ARROZ CON MANGO

Dear friends, these are remembered/repeated questions (RQs) and answers I COPIED
and PASTED from different discussions on Facebook. I feel sorry because I couldn’t
organize the file the way I wanted but I hope it helps. Probably you’ll find some wrong
answers in this file, but PLEASE … DO NOT CRITICIZE! Find out the right answer, learn it,
share it, PASS your test and BE HAPPY J
I wish you all the best
GOD BLESS YOU!
PAITO

1. All of the following are adverse effects of opioids except? diarrhea and somnolence
2. Advantage of osteogenesis distraction is? less relapse, large movements
3. An investigation that is not accurate but consistent is: reliability
4. Remineralized enamel is rough and cavitation? Dark hard and opaque
5. Characteristics of a child with autism - repetitive action, sensitive to light and noise
6. S,z,che sounds : Teeth barely touching – True
7. Something about bio-transformation, more polar and less lipid soluble? - True
8. How much of he population has herpes? 80% - (65-90% worldwide; 80-85% USA) More given answers were
-74 (I chose)
than 3.7 billion people under the age of 50 – or 67% of the population – are infected
-85
with herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), according to WHO's first global estimates of
HSV-1 infection published today in the journal PLOS ONE.
9. Steps of plaque formation: pellicle, biofilm, materia alba, plaque
10. Dose of hydrocortisone taken per year that will indicate have adrenal insufficiency
and need supplement dose for surgery - 20 mg 2 weeks for 2 years
11. Rpd clasp breakage due to what? Work hardening
12. Most impacted tooth? Third molar not in options - Maxillary canine
13. Least common survival of lip cancer – white female
14. Aspirin mode of action - inhibit irreversible platelet aggregation thromboxane a2
15. Myasthenia gravis, what is contraindicated? erythromycin and aminoglycosides
16. Treatment for ANUG - Debridement and mouth rinse with h2O2 and if systemic
involvement then antibiotics
17. Which type of periodontitis needs antibiotics – LAP
18. Antibiotic used for periodontitis - Tetra and Pen V, also metro
19. Asthma physiology definition - Wheezing on expiration
20. Ranitidine definition - Selective H2 (Histamine) receptor antagonist, these receptors
are present in Gastric mucosa lining. Thereby blocking the receptors and prevents
release of Gastric acid.
21. Which is prevalent: 1 wall defect, 2 wall defect, 3 wall defect
22. Penumbra definition - Penumbra is lack of sharpness of the film.
23. Which is more hydrophillic pvs or polyether (this question was asked to me twice
during day1) - Polyether (but also hydrocolloids)
24. Many questions on study model all leading to a common answer that was cross
sectional study model (they tend to repeat the questions in different formations during
day 1).
25. Face division vertically and horizontally - vertical 3 and horizontal 5
26. Disease more common in men (hemophilia)
27. One q on relation between incisal guidace is equal and condylar guidance - When
adjusting the condylar guidance for protrusive relationship, the incisal guide pin on
the articulator should be raised out of contact with the incisal guided table.
28. Many qs on study model leading to a common answer that was clinical trail (mostly
they were on effectively of practices, drugs, etc).
29. Which has poorest prognosis and the answer was PLGA salivary gland tumor. They
had confused it with adenoid cystic and mucoepi - False - Pleomorphous Low Grade
Adenocarcinoma (PLGA) has good prognosis after surgical excision (Mosby) – I think
answer is Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

30. A lot of questions on anti cancer drugs so study it carefully… really sorry that i don’t
remember them as I was poor in that topic - Dihydrofolate reductase by
methotrexate, amoxicillin inhibits renal tubular secretion of methotrexate.
31. What comes before plaque or pellicle or biofilm
32. Deepest part of occlusal rest for rpd - marginal ridge
33. Simple questions in oral patho about cleidocranial as to what it affects (clavicles)
34. Many many many questions in endo with positive or negative findings in relation to
percussion, palpation, night pain and then diagnosis of the combinations were asked.
35. Simple questions in relation to pulpectomy and pulpotomy: pulpotomy - vital /
pulpectomy - non vital
36. Questions on modellling technique in pt mngmt (pt made to observe his cousins or
friends behaviour to improve his own)
37. Disto buccal extension of mandi cd lateral limit influenced by masseter or ramus
38. Key feature of the custom tray during final impression is its under extension? - The
custom tray for a final mandibular or maxillary complete denture impression should
have a spacer w/ stops to ensure the tray will be seated in proper relationship to the
arch, and to ensure adequate room for the impression material. Other features:
trimmed 2 mm short of the mucosal reflection and frenae. The primary indicator of the
accuracy of border molding is the stability and lack is displacement of the tray in the
mouth.
39. Class ii and iii drug:
S II: amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, pentobarbital, oxycodone, methadone,
codeine, and Percocet (acetaminophen + oxycodone). (Must have a written
prescription and cannot be refilled)
S III: Tylenol 3, Vicodin - must have a written prescription, refills do not need new
prescription and may be called into the pharmacy.

40. Absolute contra of papoose straps emergency situation or a co-operative patient

41. Hemorrhage common complication of maxi extractions and to my surprise the same
question with mandi extractions was asked but without the option of dry socket,
infection was the only sane option so i went for it.
42. A lot of questions on 3/4th and 7/8 crowns but they were basic ones and i could
derive the answer by using the facts given in dental decks.

Got 2 separate question about:

- common complications of extraction of Maxillary teeth?
-common complication of extraction post operatively ?
43. A lot of questions on ethical principals of a dentist (guys for these questions please ref
to the ethical principal details mentioned on the ada website…. If you do it from there
you will be able to nail each and every one of:
http://www.ada.org/~/media/ADA/Member%20Center/FIles/2016_ADA_Code_Of_Ethics.
pdf?la=en
44. What sound is affected if incisors are placed too far superiorly and ant: f and v
45. Best (conservative) method to close a 1 mm non patho diastema in a young adult is:
composite
46. If a patient doesn’t have 3rd molars how many furcations will he have in mxi arch (to
make the calculation simple there are three furcations for maxi teeth mesial distal and There was no
Buccal rest is simple calculation) - 16 - maxillary molars have 3 furcations (4 molars * 3 16 in options,
furcations = 12), 1st pm is bifurcated, that means it has 2 furcations (2*2=4). We have only 14
16 furcations. 2nd premolars, central incisors, lateral incisors and canines do not have
furcations.
47. Most common site for graft iliac – true
48. Most common site for mandi fracture – condyle
49. Complication with distraction osteogenesis - nerve damage
50. Implant analogue used to replicate the position of implant on the implant platform
(confusing options were if its used for impressions? Nope that’s impression copings –
An implant analogue is an implant replica and is inserted into the set impression
material before the cast is poured. Impression coping is attached directly to the
implant fixture head. Impression copings facilitate transfer of the intraoral location of
the implant to the same position on the laboratory cast. Impression copings can be
either screwed into the implant body or screwed or snapped onto an implant
abutment.
51. Simple questions on implants like distance from adjacent tooth and the implant
1.5mm
52. Distance from the ant loop and the implant which is 5mm
53. During IANB bleeding is caused due to puncture into which artery – inferior alveolar
artery
54. Two questions on ideal resto material for a class v lesion but this patient was young
and had an active caries condition (I was shocked to see this question repeat twice
with minor formation changes) - According to DD: glass ionomer is indicated in high
caries risk and CLASS V where esthetics is a concern, so I would go with GIC.
55. Two questions on the incision for int bevel in which direction is it directed - the internal
bevel incision (reverse bevel) starts at a distance from the gingival margin and is
aimed at the bone crest.
56. Which of the following cements should not be used with all ceramic restorations due
to reports of ceramic fractures? 1. Gic 2. Resin luting cement 3. Zinc phosphate
cement 4. Resin modified GIC
57. Same went for gingivectomy (same q on where is the incision directed) - above
mucogingival junction .
58. Why do we remove bone during modified widman flap - to achieve a good tissue
adaptation to the neck of the teeth.
59. Which type of comp are used for two cases posterior comp and for repairing small
occlusal defects (micro, mid, macro, etc ) - Microhybrids - they have particular size
small enough to polish to a shine similar to microfills but large enough to be highly
filled, thus achieving higher strength. Particle size small enough to polish and high
strength. Retain good properties of hybrids (strength), with improved handling.
Polishability almost equal to microfills. Universal use—anterior and posterior
restorations.
- Microfills: high polishability but low fracture toughness (esthetic areas, anterior
restorations), lower elastic modulus—better in class V situations.
- Hybrids: not high polish but improved physical properties compared to microfills.,
Universal use—anterior and posterior restorations.
- Macro filled composites: First-generation” restorative composites. Poor physical and
mechanical properties. Poor esthetics.

60. Why don’t we do posterior comp - because of its low wear resistance we don’t do
posterior composite in cases of bruxism.
61. Dentist does a comp but shade is too light what is the most conservative mngmt
which acc to my opnion was apply tint and not redo the entire restoration – tint
62. Simple q like chisel cuts - used mainly to cut enamel
63. A lot of questions on mngmt of hypertension like wha drug for mild cases, what drug
for sever cases or htn emergency:
- Mild hypertension: CHLOROTHIAZIDE (thiazides), diuretics, beta-blockers such as
PROPRANOLOL, alpha1 blockers such as ATENOLOL, centrally acting adrenergic drugs
such as METHYLDOPA or CLONIDINE, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors such as
CAPTOPRIL, LISINOPRIL.
- Severe hypertension: GUANETHIDINE and ganglionic blocking agents.
64. What not to give in COPD emergency mnmgt which acc to my opinion was only
oxygen (other options had a potent bronchodilator along whith o2 which is the way
to go) – True, inhalation of 100% oxygen is contraindicated in a patient w/ COPD
65. Montelukast and zakirlucast what type of drugs in relation to their effect on
leukotriene - Block leukotriene (cys-LT1) receptors
66. Simple calculations in LA (based upon normal values and how much to give i the give
case, how much epi is present in x carpule ).
67. Effect of age on biotransformation of the drug (this was a bouncer for me)- W/ age ->
slower rate of biotransformation and reduced rates of elimination - Children will
inactivate and eliminate medications faster than adults. In the elderly there may be a
diminished dose requirement for many medications because of age-related
decreases in liver mass, hepatic enzyme activity, and hepatic blood flow.
68. If one increases the h2o to powder ratio what does it do with relation to hardness and
expansion (this is for gypsum) - decreased setting expansion and decreased strength
(increased setting time)
69. What property of a cement is not affected by water to powder ratio options were
solubility, consistency, thickness, etc
70. What would one prefer distal rest or mesial rest…. always go for mesial rest - mesial to
edentulous area.
 71. Sulcular depth req for lingual bar - depth = 7-8 mm minimum
At least 4 mm below the gingival margins
72. Most rigid type of maxi major connector - anterior-posterior palatal strap
73. Question on migrane with how the TRIPTANS work - Triptans are agonists at serotonin 5-
HT(1b/1d) receptors - serotonin 5-HT agonist antimigraine drugs (Mosby)
74. Pt with symptoms of headache fatigue fever and vision loss… the only sane option
was temporal arteritis – True: weight loss, polymyalgia, rheumatic, fever, decreased
vision, jaw claudication. (Mosby)
75. Supernumerary teeth with intestinal polps and osteomas (Gardners syndrome) - True
76. Unstimulated flow from submandibular salivary gland - 0.1ml/minute
77. Ant flabby tissue under maxi cd and mandi ant natural teeth combination syndrome
or kellys syndrome – True
78. Pka with rate of onset, lipid solubility with bioavailability of a drug (two questions on
that)
79. Sign of kidney failure which will levels will shoot the earliest blood: uric acid, creatinine,
creatinine phosphokinase, urea, etc - creatinine
80. Q on when to treat patient with respect to dialysis: one day after his dialysis.
81. Commonly used nsaid in kids is: ibuprofen
82. Acetaminophen acts on temp centre in hypothalamus thus causing its anti pyretic
effect, options were supposed to confuse us to choose prostaglandins. Hypothalamus
-> temperature regulation center.
83. Then the same old same old question was asked as to if a patient has basal cel
carcinoma and you are about to break the news to him and he says that just tell me
straight do i have cancer or not, first response should be should i cal someone to be
with you, the other option which made sense was that prognosis of basal cell is good
but this shoudnt be the anser in my opnio as the patient is in a grumpy mood and you
need to calm him down first before going on to discuss the details with him).
84. Advantage of led light cure with respect to haolge - energy efficient, lightweight,
lifetime bulb.
85. What is the first stage of HIV infection, i went for asymptomatic phase as that’s the first
stage followed by acute infection, aids related complex which as hairy tongue,
leukoplakia, and other stuff and lastly full blown AIDS.
86. Dementia early sign short term loss or long term loss… i went with short term as one of
my family member suffered from it so i remembered it crystal clear.
87. Autism patient will have problem with listening and speaking there was a q on that
too - Delay in several skill areas as talking, listening, plating with peers, and attention
span.
88. Denture considerations in patients with diabetes like use porcelain teeth, arch shape
should be narrow, imp with non pressure tech rest of the points are given in decks…
the question was on arch shape
89. One opg with a radio lucency extending from post mand to ant, the sane option was
OKC and the confusing options were ameloblastoma, but since ameloblastoma
spreads labiolingually rather than ant post - OKC - antero-posterior direction without
bony expansion and often associated with impacted tooth.
90. One more pano with radiolucency seen with unerrupted tooth and the only sane
option was dentigerous cyst - It contains a crown of an unerupted tooth (DD)
91. Cause of ORN which had two conf options like bisphos and 42 gy , i went with bisphos
as 42 gy is susceptible and more than 60 gy means he has high chances but bisphos is
For 90. I got a very similar senario, impacted 3rd molar in close proximity to the 2nd Molar,
I thought dentigrous cyst, but in the statement they tell u the histopathology reveals that this
lesion is surrounded by epithelium, If u look very close u will notice the lesion is only on one
side of the impacted tooth and It’s related to the root of the 2nd Molar
 like the principal cause that’s y it was called BRONJ but now they have changed it to
MRONJ which is medically induced orn – FALSE: osteoradionecrosis (ORN) is related to
head and neck radiation and BRONJ is bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the
jaw - related to intravenous and oral bisphosphonates therapy. If the case is about
ORN the answer is not bisphosphonates. If the question is about BRONJ or MRONJ the
answer should be bisphosphonates.
92. Base value for good patient relation is: communication should be good
93. Same follow up on this question was active listening is done by active eye contact.
94. Never judge a patient …this was the q and a never what …. (and the only sane
option was) judge
95. Plz do all the interferences and wht cusps occlude with what during maximum
intcusptn… there is a nice video on youtube called fence diagram video which i had
done during part one that helped me a lot.
96. Very little qs on ortho mostly with cephalometrics angles like sna snb and stuff bc they
were kept in store for day two
97. Dist between casette/grid and the collimator for a lateral ceph 15cm, 60 cm, 5 inch, 6
inch (as per i remember these were the options, but i just randomly gussed this one ).
Answer was 5 ft
98. One pano of a kid and dental age was asked
99. Supernumerary teeth occurs due to problem in what stage of tooth development ans
was: initiation
100. Basic questions on space maintainers like loss of uni first primary molar what does
one give – Band and loop
101. Class v cavity punch the hole on rubber dam more bucally - True
102. Same for gold restoration use 212 ivory clamp - clamp #212 for CLASS V facial
preparation
103. Same for teeth who bear clamps the hole should be bigger than the rest - hole
punched larger than usual and slightly to the facial of the other holes in the arch. - BB
104. Intrusion of primary maxi central 5mm inside what to do splint it or leave and
follow up and allow to re-erupt.
105. Most common cause of amalgam failure imp prep or moisture contamination
106. Bur to polish porcelain is diamond
107. Question on what type of dentin shouldn’t be removed during prep which is
eburnated dentin - True - we don’t remove sclerotic = eburnated dentin
108. One question which i don’t remember very clearly but it was on the fact that
never do pulpo on closed apex – True, pulpotomy is indicated on undeveloped
primary roots.
109. One thing we cant see clearly on 2d image is missed canal or extra canal which
requires CBCT - Dental cone beam computed tomography (CT) … but the way this
was put was confusing but once i read it carefully i could break it down .
110. Le forte 1 was with max sinus
111. Plz do all the elevators carefully, i got a question saying which of these can’t be
used for mandi pm and the only sane option was 151 – False: #151 is for mandibular
pm, we can’t use #23 because it is for mandibular molars.
112. You need to adjust the denture near bucca frenum as the denture keeps on
falling when the patient smiles… this is due to which muscle – Because it’s maxillary it
should be orbicularis. Buccal frenum -> triangularis (mandibular), Labial frenum ->
orbicularis (mandibular and maxillary).
113. For implant the instrument specification is: low speed and high torque
114. One question on bundling with the same scenario as dentist charging a
procedure as one whe and the insurance company charging it as two different
procedures - I think it’s unbundling -> separating of a dental procedure into
component parts.
115. Stippling is seen on: Attached gingiva
116. You did a prep with high speed and diamond bur, tooth is sensitive, what is it
about bur and handpiece that it caused sensitivity? A) Desiccation b) traumatized
dentin c) Heat
117. What is lithium used for? Psychotic stage of bipolar
118. 8yrs old girl with ant crossbite, max laterals have not erupted yet. When and how
do you treat crossbite? I put immediate tx and some appliance with springs
119. Same girl, supposedly there’s a supernumerary not erupted next to 6, what can
happen when u extract it? A-necrosis of 6 B- necrosis of 7 C-necrosis of 8 D-7 won’t
erupt
120. Benzo overdose? Flumazanil
121. Flumazenil what for? Reverse benzodiazepines
122. Tooth most with dry socket. – mandibular 3rd molar
123. Pvs and latex interaction - sulfur in the latex retards the setting of addition silicone
materials.
124. What does major connector does? Rigidity and Stability
125. Width of palatal strap - I put 8mm not sure, (single palatal strap its width is more
than 8mm)
126. How do u compensate protrusion in articulator something like that. I put slide
forward 5-8mm
127. Lesion hard and painful near lower pm. Options fibroma, neurofibroma, traumatic
neuroma. They didn’t say that pt had denture. (Traumatic neuroma = painful /
Neurofibroma = asymptomatic)
128. Lesion on tongue: Pyogenic granuloma, Ectopic thyroid gland, Giant ossifying
fibroma (Pyogenic granuloma = 75% on gingiva / Giant ossifying fibroma = exclusive
to gingiva / Ectopic thyroid gland = base of tongue) - it's provably pyogenic
granuloma because pyogenic granulomas are also found on the tongue, BUT! Keep
in mind that neurilemoma (schwannoma) is an encapsulated mass that presents as
an asymptomatic lump and the tongue is the most common location.
129. Hemangioma on tongue – hamartoma
130. Pt with aids what do u ask? Cd4 or viral count – T-cell counts are most important
for staging the disease and guiding dental treatment. (Kaplan Cases)
131. New pt upset, crossing arms, looking at floor. What do u ask after introduction
-What brings u here today?
132. Pointer in facebow, what for – designed to mark anterior reference point
(infraorbital notch) and can be locked in position with a clamp. It is present in the
arbitrary facebow.
133. Saturation -Chroma –hue –value
134. What albuterol causes -risk of caries -dry mouth (chronic use of albuterol is known
to cause xerostomia).
135. What not to give in asthmatic attack? We give: 1st oxygen w/ beta2-adrenergic
agonist (albuterol, terbutaline). If resistant to beta agonists => Theophylline. We can
also give corticosteroids. Epi is only for severe asthmatic attack.
136. Heart rate in child - 110
137. Max dose of Tylenol – 4g (4000 mg per 24 hours)
138. Tylenol kids: 10-15 mg/Kg dose every 4-6h
139. Kid is 65 pounds, how many carpules of lido? 1-3
140. ANB of 5.1 what skeletal class is - Class II (ANB >4 = Class II)
141. SNA of 87 and SNB of 81 what it means - Skeletal class II – prognathic maxilla
142. Pt wants dentures. For tx, pt had 2 and 3, 22, 24, 24, 25, 27, 32. 18 What is
unnaceptable do for tx plan option. There were different types of options with
implants, fpd, etc. I put extraction of all teeth
143. Tylenol which schedule - Sch 3 if with codeine (Tylenol 3)
144. Need of sinus lift for ext of ant upper teeth? False!
145. What pain med for patient with apnea - Nevertheless, patients with OSA who
undergo surgical procedures should receive regional analgesia and non-opioid
agents (e.g., NSAIDs) if there are no contraindications for their use.
146. Disadvantage of NO2 - It is not a complete pain reliever (a local anesthetic is still
required), nausea is the most common patient complaint, and diffusion hypoxia can
occur.
147. What could cause unilateral class II molar? Early extraction of A (max 2nd molar)
Early unilateral loss of a deciduous second molar is likely to cause the developing
dentition to be crowded as the first permanent molar will drift or tip mesially.
148. 0.1% chlorhexidine gel. Where do u use it?
Interproximal caries
Root Erosion
Occlusal amalgam with minor open margin
149. Goal of GTR? - Coronal movement of PDL - regenerate the periodontum,
promoting growth of endothelial cells, osteblasts and cementoblasts (NOT EPITHELIAL
CELLS)
150. What no to do on D of 3rd molar is there’s not enough keratinized tissue? I put
Distal wedge
151. What anxiolytic for pregnant and breastfeeding – Promethazine
152. DMFT for what study? Community trials (epidemiological)
153. Who has more diabetes? Black males
154. Perio doesn’t depend on nutritional - T
155. In class III kennedy where do u get support and retention from? Entirely tooth
supported (abutments) – Rests and bases for support
156. Pt with porcelain and amalgams, what fluoride to give? Neutral NaF
157. Most common anomaly? DI (after cleft palate)
158. First pass metabolism – Liver (enteral – oral)
159. Teeth joined by dentin and cementum? Fusion
160. What pain med for liver toxicity? Oxycodone
161. What pain for pt with bleeding problems? Acetaminophen
162. Ginseng not with? Aspirin
163. Advantage of IV – Titration
164. Reverse epinephrine by – Phentolamine (selective alpha blocker phentalomine,
phenoxybenzamine, prazosin)
165. Epi works on which receptor: all alpha and beta
166. First side effect of beta blocker - weakness or drowsiness (The most common
adverse side effects of beta blockers are WEAKNESS & DROWSINESS) - BB
167. Which Anesthesia without epi – Mepivacaine
168. Allergic to both ester and amide what to give – Diphenhydramine (Benadril)
169. EMLA composed of which two type of anesthesia - Lido 2.5 % and 2.5% prilocaine
170. Which Anesthesia not with anemia – prilocaine
171. Anesthesia not vasodilator – Cocaine
172. Why anesthesia not work in inflammation - Less free base
173. First nerve affect by LA - Small unmyelinated (pain and temperature)
174. Which trimester contraindicate the No2 -1st
175. Most Caries where? Max 1st molar (according to Kaplan)
176. Overdose of LA what to give – diazepam (for toxicity)
177. Antagonist of diazepam – flumazenil
178. Problem in liver which benzo to give - LOT- lorazepam, oxazepam n temazepam
179. Buspirone which receptor works in – Serotonin - BUSPIRONE (BUSPAR) - a minor
tranquilizer orally administered anxiolytic (anti-anxiety agent) whose mechanism works
by DIMINISHING SEROTONERGIC ACTIVITY. - BB
180. Best anti epileptic for absence seizure – Ethosuxemide
181. LA contra with which drug: MOA - LA with epi contra with MAO inhibitors, also
with TCA – Epi contraindicated w/ Levodopa.
182. Omeprazol used for (GERD or zollinger)? – GERD
183. Remember all the antibiotics effect on protein synthesis - Clinda, macrolides,
tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol know that its
184. Most common side effect of clindamycine is - Psudomembranous colitis
caused by
185. Mech of action of nystatin - inhibit ergosterol
186. Which drug increase the effect of amoxicillin – Probenecid clostridium
187. Drug not with milk – Tetracycline difficile
188. All of these are antipsychotic exept (lorazepam) - T
189. Drug not with cimetidine – Terfenadine (Seldane) (dangerous drug interaction) –
Cimetidine: a potent inhibitor of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes.
190. Drugs known to interact with SELDANE are ketoconazole (NIZORAL), erythromycin
(E-MYCIN), nefazodone (SERZONE), itraconazole (SPORANOX), clarithromycin
(BIAXIN), mibefradil (POSICOR) as well as grapefruit juice.
191. Eps (Extrapyramidal syndrome) with which drug except: clozapine - Effectively
treats Schizophrenia and more effective & less toxic than the older drugs. - BB
192. Aspirin cuz all except (hyperpnea / tacypenia / hyperkalemia / hyperthermia) – It
causes hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
193. Tx of motion sickness – scopolamine
194. Tx of myasthenia gravis – pyridostigmine (edrophonium just for diagnosis) -
Neostigmine or Pyridostigmine - are cholinesterase inhibitors used to reverse the NMJ
blockade (paralysis) caused by NMJ blockers. - BB
195. Edrophonuim all true except (cause dry mouth) – Edrophonium is an indirect-
acting cholinergic agonist (cholinomimetic). Drug of choice to "diagnose" myasthenia
gravis because of its rapid onset of action and reversibility.
196. Which drug is safe in Myesthenia Gravis (a) Penicillin (b) Erythromycin (c)
Clarithromycin (d) IIDR
197. Tx of xerostomia due to radiation – Pilocarpine
198. Overdose of organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor – Pralidoxime
199. Dont use cortisone in (all the answer were contraindicate so I picked all)
200. Mech of action of diltiazem - Calcium channel blockers useful as anti-anginal
agents to treat chronic stable angina pectoris by blocking calcium entry through the
 membranous calcium ion channels of cardiac and vascular smooth muscle. -
Calcium channel blockers that prevent angina attacks by dilating coronary blood
vessels to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. - Calcium channel blockers
decrease oxygen demand by reducing afterload by reducing peripheral resistance
via vasodilation.
201. Contra for use digoxin – Diuretics (will inc digitalis toxicity), also contraindicated in
ventricular fibrillation & ventricular tachycardia.
202. Mech of action of heparin - potentiation of Antithrombin III, thus inactivating
thrombin. This prevents the formation of fibrin. – BB
203. The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin is to interfere with the
convertion of: 1. PTA t PTC 2. PTC to factor VII 3. Fibrinogen to fibrin – (ASDA) 4.
Prothrombin to thrombin 5. Proaccelerin to accelerin.
204. Aldosterone antagonist – Spironolactone – Spironolactone a pharmacologic
antagonist of aldosterone in the collecting tubule. Spironolactone competes with
aldosterone receptor sites in the renal tubules causing increased secretion of Na+, CI,
and H20, while conserving K+. - BB
205. Cyp34A u should know how drug effect on it, from dd only - Inhibitors are
antifungals, increase triazolam serum concentration. Cytochrome P450 3A4
(abbreviated CYP3A4, is an important enzyme in the body, mainly found in the liver
and in the intestine. It oxidizes small foreign organic molecules (xenobiotics), such as
toxins or drugs, so that they can be removed from the body. – Wiki
206. Which drugs affect cytochrome P450 metabolism of other drugs? erythromycin
lowers cytochrome P450 metabolism of other drugs, Macrolid ABs, antifungual,
cimetidine
207. Tx of glaucoma by: betaxolol – Pilocarpine, Betaxolol, Latanoprost, Bimatoprost
208. Overdose of lead tx by - EDTA by chelation (Mosby)
209. Modafinil decreases GABA to improve what – glutamate (Modafinil decreases
GABA and increases glutamate, dopamine, and orexin)

210. Overdose of morphine tx by – Naloxone (Opioid adverse effects are reversed &
recovery hastened by administration of Naloxone (Narcan) an opioid antagonist.)
211. Only opioid transmucosal is – Fentanyl
212. Side effects of opioid - sedation, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, constipation,
physical dependence, tolerance, and respiratory depression.
213. Common Side Effects OF OPIOIDS: sedation and drowsiness (by depressing the
conscious centers of the brain), dizziness, & nausea. The MOST common side effect of
the narcotic (opiate) analgesics is NAUSEA. Narcotic analgesics DO NOT cause peptic
ulcers (steroids) or insomnia. - BB
214. Light pass through to through? (craze line / crack)
215. Not in the first line of tx of periodontists? (antibiotic/surgery)
216. Not feature of modify Widman flap? (displace/no reduce of osseous defect)
217. Most common cause of amalgam failure is? contamination
218. Doing FMX and u charged the patient for each one is: unbundling
219. If u reject null hypothesis and p = 0.08 (type 1 error)
220. Wheelchair (I picked something with sliding) - Important points: 1. Two people
required for shifting patient. 2. Do not pull patient from behind chair. 3. Lock chair
wheels before shifting. - Sliding board is the best

Q about a doctor who sent to the insurance different bills for build up and crown and the
insurance told him the build up is part of crown procedure… the insurance here is right
and the dentist is at fault, thus the answer is Unbundiling
221. Child with furcation involve in tooth number E best treatment is (extraction)? –
According to Mosby à if it is a restorable 2nd primary molar and there is no root
resorption, tx of choice is pulpectomy. We need to know the child’s age too. If it is a
1st molar w/ furcation involvement then we talk about extraction.
222. Best test to test tooth with crown (cold test)
223. Worst media to save avulsion tooth (water)
224. Union between two teeth by the mean of cementum is (concrescense)
225. Stimulated salivary flow (1ml/min)-1L in 24h
226. Unstimulated (0.1ml/min) no 0.2 or 0.3
227. Trapezoidal mouth and shovel incisor? Apert - Oral manifestations of Apert
syndrome includes trapezoidal shaped mouth, shovel shaped incisors, Byzantine arch
shaped palate, severely delayed eruption, severe crowding and ectopic eruption. -
BB
228. Baby bottle decay affect mostly (max ant)
229. Most common cause of sealant failure - Contamination with saliva
230. Most beneficiated tooth with sealants? Maxillary 1st molar
231. NaF for how many minutes should be applied – 4 minutes
232. Most common congenital missing primary tooth – primary maxillary lateral
incisors
233. Missing permanent - Most common congenitally missing tooth is the mandibular
second premolar (excluding 3rd molars), followed by the lateral incisor, followed by
the maxillary second premolar (Mosby)
234. Most common primary ankylosed tooth? Primary 2nd mandibular molar – now
you know why J
235. The smallest primary tooth is - Primary mandibular lateral incisor
236. Mesial cusp ridge is longer than distal one in - Maxillary 1st pm, also in primary
max canine.
237. Which stage abnormality may cause peg shape lateral – bell stage
(morphodifferentiation)
238. Two canals mostly in which pm - maxillary 1st pm
239. EDTA I picked can remove THIN calcification not any calcification (Thin layer of
calcification)
240. Question about pulp diagnosis (pain on percussion) not respond to thermal (I
picked d) A: abscess with irreversible pulpitis B:reverible pulpitis C:periodontitis D: non
of above
241. No generation after endo for: dentin
242. Remineralized enamel is harder and darker – T
243. 245 longer than 330 – T
244. Change amalgam to composite (I picked veracity) - T
245. Class 2 caries triangle and the apex to the pulp – T
246. Cusp reduction resistance form – T
247. Most lab complain from: under prepared – T
248. Composite and bleaching wait 1 week before composite – T
249. Ameloblastoma from okc (light microscope)
250. Which of these will not cause SICKLE CELL anemia crisis – NO2
251. Stridor (larangyospasm)
252. Seizure due to (hypo-Na) - hypoNAtremia
253. Initiator of light cure?? 1/Camphoroquinone 2/ benzyl peroxide
254. Albuterol side effect? tremor, anxiety, headache, muscle cramp, DRY MOUTH,
tachycardia.
255. Albuterol side effects except? a. excess salivation b. tachycardia c. diarrhea. d.
CNS stimulation.
256. Ledronate use in treat which disease - Pagets, osteoporosis
257. N2o side effect: Nausea and vomiting
258. Pt on Biophosphonate what to do? endo
259. With the increase in age, keratinization of the gingiva: decreases
260. Width of attached gingiva with age – increases
261. 40 years male how to correct cross bite ? Surgery
262. Not feature of modify Widman flap (displace/no reduce of osseous defect) – bony
defects can be curetted (Oxford)
263. Most common respiratory problem in dental clinic (hyperventilation / no asthma
in the choices)
264. Target in x Ray? anode and tungsten
265. Dementia? Short term memory loss
266. Amantadine: antiviral (influenza A) and antiparkinsonian drug.
267. ADHD? Which drug – Amphetamine (Adderall) and methylphenidate (Ritalin)
268. Large composit and acceptable appearance what to do? Tint
269. More affect perio? Smoking
270. Distobuccal complete denture? Masseter
271. 0.01? Type 1 error
272. Least Ab use? Chronic perio
273. Lisinopril moa? Inhibition of the Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme. Angiotensin-
Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor: interfere with the conversion of Angiotensin I
(weak vasoconstrictor) into Angiotensin II (highly effective vasoconstrictor that
simulates the release of Aldosterone) by inhibiting the Angiotensin-Converting
Enzyme. - BB
274. What will not set off an event in a child with sickle disease: Trauma, Cold,
Infection, Nitrous oxide
275. Will have wavelength ? HUE
276. Pt mouth breather? Open bite
277. Most tooth affect perio? Max molar (Max 1st molar – most difficult)
278. Distance btw Implants? 3mm
279. Down syndrom = Macroglossia
280. ANUG treatment – debridement, hydrogen peroxide (or warm saline) rinses, and
antibiotic therapy (penicillin V) ONLY if there is systemic involvement (i.e. fever,
malaise, lymphadenopathy). Patients with HIV-associated ANUG require gentle
debridement and antimicrobial rinses.
281. Max sinus x Ray? Waters, Ct, Both in op
282. Lefort 1? Max sinus involvement
283. Atenolol which receptor? Atenolol (Tenormin) - competitive b1 cardioselective
antagonist that blocks b1 receptors to treat hypertension, chronic angina pectoris, or
after a heart attack (MI recovery).
284. Flouride which ion? OH- ion (hydroxil ion)
285. The color of gingiva is due to: A. Capillaries B. Thickness of epithelium C.
Thickness of keratinization and pigmentation D. All of the above
286. While u taking pano u patient move? Horizontal overlap
287. Junctional epithelium: Is permeable
288. Least test for recent Truma ? EPT
289. Most common cause of xerostomia? Medication
290. Dentogingival unit comprises of: Gingival fibers and junctional epithelium
291. Free gingival groove represents: Histologic depth of gingival sulcus
292. Which type of cells are most numerous in gingiva? Keratinocytes
293. Gingiva is supplied by: Supraperiosteal vessels
294. The junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth by: Basal lamina
295. Gingiva is attached by: Junctional epithelium
296. The length of junctional epithelium is: 0.25-1.35 mm
297. Least width of attached gingiva is found on the facial aspect of: First premolar
298. Normal consistency of gingiva is: A. Soft B. Hard C. Firm D. Firm and leathery
299. Gingiva in children: Less keratinized, less stippled
300. Eulanin fibers are found in: A. Gingiva B. Cementum C. Alveolar D. Periodontal
ligament
301. The function of Langerhan's cells is: Antigen presentation to lymphocytes
302. Langerhan's cells are absent in: Junctional epithelium
303. Which periodontal fibers are consistent and are reconstructed even after the
destruction of the alveolar bone? Transeptal
304. In periodontal ligament, there is: type I collagen
305. Periodontal ligament is: narrower on mesial surface
306. The periodontal ligament: contains epithelial cells of Malassez
307. PDL is thinnest at: Middle
308. What type of fibers are principal fibers of PDL? Collagenous
309. Periodontal fibers which are most resistant to forces along the long axis are:
Oblique
310. The thixotropic theory claims that: The periodontal ligament has the rheologic
behavior of a thixotropic gel
311. Alveolar bone is: Compact bone
312. Anatomic form of roots of teeth is determined by:
Hertwig's root sheath
313. “Indifferent fibers" are: Collagen fibers
314. With aging, changes in periodontal ligament are:
A. Decrease in number of cells and increase in collagen fibers
B. Increase in number of cells and decrease in collagen fibers
C. Increase in number of elastic fibers
D. Hyalinization changes
315. Feature of aging periodontium is: Scalloping of
cementum and alveolar bone surface
316. Unattached gingiva: A. is interdental gingiva B. is below
mucogingival fold C. cannot be separated by probe
D. is marginal gingiva
317. A black line on the gingiva which follows the contour of the margin is due to:
A. lead B. Argyria C. Iron D. Mercury
318. Basal lamina consists of: Type IV collagen fibers
319. Cementum found on the cervical third of the root is: Acellular extrinsic fiber
cementum
320. The cell that is present in stratum spinosum and stratum basale is: Melanocytes
321. What make penicillin allergic - Beta lactame ring
322. Space loss after loss of which primary tooth - Mand 2nd molar
323. Composite discolored but intact what to do - Redo or polish (go w/ Tint if in
options)
324. What happen if temp of developing solution is too high - Dark
325. When you put occlusal rest set of direct reatiner mesial or distal to edentulous
area? mesial
326. Inc water powder ratio in gypsum does what: Decreased setting expansion,
Decreased strength, increase working/setting time (retards the time)
327. Which bur is not good for porcelain – Carbide
328. Advantage of implant over fix partial denture
329. Best way to dec fear of child – TSD
330. Best way to dec fear of child ..I said sit down to child's level
331. Dentist ask a child u want me to help you to sit on the chair ...how to define this
situation: one option was perceived helplessness
332. Tooth most involved in VRF - Mand 1st molar
333. Advantage of stainless steel over ni titanium – strength
334. Ledge what to do - bypass it and continue
335. Collagenase and elastase by which bacteria - Porphyromonas gingivalis
336. LOW WEAR RESISTANCE is the property of filled resins that is primarily to blame for
the failure of Class II composite restorations – T
337. Common reason for failure of composite in posterior - Saliva contamination or
occlussal wear (recurrent caries according to other books)
338. Anterior teeth heavily damaged what do you do - PFM or all ceramic crown
339. What can't be used as retainers in FPD: inlay
340. Primary tooth with shortest occlusal table - Upper primary first molar
341. Pt came back after a month with discolored margins what could be the reason –
microleakage
342. Pt came back after 3 day with discolored margins on veneer what could be the
reason - Amine or micro-leakage or bacteria
343. Function of post - Retain core
344. Why you record protusive relationship - to adjust condylar guidance
A protrusive record registers the anterior-inferior condyle path at one particular point in
the translatory movement of the condyles. - Mosby
345. A dentist is preparing all maxillary anterior teeth for metal-ceramic crowns. Which
of the following procedures is necessary to preserve and restore anterior guidance?
A. Protrusive record B. Template for provisional restorations C. Custom incisal guide
table D. Interocclusal record in centric relation - Anterior guidance must be preserved
by means of construction of a custom incisal guide table, especially when restorative
procedures change the surfaces of anterior teeth that guide the mandible in excursive
(lateral, protrusive) movements. - Mosby
346. Where to place retentive arm - Retentive terminal alone below ht of contour at
junction of middle and gingival third (FB group discussion) / Gingival one third of
crown in measured undercut (Mosby) - The reciprocal clasp should contact the tooth
on or above the height of contour of the tooth (Middle one third of crown).
347. Reciprocal arm what for – Stabilization (resistance of horizontal forces),
reciprocation, and auxiliary indirect retention (bracing). Placed on Suprabulge area.
348. Reciprocal anchorage? - Elastics to close diastema? No
- Reciprocal tooth movement—two equal anchorage value teeth or groups of teeth
(units) are moved against each other and move the same amount toward or away
from each other.
- Reinforced anchorage—adding additional teeth to a unit to distribute the force over a
greater area and slowing the movement of the anchor unit. Another method for
reinforcing anchorage would be extraoral force, such as with headgear, with
interarch elastics, or by using an implant.
349. Behaviour modifiaction definition? Behavior modification is a treatment
approach, based on the principles of operant conditioning, that replaces undesirable
behaviors with more desirable ones through positive or negative reinforcement.
350. Child lives in fluoridated area he had a lot of plaque what do you suggest - More
systemic fluoride or topical fluoride or fissure sealants.
351. Topical antifungal options fluconazole clotrimazole miconazole griseofulvin
352. Antifungal that can be topical and systemic. fluconazole clotrimazole
miconazole, griseofulvin - Miconazole Therapeutic Uses: is an azole antifungal drug
available for topical and systemic administration - BB
353. Does premedications required options were cardiac stent murmurs pt had knee
replacement within 2years or congestive heart failure or recent MI
354. Bacteria present in gingiva in ANUG when tissue is not necrosis - Spirochete or
P.interdemdia (P intermedia only, necrosis assoc with spirochete- DD).
355. Pt is having asymptomatic brown macules on buccal mucosa - Increase melanin
or melanocyte proliferation. - “Melanotic macules: These lesions can also occur within
the oral cavity, commonly gingiva, buccal mucosa or palate. The cause increased
melanin production with NO increase in melanocyte number.”
356. Least resistant to fracture - Leiutic or feldspathic
357. How morphine cause nausea - Centrally acting right ? – True
358. Probing depth is 5 and prob pass 2 mm apical from CNJ how much is the
attachment loss – 2 mm
359. Which structure is damaged during free gingival flap surgery taken from palate:
Greater palatine artery or nerve
360. The reason of high pressure in pregnant women – Pre-eclampsia
361. After IAN block patient gets infection of which space – Ptergomandibular
(masticatory) or messeter or lateral pharyngeal or medial ptergoid
362. A lot of translucency on pontics gingival 3rd what is the reason- wrong shade
selection or wrong metal thickness or inadequate preparation
363. Excessive translucency of the gingival 1/3 of an anterior metal ceramic pontic is
caused by: 1. Inadequate framework design 2. Error in shape selection 3. Poor ridge
contour. 4. The palladium content in the gold alloy.
364. On x-ray of max tooth RL between the margin of a crown and tooth on distal
proximal surface. The reason of RL can be all, except: resin, cervical burn, cervical
caries. (Other options I do not remember).
365. Preloading of implant whats the major concern – Torque
366. Pt wit gag needs to take x ray? How to manage that - Systematic desensitization
or graded exposure
367. Folic acid intake in pat for? – no answer options - Folic acid is commonly
prescribed for patients with sickle cell anemia to prevent development of
megaloblastic anemia - Folic acid to prevent neural tube defects.
368. Abscess can be released from perio pocket or not – YES
369. What do you say if patient ask about instrument sterilization - its according to
universal precautions
370. Gtr best for - GTR best for 3 wall defect and also class 2 furcation
371. Does anyone know from Class 1 till 4 furcation the treatment plan?
Class 1 furcation - good prognosis
Class 2 furcation – GTR
Class 3 furcation
....in maxilla - Root amputation
....in mandible - Hemisection
Class 4 furcation – Extract
372. Pain medication for alchoholic - Nsaid or oxycodone
373. Most common emergency in dental clinic - syncope
374. Most common resp emergency in clinic - hyperventilation
375. Function of major connector: Stability or rigidity.
376. Can we give lorazepam in liver disase? - LOT - lorazepam, oxazepam,
Temazepam - good when liver problems.
377. How to determine periodontal success - No bleeding on probing or establish
clinical attachment? - The BEST CRITERION to evaluate the success of SRP is NO
BLEEDING ON PROBING (since BOP indicates active inflammatory periodontal
disease). Amount of attachment loss is the most important factor in the determination
of a prognosis of a tooth with periodontal disease (more accurate than probing
depth, tooth mobility, and presence of furcation involvement). à Long term prognosis
= plaque
- Attachment loss à Prognosis of tooth w/ periodontal disease
- Bleeding on probing à periodontal success
- Plaque à Long term prognosis
378. TWO MOST CRITICAL FACTORS to determine the prognosis of a periodontally
involved tooth are MOBILITY & ATTACHMENT LOSS (the most critical).
379. Who review patient on maintenance after referral with periodontal treatment:
Dentist or hygienist or dental assistance.
380. Drug for neuogenic and manic disoder.. Tegretol (carbamazepine) or lithium
381. Viral load of HIV 10000 do you treat the patient or referral to specialist – refer
382. Abscess can be relieved thru perio pocket.T/F
383. Feeling of been in the doom - Panic attack or anxiety or simple fear
384. Tongue blade appliance is used in? – anterior cross bite
385. Pt recive blow to eye orbital floor less common to fracture t/False
386. Pt who took treatment for hep A before 3 years so he still contagious or NO
387. What drug (pain) you give to pt with renal failure: Tylenol nsaid codien morphine
388. Teeth with necrotic pulp and perio damage. Only RCT or perio treatment too?
Only RCT
389. At least 4mm of gutta-percha MUST remain to preserve the apical seal.
390. Face bow transfers relation of arches? In centric relation, In centric occlusion
391. Most common site(s) for contact stomatitis – Side of tongue, Hard palate, Gingiva,
All
392. Best radiograph for implant? CT scan. PA. MRI
393. How to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis in HIV patient - Topical or systemic,
(fluconazole). Esophageal and pharyngeal candidiasis is related with AIDS. Oral
candidiasis à topical antifungal (clotrimazole or nystatin). – Kaplan Cases
394. You have HIV+ pt you can do all of the followin except
a) treath with metronidozole
b) free gingival graft
c)prophylaxix to treat candidiasis
“Data from prospective controlled trials indicate that fluconazole can reduce the risk
of mucosal disease (i.e., oropharyngeal, esophageal, and vulvovaginal) in patients
with advanced HIV. However, routine primary prophylaxis is not recommended
because mucosal disease is associated with very low attributable morbidity and
mortality and, moreover, acute therapy is highly effective. Primary antifungal
prophylaxis can lead to infections caused by drug-resistant Candida species and
introduce significant drug-drug interactions. In addition long-term oral prophylaxis is
expensive. Therefore, routine primary prophylaxis is not recommended (AIII).”
395. Permanent tooth with largest occlusal table – maxillary first molar.
396. Epithelium comes from the donor site – T
397. Dexterity- Something to do with flossing -> 5 brush and 8 floss. If lack of dexterity
can’t do interproximal floss – T
398. Perio v/s endo abscess- pulp testing, lat percussion
399. Opaque porcelain function mask dark oxidized color – T
400. Methotrexate- anti cancer drug folic acid inhibitor – T
401. What is battery? Treatment without informed consent
402. Autonomy - Let the patient decide.
403. Ectodermal dysplasia oligodontia, sparse hair - anodontia or oligodontia,
depressed bridge of nose, lack of sweat glands, and the child appears much older
than he or she is. (DD)
404. Diabetes commonly found in which ethnicity? Black male
405. Periodontis most Common? Black male
406. What causes cervical discoloration of PFM copper, ag. Plaque
407. Flame shaped radiolucency above an unerupted third molar – pericoronaritis
408. Safe drug in pregnancy acetaminophen
409. Safe drug in breastfeeding promethazine
410. Prolonged use of Aspirin can cause metabolic acidosis
411. Fusion, Gemination - Fusion less number and gemination extra number or one big
crown, Fusion 2 buds fuse together and form one tooth.. from total no of teeth, there is
decrease in number.
412. Failure of which stage of tooth development affect Number of teeth – initiation
413. Size – morphodifferentiation (bell stage)
414. Which disease lead to MI - thrombosis(I pick atherosclerosis,but I think it is
thrombosis, other two wasn’t relate - (MI usually caused by thrombus formation)
415. Acute adrenal insufficiency : a. gingival hyperplasia b. cardiovascular collapse c.
hypotension d. ketoacidosis - ASDA
416. Low contrast- kvp (Long scale, low contrast, hight kvp)
417. Which doesn’t recur- AOT
418. Antibiotic treatment- LAP -> Tetra
419. Seizures grand mal phenytoin (and Carbamazepine – Tegretol)-
420. Petit mal – ethosuximide - Ethosuximide in the treatment of absence (petit mal)
seizures.
421. Overdose cocaine mydriasis
422. Overdose opioids miosis
423. Short clinical crown- what to do- read from prostho decks, proxy grooves if lack
F-L resistance (buccal – retention / proximal – resistance)
424. Pedunculated leision – papilloma
425. Dry socket sedative = dressing
426. Benzoyl peroxide decomposition by tertiary amine in chemically activated resin
self cured - a chemical activator like dimethyl-p-toluidine (a tertiary amine) is added
to the monomer (MMA) to decompose the benzoyl peroxide initiator into free
radicals.
427. Excess bilirubin in blood? kernicterus
428. Epi reversal? Phentolamine – Phentolamine (OraVerse) is used in dentistry to
reverse soft tissue anesthesia more quickly after procedures involving a local
anesthetic with a vasoconstrictor. Alpha adrenoceptor blockers, such as
phentolamine, inhibit the vasoconstrictor effect of epinephrine but not the vasodilator
effect of epinephrine. The administration of alpha blockers results in epinephrine
reversal. (Mosby)
429. Pt shows reaction to the LA vasoconstrictor so to recover the reactions u will
administer: Alpha 1 antagonist - the ZOSINSSSS
430. Which of the following drugs is most effective as an antidepressant?
a. Diazepam b. Reserpine c. Amitriptyline
431. Tricyclic antidepressants have a prominent side effect that most nearly resembles
the usual pharmacological action of a. Codeine b. Atropine ans c. Ephedrine
432. If you have two distribution that are asymmetrical that’s means a) normal
B) skewed is the ans c) bimodal
433. Meds not given to a pt who has epinephrine - MOA and Tricyclic antidepressant
(Also Levodopa)
434. Complication of temporal arteritis - blindness
435. Gtr best for – 3 narrow wall defect
436. If the patient has maxillary protrusion and we need to pull the maxillary backward
which we will use
a) straight pull gear b) cervical pull gear c) face bow d) reverse bull gear
Cervical-pull headgear à consists of a cervical neck strap (as anchorage) and a
standard facebow inserting into the headgear tube of the maxillary first molar
attachments. The objectives of treatment with these types of headgear are to restrict
anterior growth of the maxilla and to distalize and erupt maxillary molars. A MAJOR
DISADVANTAGE OF TREATMENT USING CERVICAL HEADGEAR IS POSSIBLE EXTRUSION OF
THE MAXILLARY MOLARS.
437. What make the reaction on the one that has monomer and activator that was
using it for prepaing the secondary impression on the study cast on the lap . its
activated by A) exothermic reaction b) MMA with the monomer
438. Gtr-- involves coronal movement of pdl
439. Antidepressants serotonin / SSRI-fluoxitene zoloft,both- SNRI TCA-->Amitryptilline
440. Pain medication for alchoholic – OXYCODONE
441. Fetal alcohol syndrome - Mid face deficiencies, cleft lip (Individuals with fetal
alcohol syndrome may have cleft lip with or without cleft palate)
442. Antibioticis of maythenia gravis – penicillin safe (erythro increases weakness)
443. If no enough space what tooth pop out of arch maxi and mand. – First premolars
444. B blockers - Glucagon
445. Acetamenophen - N Acetyl
446. Xylitol is best used anticariogenic when it's a: mouthwash, tablet, chewing gum,
varnish
447. Xylitol gum used for :- - DECREDSED SALIVATION (xerostomy) - PREVENT CARIES
448. FDA. determines which drugs are to be sold by prescription only: Schedulle 2 and
3 must have a written prescription. (The only difference is that class 2 cannot be
refilled whereas class 3 can be refilled even over the phone.)
449. Contraindication of RCT - vertical root fracture (also Uncontrolled DM, Recent MI,
Leukemia)
450. Resistance for short crown proximal grooves
451. Laser in periodontal diseases use for sulcular debridment
452. Meperidine? sintetic opioid, narcotic, less potent than morphine, more than
codiene, shorter duration of action, interaction with MOA can cause convulsions.
453. Which study can show incidence – descriptive (cross sectional shows prevalence
Cohort is for incidence)
454. Theory of stress and how affect immunity – Stress induce cortisol and reduce
immunity
455. Objective fear after previous painful stimulus (own experience)
Objective fear is one that you experience directly. If, for example, you had a painful
dental visit while having a tooth extracted; the next time you needed a tooth
extracted you would be fearful because of this prior experience. If you told your
friend about the bad experience and he needed a tooth extracted, and he had fear,
this would be subjective fear.
456. Thyroid crisis symptoms hyperT HR increased (High Bp, high body temperature,
persistant sweating tachycardia, high fever)
457. Hypoxia sign – cyanosis (Cyanosis and increase in pulse rate too - DD)
458. Signs of oxygen want 1. Cyanosis 2. Pulse rate decrease 3. Tachycardia
459. Antibiotic in gingiva tetracyclines
460. Wheelchair Q – sliding
461. How base metal prevent corrosion – chromium
462. What is the most common psych disorder? Depression
463. Leakage in amalgam decrease with age
464. Systemic desensitization - hierarchy of slowly increasing anxiety stimulus
465. 16 kg anasthesia calculation 70,4 mg
466. Most common emergency in dental clinic - asthma or syncope
467. Most common respiratory emergency it is hyperventilation (no asthma in options)
468. Most common respiratory emergency it is Asthma...I was so happy no
hyperventilation in the options
469. Primary stress bearing areas in dentures - max - primary ridge ...secondary rugae
mand - primary buccal shelf - and also primary if good ridge
470. Primary areas of support in max and mandibular. Thought we’re maxillary ridge
and buccal shelf for mand but options were not together: For mandibular complete
denture, the residual ridges if large and broad, are also considered primary support
areas.
471. In USA most dental pay is - out of pocket self pay
472. Which is more important? Chroma, value (value is VIP and choosing process is
HUE first then VALUE then CHROMA)
473. Which show saturation of color? – chroma
474. Radiation water lysis - Hydrolysis of water
475. Facebow transfer - hinge axis
476. Arcon vs non-acron - Arcon resembles tmj
477. Dental lamina appears at which week 6 th week
478. Distolingual extension of mand, denture which muscle sup constrictor
479. Incisal edge of anterior teeth touch where? vermilion border
480. Bur for burnishing porcelain = diamond
481. Sodium hypochloride does all except (Chelation)
482. Impresion material moisture tolerant – Polysulfides (because they are
hydrophobic).
483. Polyvinyl siloxanes - excellent DIMENSIONAL STABILITY and very low permanent
deformation.

484. Behcet's syndrome associated with aphthous ulcers

485. High school children have marginal gingivitis
486. Ginseng contraindicated with salicyclic acid
487. Erosion – GERD
488. Initiation: supernumerary/missing teeth
489. Bell - 2 types : morphodifferentiation: shape!!! histodifferetioation: d.imperfecta
a.imperfecta
490. Apposition: enamel hypoPLASIASSS
491. Moisture contamination in amalgam
a) Increases delayed expansion
b) Something related to amalgam strength
DELAYED EXPANSION of amalgam restorations is associated with insufficient trituration &
condensation, and amalgam contamination by moisture during trituration and
condensation (MAIN cause of failures). - BB
492. Central giant cell granuloma is seen with pts with condition of /?
Hyperparathyroidism - Brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism masquerading as central
giant cell granuloma in a renal transplant recipient.
493. Which cement causes irritation to pulp – zinc phosphate
494. Sialilitithiasis is found whew = warton duct (submandibular duct was as an oprtion)
- calcified mass or sialolith forms within a salivary gland, usually in the duct of the
submandibular gland (also termed "Wharton's duct").
495. Kid came to clinic touched everything and last he came to dentist and allowed
to keep probe in the mouth what the behavior? – Desensitization
496. Digoxin – it is used for congestive heart disease, atrial fibrillation and when you
drink in conjunction with diurectic can increase the toxicity of digoxin
497. Contraindication for nitrous oxide (nasal congestion)
498. Best place for implant ant mand
499. Solution to keep an avulsed tooth hanks worst -> water
500. Aplastic anemia -> chloramphenicol
501. Pseudomembranous colitis (clindamycin)
502. Therapeutic effect (safety)
503. No to do w asthm - Give Oxygen?? – We can give oxygen in asthma (acute
attack - give oxygen and albuterol / severe asthma ONLY – epinephrine) 0.3mg OF
1:1000 EPINEPHRINE SHOULD BE ADMINISTERED SUBCUTANEOUSLY
504. No contraindication w asthma - Nitrious oxide
505. Gingival graft contraindications (pocket below alveolar crest) – A FGG is used to
increase the zone of attached gingiva and possibility of gaining root coverage. NOT
used with DEEP WIDE RECESSIONS.
506. Gingival graft contraindicated when: a) pocket is below the alveolar crest b)
pocket is below free gingival groove c) excessive keratinized tissue
507. Which LA is good without vasoconstrictor? Mepi
508. Bipolar disorder lithium (LITHIUM - current drug of choice to treat the MANIC
PHASE of bipolar disorder)
509. On which receptors Epi works a1 a2 b1 b2. I choose a1 but not sure – We know it is
all but it affects beta receptors predominantly.
510. Morphine overdose = naloxone
511. Porcelain porosity = Inadequate condensation
512. Unbundling - when doctor describes the whole treatment in different parts,
separate charge code instead combine.
513. Most commonly used TCA Amitryptyline – AMITRIPTYLINE (ELAVlL) - the most widely
used TRICYCLIC ANTI-DEPRESSANT to treat unipolar disorder (depression).
514. Cocaine produces vomiting by = activating CTZ in brain
515. Ques about H1 and H2 receptor --> H1 smooth muscle, H2 gastrointestinal
516. Down Syndrome – macroglossia
517. Ectodermal dysplasia= scarce hair
518. Patient smokes pipe and has red bumps on palate= Nicotine stomatitis (hard
palate)
519. Arch discrepancy after loss of which tooth = Mand 2 nd molar - The premature
loss of the mandibular primary canine reflects insufficient arch size in the anterior
region.
520. Which is NOT used to inhibit salivary secretion = Pilocarpine
521. Osteogenesis imperfecta with = DI
522. Rapport active listening
523. Caries not depend on quantity of carbs
524. Radiograph id tip of the nose, external auditory meatus
525. Cavernous thrombosis infection via anterior triangle
526. Tooth mostly involved in perio relapse Max 2nd molar – Furcation involvement of
maxillary 2nd molar has the poorest prognosis following therapy / Trifurcation on
maxillary 1st molar are the most difficult of all to root plane (DD)
527. Warfarin test – INR/PT INR= Extrinsic pathway
528. Why you do not use fovea as indicator - it blocks minor salivary glands
529. Sausage like appearance on radiograph sialolithiasis or sialodenitis (I pick the first
one, not sure) – SIALODOCHITIS: within the gland sausage-link appearance.
Sialodochitis (also termed ductal sialadenitis), is inflammation of the duct system of a
salivary gland.
530. Antiretraction valves prevent cross contamination (between patients)
531. Hepatitis A positive can checked by
a) HBcg b) HBSg group c) no treatment d) alkaline triphostate - (Hep A infection is
identified by HAV-specific antibodies (IgM if acute, IgG if past disease)
532. Composite and bleaching wait 1 week before composite
533. Which is a characteristic of a gold inlay? A: Axial walls converge toward the
pulpal floor
534. Ortho treatment before veneer placement
535. By having excess amount of monomer in acrylic can create excessive amounts of
what: shrinkage
536. Dementia pt, which one the most challenging? 1-ext 2-denture is the ans
3-srp 4-amalgam
537. If you have 2 proximal cavities
a) you will fill smaller, prepare larger first ans
b) you will fill larger and prepare the smaller first
C) you will fill smaller and prepare the smaller first
d) you will fill the larger and prepare the larger first
538. Pin retained - Which statement is not correct? increasing in number of pin
strengthen amalgam
539. Best biopsy for small bean sized white lesion? a) Incisional b) excisional is the ans
c) brush
540. Steroid dose need medical consultant 20 mg for 2 weeks 2 year
541. Osteosarcoma = PDL widening
542. Patient presents with blow to face and horizontal fracture of a previously
endodontically treated molar. The fracture is 2mm from the anatomical crown. What
should the dentist do?
a. Treat root canal with Calcium Hydroxide
b. Place temporary crown and revisit in 3 months
c. Immobilize
d. Ext ans
543. Pt with MOD done 1 month ago, complained it hurt when he bits
A) polymerization shrinkage B) leakage c ) cracked tooth is the ans
544. Most common Impacted tooth - Mandi 3m , maxi 3m, max canine
545. Ludwig angina spaces – Submand, Sublingual, Submental
546. Xerostomia due to medications
547. Most common cyst = periapical - RADICULAR CYST (APICAL PERIODONTAL CYST
OR PERIAPICAL CYST) - MOST COMMON ODONTOGENIC CYST - BB
548. Warthin tumor which gland affects – parotid
549. Sulfur granules and lumpy jaw = actinomycosis
550. Most common infectious stage in syphilis – secondary
551. Hand and foot lesion which virus – coxsackievirus
552. REGIONAL ODONTODYSPLASIA: involves the hard tissues that are derived from
both epithelia (enamel) and mesenchymal (dentin and cementum). The teeth in a
region or quadrant of the maxilla or mandible are affected to the extent that they
exhibit short roots, open apical foramina, and enlarged pulp chambers – ghost teeth.
The cause is unknown and because of the poor quality of the affected teeth, their
removal is usually indicated.
553. Which of these has pain same to tooth pain (hsv/VZV/max sinusitis) - Shingles (vzv)
can mimic tooth ache.
554. How to differentiate ANUG from primary herpetic gingivostomatits - Intact
interdental papillae in herpes
555. Question about lesion in eye has a name subnour something like this i picked
phemphigus but it is mmp - The most common and feared diagnosis associated with
symblepharon is Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid (MMP)
556. Cobblestone appearance – Papillary hyperplasia
557. Which taste bud affected in geographic tongue - Filliform
558. Multiple myeloma starts = bone pain
559. Not vasodilaltor = cocaine
560. Not a(alpha) blocker = metoprolol
561. No nitrious oxide = in 1 st trimester
562. Cooling while implant placement - The bone is prepared with special metallic
burs driven at slow speeds with copious water- cooling
563. In implant preparation, which of the following can be used? A) hydroxyapatite
irrigation b) High Speed Hand Piece c) Low torque d)Air Coolant
564. Crevicular fluid cells PMNs
565. Opioid= mu receptors
566. Full dentures clicking = increased VDO
567. Carcinoma vs carcinoma in situ = no invasion
568. Fungal infection = nystatin
569. Systemic fungal = fluconazole
570. Erythroplakia= carcinoma in situ – Like "leukoplakia", ERYTHROPLAKIA has no
histologic connotation, but most erythroplakias are histologically diagnosed as severe
epithelial dysplasia, carcinoma in situ, or invasive squamous cell carcinoma. - DD
571. Open bite= LeFort 1
572. Most allergic metal = nickel
573. FRANKFORT-HORIZONTAL PLANE - constructed by drawing a line connecting
PORION & ORBITALE.
574. Labiodental sounds and what do they determine? Labiodental sound (fricative)-
f,v,ph, formed by maxillary incisor contacting the wet/dry line of mandibular lip. This
sounds help determining the position of incisal edge of maxillary anterior teeth.
575. Open apex tx: Vital apexogenesis / Non vital apexification
576. Mouthguard= MPDS
577. Polyether= sticks to teeth
578. RPD connector fracture = do soldering
579. Traumatic neuroma= mental nerve region
580. Primary mand 2 nd resembles - permanent mandibular first molar
581. Access opening for mand molar – Trapezoid
582. MWF = reduce pocket LINING
583. No gingivoectomy = with thin gingiva (An adequate amount of attached gingiva
must be present before a gingivectomy is done, otherwise the result will be an area
with minimal or no attached gingiva.) - DD
584. Drug testing = clinical trials
585. Where you give GA? 2 year old kid needs lot of restoration
586. Fearful patient how you respond? intoduce tools or TSD
587. Introduce instruments and tools = Desensitization
588. Smokeless tobacco - verrucous carcinoma – verrucous carcinoma (Associated
with smokeless tobacco habit).- DD
589. Fracture w paresthesia= angle of mandible
590. Minimum amount gutta percha left in canal after placement of post? 2 or 3 or 5
mm (IT’S 4mm).
591. Buccal-lingual bone width necessary for 4 mm implant. NO 6mm in options! I took
7mm.
592. Battery - Treatment without consent form
593. Pt with dialysis, when to do treatment? 1 day after dialysis
594. Harder area to floss - Mesial maxillary 1 pm
595. If open bite 8 mm, which kind of treatment do you do? Surgery, LeFort 1
596. Amalgam failure - THE CONTAMINATION OF THE AMALGAM BY MOISTURE DURING
TRITURATION AND CONDENSATION IS UNQUEATIONABLE THE PRINCIPAL CAUSE OF
FAILURES (DD).
597. Question about pigmentation in options was Neurofibromatosis and Preuz-
Jeghers. Pay attention to cafe-au-late spots! Both have pigmentation, but only
Neurof. has cafe-au late! – Café-au-lait found in VON RECKLINGHAUSEN'S DISEASE
(NEUROFIBROMATOSIS) and Albright's Syndrome (McCune-Albright Syndrome)
598. Osteoradionecrosis? More in mandible/ more in maxilla/ 42 gy? According to dd
its more than 40 gry and more in mandible (controversial)
599. How treat root caries? Composite, amalgam, GIC
600. Best filling for class 5 – GIC
601. Mucocele where most common? Upper lip, lower lip, side of tongue
602. Ginco Biloba contraindication? all anticoagulants
603. Cleft lip which embryo week? It was 6-9 the only reasonable option I took
cleft lip 6 weeks - 7 weeks
cleft palate 8-12 weeks - decks
604. Bleeding few days after extraction? fibrinolysis.
605. Transillumination: craze - full tooth illuminate / crack - light stopped - not full tooth
/ sialolith - in children
606. When do you use Laser or Electrocoagulation surgery intraorally? Only logical
option was capillary bleeding!
607. Motion sickness. Treatment: scopolamine
608. When is gingiva inflammation least expected? I was torn between Xerostomia
and Lack of keratinized gingiva. I chose lack of keratinized gingiva, although in
 Dental School we learned, that when keratinized gingiva is missing, gingivitis is
programmed! But, Xerostomia sounded worse, so I took lack of keratinized gingiva!
609. Forceps for upper PM - 150 and 150A
610. What is not true about Xerostomia? Few very obvious true options, I chose it is
extremely difficult to treat it with Saliva substitutes and inducers.
611. Q. about V-form caries, tip towards the DEJ (interproximal/smooth surface)
612. Burn mouth syndrome due to: candida
613. Warthin tumor – 2nd most benign salivary gland tumor more in PAROTID GLAND
and more common reason is smoking.
614. Q. about Pemphigoid - I think, there was an option with basement membrane
and hemidesmosomes
615. All are advantages of per oral sedatives in the dental clinic except? There was an
option about GI absorption, and well controlled effect, that I chose.
616. Best topical Antibiotic agent? Options were H2O2, CHX, Ethanol and something
else. I chose CHX
617. 3 Qs about TAD (=Temporary Anchorage Device). Where it gets its stability from?
stability from cortical bone and increase stability if placed perpendicular. – The
primary stability of miniscrews is a result of mechanical interlocking of the threads with
cortical bone. Placement of miniscrews perpendicular to cortical bone to take
advantage of biological and biomechanical stability when applying heavy
orthopedic forces.
618. Tx for Status Epilepticus. NO Diazepam in options!!! There was Midazolam in the
options, and I chose that! Phenytoin could be an option too.
619. 2 y.o. uncooperative child. What to do to examine? GA, Papoose board, Restrict
by dental assistant, Restrict by parent.
620. Fluoride function on Enamel - reduces solubility
621. Most secure indicator for future caries? Bacteria, something else, salivary flow (the
more the better)
622. How to avoid cheek bites? increase the horizontal overlap in post teeth
623. Xerostomia causing drugs work on which receptor: Parasympathetic cholinergic
624. Drug conjugation. Add molecule to drug (to make it ionized so less fat soluble and
more water soluble)
625. Wrought wire can “do something” around 0,2 mm to the abutment tooth if
minimal wire length is 4, 6 or 8 mm? I took 4mm! I don’t have any idea what they were
talking about
626. Whats the most favorable taper of abutment to make RPD in part of inch: 0.02-
0.01 - 0.03 - 0.039
627. Most common to see in a teenage girl with buccal erupted canine? Anterior
deep bite, recession, 2 others – “…The former displayed significantly higher
frequencies at adolescence of ectopic eruption (mostly maxillary canines), anterior
cross-bite, extreme maxillary overjet, deep bite, and crowding.”
628. Abutment height in implant restorations selected according to? Only logical
option was according to implant lenght! I immediately thought about the abutment-
implant ratio!
629. Cocain effect? contraction of dilator pupillae, contraction of sphincter pupillae, 2
other stupid options.
630. Used as topical LA? Cocain, Benzo, Lido, Bupivacaine - Lidocaine is a local
anesthetic drug used topically in dentistry - BB.
631. Face rash, defect on heart, kidney and blood vessels? Lupus
632. Cause for Hairy Leukoplakia? HIV, EBV, HSV, Candida (don’t confuse w/ hairy
tongue)
633. Dry socket tx. - sedative, dressing no antibiotic, no curettage
634. Most difficult to maintain space? In a 9 y.o missing permanent MX M1 - 5 y.o
missing primary MD M1 - 6 y.o missing primary MD M2, one more I don't remember.
635. After RCT on a tooth with sinus tract, what is the tx for the sinus tract itself. Funny
options! We all know, that NO therapy is needed, right?! ;)
636. Disease with excessive bone production, but less bone resorption? Paget disease
was the only logic option
637. Mouth breather have? Open bite, long face, deep bite etc. Open bite and long
face
638. Typical face feature for muscle weakness? Same like mouth breather. They could
be the best couple - long face, open bite
639. Kid with ADHD what tx.? Methylphenidate , Amphetamines
640. Incision for palate tori. Y incision – a double “Y” incision should be made over the
midline of the torus. (DD)
641. Pain drug for the night? naproxen - 8 hour relief
642. Pt had tooth extraction want to sleep at night whst u give ? naproxen
643. Side effect of opioids, all except question. Side effects of opioids are sedation,
dizziness, nausea, vomiting, constipation, physical dependence, tolerance, and
respiratory depression. NO gastric ulcers, NO insomnia, NO somnolence, NO diarrhea.
644. Lateral positioned flap - the option I chose was to maintain or improve keratinized
gingiva
645. Most common cause of amalgam failure à unquestionable moisture (DD)
646. Q. about rejecting null hypothesis. Type 1 error
647. What is the strongest point of statistics?
648. Selectivity / Sensitivity in clinical trials
649. Q. on clediocranial dysplasia – clavicle, supernumerary
650. In USA most dental payment – cash out of pocket
651. Restauration in anterior teeth done weeks ago, filling too light. What is the most
conservative tx. Keyword here is conservative!!! - Tint
652. Which shows saturation of color? chroma
653. Chronic periodontitis most seen in? male african american
654. Face-bow – hinge
655. In English the s/ch/sh sounds, how is anterior teeth position - very little distance
betw. anterior teeth.
656. Major connector function - stability rigidity
657. Why do we do apexification? - non vital tooth, apical barrier for rct after 3 months
if calcified (“induce root development” is apexogenesis for vital tooth, apexification
for non vital for apical barrier!)
658. Most common seizure in children - febrile
659. Tx. for atypicaly erupting permanent tooth, with gingival margin above CEJ.
Gingivectomy, Apical positioned flap, others (Apical positioned flap, to not waste
keratinized gingiva)
660. Best graft material - autograft
661. Where do you get the most amount of graft material from? illiac
662. Pka has effect on - onset
663. All can be Dif. Diagnosis of Leukoplakia except. - I think I chose Verrucous
leukoplakia, just because they look so different – White sponge nevus is often
mistaken for leukoplakia BUT appears early in life. Focal (frictional) keratosis: common
white lesion caused by chronic friction on the mucosa. Differentiated from idiopathic
leukoplakia because cause is known. Leukoedema disappears with stretching. (DD)
664. Collimation purpose - Reduce size of beam
665. Calculation of incidence index - Out of 1000 patients —-> 200 diseased patients
last year, 300 this year. 300-200=100, 100/1000= 0,1
666. Kid with bad OH what ortho tx? Fixed, removable, no tx
667. Veneer facial reduction – 0.5mm
668. If a Porcelain to metal fused anterior crown too opaque, what”s the reason? less
2nd plane reduction
669. Perio-Endo lesion tx. – first endo
670. MRI how does that work?- Clinical magnetic resonance imaging (clinical MRI) is
an imaging technique used in radiology to form pictures of the anatomy and the
physiological processes of the body in both health and disease. MRI scanners use
strong magnetic fields, radio waves, and field gradients to generate images of the
organs in the body. MRI does not involve x-rays, which distinguishes it from computed
tomography (CT or CAT).
671. Drug against kidney failure, what's the best to analyze and prove its action?
Creatinine test
672. If lower complete denture overextended buccodistaly what structure impaired?
masseter
673. In upper complete denture overextended buccodistaly what structure impaired?
coronoid
674. Pseudomembranous colitis - Clindamycin
675. Patient has a palatal torus that extends beyond posterior palatal seal into the soft
palatal area, and in need of complete denture. What to do? Remove it
676. Ignoring the pt bad behavior – extinguishing
677. Which tooth more prone to caries? Maxillary 1st molar (Kaplan)
678. High kV? Long wave lenght low energy; Short wave length high energy; 2 more
combinations
679. Dexterity – floss (5 brush 8 floss)
680. Q. about a kid with Autism. Repetitive and Sensitive to light and high volume
681. Q. about ACE-blockers - It actually directly blocks the Angiotensin-Converting-
Enzyme, not the Angiotensin - blocks the enzyme which converts angiotensin I to
angiotensin II.
682. Actinomycosis – sulfur granules
683. Vertical root fracture most commonly seen? Mandibular molars
684. Crown to root fracture most commonly seen? Maxillary anterior
685. Perforation of anterior maxillary incisors during RCT access in general most
common on which surface? Mesial - Maxillary Anterior teeth: Mesial perforation due
to distal axial inclination. Mand. Ant: LABIAL perforation due to lingual inclination
686. Cast impression least acurate? Reversible Hydrocolloids, Irreversible
Hydrocolloids, Polyether, one more
687. Q on Chronic Heart Failure.
PHARMACOLOGIC THERAPY: DIURETICS (used to control fluid retention), ACE INHIBITORS
(interfere w/ the renin-angiotensin system, are required of all patients w/ cardiac
 failure unless contraindicated), VASODILATORS (including hydralazine and nitrates,
are used when the use of ACE inhibitors is not possible), BETA BLOCKERS (should be
used in patients w/left ventricular dysfunction, unless contraindicated), DIGITALIS can
improve symptoms and exercise tolerance by increasing cardiac contractility, other
medications include oxygen and morphine. ASPIRIN, NSAIDs, and CALCIUM CHANNEL
BLOCKERS SHOULD BE AVOIDED. Patient treatment and dental management
considerations: prolonged rest, administration of oxygen, digitalis (patients are prone
to nausea and vomiting), diuretics/vasodilators (patients are prone to orthostatic
hypotention; avoid excessive epinephrine), dicumarol (patients may have bleeding
problem). The beneficial effects of digitalis in congestive heart failure results in part
from the fact that digitalis causes a decrease in end-diastolic volume, an increase in
stroke volume and cardiac output, a decrease in central venous pressure, and a
decrease in rate of the heart where tachycardia exists. Digitalis glycosides generally
decrease edema, decrease heart size, decrease heart rate, and decrease residual
diastolic volume.
688. Neuropraxia - I chose the option about damaged axon, but intact epineurium –
FALSE -> Neuropraxia is the mildest form of neural injury. Local axon demylineation
occurs at the site of injury. However, the axon, the endoneurium, the perineurium, and
the epineurium are INTACT.
689. If a patient has had a car accident and an assumption of broken cervical spine,
which xray is contraindicated? Waters, SMV, Pano, CT
690. Q. about Sterilization.
691. Pat. With xerostomia. All is true for the indications to manufacture a complete
denture with METAL basis except? More acuracity, More wetability, Low cost, More
durability
692. Pat. comes back after two weeks with discolored margins. Cause? amine
693. Qs about preparation before grafting. I chose the option to remove all granular
tissue completely.
694. Carbamacepin used in? They give you very confusing options, that look similar!!! I
chose nerve pain.
695. Which postion is patient related? VDO, CR, VPR, ICP
696. What will most likely cause the odontoblastic processe to retract in the dentinal
tubules? Desiccation? (or Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut?)
697. All is correct about sclerotic dentin except? I was torn between extremely low
permeability or better bond with restorative materials compared to normal dentin..
698. Which study doesn’t show cause and effect. - cross sectional
699. Two questions on Incisal guidance.
700. What is true about remineralized enamel. - more resistant to future acid
701. Sialolithiasis. – submandibular gland
702. Patient complains of pain due to oral mucositis after radiotherapy. The pain is
best treated with? a) Nystatin b) Benzyl hydrochloride (BENZYDAMINE
HYDROCHLORIDE) c) Topical corticosteroid d) Morphine
703. Characteristic feature of AML? Auer rods
704. Pindborg tumor or CEOT - Liesegang rings / rx: snow appearance
705. Elective RCT contraindication. – recent MI
706. Gagging patient, what's the tx in a long term. Desensitization
707. Exhaling wheezing. - Asthma
708. Adverse effect of codiene. Miosis, nausea
709. Culture sensitivity test. - It was also about an infection that couldn’t be treated with
particular AB
710. Not easy Qs. about pontic design.
711. Action of beta blocker on smooth muscle? vasoconstriction
712. What is true about if a general dentist decides to perform a treatment which is
normally done by specialist.- No maleficiency in options! There was something like,
“He has to perform as good as a specialist, if he does the tx”
713. Q. about orthostatic hypotension. - Patients taking diuretics/vasodilators are
prone to orthostatic hypotension, also avoid excessive EPI. - A fainting spell that
occurs due to a rapid fall in BP when moving from the supine to the upright position
when getting out of the dental chair. The symptoms are similar to simple fainting, but
the condition is related to positioning. Amyl Nitrite (Nitrites): Adverse Effects à
orthostatic hypotension & headache.
714. Pain killer in pt who has just withdrawn alcohol? Hydrocodone (opioid)
715. Alcoholic pt pain med? Put naproxen. (if not in option hydrocodone)
716. Side effect of erythromycin? Gastrointestinal disturbances – GI tract upset is the
most common side effect of the erythromycins (take with food).
717. Risk of extraction of upper Molar? Palatal root goes to sinus
718. Risk of extraction of #32? Damage to L nerve (IAN before Lingual)
719. What’s unethical? Charge more to difficult pts, Raise fees to particular group of
insurance.
720. Radiopacity in lower molar area, no teeth. I put idiopathic schlerosis
721. Pt with bleeding gums and skin lesions? What condition – Leukemia
722. 2 yrs old intrudes incisor all the way in but doesn’t touch perm. Vital. What to do?
Ortho extrusion then splint? Leave it
723. 14 is intruded in middle age pt, has distal caries, how to level plane of occlusion?
Extract, Intrusion, Crown
724. Mode: The most frequent measurement in a set of data.
725. What type of study is if they look for prevalence? Cross Sectional
726. Socioeconomic influences the risk of developing perio and caries T
727. Due to this there’s risk of perio disease at ALL ages? F
728. What is that a drug has the strongest effect? Potency – Efficacy
729. Treatment of LAP - Put SRP and abx
730. Tx of perio with calculus on smoker. Put: debridement, oh, tobacco cessation
advice.
731. When referring a mesialized 32 with irreversible pulpitis with curved roots for RCT,
what’s the least important: curve roots, Canal calcification, Difficulty with anesthesia,
Inclination of tooth (chose this)
732. U see nasty white lesion on floor of mouth, suspect of except: Scc, Verrucous
carcinoma, Leukoplakia, Nicotinic stomatitis (chose this)
733. Same lesion what do u do first to dx? Cytology Excision Biopsy Nothing Wait a
month.
734. Glass fiber post compared to custom made post: Aesthetic. Tooth conservation.
Less chances of fracture.
735. Patient has tissue on palate due to denture, how to treat? Laser Excision Nothing
Not wear denture for a while
736. Funtion of the internal part of an implant? they didn’t mention hex i chose
antirotation
737. Short molar how to get extra retention? Groove on buccal
738. When doing protrusive on articulator, do you raise the pin? YES
739. What resto gives more retention for a short crown? Mod onlay, Veneer with
grooves, 3/4 with proximal grooves (chose this, not sure)
740. Non-nitrate vasodilator for angina? Dipyridemole, nitroglycerin, lisinopril,
isoflorophtate
741. What are filters for? Filtration reduces patient dose, contrast, & film density.
Absorbs not useful xray (long length), reducing the patient dosage.
742. IAN anesthesia not well, what accessory nerve might be causing pain?
Mylohyoideo nerve
743. U did resto, patient comes back after 6 months with pain to sweet and bitting?
Reversible pulpitis
744. Lower molar, no pain. Has radiolucency on all apex of roots, why? Spontaneous
necrosis, Vertical fracture, horizontal fracture
745. Target = tungsten? T
746. What happens if you increase more liquid to ZOE? more soluble?
747. Area most susceptible of caries: pits and fissure, above the contact, cervical of
contact
748. ANGINA: NITROGLYCERIN, sometimes propranolol, calcium channel blockers,
such as verapamil. Angina is primarily treated with nitroglycerin. Drugs that can be
used in the prevention and treatment of angina pectoris: propranolol, nitroglycerin,
isosorbide dinitrate, pentaerythritol tetranitrate - DD
749. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor drug with the longest half-life (SSRI) –
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
750. Advantage of glass fiber posts - Similar modulus of elasticity as dentin
751. What is the indication for an apicoectomy? a. Failed root canal that cannot be
reinstrumented b. Root canal that is difficult to perform
752. Example of someone who comes into the office and has a belligerent attitude
and says that every dentist she has seen has been incompetent and then 30 minutes
into the appointment she starts praising you and saying that you are the best dentist
she has had, this person’s personality is best described as: a. Narcissistic b. Borderline
c. Schizoid
753. Halogen light and LED light which is true:
a. LED light does not polymerize unless has champhoroquinone initiator
b. LED light cannot be battery operated
c. LED light bulb has a short life span
d. LED light emits wavelength 350-370
754. Amantadine (Symmetrel)- anti-viral agent that enters the CNS to treat Parkinson's
disease by potentiating dopaminergic responses.
755. Osteoporosis: Thin traveculae
756. Which of the following describes growth after menarche: a. Increases b. Stays
constant c. Stops (Mosby: general body tissues including muscles and bone
accelerate growth at the same time reproductive tissues proliferate.)
757. Implant is successful? a. 1mm bone loss in year one, 0.2 every year after b. 1 mm
bone loss year one, 0.02mm every year after – Mosby and DD say 0.02 mm, no
misprints!
758. When analyzing the arch distance which space do they analyze? 1- mesial of
canine to canine 2- mesial of first premolar to first premolar 3- mesial of first molar to
 first molar ( I think the answer is 3) – Mosby: distal from second primary molar to distal
of second primary molar on other side
759. Which one of the tooth is most prone to cracked tooth o syndrome? 1-Maxillary
premolar 2- mandibular premolar 3-maxillar first molar 4-mandibular second molar -
(mandibular first molars followed by 2nd mandibular molar and maxillary premolars)
760. Pt comes to you with complete denture that is loose, she wants a new one, and
there is redness under the upper denture with papillary hyperplasia? What is your
immediate management ? Excision of lesion, Tissue conditioner on the same denture.
Make impression and fabrication a new.
761. The roubela causing mental retardation is caused by? 1- genetically 2- acquired
3- chromosal
762. Permanent max lat inc calcification starts when - 10-12 months (max centrals 3-4
months)
763. Primary principle of behavior modification a) stimulus cause behavior b) behavior
has consequences
764. If pt was addicted to alcohol and had a treatment for his addiction, and for 18
months successfully is not drinking. He is considered to be completely recovered from
addiction. T/F
765. Which tooth has most common crown-to-root fracture: max anterior incisors,
mand ant incisors, max molars, mand molars
766. Most common with chronic periodontitis: Hispanic male, Hispanic female, Black
male, Black female
767. Prevalence of cells in gingival sulcus: neutrophils, macrophages, plasma cells
768. Mild facets on occlusal surfaces in primary dentition indicate: normal function,
indicate early malocclusion, parafunction habits, occlusal interferences
769. NUG clinically resembles: primary herpetic gingivitis
770. Actinomycosis of Jaw commonly leads to: diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis, or
ruptures through facial neck soft tissues via multiple drain sinuses
771. Disadvantage of partial thickness flap is: unable to increase zone keratinised
gingiva, or dissection from vascular supply source - A or missed option, i have
disadvantage in my notes lack of surgical flexibility (limited visibilty and access) from
old rq
772. Class II drugs: Percocet, Vicodin, Tylenol 3
773. Studies proved that caries can be arrested by placement of: Ca hydroxide, GIC,
or sealing well the margins of restorations – On the basis of the studies cited in this
review, one can state that there is substantial evidence that the removal of all
infected dentin in deep carious lesions is not required for successful caries treatment—
provided that the restoration can seal the lesion from the oral environment effectively.
774. RCT was done one year ago, periapical RL became larger since then, all can
explain this, except: Apical scar, proximity to incisive canal, different angulation of x-
ray...
775. As for ectodermal dysplasia is the lack of development of zygoma, for
cleidocranial dysplasia it is: clavicle
776. Cleidocranial à supernumerary
777. Ranula develops because of: stone, or trauma to the duct – Mucocele = trauma
778. Min count of granulocytes for elective surgery: 1,000mm3, 15,000, 100,000, 10,000...
779. In children and adolescents most common cause of xerostomia? 1) sjron,
2)salivary gland obstruction 3) nocturnal mouth breathing
780. Varicosity under tongue: because of untreated HTN (there was not age in options)
781. Pt has vasovagal syncope, you do all, except: A. Administer oxygen B. Place in
Tredenburg position C. Give epinephrine D. Apply spirits of ammonia E. Maintain
airflow
782. Minimum of hydrocortisone for the Pt to be considered suppressed if taken daily:
20 mg before 2 weeks for 2 years, 10 mg before 2 weeks for 2 years, 100 mg same..
783. In modified Widman flap it is: full-thickness flap, or partial flap Modified Widman
Flap - The modified Widman procedure is a replaced mucoperiosteal (full thickness)
flap procedure.
784. Inferior alveolar artery is a branch from: external carotid artery, or internal
785. Mandibular tori are to be removed before constructing the denture. T/F if interfere
786. You need to put in surgery consent about the risk of damaging lingual nerve. T/F
787. Side effects of albumin are all, except: tachycardia, stimulation of CNS, insomnia,
increased salivation, diarrhea. (people say it is “atropine” written wrong, so answer
here is salivation).
788. The Q about relation of consistency and frequency of maintenance perio visits
and patient compliance and long-term warranty
789. A patient's compliance with schedule maintenance visits has no effect on the
long-term retention of periodontally treated. Frequency of maintenance visits has no
correlation with the development of periodontal pockets and gingivitis.
1. Both statements are false. (ANS)
2. Both statements are true.
3. The fist sta. is true, the second is false.
4. The first sta. us false, the second is true.
790. With the damage of oculomotor nerve where eye will move: (there were 2
directions in every option, like upward and medial, or downward and lateral...)
downward and outward, ptosis – Oculomotor controls superior rectus (elevation and
adduction), medial rectus (adduction), inferior rectus (depression and adduction) and
inferior oblique (elevation and abduction) – FA
791. With the trauma of CN VI nerve in which direction difficult to stare: (one option),
downward, upward, lateral, medial
792. MOA of sulfanilamide (sulfonamide): bacteriostatic, inhibit protein synthesis,
COMPETE with PABA to inhibit PABAs actions, which prevents bacterial folic acid
synthesis to inhibit cellular growth.
793. Pt on sulfonamides, what will be the most likely side effect that being a dentist
you can say? ERYTHEMA MULTIFORME? – EM is a type of allergic hypersensitivity
reaction in response to medications, infections, or illness. Medications associated with
erythema multiforme include sulfonamides, penicillins, barbiturates , & phenytoin.
794. It is the preferred to quite smoking on the day when full extractions series
scheduled. T/F
795. To be able to burnish a margin of a gold restoration which one should be
exceed? a) Modulus of elasticity b) Yield strength answer is Elongation, missing option here
796. What impression material has a natural affinity to water? (no hydrochloride in
options) Polyether (hydrophilic)
797. Initiate Chantix week before planning on quitting smoking. T/F - Varenicline (trade
name Chantix and Champix), is a prescription medication used to treat nicotine
addiction. Begin CHANTIX dosing one week before this date.
798. In anterior mandibular teeth there is some crowding. The gingival recession can
develop because of all, except: frenum pull, asthma inhaler use, plaque, not enough
overbite...
799. Know immunosupressive drugs: (will give you 4 of them, you rule out one) Also
know their side effects more than candida. – I answered Candida but I did not know
what was this drug about...Guys, memorize this mycophenolate drug is
immunosuppressant!
800. Mycophenolate (CellCept) is used with other medications to help prevent
transplant organ rejection (attack of the transplanted organ by the immune system of
the person receiving the organ) in people who have received kidney, heart, and liver
transplants.
801. Q just before this one asking all are immunosuppressive except one?
Methylphenidate – (treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and
narcolepsy), among the more serious adverse reactions are nervousness, insomnia ,
and anorexia.
802. What can decrease the effect of Warfarin: liver insufficiency, stimulation of
hepatic microsomal metabolism - an increased response to warfarin would be
expected in patients with liver impairment.
803. Pt with bizarre behavior and confusion, you administer: insulin, epinephrine,
glucose
804. The reason to mounting study models is to observe: vertical dimension of
occlusion, vertical dimension of rest, interdental occlusion, size and location of
anterior teeth.
805. After polishing which appears first on teeth: material alba, biofilm, pellicle
806. Deepest part of occlusal rest is in: central fossa, marginal ridge – The deepest part
of an occlusal rest preparation should be inside the lowered marginal ridge. The
marginal ridge is lowered to provide bulk and to accommodate the origin of the
occlusal rest with the least occlusal interference. – McCracken
807. Which agency initiated Hazzard communication program: CDC, OSHA, EPA
808. Hazzard communication program is about: protecting from and managing
blood-born and infectious exposure, protecting from chemical exposures
809. Primary teeth shed prematurely in: cyclic neutropenia? - Yes, true. Perio disease
may result in loosening of teeth and early tooth loss in young children.
810. There was x-ray with upper canine with still forming apex, looked basically normal
in my opinion, but had in canal some obliterated oval structures...asked it is due to: AI,
DI, DD, regional odontogenic dysplasia. Had permanent max canine still forming
apex, yes with some premolars and 2nd molars still forming apex too. Those
obliterated structures I noticed in both upper canines, but Q asked only about left
one. It was regular width canal with pulpal stones. Tooth also was showing half out
and the rest under gingiva still. I googled, found some research article where it saying
if pulpal stones are seen in several teeth in young permanent teeth the condition is
systemic and characteristic to DD – Dentin dysplasia TYPE II (coronal dysplasia): color
of primary teeth is opalescent (amber-colored) color of permanent teeth is normal,
coronal pulps of permanent teeth are usually enlarged (”thistle tube”) and may
contain pulp stones (DD)
811. If there is narrow attached gingiva next to maxillary second molar what you
cannot do: apically displaced flap, gingivectomy, distal wedge – Distal wedge
procedures, frequently performed after wisdom teeth are extracted, because the
bone fill is usually poor, leaving a periodontal defect. Only if sufficient space exists
distal to the last molar, a band of attached gingiva may be present. In such a case, a
distal wedge operation can be performed. (DD).
812. 14 yo has a good oral hygiene, lives in community fluoridated area. For
prevention of future caries what should be instructed: better oral hygiene, placing
sealants in all 4 1st molars, fluoride gel placement by pt daily, fluoride rinse daily after
brushing. this q is in day 2 and the pt had stain on 1st molars, thus go for sealnts as a preventive measure
813. Also she has a little brown discoloration in her mand 1st molar occlusal pit and
fissure, with an explorer catching on it, you should: place sealant over, preventive
resin resto, amalgam, no treatment at this time.
814. Biological width: junctional epi and connective tissue attachment within sulcus,
junctional and connective tissue attachment
815. Side effects of nitroglycerin: (know more, can be an except Q) – hypotension w/
reflex tachycardia, syncope, headache, flushed skin, dizziness, paradoxical
bradycardia (google books) – MOSBY: Headache, syncope, tachycardia, tolerance,
methemoglobinemia.
816. Side effect of nitroglycerine a. nausea, headache b. lightheadness, respiratory
depression
817. Most common post-extraction complication is (did not mention any jaw): dry
socket, infection, hemorrhage, fracture
818. Least reoccurrence after removal: ameloblastoma, adenomatoid odontogenic
tumor
819. Only microscopy can determine the diagnosis: ameloblastic fibroma, fibro-
odontoma, KOT, radicular cyst - ODONTOGENIC KERATOCYST - follicular & dentigerous
cysts that contain keratinizing material, and differs from other odontogenic cysts due
to their microscopic appearance & clinical behavior.
820. Pt with chipped veneer but would like to keep it, for fixing chipped part with
composite you do: micro-etch, etch, silane, bonding
Got a photograph about a big lesion behind molars and answer choices were
-Ameloblastoma ( I chose this)
-Keratocyst
 821. Most common location of intraoral melanoma: palate and gingiva, palate and
lip...
822. In osteoporosis you expect to see: brown tumors, thin trabecular, decreased
calcification of cortical bone
823. What is not an advantage of LED cure in comparison to halogen: lifetime bulb,
energy efficient, weight, curing depth
824. First sign of HIV: asymptomatic, hairy tongue, opportunistic manifestations
825. What change in white blood cells you see in cellulitis: neutropenia, neutrophilia,
lymphocytosis...
826. Type of external resorption in pulpal necrosis: inflammatory, replacement
827. Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in asthma pts. T/F NO can be used in anxious pts.
T/F
828. Which is safe in all trimesters of pregnancy: ibuprofen, aspirin, some opioid,
acetaminophen+codeine (Tylenol 3)
829. How to differentiate incipient white caries on smooth surface with remineralized
caries: transillumination, enamel illumination, with using explorer on surface, with better
lighting and air drying
830. Studies showed the the effect of leukotriens in: asthma, stomach ulcers
831. Implant analog is what for: to take an impression with it, to pour impression with it
832. All influence duration of anesthesia, Except one: (I think ASDA q)
833. Which muscle to take considerations in shaping the lingual border of denture:
mylohyoid, genioglossus, geniohyoid
834. If posterior palatal seal is too deep it causes: unseating of denture, gagging
835. Soccer player wakes up with sore temporal muscle and stiffness of the jaw:
myofacial syndrome, osteoarthritis
836. Helix built in uprighting molar serves for: increase force, increase range, increase
body translation - in dd ortho card 14 mention helices are incorporated to increase
the action range and flexibility , so its b
837. Posture has an influence on: (different intraoral findings in options) - If I remember
it correctly , the options were vdo, vertical dimension at rest...
838. Veneer with discolored margin after 3 weeks, reason: amines, insufficient resin
839. FDA is conducting a clinical trial about a new drug on animals and human. What
is the phase 3 of this study?
a. to see if the drug is cancerous on animal or not
b. to find the effective dose of the drug
c. to find the MOA of drug
d. …..--> there was another option which I think it was the correct answer but I don’t
remember it
phase 1 - Safety and dosage
phase 2 - Evaluate/find effectiveness
phase 3 - to CONFIRM the effectiveness, to find common side effects
phase 4 - to find the RARE side effects
840. Which one in wax try in for complete denture? a. Facebow record b. Esthetic
841. Early primary teeth lost a. papillon-lefevre syndrome - T (autosomal recessive,
deficiency in cathepsin C, primary teeth lost by 4 years old, permanent teeth lost by
14 years old).
842. Most common in mandibule premolar region a. CCOT b. OKC c. OM d. fibrous
dysplasia e. lateral periodontal cyst

Q about early loss of primary teeth had Papllion lefever in opne optin and hypophospatasia in another option ( good luck)
843. Submandibular space drainage through which muscle a. platysma b. masseter c.
median pterygoid
844. When draining purulent exudate from an abscess of the pterygomandibular
space using an intraoral approach, the buccinator muscle is most likely to be incised.
- DD
845. Which oral pigmented lesion resolve spontaneously? a. varix b. freckle c.
melanotic macule
846. Which is correct about conjugation? a. adding a molecule to the drug b. making
the drug more lipid soluble c. increase in the effect of drug
847. Which of these cognitive behavior decrease in a normal process of aging: a.
learning b. attention c. reaction
848. Which one does NOT show the dispersing of date a. variance b. median c.
standard error
849. DMF shows? a. caries b.oral hygiene
850. Dmf index = measures how permanent dentition is affect by caries
851. Fail-safe mechanism part of NO machine does not let the increase of NO flew by
what percent a.20 b.50 c.70 d.90
852. Pappoos board isn’t used in which situation: Treatment of a 14 years old
cooperative patient
853. Where do progenitor cells for new attachment come from? a) alveolar ridge b)
PDL c) cementum d) connective tissue of gingiva
854. What does bimaxillary protrusion mean? A protrusive dentoalveolar position of
maxillary and mandibular arches that produces a convex facial profile.
855. Pt doesn’t have upper 3rd molars. How many furcations do we have in upper
jaw? a. 12 b. 14 c. 8 is the ans now if 6 is in there is 6?? The answer should be 16! first
maxillary premolars are BIFURCATED! Maxillary molars are TRIFURCATED! That means
we have (4 maxillary molars * 3 furcations) + (2 first maxillary premolars * 2 furcations)
= 16 FURCATIONS!!!
856. Retentive clasp fracture? a. Work hardening b. Crystal formation in clasp c. Low
modulus of elasticity d. High elongation
857. Mild wear facet in primary dentition? a. No treatment needed b. It is bcs of
parafunction
858. Which one has least effect on DURATION of local anesthesia a. Systemic
absorption of drug b. Bind to protein in tissue (Absorption = bioavailability, Duration =
protein binding)
859. Missing more than two teeth but not all them – Oligodontia
860. What impression material has a natural affinity to water? a) Polyether
b) Additional silicon c) Condensing silicon d) Poly sulfide
861. What do you see in pathology of osteoporosis - Thin trabecula
862. Not a symptom for dentin dysplasia (enamel loss)
863. Most common supernumerary tooth – Mesiodens
864. Most common variable tooth is - Max Lat
865. Most common tooth affected by dens in dente – Max lateral
866. Most common type of tooth loss in bulimic pt - erosion, lingual aspect
867. Another question about tooth loss was unclear it was about tooth loss due to
tooth influx – Abfraction
868. Patient who has medical history but is not debilitating but will require medical
management and dental modifications – 1-ASA 3 2- ASA2
869. Failure in morphodifferentiation results in . a.size and shape abnormality ,b. peg
lateral ,c. macrodontia d. All is the ans
870. Bald tongue and dysphagia is in a risk of developing which cancer - Plummer
vinson syndrome expressing as SCC (Oral Symptoms: angular stomatitis, smooth, red,
painful tongue with atrophy of the papillae).
871. Problem in CL channel which disease - Cystic fibrosis
872. Crowe’s sign - Neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen disease of skin) à
autosomal dominant disease, due to a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene NF1, six
or more café-au-lait macules greater than 1.5 cm – these are usually smooth-
surfaced (“Coast of California”), two or more neurofibromas OR one plexiform
neurofibroma (pathognomonic for the condition), axillary freckling (called Crowe’s
sign), iris hamartomas (called Lish nodules).
873. Uniform widen in pdl and bilateral resorb of angel what is the disease: No
scleroderma in options but “SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS” (its is also known as SCLERODERMA)
874. Pt has PDL space widening with radiolucency at the angle of the mandible
(a) multiple sclerosis (b) osteosarcoma (c) fibrous dysplasia (d) other options – Now you
know the missing option.
875. Oral sign with achondroplasia - Normal tooth, crowding and class 3 – DD à The
teeth are of normal size but there is limited space within the maxillary and mandibular
arches for them to erupt into, which causes overcrowding and subsequent
malocclusion.
876. Dental problem with decreased Alk pho – Hypophosphatasia = Enlarged pulp
and incomplete roots. DD à CHILDHOOD: THE MOST COMMON FEAUTRE IS PREMATURE
LOSS OF PRIMARY TEETH WITHOUT INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE. The premature loss of
teeth in children and adults is usually characteristic. Radiographically, the teeth
display enlarged pulp chambers and pulp canals, deficient root development as well
as alveolar bone loss. Patients w/ Paget disease have high levels of serum alkaline
phosphatase.
877. X linked associated with thin hair and hypodontia - Ectodermal dysplasia
878. What does the hyperbaric chamber help with I put angiogenesis
879. Time for surgical hand washing is 3 min
880. Which drug gives tardive dyskansia is phenothiazines - Tardive dyskinesia-a serious,
irreversible neurological disorder that can appear at any age. It is a side effect of
antipsychotic/neuroleptic drugs (i.e. phenothiazine).
881. What condition of the tongue involves the foliate papilla is - lingual tonsil
hyperplasia
882. Supernumerary teeth with cranial bossing which syndrome - Cleidocranial
dysplasia – CD: the most distinctive features include delayed tooth eruption and
supernumerary teeth, hypoplastic or aplastic clavicles, cranial bossing, and
hypertelorism. (Mosby)
883. Warm bone sign of which disease – Paget (Paget's bone is also hypervascular and
may feel warm to palpation.)
884. Early shedding of primary teeth and delay of perm teeth – Cherubism
885. Dry and rough hair and enlarge tongue and max over grow associated with –
Hypothyroidism
886. Bells palsy which nerve – Facial (VII)
887. Delay healing associated with all except (Cushing /Addison/-DM/vit c increase)
888. IgM heterohybridomas diagnosis for - Infectious mononucleosis by EBV
889. Punch out appearance and M spike - Multiple myeloma
890. Medicines in MM - Cyclophosphamide (alkylating agent, immunosuppressant) is
used in DD, bisphosphonates
891. Wide pdl and paresthesia and tooth loss with – Osteosarcoma
892. Sharp pain in throat increase with chewing (Unilateral pain in throat worsen by
chewing) – Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
893. Meds not given to pt on anti cholinergic tx - opioids
894. Most common non odonto cyst is – Nasopalatine Duct Cyst (Incisive Canal Cyst)-
a "heart-shaped" radiolucency in the midline of the hard palate. It is the most
common non-odontogenic/developmental fissural cyst.
895. Pear shape cyst is – Globulomaxillary - Globulomaxillary Cyst-an inverted "pear-
shaped" radiolucency in bone between the roots of the maxillary lateral & canine
(often causes the roots of the involved teeth to diverge). - Tear shape its lateral
periodontal cyst.
896. Calcified flax cerbi with which syndrome - Nevoid basal cell syndr / Gorlin syndr
897. Most common cyst – Radicular
898. Only way to differentiate bw granuloma and radicular cyst – Histology
899. Tennis racket and honeycomb appearance which cancer - Odontogenic
myxoma
900. Periapical cemental dysp more in – middle age black women/mandible anterior
901. Complex odontoma more in – posterior mandible
902. Most common burn in mouth due to – aspirin
903. Geographic necrosis with kidney problem what is the diagnosis – Wegener’s
granulomatosis (Oral lesions present as strawberry gingivitis.)
904. Most common gland affected by salivary gland tumor is –parotid
905. Question about necrotizing silometaplasia – NECROTIZING SIALOMETAPLASIA:
deep-seated palatal ulcer with clinical and histologic features mimicking those of a
malignant neoplasm. Recognized lesion of the minor salivary glands, characterized
by necrosis of the glandular parenchyma w/ associated squamous metaplasia and
hyperplasia of the ductal epithelium. The initiating event of necrotizing
sialometaplasia is believed to be related to ischemia, secondary to alteration of local
blood supply. Both, clinically and histologically, the lesion may simulate a malignancy
and, in the past, the condition has been misdiagnosed as a squamous cell carcinoma
or mucoepidermoid carcinoma. FOLLOWING BIOPSY AND THE ESTABLISHMENT OF THE
DIAGNOSIS, FURTHER TREATMENT GENERALLY IS NOT RECOMMENDED SINCE HEALING
USUALLY OCCURS WITHING 6-10 WEEKS.
906. Porcelain has tooth matching color by – glaze firing
907. Dentist choice by metamerism - Different colors under different light sources
908. Lab adds stains in the inside of the porcelain – to decrease value
909. Lab glazes and polishes the porcelain in the end of the design - More compatible
to the gingiva; In dd card 135, said the glaze firing is the last firing and it produce
smooth and translucent surface. During glazing: Surface layers of porcelain melt
slightly, coalescing the particles and filling in surface defects (Mosby page 361)
910. Meds not given to one on BDZ – antifungal agents
911. Meds contraindicated in pt on barbiturates – phenothiazines, alcohol,
antihypertensive agents, and antihistamines (Kaplan)
912. Chlorothiazide – electrolyte test because it causes hypokalemia
913. Except sweat changes, pt will also show what changes in cystic fibrosis: lung,
saliva, urine and some other options - CF results in several symptoms (the most
important symptom affects the digestive tract and lungs).
914. Medicines contraindicated in a cystic fibrosis pt – beta 2 antagonists, NO2
(General anesthesia is avoided too in DD, they will have COPD, like chronic bronchitis
, sinusitis , so beta 2 agonist will help)
915. COPD pt, what is contraindicated - 100% o2 therapy, nitrous oxide, If patient with
copd is taking theophylline should not prescribed erythromycin, it will lead to toxicity,
card 75 surgery, General anesthesia is contraindicated and avoid certain antibiotic
barbiturate, narcotic, antihistamin and anticolinergic. (USC pt management manual
book).
916. Max amount of N2O that can you flow into the tube at a time - 70% adult / 50%
kids
917. Tetraycline works by: no 30s or protein synthesis in option, but there was options of
interference with collagenase, 50s unit, plasma proteins and dna gyrase
918. Pt on your chair, presents with insulin shock, what will you do next? Orange juice,
glucose, epinephrine, O2, etc - The treatment of choice for hypoglycemia in an
unconscious diabetic patient: EMS should be contacted. Then 1mg of glucagon can
be injected IM, or 50 ml of 50% glucose (dextrose) solution can be given by rapid IV
infusion. If conscious, oral glucose (orange juice). - DD
919. Pt on hep B meds, what will you do? Call physician, order regular CBC etc. blood
reports, were some fancy names of tests later.
920. Mandi tori removal, most frequent complication? Options were loss of cortical
border bone, injury to mental n, lingual n, or IAN injury
921. During maxillary tori removal, you accidentally perforate a part of the palate with
the tori, what structure will you see? Nasal cavity, inferior concha, pharynx and one
more irrelevant option
922. During 3M removal, which mand part is most likely to get fractured? Lingual plate
923. Closed mandi fracture, which is most likely to interfere with the closed reduction?
Pull of muscle, 3 different combinations of muscles in 3 options, one option was
improper access
924. Intermaxillary fixation indicated in all the following except? Know all the situations
when it is needed: Typical indications for its use are minimally displaced fractures,
deep bite cases, stabilization of fracture during open reduction and internal fixation,
orthognathic surgeries and in tumor resection surgeries

925. Intermaxillary fixation is released earlieast in which of the following? Options with
different mandibular feacture sites – The IMF wires are usually removed in 3 weeks and
jaw exercises encouraged. Immobilization beyond 3 weeks in condylar fractures can
 result in ankylosis of temporomandibular joints. The intermaxillary wires may be
reapplied for another week if occlusion is not good. Also, a simple, nondisplaced,
greenstick (incomplete fracture) mandibular fracture in a healthy child would
certainly require less intermaxillar fixation time than multiple, grossly comminuted,
compound mandibular fractures in an older unhealthy patient.
926. Best radiograph to view zygoma? No submentovertex option, waters, PA, CT, MRI
927. Pt with a nodule on the middle of the neck, what is most likely dx? Thyroglossal
duct cyst probably, don’t rmbr other options
928. Bluish lesion on lateral surface of tongue for 5yr painless what is it varicosities or
hemangioma –
929. Warty lesion—papilloma
930. Maxillary incisor 4 teeth rpd, what should we achieve? --- Mac anterior teeth
contacting on protrusion only, at CR, balanced occlusion, canine guided occlusion
931. Benzoyl peroxide decomposition by tertiary amine in chemically activated resin –
T
932. Abx in cellulitis with draining fistula yes or no
933. Antibiotic for sinusitis – Augmentin
934. Complication of temporal artritis – Blindness
935. Where do we use 10% chx varnish? P&f caries prevention, white smooth surface
caries prevention, secondary caries prevention
936. Parkinson's disease, except --- is progressive, always require medication,
associated with intentional tremor, associated with dementia
937. Amount of epithelial regeneration everyday is 0.5-1 mm – T
938. Chronic periodontitis, class 2 diabetes mellitus-- black males
939. Gtr best for: horizontal augmentation, class 2 furcation, one wall defect, class 3
furcation
940. Gtr-- involves coronal movement of pdl – T
941. Reattachment concept – Reunion of tissue to the rooth
942. Radiographic appearance of pericornitis – flame shape
943. Ameloblastoma, Benign, Localy aggressive, Reverse polarization, Rl post mn,
Extreme facial deformity, teeth vital, painless, honey comb or soap bubble
appearance
944. Basal cell carcinoma Most common skin cancer - Upper lip or lateral nose, Best
prognosis, Sun exp area
945. Value negative calculation - Positive predictive value is the probability that
subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease. Negative predictive
value is the probability that subjects with a negative screening test truly don't have
the disease.
Predict value positive: TP/(TP+FN)*100
Predict value negative: TN/(TN+FP)*100
946. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis? A.
Valproic acid B. Quinidine C. Isoniazid D. Ethosuximide
947. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson
syndrome? A. Valproic acid B. Quinidine C. Isoniazid D. Ethosuximide
948. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon
dyfunction? A. Digitalis B. Niacin C. Tetracycline D. Fluoroquinolones
949. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker? A.
Propafenone B. Disopyramide C. Aminodarone D. Quinidine (Supraventricular
tachyarrhythmias)
950. When part of body is thick which of the following applies? a. X rays penetrate
more and the object appears more radiopaque b. X rays penetrate more and the
object appears more radioluscent c. Change of developing cancer in that body part
is less d. Chance of cancerous change is more – (if “penetrate” hear means
“absorption”, because if the substance is thicker, it will absorb more photons and the
resultant imaging will be white.
951. Rate of implant success after 10 years? a. 90 b. 95 c. 80 d. 85
952. Which results in necrotic pulp a. Inflammatory resorption b. Replacement
resorption c. External resorption
953. Over the counter bleaching is with 25 % carbamide peroxide and the most
common side effect is tooth sensitivity
a. Both statements are true
b. First statement is true, second is false
c. First statement is false, second is true
d. Both statements are false
954. While performing a tooth preparation, removal of one of the cusps and
replacement with restorative material corresponds to the idea of: a. Resistance form
b. Retention form c. Outline form d. Convenience form
955. A patient who had a deep MOD composite placed in one of the lower molars
complains about pain and sensitivity, dentist replaces the occlusal of the restoration
with a new composite and pain is gone what is an explanation of why the pain
occurred? a. Voids in the previous restoration b. Leakage c. Fracture of the tooth –
The reason for post operative sensitivity is polymerization shrinkage causing gaps,
which could result in rapid movement of dentinal fluid and this sensitivity. - BB
956. Recurrent caries incidence for a class II composite is highest where? a. Gingival
floor
957. DO composite does NOT contain which of the following? A. Axiopulpal line angle
b. Axio gingival line angle c. Mesiofacial line angle d. Axio distal line angle
958. Which one of the following has the highest difference of coefficient of thermal
expansion with the actual tooth? 1- ceramics 2- porcelain 3-polymers 4-polemr
associated with resin. – Wax (250-400)
959. When there is minimum attached gingival, what happens? 1- most likely you get
gingival recession
960. When you have a horizontal rot fracture how do u take and x-ray?
1-one xray from angulated vertical angle
2-one x-ray from horizontal angulated angle
3-3-multiple x-rays from different horizontal angles
4-multiple x-rays from different vertical angle (One at 0 degrees, then one at + and – 15
degrees – Mosby)
961. When do u remove alveolar proper? 1-ostectomy 2- osteotomy 3-alevoplasty etc
962. A pedunculated white lesion on the palate that is rough, what is it? 1- fibrome 2-
papiloma 3-pleomorphic adenoma
963. Porcelain has tooth matching color by? a. Dentist choice by metamerism b. Lab
adds stains in the inside of the porcelain c. Lab glazes and polishes the porcelain in
the end of the design
964. All of these could be considered as differential diagnosis of aneurysmal bone cyst
except? osteomas, fibrous dysplasia, central giant cell granuloma, hemangioma
965. For routine tooth extraction ,all is true except?
2 major forces are luxation and rotation
teeth are extracted by luxation forces
teeth are extracted by rotation forces (Rotation only for single rooted teeth. Not all)
class 2 lever is used in tooth extraction
966. Compared to a full thickness flap, a partial thickness(split-thickness) flap will
A. increase the loss of marginal bone.
B. reduce infraosseous defects.
C. provide improved surgical access.
D. increase the amount of attached gingiva.
E. reduce healing time
967. Which of the following is not an action of epinephrine when given in high doses?
increases liver glycogenolysis
causes bronchoconstriction
produces rise in bp
evokes extrasystoles in the heart
produces restlessness and anxiety
968. What will you see in a diabetic patient? general gingival recession, gingival
abcess, necrotizing gingiva, periodontal abcess
969. At high concentration of fluoride in drinking water (4ppm) the caries incidence:
a) remains the same b) decrease c) increases
970. Moderately developmentally disabled 5-year-old child is crying excessively and
resisting physically during an emergency dental visit. Which of the following methods
of patient management should the dentist use in this situation? Voice control, Home,
Physical restrain – Master app
971. What will prohibit mesial drift of tooth toward edentulous area? Proper axio-
occlusal contact (opposing and adjacent tooth) – T
972. Proximal resistance form of amalgam restoration comes from what? a.
convergence of buccal / lingual wall b. retention grooves in axiobuccal / axiolingual
walls c. Dovetail – DD: dovetail provides resistance to proximal displacement.
973. Oral granulomas, apthous ulcer, rectal bleeding is seen in. Wegeners
granulomatosis, ulcerative colitis, crohns disease
974. Which treatment has the least successful long term prognosis on a deep carious
lesion on #3? 1. Direct pulp capping, 2. Indirect pulp capping, 3. Pulpotomy, 4.
Pulpectomy and RCT - Direct pulp capping is for noncarious exposure only. (Mosby)
975. What would be the most reasonable cause for a tooth’s symptoms to change
from reversible to irreversible pulpitis? a) Accumulation of traumatic injuries b)
Bacterial involvement inside pulp chamber c) Increased intra-pulpal pressure
976. Excess interocclusal space causes: a) decrease VDO b) increase VDO c) same
VDO
977. Biotransformation of drug causes – lipid soluble, protein binding, therapeutic
active - makes it water soluble (less lipid soluble, more ionized)
978. Fear causes – inc pain tolerance, intensify pain - Fear often increases the person's
perception of pain, and pain then increases feelings of fear and anxiety.
979. Which part of curette tip is adapted to the toot (a) distal 3rd (b) middle 3rd (c)
proximal 3rd end – Lower third (1/3)
980. Diagnose Chronic apical abscess vs Chronic periodontal abscess
(a) EPT (b) Radiograph (c) Thermal test – I think answer is “c” but EVERYBODY say “a”
981. Which drug is effective against Herpetic simplex, Herpes Zoster and Varicella
Zoster
(a) Amantadine (b) Valiclovir (c) other IDK – According to Mosby PG 335 – Table 8-39:
VALACYCLOVIR is effective against HSV and VZV- FOSCARNET is the only drug
effective against HSV, VZV, and CMV.
982. Radiograph showing radiopacity in lower right mandibular area spreading from
2nd molar to 1st premolar
(a) Perifying ossifying fibroma (b) CGCG (c) Fibrous dysplasia (d) IDK
Fibrous dyplasia is radiopaque, not well circumscribed and ground glass appearance.
983. Pt avoiding dentist becoz of ugly ulcer on palate and also shows concern while
sitting on chair, what do you say?
(a) Don't worry I will look at it in detail (b) It seems you are concerned with that condition
in your mouth (I picked this one as we don't give false assurance to any pt)
984. A dentist conductes a study about satisfaction of patients treated in 1 month
period of time which study is this? ( basically a cause effect relationship result)
(a) Case control (b) Cohort (c) Cross sectional (d) Clinical trial (my ans I just picked
because it is interventional study I might be wrong) Answer is: Cross sectional
985. Informed consent can have all of the following EXCEPT: A) Informed consent must
be presented in advance of the treatment. B) Informed consent must contain
treatment options. C) Informed consent must be in written form. D) Informed consent
must contain risks and benefits of the treatment…..
986. One ques was on paraphrasing: they gave 4 totally confusing statement...I was
supposed to pick which was NOT paraphrasing pt words.....
987. Patient complains, “Why do I have to stay here for so long for you to do this, why
can’t you finish it already?” A) Because that’s how treatment works you idiot. B) That’s
how long it takes to provide quality care. C) It seems like you’re upset, may be we
can reschedule you for another day for longer appointment. D) It seems you are
upset, what are your concerns about the procedure we’re doing today?
988. Question about what do you need for caries: Bacteria, supporting carbs and a
susceptible tooth
989. Primary tooth requires additional reduction on which surface
(a) Mesial and distal (b) lingual (c) buccal (d) other option
DD à In the case of first primary molars, the buccal bulges often are very prominent. It is
sometimes necessary to remove them to get the preformed crown to fit over the
buccal prominence.
990. Incisal guide table is for (a) for anterior teeth arrangement (b) condylar guidance
991. PID ques about changing from 8 to 16 inch all other parameter remain only
change in exposure time from 0.5 to which one (0.5*4=2)
992. In X-ray tube , Electrons are produced by ?
A- molybdenum cup
B- leaded glass
C- tungsten filament
D- copper filament
993. X-rays are produced when
(1)protons strike the anode.
(2)electrons strike the anode.
(3)the anode is heated above 3,000 degrees C.
994. x ray effect is called: thompson effect or photoelectric effect
995. Epinephrin given along with erectile dysfunction medication what effect is
produced: epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor!! so epinephrine will reduce the effect of
the drug
996. Removal of subgingival calculus is termed as
(a) scaling- (b) root planing – removal of infected cementum (c) curettage – removal of
infected pocket lining
997. Ques asking which procedure is most conservative when width of caries is more
than 1/3 of intercuspal space a) amalgum b) inlay c) onlay d) cronw
998. Epi reversal is due to – alpha 1 blocker
999. Force put on crown, where is center of translation or rotation? Halfway down root
(axis of rotation located in the apical 1/3 of the root – tipping)
1000. Best to debride infected oral wound? 3% hydrogen peroxide
1001. Pt with Alzheimer dz, what do you do? Continue to monitor
1002. Lidocaine – mepivacaine (Cross allergy, both are amide)
1003. Cocaine produces vomiting by – activating CTZ in brain
1004. Actinic cheilitis occurs with - SCC
1005. Amnesia related ques of which ans was Alprazolam – T - anterograde Amnesia
1006. Sertraline (Zoloft) adverse effect or something – frankly speaking I forgot what it
was in my test I randomly picket xerostomia hope it is right - Yes zoloft or sertraline...
cause xerostomia
1007. Zoloft what does it act on? Serotonin – it’s an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor)
1008. Complement activated by – a) T cells b) B cells c) lymphokines d)
immunecomplex
1009. What do we write the consult for: A) To gain certain information B) To gain
clearance C) To have a better relationship with patient’s physician, of course.
1010. Wheel chair transfer ques with option – sliding method still is best technique to
transfer pt
1011. Disabled kid, best measure: Consistency
1012. Articular disk has 25 mm opening with click then on closure there is again a click,
when is there is another click what is it due to – disk rest on condyle on opening and
moves forward on closure (indirectly disk displacement with reduction)
1013. Best Amalgam: High copper spherical amalgam
1014. Mandibular 3rd molar root lost: submandibular space
1015. Which of the following is clinical sign of Leukemia: Bleeding from gums, pale
conjunctiva, fever
1016. Acromegaly causes: Excessive growth of mandible
1017. Radiograph of zygomatic arch – CT scan, NO submentovertex in options
1018. Patient does not have tooth #11 and has all the premolars, which one has the
Worst Prognosis: A) fixed bridge from #10-12. B) RPD with pontic for #11 – C) Implants
with canine guidance
1019. Pt with medullary carcinoma of thyroid
a-hyperparatyrodisum
b-MEN (Pheochromocytoma and MEN cause thyroid cancer)
c-interstinal polyps
1020. Kid-8 year old- 3mm crowding. TX
a-primary canine extract
b-primary canine disking
c-molar extract
d- molar disking
1021. blood flow test in pulp? ts Doppler ( for blood flow) or like this thing , was before rq
with options
1022. IRM added in 1990, what was that?
a-ZnPo4
b-titanium
c-silver
d-PMMA
1023. Discolouration with ant tooth, endo treated portion of carious teeth, need to be
restore? TX
a-porcelin veneer
b-FCC – Full Ceramic Crown
c-metal crown
d-composite
1024. After injection-pt feels tachycardia, weak, wheezing, lethargy. Reason?
Anaphylaxis, hyperglycemia, anxiety attach
1025. Edge to Edge ant bite seen in photograph what is not recommended?
a. PFM Crown
b. All ceramic crown
1026. Patient has lithium overdoes its effects is greater on ? KIDNEY and TYROID.
Nausea, diarrhea, convulsion, coma, cardiac arrhythmias, polydipsia, polyuria, inhibits
the effect of antiodiuretic hormone on the kidney. TYROID ENLARGEMENT: increases
stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion; may cause hypothyroidism.
1027. Most type of bacteria in ANUG ? A. Provetella b. Spirochete
1028. What type of fracture associated with exposed impacted tooth? A. Comminuted.
B. Compound c. Simple - Compound. Bone would be exposed through the mucosa
near teeth.
1029. Least likely virus to be found in the oral cavity infections – HIV
1030. Which lesion resolves by itself? Hematoma and hamartoma both in option, others
were obvious tx needed.
1031. Bone marrow depression by what drug? – Chloromphenicol
1032. Tx of osteromyelitis? Was surgical options, no meds - Sequestrectomy,
saucerization, curettage
1033. Tooth prep ques on anterior teeth, reduction on middle and incisal third for PFM:
gingival 0.3, middle 0.5, incisal 0.7
1034. Finishing line in PFM (CHAMFER 1.0mm - LABIAL SHOULDER 1.5mm) and veneer
(CHAMFER) – Butt joint (SHOULDER) for porcelain jacket crowns
1035. Pt came in for a 3 month recall, initial therapy doesn’t show any changes, pocket
depths not exceeding 3-4 mm, what tx step will u do? srp and wait for 3 more months,
surgery only if pockets greater than 4 mm
1036. Pt comes in for a 6 month maintenance appt, little improvement in pdl status and
plaque control is efficient, though u can see infra gingival calculus, what was the
reason? You didn’t do SRP properly, pt has no goof access to the deep pockets, pt
only concerns about looks, etc
1037. Angry child, shows this behavior on the second but was cooperative on the first
appt, what is the best method to control this behavior? N2O tx, GA, papoose board,
voice control
1038. Validity – is the extent to which it actually tests what it claims to test. The validity of
a test is determined by its ability to show which individuals have the disease in
question and which do not.
1039. Sensitivity – percent of persons with the disease
1040. Specificity – percent of persons without the disease
1041. Reliability – equal to the repeatability and reproductibility of a test (level of
agreement between repeated measurements of the same variable).
1042. Macroglossia is not seen in which of the following conditions, chose
hyperparathyroidism,
1043. Pt with mid face ill developed, no ear pinna, which syndrome? Eagle’s, tracher
Collin’s, apert, crouzon - Malformed ear= Trache Collin's
1044. Cause of angular chelitis: immune, speech therapy, poor home care
Predisposing Factors: intra-oral Candida albicans infection, loss of inter-maxillary distance
(decreased vertical dimension), trauma to the labial commissure induced by
prolonged dental treatment. Also linked to Candida albicans. Treatment: NYSTATIN
will eliminate the fungal infection. - BB
1045. Ethical principles and legal rules? Both are same, totally different, ethics exceed
legal rules, rules exceed ethics.
1046. AED - automated external defibrillator (AED) is not used in? children, old patients,
etc - ts not given to trauma pts, kids under 1 year old and ppl with high pulse
A defibrillator must not be used on an individual who is conscious or has a pulse even if it
is erratic but not life-threatening. 1. Responsive 2. Unresponsive WITH pulse 3. People
under 55 LBS 4. People who are soaking wet (dry off chest)
1047. Aspirin patch is histologically? Necrosis, hyperkeratosis, etc
1048. Folic acid inhibited in? methotrexate, fluorouracil – people say both, BUT! -
Methotrexate is a Folic Acid Analog and 5-Fluorouracil (5FU) is a Pyrimidine Analog.
1049. Bisphosphanates are not given in? metastasis of breast ca to bone, metastasis of
prostate to bone, osteomyelitis, multiple myeloma
1050. Which is the most common oral site for metastatic cancer? Posterior mandible
1051. Which is the most common site for primary oral cancer? Tongue
1052. Worst prognosis? Floor of tongue
1053. Best prognosis? Lower lip
1054. Supra basilar split and pemphigus
1055. Bone Grafting, which one shows worst prognosis? Max ant, mand ant, max post,
mand post
1056. Trephination – Apical trephination is accomplished by aggressively placing a No.
15 to 25 k-file beyond the confines of the apex. Surgical trephination is a perforation of
the alveolar cortical bone to release accumulated tissue exudates. A small (5-mm)
horizontal incision is made with a No. 15 scapel blade at the level slightly apical to the
root apex. A No. 6 or 8 round bur is used on a straight handpiece to penetrate the
cortical plate above the root apex. If there is diffuse swelling (cellulitis), antibiotics are
usually indicated. – DD
A. Incision and drainage and trephination.
1. Objectives are to evacuate exudates and purulence and toxic irritants. Removal
speeds healing and reduces discomfort from irritants and pressure. The best treatment
 for swelling from acute apical abscess is to establish drainage and to clean and
shape the canal.
Indications for trephination of hard tissues:
a. If a pathway is needed from hard tissue to obtain necessary drainage.
b. When pain is caused by accumulation of exudate within the alveolar bone.
c. To obtain samples for bacteriologic analysis.
Procedure.
a. Incision and drainage is a surgical opening created in soft tissue for the purpose of
releasing exudates or decompressing an area of swelling. Trephination refers to
surgical perforation of the alveolar cortical bone to release accumulated tissue
exudates. Profound anesthesia is difficult to achieve in the presence of infection
because of the acidic pH of the abscess and hyperalgesia. The incision should be
made firmly through periosteum to bone. Vertical incisions are parallel with major
blood vessels and nerves and leave very little scarring. These procedures may include
the placement and subsequent timely removal of a drain. Antibiotics may be
indicated in patients with diffuse swelling (cellulitis), patients with systemic symptoms,
or patients who are immunocompromised.
1057. Purpose of Hex in implants - antirotation
1058. Most common type of caries seen in kids
1059. Non working side interference
1060. Beclomethasone uses – Beclomethasone, Budesonide, & Flunisolide: special
glucocorticoids (INHALERS) developed to treat chronic asthma and bronchial disease
by readily penetrating the airway mucosa, but have very short half-lives after they
enter the blood so systemic effects and toxicity are greatly reduced. - is inhalational
steriod used as inhaler in asthma prevention.
1061. What is advantage of Beclomethasone – corticoid (topical and inhaler)
1062. Combination of tricyclic antidepressants (there was diferent combination but the
correct was) A) imipramine + amitriptyline
1063. Doxycyline read its uses – Doxycycline (Vibramycin)- treats syphilis, rickettsia
infections, Chlamydia, & mycoplasma infections, and is an alternative to mefloquine
for malaria prophylaxis. - Prevents further breakdown of periodontal tissues by
blocking collagenase.
1064. Picture - Hyoid bone (both sides)
1065. Pano- inferior border of mandible
1066. Cocaine - vasoconstrictor
1067. Opioid side effects – Common Side Effects: sedation and drowsiness (by
depressing the conscious centers of the brain), dizziness, & nausea. The MOST
common side effect of the narcotic (opiate) analgesics is NAUSEA. Narcotic
analgesics DO NOT cause peptic ulcers or insomnia.
1068. Fracture at root apex: splinting for how many days? 7-10 days, 2-3 weeks, 4-6
weeks – Horizontal fracture - rigid splinting for 3 - 4 months
1069. Avulsed tooth - flexible splint for 7-10 days (1-2 weeks)
1070. How long after extraction can you insert the complete denture???? 4 weeks, 1
week, 6 weeks, 8 weeks (8-16 WEEKS)
1071. Pt takes too much opioid, what do you see? A. insomnia b. irritability c. headache
d. pt feels cold – because of hypothermia / hypothension
1072. Mepivacaine indication – mepivacaine has less of a vasodilator effect compared
with the others and is the drug usually chosen when a vasoconstrictor is not used with
the local anesthetic.
1073. Question on upcoding – reporting a more complex and/or higher cost procedure
than was actually performed.
1074. Down coding: a practice of third party payers in which the benefit code has
been changed to a less complex and /or lower cost procedure than was reported
where delineated in contract agreements.
1075. Bundling: systematic combining of distinct dental procedures by a third party
payer that result in reduced benefit for the patient/beneficiares.
1076. Unbundling: separating of dental procedure into component parts with each part
having a charge so that the cumulative charge of the component is greater than the
total charge to patients who are not beneficiaries of a dental plan for the same
procedure.
1077. Bacteria seen in chronic periodontitis – P. gingivalis (P. gingivalis, T. forsythia, P.
intemedia, C. rectus)
1078. Chronic periodontitis most common in – black males
1079. Percussion used for- symptomatic apical periodontitis
1080. Ept indications – usually elicits a response at a HIGHER current than normal if the
tooth being tested has CHRONIC PULPITIS. Acute pulpitis - indicated by a lower than
normal current, as acute inflammation mediators lower the pain threshold. Chronic
pulpitis - indicated by a response at a HIGHER current than normal. Hyperemia -
indicated by a LOWER than normal current, but a higher current than with an acute
pulpitis. Pulp necrosis/Abscess - indicated by no response at any current level. - BB
1081. Benzoyl peroxide initiator- self cure
1082. Caoh indications - Calcium hydroxide may be used to induce apical hard tissue
formation. Use calcium hydroxide for reparative dentin. Typical liner used with direct
restorations. - Mosby
1083. Q on galvanic shock patient had electric pain after restoration
1084. Q on reversible pulpitis irreversible pulpitis
1085. Recession - apical positioning flap? I thinks it is contraindicated - Free Gingival
Graft Indications: Prevent further recession and successfully widen (increase the
width) of attached gingiva, used therapeutically to widen attached gingiva after
recession occurs and prophylactically (to prevent), corrects localized narrow
recessions or clefts, but NOT DEEP WIDE RECESSIONS. Pedicle Flap (Laterally Positioned
Flap) - areas where narrow gingival recession. Used to correct or prevent recession by
providing root coverage, creating a wider band of gingiva, and in the absence of
recession to widen the zone of gingiva. Coronally Positioned Flap - a full -thickness
mucoperiosteal flap almost exclusively used to restore gingival height and the zone of
attached gingiva over isolated areas of gingival recession.
1086. Most prevelant - type two diabetes? Type 2 diabetes is the most common form of
diabetes.
1087. Interaction between nitroglycerin and epinephrine is what type of antagonism?
Allosteric, Physiologic, Biochemical, Competitive
1088. Color stability in light cure - Tegdma
1089. Composite class 2 restoration maintained by - extent till caries, retention n
resistance form, rest i forgot options
1090. Rubber dam leakage - holes placed too close
1091. Rest thickness at margin - 0.5/1.5 or 1mm? – Occlusal rest 1.5 mm (Mosby)
1092. Treatment of nug what antibiotics n mouthwashes. - The treatment of NUG or NUP
includes debridement, hydrogen peroxide (or chlorhexidine) rinses, and antibiotic
therapy (Pen. V) if there is systemic involvement (manifested by fever, malaise, and
lymphadenopathy). Patients with HIV-asssociated NUG require gentle debridement
and antimicrobial rinses. (DD)
1093. What distunguish myocardial infarction from angina – thrombosis
1094. Indirect sympathomimetic drug? Diphenyl - Amphetamine is the ans
1095. Occlusal adjustments after composite restoration or amalgam: green stone,
diamond bur, steel bur or carbide bur? - Remaining excess composite = finishing
diamond burs, discs, strips, and the margins finely polished. Aluminum oxide disks
provide the most desirable finished surface for a composite resin. - BB / Green stone is
used to remove a relatively large bulk of amalgam.
1096. Sodium hypochlorite doesn't - chelates
1097. Sodium hypo - dissolves necrotic tissues
1098. If a patient is taking chantix what else need to be included in his smoking quitting
regimen 1)use nicotin patches 2)zyban 3)behavioural counsellingis the ans
1099. Community fluoride: 0.2% / week in underprivileged areas . true is the ans
1100. Case q's about side effect of drug that cause altered taste sensation?
Cyclobenzaprine ans , calcium carbonate
1101. Loosening and premature loss of deciduous teeth seen in early stage of -
hyperphosphatasia - hypophosphatasia IS THE ANS - psuodophosphatasia
vit d resistant rickets - vit d deficient rickets
1102. Patient complains of pain due to oral mucositis after radiotherapy, the pain is best
treated with:
a. Nystatin b. Benzyl hydrochloride IS THE ANS c. Topical conticosteroid d. Morphine
1103. Large filler particles in composite increase the strength of hardness? False - Small
size filler particles in composite resins results in better finishing and greater resistance to
occlusal wear. - BB
1104. Large filler particles in composite increase polishibility & finishing? False
Smaller filler particles are used to produce a resin with a relatively smooth finished surface
- BB
1105. Pt. wd radiation therapy effects- carcinogenisis? Osteoradionecrosis?
Oral mucous membrane: (1) Near the end of the second week of therapy, the mucous
membrane begins to show areas of redness (mucositis), (desquamated epithelial
layer, secondary yeast infection by C. albicans is a common complication and may
require treatment.
1106. Pt. has white spot on cervical area of tooth, what is the treatment- fluoride varnish
or no treatment
1107. Reverse smile - pt chin upward
1108. In class V amalgam preparation for an incipient lesion, the ideal internal form of
the preparation has which of the following features?
a. Axial wall is flat b. Mesial and distal walls converge c. Occlusal and gingival walls
converge d. Axial wall is uniformly deep into dentin
1109. Lithium – bipolar
1110. In preparing a class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the
mesial and distal walls toward the occlusal surface. This divergence serve to
a. Prevent undermining of marginal ridges b. Provide convenience form
c. Resist the forces of mastication d. Extend the preparation into areas more readily
cleansed.
1111. Which bur is used to converge axial wall of the crown, ????/No. 173
1112. Elongation of which papillae - hairy tongue (HYPERTROPHY of the FILIFORM
PAPILLAE)
1113. Facebow – The facebow transfer is NOT a maxillo-mandibular record. Rather, it is
a record used to orient the maxillary cast to the hinge axis on the articulator. The
facebow transfers the maxilla/hinge axis relationship to the articulator during
mounting of the maxillary cast.
1114. TCA antagonist – Physostigmine - Physostigmine's primary therapeutic role aims to
ameliorate delirium as a result of the anticholinergic (more accurately,
antimuscarinic) toxidrome resultant from the blockade of muscarinic receptors by
agents such as atropine, antihistamines, tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), amongst other
xenobiotics.
1115. Class V glass ionomer prep should : not bevel at all – Not for Gic, bevel only for
composite.
1116. What kind of bur cuts more efficiently? Diamond
1117. 12 year girl had AML and bone marrow replacement most likely to find
intraorally? Candidiasis – children w/ leukemia are very susceptible to candida fungal
infections, thus, nystatin rinses are effective tx.
1118. Which drugs cause cleft lip and palate = anticonvulsants , valium, vitamin
deficiency or excess
1119. Place a FPD and it has occlusal deflection, what it the immediate result? A.
fracture B. pain on biting C. sensitivity to cold. – The most common complaint after
cementation of a fixed bridge is sensitivity to hot/cold and is an indication of a
deflective occlusal contact. Inmediate correction of the occlusion must be made.
1120. Which of the following has decreased ALP and early loss of teeth –
hypophosphatasia.
1121. Retention maxillary complete denture = peripheral seal
1122. Retention mandibular complete denture = denture stability in covering as much
basal bone possible without impinging on muscle attachment
1123. PT fractured many FPDs you made her, why? Bad metal frame work design –
Repeated fracture of a porcelain fused to metal (PFM) is due primarily to an
Inadequately Designed Framework.
1124. Why is there a cross-linking agent to dimethacrylate? So you can layer acrylic
without getting craze/fracture lines. STRENGTH-for proper adhesion between
incremental curing.
1125. When will Amelog. Imp. Have the most effect on the maxillary centrals? A. 1-6
months – calcification of maxillary centrals 3-4 months. (Laterals 10-12 months)
1126. What type of drug is PROZAC? Prototype SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor)
1127. Max strength of porcelain? CONDENSATION - Max condensation, less porosity =
stronger porcelain!
1128. Most caries in primary teeth seen where? distal to mandibular 1st
1129. In young patients, stains are more prominent on which area of the teeth? cervical
1130. Which of the following does a .02 taper indicate for a K-file?
(1)0.02mm increase in diameter per 1mm of file length
(2)0.2mm increase in diameter per 2mm of file length
(3)0.2mm increase in diameter per 1mm of file length
1131. Picture of traumatic granuloma (pyogenic granuloma) in buccal vestibule, what
is the Tx? Excision, If pregnant, lesion may regress after birth – BB
1132. NSAIDs works on? Platelet reversibly – except aspirin
1133. What causes gingival hyperplasia? Calcium Channel Blockers: Verapamil
1134. Which thyroid drug adds iodine to thyroxine decreasing its level – prothiouracil.
1135. Which antiretroviral causes pancreatitis and peripheral neuralgia – Stavudine
1136. Forcepts – elevation, luxation, compression, reflection? – Luxation – Elevation and
reflection is periosteal, compression is fingers.
1137. THE BUCCINADOR MUSCLE IS PIERCED BY THE NEEDLE WHEN PERFORMING AN
INFERIOR ALVEOLAR NERVE BLOCK. – DD
1138. Intraoral lesion of TB seen as – tonsillitis and ulceration (ulcer in the mid-dorsum or
tip of the tongue)
1139. Hyperventilating : tachypnea and tachycardia
1140. Most caries susceptible tooth – maxillary 1st molar – upper 1st molar are most
commonly affected (Kaplan)
1141. Must difficult to change – HUE, easiest – CHROMA
1142. Which of the following should NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin?
A. Acetaminophen.
B. Metronidazole.
C. Penicillin.
d. Codeine
1143. In pediatric patients 1. asthma has a decreasing prevalence. 2. asthma is an
acute inflammatory disorder. 3. asthma leads to increased caries. 4. asthmatic
attacks can be triggered by anxiety
1144. Positive Nikolsky: Pemphigus Vulgarys, Pemphigoid, Epydermolysis Bullosa
1145. Radiologic damage is less with:
A. more oxygen
B. decreased are of exposure (or less oxygen)
1146. Congestive heart failure: pedal edema, dyspnea and orthopnea
1147. Least sedative drug: Chlorpheniramine, Fexofenadine (second generation)
1148. A patient has a crown on tooth #30. On trying to close the jaw, the jaw deviates
to the left. What is the reason? Interference on buccal inclines
1149. Which of the following is the most important factor affecting pulpal response?
(1)Heat
(2)Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut (remaining dentin thickness) - ASDA
(3)Desiccation
MANNA BHATT RQs

1. K sparing drug: Amiloride, triamterene, Spironolactone

Spironolactone

Thiazides
Na and Cl cotransport
Dec resorption of Na and Cl
Hydrocholrothiazide - prototype
Loop diuretic
Na/K/2cl cotransport
Inhibits resorption of Na and Cl
Furosemide -prototype
Bumetanide
Ethacrynic acid
Torsemide
K sparing
Na channel block: spironolactone
Eplerenone
- aldosterone antagonist: Amiloride
Triamterene
Carbonic anhydrase:
Acetazolamide
Weak diuretic
Used in altitude sickness
Osmotic diuretics
Mannitol
Glycerin
Urea
Used in edema after neurosurgery or trauma to CNS

2. Virax in oral cavity? Virax (Acyclovir) used for Rx of Herpes infection

3. What procedures you cant do in AIDS patient? Antifungal prophylaxis

4. Opiods effects. The short-term effects of opiate use can include: Feelings of
euphoria, pain relief, drowsiness, sedation. Long-Term Effects of Opiates: Nausea and
vomiting, abdominal distention and bloating, constipation, liver damage (especially
prevalent in abuse of drugs that combine opiates with acetaminophen), brain
damage due to hypoxia, resulting from respiratory depression, development of
tolerance, dependence.
5. Papoose contraindication: Mentally compromised pt
6. Battery
7. Lot of prostho occlusal interference questions
8. Which study doesn’t show cause and effect: Cross sectional, and also examine two
variables at the same moment.
9. Drugs those blocks prostaglandins has increased effect on gastric mucosa?
No it decrease gastric mucosa and increase gastric acid (peptic ulcer). Aspirin and
other cox inhibitors.
10. Patient with squeletal prognatic maxilla and lower class 3 molar relationship. What
do u do per surgical ortho treatment? a.Labial movement of both upper and lower
incisors b.Lingual movement of upper and lower incisors c.Labial movement for upper
incisors and lingual for lower d.Lingual movement for upper incisors and labial for
lower
We do pre surgical with brackets bring lower lingually, and for upper surgically we do
lefort 1.
11. Combination syndrome
12. Chs of band and loop
13. Least fracture resitant ; lithium, feldpathic, zirconia
14. Pka ( ph when drug is 50% ionized and 50% non ionized ) has effect on what?
onset

15. 16 kg of 3 year old how many mgs LA to give? 16 x 4.4 : 70.4 mg

16. What meds you give in osteomyelitis? Clindamicin

17. Pt with bizarre behavior and disorientation you give what? ; insulin, glucose
18. Initial stages of sedation what pt feels?
19. Condensing osteitis? Excessive bone mineralization around the apex of an
asymptomatic vital tooth. Radiopacity may be caused by low-grade pulp irritation.
This process is asymptomatic and bening. It does not require endodontic therapy.
 20. 2 questions on Periapical Cemental ossifying
21. What cyst in roots of mandibular premolar? lateral periodontal (also is the least
common gral. cyst)

22. What lesions are not radiopaque? ; Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor (AOT),
ameloblastic fibroma, odontoma

23. Least likely to occur, AOT, odontogenic myxoma

Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor (AOT): Teens, females; anterior jaws; in association
with the crowns of impacted teeth. Well – circumscribed unilocular RL lesion, may
have small opaque foci. Enucleation, totally bening, encapsulated lesion that does
not regres.

24. Which anticancer drugs effect on folic acid? Methotrexate

25. RG pictures Rg ameloblastic fibro odontoma

26. 9 year old kid swollen gingiva, recureent skin infections
27. what is complication of maxillary molar extractions
28. what is easily curable, macule, hematoma, or something?
29. 2 questions on Incisal guidance
30. RPD I bar fractured what you do? Soldiering
31. What does conjugation do to a drug? Make IT more water soluble

143. Problem with manual dexterity, what will he have problem with?
Flossing
Brushing

144. Dexterity comes by what age?

A.3-4 years
B.1-2 years
C.5-6 years
D.7-8 years

143. What surface of a tooth benefits the most from systemic fluoride
Roots
Pits and fissures
Smooth surfaces

144. Which surface part of the tooth gets the least benefit of flouride?
1-Occlusal,
2-Proximal,
3-Root,
4-Facial
The use of fluorides is the best approach to preventing caries. Fluoride, however, is
believed to be least effective on the occlusal or chewing tooth surfaces.

145. Characteristic feature of Achondroplasia?

-open bite
-midface deficiency

145. Patient with achondroplasia, what will you most probably see
a) class 2
b) open bite
c) class 3

146. Which is more prone to injury in mand molar extraction :

1) IAN
2) Lingual nerve
3) None
Trauma to inferior alveolar nerve may occur in the area of the roots of the mandibular
third molars. Lingial nerve travels very close to the lingual cortex of the mandible in this
area.

147. For a population, the researcher divides the number of disease cases by the number
of people. By so doing, the investigator will have calculated which of the following
rates:
a- incidence
b- odds ratio
c- prevalence
d- specificity

148. Orange stain is added to porcelain in order to? Decrease value, increase the
chroma of a basically yellow shade. Staining a porcelain restoration will reduce the
value (as will using a complementary color). It’s almost impossible to increase the
vale. Master app: orange stain is commonly used to change the hue of porcelain.

149. A 50yr old male patient has been advised for multiple extractions in relation to tooth
#4, #6, #15, #20, #22, #25. Which of the following is the correct extraction sequence?
A) # 4, #6, #15, #25, #22, #20
B )#4, #15, #6, #25, #22, #20
C) #15, #4, #6, #20, #25, #22 - Canines are extracted last
D) #25, #22, #20, #6, #4, #15
E) #15, #6, #4, #25, #20, #22

150. Which of the following would you NOT prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.
4. Codeine.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
Metronidazole and Erythromycin inhibits warfarin metabolism. Aspirin inhibits platelet
aggregation and causes bleeding.
151. Where would you look in a scientific journal to find the dependent and independent
variables
· Intro
· Materials · Methods ** Moby pg 225
· Conclusion
· Summary

152. Which antibiotic is appropriate for premedication in the penicillin allergic patient?
a. Cephalexin
b. Clindamycin
c. Erythromycin d. Amoxicillin e. Ampiciilin

153. Which one is the most likely to promote proliferation of subgingival, black-pigmented
bacteroides.
A. Oral cont raceptives
B. Propranolol Underal®)
C. Chloroth iazide (Diuril®
154. The drug-of-choice for the treatment of adrenergically induced arrhythmias:
quinidine.
lidocaine.
phenytoin.
propranolol. Propranolol is a non selective B locker so it blocks adrenergically B1 receptor,
B 1 receptor action is heart rate and force

155. Propranolol and epinephrine given together: epinephrine is adrenergic

neurotransmitter causing increase in HR and PB... propranolol would block beta
causing bradycardia instead

156. Which of the following locations would a perforation demonstrate the best
prognosis?
(1)Apical 1/3 of root
(2)Middle 1/3 of root
(3)Coronal 1/3 of root
Perforations located close to the apex have better prognosis than those near the crestal
bone (Google books) - talking bout root surfaces. "Coronal third of the root, the
prognosis is poor." Mosby pg 20.

157. Study among smokers and nonsmoker for 6 years (2010-2016) to develop disease?
1 Cross sectional study
2 Cohort study
3 Case Control study
4 Interventional study
Cohort study: prospective cohort study – a general population is followed through time to
see who develops the disease. The investigators choose or define a sample of
subjects who do not yet have the outcome of interest. Retrospective cohort study:
used to evaluate the effect that a specific exposure has had on population.
Investigators choose or define a sample of subjects who had the outcome of interest.
 They measure risk factors in each subject that may have predicted the subsequent
outcome.

158. Case control study based on

A risk
B exposure.
C disease
D incident
Case-control study: people with a condition (cases) are compared with people without it
(controls) but who are similar in other characteristics. Hypothesized causal exposures
are sought in the past medical records. Prevalence.

159. A study which is conducted in different cases to find out the etiology of different
diseases varying in different subjects:
A) case control study
B) clinical trial
C) cross sectional stud

160. Cross-sectional study:

A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Experimental

161. Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following?

1. Epulis fissuratum
2. Lingual varicosities
3. SCC
4.median rhomboid glossitis. 5. Prominent fungiform papillae.

162. Sarcoidosis resembles?

a,Median Rhomboid glossitis
b,Benign migratory glossitis
c-granuloma
No tuberculosis and histoplasmosis ..choose from above. Sarcoidosis is a disease of
unknown etiology characterized by granuloma formation in a variety of organs.

163. Where does the epithelial for a graft come from? with
a. Donor epithelium
b. Donor connective tissue
c. Recipient epithelium d. Recipient connective tissue

164. Ultrasonic scalers are contraindicated with composite restoration ... T

When scaling porcelain and composites, the use of an ultrasonic scaler is
contraindicated. Porcelain may fracture or lose marginal integrity. Composites have
shown surface alterations, and amalgams have shown a loss of marginal integrity and
surface damage.

165. The longest acting .most potent and most toxic LA

1 lidocaine
2 dibucaine
3 bupivacaine
4 tetracaine

166. Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have
been caused by which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
Overhang - wedge
Overcontour- matrix

167. Excessive VDo= less freeway space

decreased VDO= more freeway space? T

168. Not reversible index is:

a.perio
b.gingival
c.DMFT
d.OHI-S

168. DMFT index is only used for permanent teeth. T/F

169. DMFT index limitation means? This only shows you the history of decay, missing, and
filled teeth in ones mouth. It doesn't give you anymore info than that. So lets say the
patient has root caries; DMFT will not tell you anything on that, or if the patient has any
sealants, it will not give you any info on that either.

170. DMFT (decayed-missing-filled teeth index) – Best index DMFS (surfaces)

171. What will account for the anterior space for permanent mandibular incisors
1. Flaring max. Incisors
2. Primate space
3. Leeway space
172. Which allows more space for eruption of permanent mandibular incisors?
Leeway space (For late shift) - Leeway is the diff in MD width bet primary C 1st n 2nd
molars and perm C 1st n 2nd premolars.
Primate space
Leeway space - Difference in the size b/w primary posterior teeth and the permanent
canine and premolars. Max- 1.3 mm per quadrant Mandi- 3.1 mm per quadrant
Primate spaces- Naturally occurring space in primary dentition. Max- B/w lat incisor and
canine... Mandible- B/w canine and 1st molar

173. 8 years old Mandibular second primary molar, painful

You did extraction what space maintenance after
A. band and loop
B distal shoe
(at 8 yrs old permanent first molar already erupted)

174. Little girl had ALL, had radiolucency in furcation of primary 2nd molar. What is the
treatment?
• Extraction
• Pulpotomy
• Pulpectomy

Radiolucency in furcation: In primary molars, the initial irreversible pulpitis radiographic

sign is furcation radiolucency. Luglie found that 77% of the primary molars studied had
accessory canals in the furcation area, explaining why the radiolucency appears
there first. In permament molars the radiolucency appears at the apex because it is
where most accessory canals are located. The size of the furcation radiolucency in a
primary molar is nor a contraindication to pulpectomy.

Pulp therapy is contraindicated:

Patients susceptible to bacterial endocarditis
Patients with leukemia
Patient with nephritis
Patients with cancer
Patients with depressed polymorphonuclear leukocyte and granulocyte counts.

Contraindications for pulpectomy:

Nonrestorable tooth
Internal or external root resorption
Teeth without accessible canals (commonly first primary molars)
Significant bone loss.

175. Carbide bur with more cutting blades

A. rough surface at high speed
B. Rough surface at low speed
C. smooth surface at high speed
D. smooth surface at low speed
Therefore, low speeds are generally reserved for excavating decay, using disks, and
polishing, while high and ultra speeds are used for bulk reduction, obtaining outline
form, and removing old restorations. (Kaplan)

176. Antibiotic contraindicated with ALCOHOL are Metronidazole, Tinidazole,

Antimalarial, flurazolione, Griseofulvin

177. Antibiotic contraindicated with ALCOHOL are Metronidazole, Tinidazole,

Antimalarial, flurazolione, Griseofulvin
MARNE NBDE RQ’s ….. y más!

1. Proscar is used to treat? Proscar (Finasteride) is used to treat benign prostatic

hyperplasia (BPH).

2. Motion sickness medication (not include antihistamines): Scopolamine

The most effective single medication for prophylaxis against motion sickness is
SCOPOLAMINE.

3. 3 years old child with 5 mm intruded:

Observe
Extraction
Ortho eruption

4. Most common respiratory emergency

Hyperventilating
Asthma

5. Upper first molar forceps: 150

Maxillary forceps
99 --> Maxi anterior
150--> maxi premolar
18 53 88 (R & L) --> Maxi first and second molar
210--> Maxi 3rd Molar
Mandibular forceps
103--> Mandi anterior
151--> Mandi premolar
13, 15,16,17,23--> Mandi first and second molar
222--> Mandi third
Deciduous forceps
101--> for all teeth

6. 1997 law CHIP: T - For children in families whose income too high to qualify for
Medicaid and private is too costly for them. Offers basic preventive and diagnostic
services. Dental coverage was not a requirement in state (chip) then in 1997 its
included in 49-50 states (mosby 221 page)

7. Dual cured vs light cured, color stability? T - Light cure more stable

8. Image: looked like Geography tongue, (but was not include in option)
In lateral border of tongue, was not there 3 weeks ago
Erytropakia: clinical term to describe any erythematous (red) area on a mucous
membrane, that cannot be attributed to any other pathology.
Lichen planus
Geo. Tongue: inflammatory condition of the mucous membrane of the tongue, usually on
the dorsal surface. It is characterized by areas of smooth, red depapillation (loss of
filliform papillae) which migrate over time. The cause is unknown, but the condition is
entirely benign (importantly, it does not represent oral cancer), and there is no
curative treatment. Uncommonly, geographic tongue may cause a burning sensation
on the tongue, for which various treatments have been described with little formal
evidence of efficacy.

9. Nitroglycerin (antianginal = coronary artery vasodilator) side effects: The two most
common adverse effects caused by nitroglycerin are orthostatic hypotension and
headache DD131. It is sublingually effective within 2-4 minutes – 0.3mg). Antianginal
drug: Nitrate: Nitroglycerin: This drug is the single most effective agent available for
the management of acute angina episodes. Note: It dilates mostly veins. Indications:
angina, acute myocardial infarction, and congestive heart failure. (FA)

10. Patient taking digitalis and diuretics. What's the patient is suffering from? CHF -
Cardiac glycosides or “digitalis”, Digoxin is the most versatile and widely used. They
are used to treat most SUPRAVENTRICULAR ARRHYTMIAS, CARDIOGENIC SHOCK AND
CHRONIC HEART FAILURE. Drug interactions: many drugs affect digoxin levels.
However, digoxin does not affect the levels of other drugs, In addition, when beta–
blockers are added to digoxin in patients with AV conduction abnormalities,
complete heart block can result. Erythromycin, clarithromycin and tetracycline may
increase digitalis absorption and toxicity. Thyroid replacement therapy increases dose
 requirements of digoxin. Drugs that lower plasma potassium levels (Thiazide and loop
diuretics) increase digitalis toxicity. Of both digitalis and diuretic given what the pt will
have? It will increase digitalis toxicity and lead to arriyhymia.

11. 22 years old separated lesions in tongue and pharynge, fever, malaise.
Herpetic gingivoestomatitis: Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis (also known as primary
herpetic gingivostomatitis) generally affects children under the age of three and
young adults. There are prodromal symptoms (fever, malaise, irritability, headache,
dysphagia, vomiting, lymphadenopathy) 1 to 2 days prior to local lesions. Then small,
yellowish vesicles form, which rupture quickly, resulting in shallow, round, discrete
ulcers with an erythematous halo - DD
Aphtous ulcer
Herpangina: also called mouth blisters, is a painful mouth infection caused by
coxsackieviruses. Usually, herpangina is produced by one particular strain of
coxsackie virus A (and the term "herpangina virus" refers to coxsackievirus A, but it
can also be caused by coxsackievirus B or echoviruses. Symptoms include sudden
fever with sore throat, headache, loss of appetite, and often neck pain. Within two
days of onset an average of four or five (but sometimes up to twenty) 1 to 2 mm
diameter grayish lumps form and develop into vesicles with red surrounds, and over
24 hours these become shallow ulcers, rarely larger than 5 mm diameter, that heal in
one to seven days. These lesions most often appear on the tonsillar pillars (adjacent to
the tonsils), but also on the soft palate, tonsils, uvula, or tongue.

12. Neurogenic sarcoma associated with what? Neurofibromatosis Neurofibroma may

appear as solitary lesions or as multiple lesions as part of the syndrome called
neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen disease of skin). The solitary
neurofibroma is most commonly found on the skin: in the oral cavity, the tongue and
buccal mucosa are most commonly affected. Derived from Schwann cells and
perineural fibroblasts. Treatment: 1. Solitary: surgical excision – 2. Neurofibromatosis:
removal is impractical due to number of lesions, it is best left untreated because
multiple recurrences may be associated with malignant transformation to neurogenic
sarcoma. The importance of the lesions is the high risk (5% -15%) of malignant
transformation.

13. Axillary freckling, lich nodules. Neurofibromatosis type I (von Recklinghausen's

disease). Clinical features: six or more café-au-lait macules that are greater than 1.5
cm. These are usually smooth-surfaced (Coast of California) / Two or more
neurofibromas OR one plexiform neurofibroma (patognomonic for the condition) /
Axillary freckling (called Crowe’s sign) / Iris hamartomas (called Lisch nodules) / Optic
gliomas and several types of osseous lesions are associated.

14. 4 years old kid is

Fearful
Bossy
Uncooperative

15. In US most dental pay is: private pay? Out of pocket

16. Histology shows parakeratinized epithelial lining and basal paragliding cells
OKC (Keratocystic odontogenic tumor - KOTs): Most common in patients aged 10-40,
multiple lesions found in children may be component of the “nevoid basal cell
carcinoma syndrome” – Gorlin syndrome, the chief site of involvement is the mandible
in the posterior body and ascending ramus, the tendency to grow in an anterior-
posterior direction without bony expansion, carry a recurrence rate of 30%.
Radiographic: well – demarcated area of radiolucency with corticated margins,
unilocular or multilocular, they cannot be distinguished from other cysts
radiographically. Microscopically: the lining epithelium is uniformly thin, (6-8 cell
layers) and has wavy parakeratin, the basal layer is palisaded with intensely staining
(hyperchromatic) nuclei, no rete pegs are present.

17. Researcher has set alpha 0.05. Results showed p value 0.01 and researcher reject null
hypothesis. What type of error is it? / Experiment was done and error 0.05 was the goal
of the experiment. After experiment was completed, the error was 0.01. The question
asks what type of error was it? Type 1 error
If p<0.05, reject the Ho: the observer outcome is judged to be incompatible and the
alternative hypothesis is adopted. In this case, the results are said to be “statistically
significant”.
If p>0.05, accept the Ho.
A type I error occurs when the null hypothesis (H0) is true, but is rejected. It is asserting
something that is absent, a false hit. A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is
false, but erroneously fails to be rejected. It is failing to assert what is present, a miss.

18. Anterior teeth class 4 big composite done few weeks ago. The filling is acceptable but
too light. What to do?
Re do
Observe
Apply composite tint

19. How to differentiate endodontal and periodontal abscess

Pulp testing .. same with vitality test
Percussion

20. Patient had tooth extraction and wants to sleep at night. What analgesic do you
prescribe? Naproxen (long lasting)

21. Anterior, fractured tooth needs crown lengthening. Which surgery do you do?
Gingivectomy
APF with Osseous contouring
APF without osseous contouring

22. Veneer reduction on facial: 0.5 mm

23. PFM is too opaque on Invisalign 3 rd: insufficient 2 plane reduction

24. Central tendency question:

Mean: adding, dividing
Median: middle measurement in a set of data where half the data are above and half
 the data are below the number.
Mode: most frequent
FREQUENNCY DISTRIBUTION
Positively skewed: large number of low scores and small number of very high scores.
Negative skewed: large number of high scores and a relatively small number of low
scores.

25. When is elective RCT? Contraindications

Leukimia, uncontroll DM , recent MI

26. Gingivectomy indications: Gingiva Hyperplasia/Hypertrophy and suprabony pockets!

27. Gingivectomy incision? Above mucogingival junction

28. Remineralized enamel characteristics: Shiny and hard, darker
29. When does enamel start to demineralize (critical ph) 5.5 – T
30. Which is most important: value – T
31. Which show saturation of color: chroma
Hue is color
Chroma is saturation of color

32. Which is not a differential diagnosis of DI?

AI
DD
Ectodermal dysplasia

33. When supernumerary tooth is seen? Cleidocraneal dysplasia T – Gardner too

34. Multiple osteomas seen in: Gardner 's

35. Patient is behaving bad but dentist ignored him and continues treatment. What hi is
doing? Extinction

36. Aspirin side effect (multiple side effect in each option)

Overdosage of salicylates (acute aspirin toxicity) is life threatening and requires
intensive supportive treatment in a hospital. Initial symptoms include RESPIRATORY
ALKALOSIS with HYPERPNEA and TACHYPNEA, NAUSEA, VOMITING, HYPOKALEMIA,
TINNITUS, HEADACHE, DIZZINESS, CONFUSION, DEHYDRATION, HYPERTHERMIA,
HYPERACTIVITY and HEMATOLOGIC ABNORMALITIES, progressing to COMA and
RESPIRATRY COLLAPSE. Chronic aspirin toxicity: SALICYLISM, CNS EFFECTS, BLEEDING
and GI DISTURBANCES. Aspirin is an irreversible platelet inhibitor and can reduce
blood clotting to prolong bleeding. Low doses of aspirin taken regularly can have a
cardio-protective effect. These doses reduce thromboxane production in platelets to
result in the inhibition of platelet aggregation. In this way, aspirin has the ability to
inhibit the formation of life-threatening thrombi (blood cloths).

CONTRAINDICATIONS: bleeding disorders (aspirin will increase bleeding time), do not use
in children (Reye syndrome), pregnancy (specially during the third trimester), peptic
ulcers (aspirin may cause bleeding of the GI tract), ASTHMA, RHINITIS, NASAL POLIPS,
concomitant use of anticoagulants.
37. Dens invaginatus commonly found in? Max Lat
38. Fluoride replaces which group: hydroxyl - What the fluoride treatment does is replace
hydroxyl groups with fluoride.

39. The size of radiolucency in #8 increase after treatment it can't be due to

Apical scar
Change in angulation
Canal leakage

40. Chronic periodontitis most seen in? Black male – T

41. Contraindications of elective RCT? Recent MI, uncontrollable DM

42. Arbitrary articulator

43. Group function: Only possible when Anterior/Canine guidance absent! Otherwise
posterior teeth disoclude! Group function occlusion is characterized by having
working contacts. Sometimes called unilateral balanced occlusion, is an occlusal
relationship in which all posterior teeth on a side contact evenly as the jaw is moved
toward that side (working side). All teeth on the non-working side are free of any
contact. The group function of the teeth on the working side distributes the occlusal
load. The absence of contact on the non-working side prevents those teeth from
being subjected to the destructive, obliquely directed forces found in non-working
interferences. It also saves the centric holding cusps, the mandibular buccal cusps
and the maxillary cusps from excessive wear. THE OBVIOUS ADVANTAGE IS THE
MAINTENANCE OF THE OCCLUSION. Some relationships are not conductive to cuspid
protected occlusion (canine – diclusion of all of the posterior teeth) such as CLASS II or
end-to-end relationships. Some relationships are not amenable to group function such
as CLASS II, deep vertical overlap. When placing a crown on a maxillary canine, if you
change a canine protected occlusion to group function you increase the potential
for a “non-working side” interference.

43. Balanced occlusion: All teeth contact during all excursive movements in complete
dentures -- CR coincides CO - no anterior guidance

44. Orthostatic hypotension ( meds who can cause it): Opiods, anti hypertensives,
nitrates, hypoglycemic

45. Medication interacting with nitroglycerin: EPINEPHRINE (physiologic antagonists)

46. Medication interacting with LA

47. Treatment for cardiovascular disease: Statins

48. Nitroglycerin, propanolol, and something else are all used to treat which of the
following conditon? angina - Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator, dilates the coronary arteries
for proper blood flow
49. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of nitroglycerine? a.
Dizziness b.projectile vomiting c.tachycardia d.Headaches

50. Which of the following medications increases the risk of bleeding?

a) Dabigatran - Blood thinner. It can treat and prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of
stroke.
b) Sprinolactone c) Verapamil d) Nitroglycerin e) Losartan

51. A patient who uses nitroglycerine has

A. rheumatic heart disease.
B. asthma.
C. coronary artery disease
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
Indications: angina, acute myocardial infarction, and congestive heart failure. (FA)

52. Nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries in angina pectoris by a.Decreasing the
heart rate reflexly b.Increasing the metabolic work of the myocardium c.Direct action
on smooth muscle in the vessel walls d.Increasing the effective refractory period in
the atrium e.Blocking beta-adrenergic receptor

53. Which antitubercosal drug inhibits the syntesis of arabinogalactan ??

a)isoniazid b)rifampin c)pyrazinamide d)rifabutin e)ethambutol

54. Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with which medication?

hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid, all.

55. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of stevens johnson
syndrome? a.quinidine b.valproic acid c.ethosuximide d.isoniazid

56. which of the following agents is used for HIV infections?

a. Amantadine b. Acyclovir c. Zidovudine d. Ribavirin e. Isoniazid

57. The most potent anti tubercular drug is

Isoniazid (often given in a four drug regimen – bacteriostatic and bactericidal)
Rifampicin: most active against bacteria undergoing cell division (bacteriostatic OR
bactericidal)
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol: active only against mycobacterium
Because the mycobacterium organism tends to develop resistance to any single
antitubercular drug, combination drug therapy is standard in the treatment of
tuberculosis.

58. Which of the following has ototoxic adverse effects?

a. Metronidazole
b. Vancomycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Ceftaroline e. Isoniazid
59. Antibiotic most likely to cause failure of oral contraceptives
Penicillin
Rifampicin
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin Macrolide

60. Locally delivered antimicrobials used to treat infected periodontal pockets include all
of the following EXCEPT
A. Metronidazole B. Chlorhexidine C. Clindamycin D. Doxycycline fibres E. Doxycycline
polymerics

61. What is the best antibiotic to be given in LAP (localized aggressive periodontitis):
Metronidazole or doxycycline – best for perio

62. Which of the following would you NOT prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.
4. Codeine.
A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
Metronidazole and Erythromycin inhibits warfarin metabolism. Aspirin inhibits platelet
aggregation and causes

Patient who r taking Warfarin should not take the following Medications :
1- metronidazole & antifungal which ends with zole (ketoconazole)
2- antibiotics (tetracycline, macrolides)
3- antiplatelet (aspirin)
4- NAIDs

63. The most appropriate antibiotic for a periapical dental abscess is A. pen V. B.
cephalosporin. C. erythromycin. D. metronidazole E.ampicillin.

64. Which one mostly use for nausea vominting after surgery
promethazin
diphenhydramine
chloropromasin

65. Which of the following drugs is most likely to dry secretions in the oral cavity?
A. Diazepam B. Promethazine C. Physostigmine D. Propantheline E.Diphenhydramine

66. Each of the following non sedating antihistamines would be contraindicated in an

individual taking cimetidine for heartburn except one. Which one is the exception?
1 astemizole
2 Diphenhydramine
3 fexofenadine - only antihistaminic to be taken with cimetidine
4 hydroxyzine 5 terfenadine
67. When patient has asthmatic attack on dental chair, all of the following can be given
by IV except:
1. Epinephrine
2. corticosteroids
3. Aminophylline
4. Diphenhydramine – avoid antihistamines

68. Each of the following is an advantage of midazolam over diazepam EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Less incident of thrombophlebitis
B. Shorter elimination half-life
C. No significant active metabolites
D. Less potential for respiratory depression E. More rapid and predictable onset of action
when given intramuscularly
69. Most BDz sedative used in dentistry ?
midazolam - diazepam

70. What benzo do you give to a 37 yo pt with liver cirrhosis?

a. Diazepam b. Midazolam c. Oxazepam
Follow LOT (Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam)

MEPERIDINE (Demerol): narcotic that produce SEDATION and RELIEVES PAIN

MIDAZOLAM (Versed): primarily anti-anxiety, short acting, great for short procedures.
Comes as a liquid for pre-operative sedation in children and as injectable for IV
conscious sedation.
Benzodiazepines should never be taken with any form of alcohol. Serious potentiation of
the sedative effect of each will occur leading to unexpected inebriation and
respiratory depression.
Flumazenil (Mazicon): a benzodiazepine antagonist, may be used to reverse the residual
effect of benzodiazepines in the event of an overdose
ADVERSE EFFECTS of NITROUS OXIDE:
- Decreased mental performance, audiovisual ability, and manual dexterity.
- AT high doses and/or high exposures: reduced fertility, spontaneous abortion,
neurological and kidney disease as well as bone marrow suppression (DD#39)

71. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment is used in

A) osteoradio necrosis B) bisphosphonate related osteo necrosis C) both

72. Which is the injectable bisphosphonate that can create complication in dental
treatment ? Palmidronate , Etidronate

73. Bisphosphonate used for treatment of multiple myeloma – T

74. Which of the following represents the most common form of gingival periodontal
disease in school-aged children?
A. Juvenile periodontitis B. Localized acute gingivitis C. Primary herpetic
gingivostomatitis D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
75. A 20 year old student presents with clinical symptoms of necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis (NUG). Food intake for the last 24 hours indicates a soft diet lacking in fruits
and vegetables. The patient’s diet is important to investigate further because
A. A deficiency of certain nutrients causes NUG.
B. NUG may be limiting the food choices the patient is making.
C. NUG can be cured through modification of diet.
D. Patients with NUG lose interest in eating.

76. Metronidazole can be used to treat

A. denture stomatitis.
B. recurrent aphthous ulcers.
C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG).
D. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

77. What is not indicated for management of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
Pain medication
Saline rinses
Light debridement
Systemic antibiotics
Topical steroids - because it will further depress immune system

78. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative
gingivitis
A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes
C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral
capnocytophaga E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia
79. All of the following should be considered for systemic antibiotic except
A. Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess
B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) unless it is acute.
C. Extraction of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis D. Full mouth extraction for a patient
with perio disease

80. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis and acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can be

differentiated clinically by
A. location of the lesions: interdental papillae involved in ANUG but not in herpes
B. temperature of the patient.
C. pain.
D. lymphadenopathy.

81. In which of the following situations can topical corticosteroids be used?

A. Angular cheilitis. B. Candidiasis.
C. Herpes labialis. D. Erosive lichen planus. E. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

82. Which of the following periodontal disease causes the most rapid destruction of
alveolar bone
Periodontal abscess.
Chronic periodontitis.
Phenytoin induced gingival hyperplasia
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

83. Localized gingival recession of a permanent mandibular incisor in an 8 year old can
be caused by
A. vitamin C deficiency.
B. ankyloglossia.
C. localized aggressive periodontitis.
D. traumatic occlusion. E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
NOTES: Diabetes doesn’t directly cause gingival recession but is a risk factor for
periodontal conditions. Occlusal trauma may cause temporary pain and tooth
mobility during occlusal contact but does NOT typically cause gingival recession.
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis may cause gingival recession at some point but it is
NOT a common dental condition.

84. What is mainly contraindicated for Orthodontics tooth movement?

a) NSAIDs
b) Corticosteroid
EFFECT: ANTI-INFLAMATORY ACTION, IMMUNOSUPPRESSION, AND AN ANTI-ALLERGENIC
ACTION.
TOXIC EFFECT COCORTICOIDS: GROWTH INHIBITION, HYPERGLYCEMIA, OSTEOPOROSIS,
PSYCHOSIS AND SALT RETENTION. Remember: pharmacologic effects of
mineralocorticoids include an increase in sodium retention and an increase in
potassium depletion, which can lead to edema and hypertension if excessive and
may lead to dehydration and hypotension if insufficient. ADVERSE REACTION: Cushing
syndrome, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, peptic ulcers, and an increased risk of
infection. (DD#129)
85. GUIDED TISSUE REGENERATION not done in? Shallow infrabony defects, grade 3
furcations, 1,2 wall defects

86. Which of the following tetracycline class drugs should only be taken once daily due to
its long half life?
(1)Demethylchlortetracycline
(2)Doxycycline
(3)Chlortetracycline

86. How do you determine arch length? Primary teeth - distal to to 2 molar to distal to
2molar / Permanent - distal of second primary molar to distal of second primary molar
Arch width ? Inter canine distance

87. Which medicament can be used during pulpotomy procedure? a.calcium hydroxide
b.EDTA c.MTA d.Flowable composite
NOTE: Used in replacement of formocresol, however, because of the high cost, it is not
often used.

88. Connective Tissue Graft is the most predictable treatment modality for root coverage
-T

DD#101, 102, 103

SELECTIVE GRINDING IN WORKING – SIDE RELATION: RULL OF BULL
- Buccal cusp inner inclines of Upper teeth
- Lingual cusp inner inclines of Lower teeth
SELECTIVE GRINDING IN BALANCING SIDE RELATION: LUBL
- Lingual cusp inner inclines Upper teeth (NBDE2)
- Buccal cusp inner inclines Lower teeth
- Never grind the maxillary lingual cusp (primary centric holding cusps)

Working interference – LUBL. Correction- BULL

Non-working Interference: Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally
occur on the inner aspect of the facial cusps of mandibular molars. Correction- LUBL

Protrusive Interference: occurs between the DISTAL inclines of the facial cusps on
MAXILLARY POSTERIOR teeth and MESIAL inclines of the facial cusps of MANDIBULAR
POSTERIOR teeth – DUML. Correction – MUDL (Grind MESIAL inclines of MAXILLARY
teeth and DISTAL inclines of MANDIBULAR teeth).

CENTRIC: Centric interference (forward slide) can be corrected by grinding mesial

inclines of maxillary teeth and distal inclines of mandibular teeth – MUDL.

Drugs and their antidotes

1. acetaminophen - acetylcycteine
2. benzodiazepine - flumazenil (Mazicon)
3. coumadin - vitamin k
4. curare - tensilon
5. cyanide poisoning - methylene blue
6. digitalis - digibind
7. ethylene poisoning - antizol
8. heparin - protamine sulfate
9. iron - desferal
10. lead - edetate disodium (edta), dimercaprol (bal), succimer (chemet) 11. lovenox -
protamin sulfate
12. magnesium sulfate - calcium gluconate
13. morphine sulfate - naloxone hydrochloride
14. methotrexate - leucovorine
15. mestinon - atropine sulfate
16. neostigmine - pralidoxime chloride (pam)
17. penicillin - epinephrine
18. vincristine (oncovin) - hyaluronidase,also apply moderate heat to disperse drug and
minimize sloughing. (oncovin - iv administration only)
Poison antidotes
arsenic ------------------------------------------------------ dimercaprol, succimer
barbiturates (phenobarbital)------------------------ urine alkalinization, dialysis, activated
charcoal
beta-blockers--------------------------------------------- glucagon
caffeine, metaproterenol, theophylline------------- esmolol
carbon monoxide -------------------------------------- 100% oxygen, hyperbaric o2
cholinesterase inhibitors---------------------------- atropine
cyanide-------------------------------------------------------- nitrite, sodium thiosulfate
ethylene glycol --------------------------------------------ethanol
gold ------------------------------------------------------------dimercaprol
heparin --------------------------------------------------------protamine sulfate
iron salts -----------------------------------------------------deferoxamine
isoniazid------------------------------------------------------- vitamin b6
lead ----------------------------------------------------------- caedta, dimecaprol, succimer
methanol ------------------------------------------------------ ethanol, fomepizole, dialysis
methemoglobin/cyanide poisoning----------------- methylene blue
muscarinic receptor blockers ------------------------ physostigmine
opioids ---------------------------------------------------------- naloxone
organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitors --------- pralidoxime
phencyclidine hydrochloride (pcp) ------------------ ng suction
quinidine, tca's ----------------------------------------------- sodium bicarbonate
salicylates ------------------------------------------------------ urine alkalinization,dialysis, activated
charcoal
snake bites ------------------------------------------------------ antivenin
tissue plasmogen activator (tpa), streptokinase------ aminocaproic acid
warfarin ---------------------------------------------------vitamin k, ffp
alcohol ----------------------- Disulfiram (Antabuse)

INTERACTIONS:
NITROUS OXIDE ------------- VITAMIN B12 synthesis in the human body by interfering with the
enzyme methionine synthase, depleting the body of VITAMIN B12 (brain and nerve
damage).

CONTRAINDICATIONS:
COCORTICOIDS -------------------- Latent TB or fungal infection, AIDS, herpes infections and
patients with peptic ulcer disease (specifically, gastric ulcer) – these drugs themselves
may cause peptic ulcers, congestive heart failure. Orthodontic tooth movement.
(DD125)
NITROUS OXIDE ---------------------- Head injury, bowel obstruction, pneumothorax, middle
ear and sinus infections, COPD (emphysema or bronchitis – NOT ASTHMA, there ARE
NOT contraindications for the use of nitrous oxide sedation in asthmatic patients), first
trimester of pregnancy, with whom communication is difficult (autistic patients),
having a contagious disease since it is difficult to sterilize entire tubes.
NITROGLYCERIN ----------------------- Myocardial infarction with hypotension, hypotension,
and glaucoma. (FA)
 DARSHIKA SHAH'S Rq's

1) Three dentist hired a hygienist - patient injured by hygienist, whose liability?

Hygienist
Hygienist and attending dentist
all d 3 dentist
4th dun remember

2) 3mm crowding in Mandibular ant permanent teeth?

No treatment
Extract primary canine
Disk distal of primary canine
And 1 more option

Early treatment: Mixed dentition minor crowding (up to 4 mm) may be corrected by
proper utilization of the leeway space.

3)Class 2 dea prescription?

Hydrocodone + ibuprofen = CLASS III
Hydrocodone + acetaminophen = CLASS II
Codeine + acetaminophen = CLASS III
Oxycodone + acetaminophen = CLASS II

4) Tooth extraction?
On day of dialysis
1 day prior to dialysis
1 day after dialysis
No ext

5) Which requires elective root canal?

Pain in tooth
Exposed pulp
Severely tilted
Dun remember the 4 th option
Sometimes the elective root canal treatment of a tooth with a healthy pulp is indicated
within a broader framework of restorative care. If severely tilted, preparation of the tooth
for a crown is likely to involve hitting the pulp horn, with the possible need for endodontics
on that tooth.

6) Clamp no.212 (or some no. Dun remember exactly) is used for class 5 restoration
Where to punch the hole?
Long sentences asking where to punch the hole - facially, lingually

7) Class 5 - restoration of choice?

Composite
Rmgi = Resin modified glass ionomer
Dun remember other 2 options
8)Most common in man?
Haemophilia
Diabetes
Dun remember other 2 options

9)CaOh success depends on?

Providing 2mm of gic base

10)Which material most stable in moisture

Polysulphide
Polyvinyl siloxane

11)Wat does not aid in restriction and resistance of crown?

Parallel walls
Surface area
Less convergence
1 more option

12)Tooth crown ration fracture most common with?

mandibular first molar (max CI in trauma horizontal fracture, mand molars - vertical
fracture)

13)patient allergic to?

Nickel
Cobalt
Chromium
Berrylium

14)Patient I dun have time to quit smoking?

Precontemplation
Contemplation
Denial
Acceptance
15) Which is trademark name?
Generic
Registered
Patent
Something dun remember the exact question

16) Patient disoriention and something else?

Insulin
Glucose
Epinephrine
Atropine

17) Dementia?
Short term memory loss
Long term memory loss
18) Most common disease in old age? depression

19) Lingual flange recorded by? mylohyoid, genioglossus (lingual frenum), palatoglossus
(retromylohyoid area), superior pharyngeal constrictor (distolingual extension). There
is one option to choose will go with genioglossus it effect the length of lingual flange)

20) Distobuccal by? The distobuccal extension is determined by the position and action
of the masseter muscle

21) Mandibular buccal frenum which muscle? Triangularis

Zygomaticus
Caninus
One muscle from t dunno
4th option dunno
Mandibular labial frenum = orbicularis muscle
Mandibular buccal vestibule = buccinator muscle.
The buccal vestibule: proper extension into this area provides the best support for the
mandibular denture. This area is referred to as the buccal shelf.

The lower buccal labial frenum is: also morphologically similar to the upper buccal labial
frenum but again less developed. It contains muscle fibers from the depressor anguli
oris, or triangularis (another muscle of facial expression)

22)Which sinus involved in fracture ( I dun remember which)?

Maxillary (Mx lefort one)
Frontal
Naso ethmoidal
One more option

23) Which movement of eye restricted in fracture of floor of orbit?

Sup
Inf
Lateral
Medial

Type I orbital floor blow-out fractures FEATURES ' Limitation of ocular movement on up-
gaze.

24) Question asking what is leeway space? Leeway space is the size differential between
the PRIMARY POSTERIOR TEETH (canine, first and second molars), and the PERMANENT
CANINE AND FIRST AND SECOND PREMOLAR - about 3.1 mm per side in the
mandibular arch and 1.3 mm per side in the maxillary arch. (Mn 2.5,Mx 1.5 for each
arch)

25) Scrap amalgam

Sealed (with sulfide)
Metal container
Open
Mercury chloride solution

26) Where is the retentive arm placed? Gingival 1/3 (Between middle and gingival third
below high of contour) - reciprocal is made of base metal alloy and retentive is
wrought wire

27) Metal can be used in denture base for the reasons except? Metal has good
adaptation and abrasion resistance. Otherwise adequate contour is hard, no esthetic
and poor retention. Metal allergy for some patients
28) The retentive arm of clasp features? Retentive arm is rigid ant 1/3 rd, semi rigid middle
third, and flexible terminal 1/3rd. Passive until activated.

29) What does opaquer porcelain help in all except? Opaque porcelain masks the dark
oxide color and will provide porcelain metal bond. Opaque does not make the main
color of the restoration.

30) Y is gold preferred over amalgam? Ideal contour and very biocompatible. Gold
thermal expansion near to tooth, gives ideal contours, better marginal integrity, more
strength, also very biocompatible.

31) Which property is imp for burnishing the restoration? yield strength

32) The inflamed red spots in smokers palate? nicotonic stomatitis

33) Most common site of caries? Pit n fissure

34) Red complex which bacteria? PTT - Porphyromonas gingivitis, Tannerella forsythia and
Treponema denticola.
35)10mA 1sec and .5secs same effect of the film
What is the ma?
10
5
20 (inverse relation)- time is reduced by half so it will double

35) 1 film was given - underdeveloped and options related to it?

Too high temp
Reduced time: Underdeveloped(light film)- developer too cold, developer deplinish,
inadequate time
N more 2

36)16 kg girl max dosage of lidocaine? 16*4.4=70.4

4.4 mg/kg for lidocaine without vasoconstrictor and 7 mg/kg with vasoconstrictor for both
child as well as adults.

37)Buccal root distal to palatal root. Where was d come placed? MESIAL – SLOB (SAME
LINGUAL OPPOSITVE BUCCAL)

38) The bur used to polish porcelain?

Steel
Carbide
Diamond (for cutting)
30-fluted carbide finishing bur is used to plane the porcelain surface and to remove the
striations created by the diamond instruments.

39)The bur with more flutes?

cut efficiently and polish efficiently
Does not cut efficiently and polish efficiently
Cut efficiently and do not polish efficiently
Nor cut nor polish
The greater the number of cutting blades on a bur results in LESS EFFICIENT cutting but a
SMOOTHER SURFACE (polishing burs are of this type). A lesser number of blades on the
bur results on MORE EFFICIENT cutting but a rougher surface (crosscut fissure burs at
high speed or low speed are of this type).

40) The type of speed for implant

site?
High speed high torque
Low speed low torque
High speed low torque
High torque low speed

41) The margin on cementum. Which material to be placed in gingival third? Glass
ionomer cement ( GICs) or RMGIC W/ sandwich technique

42) Repair of porcelain process? micro etch, etch, silane bonding

43) Melanoma location? Palate and
maxillary gingiva/alveolar ridge

44) Cause of mucocele? Mucocele caused

by ruptured salivary duct, usually due to
trauma, seen on the lower lip.

45) Treatment of ranula? complete excision

with gland in new version of DD. Surgical
excision if recurs the excise subling
gland dbm.

46) Pierre robin was - Cleft palate 50%,

retrognathia and glossoptosis.

47) This was related to Gardener. They didnt mention gardener

anywhere just 3 symptoms wat is 4th that u wud check:
Intestinal polyposis, supernumerary teeth, odontomas, dermoid cysts, and colon cancer.

48) Ration of cleft lip in Caucasian? 1:1000

Lip 1:1000
Palate 1:2000
Both 1:700

49) Chronic periodontitis common?

Male Hispanic
Female Hispanic
Male black
Female black

50) Prevelance can be related with which case study? Descriptive

51) Cause and effect which case study? Clinical trail if no effect then cross sectional
study

52)Osteomas, glossptossis wat wud u check for? Gardner syndrome

53) Duct of submandibular gland? Wharton

54) Plastic heat sensitive materials sterilization? Cold (2%glutaradehyde)

55) Does not reoccur ?

Ameloblastoma
Odontogenic myxoma
Aot – Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (does not recur) dd card 112
Okc
56)12 month rct increase in size of radiolucency all the reason except?
Healing by apical scar - healing by apical scar will not change in size
Insicive canal
Different angulation
Leakage

57) Moa of suphauryl anti diabetic drug? increase insulin production by stimulating b
cells of pancreas

58) Which can be diagnosed only histologically? difference between Radicular cyst vs
Granuloma

59) After 12 months increase in size of lesion in rct treatment teeth except?
Healing by apical scar
Insicive canal
Different angulation
Leakage

60) Pulp necrosis type of wat resorption ?

Inflammatory
Surface
Replacement b
N 1 more option

61) Cellulitis-
Neutrophilia
Neutropenia
Lymphocytosis
One more option

62) OSHA blood borne pathogens - msds sheet:

True - OSHA not related to MSDS sheet

63) Placement of pfm (porcelain fused to

metal) crown margin ant?
Supra
At crest of gingiva
In between crest n epi
Crown-to-root ratio:
Minimum—1/1
Best—1/2
Shoulder margin – when esthetics are imperative (minimum of 1 mm of porcelain can be
stacked at the margin hiding the metal)

64)N d wat makes penicillin allergic? Beta lactame ring

65) Patient has BCC how wud u tell d patient? Good prognosis
do you need to reappointment
this cancer in not as dangerous as others
do you want I called you guardians
the biopsy show that you have a cancer and we do our best to help u out

66) Wat is best X-ray for detecting bone loss? Bitewing

67) Most common finding of cherubism? Bilateral swelling of jaw with premature loss of
prim teeth and delay eruption of perm teeth, soap bubble appearance.

68) Potassium sparing drug? spironolactone

69) Gingivectomy indications contraindications? Indication - supragingival pocket,

enlargement / Contraindication - infrabony pocket, inadequate width of attached
gingiva.

70) facial vertical axis divided? 3 equal thirds – Its 3 plane vertically, 5 planes horizontally

71)cleidocranial wat is absent: clavicle

72)most common salivary gland Tumor: pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)

73) lots n lots of questions related to case study . Which case study tells wat.

74) lot of patient management questions related to desensitisation mostly

75) consent not taken? Which ethic? Violation of Autonomy

76) treatment with out consent? Battery - legal term in which perform a procedure
without consent

77) liquid in gic: Polyacrylic acid

78) statements true reg zinc poly carboxylate:

Good strength not irritating pulp replace zoe
chemical adhesion
high film thickness
Chemical bond to enamel