Provas As e Com Respostas

PART I
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1. You perform an incomplete recovery using RMAN. You write the

following script:
RUN{
SET UNTIL TIME =

¡¥yyyy-nm-dd:hh:mi:ss¡¦;
RESTORE DATABASE;
RECOVER DATABASE;
SQL ¡§alter database open resetlogs¡¨;}
Which command is missing?
A. RESYNC CATALOG;
B. RELEASE CHANNEL;
C. ALLOCATE CHANNEL cname TYPE DISK;
D. SET LIMIT CHANNEL cname KBYTESS 4194304
ANSWER: C
You need to allocate a channel before any backup or recovery operation.
2. A media management layer is always used when Recovery Manager
A. reads or writes to tapes
B. performs media recovery
C. reads or writes to disk files
D. reads or writes through a channel
ANSWER: A
MML is used to interact with the third party library tape drivers, and so
on.
3 Which two records does the Recovery Manager RESYC CATALOG

command
update? (Choose two)
A. alert log records
B. log switch records
C. rollback segment records
D. archived log copy records
ANSWER: B,D
The RC may update the records that are recorded in the control file.
Alert Log and RBS are not recorded in CFILE.
4 You have just created a script in Recovery Manager. After

noticing
an error in the script, you decide to recreate it. Which command
replaces
the stored script in the recovery catalog?
A. REPLACE SCRIPT
B. REPLACE_SCRIPT
C. RECREATE SCRIPT
D. RECREATE_SCRIPT
ANSWER: A
Easy.
5. Your recovery catalog user account is RECMAN with a password

of
RECMAN. Which command will connect to Recovery Manager through the user
SMITH with a password of DNAGER if the database containing the recovery
catalog is identified by the TNS ailas.RCVCAT?
A. $ rman smith/danger rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT
B. $ target smith/danger rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT
C. $ rman target smith/danger rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT
D. $ rman rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT target (smith/danger)
ANSWER: C
The correct syntax would be "rman target smith/danger catalog
recman/recman@rcvcat"
DBMS_RCVCAT and DBMS_RCVMAN are internal packages of Oracle.
6. When two or more databases are backed up using RMAN, is it
appropriate to use each database as the other¡¦s recovery catalog? Why?
A. Yes. The catalog is a recognized procedure
B. No. There would be too many dependencies
C. Yes, but only if the database are run in NOARCHIVELOG

mode
D. No. A database that contains a catalog cannot be target

database
ANSWER: A
It´s recommended that the recovery catalog resides on a different machine
than the target
7. What is the last step when setting up a recovery catalog?
A. create a catalog schema owner
B. run the CREATE CATALOG command
C. run the REGISTER DATABASE command
D. resynchronise the database with the catalog
ANSWER: C
The order may be: create a schema owner, create a tablespace for the
schema, grant privileges
( recovery_catalog_owner, connect and resource ), connect to RMAN, create
the catalog,
and register all the databases that RMAN will backup.
There is no need to resync the catalog in the creation time. Resync is
used for changes in the structure
of the database, such as ass a tablespace.
8. You are configuring a database for ARCHIVELOG mode. Which

two
initialization parameters should you use? (Choose two)
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_SIZE
B. ARCHIVELOG_MODE
C. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST
D. LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT
E. LOG_ARCHIVE_INTERVAL
ANSWER: C,D
A,B and E don't exists.
9. Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. Which

three
types of backups can be performed? (Choose Three)
A. Opened database backups.
B. Operating system backups when the database is closed.
C. Online control file backups using the ALTER CONTROLFILE

BACKUP
command.
D. Online tablespace backups using the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP

CONTROLFILE command.
E. Online control file backups the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP

CONTROLFILE command.
ANSWER: A,B, E. Opened backups ( hot ), operating system ( close ), and

online controlfile backup.
C is wrong because the syntax is ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE, and
not ALTER CONTROLFILE.
Online Tablespaces are hot backups, and are made with begin backup and
end backup.
10. When configuring a database in ARCHIVELOG mode and

enabling
automatic archiving, the database must be shut down and opened in the
MOUNT
stage. Which three options can be used to do this? (Choose Three)
A. STARTUP FORCE MOUNT
B. STARTUP TRANSACTIONAL MOUNT
C. SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE AND STARTUP
D. SHUTDOWN ABORT AND STARTUP MOUNT

E. SHUTDOWN NORMAL AND STARTUP MOUNT
F. SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE AND STARTUP MOUNT
G. G. SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL AND STARTUP MOUNT
ANSWER: E,F,G. Shutdown the database with any option except ABORT, mount
the database, and execute
ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG.
11. Which two tasks can a DBA perform using the export/import
facility? (Choose two)
A. Examine log files.
B. Archive historical data.
C. Recreate the control file.
D. Transport tablespaces between databases.
E. Make a logical backup of the rollback segment tablespace.
ANSWER: B,D.
Obvious.
12. What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a

single
database environment and a standby database environment?
A. NOLOGGING operations are not allowed when using a

standby
database.
B. The affected data file needs to be copied from the

primary to
the standby server.
C. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby

database,
but not on the primary database.
D. The standby database becomes unavailable after a

NOLOGGING
operation has been used on the primary database.
ANSWER: B
What to do? Backup all datafiles that are part of the nologging
operations in the primary server. Archive the current
log file. Take offline this files in the standby server, drop the
tablespace, and transfer the backup and the archived
logs to the standby srv. Perform recovery of the stdby srv.
13. When creating a standby database, which files must be

transferred to the standby server?
A. The database backup and the online redo-log files.
B. The database backup and the archived redo-log files.
C. The standby control file, the database backup, and the

online
redo-log files.
D. The standby control file, the database backup, and the

archived redo-log files.
ANSWER: D
Remember to archive the current redo log in the primary database.
14. In which mode is ¡¥Closed database backups¡¦ the only

backup
option available?
A. READ ONLY mode
B. ARCHIVELOG mode
C. READ WRITE mode
D. NOARCHIVELOG mode
ANSWER: D
In archivelog mode the closed db backup is the only option.
PART II
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1. What's incompleted recovery (choose 3)?

- Time-based
- cancel-based
- change-based
- tablespace recovery
ANSWER: A,B,C.
Tbs recovery is a completed recovery.
2. LGWR will hang if the online redo logs were filled faster
than the archiving process.
- True
- False
ANSWER: A
LGWR will wait for rewrite the redo log file if the archiver had not
completed the archiving.
3. What can be recovered while others are still run? (choose 2)

- data tablespace
- index tablespace
- system tablespace
ANSWER: A,B
If system tablespace goes down, bye, bye, Recover is needed.
4. What's completed recovery?

- Time-based
- cancel-based
- change-based
- tablespace recovery
ANSWER: D
See question 1.
5. When should you backup control file? after you do

- alter tablespace add datafile ...
- alter system archive log all
ANSWER: A
Backup controlfile after each structure alteration in the database.

- alter database drop logfile ...
ANSWER: A
As 5.

- alter database rename file ...
- alter system archive log all
ANSWER: A
As 5.
8. What's the disadvantage of NOARCHIVELOG
- lost transactions must be re-entered
- increase space utilization
ANSWER: A
9. in which state you can re-create control file

- nomount
- mount
- open
ANSWER: A
In the mount stage the controlfile was read.
10. You import a full exported file to a database and than

apply all archived log files can do a completed recovery
- true
- fales
ANSWER: B
Import/Export are completely different from backup ( hot/cold/Rman ).
11. The characteristics of direct path export (choose 2)

- does not compete recource with other users
- the buffer size has no impact
ANSWER: A,B
???
12. rolling forward will

- apply all entries in redo log file
- apply only commited entries in redo log file
ANSWER: A
Will apply commited and uncommited entries, and the rollback phase will
rollback the uncommited entries.
13. alter tablespace ... begin backup

will backup all of the data files in that tablespace
- true
- false
ANSWER: B
After this, you need to copy all the datafiles of the database with a
S.O, utility ( cp, copy , shazam, etc ).
14. What's the characteristics of direct path export

- compete recource with other users
- direct retrive blocks to DB buffer cache
- use a optimized "select * from table" statement
ANSWER: B
C is wrong because the export read the blocks directly from the disk, not
parsing the rows.
And about A ? I´m not sure, but all operations in the server compete
resources.
15. The company's data is highly volatile. You should

- backup more often
- backup less often
- no backup needed
ANSWER: A.
Remeber to use archivelog.
16. ARCH process will automatic started when you run

alter database archivelog;
- true
- false
ANSWER: B
Use the init.ora parameter LOG_ARCHIVE_START = true.
17. when a data file corrupted, you want to minimize the

down time. you run
startup mount;
alter database datafile ... offline;
what should you do next?
- restore the corrupted data file
- alter database open
- recover data file
ANSWER: B ( supposed to be in archivelog )

Open the database with the corrupted datafile offline, and let the users
use the database ( with the exception of this tbs ).
Restore the data file ( file os ), and recover the datafile.
18. where is the path of all control files stored?

- control file
- init.ora file
- log file
ANSWER: B
Parameter Control_files in the init.ora
19. after you activate a standby database. what should you do next?
- recover the primary database
- create a new standby database
ANSWER: A
Depends. If the cause of the activation was failure on the primary
database ( most cases ), is A. This is the role of the
stand by server, but the question is confused ( at least for me ).
20. why Oracle recover instance faster?
- uncommited transactions will not be roll back immediately
ANSWER: A
Smon will roll back as needed.
21. To do a completed recovery, the database must be in which mode

- ARCHIVELOG
- NOARCHIVELOG
ANSWER: A
See: complete recovery is different from complete restore.
22. incompeted recovery must restore

- damaged files
- all data files in the tablespace
- all data files
ANSWER: A.
23. after incompleted recovery, you need open database

- RESETLOGS
- NORESETLOGS
ANSWER: A
24. change a database to archive log mode must be in

- mount
- nomount
- open
ANSWER: A
25. what privilege you must have to change database to

archive log mode
- alter system
- alter database
ANSWER: B
? I really don't know, because all times I used a dba account.
26. which recovery will recover the database to a time in

the past? (choose 3)
- Time-based
- cancel-based
- change-based
- datafile recovery
ANSWER: A,B,C
As 1.
27. what's the result of

alter database backup controlfile to trace;
- a copy of control file
- generate a editable script file
ANSWER: B
28. if a backgroud process has an error, where the trace file

will be
- BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST
- USER_DUMP_DEST
ANSWER: A
29. import the full exported file and apply all the archive logs
will recover the database to the point of failure
- true
- false
ANSWER: B
30. when should you perform a change based recovery?

- lost redo log file
- user dropped a wrong table. the time of the event was known
- in a distributed environment
ANSWER: C.
31. What is the true for standby database?

- constant recovery mode
ANSWER: A
32. a DBA want to export the full database but the user still
logged on. Which option should he/she use
- direct=y
- consistent=y
- ignore=y
ANSWER: B
33. when you want to do a full offline backup, some processes may
access the data. what should you do?
- shutdown abort
- shutdown immediate
- shutdown deferred
- shutdown mornal
ANSWER: B
34. when should you backup read-only tablespace?

- once, right after the tablespace become read-only
- every time you do a online backup
ANSWER: A
35. when a online redo log can be reused?

- after checkpoint, after the log file was archived
- after checkpoint, before the log file was archived
- before checkpoint, after the log file was archived
- before checkpoint, before the log file was archived
ANSWER: A
36. all of the members in a redo log group has to be archived before
this group can be reused
- true
- false
ANSWER: B
37. a DBA can run a command to archive a online redo log file
- true
- false
ANSWER: A
Alter system switch logfile.
38. which server manager command can show the database archive status
- archive log list
- alter database ...
ANSWER: A
39. where the current log sequence number stored? (choose 2)

- archived log file
- control file
- system tablespace data file
ANSWER: B, C
40. use a full offline backup in NOARCHIVELOG mode can recover

database to
- a time in the past
- the point of failure
ANSWER: A
The time when the backup was made.
41. what is true for COLD backup (choose 3)
- backup all datafiles, redo log files, control files and
parameter file
- database not available to the user while backup
- simple
ANSWER: A,B,C
42. Full export can NOT be used in

- user lost a table
- create a new database and import the data
- recover the database to the last commited transaction
ANSWER: C
43. which one can recover to the point of failure?

- database was changed from NOARCHIVELOG to ARCHIVELOG, not
shutdown, keep all archived redo logs
- database was changed from NOARCHIVELOG to ARCHIVELOG, shutdown,
do a full backup
ANSWER: B
PART III
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#1. Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode, and you want to recover from a
media failure up to the time of
failure. Which files do you need to restore?
A. the damaged files from any valid backup
B. the damaged files from a backup taken after the database was set in
ARCHIVELOG mode
C. the damaged files and the redo-log files from a backup taken after the
database was set in ARCHIVELOG
mode
D. the damaged files, the redo-log files, and the control files from a
backup taken after the database was set
in ARCHIVELOG mode
Answer: B
#2. While performing a database recovery, you want the redo-log files to
be applied automatically. What are three
ways to do that? (Choose three.)
A. enter the word AUTO when prompted for a log
B. set the AUTO_ARCHIVE_LOG initialization parameter
C. use the AUTOMATIC clause of the RECOVER command
D. within SQL*plus, issue the SET AUTORECOVERY ON command
Answer:A,C,D
#3. To successfully recover when restoring a backup control file to a

different location, what must you do?
A. update the initialization parameter file
B. use the ALTER SYSTEM command to rename the control file
C. use the ALTER DATABASE command to rename the control file
D. You cannot do this; control files should always be restored to their
original location.
Answer: A
#4. Your archived logs are not restored to the ARCHIVE_LOG_DEST

directory. What are three ways to notify the
Oracle server of their location? (Choose three.)
A. specify the location and name when prompted for a log
B. use the ALTER SYSTEM SWITCH LOGFILE command
C. use the RECOVER FROM command to indicate the new location
D. use the ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE command to indicate the new location
Answer: A,C,D
#5. Your database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode, and a media failure occurs.

Which files do you need to restore to
minimize data loss?
A. the damaged files only
B. the damaged files only if no log switch has occured since the last
backup
C. all data files that are consistenet from the same backup set if a log
switch has occured since the last
backup
D. all data files that can be a mix from any backup set if a log switch
has occured since the last backup (You
can take them from different backup sets if you like.)
Answer: B
#6. You perform an incomplete database recovery using RMAN. Which state
of the target database is needed?
A. mount
B. nomount
C. open, initially open
D. open, initially closed
Answer: A
#8. Which statement regarding Recovery Manager with a database operating

in NOARCHIVELOG mode is true?
A. Recovery Manager requires a recovery catalog.
B. Recovery Manager supports multi-level incremental backups.
C. Recovery Manager is compatible with Enterprise Backup utility.
D. Recovery Manager only works in conjunction with a tape subsystem.
Answer: C
#9. Before you can restore data files to a new location using RMAN, what
should you do?
A. issue the SWITCH command
B. issue the RESTORE command
C. take the data files that you need to restore offline
D. copy the data files to the new location using an operating system tool
Answer: D
#10. What is the recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an
RMAN recovery catalog?
A. 1M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of the size of the target database
Answer: B
#11. After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a
copy of the backup control file, you notice
references to files that no longer exist. Which CHANGE command clause
should you use to remove these
references?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. UNCATALOG
D. CATALOG REMOVE
Answer: C
#12. What are two purposes for using the Recovery Manager command
CATALOG? (Choose two.)
A. updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation
B. updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN
C. updating recovery catalog about operating system backups
D. updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle8
E. updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database
Answer: A,B
#13. What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two.)
A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file.
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database.
Answer: B,C
#14. Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up
has been misplaced. Which Recovery
Manager command returns a report containing the files in the USER_DATA
tablespace that have not been backed
up within the last three days?
A. rman> list backup days 3 tablespace user_data;
B. rman> report backup days 3 tablespace user_data;
C. rman> catalog backup days 3 tablespace user_data;
D. rman> report need backup days 3 tablespace user_data;
Answer: D
#15. Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of commands in
the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT
Answer: A
#16. Which statement about "time-based recovery" is true?

A. Recovery is stopped by entering CANCEL at the recovery prompt.
B. Recovery is stopped by pressing at the recovery prompt.
C. Recovery is stopped after the database has committed all changes up to
the specified point-in-time.
D. Recovery is stopped when the database has committed all changes up to
the specified system change
number(SCN).
E. Recovery is stopped when the specified method of recovery(CANCEL,
TIME, or CHANGE) is completed,
and the control files are recovered.
Answer: C
#17. Which RECOVER command is appropriate when, while recovering a lost
data file, a DBA discovers that a
required, archived redo-log is corrupted?
A. RECOVER DATABASE UNTIL CANCEL;
B. ALTER TABLESPACE system RECOVER;
C. RECOVER TABLESPACE system UNTIL CALCEL;
D. RECOVER DATABASE USING MISSING REDOLOG;
E. RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROLFILE;
Answer: A
#18. Which action does Oracle recommend after a DBA recovers from the
loss of the current online redo-log?
A. back up the data files
B. back up the instance
C. back up the database
D. back up the control file
E. archive any unarchived online redo-logs
Answer: C
#19. Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by
UTL_FILE_DIR.
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMNR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has
completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets
corrupted.
Answer: A
#20. Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in
an Oracle data block?
A. DBVERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDATE_STRUCTURE
Answer: C
#21. The alter log can contain specific information about which database
backup activity?
A. placing data files in begin and end backup mode
B. placing tablespaces in begin and end backup mode
C. changing the database backup mode from open to close
D. performing an operating system backup of the database files
Answer: B
#22. Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFY utility to detect
corruptions in an Oracle data block?
A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online.
B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database.
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load
is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database
activities.
Answer: B
#23. Work is done by Recovery Manager through ___.
A. PL/SQL packages
B. external procedures
C. operating system scripts
D. operating system commands
Answer: A
#24. When using Recovery Manager without a catalog, the connection to the
target database ___.
A. must be a local connection
B. must be a remote connection
C. can be a local or remote connection
D. must be specified using a Net8 service name
Answer: C
#25. Which statement about an open database backup is NOT true?
A. The database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode.
B. The database is available for use during backups.
C. All the database files copied are consistenet to a point-in-time.
D. An operating system backup of the database files is required.
Answer: C
#26. When performing an open database backup, which statement is NOT
true?
A. The database is fully accessible to all users.
B. The database must be operating in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C. The database can be open but only in READ ONLY mode.
D. The database tablespaces should be in BEGIN BACKUP mode.
Answer: C
#27. Which command creates a text backup of the control file?
A. ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
B. ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO BACKUP;
C. ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO 'filename';
D. ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TEXT 'filename';
Answer: A
#28. When the status of a tablespace moves from read-only to read-write,
which two events occur? (Choose two.)
A. Redo-log switch must take place.
B. Normal checkpoints on the files now occur.
C. Oracle automatically marks the file for backup.
D. All objects in the tablespace are ckecked for integrity.
E. The DBWn process writes to the data files of the tablespace.
Answer: B,E
#29. In the view V$DATAFILE_HEADER, what does value "YES" in the "FUZZY"
column as specify?
A. The data file is corrupted.
B. The data file is in backup mode.
C. The data file is locally managed.
D. The data file is part of a read-only tablespace.
Answer: B
#30. Why would a DBA load a table using the NOLOGGING option?
A. to eliminate further backup
B. to temporarily disable collecting statistics
C. to reduce redo during a direct-load operation
D. to specify that the blocks retrieved for this table are placed at the
least recently-used end of the buffer
cache
Answer: C
PART IV
-------
1. (Similar Question seen 69 times, last seen on 7/10/2002)
A user has received an ORA-1578 error message indicating datablock

corruption of a specific file. It has been determined that the data
contained in the corrupted files can be lost with minimal consequences.
How should the uncorrupted rows be recovered?
A. Perform Table Only recovery in Recovery Manager.

B. Issue the ALTER TABLE REMOVE command.
C. Delete all rows from the table and then issue a rollback.
D. Select All rows below and above the corrupted block and insert them
into a new table.
Answer: D
If an invalid checksum is detected on a redolog group member prior to

its being archived, what will happen?
A. The redolog group member is archived.

B. The ARCH process hangs.
C. The archive returns a fatal error.
D. No archive occurs and an error is written to the ALERT_LOG file.
Answer: D
You use Backup Manager because it is easy to access. Why is it easy to

access?
A. It can be opened from SQL plus.

B. It is NDS-compatible.
C. It is operating system independent.
D. It is not incorporated into Oracle Enterprise Manager.
Answer: C
You have just changed the mode of your database to ARCHIVELOG. What table
must be viewed to view mode information?
A. V$ARCHIVELOG
B. V$DATABASE
C. V$RECOVER
D. V$INSTANCE
Answer: B
To use Recovery Manager to recover a database, the database ______.
A. Must include all archived redolog files.

B. Must have been taken or registered using RMAN.
C. Must include the backed-up control files.
D. Have online datafiles before they can be restored using RMAN.
Answer: B
A datafile is not synchronized. If the database is to continue running

without errors, the file must be in which type of tablespace along with
other database files?
A. ONLINE
B. READ-WRITE
C. TEMPORARY
D. READ-ONLY
Answer: D
If the checksum for each member in a redolog group is invalid, what will
happen during archiving?
A. The archive process will reset.

B. The database will hang
C. The archive process will switch to the next redolog group and continue
the backup.
D. The redolog process will abort and the database will continue until
the problem has been resolved.
Answer: B
In which two files is the sequence number of the current redolog file
recorded? (choose 2)
A. Most recent archived log file

B. Parameter file
C. Control file
D. System tablespace datafile
Answer: C, D
A data file that belongs to the SYSTEM tablespace is corrupted.

You perform a data file recovery, which action must you take to
perform this recovery?
A. take the datafile belongs to the SYSTEM tablespace offline

B. You can't perform datafile recovery since this file belongs to the
SYSTEM tablspace.
C. Take the SYSTEM tablespace offline.
D. Export the entire SYSTEM tablespace.
Answer: B
You restore the backup copies of the corrupted data files, which
command will begin the full database recovery?
A. RECOVER tablespace.
B. RECOVER datafile
C. RECOVER database
D. RECOVER database complete
Answer: C
You are the DBA of a database that is used by investment strategy

analysis. The loss of transaction activities would be disastrous.
Which step would you include as part of your backup and recovery
strategy:
A. Manually backup redo log files.

B. Automatically archive the redo log files
C. Automatically archive the database
D. make frequent Cold Backups
Answer: B
Before determining a backup & recovery strategy for your database

which action should you take to ensure the appropriate strategy?
A. meet with management to determine their tradeoffs involved in their

expections of system availability.
B. Meet with end users to determine their expectations for data
availability
C. Determine how many redo log files you expect to be created on a daily
basis
D. Determine how many Checkpoints will be requested to allow the max.
availability
Answer: A
Your database is not in ARCHIVELOG mode. A file has been damaged

and you now must apply your backup and recovery strategy. Which step
should be your first?
A. Shut down the database, if it is not already

B. Startup the database
C. Restore most recent full online backup
D. Alter database to ARCHIVELOG mode
Answer: A
Which characteristic describes an incomplete recovery?
A. Minimized the amount of work lost

B. Recovers to the state just prior to the current time
C. Can be performed while the database is still available to users
D. Reconstructs the database to a point in the Past *
Answer: D
You have decided to perform an incomplete recovery of database, which

action must you take to accomplish this type of recovery.
A. restrore copy of control file that was backuped prior to the current
time.
B. Issue the incomplete recover command after restore all backup
datafiles.
C. None
D. Halt recovery operation prior to reaching the current time.
Answer: D
When recovery a damaged datafile, you determined that backup file

requires redo log entries to be applied. Which action must you perform to
complete recovery.
A. Alter mode of database to archivelog.

B. Alter the mode of database to noarchivelog.
C. Identify the necessary redo log files that been created since last
backup.
D. Identify checkpoint information, and apply this checkpoint to
appropriate data file.
Answer: C
The database has to be run 24 hr/day and 7 days/week. If you

want to export the whole database with Export utility,
what should you consider?
A. concurrent transaction will suffer

B. the database being exported will be locked
C. constraint may cause problem
Answer: A
The recovery operation you are preparing include read-only

tablespaces. Which command can you issue to get a listing
of the commands needed to recover this database?
A. ALTER TABLESPACE
B. CREATE CONTROL FILE
C. ALTER DATABASE RENAME
D. ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE
Answer: D
The PROD database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode and a media

failure occurs. The disk drive holding one of the detafile
cannot be replaced immediately and you have moved the datafile
to another drive. Which command would you issue to reflect
this physical change in the databse?
A. ALTER DATAFILE RENAME

B. ALTER SYSTEM RENAME FILE
C. ALTER DATABASE RENAME FILE
D. ALTER TABLESPACE RENAME FILE
Answer: C
To recover the database using the available archived redo log

files. Which two tasks you need to perform? (Choose two)
A. Set AUTORECOVERY on
B. Set recover all on
C. Recover all database
D. Recover database
E. Set autorecover database on
F. Recover
Answer: A, D
PART V
------
Q.01 Which statement is true about dbverify utility?
A. It can verify any DB_BLOCK_SIZE file.

B. It dose not verify the file that block size is greater than 2K.
C. It dose not verify the file that block size is greater than 4K.
D. It dose not verify the file that block size is greater than 8K.
Answer A.
Q.02 What dose an ARCn process in instance recovery?
A. It writes the datafile.

B. It writes the redolog file.
C. It writes in the archivelog file.
D. It not take a part in instance recovery.
Answer D.
Q.3 Which information is not recorded in Alert log file?

A. data file offline.
B. recovery information.
C. Backup mode ARCHIVELOG and NOARCHIVELOG.
Answer C.
Q .04 You want to connect the user name Smith and Password is Danger and
recovery manager user name and password
are recman an tns alias is RCVCAT.
Which statament is true.
A. rman smith/danger@ DB00

rcvcat recman/recman @ RCVCAT.
B. connect target smith/danger @ DB00

C. connect target smith/danger

D. rman target smith/danger @ DB00

rcvcat recman/recman @RCVCAT.
Answer D.
Q.05 Which record "Resync" command update?

Chooce two.
A. Log switches.
B. redologs records.
C. Archivedlog records.
D.Datafile records.
Answer A,C.
Q.06 Database is close because loss of controlfile,how can you backup the
controlfile?
A. Create control file command.

B. Alter database backup controlfile from trace.
C. Alter database backup controlfile to trace.
Answer C.
Q.06 You want to set the three Archive destinations

Which statement is true.
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST,LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST1,LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST2
B. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST1,LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST2,LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST3
C. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST0,LOG_ARCHIVE_DET1,LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST2
ANSWER B.
Q.07 Multiplexing of the control file.
Q.08 You set your database mode NOARCHIVELOG TO ARCHIVELOG mode.

What tells you to Oracle Server?(choose two).
A. specify the datafile location.

B. Specify Archive logs destination where they are copying.
C. Increase the performance of server.
D. Name of Archive logs that are identifying.
ANSWER B,D.
Q.09 Which two parameters are different in primary database and standby
database?
Q.10 In table V$DATAFILE_HEADER the column is FUZZY "YES".

Which situation.
A. redo logs backup.

B. data file backup.
c. control file backup.
ANSWER B.
Q.11 When you activate the standby database,What will happen ?.
A. Primary database becomes standby database.

B. Standby database becomes primary database.
ANSWER B.
Q.12 When operation involved NOLOGGING on primary database ,what work

performe on standby database ?.
A. O/S level transffered archive logs.

B. change the operation nologging to logging.
C. You have to take a backup of the tablespace involved and copy it to
the standby database.
ANSWER C.
Q.13 You transffered the archive log from primary database to standby
database.
choose two.
A. ALTER SYSTEM command.

B. ALTER DATABASE SYSTEM command.
C. STANDBY_ARCHIVE_DEST.
ANSWER A,C.
Q.14 You perform backup through RMAN,which memory area use RMAN ?
A. SHARED POOL.
B. PGA
C. LOG BUFFER.
D. SPA.
ANSWER B.
Q.15 You take backup and through BACKUP command create backup sets,
In backup sets which blocksize of backup piece ?
A. same block size.

B. change blocke size.
ANSWER A.
Q.16 When you use Media Management Layer software,What is do?
A. When writing or reading from tape.

B. Only writing to tape.
C. only reading from tape.
ANSWER A.
Q17. YOU want to restore a file from backup which is taken through
RMAN,what is state of restore file?
A. data file offline.

B. file is online.
C. restore database.
D. switch databse.
ANSWER A.
Q.19 Which is parameter is checked Oracle data block corruption?
A. DBMS_REPAIR.
B. dbv.
C. ANALYZE.
D. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING.
ANSWER D.
Q.20 When you open primary database with RESETLOGS option,what will
happen.
A. standby database invalidate.

B. no effect on standby database.
C. The archive files not reset for the standby database.
ANSWER A.
Q.21 Creation of recovery catalog ,What is the last step ?
A. create rman user.

B. connect to rcvcat.
C. Register to target database.
D. login to o/s.
ANSWER. C.
Q.22 You want to export table and you do not want to include its data ?
A. DIRECT
B. ROWS
C. COMPATIBLE
D. TABLE
ANSWER B.
PART VI
-------
1. What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations. ***
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations. ***
Answer: B,D
2. What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN

recovery catalog?
A. 1M
B. 20M ***
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
Answer: B
3. Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has
been misplaced. Which Recovery Manager command returns a report
containing the files in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been
backed up within the last three days?
A. rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;

D. rman> report need backup days 3 tablespace user_data; ***
Answer: D
4. Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of commands in

the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT ***
C. CREATE COMMAND
Answer: B
5. After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a
copy of the backup control file, you notice references to files that no
longer exist. Which CRETAE command clause should you use to remove these
references?
A. REMOVE.
B. DELETE.
C. UNCATALOG.
D. CATALOG REMOVE. ***
Answer: D
6. What are two purposes for using the Recovery Manager command CATALOG?
(Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.

B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup. ***
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8. ***
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
Answer: C,D
7. What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.

B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to
the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when
the files become available. ***
Answer: D
8. What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS command

on the primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database. ***

B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the
redo log of the standby database is reset.
Answer: A
9. What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.

B. The standby database becomes the primary database. ***
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and
applied.
Answer: B
10. What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single

database environment and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the
standby server. ***
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on
the primary database.
Answer: C
11. The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS standby.ct

creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a
standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server. ***
B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be
archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control
file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on
the primary server.
Answer: A
12. What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo
logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.

B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command. ***
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the
database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the
REDO_LOG_FILES parameter, and start up the database.
Answer: B
13. Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.

B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations. ***
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through Recovery Manager commands.
Answer: B
14. What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?

A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log. ***
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
Answer: E
15. What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?

E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery. ***
Answer: F
16. What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed. ***

B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated. ***
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
Answer: A,D
17. Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in

an Oracle data block?
A. DB/VERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING ***
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
Answer: C
18. Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined as defined by

UTL_FILE_DIR. ***
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has
completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets
corrupted.
Answer: A
19. Which statement is true when using the DELIVERY utility to detect
corruptions in an Oracle data block?

***
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load
is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database
activates.
Answer: B
20. The alert log can contain specific information about which database
backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.

B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode. ***
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
Answer: B
21. In which two situations would you have to apply redo information to a
read-only tablespace? (Choose two)
A. When the tablespace being recovered has always been writeable.

B. When the tablespace being recovered is unknown to the control file.
C. When the tablespace being recovered is read-only and was read-only
when the last backup occurred.
D. When the tablespace being recovered is writeable, but was read-only
when the last backup occurred. ***
E. When the tablespace being recovered is read-only, but was writeable
when the last backup occurred. ***
Answer: D,E
22. Which two types of data files can be considered non-essential?

(Choose two)
A. Data files belonging to a lost tablespace.

B. Data files belonging to an index tablespace. ***
C. Data files belonging to a SYSTEM tablespace.
D. Data files belonging to a temporary tablespace. ***
E. Data files belonging to an application data tablespace.
F. Data files belonging to a rollback segment tablespace.
Answer: B,D
23. In which situation would you need to create a new control file for an
existing database?
A. When all redo-log files are lost.
B. When MAXLOGMEMBERS needs to be changed. ***
C. When RECOVERY_PARALLELISM needs to be changed.
D. When the name of the parameter file needs to be changed.
Answer: B
24. A tablespace becomes unavailable because of a failure. The database

is running in NOARCIVELOG mode? What should the DBA do to make the
database available?
A. Perform a tablespace recovery.

B. Perform a complete database recovery.
C. Restore the data files, redo log files, and control files from an
earlier copy of a full database backup. ***
D. There is no possibility too make the database available.
Answer: C
25. Why is manual archiving not recommended?
A. Additional disk resources are required.

B. More background processes are required.
C. A DBA must issue at SQL command to archive the online redo-log files.
***
D. An operating systems script must be written to copy the online redo-
log files.
Answer: C
26. What kind of destination can DBA choose when specifying the
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n parameter?
A. A Net8 listener name.

B. Only a local dictionary.
C. Only a Net8 atlas for a remote database.
D. A local dictionary or Net8 atlas for a remote database. ***
Answer: D
27. How can a DBA disable one of the current archive destructions?
A. Issue the command ALTER SESSION SET LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST+DEFER. ***

B. Shut down the database and delete the archive destination dictionary
at the operating system level.
C. Specify the initialisation parameter LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_STATE_n+DEFER.
D. It is not possible to disable archive destinations?
Answer: A
28. When configuring a database for ARCHIVELOPG mode, you use an

initialisation parameter to specify which action?
A. The size of archived log files.
B. How frequently log files will be archived.
C. That the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode. ***
D. Whether archiving will be manual or automatic.
Answer: C
29. Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. Which three types of

backups can be performed? (Choose three)
A. Open database backups. ***

B. Operating system backups when the database is closed. ***
C. Online control file backups using the ALTER CONTROLFILE BACKUP
command.
D. Online tablespace backups using the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP TABLESPACE
command.
E. Online control file backups using the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP
CONTROLFILE command. ***
Answer: A,B,E
30. Which two actions must you take to stop automatic archiving of redo-
log files? (Choose two)
A. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE LOGSTOP; command ***

B. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_ARCHIVE_START=FALSE; command
C. Set LOG_ARCHIVE_STOP=TRUE parameter file and restart the database.
D. Set LOG_ARCHIVE_START=FALSE in the parameter file and restart the
database. ***
Answer: A,D
I have available 4 x 50 question braindumps for oracle 9i exam 1Z0-007.

These have been optimized for use with transdumper and come complete with
gif images for exhibit questions. 200 questions in total! The you
see are html coding that is used by transdumper to ensure all sql
statement line up correctly on your screen. Here is a sample of 20
questions to get you started.
pls email maxxim@warp1.com.au for details.
101.Evaluate this SQL*Plus command: 

 
COLUMN teacher_name HEADING 'Teacher' FORMAT A25 
 
Which two tasks will this command accomplish? (Choose two.) 
A. It will set the TEACHER_NAME column heading to 'Teacher'.

B. It will center the column heading of the TEACHER_NAME column.
C. It will limit the TEACHER_NAME column heading to 25 characters.
D. It will display the current settings for the TEACHER_NAME column.
E. It will set the display width of the TEACHER_NAME column to 25.
Ans: A , E
102.The STUDENT table contains these columns: 

 
ID NUMBER(9) PK 
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25) 
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25) 
STU_TYPE VARCHAR2(1) 
ENROLL_DATE DATE 
 
Evaluate this iSQL*Plus script: 
 
SELECT id, last_name, first_name, enroll_date 
FROM student 
WHERE stu_type = '&stype' 
AND enroll_date between &&bdate and &&edate 
/ 
What happens when this script is run a second time in the same session?
A. The user is prompted for all three substitution variables.

B. An error occurs because the STYPE substitution variable is NOT
correctly specified.
C. The values of BDATE and EDATE from the previous execution are used.
D. An error occurs because the BDATE and EDATE substitution variables are
NOT correctly
specified.
Ans: C
103.Evaluate this SELECT statement: 

 
SELECT order_num, &order_date FROM &&ordertbl 
WHERE order_date = '&order_date'; 
 
Which statement regarding the execution of this statement is true?
A. The user will be prompted for all values in the select list each time
the statement is
B. The user will be prompted for the table name each time the statement
is executed in a
C. An error will occur when executing this statement because substitution
variables are NOT
D. The user will be prompted for the table name only the first time the
statement is executed
executed in a session.
session.
allowed in a WHERE clause.
in a session.
E. An error will occur when executing this statement because substitution
variables must be
unique within a SELECT statement.
Ans: D
104.The INVENTORY table contains these columns: 
 
ID_NUMBER NUMBER PK 
DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(30) 
SUPPLIER_ID NUMBER 
 
You want to create a query that for each session allows the user to input
a value for
DESCRIPTION each time the query runs. While the DESCRIPTION column is
stored in upper
case, you want the query to retrieve matching values regardless of the
case used when inputting
the substitution variable value. 
 
Which SELECT statement should you use?
A. SELECT id_number, supplier_id

FROM inventory
WHERE description = UPPER(&description);
B. SELECT id_number, supplier_id
FROM inventory
WHERE LOWER(description) = LOWER('&description');
C. SELECT id_number, supplier_id
FROM inventory
WHERE LOWER(description) = '&descript ion';
D. SELECT id_number, supplier_id
FROM inventory
WHERE description = UPPER('&&description');
Ans: B
105.In which clauses of a SELECT statement can substitution variables be

used?
A. the SELECT, WHERE, GROUP BY, and ORDER BY clauses, but NOT the FROM
clause
B. the SELECT, FROM, WHERE, and GROUP BY clauses, but NOT the ORDER BY
clause
C. the SELECT and FROM clauses, but NOT the WHERE clause
D. the SELECT, FROM, and WHERE clauses only
E. the SELECT, FROM, WHERE, GROUP BY, ORDER BY, and HAVING clauses
Ans: E
106.Which two statements would cause an implicit COMMIT to occur? (Choose

two.)
A. GRANT
B. UPDATE
C. COMMIT
D. SELECT
E. ROLLBACK
F. RENAME
Ans: A , F
107.Examine the structures of the EVENT and NEW_EVENT tables.

<img src="./oracle/oracleimages/107.gif">
You execute this MERGE statement: 
<img src="./oracle/oracleimages/107b.gif">
 
This MERGE statement generates an error. Which statement describes the

cause of the error?
A. A subquery CANNOT be used in the USING clause of a MERGE statement.

B. Table aliases CANNOT be used in a MERGE statement.
C. The ON clause of the statement is invalid.
D. The UPDATE portion of the statement is invalid.
E. The INSERT portion of the statement is invalid.
F. A MERGE statement CANNOT be used with tables that do NOT have an
identical structure.
Ans: D
108.Which statement regarding DML statement functionality is true?
A. DELETE can be used to delete rows or columns from a table.

B. MERGE will delete rows that do NOT exist in either table.
C. UPDATE will add rows to a table if an INTO clause is specified.
D. UPDATE can update multiple columns in one table.
E. INSERT must contain a VALUES clause.
Ans: D
109.The STUDENT table contains these columns: 

 
STU_ID NUMBER(9) NOT NULL 
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(30) NOT NULL 
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25) NOT NULL 
DOB DATE 
STU_TYPE_ID VARCHAR2(1) NOT NULL 
ENROLL_DATE DATE 
 
You create another table, named PT_STUDENT, with an identical structure.
You want to insert all
part-time students, who have a STU_TYPE_ID value of "P", into the new
table. 
 
You execute this INSERT statement: 
 
INSERT INTO pt_student 
(SELECT stu_id, last_name, first_name, dob, sysdate 
FROM student 
WHERE UPPER(stu_type_id) = 'P'); 
 
What is the result of executing this INSERT statement?
A. All part-time students are inserted into the PT_STUDENT table.

B. An error occurs because the PT_STUDENT table already exists.
C. An error occurs because you CANNOT use a subquery in an INSERT
statement.
D. An error occurs because the STU_TYPE_ID column is NOT included in the
subquery select list.
E. An error occurs because both the STU_TYPE_ID and ENROLL_DATE columns
are NOT
included in the subquery select list.
F. An error occurs because the INSERT statement does NOT contain a VALUES
clause.
Ans: D
110.Which SELECT statement will get the result 'elloworld' from the
string 'HelloWorld'?
A. SELECT SUBSTR( 'HelloWorld',1) FROM dual;

B. SELECT INITCAP(TRIM ('HelloWorld', 1,1)) FROM dual;
C. SELECT LOWER(SUBSTR('HelloWorld', 1, 1) FROM dual;
D. SELECT LOWER(SUBSTR('HelloWorld', 2, 1) FROM dual;
E. SELECT LOWER(TRIM ('H' FROM 'HelloWorld')) FROM dual;
Ans: E
111.Which ALTER TABLE statement should you use to add a PRIMARY KEY
constraint on the MANUFACTURER_ID column of the INVENTORY table?
A. ALTER TABLE inventory

ADD CONSTRAINT manufacturer_id PRIMARY KEY;
B. ALTER TABLE inventory
ADD PRIMARY KEY (manufacturer_id);
C. ALTER TABLE inventory
MODIFY manufacturer_id CONSTRAINT PRIMARY KEY;
D. ALTER TABLE inventory
MODIFY CONSTRAINT PRIMARY KEY manufacturer_id;
Ans: B
112.Which two statements about NOT NULL constraints are true? (Choose
two.)
A. NOT NULL constraints can only be defined at the column level.

B. You CANNOT define a NOT NULL column if the column does NOT have a non-
null value
for every row.
statement.
C. You CANNOT add a NOT NULL constraint to an existing column using the
ALTER TABLE
D. You can modify the structure of a NOT NULL constraint using the ALTER
TABLE
statement.
E. A NOT NULL constraint is stored in the data dictionary as a UNIQUE
constraint.
Ans: A , B
113.The PO_DETAIL table contains these columns: 

 
PO_NUM NUMBER NOT NULL, Primary Key 
PO_LINE_ID NUMBER NOT NULL, Primary Key 
PRODUCT_ID NUMBER Foreign Key to PRODUCT_ID column of the PRODUCT table
 
QUANTITY NUMBER 
UNIT_PRICE NUMBER(5,2) 
 
Evaluate this statement: 
 
ALTER TABLE po_detail 
ENABLE CONSTRAINT po_num_pk; 
 
For which task would you issue this statement?
A. to drop and recreate the PRIMARY KEY constraint on the PO_NUM column
B. to activate the previously disabled constraint on the PO_NUM column
while creating a
PRIMARY KEY index
C. to create a new PRIMARY KEY constraint on the PO_NUM column
D. to enable any previously disabled FOREIGN KEY constraints that are
dependent on the
PO_NUM column
Ans: B
114.Which two statements about constraints are true? (Choose two.)
A. Constraints only enforce rules at the table level.

B. Constraints prevent a table with dependencies from being deleted.
C. Constraints can be created at the same time as the table or after the
table is created.
D. You must provide a name for each constraint at the time of its
creation.
E. Constraint names are NOT required to follow the standard object-naming
rules.
Ans: B , C
115.Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEE table.
Which CREATE TABLE statement should you use to create the EMPLOYEE table?
A. CREATE TABLE employee (employee_id NUMBER, emp_lname VARCHAR2(25),

emp_fname VARCHAR2(25), 
dept_id NUMBER, job_id NUMBER, mgr_id NUMBER, salary NUMBER(9,2),
hire_date DATE, 
CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk PRIMARY KEY(employee_id), 
CONSTRAINT dept_id_fk FOREIGN KEY(dept_id) REFERENCES
department(dept_id), 
CONSTRAINT job_id_fk FOREIGN KEY(job_id) REFERENCES job(job_id), 
CONSTRAINT mgr_id_fk FOREIGN KEY(mgr_id) REFERENCES employee(emp_id));
B. CREATE TABLE employee (employee_id NUMBER, emp_lname VARCHAR2(25),
CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk PRIMARY KEY(employee_id));
C. CREATE TABLE employee (employee_id NUMBER, emp_lname VARCHAR2(25),
CONSTRAINT dept_id_fk FOREIGN KEY(dept_id) REFERENCES
department(dept_id), 
CONSTRAINT job_id_fk FOREIGN KEY(job_id) REFERENCES job(job_id));
D. CREATE TABLE employee (employee_id NUMBER, emp_lname VARCHAR2(25),
hire_date DATE, 
CONSTRAINT mgr_id_fk FOREIGN KEY(mgr_id) REFERENCES employee(emp_id));
Ans: A
116.Evaluate this statement: 

 
SELECT * FROM greg.customer; 
 
If as user Chan you execute this statement successfully, which statement
must be true?
A. The CUSTOMER table exists in user Greg's schema.

B. The CUSTOMER table was created in the DBA schema.
C. The CUSTOMER table was created in the public schema.
D. The CUSTOMER table is accessible to all users.
Ans: A
117.Logged on as user Ann, you issue these SQL statements: 

 
CREATE TABLE customer 
(customer_id NUMBER,company_id VARCHAR2(30), contact_name VARCHAR2(30),
 
contact_title VARCHAR2(20), address VARCHAR2(30),city VARCHAR2(25), 
region VARCHAR2(10), postal_code VARCHAR2(20), country_id NUMBER, 
phone VARCHAR2(20), fax VARCHAR2(20), credit_limit NUMBER (7,2)); 
CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM cust 
FOR customer; 
GRANT SELECT ON customer TO chan; 
 
Which SELECT statements could user Chan issue to access the CUSTOMER
table? (Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT * FROM ann.customer;

B. SELECT customer_id FROM customer;
C. SELECT customer_name, phone FROM cust;
D. SELECT * FROM ann.cust;
E. SELECT COUNT(city) FROM chan.cust;
Ans: A , C
118.Evaluate this CREATE TABLE statement: 
 
CREATE TABLE curr_order (id NUMBER, customer_id NUMBER, emp_id NUMBER,
 
order_dt TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE, order_amt NUMBER(7,2), 
ship_method VARCHAR2(5)); 
 
Which statement about the ORDER_DT column is true?
A. Data will be normalized to the database time zone.

B. Data will include a time zone displacement in its value.
C. Data stored in the column will be returned in the server's local time
zone.
D. Data will be stored using a fractional seconds precision of 3.
Ans: A
119.Examine the structure of the PRODUCT table.
You need to reduce the LIST_PRICE column precision to 6 with a scale of 2

and ensure that
when inserting a row into the PRODUCT table without a value for the
LIST_PRICE column, a
price of $5.00 will automatically be inserted. The PRODUCT table
currently contains no records. 
Which statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE product

ADD OR REPLACE (list_price NUMBER(8,2) DEFAULT 5);
B. ALTER TABLE product
MODIFY (list_price NUMBER(6,2) DEFAULT 5);
C. ALTER TABLE product
MODIFY COLUMN (list_price NUMBER(6,2) DEFAULT '$5.00');
D. ALTER TABLE product
MODIFY (list_price NUMBER(8,2) DEFAULT 5)
REPLACE COLUMN (list_price NUMBER(6,2);
E. You CANNOT reduce the size of the LIST_PRICE column.
Ans: B
120.Which statements about data types are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The TIMESTAMP data type is an extension of the VARCHAR2 data type.

B. The BLOB data type stores character data up to four gigabytes.
C. The VARCHAR2 data type requires that a minimum size be specified when
defining a
column of this type.
D. The CHAR data type should be used for fixed-length character data.
E. The INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH data type allows time to be stored as an
interval of
years and months.
Ans: D , E
Oracle 8i Backup and Recovery
(1Z0-025)
Note :- These are only some of the questions which appear on this exam and not the complete Q pool.
For complete stuff, mail at danielmazza52@hotmail.com
1. What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
bd
2. What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery catalog?
A. 1M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
b
3. Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been misplaced. Which
Recovery Manager command returns a report containing the files in the USER_DATA tablespace
that have not been backed up within the last three days?
A. rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;

D. rman> report need backup days 3 tablespace user_data;
d
4. Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of commands in the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
b
5. After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup control file,
you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CRETAE command clause should you use
to remove these references?
A. REMOVE.
B. DELETE.
C. UNCATALOG.
D. CATALOG REMOVE.
d
6. What are two purposes for using the Recovery Manager command CATALOG? (Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.

B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup.
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8.
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
cd
7. What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.

B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files become available.
d
8. What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS command on the
primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database.

B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the standby
database is reset.
a
9. What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.

B. The standby database becomes the primary database.
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied.
B
10. What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database environment
and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server.
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary database.
C
11. The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS standby.ct creates
a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server.

B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary server.
A
12. What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.

B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command.
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES parameter, and start
up the database.
B
13. Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.

B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations.
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through Recovery Manager commands.
B
14. What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?

E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log.
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
E
15. What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?

E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery.
F
16. What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed.

B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated.
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
AD
17. Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data block?
A. DB/VERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
C
18. Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR.

B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted.
A
19. Which statement is true when using the DELIVERY utility to detect corruptions in an Oracle data
block?

C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates.
B
20. The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.

B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode.
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
B
21. In which two situations would you have to apply redo information to a read-only tablespace?
(Choose two)
A. When the tablespace being recovered has always been writeable.

B. When the tablespace being recovered is unknown to the control file.
C. When the tablespace being recovered is read-only and was read-only when the last backup occurred.
D. When the tablespace being recovered is writeable, but was read-only when the last backup occurred.
E. When the tablespace being recovered is read-only, but was writeable when the last backup occurred.
DE
22. Which two types of data files can be considered non-essential? (Choose two)
A. Data files belonging to a lost tablespace.

B. Data files belonging to an index tablespace.
C. Data files belonging to a SYSTEM tablespace.
D. Data files belonging to a temporary tablespace.
E. Data files belonging to an application data tablespace.
F. Data files belonging to a rollback segment tablespace.
BD
23. In which situation would you need to create a new control file for an existing database?
A. When all redo-log files are lost.

B. When MAXLOGMEMBERS needs to be changed.
C. When RECOVERY_PARALLELISM needs to be changed.
D. When the name of the parameter file needs to be changed.
B
24. A tablespace becomes unavailable because of a failure. The database is running in
NOARCIVELOG mode? What should the DBA do to make the database available?
A. Perform a tablespace recovery.

B. Perform a complete database recovery.
C. Restore the data files, redo log files, and control files from an earlier copy of a full database backup.
D. There is no possibility too make the database available.
C
25. Why is manual archiving not recommended?
A. Additional disk resources are required.

B. More background processes are required.
C. A DBA must issue at SQL command to archive the online redo-log files.
D. An operating systems script must be written to copy the online redo-log files.
C
26. What kind of destination can DBA choose when specifying the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n
parameter?
A. A Net8 listener name.

B. Only a local dictionary.
C. Only a Net8 atlas for a remote database.
D. A local dictionary or Net8 atlas for a remote database.
D
27. How can a DBA disable one of the current archive destructions?
A. Issue the command ALTER SESSION SET LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST+DEFER.

B. Shut down the database and delete the archive destination dictionary at the operating system level.
C. Specify the initialisation parameter LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_STATE_n+DEFER.
D. It is not possible to disable archive destinations?
A
28. When configuring a database for ARCHIVELOPG mode, you use an initialisation parameter to
specify which action?
A. The size of archived log files.

B. How frequently log files will be archived.
C. That the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
D. Whether archiving will be manual or automatic.
C
29. Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. Which three types of backups can be
performed? (Choose three)
A. Open database backups.

B. Operating system backups when the database is closed.
C. Online control file backups using the ALTER CONTROLFILE BACKUP command.
D. Online tablespace backups using the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP TABLESPACE command.
E. Online control file backups using the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE command.
ABE
30. Which two actions must you take to stop automatic archiving of redo-log files? (Choose two)
A. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE LOGSTOP; command

B. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_ARCHIVE_START=FALSE; command
C. Set LOG_ARCHIVE_STOP=TRUE parameter file and restart the database.
D. Set LOG_ARCHIVE_START=FALSE in the parameter file and restart the database.
AD
Oracle 8i Performance Tuning
(1Z0-024)
1. You determined that the value for REQUEST_FAILURES as seen from

V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED is more than zero and always increasing. Which action would
be appropriate?
a. Increase the value for the LARGE_POOL_SIZE parameter.

b. Decrease the value for the LARGE_POOL_SIZE parameter.
c. Increase the value for the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameter.
d. Decrease the value for the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE parameter.
C
2. Which initialization parameter determines the location of the alert log file?
a. LOG_FILE_DIR
b. USER_DUMP_DEST
c. CORE_DUMP_DEST
d. BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST
D
3. Where can you find the non-default parameters when an instance is started?
a. Alert log
b. Online redo log
c. Archived redo log
d. SYSTEM user’s trace file
A
4. What should be two goals when tuning rollback segments (Choose two)?
a. Transactions should never wait for access to the rollback segment.

b. No transaction, however large or exceptional, should ever run out of rollback space.
c. Rollback segments should be configured to extend continually during normal processing.
d. The ratio of waits to rollback segment header blocks should be less than 5% of the sum of access.
A, D
5. Which statement about improving the performance of the database buffer cache by creating
multiple buffer pools is true?
a. The KEEP buffer pool must also be deferred if the RECYCLE pool is defined.
b. The buffer pool for an object can be set explicitly only at object creation time.
c. The blocks from an object without an explicitly set buffer pool go into the RECYCLE pool.
d. Buffer pools are assigned to a segment, so options with multiple segments can have blocks in
multiple buffer pools.
A
6. Which of the following is and advisable tuning goal?
a. Use as much memory as possible.

b. Use multiple copies of the code in memory.
c. Access the most possible number of blocks from disk.
d. Access the least possible number of blocks from disk.
D
7. When should you recommend changing the applications in order to reuse more SQL?
a. When the GETHITRATIO in the V$LIBRARYCACHE view is above 0.99.

b. When the misses in the dictionary cache are greater than 1% of the hits.
c. When the ratio of GETHITS to GETS in the V$LIBRARYCACHE view is less than 0.9.
d. When the ratio of RELOADS to PINS in the V$LIBRARYCACHE view is less than 0.01.
C
8. When tables are stored in locally managed tablespaces, where is extent allocation information
stored?
a. Memory
b. Data dictionary
c. Temporary tablespace
d. Corresponding tablespace itself
D
9. Which two statements about database blocks are true? (Choose two)
a. DSS environments prefer a large block size.

b. Small block sizes result in more block contention.
c. Random access to large objects favors a large block size.
d. You can reduce the number of block visits by packing rows as closely as possible into blocks.
e. To change the database block size, you must shut down the instance and perform a STARTUP
RESETLOGS after you make the change.
AD
10. The ORDERS table has millions of rows and is accessed very often with an index
(ORDID_NDX) on a primary key (ORD_ID). Where should ORDERS and ORDID_NDX be
stored?
a. Same tablespace.
b. Different tablespace on the same disk.
c. Tablespace containing a rollback segment.
d. Different tablespaces on different disks.
D
11. Which two statements about row migration are true? (Choose two)
a. Row migration is caused by a PCTREE value set too low.

b. Row migration can be resolved using the ANALYZE command.
c. Row migration can be reduced by choosing a larger block size.
d. Row migration means that row pieces are stored in different blocks.
e. Queries that use an index to select migrated rows perform additional I/O
AD
12. What are two indications of contention for a rollback segment header? (Choose two)
a. A nonzero value in the WAITS column of the V$ROLLSTAT view.

b. A nonzero value in the UNDO HEADER column of the V$WAITSTAT view.
c. A nonzero value in the ROLL_SEG_WAITS column of the V$RLLSEGS view.
d. A nonzero value in the UNDO_HEADER_WAITS column of the V$ROLLBACK_SEGS view.
e. A nonzero value in the Undo Segment To Slot event of the V$SYSTEM_EVENT view.
AB
13. Which three statements regarding the SECONDS_IN_WAIT value for the log buffer space event
in the V$SESSION_WAIT view are true? (Choose Three)
a. A SECONDS_IN_WAIT value close to zero is ideal.

b. A nonzero value in the SECONDS_ID_WAIT may indicate disk I/O contention on the redo log
files.
c. The SECONDS_IN_WAIT value of the log buffer space event indicates time spent waiting for
space in the redo log buffer.
d. A nonzero value in the SECONDS_IN_WAIT may be an indication that the redo log buffers are
too large and log switches are not occurring fast enough.
ACD
14. Which two parameters significantly impact the manual stripe size of data files? (Choose two)
a. DB_BLOCK_SIZE
b. REDO_LOG_BUFFERS
c. DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS
d. DB_BLOCK_MAX_DIRT_TARGET
e. DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT
AE
15. What are the two main benefits of index-organized tables? (Choose two)
a. More concurrency.
b. Faster full table scans.
c. Fast primary key-based access.
d. Less contention on the segment header.
e. No duplication of primary key values storage.
CD
16. Which view shows the number of full table scans?
a. V$SYSSTAT
b. V$FILESTAT
c. V$SESSIONS
d. V$DATAFILE
A
17. Which type of change to an application is most likely to improve the performance of the library
cache?
a. Adding more frequent COMMIT statements.

b. Replacing bind variables with constants.
c. Reusing as much generic code as possible.
d. Replacing database constraints with triggers.
B
18. The cost-based optimizer can choose between a nested loops join and a sort merge join operation.
All tables are analyzed and the OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS. Which execution
plan will be the result?
a. The sort-merge join.

b. The nested loops join.
c. This depends on some sort parameter values.
d. This depends on the number of rows in each table.
B
19. What is the main reason to create a reverse-key index on a column?
a. The column is populated using a sequence.

b. The column contains many different values.
c. The column is mainly used for value range scans.
d. The column implements an inverted list attribute.
A
20. You are attempting to size the KEEP buffer pool and issue ANALYZE. . . . ESTIMATE
STATISTICS commands. Which three data dictionary tables should you query to obtain the total
number of blocks required for an object? (Choose Three)
a. DBA_TABLES
b. DBA_INDEXES
c. DBA_SEGMENTS
d. DBA_CLUSTERS
ABD
21. Which class of data describes to Oracle Expert how the database is used in daily operations?
a. Schema class
b. Workload class
c. Instance class
d. Environment class
C
22. On a database that is running Multithreaded server, which view would you query to get
information for users with shared server connections?
a. V$CIRCUIT
b. DBA_USERS
c. DBA_CIRCUIT
d. V$DISPATCHER_USERS
e. DBA_DISPATCHERS_USERS
A
23. To provide more free lists for a number of your database segments, what is one of your options?
a. Modify them with the INSERT_ _ FREELIST command.

b. Drop and re-create them with the required FREELIST value.
c. Change the default storage parameter of the tablespace(s) where they are stored.
d. Modify the FREELIST_LIMIT parameter in your installation file and restart the instance.
B
24. Which statement is true when connecting to the Oracle instance using the multithreaded server
configuration?
a. The user global area may only contain sort areas.
b. The user global area may be accessible to dedicated servers.
c. The user global area components may reside in the large pool.
d. The user global area components may reside in the buffer cache.
C
25. Summing the system statistics, (db block gets + consistent gets) gives the total number of
requests. What is the other system statistic required to calculate the buffer cache hit ratio?
a. Physical reads
b. Session logical reads
c. Table scan blocks gotten
d. DBWR buffers scanned
A
26. Sometimes the LGWR process must wait because DBWin has not compressed checkpointing a
file. How do you identify this situation?
a. Check the V$SESSION_WAIT view for the ‘log buffer space’ event.
b. Check the alert log file for the message ‘CHECKPOINT NOT COMPLETE’
c. Check the ‘redo buffer allocation retries’ statistic in the V$SYSSTAT view.
d. Check the ‘log file switch (checkpoint complete)’ event in the V$SYSTEM_EVENT view.
B
27. You want to reduce the amount of redo generated for your database. What are three ways to
achieve this goal? (Choose Three)
a. Use BOLOGGING mode in SQL statements.

b. Use direct load UPDATE to NOLOGGING mode.
c. Use direct path loading without archiving.
d. Use direct path loading with archiving using NOLOGGING mode.
e. Start your instance with the NOLOGGING initialization parameter.
ABC
28. The alert log file for a database instance indicates that the checkpoints are frequently failing to
complete. Which action would be a remedy in this situation?
a. Increase the number of archiver processes.

b. Increasing the number of members for all log groups.
c. Increasing the number of log writer processes.
d. Increasing the number of database writer processes.
D
29. When setting multiple LRU latches in your initialization parameter file, what might you also
consider setting?
a. One buffer pool for each latch

b. One DBWn process for each latch
c. At least one shared server for each latch
d. At least two DBWn processes for each latch
B
30. What can you use the values in the GETS and GETMISSES columns of V$ROWCACHE to
determine the hit ratio for?
a. Library cache
b. Dictionary cache
c. Entire shared pool
d. Large objects such as PL/SQL packages
B
Oracle8i: Architecture and Administration
(1Z0-023)
1. Which of the following is one reason for using the package, DBMS_TTS?
A. To verify that a tablespace is self-contained.

B. To drop indexes outside a transportable tablespace.
C. To create the metadata for a transportable tablespace.
D. To attach transportable tablespaces datafiles to the database.
A
2. Which export option will generate code to create an initial extent that is equal to the sum of the
sizes of all the extents currently allocated to an object?
A. FULL
B. DIRECT
C. COMPACT
D. COMPRESS
D
3. What are two reasons for changing user quotas on a tablespace?
A. A datafile becomes full.

B. A user encounters slow response time from the application.
C. Tables owned by a user exhibit rapid and unanticipated growth.
D. Database objects are reorganized and placed in different tablespace.
C,D
4. A DBA performs the query:
SELECT tablespace_name, max_blocks

FROM dba_tablespace_quotas
WHERE username= ‘JERRY’;
That returns the result:
TABLESPACE_NAME MAX_BYTES
DATA01 -1
What does -1 indicate?
A. Tablespace DATA01 has been dropped.

B. Tablespace DATA01 has no free space.
C. The user has no quotas on tablespace DATA01.
D. The user has an unlimited quota on tablespace DATA01.
E. The user has exceeded his or her quota on the tablespace DATA01.
D
5. Consider the following command to create the user ‘peter’:
CREATE USER peter

IDENTIFIED by pan
TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp
PASSWORD EXPIRE;
Since no default tablespace was specified, what will happen if this command is executed?
A. The user will not own a home directory.

B. The user peter will be created using the TEMP tablespace as the default.
C. The user peter will be created using the SYSTEM tablespace as the default.
D. The code will produce an error message, the user peter will not be created.
C
6. An Oracle user receives the following error:
ORA-01555 SNAPSHOP TOO OLD
What are two possible solutions?
A. Increase the extent size of the rollback segments

B. Perform media recovery.
C. Increase the number of rollback segments.
D. Increase the size of the rollback segment tablespace.
E. Increase the value of the OPTIMAL storage parameter.
A,C
7. When creating rollback segments, what is the recommended value for the MINEXTENT
minimize dynamic extension?
A. 15
B. 20
C. five
D. ten per transaction
E. number_of_users*25
A
8. MINEXTENTS must be at least _____ when a rollback segment is created.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
B
9. You are creating a database with a character set other than US7ACII. Which operating system
environmental variable needs to be set to specify the director location of the NLS support files?
A. NLS_LANG
B. ORA_NLS33
C. ORACLE_SID
D. ORACLE_BASE
E. ORACLE_HOME
B
10. Given the statement:
CREATE DATABASE orc1

LOGFILE GROUP 1 ‘u1/Oracle/dba/logla.rdo’ SITE DM
GROUP 2 ‘u01/Oracle/dba/logla.rdo’ SITE DM
DATAFILE ‘u01/Oracle/dbs/sys_01.dbf’ REUSE;
Which statement is true?
A. The online redo logs will be multiplexed.

B. The file ‘u01/Oracle/dbs/sys_01.dbf’ already exists.
C. File ‘u01/Oracle/dbs/sys_01.dbf’ as a parameter file.
D. The control file name is ‘u01/Oracle/dbs/sys_01.dbf’.
E. Oracle will determine the optimum size for ‘u01/Oracle/dba/sys_01.dbf’.
B
11. What is a default role?
A. A role that requires a password.

B. A role that requires no password.
C. A role automatically enabled when the user logs on.
D. A role automatically assigned when the user is created.
C
12. Who is the owner of a role?
A. SYS
B. Nobody
C. SYSTEM
D. The creator
D
13. Which class of segments is most likely to cause fragmentation in permanent tablespace?
A. Index segments.
B. Rollback segments.
C. User data segments.
D. Temporary segments.
E. Data dictionary segments.
D
14. Which data dictionary view shows the available free space in a certain tablespace?
A. DBA_EXTENTS
B. V$FREESPACE
C. DBA_FREE_SPACE
D. DBA_TABLESPACE
E. DBA_FREE_EXTENTS
C
15. Which statement about using PCTFREE and PCTUSED is true?
A. Block space utilization can be specified only at the segment level.

B. Block space utilization can be specified only in the data dictionary.
C. Block space utilization parameters can only be specified at the tablespace.
D. Block space utilization can be specified both at the tablespace level and segment level.
A
16. Which type of index should be created to spread the distribution of an index across the index
tree?
A. B-tree indexes.
B. Bitmap indexes.
C. Reverse-key indexes.
D. Function-based indexes.
C
17. Which statement about rebuilding indexes is true?
A. The NOSORT option must be used.

B. The new index is built using the table as the data source
C. A reverse b-tree index can be converted to a normal index.
D. Query performance may be affected because the index is not.
C
18. When granting the system privilege, which clause enables the grantee to further grant the
privilege to other users or roles?
A. PUBLIC
B. WITH PRIVILEGE
C. WITH ADMIN OPTION
D. WITH GRANT OPTION
C, MEJORADA, ANTERIOR: D
19. Which view will show a list of privileges that are available for the current session to a user?
A. SESSION_PRIVS
B. DBA_SYS_PRIVS
C. DBA_COL_PRIVS
D. DBA_SESSION_PRIVS
A
20. How does a DBA specify multiple control files?
A. With the ADD CONTROLFILE command.

B. By using the files in the STARTUP command.
C. With the MULTIPLEX control file command.
D. By listing the files in the CONTROL_FILES parameter.
D
21. Which dynamic view should a DBA query to obtain information about the different sections of
the control file?
A. V$CONTROLFILE
B. DBA_CONTROLFILE
C. V$CONTROLFILE_RECORD_SECTION
D. DBA_CONRTOLFILE_RECORD_SECTION
C
22. What are two characteristics of the control file?
A. It is a text file
B. It is a fixed size.
C. It should be multiplexed.
D. It is required to start the instance.
E. It must be updated at every log switch.
C,D
23. Which two dynamic views can be queried when a database is started up in nomount state?
A. V$SGA
B. V$LOGFILE
C. V$INSTANCE
D. V$CONTROLFILE
E. V$DATAFILE_HEADER
A,C
24. Which two tasks occur as a database transitions from the mount stage to the open stage?
A. The online data files are opened.

B. Memory for the SGA is allocated.
C. The Oracle password file is opened.
D. The online redo log files are opened.
E. Stored procedures are pinned in the library cache.
A,D
25. In which situation is it appropriate to enable the restricted session mode?
A. Creating a table
B. Dropping an index
C. Taking a rollback segment offline
D. Exporting a consistent image of a large number of tables.
D
26. Which three events are logged in the ALERT file?
A. Socket usage
B. Block corruption errors
C. User session information
D. Internal errors (ORA-600)
E. Database startup activities.
B,D,E
27. Which two conventions are defined by the initialization parameter NLS_LANGUAGE?
A. Default data format

B. Local current symbol
C. ISO week number calculation
D. Default sorting sequence of character data
E. Language used for day and month names and their abbreviations.
DE
28. Which data dictionary view displays the database character set?
A. V$DATBASE
B. DBA_CHARACTER_SET
C. NLS_DATABASE_PARAMETERS
D. NLS_DATABASE_CHARACTERSET
C
29. How can you declare the national character set and the database character set?
A. By creating the database

B. By installing the Oracle software
C. By setting the initialization parameter CHARCTER_SET
D. By setting the environment variable DB_CHARACTER_SET
A
30. Which statement about an Oracle instance is true?
A. An Oracle instance can access multiple databases at one time only.

B. An Oracle instance has a minimum of three background processes.
C. An Oracle instance consists of the shared pool and the redo log files.
D. The memory allocated by an Oracle instance is shareable by the database processes.
D
Oracle Introduction to PL/SQL
(1Z0-001e)
1. You must permanently remove all data from the INVOICE table, but will need the table structure in
the future. What single command should be issued?
a. DROP TABLE invoice

b. TRUNCATE TABLE invoice
c. DELETE
FROM invoice
d. TRNCATE TABLE invoice
KEEP STRUCTURE;
2. Examine the following command:
CREATE TABLE pay

(employee-id Number(9)
CONSTRAINT pay-pk PRIMARY KEY,
2000-pay NUMBER(8,2)
manager-name VARCHAR2(25)
CONSTRAINT mgr-name-nn. NOT NULL,
pay-96 NUMBER(8,2));
Which two lines of this command will return an error?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
e. Fifth
f. Sixth
g. Seventh
3. You must store currency data. All data will have two digits to the fight of the decimal point (ie,
25.xx). The numbers to the left of the decimal point will vary. Which data type is most appropriate?
a. NUMBER
b. NUMBER(T)
c. LANG
d. LANGRA
4. Examine the WORKER table below:
NAME NULL TYPE

WORKER ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(25)
PHONE NOT NULL VARCHAR2(9)
ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
POSITION UPDATE
There are hundreds of records in the EMPLOYEE TABLE. You need to modify the phone column to
hold only number values. Which statement will modify the data type appropriately?
a. ALTER TABLE worker

MODIFY phone NUMBER(9)
b. ALTER WORKER table
MODIFY COLUMN phone NUMBER(9)
c. A VARCHAR2 data type cannot be changed to a NUMBER data type for a column.
d. The data type of a column cannot be modified if there is data in the column.
5. What should be done after each fetch statement in a PL/SQL block?
a. Open the cursor.

b. Close the cursor.
c. Initialize the loop.
d. Test for rows using the cursor attribute.
6. Examine this executable section of a PL/SQL block:
BEGIN
FOR worker_record IN pay_cursor LOOP
Worker_id_table(worker_id):=
Worker_record.last_name;
END LOOP;
CLOSE salary_cursor;
END;
Why does this section cause an error?
a. The cursor needs to be open.

b. No fetch statements were used.
c. Terminating conditions are missing.
d. The cursor does not need to be explicitly closed.
7. Your company will be granting workers a $150 salary increase. You need to evaluate results of the
increase from the worker table prior to the actual modification. You do not want to store in the
results in the current database. Which of the following is untrue?
a. A column must be added to the worker table.

b. An arithmetic expression must be added that invokes the salary increment in the SET section of the
upgrade clause.
c. An arithmetic expression must be added that invokes the salary increment in the SELECT clause of
the SELECT statement.
d. An arithmetic expression must be added that invokes the salary increment in the UPDATE clause of
the SELECT statement.
8. What command should be used to execute a script file named QUERYCOLOR.SQL from the SQL
Plus environment?
a. START QUERYCOLOR
b. EXECUTE QUERYCOLOR
c. RUN QUERYCOLOR
d. GET QUERYCOLOR
9. You need to test if the current fetch within a PL/SQL loop was successful. Which cursor attribute is
needed to accomplish this task?
a. SQL%ISOPEN
b. SQLROWCOUNT
c. SQL%FOUND
d. A cursor attribute cannot be used within a PL/SQL loop.
10. You have been assigned the task of updating worker salaries. If a salary is less than 1000, it must be
incremented by 10%. The SQL Plus substitution variable will be used to accept a worker number.
Which PL/SQL block successfully updates salaries?
a. DECLARE
V_sal worker.sal%type;
BEGIN
SELECT sal
INTO v_sal
FROM worker
WHERE workerno=&&p_workerno;
IF ‘v_sal<1000 then’
UPDATE worker
INTO sal:=sal*1.1
WHERE workerno=&p_workerno;
END IF;
END;
b. DECLARE
BEGIN
SELECT sal
INTO v_sal
FROM worker
WHERE worker=&&p_wokerno;
IF ‘v_sal<1000 then sal:=sal*1. 1’
END IF;
END;
c. DECLARE
BEGIN
SELECT sal
INTO v_sal
FROM worker
UPDATE emp
sal:=sal*1.1
END IF;
END;
d. DECLARE
BEGIN
SELECT sal
INTO v_sal
FROM worker
UPDATE worker
SET sal:=sal*1.1
END IF;
END;
11. Examine the following:
SET SERVER OUTPUT ON

X NUMBER;
V_sal NUMBER;
V_found VARCHAR2(10):= ‘TRUE’;
BEGIN
X:=1;
V_sal:=1000;
DECLARE
V_found VARCHAR2(10);
Y NUMBER
BEGIN
IF(v_sal>500)
THEN v_found:= ‘YES’;
END IF;
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(‘VALUE OF v_found is’||v_found);
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(‘VALUE OF v_sal is’||v_sal);
Y:=20;
END;
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LIN(‘VALUE OF v_found is’||v_found);
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(‘VALUE OF Y is’||to_char(Y));
END;
SET SERVER OUT PUT OFF;
Why will this procedure produce an error when executed?
a. The value of v_found cannot be YES.

b. The variable v_found is declared in more than one location.
c. The variable Y is declared in the inner block and referred to in the outer block.
d. The variable v_sal is declared in the outer block and referred to in the inner block.
12. The worker table contains the following columns:
First_name VARCHAR2(25)
Last_name VARCHAR2(25)
Evaluate these two SQL statements:
SELECT CONTACT (first_name,last_name),

LENGTH(CONTACT(first_name,last_name))
FROM worker
WHERE UPPER(last_name)like ‘%J’
OR UPPER (last_name)like ‘%K’
OR UPPER (last_name)like ‘%L’;
SELECT INITCAP(first_name)||
INITCAP(last_name),
LENGTH(last_name)+LENGTH(first_name)
FROM worker
WHERE INTICAP(substr(last_name,1,1))In
( ‘J’, ‘K’, ‘L’);
How will results differ between the two SQL statements?
a. Different data will be retrieved from the database.

b. The same data will be retrieved, but it will be displayed differently.
c. The first statement will be executed; the second will not.
d. The second statement will be executed; the first will not.
13. In the declarative section of a PL/SQL block, you create-but do not initialize-a number variable.
When the block executes, what will be the initial value of the variable?
a. 0
b. Null
c. The value will depend on the scale and precision of the variable.
d. The block will not execute because the variable was not initialized.
14. The worker table contains the following columns:
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25) FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25) DEPT_ID NUMBER(9)
You need to display the names of workers that are not assigned to the department. Evaluate the
following:
SELECT last_name, first_name

FROM worker
WHERE dept_id is NULL
Which of the following changes should be made to achieve the desired result?
a. Create an outer join.

b. Change the column in the WHERE condition.
c. Change the operator in the WHERE condition.
d. Add a second condition to the WHERE condition.
15. Which of the following statements regarding SQL is true?
a. Null values are displayed last in ascending sequences.

b. Data values are displayed in descending order by default.
c. You cannot specify a column alias in an ORDER BY clause.
d. Query results cannot be sorted by a column that is not included in the SELECT list.
16. You are a user of the PROD database, which has over 1200 tables. What data dictionary view must
you query to determine the number of tables you can access?
a. ALL_OBJECTS
b. DBA_TABLES
c. DBA_SEGMENTS
d. USER_OBJECTS
17. Evaluate the two following commands:
SELECT DISTINCT object-type

FROM user-objects;
SELECT object-type
ROM all-objects;
How will the results of the two commands differ?
a. The first statement will display the distinct object types in the database; the second statement will
display the object types in the database.
b. The first statement will display the distinct object types owned by the users; the second statement will
display all object types in the database.
c. The first statement will display distinct object types owned by the user; the second statement will
display all the object types that the user can access.
d. The first statement will display the distinct object types that the user can access; the second statement
will display all the object types that the user owns.
18. Which of the following privileges is related to system-level security?
a. Drop any table

b. DELETE
c. ALTER
d. INDEX
19. Evaluate the following:
CREATE ROLE supervisor;

CREATE ROLE clerk;
CREATE ROLE janitor;
CREATE USER alex IDENTIFIED BY green;
GRANT janitor TO clerk;
GRANT clerk TO supervisor;
GRANT janitor to alex;
/
How many rows will user alex have access to?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
20. Mike forgot his password. Which of the following commands will set a password for user, mike?
a. LATER USER mike PASSWORD BY green. The command must be issued by Mike.
b. ALTER USER mike IDENTIFIED BY green. The command must be issued by the DBA.
c. ALTER USER mike IDENTIFIED BY green. The command must be issued by Mike.
d. CHANGE password to green WHERE “user=mike”; The command must be issued by the DBA.
21. You are updating the worker table. Julie has been granted the same privileges as you. You ask her to
check your work before you issue a COMMIT command. What can she do on the workers table?
a. She can access the table and verify your changes.

b. She cannot access the table.
c. She can access the table but cannot see your changes. She can make changes for you.
d. She can access the table, but cannot see your changes or make changes to the roles you are changing.
Name Null? Type
PUPIL-ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)

GRADUATION DATE
Which of these statements inserts a new row into the PUPIL table?
a. INSERT INTO pupil.

VALUES(121, ‘Benson’);
b. INSERT INTO pupil.
VALUES(121, ’50 NE Oak St.’, ‘20-MAR-01’, ‘Benson’);
c. INSERT INTO test.
VALUES(121, ’Benson’, ’50 NE Oak St.’, ‘20-MAR-01’);
d. INSERT INTO pupil.(pupil-id,address,name,graduation)
VALUES(121, ’50 NE Oak St.’, ‘Benson’, ‘20-MAR-01’);
NAME NULL TYPE

PUPIL_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
GRADUATION DATE
The GRADUATION column is a foreign key column to the table. Examine the data in the GRADE
DATA table:
Graduation 11-May-2001
13-Jan-2001
19-Dec-2001
25-Jun-2000
Which of the following statements will produce the error….”ORA-02291 integrity constraint (sys_c23)
violated. Parent key not found.?
a. UPDATE pupil
SET pupil-id=999
Graduation=’11-MAY-2001’
WHERE stud-id=101;’
b. UPDATE pupil
SET name=’Benson’,
Graduation=’11-MAY-2001’
WHERE pupil-id=101;
c. UPDATE pupil
SET name=’Benson’,
Graduation=’15-AUG-200’
WHERE pupil-id=101*
d. UPDATE pupil
SET stud-id=NULL,
Address=’50 NE Oak St’
WHERE graduation=’18-APR-2001’
24. Within SQL Plus, you issue the following:
Delete from dept_id=807
You receive an integrated constraint error indicating the child record was found. What should be done to
make the statement execute?
a. Delete the child record first.

b. Add a fourth keyword to the command.
c. Add the constraints cascade option to the command.
d. The statement cannot be executed.
25. The view WORKER-VIEW is created based on the WORKER table as follows:
CREATE OF REPLACE VIEW worker-view

AS
SELECT deptno,Sum(sal)TOT-SAL,COUNT(+)NOT-WORKER
FROM worker
GROUP BY deptno;
What happens when the following command is issued?
UPDATE worker-view
SET lot-sal=25000
WHERE deptno=8;
a. The base table cannot be updated through this view.

b. The TOT_SAL column in the WORKER table is updated to 25,000 for department 8.
c. The TOT_SAL column in the WORKER view is updated to 25,000 for department 8.
d. The SAL column in the WORKER table is updated to 25,000 for employees in department 8.
26. You view a card, ANN_SAL, that is based on the worker table. The structure of the ANN_SAL view
is:
NAME NULL TYPE

WORKERNO NOT NULL NUMBER(4)
YEARLY_SAL NUMBER(9,2)
MONTHLY_SAL NUMBER(9,2)
Which statement retrieves data from the ANN_SAL view?
a. SELECT * FROM ANN_SAL

b. SELECT * FROM WORKER
c. SELECT * FROM VIEW ANN_SAL
d. SELECT * FROM VIEW ANN_SAL IS DON WORKER
27. Evaluate the following:
IF v-value>100 THEN
v-new-value:=2*v-value;
ELSIF v-value>200 THEN
ELSIF v-value>300 THEN
ELSE
END IF
What would be assigned to v_new_value if v_value=250?
a. 250
b. 500
c. 750
d. 1000
28. The PARTICIPANTS table contains the following columns:
ID NUMBER(9)
NAME VARCHAR(2)
COACHID NUMBER(9)
Evaluate the following statements:
SELECT p.name,c.name
FROM participant p,participant c
WHERE c-id= c.coach-id;
SELECT p.name,c.name
FROM participant p,player c
WHERE c.coach-id=p.id;
How will the results of the two statements differ?
a. The first statement will not execute; the second statement will.
b. The first statement will execute; the second statement will not execute.
c. The first statement is a self join; the second statement is not.
d. The results will be the same, but will be displayed differently.
29. How would you declare a PL/SQL table of records to hold the rows selected from the WORKER
table?
a. DECLARE
worker-table is TABLE OF worker%ROWTYPE
b. BEGIN
TYPE worker-table is TABLE of worker%ROWTYPE
worker-table worker-table-type;
c. DECLARE
INDEX BY WHOLE NUMBER:
d. DECLARE
INDEX BY BINARY INTEGER.
30. Which type of cursor should be created when you want to create a cursor that can be used several
times in a block, selecting a different active set each time it is opened?
a. A loop cursor.
b. A multiple selection cursor.
c. A cursor for each active set.
d. A cursor that uses parameters.
Answer Key:
1. B,C
2. A,D
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. A
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. A
27. B
28. D
29. D
30. D
Oracle8i Network Administration
(1Z0-026)
1. Which are two features of Connection Manager? (Choose Two)
A. Connection exchange
B. Connection resolution
C. Connection multiplexing ****
D. Connection cross-linking
E. Protocol transformation
F. Protocol interchange capability ****
2. Which two are tasks of the dispatcher process? (Choose Two)
A. Receiving connection requests

B. Placing a request in the request queue ****
C. Updating the listener with new LOAD values ****
D. Determining if the client request can be processed
3. Which process picks up a request from a response queue?
A. Client process
B. Listener process
C. Dispatcher process
D. Shared server process ****
4. If a password is configured, which command must be issued first when you need
to stop the listener?
A. Stop
B. Password
C. Set Password ****
D. Shutdown immediate
5. Which parameter specifies the maximum number of server processes that get pre-
spawned in a dedicated server environment?
(Type only your answer; do not type any extra words or characters)
5. PRESPAWN_MAX
6. A site is having intermittent problems with users losing connections to an Oracle

instance, running on a UNIX server. Each user runs the client application on his
or her Windows NT client. The preliminary diagnosis is done with no success.
The DBA then decides to enable Net8 tracing and sets the tracing level to Admin
on one of the client nodes experiencing the problem. Which statement best
describes the result of the DBA’s action?
A. Trace information for all users is enabled.

B. Trace information for only active users is enabled.
C. Trace information applicable for database administrator is enabled. ****
D. Trace information for all users listed in the Net8 configuration file is enabled.
7. Which of the following two statements are true regarding initial shared server
processes? (Choose Two)
A. If initial shared server process is idle, they get de-allocated.

B. It is best to estimate more initial server processes than fewer.
C. You can change the minimum number of shared server processes
dynamically. ****
D. Initial server processes all get allocated when starting up the instance and
database. ****
8. Which of the following four are returned when the NAMESCTL>status command
is issued? (Choose Four)
A. Names Server up time. ****

B. Number of requests received. ****
C. Location of the names.ora file. ****
D. Names Server name that is onames_wwed110. ****
E. Number of Names Server in the administrative region.
9. Which of the following four are supported methods used by the Advanced
Security Option for enhanced user authentication? (Choose Four)
A. RC4
B. RADIUS ****
C. Kerberos ****
D. Biometrics ****
E. Token cards ****
10. Which parameter would you set to enable connect-time failover for multiple
listeners?
FAILOVER=ON
11. What do you need to do to make Centralized Naming available?
A. Startup the Names Server.

B. Create and configure the Names Server. ****
C. Startup the database names listener. Startup the database you are trying to reach.
D. Add the region database to the tnsnames.ora file.
12. How can the DBA determine the location of the listener log file?
A. View the init.ora file.

B. Issue the SHOW LISTENER command.
C. Issue the SHOW LOG_DIRECTORY command. ****
D. Query the dynamic performance view V$LISTENER.
13. When troubleshooting Net8 problems using the sqlnet.log file, how are you most
likely to find the cause of a problem?
A. Locating the first non-zero entry starting from top of the file.
B. Interpreting the first non-zero entry staring from the bottom of the file. ****
C. Looking for the first non-zero entry following the last zero entry in the report.
D. Querying the file with a select statement that includes a where clause to find
errors with a pre-fix of “NET”.
14. Which three parameters would you specify if you wanted to trace the default
listener? (Choose Three)
A. TRACE_LEVEL
B. TRACE_LISTENER
C. TRACE_DIRECTORY
D. TRACE_FILE_LISTENER ****
E. TRACE_LEVEL_LISTENER ****
F. TRACE_DIRECTORY_LISTENER ****
15. How can the DBA monitor the dispatcher processes?
A. By launching the enterprise manager MTS monitor.

B. By querying the DBA_DISPTCHERS data dictionary view.
C. BY queering the V$DISPATCHER dynamic performance view. ****
D. By issuing the SHOW DISPATCHER LSNRCTL command.
16. Which of the following statements is true?
A. A connect descriptor maps to a service name.

B. A service name maps to a connect descriptor. ****
C. A connect descriptor translates only one service name.
D. A connect descriptor is an entity unrelated to a service name.
17. Which statement regarding the logging and tracing of Net8 is False?
A. The trace_level_client parameter may be set to ADMIN level.

B. The trace_file_client parameter controls the name of the trace file.
C. TNSPING does not need to be run for the Net8 tracing facility to be activated.
D. The trace_unique_client parameter controls the number of clients that can
be traced simultaneously at any given time. ****
18. Which statement regarding network security is False?
A. Data privacy ensures that data is not encrypted during transmission.

B. Data integrity ensures that data is not disclosed or stolen during
transmission. ****
C. Authentication ensures that the identities of the users, hosts and clients are
correctly known.
D. Authorization permits a user a program or a process to access an object or set of
objects as desired by the administrator.
19. When configuring the connection concentration feature of Connection Manager,

which file will contain the addresses for both the Connection Manager process
and the listener for the destination node?
A. init.ora
B. cman.ora ****
C. sqlnet.ora
D. tnsnames.ora
20. You are preparing to setup local naming Net8 Assistant. What must be established
at the client and server levels prior to this setup process?
A. sqlnet.ora file
B. Network protocol
C. Database alias ****
D. Tnsnames.ora
21. Which two elements are necessary in an Oracle names directory administrative
region? (Choose Two)
A. One or more domains. ****

B. One or more web servers.
C. One or more dispatchers. ****
D. One or more Names Servers.
E. One or more Connection Managers.
22. Which two statements are true regarding the use of Centralized Naming? (Choose
Two)
A. Centralized Naming is a method that uses Oracle names and maintains

central storage of network service addresses. ****
B. Centralized Naming uses third party resolution mechanisms that integrate with
Oracle.
C. A benefit of Centralized Naming is the elimination of redundancy. Server
address changes are made in one place and all clients can access the new
addresses immediately. ****
D. A disadvantage of Centralized Naming is increased administrative tasks.
Additional administration time and resources are needed when changes are
propagated across network nodes.
23. Which three types of data are stored by Oracle names? (Choose Three)
A. List of available protocols.

B. List of global database links.
C. Names and addresses of Names Server. ****
D. List of registered dispatcher and addresses. ****
E. Names and listener addresses of all Connection Managers on the network.
****
24. When configuring the tnsnames.ora file for connection concentration, which
address is listed first in the description of the service net name?
A. Address for the CMGW process. ****

B. Address for the CMADMIN process.
C. Address for the database listener.
D. Address for the database dispatcher.
25. What does the namesini.SQL script do?
A. Setup a Names Server.

B. Creates a region database.
C. Creates a user within a region database.
D. Creates tables within a schema of region database. ****
26. Which environment variable is used to help set up Oracle names?
A. ADMIN_TNS
B. TNS_NAMES
C. TNS_ADMIN ****
D. NAMES_TNS
E. NAMES_ADMIN
F. ADMIN_NAMES
27. A DBA has installed and configured Net8 for TCP/IP on a client and server but is
still unable to connect from a Windows NT Workstation using SQL*Plus to an
instance running on a remote UNIX server. However, there are no problems when
using FTP nodes. What action next taken by the DBA could make progress
towards diagnosing the problem?
A. Using the NETSTAT command on the server.
B. Attempting to ping the domain Names Server from the client.
C. Connecting by using the Net8 Assistant test connection feature. ****
D. Checking the settings in the Oracle instance parameter file (init<SID>.ora file).
28. When using Connection Pooling, the POOL attribute is set to 5. What does this
mean for the network connections?
A. The time-out in ticks for incoming connections only.

B. The time-out in ticks for outgoing connections only.
C. The time-out in ticks for incoming and outgoing connections. ****
D. The time-out in seconds for incoming and outgoing connections.
29. Which domain naming model would be used to permit names to be repeated
across different domains?
A. Flat
B. Region
C. Global ****
D. Hierarchical
30. Which three capabilities does the Oracle Connection Manager tool provide?
(Choose Three)
A. Cache replication
B. Single task access
C. Connection Pooling
D. Network Access Control ****
E. Connection Concentration ****
F. Multiple Protocol Interchange ****
Oracle8i Network Administration
(1Z0-026)
Note :- These are only some of the questions which appear on this exam and not the
complete Q pool. For complete stuff, mail at danielmazza52@hotmail.com
1. Which are two features of Connection Manager? (Choose Two)
A. Connection exchange
B. Connection resolution
C. Connection multiplexing
D. Connection cross-linking
E. Protocol transformation
F. Protocol interchange capability
2. Which two are tasks of the dispatcher process? (Choose Two)
A. Receiving connection requests

B. Placing a request in the request queue
C. Updating the listener with new LOAD values
D. Determining if the client request can be processed
3. Which process picks up a request from a response queue?
A. Client process
B. Listener process
C. Dispatcher process
D. Shared server process
4. If a password is configured, which command must be issued first when you need to stop the listener?
A. Stop
B. Password
C. Set Password
D. Shutdown immediate
5. Which parameter specifies the maximum number of server processes that get pre-spawned in a
dedicated server environment?
5. PRESPAWN_MAX
6. A site is having intermittent problems with users losing connections to an Oracle instance, running
on a UNIX server. Each user runs the client application on his or her Windows NT client. The
preliminary diagnosis is done with no success. The DBA then decides to enable Net8 tracing and sets
the tracing level to Admin on one of the client nodes experiencing the problem. Which statement
best describes the result of the DBA’s action?
A. Trace information for all users is enabled.

B. Trace information for only active users is enabled.
C. Trace information applicable for database administrator is enabled.
D. Trace information for all users listed in the Net8 configuration file is enabled.
7. Which of the following two statements are true regarding initial shared server processes? (Choose
Two)
A. If initial shared server process is idle, they get de-allocated.

B. It is best to estimate more initial server processes than fewer.
C. You can change the minimum number of shared server processes dynamically.
D. Initial server processes all get allocated when starting up the instance and database.
8. Which of the following four are returned when the NAMESCTL>status command is issued?
(Choose Four)
A. Names Server up time.

B. Number of requests received.
C. Location of the names.ora file.
D. Names Server name that is onames_wwed110.
E. Number of Names Server in the administrative region.
9. Which of the following four are supported methods used by the Advanced Security Option for
enhanced user authentication? (Choose Four)
A. RC4
B. RADIUS
C. Kerberos
D. Biometrics
E. Token cards
10. Which parameter would you set to enable connect-time failover for multiple listeners?
FAILOVER=ON
11. What do you need to do to make Centralized Naming available?
A. Startup the Names Server.

B. Create and configure the Names Server.
C. Startup the database names listener. Startup the database you are trying to reach.
D. Add the region database to the tnsnames.ora file.
12. How can the DBA determine the location of the listener log file?
A. View the init.ora file.

B. Issue the SHOW LISTENER command.
C. Issue the SHOW LOG_DIRECTORY command.
D. Query the dynamic performance view V$LISTENER.
13. When troubleshooting Net8 problems using the sqlnet.log file, how are you most likely to find the
cause of a problem?
A. Locating the first non-zero entry starting from top of the file.
B. Interpreting the first non-zero entry staring from the bottom of the file.
C. Looking for the first non-zero entry following the last zero entry in the report.
D. Querying the file with a select statement that includes a where clause to find errors with a pre-fix of
“NET”.
14. Which three parameters would you specify if you wanted to trace the default listener? (Choose
Three)
A. TRACE_LEVEL
B. TRACE_LISTENER
C. TRACE_DIRECTORY
D. TRACE_FILE_LISTENER
E. TRACE_LEVEL_LISTENER
F. TRACE_DIRECTORY_LISTENER
15. How can the DBA monitor the dispatcher processes?
A. By launching the enterprise manager MTS monitor.

B. By querying the DBA_DISPTCHERS data dictionary view.
C. BY queering the V$DISPATCHER dynamic performance view.
D. By issuing the SHOW DISPATCHER LSNRCTL command.
16. Which of the following statements is true?
A. A connect descriptor maps to a service name.

B. A service name maps to a connect descriptor.
C. A connect descriptor translates only one service name.
D. A connect descriptor is an entity unrelated to a service name.
17. Which statement regarding the logging and tracing of Net8 is False?
A. The trace_level_client parameter may be set to ADMIN level.

B. The trace_file_client parameter controls the name of the trace file.
C. TNSPING does not need to be run for the Net8 tracing facility to be activated.
D. The trace_unique_client parameter controls the number of clients that can be traced
simultaneously at any given time.
18. Which statement regarding network security is False?
A. Data privacy ensures that data is not encrypted during transmission.

B. Data integrity ensures that data is not disclosed or stolen during transmission.
C. Authentication ensures that the identities of the users, hosts and clients are correctly known.
D. Authorization permits a user a program or a process to access an object or set of objects as desired by
the administrator.
19. When configuring the connection concentration feature of Connection Manager, which file will
contain the addresses for both the Connection Manager process and the listener for the destination
node?
A. init.ora
B. cman.ora
C. sqlnet.ora
D. tnsnames.ora
20. You are preparing to setup local naming Net8 Assistant. What must be established at the client and
server levels prior to this setup process?
A. sqlnet.ora file
B. Network protocol
C. Database alias
D. Tnsnames.ora
21. Which two elements are necessary in an Oracle names directory administrative region? (Choose
Two)
A. One or more domains.

B. One or more web servers.
C. One or more dispatchers.
D. One or more Names Servers.
E. One or more Connection Managers.
22. Which two statements are true regarding the use of Centralized Naming? (Choose Two)
A. Centralized Naming is a method that uses Oracle names and maintains central storage of
network service addresses.
B. Centralized Naming uses third party resolution mechanisms that integrate with Oracle.
C. A benefit of Centralized Naming is the elimination of redundancy. Server address changes are
made in one place and all clients can access the new addresses immediately.
D. A disadvantage of Centralized Naming is increased administrative tasks. Additional administration
time and resources are needed when changes are propagated across network nodes.
23. Which three types of data are stored by Oracle names? (Choose Three)
A. List of available protocols.

B. List of global database links.
C. Names and addresses of Names Server.
D. List of registered dispatcher and addresses.
E. Names and listener addresses of all Connection Managers on the network.
24. When configuring the tnsnames.ora file for connection concentration, which address is listed first in
the description of the service net name?
A. Address for the CMGW process.

B. Address for the CMADMIN process.
C. Address for the database listener.
D. Address for the database dispatcher.
25. What does the namesini.SQL script do?
A. Setup a Names Server.

B. Creates a region database.
C. Creates a user within a region database.
D. Creates tables within a schema of region database.
26. Which environment variable is used to help set up Oracle names?
A. ADMIN_TNS
B. TNS_NAMES
C. TNS_ADMIN
D. NAMES_TNS
E. NAMES_ADMIN
F. ADMIN_NAMES
27. A DBA has installed and configured Net8 for TCP/IP on a client and server but is still unable to
connect from a Windows NT Workstation using SQL*Plus to an instance running on a remote UNIX
server. However, there are no problems when using FTP nodes. What action next taken by the DBA
could make progress towards diagnosing the problem?
A. Using the NETSTAT command on the server.

B. Attempting to ping the domain Names Server from the client.
C. Connecting by using the Net8 Assistant test connection feature.
D. Checking the settings in the Oracle instance parameter file (init<SID>.ora file).
28. When using Connection Pooling, the POOL attribute is set to 5. What does this mean for the network
connections?
A. The time-out in ticks for incoming connections only.

B. The time-out in ticks for outgoing connections only.
C. The time-out in ticks for incoming and outgoing connections.
D. The time-out in seconds for incoming and outgoing connections.
29. Which domain naming model would be used to permit names to be repeated across different
domains?
A. Flat
B. Region
C. Global
D. Hierarchical
30. Which three capabilities does the Oracle Connection Manager tool provide? (Choose Three)
A. Cache replication
B. Single task access
C. Connection Pooling
D. Network Access Control
E. Connection Concentration
F. Multiple Protocol Interchange

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PART I

1. You perform an incomplete recovery using RMAN. You write the

SET UNTIL TIME =

SQL ¡§alter database open resetlogs¡¨;}

Which command is missing?

C. ALLOCATE CHANNEL cname TYPE DISK;

D. SET LIMIT CHANNEL cname KBYTESS 4194304

2. A media management layer is always used when Recovery Manager

A. reads or writes to tapes

B. performs media recovery

C. reads or writes to disk files

D. reads or writes through a channel

3 Which two records does the Recovery Manager RESYC CATALOG

B. log switch records

C. rollback segment records

D. archived log copy records

4 You have just created a script in Recovery Manager. After

5. Your recovery catalog user account is RECMAN with a password

A. $ rman smith/danger rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT

B. $ target smith/danger rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT

C. $ rman target smith/danger rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT

D. $ rman rcvcat recman/recman@RCVCAT target (smith/danger)

A. Yes. The catalog is a recognized procedure

B. No. There would be too many dependencies

C. Yes, but only if the database are run in NOARCHIVELOG

D. No. A database that contains a catalog cannot be target

7. What is the last step when setting up a recovery catalog?

A. create a catalog schema owner

B. run the CREATE CATALOG command

C. run the REGISTER DATABASE command

D. resynchronise the database with the catalog

8. You are configuring a database for ARCHIVELOG mode. Which

9. Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. Which

A. Opened database backups.

B. Operating system backups when the database is closed.

C. Online control file backups using the ALTER CONTROLFILE

D. Online tablespace backups using the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP

E. Online control file backups the ALTER DATABASE BACKUP

ANSWER: A,B, E. Opened backups ( hot ), operating system ( close ), and

10. When configuring a database in ARCHIVELOG mode and

A. STARTUP FORCE MOUNT

B. STARTUP TRANSACTIONAL MOUNT

C. SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE AND STARTUP

D. SHUTDOWN ABORT AND STARTUP MOUNT

F. SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE AND STARTUP MOUNT

G. G. SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL AND STARTUP MOUNT

A. Examine log files.

B. Archive historical data.

C. Recreate the control file.

D. Transport tablespaces between databases.

E. Make a logical backup of the rollback segment tablespace.

12. What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a

A. NOLOGGING operations are not allowed when using a

B. The affected data file needs to be copied from the

C. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby

D. The standby database becomes unavailable after a

13. When creating a standby database, which files must be

A. The database backup and the online redo-log files.

B. The database backup and the archived redo-log files.

C. The standby control file, the database backup, and the

D. The standby control file, the database backup, and the

14. In which mode is ¡¥Closed database backups¡¦ the only