k?
A. 1/2 B. 1/25 C. 1/5 D. 1/45

48. In the figure below line l is parallel to line k and line g is parallel to line h. What is the .
value of y? A. 18:1 C. 1:18
B. 1:9 D. 1:36

53. What is 4 / (√20 - √12) equal to?


A. 1/2 B. 4 / √8 C. √5 - √3 D. √5 + √3

54. If the product of two factors is 0, which of the following cannot be true?
A. One of the factors is 10.
B. Neither of the factors is 0.
C. One of the factors is 0.
D. Both of the factors are 0.

log3 813 +log2 162


55. What is =?
log 1002
A. 10 b. 6 C. 5 D. 4
.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 35

49. (41000)(82000) / (162000) =


A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 STOP! END OF SECTION. IF YOU HAVE ANY
TIME LEFT, GO OVER YOUR WORK IN THIS
50. The price x of a t-shirt was first reduced by 10%. Then the new price was reduced by a SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER
further 20%. The price of the T-shirt after the two reductions is given by
A. x - 0.3x C. x - 30
SECTION OF THE TEST.
B. x - 0.3x + 0.02x D. x + 0.02x

51. If x + y = √22 and (x - y)2 = 10, then xy =


A. 3 C. 2√55
B. 10√22 D. 2√22
SCIENCE PROFICIENCY (85 ITEMS FOR 50 MINS ONLY) short time later, displacement vectors for the four members are: A = 2.0 km, west; B = 1.6
km, north; C = 2.0 km, east; D = 2.4 km, south What is the resultant displacement R of the
1.Chlorine melts at -101⁰C and boils at -34.5⁰C. In what state does it exist at 0⁰C? members of the bicycle club: R = A + B + C+ D?
A. solid B. liquid C. gas D. plasma A. 0.8 km, south C. 0.4 km, 45° south of east
B. 3.6 km, 30° north of west D. 4.0 km, east
2. What happens to the volume of ice when it melts?
A. increase B. decrease C. remains the same D. cannot be determined 8. Sarah designed an experiment to find out which mouthwash was most effective against
some bacteria. She cut out four different circles from a paper towel and soaked each circle
3. Based on the graph, who won the 100m-race? in a different mouthwash. She put the circles on a nutrient agar-coated Petri dish that was
120 covered with bacteria commonly found in the mouth. She then incubated the plate for 24
hours. The picture shows the results of this test. Which of the following should Sarah do to
100 improve her experiment?
distance (m)

80 A. Use different kinds of bacteria.


Cedric B. Use the same type of mouthwash on each paper circle.
60
Kade C. Use the same size paper circles for all mouthwashes.
40 D. Use a smaller Petri dish.
Audrie
20
Aldrei 9. If an object moves through equal distances in equal times, then it is moving at a constant
0
3 6 8 12 15 _______.
A. speed C. acceleration
time (s)
B. displacement D. velocity

A. Cedric B. Kade C. Audrie D. Aldrei 10. Whenever one particle exerts a force on a second particle, the second particle
simultaneously exerts a force on the first particle with the same magnitude in _________
4. Refer to the figure above, who run with no acceleration? direction:
A. Cedric B. Kade C. Audrie D. Aldrei A. same C. parallel
B. opposite D. perpendicular
5. What is the equivalent of 1.00 kg/cm3?
11. Granting the volume is the same, which mass will yield the highest density?
A. 1.00 x 100 g/m3 C. 1.00 x 105 g/m3 A. 850 g B. 1.0 kg C. 1100 g D. 1.2 kg
B. 1.00 x 103 g/m3 D. 1.00 x 109 g/m3
12. A police officer living on a planet with no air resistance drops a pair of handcuffs and a
6. Which one of the following is a vector quantity? handkerchief at the same time. Which one will reach the ground first?
A. the age of the earth A. the handkerchief C. both will hit the ground at the same time
B. the mass of a football B. handcuffs D. cannot be determined
C. the earth's pull on your body
D. the temperature of an iron bar 13. A 50-kg table is sliding on a concrete floor and is pushed with a constant force of 50 N over
a distance of 5m. A frictional force of 50N opposes the table’s motion. What is the
7. Four members of the Main Street Bicycle Club meet at a certain intersection on Main acceleration of the table?
Street. The members then start from the same location, but travel in different directions.A A. 0m/s2 B. 5m/s2 C. 2.5m/s2 D. 10m/s2
14. On a velocity-versus-time graph, a horizontal straight line corresponds to ___________ 21. Kinetic energy is the greatest at point:
acceleration.
A. zero B. increasing C. constant D. decreasing

15. If you pull a cart, what is the force that causes you to move forward?
A. the force that the cart exerts on you
B. the force that you exert on the cart
C. the force you exert on the ground with your feet
D. the force the ground exerts

16. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars is about 1/3 the acceleration due
to gravity on Earth’s surface. The weight of a space probe on the surface of Mars is about:
A.9 times greater than its weight on Earth’s surface
B. 3 times greater than its weight on Earth’s surface
C. 1/3 its weight on Earth’s surface 22. You are traveling east by plane and cross three time zone boundaries. If your watch
D.The same as its weight on Earth’s surface reads 3:00pm when you arrive, to what time should you reset it to?
A. 6:00pm B. 12 nn C. 6:00am D. 12 midnight
17. According to the law of conservation of energy:
23. Which of the following characterizes a mineral?
A.Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
A. organic solid C. crystalline
B.Energy can be converted from one form to another
B. can be synthetically prepared D. has varying composition
C.Kinetic Energy can be changed into sound and heat
D.More than one of these
24. During nighttime, how does the air temperature over the ocean compare with that over
the land?
18. A rock sitting at the edge of a cliff has_____ because of its position.
A. higher over the ocean C. lower over the ocean
A.Kinetic Energy C. Potential Energy
B. the same D. cannot be determined
B.Thermal Energy D. Atomic Energy
25. What does the point of orbit of the earth around the sun indicate?
19. If no friction acts on a diver during a dive, which of the following statements is
true?
A.The potential energy at the beginning is equal to the kinetic energy at the end
B.Some energy is converted to heat
C.Some energy is converted to sound
D.More than one of these

20. What does the fact that one side of the moon always faces the earth prove? A.aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee
A. the moon rotates
B. the moon does not rotate 26. Why doesn't Venus have seasons like Mars and Earth do?
C. then moon deflects rather than emits light A. Its rotation axis is nearly perpendicular to the plane of the Solar System.
D. the moon has a distorted shape
B. It does not have an ozone layer.
C. It does not rotate fast enough. 32. In Coriolis effect, where is the direction of the wind oriented in the Northern hemisphere?
D. It is too close to the Sun. A. south B. left C. north D. right

27. Comets are icy masses of frozen gases and dust particles. What happens when a comet 33. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?
gets too close to the sun? A. granite B. basalt C. limestone D. marble
A. The gases catch fire, making the comet glow.
B. The ice begins to melt, leaving a trail of gases and debris. 34. How is the pressure over the land compare with that over the sea during daytime?
C. The comet explodes, which is called a supernova. A. higher B. lower C. equal D. none of the above
D. The comet bounces off the sun’s magnetosphere.
35. Which layer of the atmosphere is the coldest?
28. What is remarkable about the rotation of Uranus? A. troposphere B. exosphere C. stratosphere D. mesosphere
A. its rotation period is very long (about 12 years)
B. its rotation axis lies in its orbital plane 36. The energy that drives the water cycle comes from _____.
C. its rotation axis always points at the sun A. the earth's own internal heat,
D. its rotation period varies wildly from year to year B. the sun,
C. the energy of rotation, combined with the Coriolis effect,
29. Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions. D. the heat energy created by friction as the earth spins upon its axis,

37. At mid-ocean ridges, two plates are


A. moving towards each other. C. moving away from each other.
B. sliding along each other. D. stationary.

38. Which of the following is not a mineral?


A. olivine B. limestone C. calcite D. quartz

39. Why do magmas rise toward Earth's surface?


A) Magmas are more viscous than solid rocks in the crust and upper mantle.
In which positions will the day and night hours be equal? B) Most magmas are richer in silica than most crustal and upper mantle rocks.
A. A and B C. B and C C) Magmas, being melts and having gases, are less dense than the adjacent solid rock.
B. C and D D. B and D D) Magmas have higher content of pyroxenes than the surrounding rocks.

30. What season is it at point A in the northern hemisphere? Assume the north pole is on top. 40. An igneous rock contains a radioactive isotope that has a half-life of 10 million years.
A. Winter B. Spring C. Summer D. Fall Careful analysis shows that only one quarter of the original concentration of the parent
isotope is left. How old is this igneous rock?
31.Why do stars seem to twinkle? A. 5 million years old C. 20 million years old
A. because the atmosphere bend their light rays B. 40 million years old D. 2.5 million years old
B. because they shine
C. because they undergo nuclear burning 41. What is the fraction of homozygous recessive offspring from a AaBb x AaBb cross?
D. because they reflect light A. 1/16 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 3/4
42. What are the offsprings produced when homozygous red flowers cross with heterozygous 51. Which of the following is correctly paired?
red flowers? A. mitochondria: ATP synthesis C. ribosomes: lipid synthesis
A. all homozygous red C. 1/2 homozygous red B. nucleus: protein transport D. golgi body: carbohydrate storage
B. all heterozygous red D. no offsprings produced
52. How does the liver act as an accessory organ of the digestive system?
43. Which of the following can pass the human digestive tract chemically unchanged? A. digest proteins found in meat C. secretes bile to digest lipids
A. cellulose B. starch C. lipid D. protein B. secretes gastric juice to digest fats D. collects water from undigested food

44. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. Is it possible for a father with normal color 53. When a body acquires an infection, which of the following usually increases in number?
vision to have a colorblind daughter? A. white blood cells C. red blood cells
A. Yes B. No C. information not enough D. Maybe B. platelets D. hemoglobin

45. What is the cell division process that produces four new cells? 54. After meeting an accident, a man suddenly experiences inability to move his body. What
A. meiosis B. mitosis C. osmosis D. oogenesis part of the brain is mostly likely been injured?
A. cerebrum C. cerebellum
46. Human body (somatic cells) contain _____ chromosomes and the gametes (sex cells) B. medulla oblongata D. skull
contain ______ chromosomes.
A. 23, 46 B. 46, 23 C. 23, 23 D. 46, 46 55. Which of the following is part of the endocrine system?
A. pancreas C. spinal cord
47. Which best describes the metaphase stage? B. skin D. epididymis
A. chromosomes migrate to opposite poles
B. chromosomes reach the poles of the cell 56. Which of the following is a sex-influenced trait?
C. chromosomes align at the cell’s equatorial plate A. hemophilia C. baldness
D. none of the above B. baldness D. large comb in roosters

48. Which of the following statements is FALSE? 57. What antigen is present in blood type O?
A. Hormones are released in the blood stream. A. A C. AB
B. The right atrium receives red oxygenated blood from the lungs. B. B D. none
C. Enzyme action starts in the mouth during digestion.
D. The blood entering the left atrium from the lungs is characterized by high oxygen content 58. Which of the following blood type is considered to be the universal recipient?
and low carbon dioxide. A. A B. B C. AB D. O

49. A normal daughter of a hemophiliac man marries a man without hemophilia. What is the 59. Which organisms are most closely related?
probability that their son will not have hemophilia? A. organisms of the same family
A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 0% B. organisms of the same kingdom
C. organisms of the same order
50. Which of the following cannot be a possible genotype of a cross between a heterozygous D. organisms of the same class
round pea with a homozygous wrinkled pea? (R-round, r-wrinkled)
A. RR B. Rr C. rr D. none 60. Which of the following did not help Darwin formulate his theory of evolution?
A. fossil evidence that species had changed over time C. gamma radiation
B. closely related species on oceanic islands D. neutrons
C. belief that the earth was several thousand years old D. evidence of artificial selection in
domestic animals 69. When a solution of ethanol, C2H5OH, is formed in water, the ethanol molecules
A. are attracted to the nonpolar water molecules.
61. A compound has a molecular weight of 78 g/mol and contains 92.3% C and 7.74% H. What B. form hydrogen bonds to the polar water molecules.
is the formula of the compound? (AW (g/mol): H:1, C:12) C. form covalent bonds to the polar water molecules.
A. C2H2 B. C6H6 C. CH4 D. C5H10 D. are not attracted to the polar water molecules.

62. Which of the following has the highest number of moles? (AW (g/mol): C: 12, O:16) 70. A 0.25 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride, NaCl, is tested for conductivity using
A. 2.8 g CO B. 3.0 g O2 C. 4.0 g C D. 4.4 g CO2 the type of apparatus shown. What do you predict will happen?

63. What is the percentage composition of oxygen in potassium carbonate? (AW (g/mol): K:
39, C:12, O:16)
A. 8.69% B. 34.73% C. 56.52% D. 86.25%

64. Which compound has the +3 oxidation number for Carbon?


A. C B. CaCO3 C. CO D. CaC2O4

65. What is the correct electron configuration for 48Cd?


A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
B. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d10
A. The bulb will not light up. NaCl does not dissolve in water.
C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p64d4
B. The bulb will not light up. NaCl is in the molecular form in aqueous solution.
D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p65s24d105s25d10
C. The light bulb will shine dimly. NaCl is only partially ionized in aqueous
solution.
66. In an exothermic chemical reaction
D. The light bulb will shine brightly. NaCl is highly ionized in aqueous solution.
A. the mass of the products is greater than the mass of the reactants.
B. the mass of the products is less than the mass of the reactants.
71. What is the pressure of 1.25 moles of gas in a 8.21-L container at 100K?
C. heat is released as the reaction proceeds.
A. 1.5 atm B. 1.25 atm C. 1.5 atm D. 0.5 atm
D. heat is absorbed as the reaction proceeds.
72. What is the orbital of an electron that has a principal quantum number (n) equal to 3 and
67. In general, which does not increase the speed of a combustion reaction?
an orbital angular quantum number (l) equal to 2?
A. adding a catalyst
A. 3p B. 3d C. 5p D. 5d
B. increasing the temperature of the reaction
C. increasing the amount of fuel present
D. using a combustion reaction with a high activation energy 73. How many unpaired electrons are there in a nitrogen atom (7N)?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
68. Which naturally occurring radioactive particles are negatively charged? 74. Atoms of metals generally react with atoms of nonmetals by
A. alpha particles A. losing electrons to form ionic compounds
B. beta particles B. losing electrons to form covalent compounds
C. gaining electrons to form ionic compounds B. BaF2 D. CCl4
D. sharing electrons to form covalent compounds
83. When 238 234
92 U produces 90Th , what radioactive particle is emitted?
75. If 20.0 mL of a 6.0 M HNO3 solution is diluted to 120.0 mL, what is the final molarity of the A. alpha C. beta
HNO3 after dilution? B. positron D. gamma
A. 0.25 M B. 0.50 M C. 0.75 M D. 1.0M
84. If the reaction A + B = C + D is initially at equilibrium and then more A is added, which of
76. Based on the table below, which statement is correct? the following is not true?
solution A B C D E A. more collisions of A and B will occur
pH 6.9 6.2 6.0 5.5 4.8 B. equilibrium will shift to the right
C. moles of B will be increased
Solution B is D. moles of D will be increased
A.more acidic than solution C C. less acidic than solution A
B. less acidic than solution E D. more acidic than solution D 85. In the equation Zn + Cu(NO3)2  Zn(NO3)2 + Cu, what change did zinc undergo?
A. reduced and its oxidation number increased
77. What is the density of NH3(g) at STP? (AW (g/mol): N: 14, H:1) B. reduced and its oxidation number decreased
A. 0.760 g/mL C. 1.32 g/mL C. oxidized and its oxidation number increased
B. 0.76 g/L D. 1.32 g/L D. oxidized and its oxidation number decreased

78. Gas A and B contain the same number of molecules and are at the same temperature.
The external pressure on Gas A is twice that of Gas B. What can be said of the volume of gas
A compared with gas B? STOP! END OF SECTION. IF YOU HAVE ANY
A. twice that of gas B C. one-half that of gas B TIME LEFT, GO OVER YOUR WORK IN THIS
B. four times that of gas B D. same as that of gas B
SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER
79. If the size of the fluorine atom is compared to the size of the fluoride ion, SECTION OF THE TEST.
A. they would both be the same size
B. the atom is larger than the ion
C. the ion is larger than the atom
D. the size difference depends on the reaction

80. Which is the most electronegative?


A. 7N B. 9F C. 6C D. 8O

81. The number of electrons in the nucleus of an atom of 2412Mg+2 is


A. 12 C. 36
B. 24 D. 10

82. Which of the following involves ionic bonding?


A. H2 C. H2O
UPCAT
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Choose the best answer by shading the circle corresponding to the


letter of choice. If you have to change your answer, put a cross
mark on the old answer and shade a new circle. If you have a pencil,
please use it so you can easily erase your old answers. (In the real

REVIEW
exam, you are required to use a pencil.)

2. Please do not write anything on the questionnaire. Use another


paper for scratch work.

3. No calculators and other electronic devices allowed during the


exam. Periodic tables are also prohibited.

4. You may eat while taking the exam.

5. If you have questions, ask the proctor/examiner, not your co-

POST
examinee.

6. Strictly NO CHEATING!

7. Take a deep breath and enjoy answering. Good luck and God bless!

EXAM