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 Laboratory of high TAG with normal with normal cholesterol are typical in the following
disorders except:
a. Diabetic dyslipidemia
b. Hepatic lipase deficiency
c. Apo C-III excess
d. Apo C-II deficiency

 Hansel secretion stain is the preferred urinary eosinophil stain which consists of:
a. Methylene blue and eosin Y
b. Methylene blue and eosin X
c. Brilliant cresyl blue and eosin Y
d. Bromcresol green & eosin X

 Plasma transfusion is not recommended in which following disorders?

a. Dilutional coagulopathy
b. Hemorrhage in liver disease
c. Hypofibrinogenemia
d. Coumadin reversal

 The Harada-Mori culture technique and charcoal culture are specialized techniques
recommended in the recovery of:
a. E. histolytica
b. H. diminuta
c. S. stercolaris
d. O. volvulus

 These are minute coccobacilli which are gram negative, strictly aerobic, non-fermentative,
requiring nicotic acid, cysteine and usually methionine but not X or V factor for growth. These
bacteria are known as?
a. Legionella
b. Brucella
c. Pasteurella
d. Bordetella

 Which of the following is not an amendment of RA 5527?

a. RA 6132
b. PD 498
c. PD 1534
d. RA 9288
 In automated cell counters, the following may cause false decrease in MCV, except:
a. Cryoglobulin
b. Cryofibrinogen
c. Autoagglutination
d. Giant platelets

 The most reliable serologic test for diagnosis of Q fever is:

a. Indirect immunofluorescent antibody
b. Heterophile antibody test
c. Complement fixation test
d. Weil-Felix test

 Which of the following stains is used for the study of spermatogenesis?

a. Copper hematoxylin
b. Alum hematoxylin
c. Iron hematoxylin
d. Chromium hematoxylin

 The phospholipid which is present in highest concentration in human plasma of about 70-75% is:
a. Phosphotidylcholine
b. Sphingomyelin
c. Phosphotidylserine
d. Phosphotidylethanolamine

 Electrolytes such as Na, Mg and Cl are more concentrated in:

a. peritoneal fluid
b. CSF
c. Pleural fluid
d. Synovial fluid

 Which of the following blood components is used mainly as a source of fibrinogen?

a. Cryoprecipitate
b. Platelet concentrate
c. Leukocyte components
d. RBC
 Demonstration of tachyzoites or tissue cysts is definitive in the diagnosis of infection to what
protozoan parasite?
a. B. hominis
b. T. gondii
c. T. rangeli
d. N. fowleri

 Which of the following is a phenotypic test?

a. Dilution testing
b. Epsilometer or E-test
c. Disk diffusion
d. Direct test for Beta-lactamase

 Which memorandum order provides the “Guidelines for the Accreditation of Clinical
Laboratories involved in the training of medical laboratory science/medical technology interns”
under the CHED?
a. CMO no 14, s 2006
b. AO 118-B, s 1992
c. CMO no 06, s 2008
d. CMO no 36, s 1998

 Which of the following can be useful in differentiating granulocytic leukemoid reaction from
chronic myelogenous leukemia?
a. Peroxidase stain
b. Sudan black B stain
c. Surface membrane markers
d. Neutrophil alkaline phosphatase

 Which of the following sets of rapid tests would help to distinguish F. tularensis from other small
Gram negative bacilli?
a. Oxidase, indole and pigment production
b. Indole, oxidase, catalse and agglutination with RBC
c. Oxidase, catalase, urease and Beta lactamase production
d. Oxidase, urease and pigment production

 Phlorogucin-Nitric acid is considered to be the most rapid decalcifying agent. Its decalcification
time is:
a. 6-12h
b. 24-48h
c. 48-72h
d. 12-24h
 Which among the following gives decreased level of alkaline phosphatase?
a. Blood transfusion
b. High BMI
c. Smoking
d. Anti-epileptic agents

 The solution that can be used for quality control of refractometer is:
a. Urea w/ SG of 1.040
b. Water w/ SG of 1.005
c. NaCl w/ SG of 1.022
d. Sucrose w/ SG of 1.030

 This is a technique or process used to remove antibodies bound to red cells in vivo by using heat,
glycine acid and organic solvents. This is usually done in majority cases of warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia. It is known as?
a. Titration
b. Enzyme treatment
c. Elution
d. Chloroquine diphosphate

 Human eosinophilic meningoencephalitis is seen in various parts f pacific region in form of larva
migrans. It is generally a mild and self-limiting infection and is caused by what parasite?
a. A. brazilienze
b. A. cantonensis
c. B. microti
d. L. donovani

 The clinic-epidemiologic diagnosis of “catscratch disease” can be confirmed serologically by

antibodies to:
a. R. akari
b. E. chafeensis
c. R. Quintana
d. B. henselae

 RA 5527 was signed into law by then Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos on:
a. Sept 15, 1963
b. Jun 21, 1969
c. Sept 20, 1964
d. Aug 9, 1968
 The disease linked to an abnormality of granule maturation causing enlargement and apparent
fusion of granules and vesicles in all cell types is:
a. Chediak higashi
b. Pelger Huet
c. May-Hegglin
d. Alder-Reilly

 Which of the following IgG subclasses does not have the ability to bind to staphylococcal protein
a. IgG2
b. IgG1
c. IgG4
d. IgG3

 Best Carmine method is selective and highly specific for?

a. Reticulum
b. Nervous tissue
c. Fat
d. Glycogen

 Which of the following conditions causes elevated serum level of Conjugated bilirubin?
a. Hemolysis
b. Gilbert’s syndrome
c. Crigler-najjar syndrome
d. Dubin-Johnson syndrome

 It is the most common cause of asymptomatic hematuria progressing to chronic

glomerulonephritis in which immune complexes containing IgA are deposited on the glomerular
basement membrane?
a. Berger’s disease
b. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Goodpasteru syndrome
d. Wegener’s granulomatosis

 These antibodies which are common causes of hemolytic transfusion reactions, accounting for
nearly one –quarter of all delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions and 75% of those with true
hemolytic sequelae are known as:
a. Anti-Fy
b. Anti-dombrock
c. Anti-colton
d. Anti-Jk
31st PAMET QUIZ Questions

 The timing for a glucose tolerance test begins when:

a. The fasting sample is drawn
b. The patient finishes drinking the glucose
c. 30 mins after the patient finishes drinking the glucose
d. 1 hr after the patient finishes drinking glucose

 Sweat electrolytes are collected is used to confirm the diagnosis of?

a. Lactose intolerance
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Peptic ulcer
d. RSV

 The following blood sample must be protected from light?

a. Vit A
b. Vit B12
c. Bilirubin
d. All of the above

 Earliest cardiac marker to rise in AMI is?

a. Troponin I
b. Troponin T
c. LDH
d. Myoglobin

 Which of the following conditions causes hypophosphatemia?

a. Hypervitaminosis D
b. Cytolysis
c. Pyloric obstruction
d. Diabetic coma

 The proper angle for the spreader slide when preparing a blood smear is?
a. 15 deg
b. 25 deg
c. 30 deg
d. 45 deg
 Auer rods can be seen in this type of leukemia:
a. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c. Acute promyelocytic Leukemia
d. Burkitt’slymphona

 The most appropriate screening test for Hemoglobin S is:

a. Kleihauer-Betke
b. Dithionite solubility
c. Osmotic fragility
d. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

 Granulocyte above 75% is termed:

a. Relative lymphocytosis
b. Leukocytosis
c. Relative neutrophilic leukocytosis
d. Absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis

 The needle is inserted into the vein:

a. Bevel up at a 45 to 50 degree angle
b. Bevel up at a 15 to 30 degree angle
c. Bevel down at a 15 to 30 degree angle
d. Bevel down at a 45 to 50 degree angle

 When staining acid fast bacilli using truant auramine-rhodamine stain, potassium permanganate
is used as:
a. Quenching agent
b. Decolorizing agent
c. Mordant
d. Dye

 Which of the following is required for growth of Francisella tularensis?

a. Arginine and lysine
b. Cysteine and cystine
c. Histidine and tryptophan
d. Leucine and ornithine
 Toxic Shock Syndrome is attributed to infection:
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. hominis
d. S. saprophyticus

 The term “internal infection” is associated to infection referring to:

a. A. lumbricoides
b. N. americanus
c. T. trichiura
d. S. stercolaris

 Microfilariae of Wuchereria and Brugia usually display a nocturnal periodicity, blood from
patients suspected to be infected by these filariae should be drawn between:
a. 11:00 PM – 1:00 AM
b. 10:00 PM – 2:00 AM
c. 12:00 MN – 3:00 AM
d. 9:00 PM – 11:00 PM

 The condition resulting from the accidental ingestion of eggs, the human becomes the
intermediate rather than the definitive host. This is seen in:
a. Ascariasis
b. Cysticercosis
c. Strongyloidiosis
d. Trchinosis

 What is the most possible interpretation of the following syphilis serology results?
RPR: reactive; VDRL: reactive; MHA-TP:non-reactive
a. Neurosyphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Syphilis that has been treated
d. Biological false-positive

 Which method is best used to test the HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV positive
a. Western-blot
b. PCR
d. Tissue culture
 Which test other than serological markers, is most consistently elevated in viral hepatitis?
b. LDH
c. Absolute lymphocyte count
d. Antinuclear antibodies

 Which hepatitis antibody confers immunity against reinfection with hepatitis B virus?
a. Anti-HBs IgM
b. Anti-HBc IgG
c. Anti-HBe
d. Anti-HBs

 Which of the following would disqualify a person in the blood donor selection process?
a. Weight 180 lbs.
b. Temperature 37.2 deg Celsius
c. Hemoglobin 11.0 g/L
d. Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg

 The major cause of transfusion associated fatalities in transfusion of blood to wrong patient is:
a. Not performing compatibility testing accurately
b. Inaccurate patient history
c. Not excluding disqualified donor
d. Inaccurate identification of the donor unit and recipient

 Plasma exchange is reccomendable in the treatment f patients with Waldenstrom in order to

a. Antigen
b. Excess IgM
c. Excess IgG
d. Abnormal platelets

 CSF samples labeled 1, 2 and 3 are sent to the clinical laboratory. Tube number 3 should be
examined for:
a. Cell counting
b. Bacteriological study
c. Serologic testing
d. Chemical analyses
 Lamellar bodies, which are the stored forms of surfactants, have a diameter that is similar to
that of:
a. RBC
b. Squamous epithelial cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Small platelets

 Which among the following fluids uses picric acid as fixative:

a. Zenker’s
b. Bouin’s
c. Orth’s
d. Carnoy’s

 According to WHO criteria on Semen analysis, the recommended stain to be used for the
viability of sperm cells is:
a. Papaniculao
b. Hematoxylin and Eosin
c. Nigrossin and Eosin
d. Giemsa

 Diagnostic cytology includes:

a. Exfoliative cytology
b. Fine needle aspiration
c. In-situ hybridization
d. A and B

 When was the latest Medical technology code of ethics released?

a. May 4, 1994
b. March 7, 1997
c. March 27, 2010
d. May 28, 2011

 The PAMET president who passed away on summer of 2012:

a. Charlemagne Tamondong
b. Felix Asprer
c. Venerable OCa
d. Lily Alquiza