Chapter 1: Introduction to b. Frequency Domain Measurement d.

none
Communication Systems of the above ANS:
MULTIPLE CHOICE C
1. The theory of radio waves was originated 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is:
by: a. equal to f ÷ c
a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. equal to c ÷ λ
b. Bell d. Hertz c. the distance a wave travels in one period
ANS: C d. how far the signal can travel without
2. The person who sent the first radio signal distortion
across the Atlantic ocean was: ANS: C
a. Marconi c. Maxwell 11. Distortion is caused by:
b. Bell d. Hertz a. creation of harmonics of baseband
ANS: A frequencies
3. The transmission of radio waves was first b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each
done by: other
a. Marconi c. Maxwell c. shift in phase relationships between
b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: baseband frequencies
D d. all of the above ANS: D
4. A complete communication system must 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies
include: present in a modulated carrier is called its:
a. a transmitter and receiver a. frequency-domain representation c.
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel spectrum
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above
analyzer ANS: D
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-
channel grade (telephone) signal is:
ANS: B a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz
5. Radians per second is equal to: b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above
a. 2π × f c. the phase angle ANS: A
b. f ÷ 2π d. none of the above ANS: 14. Noise in a communication system
A originates in:
6. The bandwidth required for a modulated a. the sender c. the channel
carrier depends on: b. the receiver d. all of the above
a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus- ANS: D
noise to noise ratio 15. "Man-made" noise can come from:
b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband a. equipment that sparks c. static
frequency range b. temperature d. all of the above
ANS: D ANS: A
7. When two or more signals share a 16. Thermal noise is generated in:
common channel, it is called: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. resistors d. all of the above
b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: ANS: D
D 17. Shot noise is generated in:
8. TDM stands for: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain b. resistors d. none of the above
Measurement ANS: A
b. Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is:
above a. the same at all frequencies c. greater at
ANS: A low frequencies
9. FDM stands for: b. greater at high frequencies d. the same as
a. Fast Digital Modulation c. Frequency- "white" noise
Division Multiplexing ANS: C
19. So called "1/f" noise is also called:
a. random noise c. white noise
b. pink noise d. partition noise
ANS: B
20. "Pink" noise has:
a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power
b. equal power per octave d. none of the
above ANS: B
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are
combined, the total voltage VT is:
a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1
× V2)
b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2
ANS: A
22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise
power, then divide by noise power
d. none of the above
ANS: B
23. SINAD is calculated as:
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power
c. first add the signal power to the noise
power, then divide by noise power
d. none of the above
ANS: D
24. Noise Figure is a measure of:
a. how much noise is in a communications
system
b. how much noise is in the channel
c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a
signal
d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB
ANS: C
25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier
that can be modulated are:
a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency,
and direction
b. its amplitude and frequency d. its
amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. The telephone was invented in the year
____________________. ANS: 1863
2. Radio signals first were sent across the
Atlantic in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1901
3. The frequency band used to modulate the
carrier is called the ____________________
band.
ANS: base
4. The job of the carrier is to get the
information through the ____________________.
ANS: channel
5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier
is ____________________. ANS: zero
6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for
____________________. ANS: bandwidth
7. The more information per second you
send, the ____________________ the bandwidth
required.
ANS: greater/ larger/ wider
8. In ____________________, you split the
bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to
carry multiple
signals. ANS:
FDM
9. In ____________________, multiple signal
streams take turns using the channel.
ANS: TDM
10. VHF stands for the ____________________
frequency band. ANS: very
high
11. The VHF band starts at
____________________ MHz.
ANS: 30
12. The UHF band starts at
____________________ MHz.
ANS: 300
13. A radio signal's ____________________ is
the distance it travels in one cycle of the
carrier.
ANS: wavelength
14. In free space, radio signals travel at
approximately ____________________ meters
per second.
ANS: 300 million
15. The equipment used to show signals in
the frequency domain is the
_________________________.
ANS: spectrum analyzer
16. Mathematically, a spectrum is
represented by a ____________________ series.
ANS: Fourier
17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of
atmospheric noise is called
____________________.
ANS: noise blanking/blanking
18. For satellite communications,
____________________ noise can be a serious
problem.
ANS: solar
19. Thermal noise is caused by the random
motions of ____________________ in a
conductor.
ANS: electrons
SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the five elements in a block
diagram of a communications system.
ANS:
Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver,
Destination
2. Name five types of internal noise.
ANS:
Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time
3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"?
ANS:
White light is composed of equal amounts of
light at all visible frequencies. Likewise,
thermal noise has
equal power density over a wide range of
frequencies.
4. What is "pink noise"?
ANS:
Light is pink when it contains more red than
it does other colors, and red is at the low end
of the visible
spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher
power density at lower frequencies.
5. Suppose there is 30 µ V from one noise
source that is combined with 40 µ V from
another noise source.
Calculate the total noise voltage.
ANS: 50 µ V
6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of
noise, both across the same 100-ohm load,
what is the signalto-
noise ratio in dB?
ANS: 20 dB
7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-
noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-
noise ratio of 80
dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio.
ANS: 20 dB, NF = 100
8. A microwave receiver has a noise
temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS: 1.5
9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a
noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the
total NF for the pair.
ANS: 5.4
10. Explain why you could use a diode as a
noise source with a spectrum close to that of
pure thermal noise.
How would you control the amount of noise
generated?
ANS:
When current flows through a diode, it
generates shot noise that can be
represented as a current source,
the output of which is a noise current. The
equation for the noise current is very similar
to the equation for
thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the
shot noise is proportional to the diode
current, controlling
the diode current controls the noise power.
Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency
Circuits
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross
from the emitter to the collector is called:
a. base time c. charge time
b. transit time d. Miller time
ANS: B
2. A real capacitor actually contains:
a. capacitance and resistance only c.
capacitance, inductance, and resistance
b. capacitance and inductance only d.
reactance only
ANS: C
3. Bypass capacitors are used to:
a. remove RF from non-RF circuits c.
neutralize amplifiers
b. couple RF around an amplifier d. reduce
the Miller effect
ANS: A
4. A resonant circuit is:
a. a simple form of bandpass filter c. both a
and b
b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers d. none
of the above ANS:
C
5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier
will:
a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit c.
"multiply" the Q
b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit d. have no
effect on Q
ANS: B
6. The "Miller Effect" can:
a. cause an amplifier to oscillate c. reduce
the bandwidth of an amplifier
b. cause an amplifier to lose gain d. all of the
above
ANS: D
7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:
a. using a common-emitter amplifier c.
increasing the Q of the tuned circuit
b. using a common-base amplifier d. it 16. The Clapp oscillator is:
cannot be avoided a. a modified Hartley oscillator c. a type of
ANS: B crystal-controlled oscillator
8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to: b. a modified Colpitts oscillator d. only built
a. inductance of collector lead c. base-to- with FETs
emitter capacitance ANS: B
b. collector-to-emitter capacitance d. base- 17. A varactor is:
to-collector capacitance a. a voltage-controlled capacitor c. used in
ANS: D tuner circuits
9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is b. a diode d. all of the above
usually done with: ANS: D
a. RC coupling c. direct coupling 18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:
b. transformer coupling d. lumped reactance a. used for a precise frequency
ANS: B b. used for very low frequency drift (parts
10. Neutralization cancels unwanted per million)
feedback by: c. made by grinding quartz to exact
a. adding feedback out of phase with the dimensions
unwanted feedback d. all of the above ANS:
b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or D
ground plane 19. If two signals, Va = sin(ω at) and Vb =
c. decoupling it sin(ω bt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
d. none of the above ANS: a. will contain ω 1 = ω a + ω b and ω 2 = ω a –
A ωb
11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it b. will contain ω 1 = ω a / ω b and ω 2 = ω b / ω a
requires:
c. will contain ω = (ω a + ω b ) / 2
a. a nonlinear circuit
d. none of the above
b. a linear amplifier
ANS: A
c. a signal containing harmonics
20. In a balanced mixer, the output:
d. an input signal that is an integer multiple
a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all
of the desired frequency ANS:
input frequencies
A
b. contains the input frequencies
12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier
c. does not contain the input frequencies
requires:
d. is a linear mixture of the input signals
a. loop gain equal to unity
ANS: C
b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
21. "VFO" stands for:
c. both a and b, but at just one frequency
a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator c. Varactor-
d. none of the above
Frequency Oscillator
ANS: C
b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator d. Voltage-
13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation
Feedback Oscillator
from an amplifier are called:
ANS: B
a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria
22. A "frequency synthesizer" is:
b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen
a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference
criteria
frequency
ANS: D
b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change
14. The Hartley oscillator uses:
frequency
a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator
b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric
d. same as a mixer ANS:
crystal
A
ANS: A
COMPLETION
15. The Colpitts VFO uses:
1. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits
a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
should be ____________________. ANS:
b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric
short
crystal
ANS: B
2. At UHF frequencies and above, elements 15. At some bias point, a diode or a
must be considered as ____________________ transistor can act as a ____________________-
instead of as law mixer.
being "lumped". ANS: ANS: square
distributed SHORT ANSWER
3. When one side of a double-sided pc board 1. What inductance would you use with a 47-
is used for ground, it is called a pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10
____________________. MHz?
ANS: ground-plane ANS:5.4 µ H
4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit 2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz
can be reduced by using ____________________ tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100
between kHz?
them. ANS: shielding ANS:100
5. In high-frequency RF circuits, the 3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10
placement of wires and ____________________ is being used to make an oscillator. What
can be critical. should be the value
ANS: components of the feedback ratio to satisfy the
6. A ____________________ circuit is used to Barkhausen criteria?
remove RF from the DC voltage bus. ANS: ANS:0.1
decoupling 4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator
7. A ____________________ capacitor is used to compared to a Colpitts oscillator?
short unwanted RF to ground. ANS: ANS:
bypass It is more stable because it "swamps" the
8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier device capacitance with large value
depends on the ____________________ of the capacitors in the feedback
tuned circuit. divider.
ANS: Q 5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at
9. A value of ____________________ or more for zero volts, what will be the capacitance at 4
Q is required for the approximate tuned volts?
circuit equations ANS:30 pF
to be valid. ANS: 10 6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz
10. In a class C RF amplifier, the at 20°C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per
____________________ extracts one frequency degree Celsius. What
from all the harmonics contained in the will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What
device current (e.g. collector current). percentage is that?
ANS: tuned circuit ANS:50 kHz, 0.05%
11. Using additional feedback to compensate 7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed
for "stray" feedback is called into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz
____________________. signal; V2 is a 5-
ANS: neutralization MHz signal. What frequencies would you
12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a expect at the output of the mixer?
____________________ voltage divider to ANS:15 MHz and 25 MHz
provide feedback. 8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency
ANS: capacitive synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference
13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has frequency of 1 MHz
both a ____________________ and a and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What
____________________ should be the value of the programmable
resonant frequency. ANS: series, divider to get an output
parallel frequency of 120 MHz?
14. To produce sum and difference ANS:12
frequencies, a mixer must be a non-
____________________ circuit. Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation
ANS: linear MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AM stands for: a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz
a. Audio Modulation c. Angle Modulation b. 10 kHz d. none of the above ANS:
b. Amplitude Modulation d. Antenna B
Modulation 10. If an AM radio station increases its
ANS: B modulation index, you would expect:
2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c.
a. the baseband signal c. the amplitude the signal-to-noise ratio to increase
signal b. the received RF signal to increase d. all of
b. the carrier signal d. none of the above the above
ANS: A ANS: D
3. If the audio Va sin(ω at) modulates the 11. The modulation index can be derived
carrier Vc sin(ω ct), then the modulation from:
index, m, is: a. the time-domain signal c. both a and b
a. m = ω a / ω c c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. the frequency-domain signal d. none of
b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / ω a the above
ANS: B ANS: C
4. The equation for full-carrier AM is: 12. The main problem in using quadrature
AM would be:
a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ω ct) c. v(t) = (Ec
a. requires too much bandwidth c.
× Em) × sin(ω mt) × sin(ω ct)
incompatibility with ordinary AM radios
b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ω mt) + sin(ω ct) d. b. requires too much power d. all of the
v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ω mt)) × sin(ω ct) above
ANS: D ANS: C
5. Overmodulation causes: 13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:
a. distortion c. both a and b a. is more efficient
b. splatter d. none of the above b. requires a more complex demodulator
ANS: C circuit
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes c. requires less bandwidth
from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, d. all of the above ANS: D
is: 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for:
a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + a. single-carrier c. sideband-carrier
Emin) b. suppressed-carrier d. none of the above
b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – ANS: B
Emin) 15. PEP stands for:
ANS: C a. Peak Envelope Power c. Peak Envelope
7. If Va sin(ω at) amplitude modulates the Product
carrier Vc sin(ω ct), it will produce the b. Peak Efficiency Power d. none of the
frequencies: above
a. ω c + ω a and ω c – ω a c. ω c + ω a and 2ω c + ANS: A
2ω a 16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts
b. (ω c + ω a)/2 and (ω c – ω a)/2 d. none of the at peak modulation, what will it radiate with
above no modulation?
ANS: A a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts
8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband b. 500 watts d. 0 watts ANS:
power is: D
a. equal to the carrier power c. half the 17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-
carrier power fidelity" because:
b. twice the carrier power d. 1.414 × carrier a. AM is susceptible to noise
power b. commercial AM stations use low power
ANS: C c. commercial AM stations have a narrow
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz bandwidth
carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will d. all of the above ANS: C
be: 18. The type of information that can be sent
using AM is:
a. audio c. digital data
b. video d. all of the above ANS:
D ____________________ watts with 100%
19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One
tone causes a modulation index of m1 and
the other tone causes a
modulation index of m2. The total modulation
index is:
a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1)
b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2)
ANS: D
20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the
receiver must:
a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b
b. reinsert the carrier d. none of the above
ANS: C
COMPLETION
1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver
can be very ____________________.
ANS: simple
2. A disadvantage of AM is its
____________________ use of power.
ANS: inefficient
3. The ____________________ of an AM signal
resembles the shape of the baseband signal.
ANS: envelope
4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone
produces ____________________ sidebands.
ANS: two
5. Compared to the USB, the information in
the LSB is ____________________. ANS:
the same
6. Compared to the USB, the power in the
LSB is ____________________. ANS:
the same
7. In AM, total sideband power is always
____________________ than the carrier power.
ANS: less
8. In AM, as the modulation index increases,
the carrier power ____________. ANS:
remains constant
9. The power in an AM signal is maximum
when the modulation index is _____________.
ANS: one
10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to
3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of
____________________.
ANS: 6000 Hz
11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends
down to 990 kHz, then the USB will extend
up to
____________________. ANS: 1010
kHz
12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts
with no modulation, it will put out
modulation. ANS: 150
SHORT ANSWER
1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts
with 0% modulation. How much power will it
generate with 20%
modulation? ANS:102
watts
2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is
the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation?
ANS:125 watts
3. A carrier is modulated by three audio
tones. If the modulation indexes for the
tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5,
then what is the total modulation index?
ANS: 0.707
4. You look at an AM signal with an
oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is
100 volts and the
minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the
modulation index?
ANS: 0.6
5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-
ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of
the transmitter is 20
volts, what is the PEP? ANS:4
watts
Chapter 4: Angle Modulation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The FM modulation index:
a. increases with both deviation and
modulation frequency
b. increases with deviation and decreases
with modulation frequency
c. decreases with deviation and increases
with modulation frequency
d. is equal to twice the deviation
ANS: B
2. One way to derive FM from PM is:
a. integrate the modulating signal before
applying to the PM oscillator
b. integrate the signal out of the PM
oscillator
c. differentiate the modulating signal before
applying to the PM oscillator
d. differentiate the signal out of the PM
oscillator
ANS: A
3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is
considered to be limited because:
a. there can only be a finite number of
sidebands
b. it is equal to the frequency deviation
c. it is band-limited at the receiver
d. the power in the outer sidebands is
negligible
ANS: D
4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM
bandwidth requires the use of:
a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c.
Taylor series
b. Bessel functions d. fractals ANS:
B equals one
5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:
a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule
b. Bessel's Rule d. none of the above ANS:
C deviation equals zero
6. NBFM stands for:
a. National Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM
b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM
ANS: D
7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly
due to noise, it is called:
a. the capture effect c. the noise effect
b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect
ANS: B
8. An FM receiver switching suddenly
between two stations on nearby frequencies
is called:
a. the capture effect c. the "two-station"
effect
b. the threshold effect d. none of the above
ANS: A
9. Pre-emphasis is used to:
a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher
audio frequencies
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower
audio frequencies
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all
audio frequencies
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM
stations
ANS: A
10. A pre-emphasis of 75 µ s refers to:
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis
occurs
c. the time delay between the L and R
channels
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used
ANS: D
11. FM stereo:
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher
S/N than mono FM
b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is
not compatible with mono FM
ANS: A
12. An SCA signal:
a. can use amplitude modulation c. is
monaural
b. can use FM modulation d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The modulation index of an FM signal can
be determined readily:
a. using measurements at points where J0
b. using measurements at points where J0
equals zero
c. using measurements at points where the
d. only by using Bessel functions
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. FM and PM are two forms of
____________________ modulation.ANS: angle
2. PM is extensively used in
____________________ communication.
ANS: data
3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio
of FM is usually ____________________. ANS:
better
4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is
usually ____________________.
ANS:wider/greater
5. FM transmitters can use Class
____________________ amplifiers since
amplitude linearity is not important.
ANS: C
6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM
signal ____________________ as modulation is
applied.
ANS: stay constant
7. In FM, the frequency deviation is
proportional to the instantaneous
____________________ of the modulating signal.
ANS: amplitude
8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal
occurs at a rate equal to the
____________________ of the
modulating signal. ANS:
frequency
9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands
in an FM signal is ____________________. ANS:
infinite
10. As FM sidebands get farther from the
center frequency, their power _________.
ANS: decreases
11. Mathematically, the value of an FM
modulation index can be as high as ________.
ANS: any number
12. In FM, as the modulating frequency
decreases, the modulation index ___________.
ANS: increases
13. In FM, as the frequency deviation
decreases, the modulation index _________.
ANS: decreases
14. As the FM modulation index increases,
the number of significant sidebands ______.
ANS: increases
15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the
amplitude of the carrier frequency
____________________.
ANS: disappears/goes to zero
16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be
approximated using __________ rule.
ANS: Carson's
17. FM bandwidth can be calculated
precisely using ________ functions.
ANS: Bessel
18. The _________ effect is characteristic of
FM reception in a noisy environment. ANS:
threshold
19. The ____________________ effect is seen
when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM
signals that are
close to each other in frequency.
ANS: capture
20. Rest frequency is another name for an
FM _____ frequency.
ANS: carrier
SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of
modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz
deviation in carrier
frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of
the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz /
volt
2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency
deviation of 4 kHz, what is the modulation
index? ANS:2
3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-
kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?
ANS:9 kHz
4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM
modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the
modulation index caused by
a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal? ANS:2
5. At a modulation index of 2, how much
power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter? ANS:48.4 watts
6. At a modulation index of 2, how much
power is in the first pair of sidebands of a
1000-watt FM
transmitter? ANS:673
watts
7. At a modulation index of 2, how much
power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a
1000-watt FM
transmitter? ANS:200 mW (0.2
watt)
8. Using Carson's rule, what is the
approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with
a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?
ANS:30 kHz
9. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what
is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a
modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we
ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of
the total power?
ANS:30 kHz
10. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero
for certain known values of mf (2.4, 5.5, etc)
to measure the
frequency deviation of an FM modulator?
ANS:
Use an audio frequency generator to
modulate the FM carrier. Using a spectrum
analyzer, adjust the audio
frequency until the carrier amplitude
vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then
do the calculation: δ =
fm × mf where mf will have one of the known
values. For example, if fm is measured to be 2
kHz when mf is
5.5, then δ is 11 kHz.
Chapter 5: Transmitters
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The ability to change operating frequency
rapidly without a lot of retuning is called:
a. agility c. VFO
b. expansion d. spread-spectrum
ANS: A
2. The difference between the DC power into
a transmitter and the RF power coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require
water cooling
b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above
ANS: D
3. Baseband compression produces:
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to
high
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to
loud
c. a smaller number of signals
d. none of the above
ANS: B
4. ALC stands for:
a. Amplitude Level Control c. Accurate Level
Control
b. Automatic Level Control d. none of the
above
ANS: B
5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to:
a. keep the modulation close to 100% c.
maximize transmitted power
b. keep the modulation below 100% d. all of
the above
ANS: D
6. With high-level AM:
a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c.
minimum RF power is required
b. minimum modulation power is required d.
all of the above
ANS: A
7. With high-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A c.
the RF amplifiers are typically Class C
b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B d.
the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB
ANS: C
8. With low-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A c. the RF
amplifiers must be linear
b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B d. the
RF amplifiers must be low-power
ANS: C
9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any
signal that:
a. is complex c. has variable frequency
b. has variable amplitude d. all of the above
ANS: B
10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to:
a. the power level of the carrier c. the power
level of the final RF amplifier
b. the power level of the modulation d. none
of the above
ANS: D
11. In high-level AM, the power in the
sidebands comes from:
a. the modulating amplifier c. the driver
stage
b. the RF amplifier d. the carrier
ANS: A
12. In an AM transmitter with 100%
modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage
will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage
b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
c. approximately four times the DC supply
voltage
d. none of the above
ANS: C
13. Practical transmitters are usually
designed to drive a load impedance of:
a. 50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive
b. 75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive
ANS: A
14. Which of the following can be used for
impedance matching?
a. pi network c. both a and b
b. T network d. a bridge circuit
ANS: C
15. When a transmitter is connected to a
resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is
called:
a. a heavy load c. a temporary load
b. a dummy load d. a test load
ANS: B
16. When a transmitter is connected to a
resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor
must be:
a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better
b. noninductive d. all of the above
ANS: B
17. A Class D amplifier is:
a. very efficient c. essentially pulse-duration
modulation
b. essentially pulse-width modulation d. all of
the above
ANS: D
18. To generate a SSB signal:
a. start with full-carrier AM c. start with a
quadrature signal
b. start with DSBSC d. all of the above
ANS: B
19. The carrier is suppressed in:
a. a balanced modulator c. a frequency
multiplier
b. a mixer d. none of the above
ANS: A
20. To remove one AM sideband and leave
the other you could use:
a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b
b. a crystal filter d. none of the above 6. Reducing the dynamic range of a
ANS: C modulating signal is called _____________.
21. A direct FM modulator: ANS: compression
a. varies the frequency of the carrier 7. The opposite of compression is called
oscillator ____________________. ANS: expansion
b. integrates the modulating signal 8. ALC is a form of ______. ANS: compression
c. both a and b 9. High-level modulation allows the RF
d. none of the above amplifiers to operate more ___________.ANS:
ANS: A efficiently
22. An indirect FM modulator: 10. Low-level modulation requires the RF
a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator amplifiers to be ____________________. ANS:
b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator linear
c. both a and b 11. To isolate the oscillator from load
d. none of the above changes, a ___________ stage is used. ANS:
ANS: B buffer
23. AFC stands for: 12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C
a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. RF amplifier is ____________________ than the
Automatic Frequency Control DC supply
b. Automatic Frequency Centering d. Audio voltage. ANS: higher
Frequency Control 13. Most practical transmitters are designed
ANS: C to operate into a ___________-ohm load.
24. Frequency multipliers are: ANS: 50
a. essentially balanced modulators c. 14. Transmitters built with transistor RF
essentially mixers amplifiers often use a ____________________
b. essentially Class C amplifiers d. none of network for impedance matching.
the above ANS: T
ANS: B 15. Matching networks also act as filters to
25. With mixing: help reduce ____________________ levels.
a. the carrier frequency can be raised ANS: harmonic
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered 16. Severe impedance ____________________
c. the carrier frequency can be changed to can destroy a transmitter's output stage.
any required value ANS: mismatch
d. the deviation is altered ANS: 17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and
C a _________ into one "box".
COMPLETION ANS: receiver
1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter 18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it
frequency is fixed by the __________ is common to modulate the
oscillator. ANS: carrier ____________________ as well as the power
2. In the USA, the ____________________ sets amplifier in transistor modulators.
requirements for accuracy and stability of a ANS: driver
transmitter's 19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as
frequency. ANS: FCC pulse-_________ modulation.
3. In Canada, _________________________ sets ANS: duration
requirements for accuracy and stability of a 20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes
transmitter's called Class _____________ amplifiers.
frequency. ANS: Industry ANS: D
Canada 21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB
4. Frequency ____________________ is the transmitter is fixed, ____________________ is
ability of a transmitter to change frequency used to operate at
without a lot of more than one frequency. ANS: mixing
retuning. ANS: agility 22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to
5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated start with a _______________ signal.
by ____________________. ANS: PEP ANS: DSBSC
23. Indirect FM is derived from ANS:4 MHz
_______________ modulation. 8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a
ANS: phase carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz.
24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an Explain how you
example of a _____________ modulator. could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz
ANS: reactance with a deviation of 20 kHz.
25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is ANS:
to make it part of a ____________________ loop. First, put the signal through a frequency
ANS: phase-locked doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-
SHORT ANSWER kHz deviation. Then
1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to
0.001%, what is the range of possible generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz
frequencies? deviation.
ANS:50 MHz ± 500 hertz Chapter 6: Receivers
2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile MULTIPLE CHOICE
transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12- 1. The two basic specifications for a receiver
volt car battery? are:
ANS:75.8% a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter b. the number of converters and the number
draws 100 watts from the power supply with of IFs
no modulation. c. the spurious response and the tracking
Assuming high-level modulation, how much d. the signal and the noise
power does the modulation amplifier deliver ANS: A
for 100% 2. The superheterodyne receiver was
modulation? ANS:50 invented by:
watts a. Foster c. Armstrong
4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM b. Seeley d. Hertz ANS:
transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what C
is the maximum 3. Trimmers and padders are:
collector voltage at 100% modulation? a. two types of adjusting tools c. small
ANS:400 adjustable inductors
volts b. small adjustable resistors d. small
5. Suppose the output of a balanced adjustable capacitors
modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. ANS: D
The audio modulation 4. "Skin effect" refers to:
frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass a. the way radio signals travel across a flat
the USB, what should be the center surface
frequency of an ideal b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF
crystal filter? ANS:10.005 MHz signal
6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB c. the increase of wire resistance with
signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 frequency
MHz. What is the d. none of the above
minimum frequency the SSB signal can be ANS: C
mixed with so that the output signal has a 5. The "front end" of a receiver can include:
nominal carrier a. the tuner c. the mixer
frequency of 50 MHz? b. the RF amplifier d. all of the above
ANS:40 MHz ANS: D
7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that 6. "IF" stands for:
puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz a. intermediate frequency c. indeterminate
deviation. If frequency frequency
multiplication is used to increase the b. intermodulation frequency d. image
deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new frequency
carrier frequency? ANS: A
7. AGC stands for:
a. Audio Gain Control c. Active Gain Control
b. Automatic Gain Control d. Active Gain
Conversion
ANS: B
8. The frequency of the local oscillator:
a. is above the RF frequency
b. is below the RF frequency
c. can be either above of below the RF
frequency
d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.
ANS: C
9. The local oscillator and mixer are
combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious
responses
b. it increases sensitivity
c. it increases selectivity
d. it is cheaper
ANS: D
10. Basically, sensitivity measures:
a. the weakest signal that can be usefully
received
b. the highest-frequency signal that can be
usefully received
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
d. none of the above
ANS: A
11. Basically, selectivity measures:
a. the range of frequencies that the receiver
can select
b. with two signals close in frequency, the
ability to receive one and reject the other
c. how well adjacent frequencies are
separated by the demodulator
d. how well the adjacent frequencies are
separated in the mixer
ANS: B
12. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal c. a value of
1.0 is ideal
b. a value of 0.707 is ideal d. there is no
ideal value
ANS: C
13. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 c.
both values are basically equivalent
b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 d.
none of the above
ANS: A
14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in:
a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers
b. the detector d. all of the above ANS:
D 23. A common SSB detector is:
15. Phase distortion is important in:
a. voice communications systems c.
monochrome video receivers
b. color video receivers d. all of the above
ANS: B
16. The response of a receiver to weak
signals is usually limited by:
a. the AGC c. the dynamic range of the
receiver
b. noise generated in the receiver d. the type
of detector circuit being used
ANS: B
17. Image frequencies occur when two
signals:
a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected
signal equal to the IF frequency
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above
the local oscillator by a difference equal to
the
IF
d. enter the mixer, and the difference
between the two signals is equal to twice the
IF ANS: C
18. An image must be rejected:
a. prior to mixing c. prior to detection
b. prior to IF amplification d. images cannot
be rejected
ANS: A
19. Image frequency problems would be
reduced by:
a. having an IF amplifier with the proper
shape factor
b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the
mixer
c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before
the mixer
d. none of the above ANS:
C
20. A common AM detector is the:
a. PLL c. ratio detector
b. envelope detector d. all of the above
ANS: B
21. An FM detector is the:
a. PLL c. quadrature detector
b. ratio detector d. all of the above ANS:
D
22. Germanium diodes are used in AM
detectors because:
a. they are faster than silicon diodes
b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes
c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity
d. all of the above ANS: C
a. a PLL c. a BFO d. none of the above
b. a diode d. a product detector ANS: B
ANS: D 33. SAW stands for:
24. BFO stands for: a. Symmetrical Audio Wave c. Silicon-
a. Beat Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Activated Wafer
Frequency Oscillator b. Surface Acoustic Wave d. Software-
b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Activated Wave
Frequency Oscillator ANS: B
ANS: A 34. The important property of a SAW is:
25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a
need to: stable bandpass filter
a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. it allows software radios to be built d.
b. reinject the carrier none of the above
c. use double conversion ANS: C
d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for 35. The main function of the AGC is to:
DSBSC a. keep the gain of the receiver constant
ANS: B b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
26. Which would be best for DSBSC: c. keep the input to the detector at a
a. carrier detection c. envelope detection constant amplitude
b. coherent detection d. ratio detection d. all of the above ANS: C
ANS: B 36. DSP stands for:
27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to a. Dynamic Signal Properties c. Distorted
amplitude variations is: Signal Packet
a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector b. Direct Signal Phase d. Digital Signal
b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above Processor
ANS: C ANS: D
28. The function of a limiter is: 37. SINAD stands for:
a. to remove amplitude variations c. to limit a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion
dynamic range b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion
b. to limit spurious responses d. to limit noise c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio
response d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise
ANS: A and Distortion Ratio
29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is ANS: D
present is called: 38. TRF stands for:
a. AGC c. AFC a. Tuned Radio Frequency c. Transmitted
b. squelch d. limiting Radio Frequency
ANS: B b. Tracking Radio Frequency d. Tuned
30. LNA stands for: Receiver Function ANS:
a. Limited-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio A
b. Low-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic Noise COMPLETION
Amplification 1. Almost all modern receivers use the
ANS: B _________________________ principle.
31. AFC stands for: ANS: superheterodyne
a. Audio Frequency Compensator c. 2. The first radio receiver of any kind was
Automatic Frequency Control built in the year ____________________.
b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation d. ANS: 1887
Autonomous Frequency Control 3. When two tuned circuits
ANS: C ____________________ each other, it means
32. The function of AFC is: that when the frequency of one is
a. maintain a constant IF frequency adjusted, the other changes with it. ANS:
b. match the local oscillator to the received track
signal 4. The __________effect causes the resistance
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency of wire to increase with frequency.
ANS: skin
5. The superhet was invented in the year 22. While still commonly found, the Foster-
______________. ANS: 1918 Seeley and ratio detectors are ______. ANS:
6. In a receiver, the _______________ refers to obsolescent
the input filter and RF stage. 23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature
ANS: front end detector is sensitive to changes in
7. In a superhet, the output of the ___________ ____________________ of the
goes to the IF amplifiers. ANS: input signal. ANS:
mixer amplitude
8. In a superhet, the __________ frequency is 24. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is
the difference between the local oscillator useful for AGC. ANS:
frequency and the received signal frequency. gate
ANS: intermediate IF 25. Diode mixers are too ____________________
9. The ______ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF to be practical in most applications.
amplifiers in response to signal strength. ANS: noisy
ANS: AGC 26. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must
10. An ____________________ converter uses be Class ____________________. ANS:
the same transistor for both the local A
oscillator and the mixer. 27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually
ANS: autodyne ____________________ coupled for the response
11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is to have a flat top and steep sides.
____________________ than the received signal ANS: over
frequency. ANS: lower 28. Multiple IF stages can be
12. ____________________ is the ability of a ____________________-tuned to increase the
receiver to separate two signals that are bandwidth. ANS: stagger
close to each other in 29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and
frequency. ANS: Selectivity crystal IF filters do not require _______. ANS:
13. ____________________ is the ability of a adjustment
receiver to receive and successfully 30. Up-conversion is when the output of the
demodulate a very weak mixer is a ____________________ frequency
signal. ANS: than the incoming
Sensitivity signal. ANS:
14. A receiver with two different IF higher
frequencies is called a double-________ 31. In a block converter, the frequency of the
receiver. ANS: conversion first local oscillator is __________. ANS: fixed
15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have constant
better rejection of _______ frequencies. ANS: 32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the
image __________ amplifiers.
16. A demodulator is also called a ANS: IF
________________. 33. An ____________________-meter is
ANS: detector designed to indicate signal strength in many
17. An ______________ detector uses a diode communications
to half-wave rectify an AM signal. receivers. ANS: S
ANS: envelope 34. The effectiveness of FM ____________ is
18. A _______________ detector is used for SSB measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity.
signals. ANS: ANS: limiting
product 35. A ____________________ refers to any kind
19. A BFO produces a locally generated of FM or PM detector. ANS:
____________________. ANS: carrier discriminator
20. A DSBSC signal requires a SHORT ANSWER
____________________ detection circuit. 1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit
ANS: coherent is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what
21. FM detectors have a characteristic bandwidth would you
__________________-shaped curve. ANS: expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: 20 kHz
S
2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS:
what is the frequency of the local oscillator A
when the receiver 5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:
is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS:6 MHz a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
3. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS:
kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What B
is the shape 6. The Shannon Limit is given by:
factor value? ANS:1.25 a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS:
frequency. Assuming high-side injection, C
what would be the image 7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as:
frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
MHz? b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax ANS:
ANS:60 MHz D
5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an 8. Natural Sampling does not use:
injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would a. a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample
be the acceptable rate
frequency range of the BFO if the maximum b. true binary numbers d. an analog-to-
acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? digital converter
ANS:1.5 MHz ± 100 hertz ANS: A
6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF 9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover
amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and distortion?
secondary. What value a. They are two types of sampling error.
of kc do you need to achieve optimal b. You can have one or the other, but not
coupling? both.
ANS:0.06 c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover
7. What value of transformer coupling would distortion.
a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with d. They are the same thing. ANS:
optimal coupling D
need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? 10. Foldover distortion is caused by:
ANS:0.01 a. noise c. too few samples per second
b. too many samples per second d. all of the
Chapter 7: Digital above
Communications ANS: C
11. The immediate result of sampling is:
MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. a sample alias c. PCM
1. The first digital code was the:
b. PAM d. PDM ANS:
a. ASCII code c. Morse code
B
b. Baudot code d. none of the above ANS:
12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation
C
technique:
2. In digital transmission, signal degradation
a. PDM c. PPM
can be removed using:
b. PWM d. PPS
a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater
ANS: D
b. a filter d. all of the above ANS:
13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):
C
a. decreases as the sample rate increases
3. TDM stands for:
b. decreases as the sample rate decreases
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital
c. decreases as the bits per sample increases
Manchester
d. decreases as the bits per sample
b. Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-
decreases ANS: C
Manchester
14. The dynamic range of a system is the
ANS: A
ratio of:
4. Hartley's Law is:
a. the strongest transmittable signal to the
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
weakest discernible signal
b. the maximum rate of conversion to the b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality
minimum rate of conversion d. only if the voice is band-limited
c. the maximum bits per sample to the ANS: B
minimum bits per sample 23. Which coding scheme requires DC
d. none of the above continuity:
ANS: A a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ
15. Companding is used to: b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ ANS:
a. compress the range of base-band C
frequencies 24. Manchester coding:
b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates a. is a biphase code
c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit- b. has a level transition in the middle of
rate low every bit period
d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital c. provides strong timing information
transmission ANS: d. all of the above ANS: D
C 25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
16. In North America, companding uses: a. 1 c. 4
a. the Logarithmic Law c. the α Law (alpha b. 2 d. 8 ANS:
law) A
b. the A Law d. the µ Law (mu law) 26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:
ANS: D a. detect errors c. synchronize the
17. In Europe, companding uses: transmitter and receiver
a. the Logarithmic Law c. the α Law (alpha b. carry signaling d. all of the above ANS:
law) C
b. the A Law d. the µ Law (mu law) 27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used
ANS: B to:
18. Codec stands for: a. detect errors c. synchronize the
a. Coder-Decoder c. Code-Compression transmitter and receiver
b. Coded-Carrier d. none of the above b. carry signaling d. all of the above ANS:
ANS: A B
19. A typical codec in a telephone system 28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:
sends and receives: a. 1 c. 4
a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers b. 2 d. 8 ANS:
b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers D
ANS: B 29. The number of samples per second in
20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation: DS-1 is:
a. transmits fewer bits per sample c. can a. 8 k c. 64 k
suffer slope overload b. 56 k d. 1.544 × 106 ANS:
b. requires a much higher sampling rate d. A
all of the above 30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:
ANS: D a. 1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s
21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s ANS: B
produced when: 31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1
a. the signal changes too rapidly c. the bit cable at:
rate is too high a. 1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s
b. the signal does not change d. the sample b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s ANS: A
is too large 32. A T-1 cable uses:
ANS: B a. Manchester coding c. NRZ coding
22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta b. bipolar RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width
modulation can transmit voice: coding
a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. ANS: B
only over shorter distances 33. The number of frames in a superframe is:
a. 6 c. 24
b. 12 d. 48 ANS: B
34. A typical T-1 line uses:
a. twisted-pair wire c. fiber-optic cable
b. coaxial cable d. microwave ANS:
A 11. ________ Law gives the relationship
35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:
a. on-hook/off-hook condition c. ringing
b. busy signal d. all of the above ANS:
D _________________________ theorem gives the
36. A vocoder implements compression by:
a. constructing a model of the transmission
medium
b. constructing a model of the human vocal
system
c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
d. using lossless techniques ANS:
B 14. ____________________ sampling is done
37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the
quality of the output of a vocoder is:
a. much better c. about the same
b. somewhat better d. not as good
ANS: D
COMPLETION
1. Digitizing a signal often results in
________________ transmission quality.
ANS: improved better
2. To send it over an analog channel, a
digital signal must be _______ onto a carrier.
ANS: modulated
3. To send it over a digital channel, an
analog signal must first be
____________________. ANS: digitized
4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise
ratio of an analog signal gradually __________
as the length of the channel increases. ANS:
decreases/gets worse
5. The _______ value of a pulse is the only
information it carries on a digital channel.
ANS: binary
6. A _________ repeater is used to restore the
shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS:
regenerative
7. There are techniques to detect and
____________________ some errors in digital
transmission. ANS:
correct
8. Converting an analog signal to digital form
is another source of ____________________ in
digital
transmission systems. ANS:
error/noise
9. ____________________-division multiplexing
is easily done in digital transmission. ANS:
Time
10. All practical communications channels
are band-____________________. ANS:
limited
between time, information capacity, and
bandwidth. ANS: Hartley's
12. Ignoring noise, the
maximum rate of data transmission
for a given bandwidth. ANS:
Shannon-Hartley
13. The ________________ limit gives the
maximum rate of data transmission for a
given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise
ratio. ANS: Shannon
without a sample-and-hold circuit.
ANS: Natural
15. The ____________________ Rate is the
minimum sampling rate for converting
analog signals to digital
format. ANS:
Nyquist
16. _______ distortion occurs when an analog
signal is sampled at too slow a rate.
ANS: Foldover
17. ____________________ means that higher
frequency baseband signals from the
transmitter "assume the identity" of low-
frequency baseband signals at the receiver
when sent digitally. ANS: Aliasing
18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is
a pulse-______ modulated signal. ANS:
amplitude
19. ________ modulation is the most
commonly used digital modulation scheme.
ANS: Pulse-code
20. ____________________ noise results from
the process of converting an analog signal
into digital format. ANS:
Quantizing
21. _________ is used to preserve dynamic
range using a reasonable bandwidth.
ANS: Companding
22. In North America, compression is done
using the _______-law equation.
ANS:µ
mu
23. In Europe, compression is done using the
_________-law equation. ANS: A
24. A ____________________ is an IC that
converts a voice signal to PCM and vice
versa. ANS: codec
25. In a PCM system, the samples of the
analog signal are first converted to
________________ bits
before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS:
12
26. The number of bits per sample
transmitted in delta modulation is
____________________. ANS:1/one
27. Delta modulation requires a
____________________ sampling rate than PCM
for the same quality of
reproduction. ANS:
higher
28. _______ noise is produced by a delta
modulator if the analog signal doesn't
change. ANS: Granular
29. In delta modulation, _________ overload
can occur if the analog signal changes too
fast. ANS: slope
30. The ____________________ size varies in
adaptive delta modulation.
ANS: step
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit
PCM-quality voice at about
____________________ the bit rate
of PCM. ANS: half
32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because
most channels do not have ______ continuity.
ANS: DC
33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a
voltage that alternates in ________.
ANS: polarity
34. Long strings of ____________________
should be avoided in AMI. ANS:
zeros
35. Manchester code has a level
______________ in the center of each bit
period. ANS: transition
36. Manchester coding provides
________________ information regardless of
the pattern of ones and
zeros. ANS: timing
37. There are ____________________ channels
in a DS-1 frame. ANS:
24
38. DS-1 uses a _______________ bit to
synchronize the transmitter and receiver.
ANS: framing
39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled
______________ times per second.
ANS: 8000
40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of
_________ bits per second. ANS:
1.544 × 106
41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a
____________. ANS: superframe
42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling
bits are "stolen" from every ______ frame.
ANS: sixth
43. ____________________ compression
transmits all the data in the original signal
but uses fewer bits to do
it. ANS: Lossless
SHORT ANSWER
1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it
would take to send 100,000 bits over a
channel with a
bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel
constant of k = 10.
ANS:5 seconds
2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find
the bandwidth required to send 12,000 bits
per second if the
number of levels transmitted is 8.
ANS:2000 hertz
3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel
that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a
signal-to-noise ratio of
15? ANS:16 kbps
4. What is the minimum required number of
samples per second to digitize an analog
signal with frequency
components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300
hertz?
ANS:6600 samples/second
5. What is the approximate dynamic range,
in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses 12
bits per sample?
ANS:74 dB
6. What is the approximate data rate for a
system using 8 bits per sample and running
at 8000 samples per
second?
ANS:64 kbps
7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1
frame, what would the useable data-rate be
for each channel in the
frame?
ANS:56 kbps
8. Assuming maximum input and output
voltages of 1 volt, what is the output voltage
of a µ -law compressor
if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
ANS:0.833 volt

Chapter 8: The Telephone System
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. DTMF stands for:
a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c.
Dual-Tone Multifrequency
b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital
Trunk Master Frequency
ANS: C
2. PSTN stands for:
a. Public Switched Telephone Network c.
Primary Service Telephone Network
b. Private Switched Telephone Network d.
Primary Service Telephone Numbers
ANS: A
3. POTS stands for:
a. Private Office Telephone System c.
Primary Operational Test System
b. Primary Office Telephone Service d. Plain
Old Telephone Service
ANS: D
4. LATA stands for:
a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local
Area Telephone Access
b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area ANS: B
Transport Access
ANS: A
5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a b. 200 µ A to 800 µ A d. 20 mA to 80 mA
tandem office
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of 15. The separation of control functions from
accessing a central office
ANS: A
6. Central offices are connected by:
a. local loops c. both a and b
b. trunk lines d. none of the above
ANS: B
7. Local loops terminate at:
a. a tandem office c. a central office
b. a toll station d. an interexchange office
ANS: C
8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone
network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an
electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is ANS: D
exceeded
ANS: D
9. In telephony, POP stands for:
a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol
b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above
ANS: B
10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:
a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-
optic
ANS: A
11. FITL stands for:
a. Framing Information for Toll Loops c.
Framing In The Loop
b. Fiber In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop
ANS: D
12. Loading coils were used to:
a. increase the speed of the local loop for
digital data
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals
c. reduce crosstalk
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop
ANS: B
13. DC current flows through a telephone:
a. when it is on hook c. as long as it is
attached to a local loop
b. when it is off hook d. only when it is
ringing
14. The range of DC current that flows
through a telephone is:
a. 20 µ A to 80 µ A c. 2 mA to 8 mA
ANS: D
signal switching is known as:
a. step-by-step switching control c. common
control
b. crossbar control d. ESS ANS:
C
16. The typical voltage across a telephone
when on-hook is:
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz
AC
ANS: A
17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a
telephone is:
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz
AC
18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on
a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow
signals to be multiplexed
b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above a. Integrated Services Digital Network c.
ANS: C Integrated Services Data Network
19. VNL stands for: b. Information Services Digital Network d.
a. voltage net loss c. via net loss Information Systems Digital Network
b. volume net loss d. voice noise level ANS: A
ANS: C 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted
20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone because:
system to: a. it took to long to develop
a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to- b. it is too slow
noise ratio c. it has been surpassed by newer
b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power technologies
consumption d. all of the above ANS:
ANS: B D
21. The reference noise level for telephony 31. ADSL stands for:
is: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated
a. 1 mW c. 1 pW Digital Service Line
b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr ANS: b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d.
C Access to Data Services Line
22. The number of voice channels in a basic ANS: B
FDM group is: 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using
a. 6 c. 24 ADSL is typically:
b. 12 d. 60 ANS: a. much faster c. much more expensive
B b. about the same speed d. none of the
23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: above
a. supergroups c. jumbogroups ANS: A
b. mastergroups d. all of the above COMPLETION
ANS: D 1. A ____________________ is a local calling
24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on area.
a carrier using: ANS: LATA
a. SSB c. PDM 2. Central offices are connected together by
b. DSBSC d. PCM ANS: _______ lines. ANS:
A trunk
25. PABX stands for: 3. One central office can be connected to
a. Power Amplification Before Transmission another through a _________ office.
b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange ANS: tandem
c. Public Automated Branch Exchange 4. With 7-digit phone numbers,
d. Public Access Branch Exchange _______________ thousand telephones can
ANS: B connect to a central
26. SLIC stands for: office. ANS: ten
a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber 5. Call ____________________ is when it
Line Interface Card becomes impossible for a subscriber to place
b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard a call due to an
Local Interface Circuit overload of lines being used. ANS:
ANS: C blocking
27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to: 6. New ____________________ switching
a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes equipment uses TDM to combine signals.
b. carry signaling d. check for errors ANS: digital
ANS: B 7. Most local loops still use
28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: ____________________ copper wire.
a. compensation c. justification ANS: twisted-pair
b. rectification d. frame alignment 8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a
ANS: C ____________________ network never needs
29. ISDN stands for: more than one intermediate switch.
ANS: flat
9. ____________________ coils were used to
reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies.
ANS: Loading
10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red
wire is called ____________________.
ANS: ring
11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the
green wire is called ____________________.
ANS: tip
12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the
____________________ wire is positive with
respect to the other.
ANS: green
13. A telephone is said to have __________ the
line when the central office sends it dial
tone. ANS: seized
14. The ____________________ functions are
provided by a SLIC. ANS:
BORSCHT
15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss
of signal energy within a telephone while
allowing fullduplex operation over a single
pair of wires.
ANS: hybrid
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all
_______________ can be in use at the same
time. ANS: lines
17. The old carbon transmitters generated a
relatively _________ signal voltage.
ANS: large
18. The generic term for Touch-Tone®
signaling is ____________________. ANS:
DTMF
19. A ______________ line provides more
bandwidth than a standard line. ANS:
conditioned
20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are
called ____________________. ANS:
repeaters
21. An echo ______ converts a long-distance
line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation.
ANS: suppressor
22. ____________________ weighting is an
attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to
the response of a
typical telephone receiver. ANS: C-
message
23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is
usually ____________________.
ANS:SSB/SSBSC
24. In FDM telephony, ____________________
bands separate the channels in a group.
ANS: guard
25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a
DS-1 frame allows only ____________________
kbps when
used to send digital data. ANS: 56
26. A ____________________ is a group of 12
DS-1 frames with signaling information in the
sixth and
twelfth frames. ANS:
superframe
27. In DS-1C, ___________ bits are used to
compensate for differences between clock
rates. ANS: stuff
28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as
____________ signals because they use the
same pair of wires as the voice signal.
ANS: in-channel
29. SS7 is the current version of
__________________ signaling.
ANS: common-channel
30. SS7 is a ____________________-switched
data network. ANS: packet
31. In ISDN, the ____________________ channel
is used for common-channel signaling. ANS:
D
32. In ISDN, the ____________________
channels are used for voice or data.
ANS: B
33. Terminal equipment especially designed
for ISDN is designated ______ equipment.
ANS: TE1
34. The A in ADSL stands for
____________________.
ANS: asymmetrical
35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to
the subscriber is ____________________ than
the speed in the opposite direction.
ANS: greater/faster
SHORT ANSWER
1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop
voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If
the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the local
loop?
ANS:1000 ohms
2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop
voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If
the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the
telephone?
ANS:200 ohms
3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the
digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)
ANS:697 Hz and 1209 Hz
4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a a. nonstandard character codes c. control
channel with a 3 ms delay. characters
ANS:1 dB b. escape characters d. none of the above
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 ANS: C
dBm, what is its level in dBrn? 8. LF stands for:
ANS:90 dBrn a. Line Feed c. Line Forward
6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 b. Link Feed d. Link Forward
dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. ANS: A
If C-weighting 9. UART stands for:
produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-
level be in dBrnc0? ANS:65 Transmitter
dBrnc TLP b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-
Transmitter
Chapter 9: Data Transmission c. Unaltered Received Text
MULTIPLE CHOICE d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text
1. In practical terms, parallel data ANS: A
transmission is sent: 10. In asynchronous transmission, the
a. over short distances only c. over any transmitter and receiver are:
distance a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the
b. usually over long distances d. usually over data bits
a coaxial cable b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a
ANS: A common clock
2. The five-level teletype code was invented c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the
by: start and stop bits
a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union d. not synchronized at all, hence the name
b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot "asynchronous"
ANS: D ANS: C
3. Data codes are also called: 11. In asynchronous transmission, the time
a. character codes c. they do not have any between consecutive frames is:
other name a. equal to zero c. equal to the start and stop
b. character sets d. both a and b bit-times
ANS: C b. equal to one bit-time d. not a set length
4. Digital data that is not being used to carry ANS: D
characters is called: 12. In synchronous transmission, the frames
a. FIGS data c. numerical data are:
b. binary data d. all of the above a. about the same length as ten
ANS: B asynchronous frames
5. Character codes include: b. much longer than asynchronous frames
a. alphanumeric characters c. graphic control c. 128 bytes long
characters d. 1024 bytes long ANS:
b. data link control characters d. all of the B
above 13. Synchronous transmission is used
ANS: D because:
6. ASCII stands for: a. no start and stop bits means higher
a. American Standard Character-set 2 efficiency
b. American Standard Code for Information b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no
Interchange UARTS are required
c. American Standard Code 2 c. it is easier to implement than
d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for asynchronous
Information Interchange d. all of the above ANS:
ANS: B A
7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of: 14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver
"syncs-up" with the transmitter by using:
a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits
b. the data bits d. a separate clock line ANS: C
ANS: B 24. Huffman codes:
15. To maintain synchronization in a. allow errors to be detected but not
synchronous transmission: corrected
a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be b. allow errors to be detected and corrected
allowed c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected
b. transmission must stop periodically for d. allow alphanumeric data to be
resynchronization compressed
c. the clock circuits must be precisely ANS: D
adjusted 25. Run-length encoding is used to:
d. the channel must be noise-free a. encrypt data c. correct data
ANS: A b. compress data d. none of the above
16. BISYNC: ANS: B
a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of 26. Public-key encryption:
DLE a. allows the use of digital signatures c.
b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of avoids the "password problem"
the above b. is used to convey symmetric keys d. all of
ANS: D the above
17. HDLC: ANS: D
a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC 27. SDLC stands for:
b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the a. Synchronous Data Link Control c.
above ANS: B Synchronous Data Link Character
18. The use of flags in SDLC requires: b. Synchronous Data Line Control d.
a. "bit-stuffing" c. FEC Synchronous Data Line Character
b. different flags at either end of a frame d. ANS: A
ARQ 28. HDLC is:
ANS: A a. a bit-oriented protocol c. an ISO standard
19. The initials ARQ are used to designate: b. based on SDLC d. all of the above
a. automatic request for resynchronization c. ANS: D
automatic receiver queue COMPLETION
b. automatic request for retransmission d. 1. Parallel transmission can be used only for
automatic request for queue _________ distances.
ANS: B ANS: short
20. ARQ is used to: 2. The term "baud" was named after Emil
a. correct bit errors c. put data into a _______________. ANS: Baudot
temporary buffer 3. Data codes are also called
b. correct synchronization problems d. none ____________________ codes.
of the above ANS: character
ANS: A 4. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit
21. FEC stands for: code commonly used in communication
a. Fixed Error Control c. Forward Error between personal
Correction computers. ANS: ASCII
b. Forward Error Control d. False Error 5. The two letters ____________________
Condition designate the code character used to
ANS: C advance a printer to the next
22. VRC is another name for: page. ANS: FF
a. FEC c. LRC 6. An asynchronous frame begins with the
b. ARQ d. parity ANS: ____________________ bit. ANS: start
D 7. An asynchronous frame ends with the
23. CRC stands for: ____________________ bit. ANS: stop
a. Control Receiver Code c. Cyclic 8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the
Redundancy Check line will be at the _______ level. ANS:
b. Correct Received Character d. Cycle mark/binary 1
Repeat Character
9. An integrated circuit called a ___________ is 26. A ____________________ is an encoding
used in an asynchronous communication scheme that is not public in order to protect
system to convert between parallel and data. ANS: cipher
serial data. ANS: UART 27. A ________ is often used to generate an
10. When receiving digital data, __________ encryption key because it is easier to
are used to hold data until they can be read. remember. ANS: password
ANS: buffers 28. If the key is ____________ enough, private-
11. Synchronous communication is more key encryption can be quite secure.
____________ than asynchronous since there ANS: long
are fewer "overhead" bits. 29. Messages cannot be ____________________
ANS: efficient using a public key. ANS:
12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 decrypted
______________ to maintain synchronization in 30. Because it is ___________-intensive,
synchronous transmission. public-key encryption can be slow.
ANS: transitions ANS: computation
13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of SHORT ANSWER
____________________ bits in synchronous 1. How many different characters could be
transmission. ANS: encoded using a six-bit code?
data ANS:
14. In the _______ protocol, each frame 64
begins with at least two SYN characters. 2. What is the numerical difference between
ANS: BISYNC ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as
15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit hexadecimal (hex)
____________________. ANS: flag numbers? ANS:20 hex (32 decimal)
16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are 3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0'
____________________. ANS: through '9' are what hex numbers?
01111110 ANS:30H to 39H
17. BCC stands for ____________________ check 4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send
character. ANS: block ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits),
18. DLE stands for data link what is the
____________________. shortest time it could take to send 1000
ANS: escape characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec
19. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to long? ANS:10 sec
prevent accidental flags. 5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8
ANS: stuffing bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop bits (it
20. ____________________ errors cause many could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the
consecutive bits to be bad. ANS: communication system. ANS:66.7%
Burst 6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits
21. FEC stands for ____________________ error of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at
correction. ANS: the end. The frame
forward carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate
22. An __________ scheme corrects errors by the efficiency of the communication system.
requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS:97.0%
ANS: ARQ
23. Parity fails when an ____________________ Chapter 10: Local Area Networks
number of bits are in error. ANS: MULTIPLE CHOICE
even 1. CSMA stands for:
24. CRC codes are particularly good at a. Client-Server Multi-Access c. Carrier Server
detecting ____________________ errors. Master Application
ANS: burst b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access d. none of
25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding the above
are examples of data _________. ANS: ANS: B
compression 2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for:
a. Carrier Detection c. Collision Detection b. contention d. multiple access ANS:
b. Carrier Delay d. Collision Delay ANS: A
C 13. One type of network that never has a
3. The Internet is: collision is:
a. a network of networks c. a very large a. CSMA c. token-passing
CSMA/CD network b. Ethernet d. all networks have collisions
b. a very large client-server network d. not ANS: C
really a network at all 14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch
ANS: A can be used to reduce the number of:
4. Most LANs: a. nodes c. packets
a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable b. users d. collisions
b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above ANS: ANS: D
D 15. The effect of too many collisions is:
5. Dumb terminals are still used: a. the network goes down c. the cable
a. in token-passing networks overheats
b. in networks requiring central monitoring b. the network slows down d. data is lost
c. in networks that cannot provide central ANS: B
monitoring 16. MAU stands for:
d. none of the above ANS: a. Multistation Access Unit c. Multiple
B Auxiliary Units
6. In a circuit-switched network: b. Multiple Access Unit d. none of the above
a. communication is half-duplex only ANS: A
b. each channel carries only one data stream 17. The standard that describes Ethernet-
c. connection is usually done using a bus type networks is:
topology a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3
d. all of the above ANS: B b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E
7. Each computer on a network is called a: ANS: C
a. hub c. node 18. Ethernet was invented by:
b. token d. circuit ANS: C a. IBM c. Xerox
8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token- b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment Corporation
passing rings are: ANS: C
a. slower c. not as widely used 19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second
b. more expensive d. all of the above ANS: uses:
D a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding
9. The key feature of a star network is that b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding
individual workstations are connected to: ANS: A
a. a central ring c. a node 20. A 100BaseT cable uses:
b. a central bus d. none of the above ANS: a. fiber-optic cable c. RG-58U coaxial cable
D b. twisted-pair copper wires d. 50-ohm
10. On networks, long messages are divided coaxial cable
into "chunks" called: ANS: B
a. packets c. carriers 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:
b. nodes d. tokens ANS: A a. the cable carries baseband signals
11. When two or more PCs try to access a b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps
baseband network cable at the same time, it c. it can be used as the base for a backbone
is called: cable system
a. a collision c. excess traffic d. none of the above
b. contention d. multiple access ANS: ANS: A
B 22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a
12. When two PCs send data over a minimum length for packets is:
baseband network cable at the same time, it a. to increase the data rate
is called: b. to prevent packets from reaching all other
a. a collision c. excess traffic nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a ANS: B
collision in progress 30. An advantage of using a switch instead
d. all of the above ANS: of a hub is:
C a. it is cheaper when used in large networks
23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a b. it is faster when used in large networks
maximum length for cables is: c. it reduces the number of collisions in large
a. to increase the data rate networks
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other d. all of the above ANS: C
nodes during transmission 31. Broadband LANs:
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a a. modulate the data onto a carrier
collision in progress b. use coaxial cables
d. all of the above ANS: c. are provided by cable TV companies for
C Internet access
24. NIC stands for: d. all of the above ANS: D
a. Network Interface Card c. Network 32. Using one node in the network to hold all
Interface Code the application software is done in:
b. Network Interface Cable d. Network a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b
Internal Code b. client-server networks d. none of the
ANS: A above
25. 10BaseT cable typically uses: ANS: B
a. a BNC connector c. an RJ45 connector 33. Record locking is used to:
b. a T connector d. an RS11 connector a. store records securely on a server
ANS: C b. prevent multiple users from looking at a
26. UTP stands for: document simultaneously
a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire c. c. prevent one user from reading a record
Uninterruptible Terminal Packet that another user is writing to
b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire d. d. none of the above ANS:
Unicode Text Packet C
ANS: B 34. The software that runs a client-server
27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone network must be:
cables, CAT-5 cables: a. UNIX-based c. multitasking
a. are cheaper c. allow faster bit rates b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified ANS:
b. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. all C
of the above 35. A "thin" client is:
ANS: C a. basically, a PC with no disk drives c. same
28. A hub: as a "dumb" terminal
a. sends incoming packets out to all other b. a node that rarely sends data d. all of the
terminals connected to it above
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ANS: A
ports COMPLETION
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type 1. A LAN is a ________________ Area Network.
network ANS: Local
d. are more common in token-passing 2. The Internet is a network of
networks ____________________.
ANS: A ANS: networks
29. A switch: 3. In a ____________________ network, all
a. sends incoming packets out to all other nodes are connected to a central computer.
terminals connected to it ANS: star
b. sends incoming packets out to specific 4. In a ____________-switched network, users
ports have a dedicated channel for the duration of
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type communications.
network ANS: circuit
d. are more common in token-passing
networks
5. The __________ of a network describes how A token-passing network sends the token
it is physically connected together. from node to node in a prescribed order. So
ANS: topology it doesn't matter
6. Ring networks often use _______________- how the physical connection is made. It still
passing. works like a token-passing ring.
ANS: token 2. What is the key difference between a hub
7. A ____________________ is a short section of and a switch?
a message in digital form. ANS: ANS:
packet A hub sends incoming packets out to all
8. _______________ is when two nodes try to other ports on the hub. A switch sends a
seize the same cable at the same time. packet to a specific port
ANS: Contention based on the address in the packet.
9. A __________ occurs when two nodes 3. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD
transmit simultaneously on the same network over a basic star network?
baseband cable. ANS:
ANS: collision If the central computer in a star network
10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a
be ____________________. ANS: node fails in a
detected CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node and the network still functions.
"listens" for the cable to be _________ before 4. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a
using it. minimum size limit?
ANS: quiet/free/unused/available ANS:
12. A "____________________" cable links If a packet is too short, nodes at either end
clusters of computers together. of a cable could get on, send a packet, and
ANS: backbone get off before the
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to packets travel far enough to collide. The
____________ bits per second. ANS: collision would not be detected.
100 mega 5. What is a NIC address, and why is it
14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a unique?
____________________ length to ensure that ANS:
collisions are detected. The address is a long binary number
ANS: minimum "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the
15. In CSMA/CD, the ___________ of a cable is factory. Each factory uses
limited to ensure that collisions are detected. a different sequence of numbers, so the
ANS: length chances of two NICs on the same network
16. A unique numerical address is provided having the same
to a node by its ____________________. address is extremely small.
ANS: NIC
17. A 100BaseTX cable is a Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks
____________________ cable. and the Internet
ANS: fiber-optic MULTIPLE CHOICE
18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form, 1. MAN stands for:
in effect, one big hub. ANS: a. Manchester Access Network c.
stacked Metropolitan-Area Network
19. A switch looks at the ____________________ b. Multiple-Area Network d. Multiple Access
of each incoming packet. ANS: Network
address ANS: C
20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce 2. Packet switching is based on:
____________________. ANS: contention a. store-and-forward c. real-time delivery
SHORT ANSWER b. switched circuits d. all of the above
1. Explain how a network can be a physical ANS: A
bus but a logical ring. 3. SNA stands for:
ANS:
a. Standard Network Access c. Standard b. 7 layers d. datagrams
Network Architecture ANS: A
b. Small Network Access d. Systems Network 14. IP is a:
Architecture ANS: a. connection-oriented protocol c.
D connectionless protocol
4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: b. virtual circuit d. non-robust protocol
a. 3 c. 7 ANS: C
b. 5 d. 8 15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP
ANS: C network:
5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called a. is essentially forever
the: b. depends on elapsed time since
a. physical layer c. cable layer transmission
b. link layer d. transport layer c. depends on number of "hops" between
ANS: A nodes
6. Bad frames are usually detected by the: d. is approximately 200 milliseconds
a. frame layer c. error-check layer ANS: C
b. physical layer d. link layer 16. UDP stands for:
ANS: D a. User Datagram Protocol c. User Data
7. A virtual circuit is set up by the: Packet
a. user c. network b. User Data Protocol d. Universal Data
b. link layer d. frame Packet ANS: A
ANS: C 17. HTTP stands for:
8. Frame Relay: a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
a. is faster than X.25 c. allows for variable b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure
length packets c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport
b. does less error checking than X.25 d. all of Procedure
the above d. Hypertext Transport Protocol
ANS: D ANS: D
9. ATM stands for: 18. HTTP allows the use of:
a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode c. a. dumb terminals c. browsers
Asynchronous Transmission Model b. file transport d. none of the above
b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode d. ANS: C
Automatic Test Mode 19. HTML stands for:
ANS: A a. Hypertext Markup Language c. Hypertext
10. A bridge: Transfer-Mode Layer
a. separates a network into "collision b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level d. High-
domains" speed Transfer-Mode Language
b. looks at the address of each packet ANS: A
c. operate at the data-link level 20. HTML allows:
d. all of the above ANS: a. telneting c. web page layout
D b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above
11. IP stands for: ANS: C
a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol 21. FTP stands for:
b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect a. File Transfer Protocol c. File Test
Procedure ANS: B Procedure
12. TCP stands for: b. File Transport Protocol d. Fast Transport
a. Transmission Control Process c. Transfer Packet
Connection Protocol ANS: A
b. Transmission Control Protocol d. none of 22. FTP is used to:
the above a. transfer files between a server on the
ANS: B network and a user
13. Together, TCP/IP consists of: b. test files to see if their data has been
a. 5 layers c. an application and a process "corrupted"
c. transport packets at maximum speed 3. A dedicated telephone line can be
through the network _____________ on a monthly basis.
d. none of the above ANS: ANS: leased
A 4. The use of digital circuit-
23. SMTP stands for: ____________________ lines is cheaper than
a. Short Message Transport Protocol c. dedicated lines. ANS: switched
Simple Mail Transport Protocol 5. Packet switching is done on a store-and-
b. Simple Message Transport Protocol d. ____________________ network. ANS:
Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure forward
ANS: C 6. A ________ is a hierarchy of procedures for
24. ISP stands for: implementing digital communications. ANS:
a. Internet Service Protocol c. Internet protocol
Service Procedure 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at
b. Internet Service Provider d. none of the the ____________________ layer. ANS:
above physical
ANS: B 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the
25. The standard Internet address (or URL) ____________________ layer. ANS:
is: data-link
a. a 32-bit binary number c. running out of 9. Setting up a path through the network is
available values done by the ____________________ layer.
b. four groups of base-ten numbers d. all of ANS: network
the above 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the
ANS: D ____________________. ANS: CCITT
26. DNS stands for: 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the
a. Domain Name Server c. Domain ____________________ layer. ANS:
Numbering System frame
b. Domain Name System d. Domain Naming 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the
System ____________________ layer. ANS:
ANS: A packet
27. A DNS: 13. The physical route of a
a. has become obsolete on the Internet ____________________ circuit changes each
b. translates words to numbers time it is used. ANS: virtual
c. stores all domain addresses 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low
d. describes the Internet address-naming ____________________ rates. ANS:
procedure bit-error
ANS: B 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does
28. An intranet connected to the Internet is _____________ error checking. ANS:
often protected by: less
a. a DNS c. a "firewall" 16. All ATM frames contain just
b. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" ________________ bytes.
protocols ANS: 53
ANS: C 17. Small frame size and a high-speed
29. OSI stands for: channel allow ______-time communications.
a. Open Systems Interconnection c. Open ANS: real
Systems Internet 18. ____________________ simply regenerate
b. Open Standard Interconnection d. none of and retransmit packets in a network.
the above ANS: Repeaters
ANS: A 19. _________ look at the address inside a
COMPLETION packet to decide whether or not to
1. A ____________________-Area Network would retransmit it. ANS: Bridges
extend typically across a city. ANS: 20. ____________________ decide the best
Metropolitan network path on which to forward a packet.
2. A ____________________-Area Network could ANS: Routers
extend across a nation. ANS: Wide
21. TCP/IP goes back to the
____________________ of the 1970s.
ANS: ARPANET DARPANET
22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP,
________________ was used first.
ANS: TCP/IP
23. A ____________________ protocol does not
track packets after they are sent. ANS:
connectionless
24. HTTP allows the use of ________________
that jump to other pages on the web. ANS:
hyperlinks
25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses
high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS:
fiber-optic
26. A ____________________ translates words in
an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS
27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet
through a ____________________ for security.
ANS: firewall
28. Voice over ___________________ is
telephony done over the Internet.
ANS: IP
29. "______________" is another term for real-
time transmission over the Internet. ANS:
Streaming
30. Most people gain access to the Internet
by subscribing to an ____________. ANS:
ISP
SHORT ANSWER
1. Name the three parts of an IP address as
used on the Internet.
ANS:
Network number, Subnet number, Host
number
2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual"
circuit?
ANS:
A logical channel is a way of keeping track of
which two nodes on the network have
messages for each
other. The actual physical path can change
while packets are being sent. Virtual means
it behaves like
direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not
a direct circuit.
3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed
size compared to packets of variable size?
ANS:
The processing required to store and forward
packets of different lengths is greater than
that required for
packets of a fixed length. More processing
implies more time per packet, which implies
fewer packets per
second through the network.
4. Why are the tasks involved in digital
communications divided into layers in a
protocol stack? Why not
just have one layer that does it all?
ANS:
Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to
a manageable job. One big layer could not
be adapted to
newer media etc as easily as a system of
independent layers. Think of subroutines in a
computer program.
5. What is a "hop"?
ANS:
Every time a packet is forwarded on to the
next store-and-forward node in the network,
it is considered to
be one "hop".
6. What does it mean to say a packet has a
lifetime measured in hops?
ANS:
Each packet contains a number representing
the maximum number of allowed hops. At
each hop, this
number is reduced by one. When it gets to
zero, the packet is deleted from the network.
7. Why should packets have a lifetime?
ANS:
If they didn't, then the number of "lost"
packets traveling around the network would
continuously
increase. At some point, there would be no
bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
Chapter 12: Digital Modulation
and Modems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. FSK stands for:
a. Full-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal Keying
b. Frequency-Shift Keying d. none of the
above ANS: B
2. PSK stands for:
a. Pulse-Signal Keying c. Phase-Signal Keying
b. Pulse-Shift Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying
ANS: D
3. QAM stands for:
a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation c.
Quadrature Amplitude Marking
b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking d. none of
the above
ANS: A b. amplitude and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-
4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in: bits
a. amperes c. bits ANS: B
b. amperes per second d. bits per second 13. The specs of the old Bell type 103
ANS: C modem were:
5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the: a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-
a. margin of noise c. number of possible duplex, FSK
states per symbol b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-
b. modulation index d. maximum number of duplex, FSK
symbols per second ANS: A
ANS: C 14. ITU is an abbreviation for:
6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel a. International Telephony Unit c.
when: International Telecommunications Union
a. the eye is maximally open c. the eye is b. International Telephony Union d.
half open International Telecommunications Units
b. the eye is maximally closed d. the eye ANS: C
alternately opens and closes 15. The ITU is under the auspices of:
ANS: A a. CCITT c. IEEE
7. What you see in an eye pattern is the b. the U.N. d. ANSI ANS:
effect of: B
a. too many bits high c. intermodulation 16. High-speed modems equalize the line to
distortion compensate for:
b. too many bits low d. intersymbol a. noise and interference
interference ANS: D b. uneven phase and frequency response
8. High-frequency radioteletype systems c. low SNR
commonly use: d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of
a. FSK c. PSK channel
b. AFSK d. QAM ANS: ANS: B
A 17. The bits sent to allow equalization are
9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol called:
contains: a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence
a. a byte c. a dibit b. random bits d. a random sequence
b. 4 bits d. a Q-bit ANS: ANS: C
C 18. The V.90 standard is issued by:
10. To reduce the need for linearity, π /4 a. the EIA c. the ITU
DQPSK uses: b. the TIA d. the ISO
a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees c. ANS: C
angles of π /4, 2π /4, 3π /4, and 4π /4 19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:
b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
d. double phase-shift angles b. error-correction protocols d. none of the
ANS: B above
11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" ANS: B
shows: 20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
a. location of symbols in "symbol space" c. a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
effects of noise on symbols b. error-correction protocols d. none of the
b. separation of symbols in "symbol space" above
d. all of the above ANS: A
ANS: D 21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b
symbol space are: b. XON/XOFF characters d. none of the above
a. amplitude and frequency c. frequency and ANS: C
phase angle 22. The official name for RS-232C is:
a. RS-232C c. ISO-232C/D
b. EIA-232D d. ANSI-232C ANS: ANS: C
B 34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:
23. In RS-232, a modem would be: a. Cable Modem Terminal Server c. Cable
a. a DTR c. a DCE Modem Terminal System
b. a DSR d. a DTE ANS: b. Cable Modem Transmission System d.
C Cable Modem Transmission Server
24. In RS-232, a personal computer would ANS: A
be: 35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not
a. a DTR c. a DCE required for:
b. a DSR d. a DTE ANS: a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite
D b. ADSL d. none of the above
25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ANS: C
ground is pin: COMPLETION
a. 1 c. 5 1. RTS means Request To __________. ANS:
b. 3 d. 7 Send
ANS: C 2. The response to RTS is __________. ANS:
26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal CTS
ground is pin: 3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift
a. 1 c. 5 ____________________. ANS: Keying
b. 3 d. 7 4. DSR stands for ____________________ Set
ANS: D Ready.
27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 ANS: Data
are: 5. QAM stands for ____________________
a. TD and RD c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal Amplitude Modulation. ANS:
ground Quadrature
b. TD, RD, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, 6. The number of symbols per second is
CTS, and signal ground called the ____________________ rate.
ANS: B ANS: baud
28. Hardware flow control uses: 7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS is called a ____________________. ANS:
b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD dibit
ANS: C 8. QPSK uses ____________________ different
29. Software flow control uses: phase angles.
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS ANS: four
b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD 9. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK.
ANS: A ANS: Delta
30. Which voltage represents a binary zero 10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations
on an RS-232 data pin: are shown with a _________ diagram. ANS:
a. +15 volts c. +9 volts constellation
b. +12 volts d. all of the above 11. ITU stands for International
ANS: D _________________ Union. ANS:
31. DSL stands for: Telecommunications
a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line 12. In QAM modems, ____________________
b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop coding adds extra bits to improve
ANS: C performance on a noisy
32. ADSL stands for: line. ANS: Trellis
a. Asynchronous DSL c. Analog DSL 13. ____________________ is used in a high-
b. Asymmetrical DSL d. All DSL ANS: speed modem to compensate for uneven
B frequency and phase
33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for: response on a line. ANS: Equalization
a. Head Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber- 14. The maximum allowed speed for a
Coax modem on a dial-up line is about ____________
b. Hybrid Frequency Control d. Hybrid Fiber bps. ANS: 54k
Control
15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS- amplitude levels? ANS:16
232 cable is ____________________ bps. 3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem
ANS: 20k customers sharing a single channel with a
16. In RS-232, the ____________________ line is data rate of 36 Mbps. If
asserted when the analog carrier from half the modems are active at any given
another modem is time, what bit rate can a customer expect?
being received. ANS:720 kbps
ANS: CD/DCD/RLSD 4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-
17. Between hardware flow control and MHz cable. Approximately how many bins
software flow control, ____________________ are there?ANS:230
flow control is 5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400
preferred. ANS: hardware per second, how many possible states must
18. A voltage higher than ______ volts should a symbol have to
be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
ANS: 3 ANS:8
19. A _________ modem cable is used to
connect two DTEs via their serial ports. Chapter 13: Multiplexing and
ANS: null Multiple-Access Techniques
20. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: Asymmetrical 1. TDMA stands for:
21. A typical CATV system is organized as a a. Time Domain Multiple Access c. Tone
__________ network. ANS: tree Division Multiple Access
22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a b. Time-Division Multiple Access d. none of
____________________ is used to put several the above
channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. ANS: B
ANS: CMTS 2. CDMA stands for:
23. ____________________ is the process of a. Code-Division Multiple Access c. Compact
synchronizing transmitted data from cable Digital Multiplex Arrangement
modems to a CMTS. b. Carrier Division Multiple Access d. none of
ANS: Ranging the above
24. ____________________ systems send high- ANS: A
speed data over a POTS line while sharing 3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when:
the line with dialup a. all the signals come from the same source
service. ANS: b. the signals come from different sources
ADSL c. TDM is used in RF communications
25. The __________ version of ADSL does not d. they mean the same thing
require a splitter at the subscriber end. ANS: B
ANS: lite 4. When calculating the maximum number of
26. ____________________ modulation divides users, a limiting factor in FDM is:
the line bandwidth into many narrow bands a. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of
called tones or each signal
bins for ADSL. ANS: b. the length of the channel d. all of the
DMT above ANS: C
27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access 5. A DS-1 signal contains:
________________. a. 12 channels c. 32 channels
ANS: Multiplexer b. 24 channels d. 64 channels
SHORT ANSWER ANS: B
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a 6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line
system sending 1000 symbols per second is:
with 16 possible a. 64 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps
states per symbol. ANS:4000 b. 256 kbps d. 1.544 Mbps
2. How many points will be on the ANS: D
constellation diagram of a QAM system using
8 phase angles and 2
7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains
a:
a. timing bit c. signaling bit
b. T-bit d. framing bit
ANS: D
8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each
channel:
a. every frame c. every sixth frame
b. every other frame d. every twelfth frame
ANS: C
9. Moving signals from one line to another is
called:
a. time switching c. line switching
b. space switching d. cross-point switching
ANS: B
10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot
to another is called:
a. time switching c. signal switching
b. space switching d. crosspoint switching
ANS: A
11. A digital space switch is a:
a. multiplexer c. computerized Strowger
switch
b. TDM switch d. crosspoint switch
ANS: D
12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c.
direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The term "chip rate" is used in
describing:
a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c.
direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
ANS: C
14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence
systems, compared to standard RF systems,
use:
a. about the same bandwidth c. much less
bandwidth
b. much more bandwidth d. approximately
double the bandwidth
ANS: B
15. "Processing gain" is another term for:
a. RF gain c. spreading gain
b. computer speed d. improved signal-to-
noise ratio
ANS: C
16. To calculate processing gain, divide the
transmitted RF bandwidth by:
a. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio
b. bandwidth of original baseband d. the chip
size
ANS: B
17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-
spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-
conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a CDMA receiver
ANS: A
18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-
spectrum would be:
a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-
conversion receiver
b. a wideband receiver d. a "chip-rate"
receiver ANS: B
19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping
spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence
spread-spectrum
c. cannot be used on an RF channel
d. allows many transmitters to use a band
simultaneously
ANS: D
20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires
the use of:
a. orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random
PN sequences
b. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. none of
the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. Multiplexing allows many signals to
____________________ a channel. ANS: share
2. Three methods of multiple access are
FDMA, TDMA, and ____________________.
ANS: CDMA
3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the
bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the
bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: part
5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals
can transmit _________ of the time.
ANS: all
6. DS-1 is an example of
____________________-division multiplexing.
ANS: time
7. The AM radio band is an example of
___________-division multiplexing.
ANS: frequency
8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from
each of _________________ channels.
ANS: 24
9. T1 uses the ____________________ line code.
ANS: AMI available, the higher the possible bit rate.
10. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of 2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of
____________________ bits. ANS: 193 bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of
11. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of bandwidth and
__________ bits per second. the separation between adjacent channels
ANS: 1.544 Meg was 10 kHz?
12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ANS:9
____________________ bits. ANS: 8 3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-
13. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a spectrum signal?
____________________. ANS: superframe ANS:
14. Switching signals from one line to Jamming requires an interference signal of
another is called ____________________ sufficient power in the same part of the
switching. ANS: space spectrum the
15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot information signal occupies. Because a
to another is called ____________switching. spread-spectrum signal is, by definition,
ANS: time spread out over a very
16. The deep fades caused by signal- wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with
cancellation due to reflection are called only a small fraction of the total signal.
________________ fading. 4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a
ANS: Rayleigh spread-spectrum signal?
17. A PN sequence is a __________________- ANS:
random noise sequence. In a spread-spectrum transmission, the
ANS: pseudo signal power at any given frequency in its
18. One method of spread-spectrum is band is so low that it is
frequency ____________________. ANS: virtually indistinguishable from noise. An
hopping eavesdropper would not know a signal was
19. It is ____________________ to jam a spread- being sent. And
spectrum signal. ANS: difficult without knowing the exact sequence being
20. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on used, it is virtually impossible to "de-spread"
a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: the signal.
difficult 5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive
21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals?
direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ANS:
_______. ANS: chips Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled
22. A chipping-rate of at least out of" the noise even when the signal-to-
____________________ times the bit rate of the noise ratio is less
data is common. ANS: ten than one, as it is in spread-spectrum.
23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for 6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences"
_________________. in CDMA?
ANS: code ANS:
24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, During transmission, the PN sequences
when no two transmitters use the same determine which parts of the available
frequency at the same bandwidth the spreadspectrum
time the PN sequences are said to be signal will occupy. Assume you have two PN
_______________. sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point in
ANS: orthogonal time,
SHORT ANSWER suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to
1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and so
relationship between time and bandwidth for forth. Now suppose
digital transmission? PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy
ANS: frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth. If the
The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to two sets of
send a given amount of information. So the
more bandwidth
frequencies, (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, ANS: D
f23, ...), have no frequencies in common,
then the two PN
sequences are said to be orthogonal.
Chapter 14: Transmission Lines
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. SWR stands for:
a. Shorted Wave Radiation c. Shorted Wire
Region
b. Sine Wave Response d. none of the above above ANS: D
ANS: D
2. TDR stands for:
a. Total Distance of Reflection c. Time-
Domain Response
b. Time-Domain Reflectometer d.
Transmission Delay Ratio
ANS: B
3. An example of an unbalanced line is:
a. a coaxial cable c. an open-wire-line cable
b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable d. all of the
above
ANS: A
4. When analyzing a transmission line, its
inductance and capacitance are considered
to be:
a. lumped c. equal reactances
b. distributed d. ideal elements
ANS: B
5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a a. would reflect as a positive pulse
wire:
a. increases c. stays the same
b. decreases d. changes periodically
ANS: A
6. The effect of frequency on the resistance
of a wire is called:
a. I2R loss c. the skin effect
b. the Ohmic effect d. there is no such effect circuit:
ANS: C
7. As frequency increases, the loss in a
cable's dielectric:
a. increases c. stays the same
b. decreases d. there is no loss in a dielectric d. would not reflect at all
ANS: A
8. The characteristic impedance of a cable
depends on:
a. the resistance per foot of the wire used
b. the resistance per foot and the inductance
per foot
c. the resistance per foot and the
capacitance per foot
d. the inductance per foot and the
capacitance per foot
9. For best matching, the load on a cable
should be:
a. lower than Z0 c. equal to Z0
b. higher than Z0 d. 50 ohms
ANS: C
10. The characteristic impedance of a cable:
a. increases with length c. increases with
voltage
b. increases with frequency d. none of the
11. The velocity factor of a cable depends
mostly on:
a. the wire resistance c. the inductance per
foot
b. the dielectric constant d. all of the above
ANS: B
12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a
transmission line terminated in a short-
circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed
by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all ANS:
B
13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a
transmission line terminated with its
characteristic impedance:
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed
by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all ANS:
D
14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a
transmission line terminated in an open-
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed
by a negative pulse
ANS:
A
15. The optimum value for SWR is:
a. zero c. as large as possible
b. one d. there is no optimum value
ANS: B
16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
a. standing waves c. higher voltage peaks on
cable
b. loss of power to load d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. VSWR stands for:
a. variable SWR c. voltage SWR 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as
b. vacuum SWR d. none of the above ______________ lines since both wires are
ANS: C symmetrical with
18. The impedance "looking into" a matched respect to ground. ANS: balanced
line: 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated
a. is infinite c. is the characteristic with a load equal to its ____________________
impedance impedance.
b. is zero d. 50 ohms ANS: characteristic
ANS: C 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines
19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: for relatively _____ frequencies. ANS: low
a. transmission line impedances c. optimum 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is
length of a transmission line necessary to use ____________________
b. propagation velocity d. transmission line parameters instead of
losses lumped ones. ANS:
ANS: A distributed
20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with
a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: frequency is called the _________ effect.
a. would be less c. would be the same ANS: skin
b. would be more d. cannot be compared 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with
ANS: B frequency is caused by the
21. A balanced load can be connected to an ____________________ field inside
unbalanced cable: the wire. ANS: magnetic
a. directly c. by using a "balun" 8. Dielectrics become more
b. by using a filter d. cannot be connected ____________________ as the frequency
ANS: C increases. ANS: lossy
22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable
impedance by: are given per unit ___________. ANS:
a. assuming it to be zero c. multiplying it by length
2π 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes
b. dividing it by 2π d. dividing it by Z0 called _______ impedance. ANS: surge
ANS: D 11. A cable that is terminated in its
23. The radius of the circle you draw on a characteristic impedance is called a ____ line.
Smith Chart represents: ANS: matched
a. the voltage c. the impedance 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in
b. the current d. none of the above a short-circuit will reflect with the
ANS: D ____________________
24. The center of the Smith Chart always polarity. ANS: opposite
represents: 13. The apparently stationary pattern of
a. zero c. the characteristic impedance waves on a mismatched cable is called a
b. one d. none of the above ____________________
ANS: C wave. ANS: standing
25. A TDR is commonly used to: 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave
a. measure the characteristic impedance of a ratio.
cable ANS: standing
b. find the position of a defect in a cable 15. The ideal value for SWR is _____. ANS:
c. replace a slotted-line one
d. all of the above ANS: 16. Transmission line impedances can be
B found using a ____________________ chart.
COMPLETION ANS: Smith
1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect 17. Short transmission-line sections called
to ground is called ____________. ANS: ___________ can be used as capacitors or
unbalanced inductors. ANS: stubs
18. Any cable that radiates energy can also
______________ energy. ANS: absorb
19. A ___________-dB loss in a cable means What SWR do you expect to measure?
only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS:1.5
ANS: 3 8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be
20. It is often best to measure SWR at the the absolute value of its voltage coefficient
___________ end of a cable. of reflection? ANS:0.2
ANS: load 9. A generator matched to a line with a
21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2
can carry is limited by the transmits 100 watts into the line. How much
____________________ voltage of power is actually absorbed by the load?
its dielectric. ANS: breakdown ANS:96 watts
22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith 10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm
Chart, you divide it by ____________________. cable, what would be the normalized value of
ANS: Z0 an impedance
23. The __________ of a Smith Chart always equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS:4 + j1
represents the characteristic impedance.
ANS: center
24. A ____________________ wavelength
transmission line can be used a transformer.
ANS: one-quarter
25. A slotted line is used to make
measurements in the ____________________
domain. ANS: frequency
SHORT ANSWER
1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of
capacitance per foot and 100 nH of
inductance per foot. Calculate its
characteristic impedance. ANS:Z0 = 200
ohms
2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one
inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04
inch. Calculate, approximately, its
characteristic impedance.
ANS:386 ohms
3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation
with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is
the velocity factor for the cable?
ANS:0.62
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how
long would it take a signal to travel 3000
kilometers along the cable?
ANS:12.5 ms
5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what
length of cable is required for a 90° phase
shift at 100 MHz?
ANS:0.6 meters
6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum
voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is
the maximum
voltage along the cable?
ANS:200 volts
7. A lossless line has a characteristic
impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated
with a 75-ohm resistive load.