I

B.
TECH FIRST YEAR HAND BOOK

FOR MECHANICAL
I B . T E C H I S E M E S T E R R 1 6 R E G U L AT I O N
2017-2018
Name
Reg .No
Class/Section
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TIME TABLE
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
1.10-
Day/Period 9.00 9.50 10.40- 11.30- 12.20- 1.50- 2.40- 3.30-
1.50
-9.50 -10.40 11.30 12.20 1.10 2.40 3.30 4.20
MON
TUE
L
WED U
N
THU C
H
FRI
SAT
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MANAGEMENT:
Shri T.Bala Reddy -- Chairman- Shantha Educational Society- St.Peter’s Engineering

College
Shri.T.V.Reddy --Secretary,St.Peter’s Engineering College
Smt.T.Saroja Reddy -- Director – St.Peter’s Engineering College.
IMPORTANT FUNCTIONAL HEADS:
Dr.M.NARENDRA KUMAR--Principal-St.Peter’s Engineering College
Dr.R.P.SREEDEVI--HOD-S&H-St.Peter’s Engineering College
Dr.M.RAJA --HOD-CSE-St.Peter’s Engineering College
Ms.M.VILASINI RAJA--HOD-ECE—St.Peter’s Engineering College
Ms.K.SRILATHA--HOD-EEE—St.Peter’s Engineering College
Mr.J.PRADEEP KUMAR--HOD-Mech-St.Peter’s Engineering College
Mr.DASIKA.LI--HOD-CE-St.Peter’s Engineering College
Mr. N.RAVI SUDHAKAR– PRO - St.Peter’s Engineering College
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CONTENTS
S. No. PARTICULARS PAGE NO.
I. VISION & MISSION 5
II. QUALITY POLICY 5
III. GOALS 5
IV. GENERAL INFORMATION 5
V. CENTRAL FACILITIES 6
VI. GUIDELINES, RULES AND REGULATIONS 7
VII. TRAINING & PLACEMENTS 11
VIII. LIBRARY 12
IX. STUDENT ACTIVITIES 12
X. CONTACTS INFORMATION 13
S. No. TEACHING SCHEDULE & ASSIGNMENTS PAGE NO.
1. PROFESSIONAL COMMUNICATION IN ENGLISH 14
3. MATHEMATICS –I 26
5. ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY 44
6. ENGINEERING PHYSICS-I 62
7. ENGINEERING MECHANICS 74
10. BEEE 108
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St.Peter’s Engineering College (SPEC)
I. VISION & MISSION
Our Vision:
To promote quality education accessible to all sections of the Society without any discrimination of caste, creed,
colour, sex and religion and help students discover their true potential.
Our Mission:
To provide integrated, continuous and wholesome development of students by equipping them with knowledge and
skills, social values and ethics, scientific attitude and orientations for lifelong education and mould them into useful
citizens of the society. To create an environment conducive to inhibiting their total involvement and participation of
the students, faculty, staff and management. In making the institution into a center of excellence imparting quality
technical education and also arm the students with the competence to be at the forefront of cutting edge technology
and entrepreneurship in highly competitive global market.
II. QUALITY POLICY

We, at SPEC, are committed to ensure high standards to educate enrich and excel, in imparting professional
education, by top quality faculty, who endeavor to mould the students into quality professionals through team work,
innovation and research.
III. GOALS
To undertake Nationally and Internationally acknowledged Research and Development works in all disciplines
by forging alliances with research organizations, government entities, industries and alumni.
SPEC has taken strategic steps to ensure a gradual enhancement of all infrastructural facilities to make the
campus even more advanced. (To simply put–it, it will soon resemble a foreign university this side of the globe.)
IV. GENERAL INFORMATION

A. Location
St.Peter’s Engineering College is located in the outskirts of Hyderabad, near Kompally. The campus is located in a
sprawling and lush green campus with a congenial atmosphere for learning. The premises are spread over 10 acres of
scenic land. The open spaces, lawns and gardens supplement the grandeur of the environment and provide calm and
peaceful atmosphere conducive for academic pursuits.
B. Promoter Society
St.Peter’s Engineering College is sponsored by Shantha Educational Society, which have been founded to educate,
enrich and empower the youth who in turn will play a decisive role in shaping the destiny of the nation. The endeavor
at the Institution stretches beyond just offering degrees to the building of character and personality of the young
professionals transforming them into complete professionals equipped with technological competence and social
consciousness.
C. Academic Excellence
In a short span of seven years, SPEC has achieved many impressive milestones that are worth noting. SPEC
emphatically states, academic excellence is a direct result of serious commitment to uncompromising quality. At
SPEC the management and the faculty share the same vision which says “Giving Wings to Thoughts”
D. Growth of the Institution
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St.Peter’s Engineering College was established in the year 2007 with the sole objective of providing a perfect
platform to students in the field of Technology and Management and their applications for their academic and overall
personality development. Within a span of 10 years, SPEC has come a long way to become one of the Premiere
Engineering Colleges in the state with an overall intake of 768 students in various Undergraduate and Post Graduate
courses including B.Tech. and M.Tech. SPEC is an ISO 9001 certified and NBA certified institution with state-of-
art laboratories, highly qualified and dedicated teaching professionals and a sprawling lush green campus
with a congenial atmosphere for learning. The campus has a rich tradition of soaring high with academic
excellence and overall personal growth of the students. This is achieved by providing them excellent
academic environment, state-of-the-art infrastructure and dedicated and highly qualified faculty
members with decades of teaching and industrial experience.
DIPLOMA UG COURSES PG COURSES
- B. Tech. CSE M. Tech. Computer Science Engineering
M.Tech
- B. Tech. ECE
M.Tech - Embedded Systems
M.Tech - Power Systems
EEE B. Tech. EEE
M.Tech - Power Electronics
ME B. Tech. Mech. Engg. M.Tech - Machine Design
- B Tech. Civil Engg. ------
Highlights:
International Journals published by ECE, ME and CSE departments.

Senior , Experienced and highly qualified faculty
State-of- art Labs with Latest Equipment, Demo Units and Exhibits
R&D Centre in every department
Incubation centre for producing specialized prototype units for Industry
Library with all facilities like e-library which consists of e-journals and NPTL and lecture CDs
World –Class infrastructure
Wi-fi campus with 20Mbps
Pre-Placement Training in soft skills and Aptitude skills
Internship for students in Industries
Excellent Placement Record
Outdoor Sports, Student Activity Centre for Indoor Games and Recreation
Constant Interactions, Consultation and Liaison with the Industry Bodies and Experts
R&D centers to Bridge the Gap between Institution and Industry
MOU’s with Industries
Canteen, Juice Corner
Stationary Shop
Excellent Transport Facility.
V. CENTRAL FACILITIES
1. Buildings
The College has big building surrounded by lush green gardens. There are spacious and well-ventilated classrooms,
staff rooms, drinking water facility for students and other amenities.
2. Internet/ Intranet Facility
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Apart the internet facility, all systems connected to the Central server. Students can access the facility at all working
hours and after hours as part of their research and practical work and for seminars and conferences that are held from
time to time. It also provides access to e-books, study materials, previous question papers, teaching schedules,
internal marks, attendance, daily circulars etc. through the college local Area Network (LAN). The Wi-fi facility with
internet bandwidth of 100MBPS connection is available to students.
3. Sports
Students are encouraged to engage in physical education for their all-round development. They are encouraged to
participate in inter-college competitions and also offer themselves for selection to the University team. Cricket, Volley
ball and Football grounds along with a spacious Student Activity Center for indoor sporting facilities are provided. An
annual Sports day is conducted and prizes are awarded to teams and individuals who prove their mettle.
4. Canteen
College Canteen provides delicious and hygienic food at affordable prices. South Indian and Chinese food, both
vegetarian and non vegetarian is available.
5. Drinking Water
Purified drinking water is supplied to all the departments / blocks through water coolers made available in each
building
6. Transport - College Buses
College has its own fleet of 10 buses plying from all corners of the twin cities. They are comfortable, safe and fast.
Students can deposit fee with the Accounts department for availing the bus facility. Numbers of APSRTC buses are
also available to reach the college well in time. TSRTC will issue Bus passes after the commencement of the class
work.
7. Medical Facilities
College has a tie-up with a medical practitioner, who is available on call. First Aid kits with emergency medicines are
made available in all the departments.
8. Seminar Halls
College has dedicated and well furnished seminar halls, where activities like student seminars, group discussions,
Mock interviews etc are conducted.
VI. GUIDELINES, RULES AND REGULATIONS OF THE CAMPUS
A. General:
1. Dress Code
Students should be dressed in a presentable manner. T-Shirts with round neck are not allowed.
2. Ragging and Indiscipline
Ragging is strictly banned / prohibited. Any student found guilty would be dealt with severely. All senior students of
this college have been warned about ragging, a written undertaking has been taken from all senior students. There is
zero tolerance for ragging. Students are advised to be aware of students of other Colleges. Students who misbehave
with staff or other students will also be dealt with severely. Students involving in indecent acts like smoking,
consuming liquor and involving in fights may be suspended up to one semester /academic year. Special care will be
taken in the busses for first year students.
Students should not involve in ragging. Ragging is uncivilized besides being an offence.
Ragging is prohibited as per Act 26 of A.P. Legislative Assembly -1997.

Ragging entails heavy fine and / or imprisonment.
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Ragging invokes suspension and dismissal from the college
Outsiders are prohibited from entering the college without permission.
Suspended students are debarred from entering the campus except when required to attend enquiry and to submit
an explanation.
Whenever any student complains of ragging, that complaint shall be enquired into or an enquiry shall be caused
to be made into the same forthwith and if the complaint is prima facie found true, the student or students
complained against shall be suspended for a semester or as may be deemed necessary.
Students shall give an undertaking to the college that he/she shall not indulge in ragging.
Student’s parent/guardian shall also give an undertaking that he / she shall see to it that to the best of his / her son
/ daughter / ward shall not indulge in ragging and also comply with all the guidelines, rules and regulations
concerning prevention of ragging.
All students should carry identity cards with them both inside and outside the college.
Prohibition of Ragging
Ragging within or outside any educational Institution is prohibited.
Ragging means doing an act which causes or is likely to cause insult or annoyance or fear or
apprehension or threat or intimidation or outrange of modesty or injury to a student.
S.No. Nature of Ragging Punishment

Teasing, embarrassing and Imprisonment upto 6 months or fine up to
1.
Humiliating Rs.1,000/-
Assaulting or using criminal force Imprisonment upto 1 Year or
2.
or criminal intimidation fine up up Rs.2000/- or both.
Wrongly restraining or confining Imprisonment up to 2 years or
3.
or causing hurt fine up to Rs.5000/- or both.
Causing grievous hurt kidnapping
Imprisonment up to 5 years and
4. or raping or committing
fine up to Rs.10,000/-
unnatural offence
Imprisonment up to 10 years and
5. Causing death or abetting suicide
fine up to Rs.50,000/-
Note:
A student convicted of any of the above offences will be dismissed from the college.
A student imprisoned for more than six months for any of the above offences will not be admitted in any
other college.
If a student commits suicide due to or in consequence of ragging, the person who commits such ragging
shall be deemed to have abetted such suicide.
The full text of Act 26 is placed in the college library.
3. College Timings
The College starts at 09:00 a.m. and concludes at 04:20 p.m. with a 40 minutes lunch break for the First year students
at 11:30 a.m. and for senior students at 12.20 p.m. Students should reach the college well before the time and must be
in the class by 09:00 a.m. Late commers will not be permitted unless parent givesvalid explanation to principal.
Students should not move outside without permission when the class work is in progress.
4. Bonafide Certificates
The Academic branch will issue bonafide certificates for bus passes and other purposes to the students of the college.
5. Bus Passes
PRO will attest TSRTC bus pass applications. College bus I-cards will be issued by the transport in-charge.
6. Notices/Notice Boards
Students are expected to see the College notice boards, Department notice board and Lab notice board regularly.
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7. Original Certificates
The Original certificates of each student will have to be deposited with the college and the same will be returned after
the completion of the course.
8. Memorandum of Marks
The memorandum of marks of a particular year / semester will be issued once they are received from the University
by the Examination branch at the respective Dept. offices.
9. Intimation of Change of Address
Students are asked to intimate the change in Address / Phone number immediately, if any, to the academic branch
through their Class Mentor or HOD and the same has to be attested by parent.
10. Wearing of ID cards
Wearing ID cards is mandatory for all the students as long as they are in the college premises. They will not be
allowed to attend the classes and labs or write the examinations without the identity cards.
11. Obtaining Gate Passes
Students found to miss classes or leave the college without prior permission will not be permitted to attend the class
the next day till proper explanation is given by the student and the parent / guardian to the Department Head.
12. Ban on Usage of Mobile Phones
No student shall carry Cell Phone on the college campus. If any student is found carrying the cell phone on the
campus disciplinary action will be taken. The mobile will be confisticated.
13. Attendance
No student shall be absent from the class without prior permission of the HOD. If a student is absent for three days
continuously without reason/prior permission, disciplinary action will be taken. The Student must submit leave
application in advance to the HOD if he/she wants to absent for a day on some valid reason.
Attendance Requirements
A student shall be eligible to appear for University examinations if acquires a minimum of 75% of attendance in
aggregate of all the subjects.
A student will not be promoted to the next semester unless he/she satisfies the attendance requirement of I
year/semester. They may seek re-admission for I year/semester when offered next.
Students whose shortage of attendance is not condoned in I year/semester are not eligible to take their end
examinations of that class and their registration shall stand canceled.
Students with less than 75% and more than 65% of attendance are not eligible for fee reimbursement scheme of
government.
14. Electronic Items for Music and Entertainment
No musical gadgets shall be allowed on the college campus. If any student found using such items, the items would
be seized and severe disciplinary action will be initiated. Only music club students are permitted to use in prescribed
time.
15. Discipline in Buses
The students must commute in the allocated buses. In case of emergency they will be permitted to change route, with
the permission of concerned authority/bus in- charge. If any student’s behavior is objectionable to the staff/ other
students then suitable disciplinary action will be taken. No student is permitted to travel without bus ID.
16. Late Comers
No student shall come late to the class. In case late to the class, the student may be permitted to attend the class with
the permission of the respective Department Head. If the student is a regular late comer, appropriate disciplinary
action will be taken.
17. Leave / Sick Leave
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The student must intimate the HOD, the reason for the absent and submit the medical certificates on the following
day, if the absence is on medical grounds. Disciplinary action will be initiated if any student is absent without any
intimation to the Class teacher/ HOD for more than three days.
18. Assignments / Lab Records Submissions
Students are supposed to submit their Lab records and Assignments given by the concerned faculty and get them
corrected and graded in time. Late submission is not accepted.
B. Examinations
Students are advised to refer the syllabus book given by university to be aware of the rules and regulations.
C. Malpractice
Students should not indulge in any malpractice in the Internal/External examinations. Malpractice cases are dealt as
per the rules / guidelines as mentioned below by the JNT University. A malpractice prevention committee consist the
Principal, Head of the Department of the concerned branch (to which malpractice student belongs), Officer In-charge
of Examinations and subject Teacher
Laboratories:
Procedures for Laboratories
Computer Programming Lab:
Lab can be used in free time / lunch hours by the students by taking prior permission from the lab in-charge.
Lab records need to be submitted on or before date of submission.
Students are not supposed to use floppy disks / pen drives.
Use of computer network is encouraged.
English Language Communication Skills Lab:
Equipment in the lab for the use of student community. Students need to maintain a proper decorum in the
computer lab. Students must use the computer & head phones with care. Any damage caused is punishable.
Students are required to carry their observation books with completed exercises (activities) while entering
the lab.
Students are supposed to occupy the machines allotted to them and are not supposed to create nuisance in the
lab. The allocation is done by lab incharge.
Students must be active in responding to the questions and to practice the exercises.
Note:
Students should leave their footwear outside before entering into the computer center.
Students should not enter the computer center with the personal belongings, like bags etc
Students should maintain strict, silence and cleanliness in the computer centre.
Engineering Graphics:
All the students are required to bring drawing instruments including drawing sheets to every class without
fail. Borrowing is not allowed.
The students are required to bring the Drawing records regularly to the class, as the submission is on weekly
basis.
The number of problems in Assignment sheet is so designed to complete all the problems and submit on the
same day.
All the students are required to keep a piece of paper while fixing the Drafter to the drawing board.
The students are required to bring the observation books to the Drawing hall.
The students are required to occupy the seats in drawing hall according to the Roll Nos.
In case of any problem while drawing, students are supposed to raise the hands, so that faculty will come
and clarify the doubts instead of moving around the Drawing Hall.
D. Undertaking from students and parents:
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Students and their parents / guardians should execute an undertaking in the prescribed format that they shall abide by
all the rules and regulations of the college. Even before executing an undertaking, a student who has taken admission
in this Institute shall be deemed to have agreed to the rules and regulations of the Institute as given in this handbook
and also that may be framed from time to time.
E. Letters to Parents:
Parents will be communicated of the performance of their son / daughter / ward in attendance and examinations
through letters from time to time. The parents are also contacted by HOD/ Class Mentor as and when required. The
parents are expected to keep in touch with the Class Mentor/HOD and monitor the academic progress of their ward.
In case of poor academic performance and/or attendance, the student and the parent/guardian should promptly
respond to and comply with the reports and suggestions for improvement as and when informed.
F. Parent teacher meeting:
Parent teacher meeting will be conducted every year.
VII. TRAINING & PLACEMENT

Counseling and Career Guidance:
Placement Cell encourages students opting for higher education programs like MBA, M. Tech, MS in India and
abroad, by giving proper guidance. Also, conducts and organizes career counseling sessions, training programs, mock
tests etc.
Placement Cell conducts career counseling to all the students from First to Final year and maintains their individual
records. It also provides feedback to the parents about students’ aspirations and achievements. Students can contact
Placement Officer for guidance.
Pre-Placement Training:
SPEC Placement cell organizes pre-placement training to the students in the areas of enhancing personality,
communication skills, resume preparation, aptitude tests, Group discussion, Interview etc through JKC.
The college attaches a lot of importance to the industry institute interaction. To this end, the college organizes
industrial fairs, seminars, research projects and also organizes field trips for the benefit of the students. This initiative
encourages students and also offers them a firsthand learning experience. Placement cell is actively working and
interacting with organizations to understand and analyze the skill sets required in different sectors to bridge the gap
between industrial recruitments and academics.
Training and Placement Officer - Mr.A.Rajesh Kumar (Mobile No.:7893244000)
VIII. LIBRARY
The library has 47,544 volumes. The Campus has subscribed 120 National/International Journals and 20 magazines.
Reference books are also provided in the library. Also, large number of E-Books, IEEE, DELNET and NPTEL CDs
are available for all subjects.
Book Bank Scheme

The scheme runs on the premise that the each student requires at least one textbook for each subject throughout
his/her 4 years of study. Most students buy the books from the market, which is an expensive proposition.
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The scheme involves taking suitable discounted amount towards (for B.Tech. students only) at the time of admission
in 1st year, which is non refundableand is not mandatory.
IX. STUDENT ACTIVITIES

Fresher’s Day
The campus organizes Fresher’s Day where the II year students welcome the Freshers. Principal and Department
Heads will grace the occasion. Second Year students will organize cultural events and conduct competitions for
Freshers.
Annual Day
Annual Day is celebrated every year. Chief Guest is invited from Industry, R & D Institutions or reputed Universities.
Principal/Secretary presents the annual report of the college for the academic year followed by cultural programmes.
Work Shops & Student Paper Presentation Contests

The College has also been very active in organizing Workshops, Student Paper Contests like Techno Fest, and Project
exhibitions like Innovations and start up events.
Student Seminars
Students are encouraged to prepare and present seminars in the scheduled hours in the Time Table. Students can form
into teams and present seminars in the subjects they are studying using LCD Projector and PowerPoint presentations.
Symposium
College organizes Symposia by inviting eminent personalities to encourage, inspire and challenge students. These
personalities are renowned Academicians, Researchers, Scientists, CEOs, and important Government Officials and
Politicians.
Training
Industry-academia interaction has made our education being more industry specific, guided and structured by
different industries. The placement cell conducts short term value added courses (like J2EE, GIS, .Net, Testing tools,
embedded systems etc.) in the vacation for interested students.
Guest Lectures
Eminent personalities from Research, Industry and Academics are invited to enrich the knowledge of the students
with latest technology.
Alumni Association
College maintains a database of all students’ recruitments, higher studies abroad and in Indian Universities through
regular interaction over E mail and Group mailing etc. The college conducts an alumni meet in the even semester
every year
Professional Societies
There are a couple of technical societies related to each discipline / branch where students can become members to
achieve above capabilities. These societies organize lectures, seminars, workshops, and conferences for students and
professionals. These societies publish magazines and journals with latest knowledge, which they send to the students
at their addresses as a part of membership package. These publications are monthly / quarterly / half-yearly and
annual. It is beneficial for students to become members of these societies.
S.No Branch Name of the Institution

1 CSE 1.Computer Society of India (CSI)
2.Indian Society of Technical Education(ISTE)
3.MOU’s with a)IBM & CIT
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b)ORACLE
c)MICROSOFT DYNAMICS
1.Institute of Electronics and Telecommunications Engineering(IETE)

2 ECE
1.Institute of Engineers(IE)
3 EEE
ME 1.Instuitute of Engineers(IE)
4 2.Indian Society of Technical Education(ISTE)
3.Society of Automative Engineers(SAE)
Student clubs
Six clubs were started in our college with the motive being that we could bring out hidden talents of students and
further enhance them.
Literary Club-ELSAC(English Language Skills Activity Centre)

Dance Club-Battle Mongers
Music Club-Virtuoso
Photography Club-Shutterbugs
Rotaract Club
Jaycees – JCI Secunderabad Prospectrum
X. CONTACT INFORMATION
Contact Information
Website Address : http://www.stpetershyd.com
E-mail : principal@stpetershyd.com
Phone Number : 8019008578
Mobile : 9032008578/9000008578
HOD : 8008044336
For any administrative problems and information, please contact:
Admin. Officer : 040-29704310
Transport In-charge : 9959222269
ST.PETERS ENGINEERING COLLEGE

First B. Tech. (Common to all Branches)
Professional Communication Skills
EN104HS/EN204HS: PROFESSIONAL COMMUNICATION IN

ENGLISH
B.Tech. I Year I sem L T/P/D C
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3 0/0/0 3
INTRODUCTION:
In view of the growing importance of English as a tool for global communication and the
consequent emphasis on training students to acquire language skills, the syllabus of English has been
designed to develop linguistic and communicative competencies of Engineering students.
In English classes, the focus should be on the skills development in the areas of vocabulary,
grammar, reading and writing. For this, the teachers should use the prescribed text for detailed study. The
students should be encouraged to read the texts/poems silently leading to reading comprehension.
Reading comprehension passages are given for practice in the class. The time should be utilized for
working out the exercises given after each excerpt, and also for supplementing the exercises with
authentic materials of a similar kind. For example, from newspaper articles, advertisements, promotional
material, etc. The focus in this syllabus is on skill development, fostering ideas and practice of language
skills.
Course Objectives: The course will help students to:
 Improve the language proficiency of students in English with an emphasis on

Vocabulary, Grammar, Reading and Writing skills.
 Equip students to study academic subjects more effectively using the theoretical and
Practical components of English syllabus.
 Develop study skills and communication skills in formal and informal situations.
Course Outcomes: Students will be able to:
 Use English Language effectively in spoken and written forms.

 Comprehend the given texts and respond appropriately.
 Communicate confidently in formal and informal contexts.
SYLLABUS
Reading Skills
Objectives
1. To develop an awareness in students about the significance of silent reading and

comprehension.
2. To develop students’ ability to guess meanings of words from the context and grasp the
overall message of the text, draw inferences, etc., by way of:
 Skimming and Scanning the text
 Intensive and Extensive Reading
 Reading for Pleasure
 Identifying the topic sentence
 Inferring lexical and contextual meaning
 Recognizing Coherence/Sequencing of Sentences
NOTE: The students will be trained in reading skills using the prescribed texts for detailed study. They
will be tested in reading comprehension of different ‘unseen’ passages which may be taken from
authentic texts, such as magazines/newspaper articles.
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Writing
Skills
Objectives
1. To develop an awareness in the students about writing as an exact and formal skill
2. To create an awareness in students about the components of different forms of writing,
beginning with the lower order ones through;
 Writing of sentences
 Use of appropriate vocabulary
 Paragraph writing
 Coherence and cohesiveness
 Narration / description
 Note Making
 Formal and informal letter writing
 Describing graphs using expressions of comparison
In order to improve the proficiency of the students in the acquisition of language skills mentioned above,
the following text and course contents, divided into Five Units, are prescribed:
The course content / study material is divided into Five Units.
Note: Listening and speaking skills are covered in the syllabus of ELCS Lab.
UNIT – I
Chapter entitled ‘Presidential Address’ by Dr. A.P.J. Kalam from “Fluency in English– A
Course book for Engineering Students” published by Orient BlackSwan, Hyderabad.
Vocabulary: Word Formation -- Root Words --The Use of Prefixes and Suffixes– Collocations–
Exercises for Practice.
Grammar: Punctuation – Parts of Speech- Articles -Exercises for Practice.
Reading: Double Angels by David Scott-Reading and Its Importance- Techniques for Effective
Reading- Signal Words- Exercises for Practice
Writing: Writing Sentences- Techniques for Effective Writing-- Paragraph Writing- Types,
Structure and Features of a Paragraph-Coherence and Cohesiveness: Logical, Lexical and Grammatical
Devices - Exercises for Practice
UNIT – II
Chapter entitled Satya Nadella: Email to Employees on his First Day as CEO from “Fluency
in English– A Course book for Engineering Students” Published by Orient BlackSwan,
Hyderabad.
Vocabulary: Synonyms and Antonyms – Homonyms, Homophones, Homographs- Exercises

for Practice (Chapter 17 ‘Technical Communication- Principles and Practice’. Third Edition
published by Oxford University Press may also be followed.)
Grammar: Verbs-Transitive, Intransitive and Non-finite Verbs – Mood and Tense—Gerund
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– Words with Appropriate Prepositions – Phrasal Verbs - Exercises for Practice
Reading: Sub-skills of Reading- Skimming, Scanning, Extensive Reading and Intensive
Reading - The Road Not Taken by Robert Frost -- Exercises for Practice
Writing: Letter Writing –Format, Styles, Parts, Language to be used in Formal Letters- Letter of
Apology – Letter of Complaint-Letter of Inquiry with Reply – Letter of Requisition –- Exercises for
Practice
UNIT – III
From the book entitled ‘Technical Communication- Principles and Practice’. Third Edition
published by Oxford University Press.

Vocabulary: Introduction- A Brief History of Words – Using the Dictionary and Thesaurus–
Changing Words from One Form to Another – Confusables (From Chapter 17 entitled
‘Grammar and Vocabulary Development’)
Grammar: Tenses: Present Tense- Past Tense- Future Tense- Active Voice – Passive Voice-
Conditional Sentences – Adjective and Degrees of Comparison. (From Chapter 17 entitled
‘Grammar and Vocabulary Development’)
Reading: Improving Comprehension Skills – Techniques for Good Comprehension- Skimming and
Scanning- Non-verbal Signals – Structure of the Text – Structure of Paragraphs
– Punctuation – Author’s viewpoint (Inference) – Reader Anticipation: Determining the Meaning of
Words – Summarizing- Typical Reading Comprehension Questions. (From Chapter 10 entitled ‘Reading
Comprehension’)
Writing: Introduction- Letter Writing-Writing the Cover Letter- Cover Letters
Accompanying Resumes- Emails. (From Chapter 15 entitled ‘Formal Letters, Memos, and
Email’)
UNIT – IV
Chapter entitled ‘Good Manners’ by J.C. Hill from Fluency in English – A Course book for
Engineering Students” published by Orient Blackswan, Hyderabad.
Vocabulary: Idiomatic Expressions –One- word Substitutes --- Exercises for Practice (Chapter
17 ‘Technical Communication- Principles and Practice’. Third Edition published by Oxford
University Press may also be followed.)
Grammar: Sequence of Tenses- Concord (Subject in Agreement with the Verb) – Exercises for Practice
Reading: ‘If’ poem by Rudyard Kipling--Tips for Writing a Review --- Author’s Viewpoint –
Reader’s Anticipation-- Herein the Students will be required to Read and Submit a Review of a Book
(Literary or Non-literary) of their choice – Exercises for Practice.
Writing: Information Transfer-Bar Charts-Flow Charts-Tree Diagrams etc., -- Exercises for
Practice.
Introduction - Steps to Effective Precis Writing – Guidelines- Samples (Chapter
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12 entitled ‘The Art of Condensation’ from Technical Communication- Principles and
Practice. Third Edition published by Oxford University Press)
UNIT – V
Chapter entitled ‘Father Dear Father’ by Raj Kinger from Fluency in English – A Course
book for Engineering Students” Published by Orient BlackSwan, Hyderabad
Vocabulary: Foreign Words—Words borrowed from other Languages- Exercises for Practice
Grammar: Direct and Indirect Speech- Question Tags- Exercises for Practice
Reading: Predicting the Content- Understanding the Gist – SQ3R Reading Technique-
Study Skills – Note Making - Understanding Discourse Coherence – Sequencing Sentences.
(From Chapter 10 entitled ‘Reading Comprehension’ - Technical Communication- Principles
and Practice. Third Edition published by Oxford University Press.)
Writing: Technical Reports- Introduction – Characteristics of a Report – Categories of

Reports –Formats- Prewriting – Structure of Reports (Manuscript Format) - Types of Reports -
Writing the Report. (From Chapter 13 entitled ‘Technical Reports’ - Technical
Communication- Principles and Practice. Third Edition published by Oxford University
Press.)
Exercises from both the texts not prescribed shall be used for classroom
tasks.
Text Books:
1. “Fluency in English – A Course book for Engineering Students” by Board of Editors:

Hyderabad: Orient BlackSwan Pvt. Ltd. 2016. Print.
2. Raman, Meenakshi & Sharma, Sangeeta. “Technical Communication- Principles and
Practice”. Third Edition. New Delhi: Oxford University Press. 2015. Print.
References:
1. Green, David. Contemporary English Grammar –Structures and Composition.
MacMillan India. 2014 (Print)
2. Rizvi, M. Ashraf. Effective Technical Communication. Tata Mc Graw –Hill. 2015
(Print).
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QUESTION BANK
UNIT I-
PRESIDENTIAL ADDRESS BY A.P.J. ABDUL KALAM
OBJECTIVES
1. This speech was given by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam on 25 July 2002 on assumption of office as
the eleventh president of India.
2. The endorsement I have received from the nation, giving me the responsibility to realize our
shared dream of India with prosperity, harmony and strength is really overwhelming.
3. Indian civilizational heritage is built on universal spirit.
4. India always stood for friendship and extends warm hands to the whole world.
5. The important elements that constitute a nation are: being disease free, wealth, high
productivity, harmonious living and strong defence.
6. The vision of developed nation needs to be achieved with parliamentary democracy, which is
the core of our governance system.
7. The first and foremost task is to respect and uphold the constitutional processes, in the best
interest of our people and our nation, without fear or favour and with fairness and firmness.
8. India is a union of states based on the framework of co-operative federalism.
9. I wish to emphasize my unflinching commitment to the principle of secularism, which is the
corner stone of our nationhood and which is the key feature of our civilization strength.
10. Making India strong and self reliant- economically, socially and militarily is our foremost
duty to our motherland and to ourselves and to our future generations.
11. The medium for transformation to developed India is the empowerment at various levels with
power of knowledge.
QUESTIONS
Answer the following in two or three sentences each
1. What progress has India made in the fifty years since its independence?
2. What are the problems which continue to plague the nation?
3. What does Kalam’s movement aim to achieve?
4. What are the two national priorities according to Kalam?
5. How does Kalam describe mental infrastructure?
6. What according to Thirukkural are the important elements that characterize a developed
nation?
7. What according to Abdul Kalam will ensure economic and managerial efficiency?
8. What does Dr. Kalam say is our foremost duty to our motherland?
9. ‘Small aim is a crime’ why?
Answer the following in about 150 words each

1. Is the poetry kalam quotes relevant to his speech? How?
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2. What elements are essential to a strong nation? How should we go about building these
elements?
3. What does kalam have to say about the constitution?
4. What are the challenges faced by our country?

1. Describe Kalam’s vision of a developed India?
2. Analyse Kalam’s ‘song of youth’ as a mission statement
3. What are the challenges faced by our country?
4. What are essential to survive and prosper in a fast changing world of today?
5. What is substantive decentralisation? How does this help in the development of a
nation?
6. Highlight and analyse the key points of Dr. Kalam’s discourse on the vision of India?
DOUBLE ANGELS
1. What sight does the author encounter when he visits the mall?
2. How and where does the author discover the ideal present for his mother?
3. What prevents the author from buying the glass plate? What does he do next?
4. Why does the glass plate a ‘miracle present’?
5. Explain the concept of a Christmas angel, as depicted in the story
UNIT II-
Satya nadella’s email to his employees on his first day as ceo of
microsoft
OBJECTIVES
1. I came here because I believed Microsoft was the best company in the world.
2. It is an incredible honor for me to lead and serve this great company of ours.
3. Steve and bill have taken it from an idea to one of the greatest and most universally admired
companies in the world.
4. I’ve asked bill to devote additional time to the company , focussed on technology and
products.
5. I’m looking forward to working with John Thompson as our new Chairman of the board.
6. Our industry does not respect tradition it only respects innovation.
7. Our job is to ensure that Microsoft thrives in a mobile and cloud first world.
8. Family, curiosity and hunger for knowledge all define me.
9. This is a software powered world.
10. I am here because we have unparalleled capability to make an impact.
11. The best work happens when you know that its not just work, bu something that will
improve other peoples lives.
QUESTIONS
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1. Why did Nadella choose to work at Microsoft?
2. What inspires Nadella?
3. In which direction is technology evolving, according to Nadella?
4. What are the three factors that Nadella lists as his formative influence?
5. What are the unique selling points of Microsoft, according to Nadella?
6. What will help employees find meaning in their work?
7. What philosophy is at the heart of Nadella’s vision for Microsoft?
8. What are the elements of greatness a company must possess, in order to achieve greatness?
9. Why did Nadella choose to join Microsoft amidst all the other choices he had?
10. What is Nadella’s vision for Microsoft as he steps in as CEO?
11. What does Nadella imply by finding “meaning in our work”
12. What according to Nadella sets Microsoft apart from other companies in the world?
13. How as Microsoft’s vision evolved over the years to what it is today?
14. What does Nadella mean by ‘a software powered world’

1. Why did Nadella believe that Microsoft was the best company in the world?
2. What did Nadella predict for the future of technology?
3. How does Nadella try to motivate his employees in his letter?
4. What is Nadella’s strategy for Microsoft as it steps into the new decade?
5. According to Nadella how has Microsoft stood the test of time?
6. In what ways is Nadella similar to any other employee at Microsoft?
7. What role does innovation play in Nadella’s vision for Microsoft?
8. What does Nadella suggest to his fellow employees as part of his plan for Microsoft ahead?

1. Briefly describe Nadella’s thought briefly describe Nadella’s thoughts on innovation and its
importance?
2. How will evolving technology make an impact on the lives of common people? How can
Microsoft contribute to this?
THE ROAD NOT TAKEN

1. What is the initial conflict of the poem and how does the traveler come to a decision about what
to do?
2. Describe the setting of the poem
3. Explain what the speaker means by the line ‘somewhere ages and ages hence’
4. What do the two roads symbolize?
5. Describe the two roads that the traveler comes across
6. What does the poet take and why?
7. What has made all the difference and how?
8. Justify the title of the poem ‘the road not taken’
9. How does the poet feel after choosing the second road?
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UNIT III-
Technology with a human face
OBJECTIVES
1. E.F. SCHUMACHER was an internationally renowned__________ and __________.
2. The modern world has been shaped by its _________, which has shaped its education.
3. It ___________________ on all sides, there are prophecies of disaster indeed visible signs of
breakdown.
4. Technology recognizes no self-limit principle- in terms, __________ of __________ or _________.
5. In any case, the apparent yet illusory ________ of last twenty - five years cannot be repeated; the
threefold crisis of which i have spoken will see to that.
6. It is more difficult to convince oneself of the truth of the simple _________ when one looks at
whole societies.
7. A great part of the modern _______ may be due to this very fact; for the human beings, defined by
_________________ as a being with bain and hands.
8. Prestige is carried by these who help fill the other 96.5 percent of total socile time, primarily the
entertainers but also the executors of ________________.
9. There is a further reason for this. The process of _________ productive time to 3.5 percentage of
total social time has had the _________ effect of taking all normal human pleasure and satisfaction out
of the time spent on the work.
10. Truthful knowledge, as such, does not commit us to a technology of _________ , __________,
________, and the destruction of human work enjoyment.
11. Many of the __________ would simply disappear.
12. It is almost like a ____________ blessing that we, the rich countries, have found it in our heart at
least to consider to third world and try to ________ its poverty.
13. The system of mass production based on _________, highly ________________, high energy-
input dependent, and human labour saving technology, _______ that you are already rich.
14. ___________, unlike nature, develops in an imbalanced manner.
15. Modern technology largely reduces ______________.
16. Time spent in real, productive work has great education and _____________, and will
____________,_____________.
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QUESTIONS
1. What prompts the writer to advocate for technology with human face?
2. How, according to the writer, is technology anti-nature?
3. What are the three crises technology has given rise to simultaneously?
4. How does the writer substantiate his view that technology causes more problems than it
offers solutions?
5. What compels the writer to formulate his first law of economics: 'The amount of real leisure a society
enjoy tends to be in inverse proportion to the amount of labour saving machinery it employs'?

1. Why does the writer say that doing work with brains and hands has become exceeding rare,
especially in rich countries?
2. How does the writer establish the claim that technology only lightens the burden of work and does
not really carry any weight or prestige.
3. Why does the writer state that modern technology does not enrich man but empties him?
4. How does the people's technology that the writer proposes differ from primitives or super-
technology?
Answer the following in about 300 words each.

1. Does the writer argue convincingly that modern technology has evolved to be more and more
inhuman and has led to more problems in both rich and poor nations?
2. Explain the concept of 'technology with a human face' and find out how it would tied over the crises
of the super-technology of the rich.
3. A set of complex has been raised towards to the end of the fifth paragraph. what is their significance
in terms of the structure of the essay?
4. What are the strategies the writer employs in the argumentative essay to convince the readers that
technology is more a bane rather than a boon, although there are certain explicit advantages of it
Unit IV
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Good Manners
OBJECTIVES
1. The essay ‘Good manners’ is an adaptation from J.C. Hill’s work, An Introduction to
Citizenship .
2. One day he got an attack of influenza.
3. What is ‘pneumonia’?
4. Antonym of ‘fragile’ is
5. Socialism means taking money from those who have money and giving it to those who have
none.
6. ‘Oblige’ means
7. Synonyms of ‘defer’ is
Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each.

1. What made the young man lose his strength?
2. Why should one not call an old man ‘an old fool’?
3. What did Thoreau say about uttering the truth?
4. Why did the boy scout make a joke of the lady’s question?
5. What signs should one watch out for in company?
6. Why shouldn’t you make fun of the elderly?
7. What should one take care of when in company?

1. What odds have the parents and teachers faced in their lives?
2. How should one speak to others? Why?
3. Why do some people take remarks too literally?
4. How could we save a lot of argument and anger?
5. Where do good manners ultimately come from?
6. What does the author mean by ‘no man really understands himself’?
7. What causes most of the anger and argument among people?
8. What do good manners stem from?

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9. What should a person keep in mind when arguing with someone about a point?

1. How did the attack of influenza change the young man’s attitude towards old men?
2. Explain the writer’s remark: ‘No man really understands himself’
3. Bring out the significance of good manners in life according to the writer.
4. How do the young man realize the importance of helping older people?
5. What does the author imply by ‘the truth’?
6. What are the ways in which the son is asked to grow up here?
7. What are some of the challenges that a person will have to face in life?
8. What are the virtues that are worthy of praise?
9. Comment on the title of the poem. How suitable is it to the theme of the poem?.
UNIT-V
OH FATHER, DEAR FATHER
OBJECTIVES
1. This is in answer to your scolding me about my transgression.
2. From his talk, it seems, studies were an ancillary subject, and living and experiencing, the major
subject.
3. Father, is he fibbing? Or is it possible that the world turned topsy-turvy in just about 70 years?
4. Do you think literacy is a harbinger of restlessness, fear, and frustration?
5. I asked my biology teacher what I should do to save it. And she was cross
6. He prattles on - The Hibiscus is red – a hundred times, but in his book he colors it yellow
7. To traverse a new world, new fields
8. I held that I was invited to tea and my teacher was adamant that he was invited for tea
9. I shall keep your advice in mind and strive not to lose any quarter marks
QUESTIONS

1. Why is the letter written?
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2. What is the father’s advice to the writer of the letter?
3. What approach did the letter writer’s grandfather have towards studies?
4. How did the letter writer’s teacher react to his asking her a question?
5. Why is the letter writer’s grandmother wise?
6. How did the letter writer lose his first rank?
7. Why were Rahul’s grandparents happier than his parents?

1. Describe the letter writer’s grandparents and their outlook towards studies and life.
2. What kind of childhood does the letter writer wish he had?
3. What does the letter writer fear?
4. What is the letter writer’s perception of literacy?
1. Write a brief note on the relationship between the letter writer and his father.
2. How does the letter writer critique the education system in India? Does he make a convincing
argument? Why? Why not?
BASIC EDUCATION
1. What does Gandhi hold to be the truest form of knowledge?
2. What qualities are essential in a student?
3. Describe the ideal teacher, according to Gandhi
4. Write a brief note explaining Gandhi’s Nai Talim?
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M1- QUESTION BANK
UNIT-I
INITIAL VALUE PROBLEMS AND APPLICATIONS
SHORT QUESTIONS
1. Form the differential equation by eliminating arbitrary constants x2 + y2 = c
2. Form the differential equation by eliminating arbitrary constants y= ax +b.
3. Define Exact Differential equations
4. Define orthogonal trajectory
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5. Define self orthogonal.
6. State Newton’s law of cooling
7. State Law of Natural growth and decay.
8. Define Linear Differential equation with constant coefficients.
9. Solve (D4-2D3-3D2+4D+4 ) y =0
10. Solve (D2 -2D + 4) y = 0
11. Solve r (θ2 + r2) d – ( 2

+ 2r2) dr = 0
12. Prove that y2 =4a(x+a) is self orthogonal.

13. Write the working rule to find orthogonal trajectory in Cartesian form.
14. Solve 2xydy –(x2-y2+1) dx = 0
15. Solve r(θ2 + r2) d – ( 2

+ 2r2 ) dr = 0
Essay Type Questions

1. Solve (D2-4D+4)y = e2x+ x2 + sin3x
2. Solve (D2-2D+1) y = x2e3x- sin2x + 3
3. Solve (D2+3D+2) y =2cos (2x+3) +2ex +x2
4. Solve (D3-6D2+11D-6) y =e-2x+ e-3x
5.Solve (D2-5D+6) y =exsinx
6. Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves x2+ y2 = a2
7. Show that the system of rectangular hyperbolas x2-y2=a2 and xy= c2 are mutually orthogonal
trajectories.
8. Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves x2/3 + y2/3 = a2/3
9. Show that the system of confocal conics + =1, where is a parameter, is self orthogonal.
10. Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves rn = ancosnθ
11. Find the equation of the system of orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves rnsinn = an
12. If the air is maintained at 200c and the temperature of the body drops from 1000c to 800c in 10
minutes. What will be its temperature after 20 minutes. When will be the temperature 400c.
13. Bacteria in a culture grows exponentially so that the initial number has doubled in three hours.
How many times the initial number will be present after 9 hours.
14.If the air is maintained at 300c and the temperature of the body drops from 80 0c to 60 0c in 12
minutes. What will be its temperature after 36 minutes?
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15. The number N of bacteria culture grew at a rate proportional to N. The value of N was initially 100
and increased to 332 in one hour. What was the value of N after 1 hours?
16. Solve d2y/dx2 +a2y = tan ax by method of variation of parameters.

17. Solve d2y/dx2 --2 dy/dx +2y = ex tan x by method of variation of parameters.
18. If the air is maintained at 300c and the temperature of the body drops from 80 0c to 60 0c in 12
minutes. What will be its temperature after 36 minutes?
19.An electrical circuit consists of an inductance of 0.1 henry, a resistance of 20 ohms and a condenser
of capacitance 25 micro-farads.Find the change q and the current i at any time t ,given that at
t=0,q=0.005 coulomb , i=dq/dt=0 when t=0.
20. If a population is increasing exponentially at the rate of 2% per year. what will be the percentage
increase over a period of 10 years?
Objective type Questions
1. The order of +2 - 3y = x is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) None
2. The order of = is
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d)None
3. The degree of Differential Equation =a is

a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 9
4. The degree of Differential Equation = is

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) None
5. The general solution of = e x+y is

x y
a) e + e = c b) e + e = c c) e- x + ey = c d) e- x + e- y = c
x -y
6. Find the differential equation corresponding to y = a ex + b e2x + c e3x

a) y111 – 6y11 + 11y1 – 6y = 0 b) y111 + y11 - 3y1 = 0
c) y11 + 2y1 + y = 0 d) y111 – 2y11 + 3y1 + y = 0
7. Find the differential equation of the family of curves y = ex (Acosx + Bsinx)
a) y11 - 2y1 + 3y = 0 b) y11 - 3y1 + y = 0
c) y11 - 2y1 + 3y = 0 d) None
8. Form the differential equation by eliminating the arbitary constant y2 = (x – c) 2
a) (y1) 2 = 1 b) y11 + 2y1 = 2 c) (y1) 2 = 0 d) None
9. Find the differential equation of the family of parabolas having vertex at the origin and foci on y
-axis
29 | P a g e
a) xy1 = 2x b) xy1 = 2y c) xy1 = 4y d) None
10. Form the differential equation by eliminating the arbitary constant tanx + tany = c
a) y1(tany + sec2x) =0 b) y1(tany sec2y) + tany sec2x =0
c) y1(tanx sec2x) + tany sec2y =0 d) None
11. Obtain the differential equation of the family of ellipse is + =1

a) xyy11 + xy1 = 0 b) xy11 + xy = 0
c) xyy11 + x (y1) 2 - yy1 = 0 d) None
12. The solution of the differential equation + = under the condition that y = 1 when x=1 is
a) 4xy= x3+3 b) 4xy= x4+3 c) 4xy= y4+3 d) None
13. The family of straight lines passing through the origin is represented by the differential equation
a) ydx + xdy=0 b) xdy – ydx = 0 c) xdx + ydx = 0 d) ydy – xdx = 0
14. The differential equation of a family of circles having the radius ‘r’ and centre on the x – axis is
a) y2 = r2 b) x2 = r2
c) (x2 + y2 = r2 d) r2 = x2
15. The differential equation satisfying the relation x = A cos(mt -α) is
a) = 1 - x2 b) = -α2x
c) = -m2x d) = - m2x
16. The equation + = 0 is

a) Homogeneous b) Variable separable c) Exact d) None
17. Find the differential equation of the family of cardioids r = a(1+cosθ)
a) + rsinx = 0 b) + r tan(θ/2) = 0
c) + r sin(θ/2) = 0 d)
18. The equation + = 0 is

a) Variable separable b) Exact c) Homogeneous d) None
19. The solution of the differential equation is = e (x – y) + x2e –y

y 3 x
a) e = x /3 + e + c b) e = e + 3x + c c) ex = x3/3 + ey + c d) None
y x
20. The general solution of = (4x + y+1) 2 is
a) tan-1( =c b) tan-1( =y+c
c) tan-1( =x+c d) None

21. The solution of the Differential equation (x2+1) y1 + y2+ 1 = 0, y(0) = 1 is
a) b) c) d)
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22. The solution of = 0 is
a) xy = c b) y = cx c) x = cy d) x = cy2
23. The general solution of = 0 is

2 2
a) log(x+y) = c b) log(x +y ) = c c)log(xy) = c d) None
24. The equation of the form + p(x)y = q(x) is

a) Homogeneous b) Exact c) Linear d) None
25. Integral factor of + p(x)y = q(x) is

a) b) c) d)
26. The general solution of + ycotx = cosx is
a) y = sinx + c cosx b) y = cosx + c sinx
c) y = sinx + c cosecx d) None
27. The form of Bernoulli’s Equation is
a) + px = Qyn b) + py =Qxn
c) +Qyn= Px d) + py =Qyn
�m �n
=
28. The equation of the form M(x,y)dx + N(x,y)dy = 0 is called if �y �x
a) Linear b) Bernoulli’s c) Exact d) Homogeneous
29. Integrating factor of the homogenous de Mdx + Ndy = 0 is
a) b) c) d) None
30. If ( - ) is a function of x alone say f(x) then the integrating factor of Mdx + Ndy = 0 is
a) b) c) d)
2 2
31. The integrating factor of (x – 3xy + 2y )dx + x(3x-2y)dy = c is
a) b) c) d)
32. The given differential equation y(x+y)dx + (x+2y-1)dy = 0 is
\a) Exact b) Not Exact c) We can’t say d) None
33. The integrating factor of the equation y f1(xy)dx + x f2(xy)dy is
a) b) c) d)
34. If ( - ) is a function of y alone then the integrating factor is
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a) b) c) d)
35. The general solution of (1 + x2) dy – (1+y2) dx = 0 is
a) tan-1y - tan-1x = c b) tan-1y + tan-1x = c
c) sin-1x - sin-1y = c d) None
36. The general solution of + xy = x is
a) y = 2x b) x = 2y c) y = - 2x d) None
37. The differential equation of orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves y2 = 4ax, where a is the
parameter is
a) y =x b) x +y =0 c) y +x =0 d) None
38. The general solution of (1+y2) dx = (tan-1y – x) dy is

a) x = tan-1y – 1 + cetan-1y b) x = tan-1y – 1 + cetan-1y
-1
c) x = tan y d) None
39. The differential equation of the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves xy = a2 where a is
the parameter is
a) y =x b) y +x =0 c) x +y =0 d) None
40. The differential equation of the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves r=aθ where a is the
parameter is
a) +r =0 b) =-r c) = d) =
41. The equation y - 2x = c represents the orthogonal trajectories of the family of
a) y = a e-2x b)x2+y2=a2 c) x y = c d) x + 2y = c
42. The general solution of the differential equation = + tan (y/x) is

a) sin (y/x) = c b) sin (y/x) = cx c) cos (y/x) = cx d) None
43. The integrating factor of x - y = 2x2 cosec2x is
a) x b) c)e-x d) None
2
44. The integrating factor of (1 – x ) y + xy = ax is
a) b) c) d)
45. The orthogonal trajectories of the family of ellipses is
a) + =1 b) + =1 c) + =1 d)
46. The differential equation + = y2x sinx is

a)Bernoulli’s equation b) Exact Equation
c) Linear Equation d) None
47. A differential equation of the form + p(x)y = Q(x) then the general solution of this differential
equation is (first order in y)
a) y(I.F) = Q(x) * (I.F) + c b) y(I.F) =
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a) y(I.F) = d) None
48. The differential equation y2dx + (x2 – xy – y2) dy = 0 is
a) Exact b) Not Exact c) We can’t say d) None
49. d(xy) =
a) xdx+ydy b) xdy+ydx c) xdy+ydy d) None
50. d( ( )) =
a) b) c) d) None
51. If m1, m2,m3 are real and distinct roots then the complementary function is
(a) c1 e(m1x+m2x+m3x) (b) c1em1x + c1em2x +c3em3x
m1x m2x m3x
(c) c1e + c2e +c3e (d) None
52. If m1, m2,m3 are roots are real & equal and m4, m5 are real and different then complementary
function is
(a) c1em1x + c2em2x +(c3+c4) em3x (b) (c1+c2x)em1x + c4em3x +c5em4x
(c) (c1+c2x+ c3x2+c4x3) em1x (d) none
a) + rsinx = 0 b) + r tan(θ/2) = 0
c) + r sin(θ/2) = 0 d)
UNIT-II
Linear system of equations
Short Answer questions
1. Define rank of a matrix
2. Define Hermitian, Skew Hermitian and unitary matrix.
3. Define Consistency, and when the system of equations have unique & infinite solutions
4. If A is symmetric matrix ( Skew Symmetric ) prove that KA is Symmetric( Skew Symmetric)s
5. If A is a Hermitian matrix, prove that iA is a Skew-Hermitian matrix.
6. Prove that the inverse of an orthogonal matrix is orthogonal and its transpose is also orthogonal.
7. Show that the inverse of a unitary matrix is unitary.
8. Define Linear dependence and Linear independence of vectors
9. Define trivial solution.
1. Every Square matrix can be expressed as the Sum of a symmetric and Skew-Symmetric matrices.
2. Find the value of k if the rank of the matrix A is 2 where A =
33 | P a g e
3. Find the rank of the matrix by reducing it to normal form.
A=
4. Reduce the matrix to Echelon form and find its rank
5. Compute the inverse of a matrix A = =
6. Find the values of p and q so that the equations 2x+3y+5z = 9,7x+ 3y + 2Z = 8, 2x+3y+Pz = q
Have
(i) No solution (ii) Unique Solution (iii) An infinite number of solutions.
7. Determine whether the following equations will have a solution, if so solve them x1+2x2+x3=2,
3x1+x2-2x3= 1, 4x1-3x2-x3 = 3, 2x1+ 4x2 + 2x3 = 4
8. Solve the system x+y+z = 0, x+ y+z = 0, x+y+ z = 0 if the system has non-zero solution only.
9. Show that the only real number for which the system x+ 2y+3z = x, 3x+y+2z = y, 2x+3y+z= z
has non zero solution is 6 and solve them, when = 6.

10. Solve the system of equations 2x-y+3z=0,3x+2y+z=0 and x-4y+5z = 0
11. Express the following system in matrix form and solve by Gauss Elimination method
2x1+x2+2x3+x4=6, 6x1-6x2+6x3+12x4= 36, 4x1+3x2+3x3-3x4 = -1, 2x1+2x2-x3+x4 = 10
12. Using Gauss Jordhan method, solve the system of equations 10x1+x2+x3=12, x1+10x2-x3= 10,
x1-2x2+10x3 = 9.
Objectives
1. If A and B are skew symmetric matrices then A+B is
a) Orthogonal b) symmetric c) skew-symmetric d) unitary
2. If A is symmetric matrix , then adjA is
a) Symmetric b) skew symmetric c) orthogonal d)None
3. The rank of the matrix is 2, for k=
a)1 b) 2 c)3 d)any row number

4. By applying elementary transformations to a matrix, its rank
a ) does not change b) decreases c) increases d)none
34 | P a g e
5. Let A and B be two real symmetric matrices of order n. then which of the following is true ɂ
a )A =I b) A= c) AB=BA d)
6. Every Hermitian matrix can be written as A+iB, where A is real
a) Symmetric b) skew symmetric c) orthogonal d)None
7. The rank of 3X3 matrix whose elements are all 2 is a)1
b) 2 c)3 d)0
8. The rank of a singular matrix of order 3 is
a) 3 b) ≤3 c)≤2 d)2
9. If A is skew-symmetric, then is
a) Symmetric b) skew symmetric c) Hermitian d)None
10. If A is Skew- Hermitian, then iA is
a) Hermitian b) skew Hermitian c) Unitary d)Null matrix
11. The square matrix A is invertible if it is-------------------
12. The inverse of a matrix is---------------------
13. The product of two invertible matrices is necessarily-----------------

14. A square matrix A is symmetric if----------------
15. A square matrix A is skew- symmetric if----------------
16. The diagonal elements of skew –symmetric matrix are all-----------
17. A square matrix can be expressed as sum of ------------
18. A square matrix A is orthogonal if----------------
19. The inverse of an orthogonal matrix is-----------
20. The transpose of orthogonal matrix is-------------------
21. Rank of the unit matrix of order 4 is-------
22. The element along principal diagonal of a hermitian matrix are all----------
23. If A is Hermitian, then iA is-------------
24. A square matrix A is said to be unitary if -------------
25. The product of two unitary matrices foe equal order is--------------------
UNIT-III
Eigen Values, Eigen Vectors and Quadratic Forms
Short Type Questions

1. Define Eigen values and Eigen vectors
2. State Cayley-Hamilton theorem.
3. Write Applications of Cayley Hamilton theorem
4. Show that if are the latent root of A, then A3 has latent root of 3
5. If is an eigen value of A then + K is the eigen value of +KI

6. Prove that the eigen values of A-1 are the reciprocals of the eigen values of A
7. Prove that the two eigen vectors corresponding to the two different eigen values are linearly
independent.
35 | P a g e
8. Define Modal and Spectral matrices.
9. Define Quadratic form.
10. Define Canonical form of a Quadratic form
11. Define nature, signature, and index of a Quadratic form.
13. Using Cayley-Hamilton theorem find the inverse and A4 of the matrix A =
14. Find the Eigen values and the Eigen vectors of the matrix
15. Find the Eigen values and the Eigen vectors of the matrix
16. (a) Find a matrix P which transform the matrix A= to diagnol form. Hence
Calculate A4. Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of A.

(b) Determine the eigen value of A-1
17. Diagonalize the matrix
18. Find the diagonal matrix orthogonally similar to the following real symmetric matrix. Also obtain
the transforming matrix A =
19. Determine the diagonal matrix orthogonally similar to the following symmetric matrix
A=
19. Reduce the Quadratic form 3x2+2y2+3z2-2xy-2yz to the normal form by orthogonal transformation.
20. Find the eigen vectors of the matrix and hence reduce 6x2+ 3y2 + 3z2 – 2yz +
4zx – 4xy to a sum of squares.

21. Reduce the quadratic form to the canonical form 2x2+2y2+2z2-2xy+2zx-2yz.
36 | P a g e
Objective Type Questions
1. The Eigen values of are
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 4 c) 3, 4 d) 1, 5
2. If the determinant of matrix of order 3 is 12. And two Eigen values are 1 and 3, then the third Eigen
value
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4
3. If A = then the eigen values of A are
a)1,1,2 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 1, ½ , 1/3 d) 1, 2, ½
4. If the Eigen values of A are (1,-1,2) then the Eigen values of Adj A are
a) (-2,2,-1) b) (1,1,-2) c) (1,-1,1/2) d) (-1,1,4)
5. If the Eigen values of A are (2,3,-2) then the Eigen value of A-3I are
a) -1,0,-5 b) 2,3,-2 c) -2,-3,2 d) 1,2,2
6. If A is a singular matrix then the product of the Eigen values of A is

a) 1 b) -1 c) can’t be decided d) 0
7. The Eigen vector corresponding to is
a) b) c) d)
8. If two Eigen vectors of a symmetric matrix of order 3 are and then the third Eigen
vector is
a) b) c) d)
9. If the trace of A (2x2 matrix) is 5 and the determinant is 4, then the eigen values are
a) 2, 2 b) -2, 2 c) -1, -4 d) 1, 4
37 | P a g e
10. Sum of the eigen values of matrix A is equal to the
a) Principal diagonal elements of A b) Trace of matrix A c) A&B d) None
11. If A = then 2A2-8A-16I =
a) I b) 2A c) A-I d) 5I
12. If A = then A-1 =
a) b)
c) d)
13. If A has eigen values (1,2) then the eigen values of 3A+4A-1 are
a) 3, 8 b) 7, 11 c) 7, 8 d) 3, 6
14. If A =
a) 2A2+5A b) 4A2+5A c) 2A2+4A d) 5A2+2A
15. If D = P-1AP then A2 =

a) PDP-1 b) P2D2(P-1)2 c) (P-1)2D2 (p2) d) PD2P-1
16. The product of Eigen values of A =
a) 18 b) -18 c) 36 d) -36
17. If one of the eigen values of A is zero then A is
a) Singular b) Non-Singular c) Symmetric d)Non-Symmetric
18. If A is a square matrix, D is a diagonal matrix whose elements are eigen values of A and P is the
matrix whose Columns are eigen vectors of A4, then A4 = ______
a) PDP-1 b) PD4P-1 c) P-1D2P d) P-1D4P
19. is an eigen value of
a)Adj A b) A.adj A c) (adj A) A d) None
20. The characteristic equation of is
a) b)
38 | P a g e
c) d)
21. If A = then the model matrix is
a) b) c) d)
22. If A = then the spectral matrix is
a) b) c) d)
23. If two Eigen vectors of a symmetric matrix are then the third eigen vector
is
b) b) c) d)
24. Product of Eigen values of matrix A is equal to

a) determinant of A b) Trace of A c) Principal diagonal of A d) None
25. If A = then A3-12A = ---------------------
26. If A = then 6A2-A3+A = -----------------------
27. If A = and then the modal matrix is ---------------
28. If is an eigen value of A then is eigen value of -----------
39 | P a g e
29. If A = then the eigen values of A2 are -------------------
30. If is the eigen value of A then the eigen values of A-1 are ----------------------
31. If the eigen values of A are 1, 3, 0 then =----------------------
32. The characteristic equation of ------------------------------
33. If A = ------------------
34. If the eigen values of a matrix are (-2, 3, 6) and the corresponding eigen vectors are
then the spectral matrix is ------------------------
35. If the eigen values of a matrix are (-2, 3, 6) and the corresponding eigen vectors are
then the spectral matrix is ---------------------------------
UNIT—IV
PARTIAL DIFFERENTIATION
Short Questions
1. Write Maclaurin’s series expansion of f(x,y).

2. Define Euler’s theorem
3. Verify Euler’s theorem for function xy+yz+zx
4. Verify Euler’s theorem for function z=(x2+xy+y2)-1
5. Define Jacobian transformation.
6. Define Functional dependence. f(x) = x5-3x4+5
7. Discuss the maximum and minimum of x2+y2+6x+12
Essay type questions
1. A rectangular box open at the top is to have volume of 32 cubic feet. Find the dimensions of the box
requiring least material for its construction.
2. Find a point within a triangle such that the sum of the squares of its distances from the three vertices
is a minimum.
3. Divide 24 into three parts such that the continued product of the first square of the second and cube
40 | P a g e
of the third is maximum.
4. Find the maximum and minimum values of x+y+z subject to + +
5. Prove that the functions u= x+y+z, v= xy+ yz + zx , w= x2+y2+z2 are functionally dependent and
find the relation between them.
6. If x= u(1-v), y= uv prove that JJ` = 1
7. If u= x+y+z , y+z = uv , z=uvw then evaluate
8. If x= ersec , y= ertan prove that = 1.
9. If x= rcos , y= rsin , find and Also show that = 1.
10. Prove that the functions u=xy+yz+zx, v= x 2+y2+z2, w= x+y+z are functionally dependent
and find the relation between them
11. Find the rectangular parallelepiped of maximum volume that can be inscribed in the sphere.
12. Find the maximum and minimum values of f(x)= x3+3xy2-3x2-3y2+4
13. If x= u(1+v), y= v (1+u ) then prove that = 1+u+v
14. If x = uv ,y = u/v ,verify that =1
15. Find the maximum and minimum values of x3y2(1-x-y)

16. Find three positive numbers whose sum is 100 and whose product is maximum.
17. Find the volume of the largest rectangular parallelepiped that can be inscribed in the ellipsoid.
+ + = 1.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. 1.I f u=x+y and v=xy then = --------------------------
2. 2.if x= cosv , y= v then = ____________________
3. . =_________________
4. if u= then = ______________________
5. x = -------------------------
41 | P a g e
6. Two functions u and v are said to be functionally dependent if = _____________
7. If u= and v= then = _________________
8. If u=exsiny,v=excosy then =__________________
9. . = ______________
10. If x=rcosθ, y=rsinθ then =_________________
11. If u=3x+5y and v=4x-3y then =____________
12. If u=y/x and v=xy then = __________________
13. If u=x2 - 2y , v=x+y then = ________________

14. (a) (x+1)2 (b) 2(x+1) (c) 3(x+1) (d) None
15. If u (1-v)=x, uv=y then . =

16. (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) xy (d) None
17. If u= , v=tan-1 x + tan-1 y then . =

18. (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) xy (d) None
19. Are u=x , v=2x functionally dependent? If so what is ?

20. (a) yes,1 (b) yes,0 (c) No,0 (d) None
21. If u=x2y ,v=xy2 then is

(a)5x2y2 (b)4x2y2 (c)2x2y2 (d) 3x2y2
22. . is a homogeneous function of degree------------------.
23. J( )=- ------
24. If x=r cosθ ,y=r sinθ then J( )=- -----------------
25. If u= J( ) then J( )= -----------------
26. Two functions u and v are said to be functionally dependent if = --------------------
27. If x=r cosθ ,y=r sinθ then , are -----------------------
42 | P a g e
28. If f9x,y)=c where c is a constant then = ----------------------
29. Laplace equation in two dimensions is ------------------

30. The function f(x,y) has a maximum value for --------------------
31. If z is a homogeneous function of degree n in x ,y and z-f(u) then xux+yuy is --------------
UNIT-V
FIRST ORDER PARTIAL DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
Short Questions
1. Define Complete Integral, Particular Integral, Singular Integral
2. Solve z=px+qy+p2q2
3. Solve z=px+qy+pq
4.Form the PDE by eliminating arbitrary constants a and b from z=ax+by+a2+b2
5. Form the PDE by eliminating arbitrary functions from z=f(x2+y2)
6.Find the general solution of p+q=1
7.Solve px+qy=z
8.Solve p-q=x2+y2
9.Solve pey=qex
10.Solve p3=qz
1.Form a partial D.E.by eliminating the arbitrary constants(i) a,b,c from (i) + + =1(ii)(x-a)2+(y-
b)2=z2cot2α where α is parameter(iii)a and b from

2.Find the D.E.of all spheres whose centers lie on z-axis with a given radius r.
3.Form a PDE by eliminating the arbitrary functions from z=f(x2+y2)
4.Form a PDE by liminating the arbitrary functions(i) f(x) and g(y) from z=y f(x)+x g(y) ,(ii) f from
f(x2+y2+z2) (iii) f from z=(x+y) f(x2-y2) (iv)z=f(2x+y)+g(3x-y)
5.Explain working Rule to solve Pp+Qq=R
6.Find the general solution of y2zp+x2zq=y`2x
7.x(y-z)p+y(z-x)=z(x-y)
8. Solve (x2-yz)p+(y2-zx)q=z2-xy
9. Solve (mz-ny)p+(nx-lz)q=ly-mx
10. Solve (x2-y2-yz)p+(x2-y2-zx)q=z(x-y)
11. Solve(z2-2yz-y2)p+(xy+zx)q=xy-zx
12.Find the integral surface of x(y2+z)p-y(x2+z)q=(x2-y2)z which contains the straight line x+y=0,z=1
13. Solve q2y2=z(z-px)
14. Solve p2+q2=x2+y2
15. Solve pq+xq=y
16. Solve p-x2=q+zy2
17. Solve q2-p=y-x
18. Solve q=px+p2
43 | P a g e
19. Solve z2 (p2+q2) =x2+y2
20. Solve z (p2-q2) =x-y
21. Solve p2z2sin2x+q2z2cos2y=1
22. Solve px+qy=pq
23. Solve z2 = pqxy
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1.If the number of arbitrary constants to be eliminated is equal to the number of independent variables
then we get a partial differential equation of ------------order.
2.The partial differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary constants from z=ax+by is -----------------
3.The partial differential equation of all spheres whose centres lie on the z-axis is -----------------
4. The partial differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary function from z=y f( )is -----------------
5.The general solution of √p+√q =1 is ------------------

6.General form of Clairaut’s equation is ----------------------
7.The general solution of z=px+qy+pq is ------------------------------
8.By eliminating a and b from z=a(x+y) +b ,the partial differential equation formed is -----------------
9.The general solution of pq=1 is ----------------------
10.The general solution of z=px+qy+f(p,q) is -----------------
CH102BS/CH202BS: ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY
B.Tech. I Year I & II Sem. L T/P/D C

4 0/0/0 4
Course Objectives:
 To bring adaptability to new developments in Engineering Chemistry and to acquire the skills
required to become a perfect engineer.
 To include the importance of water in industrial usage, significance of corrosion control to
protect the structures, polymers and their controlled usage.
 To acquire knowledge of engineering materials and about fuels and batteries.
 To acquire required knowledge about engineering materials like cement, refractories and
composites..
Course Outcomes:
 Students will gain the basic knowledge of electrochemical procedures related to corrosion and
its control.
 They can understand the basic properties of water and its usage in domestic and industrial
purposes.
 They learn the use of fundamental principles to make predictions about the general properties
of materials.
 They can predict potential applications of chemistry and practical utility in order to become
good engineers and entrepreneurs
44 | P a g e
UNIT - I
Water and its treatment: Introduction – hardness of water – causes of hardness – types of hardness:
temporary and permanent – expression and units of hardness – Estimation of hardness of water by
complexometric method. Numerical problems. Potable water and its specifications- Steps involved in the
treatment of potable water - Disinfection of potable water by chlorination and Ozonization. Defluoridation –
Nalgonda technique - Determination
-
of F ion by ion- selective electrode method.
Boiler troubles: sludges, scales, and Caustic embrittlement. Internal treatment of Boiler feed water – Calgon
conditioning – Phosphate conditioning - Colloidal conditioning – Softening of water by ion-exchange
processes. Desalination of water – Reverse osmosis. Numerical problems – Sewage water - Steps involved in
treatment of sewage.
UNIT - II
Electrochemistry: Electrode- electrode potential, standard electrode potential, types of electrodes –
Construction and functioning of Standard hydrogen electrode, calomel and glass electrode. Nernst equation -
electrochemical series and its applications. Electrochemical cells: Daniel cell – cell notation, cell reaction, and
cell emf -– Concept of concentration cells – Electrolyte concentration cell –Numerical problems.
Batteries: Cell and battery - Primary battery (dry cell, alkaline cell and Lithium cell) and Secondary battery
(lead acid, Ni-Cd and lithium ion cell), Fuel cells: Hydrogen –oxygen and methanol-oxygen fuel cells –
Applications.
UNIT – III
Polymers: Definition – Classification of polymers with examples – Types of polymerization
– addition (free radical addition) and condensation polymerization with examples.
Plastics: Definition and characteristics- thermoplastic and thermosetting plastics, compounding, and
fabrication of plastics (compression and injection moulding). Preparation, Properties, and engineering
applications of PVC and Bakelite.
Fibers: Characteristics of fibers – preparation, properties and applications of Nylon-6,6 and Dacron. Fiber
reinforced plastics (FRP) – Applications.
Rubbers: Natural rubber and its vulcanization - compounding of rubber.
Elastomers: Characteristics –preparation – properties and applications of Buna-S, Butyl and Thiokol rubber.
Conducting polymers: Characteristics and Classification with examples-mechanism of conduction in trans-
polyacetylene and applications of conducting polymers.
Biodegradable polymers: Concept and advantages - Polylactic acid and poly vinyl alcohol and their
applications.
UNIT - IV
Fuels & Combustion: Classification- solid fuels: coal – analysis of coal – proximate and ultimate analysis
and their significance. Liquid fuels – petroleum and its refining, cracking – types – moving bed catalytic
cracking. Knocking – octane and cetane rating, synthetic petrol - Fischer-Tropsch’s process; Gaseous fuels –
45 | P a g e
composition and uses of natural gas, LPG and CNG. Combustion: Definition, Calorific value of fuel – HCV,
LCV; Calculation of air quantity required for combustion of a fuel.
UNIT - V
Cement: Portland cement, its composition, setting and hardening of Portland cement. Special cements:
White cement, water proof cement, High alumina cement, and Acid resistant cement.
Refractories: Classification, characteristics of good refractories, Refractoriness, refractoriness under load,
porosity, and chemical inertness – applications of refractories.
Lubricants: Classification of lubricants with examples-characteristics of a good lubricants - mechanism of
lubrication (thick film, thin film and extreme pressure)- properties of lubricants: viscosity, cloud point, pour
point, flash point and fire point.
Composites: Introduction- Constituents of composites – advantages, classification and constituents of
composites. Applications of composites.
Text books:
1. Engineering Chemistry by P.C. Jain & M. Jain, Dhanpatrai Publishing Company, New Delhi (2010)
2. Engineering Chemistry by Rama Devi, Venkata Ramana Reddy and Rath, Cengage learning, New
Delhi. (2016)
Reference Books:
1. Engineering Chemistry by Shashi Chawla, Dhanpatrai & Company (P) Ltd. Delhi (2011)
2. Engineering Chemistry by Shikha Agarwal, Cambridge University Press, Delhi (2015)
3. Engineering Chemistry by Thirumala Chary and Laxminarayana, Scitech Publishers, Chennai (2016)
46 | P a g e
Unit Wise Question Bank
Name of Course: Engineering chemistry Course Code: CH102BS/CH202BS

Unit – I
Water and its Treatment
Questions related to 2 Marks

1. Define hardness and write about the types of hardness.
2. Explain Colloidal conditioning of boiler feed water.
3. Define ozonisation of potable water.
4. Define potable water with its specification
5. What is meant by Defluoridation ? write principle involved in removal of fluoride by
Nalgonda technique.
1. Write the structure of EDTA and Ca+2/Mg+2salt with EDTA.
2. Write expression of hardness with its unit specifying.
3. Discuss phosphate and calgon conditioning of boiler feed water.
4. Explain about break – point of chlorination.
5. Write a brief note on Caustic Embrittlement trouble caused in boiler
1. a. Explain the estimation of hardness of water by EDTA method.
b. Write short notes on Reverse osmosis with its significance.
2. a. Explain the working of Ion Exchange process of purification of water.
b. Write short notes on Disinfection of water by chlorination.
3. a. Discuss the steps involved in treatment of potable water.
b. Explain the causes, disadvantages and prevention of scale and sludge in Boiler.
4. What is sewage? Explain the various steps involved in treatment of sewage.
5. Explain the determination of F – ion by ion selective electrode method.
6. Discuss the steps involved in Nalgonda technique.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1. 2 lits of water obtained from a bore well in patancheru near hyd goes the following analysis for
salts: FeSO4 = 30.4mg, MgCl2 = 38mg, Mg(HCO3)2 = 14.6mg, CaSO4 =13.6mg,Ca(HCO3)2 =
32.4mg, NaCl = 11.7mg. Find out the total hardness of water in ppm units, giving temporary
and permanent hardness assuming the atomic mass of Fe to be 58, that of calcium to be 40, that
of Mg to be 24 and that of sodium to be 23.
2. Calculate the total hardness of a sample of water in 0Fr and 0Cl having the following salts CaCl2
= 11.1mg/l, Mg(HCO3)2 = 7.3mg/l, Ca(HCO3)2 = 5.1mg/l, Mg(NO3)2 = 14.8mg/l.
3. 50ml of sample water consumed 15ml of 0.01M EDTA before boiling and 5ml of same EDTA
after boiling. Calculate the total, temporary and permanent hardness of water
47 | P a g e
Multiple choice Questions:
1. The purification of brackish water by reverse osmosis is also called as [a ]
a. Electro-dialysis. b. Reverse osmosis. c. Zeolite d. Ion exchange.
2. One part of CaCO3 equivalent hardness per 105 parts of water is also called as [ c ]
a. Degree Clarke b. ppm. c. Degree French d. Mg/L.
3. Boiler corrosion caused by using highly alkaline water in boiler is called [ c]

a. Corrosion b. boiler corrosion c. caustic embrittlement d. erosion.
4. Caustic embrittlement can be avoided by using [ d]
a. Sodium phosphate b. hydrogen c. ammonium hydroxide d. sodium sulphate.
5. Caustic embrittlement is a type of [ a]
a. Boiler corrosion b. conditioning c. scale formation d. sludge formation.
6. The soft loose and slimy precipitate formed within the boiler is called [b ]
a. Scale b. sludge. c. embrittlement d. coagulation.
7. Sodium meta aluminate used in internal treatment of boiler water produces flocculent precipitates
of [ a]
a. Mg(OH)2 & Al(OH)3 b. NaOH & Al(OH)3 c. Ca(OH)2 & Al(OH)3 d. Ca(OH)2 &
Mg(OH)2
8. In low pressure boilers carbonate conditioning of boiler feed water is carries out to remove
[b ]
a. Calcium bicarbonate b. calcium sulphate c. calcium chloride d. calcium nitrate.
9. The process of allowing water to stand undisturbed in big tanks for settling of the suspended
particles due to force of gravity [c ]
a. Coagulation b.conditioning c. sedimentation d. screening
10. The composition of Alum is [a ]
a. K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O b.K2SO4.3Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
c. K2SO4.3Al2(SO4)3.20H2O d. K2SO4. Al2SO4.24H2O
11. Temporary hardness in water is removed by [c ]
a. Filtration b. sedimentation c. Boiling d. coagulation
12. Blow-down operation causes the removal of [b ]
a. Scales b. Sludge’s c. Acidity d. Sodium chloride
13. Solubility of calcium sulphate in water [ b]
a. Increases with rise of temperature. b. Decreases with rise of temperature.
c. Remains unaltered with rise of temp. d. doesn’t adopt any definite pattern with rise of
temperature.
14. Permanent hardness of water can’t be removed by Treatment with [c ]
a. lime soda. b. By permutit process. c. By boiling. d. By ion-exchange process.
15. Hard water is unfit for use in boilers for generating steam because [ d]
a. Its boiling point is higher b. steam is generated at high temperature.
c. Water decomposes into O2 and H2 d. It produces scales inside the boiler.
16. Estimation of hardness of water by EDTA method is used to determine [d ]
a. Alkaline hardness b. temporary hardness only.
c.Permanent hardness only. d. All the above.
17. Hard water can be softened by passing it through [c ]
a. Lime stone b. Sodium hexa Meta phosphate. c. Ion-exchange resin. d. Sodium silicate.
18. Calgon is a trade name given to [b ]
a. Sodium silicate b. Sodium hexa meta phosphate.
c. Sodium meta phosphate. d. Calcium phosphate.
19. Brackish water mostly contains dissolved [d ]
a. Calcium salts b. Magnesium salts. c. Turbidity d. Sodium chloride.
48 | P a g e
20. The method by which the ions are pulled out of salt water by direct current, and employed thin,
rigid membrane air is called [a ]
a. Electro dialysis b. Reverse osmosis. c. Zeolite. d. Ion exchange.
21. Tannins and agar-agar are used for [c ]
a.Phosphate conditioning. b.carbonate conditioning c. colloidal conditioning d. calgon
conditioning.
22. The external treatment of boiler water feed done by [a ]
a.Lime-soda process b. sodium sulphate treatment c. calgon process d. sodium aluminate
treatment.
23. The process of wet-steam formation is called [b ]

a. Foaming b. priming c. corrosion d. caustic embrittlement.
24. Mechanical steam purifiers avoid [b ]
a. Corrosion b. priming c. Scale formation d. sludge formation.
25. Castor oil is a [b ]
a. Anti-skinning agent b. antifoaming agent c. anti-ageing agent d. anti-corrosive agent
26. ferrous sulphate is commonly used in the treatment of municipal water for [b ]
a. Filtration b. flocculation c. sedimentation d. disinfection.
27. Liquid chlorine is most effective [a ]
a. Disinfectant b. coagulant c. flocculent d. sterilizing agent
28. Disinfection by ozone is due to liberation of [b ]
a. Oxygen b. nascent oxygen c. molecular oxygen d. none.
29. The formula of chloramine is [a ]
a. ClNH2 b. NHCl2 c. NCl3 d. NH2Cl2
30. Phosphate conditioning of boiler feed is carried out by [a ]
a. Na3PO4 b. Ca(PO4)2 c. Mg(PO3)2 d. H3PO4
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Presence of residual ___________ in boiler water causes caustic embrittlement.
2. ________ causes the flow of solvent from lower concentration to higher concentration, which is
separated by a semipermeable membrane.
3. In Lime-soda process the addition of lime cannot remove ________ hardness of water.
4. In phosphate conditioning if the boiler feed water is too alkaline ________ is used for internal
conditioning.
5. Priming and foaming in boilers produce __________ steam.
6. On addition of chlorine to water ______ acid is produced which is powerful germicide.
7. Hardness of water is due to the dissolved salts of ____________ and______________.
8. The chemical which removes oxygen of water without adding hardness is __________.
9. Hardness of water is expressed in equivalents of __________________.
10. In lime-soda process of softening, calcium and magnesium ions are precipitated as ______ and
_____.
11. Sodium aluminate is used as __________ during purification of water.
12. Anion exchange resigns are regenerated by using ________________.
13. Best method of removing hardness of water is ________________ process.
14. Among chloramine, bleaching powder and chlorine _______ is powerful disinfectant.
15. The hardness of water containing MgSO4 (Mol. Wt. 120) with concentration 12 mg/l is
_________
16. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by _______________.
17. Calgon treatment is used for removal of dissolved ____________.
18. Ion free water is known as _____________.
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19. ___________ is a process of allowing water to stand undisturbed in big tanks.
20. Al2SO4 alum produces _______ as flocculent precipitates during softening of water.
21. ______________ membranes are selected for efficient separation of ions.
22. The presence of even small amounts of MgCl2 will cause __________ of boiler plate to large
extent.
23. Cation exchange resin contains ____________ mobile ions.
24. The hardness of sample of water is 10 ppm, which can be expressed as_________ 0Cl.
25. A sample of water contains 11.1 mg/l of CaCl2. Its hardness of CaCO3 equivalents is
_________________.
26. ___________ is used as indicator in the determination of hardness by EDTA method.
27. To maintain the pH between 9-10 during complex metric titration, estimation of hardness of
water is _________. 28. Cation exchange resin contains ____________ mobile ions.
29. The hardness of sample of water is 10 ppm, which can be expressed as_________ 0Cl
30. ___________ is used as indicator in the determination of hardness by EDTA method.
31.. To maintain the pH between 9-10 during complex metric titration, estimation of hardness of
water is _________.
Fill in the blanks
1. NaOH or caustic soda 2. Osmosis 3. Calcium Permanent 4. sodium dihydrogen
phosphate 5. Wet 6. Hypochlorous 7. Calcium and magnesium 8. Hydrazine 9.
Calcium carbonates 10. CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2 11. Coagulant 12. Sodium hydroxide
13. Ion exchange process 14. 10 mg/l 16. Boiling 17. CaSO4
18.Na2.Al2O3.nSiO2.yH2O 19. Natural 20. Deionised or demineralised water 21. NaCl
22.Sedimentation 23. Al(OH)3 24. ion-selective membrane 25. corrosion. 26. H+
27. 0.7 0Cl 28. 10 mg/l 29. Erichrome black T 30. NH4Cl &NH4OH
Unit-II
Electrochemistry
1. Define Gavanic Cells.
2. Write Nernst equation with its applications.
3. Differentiate between Primary cells and Secondary cells.
4. Define concentration cell. Give the expression to find the emf of such cell.
5. Write the principle working of Li-ion cell.
6. What is electrochemical series? What is its significance.
Question related to 3 Marks
1. Write application of Batteries.
2. Explain the principle working of Methanol – Oxygen fuel cell.
3. Write an account on Ni – Cd cell.
4. Write short note on lithium cell with liquid cathode.
5. Define : (i) electrode potential, (ii) electrochemical cell
6. What are the advantages and limitations of a fuel cell? Why is water formed in the H2 – O2
cell removed continuously
1. What are Reference Electrodes? Explain the working of Standard calomel electrode with
Nernst Equation.
2. Explain discharging and recharging of Lead – Acid storage cell with chemical reactions
3. Explain about the Glass Electrode with Nernst Equation
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4. What is Fuel cell.Write brief detail about working of H2 – O2 fuel cell with its advantage
and application.
5. Explain briefly about Primary cells, Alkaline cell with its cell reactions and How does
alkaline cell differ from Dry cell.
6. Describe the construction and working of Daniel cell with cell notation and cell reaction.
7. What are concentration cells? Explain the measurement of EMF of concentration cell and its
application
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1. The standard oxidation potential of Cd/Cd+2 electrodes is 0.403 V. Calculate the Cd+2
concentration if the electrode potential is 0.5 V at 250c.
2. Calculate the EMF of a concentration cell at 250c consisting of two Zn electrode immersed
in a solution of Zn+2ions of 0.1M and 0.01M concentrations.
3. Calculate the EMF of Galvanic cell at 250c when the concentration of ZnSO4 and CuSO4 are
0.001 and 0.1M respectively.Thestandardpotential of a cell is 1.2 V.
Objective question
1. Calomel electrode is constructed using a solution of (a)

a. saturated KCl b. saturated CaCl2 c. saturated NH4Cl d. saturated NaCl
2. The standard reduction potential at 298K for Zn+2, Cr+3, H+ and Fe+3 are 0.76V, -0.74V, -0.0V
and 0.77V respectively, the strongest reducing agent among there is
(c )
a. H+ b. Cr+3 c. Zn +2 d. Fe+3
3. Calomel is (c)
a. mercuric sulphide b. mercurous sulphate c. mercurous chloride d. none
4. A storage cell is a device that can operate (a)
a. both as voltaic cell & electrical cell b. as voltaic cell
c. as electrical cell d. none
5. An electrochemical cell or several electrochemical cells connected in series, that can be used as a
source or direct electric current at a constant voltage is called (a)
a. battery b. voltaic cell c. electrolytic cell d. metal conductor
6. The cathode of Ni-Cd battery is composed of (c)
a. cadmium b. nickel c. paste of NiO(OH) d. paste of Cd(OH)2
7. A fuel cell converts (a)
a. chemical energy of fuels directly to electricity
b. chemical energy of fuels directly to heat
c. chemical energy of fuels directly to pressure d. none
8. When hydrogen is used as fuel in hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, the electrode are made of
(a)
a. an alloy of palladium and silver b. aluminum c.
iron d. cadmium
9. When storage cell is operating as voltaic cell it is said to be (b)
a. charging b. discharging c. neutral d. none
10. in lead-acid storage cell during discharging operation the concentration of H2SO4
(b)
a. increases b. decreases c. increase-decrease d. none
11. Electrolyte can conduct electricity because (c)
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a. Their molecules contains unpaired electrons which are mobile b. their molecules
contains loosely held electrons which become free under the influence of voltage. c. their
molecules are broken up into ions, when the electrolyte is fused ordissolved in a solvent. d.
their molecules break up into ions when voltage is applied.
12. HCl is called an electrolyte because (d)
a. Its molecules are made of electrically charged particles
b. its breaks up into ions when current is passed through it
c. it ionizes when electric current is passed through it
d. it ionizes when dissolved in a proper solvent.
13. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte? (a)
a. NH4OH b. NaOH c. HCl d. NaCl
14. Ionization of an electrolyte in aqueous solution is due to (d)
a. Hydrolysis of electrolyte
b. increase in electrostatic forces of attraction between the ions
c. instability of the compound in aqueous medium
d. decrease in the electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions
15. Which of the following does not conduct electricity? (c)
a. Molten NaCl b. solution of NaCl in H2O c. NaCl crystals d. none.
16. Pure water does not conduct electricity because, it is (b)
a. Acidic b. low boiling c. almost not ionize d. decomposed easily
17. A galvanic cell converts (b)
a. electrical energy into chemical energy b. chemical energy into electrical energy c.
electrical energy into heat energy d. chemical energy into heat energy.
18. The potential of standard hydrogen electrode dipped in a solution of 1M concentration and
hydrogen gas is passed at 1 atm pressure (c)
a. 1 volt b. 10 volt c. 0 volt d. 100 volts
19. The potentials of two metals electrodes used in a cell are 0.35V and 0.8 V. the emf of the cell
formed by combining them is (c)
a. 1.2 V b. 1.15 V c. -0.5 V d. 0.5V
20. In electrochemical series the elements are arranged in the (b)
a. Decreasing order of standard reduction potentials
b. increasing order of standard reduction potentials
c. increasing order of equivalent weights
d. increasing order of oxidation potentials.
21. Calomel electrode is reversible with respect to (b)
a. Mercury ion b. chloride ion c. both ions d. none.
22. The electrode potential is the tendency of a metal (c)
a. to gain electrons b. to lose electrons c. either to lose or gain electrons d. none.
FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. A device which converts electrical energy to chemical energy is called ________ (Electrolytic
cell)
2. Nernst equation for electrode reaction is _______[E=E0-{(0.0591/n)logN}]
3. The relation between the electrode potential E and concentration of an ion is given as (a)
__________ equation (b) as ________( Nernst,E={0.0591/nC}logN)
4. The standard electrode potential of saturated calomel electrode at 250C is __________
(0.0338 volts)
5. A cell whose reaction is not reversible is called ____________ (primary cell)
6. __________ are the cells which do not store energy. (fuel cell)
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7. The resistance of a metallic conductor ___________ as the temperature is increased.
(decreases)
8. A substance which in aqueous solution or in molten liberates ions and allows electronic current to
pass through is called __________ (electrolyte)
9. The substance which conduct electricity without decomposition is called _________ (metallic
conductor)
10. Graphite is a __________ conductor. (metallic)
11. A substance which allows the electric current to pass through it is called ___________
(conductor)
Unit – III
Polymers

1. What are Fibers and write its applications
2. Define Natural rubber with examples
3. Discuss the applications of Bio – Degradable polymer.
4. Differentiate between Homopolymer and Co – Polymer.
5. What is conducting polymer ? write its applications.
1. Differentiate between Thermoplastic and Thermo setting resins.
2. Write the preparations and properties of Nylon 6,6 and Dacron with its uses.
3. Discuss the applications of FRP’s.
4. Explain about the Injection moulding of plastics.
5. Write a short note on condensation polymerization with examples.
1. a. Explain the mechanism of free radical chain polymerization with suitable example.
b. Write the preparation and application of Bio – degradable polymers (i) Poly latic acid and
(ii) Poly vinyl alcohol.
2. a. How does vulcanization take place in Natural Rubber? Explain the compounding of
rubber.
b. Write the preparation, properties and Engineering applications of Butyl rubber and
Thiokol rubber.
3. a. Explain the mechanism of conduction of conducting polymers of polyacetylene
b. Write the preparation, properties and engineering application of PVC, Teflon and Bakelite
4. Discuss the compounding of plastic by compression method. Explain fabrication of
plastics.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Thermosetting resins fabricated by transfer moulding which uses the principle [c ]
a) blowing b) extrusion moulding
c) injection moulding d) compression moulding
2. The least functionality of a monomer is convert into polymer is [ c ]
a) 1 b)3 c) 2 d) 6
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3. If the arrangement of functional groups on carbon chain is alternating. It is called [ b ]
a) isotactic b) syndiotactic c) atactic d) tacticity
4. A thermo plastic resin is formed formed by the phemomenon of [d ]
a) chlorination b) condensation polymerization c) nitration d) chain
polymerization
5. Phenol formaldehyde resin is commercially known as [b ]
a) PVC b) Bakelite c) nylon d) Teflon
6. Polymer commonly used in textile industry is [b ]
a) Rubber b) nylon c) PVC d) Bakelite
7.The following is a high molecular weight material that can be moulded to any desired shape
[c ]
a) graphite b) jelly c) resin d) grease
8. A plastic resin which becomes soft on heating & rigid on cooling is called [b ]
a) thermoplastic b) thermo plastic c) thermite d) thermo setting
9. Natural rubber is basically a polymer of [ c]
a) propylene b) ethylene c) isoprene d) chloroprene
10. Which of the following is an elastomer [d ]
a) PVC b) nylon c) polystyrene d) butyl rubber
11.The most commonly used reagent for vulcanization of natural rubber is [b ]
a) graphite b) sulphur c) carbon black d) dry ice
12. Ebonite is [c ]
a) natural rubber b) synthetic rubber
c) vulcanized with >30% sulphur d) vulcanized with 3-5% sulphur
13. one of the important uses of bakelite is for making [c ]
a) cables b) cloth c) electrical switches d) conveyor belts
14. The fibre obtained by the step polymerization of hexa methylene diamine & adipic acid
[b ]
a) decarbon b) nylon c) rayon d) terylene
15.Which one of the following is not a macromolecule [d ]
a) cellulose b) rubber c) protein d) wood
16. The following is the monomer of Teflon [ a]
a) CF2=CF2 b) CH2=CF2 c) CH2=CHCI d) CF2=CHF
17. The following polymer has ester links in its structure [ d]

a) Nylon b) Bakelite c) PVC d) terylene
18.The common catalyst used in coordination chain polymerization [ b]
a) nickel b) zeiglar- natta catalyst c) zeolite d) platinum
19. Functionality of phenol is [ c]
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
20. The only rubber which cannot be vulcanized is [b ]
a) butyl rubber b) Thiokol rubber c) neoprene d) nitrile
21.Styrene rubber is produced by copolymerization of [a ]
a) butadiene & styrene b) ) butadiene & acrylonitrile c)
styrene & isoprene d) ) butadiene & vinyl chloride
22.Butyl rubber is produced by copolymerization of [b ]
a) isobutene & chloroprene b) isobutene & isoprene
c) isoprene & chloroprene d) isoprene & ethylene glycol
23. Polyurethane rubber is also known as [d ]
a) hypanol b) Thiokol c) neoprene d) isocynate rubber
24. The common rein forcing agent to give strength & rigidity to rubber is [ a]
a) carbon black b) mercaptol c) phenylnapthylamine d) wax
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25. The common plasticizers used for compounding of plastic resins is [ c]
a) ZnO b) acetyl sulphuric acid c) vegetable oils d) benzoyl peroxide
26. Plasticizers are materials which are added to resins to increase their [d ]
a) strength b) corrosion resistance c) stability d) plasticity & flexibility
27.Compression moulding is used for moulding of [a ]
a) thermoplastic & thermosetting resins b) only thermoplastic
c) only thermosetting resins d) neither thermosetting resins nor thermoplastic
28. High polymers are [ c]
a) liquids b) gases c) solids d) colloids
29. The polymerization in which two or more chemically different monomers take part is called
[a ]
a) Co-polymerization b) chain polymerization
c) addition polymerization d) homo polymerization
30. The structural units of polymers are called [b ]
a) fibres b) monomers c) fabrics d) thermo units
31.High polymers are [c ]
a) liquids b) gases c) solids d)colloidss
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. ___________ is a conducting polymer.

2. ______________ is an example of fibre reinforced plastic.
3. Stereo specific polymers are obtained by ____________________ polymerization.
4. The plastic used for making optical lenses is __________________
5. A polymerisation in which two or more different monomers takes part is called____
6. The trade name of polymethylmethacrylate is _________________
7. Nylon 6 is a _______________
8. The repeating unit of natural rubber is _______________________
9. The polymerization in which same type of monomers take part is called _______
10. The raw materials used for the manufacture of polyester are _______& ________
11. Buna-S is a co-polymer of _______________ & ______________
12. Transfer moulding is a method used for fabrication of _____________ resins.
13. Electric cables are fabricated by _______________ moulding.
14. _____ is a fabricating method applied to both thermo-plastic & thermo setting resins.
15. _________ is an example of stabilizer added to poly vinyl chloride during fabrication.
16. ______________ holds the different constituents of plastics.
17. A flawless glossy finish to plastics is given by __________________
18. The combination of compression & extrusion moulding is adopted in _______
19. Injection moulding is for fabrication of _______________ resins.
20. Latex is the dispersion of _________________ molecules.
21. LDPE has ______________meltinor specific gravity than HDPE.
22. An example of thermosetting homopolymer is ____________________
Fill in the blanks

1. poly acetylene/poly aniline 2. tarpaulin 3.co-ordination chain polymerization
4.PMMA,poly methyl acrylate/plexiglass 5. copolymerisation 6. plexi glass 7.polyamide
8. isoprene 9.homopolymerisation 10. glycol & terepthalic acid 11.butadiene &
styrene 12. thermosetting resins 13. extrusion 14. compression
moulding 15..lead salts or any white lead or lead chromate/litharge/lead silicate/lead napthalin
17. resin 18. thermal forming 19. thermoplastic 20.isoprene 21.low/less 22. nylon-6
Unit – IV
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Fuels and Combustion

1. What are fuels and classify them with suitable examples
2. Discuss the characteristics of good fuel.
3. Define Octane number and Cetane number.
4. Write the applications of Natural gas.
5. Define Combustion.
6. Define HCV and LCV.

1. What is the composition of Natural gas? Why CNG is referred more than LPG?
2. Define Cracking process and classify them.
3. Explain about Knocking in an engine and its disadvantages.
.

1. Explain the analysis of coal by proximate analysis with its significance.
2. a. Describe briefly about Refining of petroleum.
b. Define synthetic petrol and explain working of Fischer – Tropsch’s process.
3. a. Explain the analysis of coal by ultimate analysis with its significance.
b. Explain moving bed catalytic cracking of petroleum.
4. a. Which of the fuel i.e., solid, liquid, gaseous are considered to be best?
b. Differentiate between Thermal cracking and Catalytic cracking.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1. calculate weight and volume of air required for the complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel
contains thefollowing by weight C=81%,H=4%,O2=2%,N2=10%,S=1% assuming STP
conditions.
2. A sample of coal has the following composition C=75%,H=5.2%,O=12.1%,N=3.2%
and Ash=4.5%.Calculate the weight of minimum air required for buring 1kg of the fuel.
1. Which of the following gases possess highest calorific value (d)

a) water gas b) producer gas c) natural gas d) coal gas
2.Which of the following is not an advantage of gaseous fuels or solid and liquid fuels (b)
a)their combustion can be controlled b)they can not be preheated by the heat of waste gases
c)they can be lightened at moments d) they can be easily conveyed through pipe lines
3. Bomb calorimeter is used for determining the calorific value of (d)
a)solid fuels b)liquid fuels c)gaseous fuels d)solid and gaseous fuels
4. Complete combustion can be best judged by (a)
a) measuring Co in flue gas b)smoky chimney effect
c)measuring oxygen in flue gas d)measuring CO2 in flue gas
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5. Ultimate analysis of a fuel is determined of % of (a)
a)C,H,N,S,H2O b)C,H2O,ash and volatile matter c)S only d)fixed carbon
6. Which of the following statement is true (b)
a)coke burns with a long flame b) coke burns with a long flame c)coke
possess better strength than coal d)sulphur content of coke is higher than that of coal
7. A good fuel should possess (d)
a)high ignition temperature b)high calorific value
c) Moderate ignition temperature d) both b &c
8. The process of splitting higher carbons into smaller hydro carbons is called (c )
a)pyrolysis b)decomposition c)cracking d)combustion
9. The calorific value of a coal sample is higher if its (c )
a) moisture content is high b)volatile matter is high
c)fixed carbon content is high d)ash content is high
10. The amount of nitrogen in coal is determined by (b)
a)proximate analysis b)heating in the absence of air
c)ultimate analysis d)burning it completely in air
11. The calorific value of a fuel depends upon the % of (c )
a) volatile matter b) ash c)fixed carbon d)moisture
12. The presence of nitrogen in a coal sample is (b)
a)desirable b)undesirable c)most desirable d)most undesirable
13. The catalyst used in moving bed catalytic cracking behaves (c )
a) as a gas b)as a suspension c)as a fluid d)as plasma
14. Iso octane has an octane rating of (a)
a)100 b)0 c) 50 d)above100
15. Which of the following is used as a jet engine fuel? (d)
a)LPG b)power alcohol c)kerosene d)coal
16. For improving anti knock property of petrol, it is mixed with (d)
a)lead bromide b)allyl bromide c)tetra ethyl lead d) tetra ethyl lead & ethyl bromide
17. Hydro carbon content in gasoline is (b)
a)C1-C4 b)C4-C12 c)C15-C23 d)C20above
18. Octane number is % of (c )
a)iso octane in petroleum b) iso octane & n-heptane
c)iso octane in a mixture of iso octane and n-heptane d)none of the above
19. A knocking sound is produced in IC engines when the fuel ( c)
a)contains some water b)contains lubricating oil c)burns fast d)burns slow
20. When petroleum is heated gradually the first batch of vapour evolved will be rich in (d)
a)kerosene b)diesel c)lubricating d)petroleum ether
21. Natural gas is composed primarily of (a)
a)CH4 b)n-butane c)n-octane d)a mixture of propane and octane
22. Bergius process of synthetic petrol involves mainly (a)
a)catalytic hydrogenation of coal b)cracking of heavy oil
c)heating coal alone under pressure d)none of the above
23. Petrol is a mixture of (a)
a)alkanes b)alkenes c)alkynes d)aromatic hydrocarbons
24. Domestic cooking gas consists of (b)
a) Methane&ethane b) liquefied butane and isobutene
c) acetylene &hydrogen d) ethylene & CO
25. An example of primary solid fuel is (c )
a) Coke b)coal gas c)kerosene oil d)lubricating oil
26. Octane number is related with the following petroleum product (b)
a) Diesel b) petrol c) kerosene d) lubricating oil
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27. Calorific value of a fuel is expressed as (c)
a)k.cal/cm b) k.cal/cm3 c) k.cal/m3 d)cal/m3
28.. Petrol is synthesized from water gas by (a)
a) Fischer tropsch’s process b) Bergius process c) thermal cracking d)catalytic cracking
29. The following is used as catalyst in fixed bed catalytic cracking (b)
a) Silica mixed with zirconium oxide b) artificial clay mixed with zirconium oxide
c) china clay mixed with zirconium oxide d) none of the above
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The calorific value of coke is generally ______than coal. (Higher)

2. During petroleum cracking the products obtained have ________boiling points than original
values. (Lower)
3. Higher the octane rating of gasoline __________is its tendency for knocking. (Lesser)
4. The compound with octane number 100 is______________ (iso octane)
5.A good fuel should possess ____ ignition temperature (moderate)
6. The process of separation f various fractions of petroleum is known as_______ (fractional
distillation)
7.__________is the only primary liquid fuel in nature (petroleum)
8.___________calorifi value includes latent heat of steam (higher)
9. The SI unit of calorific value of solid fuel is___________ (Kj/kg)
10. The grade of coal with highest percentage of carbon _____________ (anthracite)
11. The fuel which possess highest thermal efficiency is____________ (gaseous)
12. An example of primary gaseous fuel is________________ (natural gas)
13. A good fuel should possess __________moisture content (low)
14.____________fuels are not used for in internal combustion engines. (solid fuels)
15. The calorific value of a gaseous fuel is determined by___ (Junker’s or boy’s calorimeter)
16.1 K.cal/Kg is equal to _________ (1.8B.Th.U/ib)
17. Higher the % of sulphur __________the quality of coal. (lower)
18. Net calorific value of a fuel is obtained when the products of combustion are permitted to
__________ (escape)
19. The total quantity of heat liberated when a unit mass of the fuel burnt completely is called
__________ (calorific value)
20. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water through 10 F is called
___________ (British thermal unit)
21. The knocking in petrol engine is due to__________ (pre-ignition of the petrol sample)
22. The process opposite to cracking is_________ (polymerization)
23. Oxygen content _________the calorific value (decreases)
24. Crude oil is treated with copper sulphide to remove_________from it (harmful sulphur)
25. Catalytic cracking is advantageous over _________ (thermal cracking)
26. The fraction obtained in the boiling range of 320-4000C during fractional distillation of crude
oil is called_________ (heavy oil)
27. Reactivation of the catalyst used in fixed bed catalytic cracking is done by _____________
(burning of the carbon deposited)
28. Uncodensed gas obtained during fractional distillation of crude oil is used as a fuel under the
name_________ (LPG)
29. Removal of sulphur from petrol is done by a process called _________ (sweetening)
30._________is the catalyst used in Bergius process (tin or nickel oleate)
Unit – V
Cement, Refractories, Lubricants and C omposites
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1. Define flash and fire point of a Lubricant.
2. What are the characteristics of a good refractory
3. What is the composition of Portland cement
4. Discuss the properties of refactory given (i) Refractoriness (ii) Refractoriness under load
(ii) Chemical inertness.
5. How are lubricants classified? Discuss with examples.
1. Write the characteristics of a good lubricant.
2. Write applications of refractory.
3. Wirte short note on (i)Acid resistant cement & (ii) High Alumina cement
4. Explain the mechanism involved in extreme pressure lubrication.
5. What are various types of composites.
Questions related to 10 Marks in the form of a, b bits.
1. Write about Setting and Hardening of cement involving reactions in it.
2. Briefly discuss about the properties of Lubricant – Viscocity, cloud point, flash and fire
point.
3. Explain the mechanism of Thick film lubrication and Thin film lubrication.
4. Explain the various constituents of Composites with its advantages and applications
1.The porosity of insulator should be {b}

a)high b)low c)moderate d)cannot be predicted
2.Organic thermal insulators are used for ______temperature insulation {a}
a)high b)low c)moderate d)cannot be predicted
3.Refractories are mainly used in {a}
a)industry b)teachoing labs c)reaserch labs d)house
4.Which of the following is a basic refractory {d}
a)SiO2 b)Al2O3 c)graphite d)CaO
5. Which of the following is a neutral refractory {c}
a)SiO2 b)Al2O3 c)graphite d)CaO
6. Which of the following is an acidic refractory {d}
a)CaO b)Na2CO3 c)MgO d)SiO2
7.Refractory fails due to {d}
a)rapid changes in temperature b)over firing c)due to dimensional changes d)all
of the above
8.Any material which can withstand high temperature without softening or suffering from
deformation is called {b}
a)insulating material b)refractory c)lubricant d)fuel
9.Which of the following is a character of refractory {d}
a)it should resist high temperature b)it should be chemically inert
c)resist abrading action d)all of the above
10.Electrical insulators are also called as {a}
a)dielectrics b)non-electrics c)electrics d)none of the above
11.Abel’s apparatus is useful for the determination of {c}
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a)flash point b)fire point c)both a &b d)none
12.A lubricant can decompose due to {d}
a)hydrolysis b)oxidation c)pyrolysis d)all of the above
13.Pour point of lubricant should be {b}
a)high b)low c)sometimes high and low d)none of the above
14.The insulating liquids among the following are {a}
a)askarels b)water c)ethanol d)acetone
15.Extreme pressure additives are used for {d}
a)heavy cuttings b)light cutting c)IC engines d)gears
16.Silicone fluids, synthetic hydrocarbon liquids and fluorinated liquids come under {a}
a)electrical liquid insulators b)thermal insulators
c)thermal liquid insulators d)thermal conductors
17.The gas used in electric transformers for insulation is {c}
a)N2 b)CO2 c)SF6 d)air
18.A lubricant used for fluid film lubrication is {a}
a)hydrocarbon oil or petroleum crude oil b)mixture of coconut oil and kerosene
c)graphite d)molybdenum sulfide
19.A refractory material generally obtained from bauxite is {d}
a)fireclay b)dolomite c)chromite d)alumina
20.Lubricants for refrigerators used in food industry require {d}
a)low pour point b)low clod point c)low viscosity d)all
21.Which of the following refractories is used in nuclear engineering as moderator {c}
a)chromite bricks b)carborundum c)beryllia bricks d)fireclay bricks
22.The viscometer used by advanced countries like USA is {c}
a)redwood b)saybott c)engler d)all of the above
23.The co-efficient of friction for thin film lubrication is {c}
a)0.1-0.2 b)0.5-0.6 c)0.05-0.15 d)0.001-0.03
24.Hydrodynamic lubrication is also called as {a}
a)thick film lubrication b)thin film lubrication
c)medium film lubrication d)extreme pressure lubrication
25.For a good lubricant ,viscosity index should be {a}
a)high b)low c)normal d)unpredictable
26.Which of the following lubricants can persist under dratic conditions {c}
a)liquid lubricants b)semi-solid lubricants c)extreme pressure additives d)solid lubricant
27.The material which offer no resistance to the passage of electricity are called {d}
a)refractories b)insulators c)conductors d)super conductors
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1.Puzzolana cements consist of hudraulic cementing materials and ___________ {lime}

2.Major component of Portland cement is ____________ {tricalcium silicates}
3.Lubricants for refrigeration are ____________ {napthalene oils}
4.The property of gypsum addition to cement is for __________ {setting quickly}
5.Calcium stearate acts as a _____________ in cements. {water proofing agent}
6.The constituent of cement having least setting time is ___________ {tri calcium aluminate}
7.Delicte instruments exhibit ___________ {thick film lubrication}

8.The raw materials of Portland cement are ___________ {limesone, clay, carbon powder and
gypsum}
9.The final set product of cement is mainly due to _________formation along with
_________________ {tobermonite gel , calciumhydroxide}
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10.In boundary lubrication process ___________layer of lubricant is used {thin}
11.Viscosity of liquods ___________with increasing of temperature. {decreases}
12.The expulsion of magenetic flux from the interior of a piece of super condocting material as the
material undergoes tae transition to the super conducting phase is known as
____________________ {meissner effect}
13.Initial flash set of cement is caused by _________ {hydration of C3A}
14.In case of liquid lubricants generally fire point is _________than the flash point. {higher}
15.A suitable lubricant for watches is __________ {hazel-nut oil}
16.to decrease the shrinkage of setting of cement __________is added {sand}
17.___________reduces the strength of the cement. {excess of lime}
18.a lubricant is used to prevent ______________of rubbing of metallic surfaces. {wear out}
19.Superchip made of_____are used in computer to function1000 times faster than silicone chips.
{super conductors}
20.A specially shaped flask for receiving the oil from jet outlet of a redwood viscometer
is___________ {kohlraush flask}
21.High molecular weight oils possess ____________viscosity. {high}
22.Graphite and carborundum are ___________refractories. {neutral}
23.____ refractories should not be placed in direct contact of fireclay refractory. {magnesite}
24.Al2O3.2SiO2.2H20 is the composition of ________________refractory. {fireclay}
25. Flash point must be___________the temperature at which the lubricant is used, otherwise there
is a risk of fire during its usage. {More}
26. To indicate the suitability of lubricants for cold condition__________________has to be
specified. {cloud and pour points}
27. The property of a liquid/fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to its own flow is called
_________ {viscosity}
28. _________is the ability of a material to withstand high temperature, without appreciable
deformation in shape/softening under particular operating conditions {refractoriness}
29. ________refractories are most widely used since they are cheap and well suited for most
applications {Fire clay}
o
30. A brick which does not deform more than 10% at 1350 C under a load of 3.5 kg/cm2 is
_________ {high duty refractory brick}
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UNIT – I
INTERFERENCE & DIFFRACTION
SHORT TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Explain the interference phenomenon.

2. Explain the concept of Coherence.
3. Explain the concept of Division of Amplitude and Division of Wave front.
4. Describe the concept of Interference of light due to thin films .
5. What is the difference between Interference and Diffraction Phenomena of light?
6. What are the types of Diffractions and give the differences between them.
7. A parallel beam of light λ= 5893A˚ , is incident on a glass plate (µ = 1.5) such that angle of
refraction into plate is 60˚ .Calculate the thick ness of plate which will make it appears as
dark by reflection.
8. In Newton’s rings experiment the diameter of 15 th was found to be 0.59 cm and that of 5th
ring is 0.336cm .If the radius of curvature of lens is 100 cm find the wave length of light.
9. Find the angular width of central maximum in Fraunhofer diffraction using a slit width is 1
µm when the slit is illuminated by light of wave length 600 nm.
ESSAY TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Discuss the theory of Newton’s rings & Derive an expression for the diameter of dark &bright
fringes.
2. What is Fraunhofer Diffraction & Explain the method of determination of wavelength of spectral
lines of given source using plane diffraction grating
3. Discuss the Fraunhofer Diffraction due to single slit.
4. Explain with theory of Fraunhofer Diffraction due to N-slits.
5. With a ray diagram discuss the theory of thin films and derive the condition for constructive and
destructive interference in the case of reflected and transmitted system.
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

UNIT-I
1. Wave nature of light is supported by

a) Photon electric effect b) interference c) black body radiation d) nuclear emission
2. Two sources are said to be coherent if their emitted waves have
a) same wave length b) same amplitude c) constant phase difference d ) all the three
3. When a thin film of oil or soap bubble is illuminated with white light , multiple colours appear.
This due to
a) diffraction b) polarization c) Total internal reflection d ) interference
4. When the light wave is reflected at the air glass interface , the change of phase of the reflected
wave is equal to
a)0 b) π/2 c) π/4 d )π
5. When white light is incident on a diffraction grating ,the light diffracted more will be
a)Blue b) yellow c) violet d) red
6. In a single slit experiment if the slit width is reduced
a) the fringes becomes brighter b) the fringes becomes narrower c) the fringes becomes
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wide d) the colour of the fringes change
7. The penatration of waves into the regions of the geometrical shadow is
a) interference b ) diffraction c) polarization d) dispression
8. In Fraunohofer diffraction thev wave front undergoing diffraction has to be
a ) spherical b) cylindrical c)elliptical d) plane
a. FILL IN THE BLANKS

9. In a single slit experiment if the slit width is reduced ----------
10. In interference pattern fringes have ------ width.
11. Fresnel diffraction is due to ------------- sorce
12. The phenomenon which confirms transeverse nature of light is ------------
13. In diffraction pattern fringes have ------------ width
14. In Nicol prism the refractive index for e –ray varies between ---------- and ------------
15. The polarizing angle for glass is ------------
16. The bending of light around the corners of obstacles is called ----------------
UNIT – II
POLARIZATION & LASERS

1. Explain the following

i) Polarized light
ii) Double Refraction.
2. Distingiush between Polarized light and Unpolarized light.
3. Discuss the construction of Nicol prism.
4. What is Malus law ? Explain .
5. Explain the characteristics of laser beam.
6. Explain the terms on Absorption, Spotanious Emission and Stimulated Emission.
7. What do you understand by Population Inversion ? How it is achieved.
8. What are the application of Lasers in Various Fields.
9. For a glass plate of refractive index is µ = 1.54, calculate the angle of polarization and angle of
refraction.
10. Calculate the wave length of emitted radiation from GaAs which has a band gap of 1.44 eV
1. What are Wave plates ? Explain types of Wave plates in detail.

2. Derive Einstein’s coefficients and explain the relation between them.
3. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the principle, construction working of Ruby Laser.
4. Explain the principle, working and construction of semiconductor laser.
5. Explain the principle, working and construction of He-Ne gas laser.
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UNIT-II
 w 
1. Exp  1 is ____________.
 KT 
a) The ratio of number of spontaneous to stimulated emissions
b) Stimulated to spontaneous emission
c) Stimulated emission × spontaneous emission
d) None
a) The ratio of number of spontaneous to stimulated emissions

b) Stimulated to spontaneous emission
c) Stimulated emission × spontaneous emission
d) None
2. If E2 – E1 = 2.36 ev, the wavelength of radiation is ________ nanometer .
a) a) 750 b) 650 c) 550 d) 450
3. The colour of ruby containing 0.5% Cr, it’s colour is
a) a) Black b) Orange c) Pink d) Yellow
4. In He-Ne laser, the radiation that is emitted is from down ward transition of
a) a) He b) Ne c) both He and Ne d) None
5. The coherence of light is known by the
a)visibility of the interference fringes it produces b)size and nature of the source
c)light intensity of the beam d)flickering of the light beam
6. The light coming from an ordinary source like a filament bulb is
a. coherent, non directional, but powerful
b. non monochromatic, non directional, unpolarized and incoherent
c. coherent, non monochromatic, non directional but intense
d. non coherent, directional, intense and non monochromatic
7. Cutting and Drilling of metals require high energy sources. The Laser that are used are
a) He-Ne Laser b) semi conductor laser c) solid state lasers d) CO2 Laser
8. The semiconductor lasers are not used in
a) a) bar – code reading b) optical communication
b) c) cutting and drilling of metals d) compute printer
9. The purpose of the optical resonator in a laser is
a) to provide cover to the active medium b) to provide path for stray atoms
c) to provide selectivity of photon states d) to send laser radiation in specified
direction
10. In He-Ne lasers
a) Oxygen is used to burn and emit light
b) the transfer of energy of excitation takes place with by collision of excited helium atoms
with neon atoms
c) the helium atoms give the metastable level in between neon energy levels
d) the neon atoms under low pressure excite helium atoms
11. Check the correctness of the statements
a) The gain of a laser source in the active medium depends on the population difference.
b) The purpose of reflectors in the laser is to deflect the photons from the active medium
a) (A) and (B) are wrong b) (A) is wrong and (B) is correct
c) (A) and (B) are correct d) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong
12. In conventional light sources the ratio of spontaneous emission rate to stimulated emission rate is
nearly.
a) a) 1010 b) 1020 c) 105 d) 103
13. Solid state Ruby Laser is a
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a) a) Pulsed, three level laser b) pulsed, four level laser
b) c) continuous, three level laser d) continuous four level laser
14. At room temperatures, the threshold current density in heterostructure laser is of the order of
a) 105 Amp / cm2 b) 103 Amp / cm2 c) 102 Amp / cm2 d) 104 Amp / cm2
15. Under population inversion, the number of atoms in the higher energy state is ________ than in
the lower energy state.
a) lesser b) larger c) both a) and b) d) none
16. Lasing action can be obtained with extremely small currents by using
a) a) homo structured laser b) hetero structured laser
b) c) buried homo structured laser d) buried homo structured laser
17. At thermal equilibrium in a laser source
a) the ratio of the number of stimulated emissions to the number of spontaneous emission is
equal to Einstein coefficient for emission.
 h 
1
 e 2kT 
b) the ratio of the number of spontaneous to stimulated emissions is given by  
 
c) the ratio of the number of the stimulated emission to spontaneous emission is equal to
the ratio of their Einstein coefficients
d) the ratio of probability of stimulated to that of spontaneous emission is equal to 1

18. Yittrium aluminium garnet is a
a) solid state laser source when doped with 3% molybdenum ions
b) wonderful superconductor
c) very low power laser source d) ferro magnetic material
19. Verify the given statements
A) The gas lasers normally exhibit greater coherence than solid state lasers
B) ‘The information capacity’ of coherent radiation is tremendously high
a) (A) and (B) are wrong
b) (A) is wrong or (B) is correct
c) (A) is correct, (B) is wrong
d) (A), and (B) are correct
20. In optical communication system, the light detector is
a) Avalanche photo diode (APD) b) PIN diode c) Photo transistor d) a or b
21. Plane polarized light can be produced by
a) simple reflection b).Nicols prism c) pile of plates 4) All of the above.
22. Nicol prism is based on the action of
a) Refraction b) Double refraction c) Doublr reflection d) Diffraction
23. Polarization of light is evidence for
a) Corpuscular nature of light b) quantum nature of light
c) transverse wave nature of light d) longitudinal wave nature of light
24. The phenomenon causing polarization of light is
a) interference b)diffraction c) double refraction d) refraction
.
FILL IN THE BLANKS

25. The unit of Planck’s constant is ------------------
26. In He-Ne lasers the ratio of He-Ne mixture is ----------
27. Coherence needs -------------
28. The life time of ground state is --------------
29. The condition for lasing acting is --------
30. Population inversion cannot be achieved by --------------
31. Coherence in lasers is coming from ---------------
32. Polarization of light conclusively proves that --------
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33. In double refracting crystal, along optic axis --------------
34. In elliptically polarized light ------------
35. When a beam of unpolarised light passes through a Nicol prism then the O-ray is ----------
UNIT – III
FIBER OPTICS

1. Explain the principle behind the propagation of light through the Optical fibres
2. Distinguish between step index and graded index optical fibre. .
3. Write about applications of optical fiber
4. Write a short note on attenuation in fibres
5. Explain the terms Numerical aperture and acceptance angle.
6. What are the conditions to produce total internal reflection
7. An optical fiber has a core material of refractive index is 1.55 and cladding of refractive index is
1.5 .The light is launched into it in air .Calculate numerical aperture

1. Explain the terms numerical aperture and acceptance angle. Obtain mathematical expressions for
acceptance angle and numerical aperture.
2. Describe the structure of different types of optical fibers with ray paths.
UNIT-III
1. Numerical aperture represents _______ capacity of a optical fibre.

a) light gathering b) light dissipation c) heat dissipation d) magnetic lines
gathering
2. In optical fibres mode means ________ available for light rays to propagate in the fibre.
a) the number of paths b) the number of fibres in optical fibre cable
c) the change in R.I. d) none
3. The refractive index of the core is
a) Greater than the cladding b) Less than the cladding c) Equal to the cladding d) All the
above
4. In step-index fibers the refractive index at the interface of core and cladding changes.
a) Abruptly b) Exponentially c) Linearly d) Gradually
5. In graded index fibers, the signals travel in a
a) Random manner b) Zig – Zag manner c) Skew manner d) Linear manner
6. Pickout the losses present in the fiber optical communication system
a) Distortion losses b) Absorption losses c) Scattering losses d) All the above
7. If the angle of incidence at the interface of the core and air is exactly equal to acceptance angle
then the ray travels.
a) In the core b) In the cladding c) Along the interface d) does not enter into fiber
8. In fiber optical fiber communication systems, electric signals are converted into optical signals by
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a) Photo detectors b) light emiting diodes c) Solar cell d) all the above
9. The N.A. is related to Refraction induction of core (n 1) and refraction induction of clad (n2) . N.A.
of the fiber in terms n1 and n2 is
1 1 1
a. a) n1 – n2 b) (n 2  n 2 ) 2 c) (n  n ) 2 d) (n  n ) 2
1 1 2 1 1 2
10. For the total internal reflection to take place along the fiber, the essential condition is
a) R.I. of core is less than R.I. of clad b) R.I. core is equal to R.I. of clad
c) R.I. of clad is less than R.I. Core d) None
11. Maximum acceptance angle value will be large when
a) n21 – n22 is maximum b) n1 = n2 c) n1 < n2 d) n2 – n1
12. .n1 and n2 is 1.68 and 1.44 . The maximum acceptance angle is
a) 500 b) 650 c) 600 d) 450
13. Relation between fractional refractive change and N.A. is
2 2
(NA) 2n NA 2n
a) b) 1 c) d) 1
2 2 2n
2n (NA) 1 NA
1
FILL IN THE BLANKS
14. In optical communication system, the light detector is --------------------

15. Numerical aperture represents _______ capacity of a optical fibre.
16. In optical fibres mode means ________ available for light rays to propagate in the fibre.
17. The refractive index of the core is -------------------------
18. In step-index fibers the refractive index at the interface of core and cladding changes-----
19. In graded index fibers, the signals travel in a -----------------
20. Pickout the losses present in the fiber optical communication system--------------
21. If the angle of incidence at the interface of the core and air is exactly equal to acceptance angle
then the ray travels---------------------
22. In fiber optical fiber communication systems, electric signals are converted into optical signals
by-----------------
23. The N.A. is related to Refraction induction of core (n 1) and refraction induction of clad (n2) . N.A.
of the fiber in terms n1 and n2 is ---------------------
24. For the total internal reflection to take place along the fiber, the essential condition is -----
25. Maximum acceptance angle value will be large when -----------------------
26. n1 and n2 is 1.68 and 1.44 . The maximum acceptance angle is ---------------------
UNIT – IV
CRYSTALLOGRAPHY

1. Define the terms (a) lattice (b) Unit cell (c) Basis d)lattice parameters
2. Distinguish between simple cubic, FCC and BCC structures and find their packing fractions.
3. What are the different crystal systems
4. Define the terms (a) atomic radius (b) coordination number (c) packing factor
5. What are miller indices.
6. Draw the crystal planes with miller indices (110) and (001).
7. Calculste the ratio d100: d110: d111 for a simple cubic structure.
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1. Deduce the expression for the inter planner distance in terms of Miller indices for a simple
cubic structure.
2. Describe the structure of diamond and deduce the packing density for Diamond structure.
3. Describe the seven crystal systems with neat diagrams?
4. Explain Bravais lattice of crystal systems.
5. Show that FCC crystals are closely packed structure compared to SC and BCC structures.
CRYSTALLOGRAPHY
UNIT -IV
1. The no. of families of directions existing in a crystal.

(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 2
2. The formula for angle between two crystal directions [h 1 k1 l1] and [h2 k2 l2] of a simple cubic
system ......................
3. Calculate the angle between [111], [011] directions in a cubic system.
4. What are the rules to obtain miller indices of a plane?
5. In a crystal, a plane cuts intercepts at 2a, 3b, and 6c along the three
crystallographic axes. Determine the miller indices of the plane.
6. The value of cos2  + cos2 + cos2  is
(a)2 (b) -1 (c) 0 (d) 1
7. There are ----- basic crystal systems
8. Three b) four c) six d) seven
9. The coordination number For SC is ----
a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 4
10. The number of lattice points in Primitive cell are ---
a) 4 b) 2 c) 8 d) 1
11. Atomic packing factor for SC is --
a ) 0.68 b) 0.74 c) 1.00 d ) 0.52
12. The coordination number for BCC ----
a)6 b) 8 c ) 12 d ) 4
13. The example for SC structure is -
a) silver b) Pollonium C) zinc d) diamond.
14. The crystal structure of sodium is -----
a)SC b) BCC c) FCC d) HCP
15. The crystal structure of Silicon is ----
a)Diamond cube b) BCC c) FCC d) HCP
16. The crystal structure of Magnesium is ----
a)Diamond cube b) BCC c) FCC d) HCP
FILL IN THE BLANKS
17. Give two examples of ionic crystals (a) ___________ (b) ___________
17. The distance when energy is minimum is called the ......................
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18. The minimum energy is called ......................
19. The energy required to remove two atoms into an infinite separation is called
20. In metallic bonds there is attraction between the lattice of ion cores and the ............
21. Diamond is an example of ...................... bond.
22. Secondary bonds result of ................. Attractions
23. Lithium hydride is an example of __________ Crystal.
24. The number of nearest equidistant neighbours that an atom has in a unit cell is called...................
25. Atomic radius is ................. The distance between the nearest neighbouring atoms in a crystal.
26. Packing factor is the ratio of .................
27. The unit cell of a simple cube has atoms only at ................. Of the cube.
28. The coordination number of BCC structure is .................
29. The geometrical features of a crystal, which are represented by lattice points, are
called......................
30. A notation conventionally used to describe lattice points, directions and planes is known
as ..................
31. Total number of crystal systems are ------
32. Total number of space lattices possible ice are ----
33. Lattices + ------------ = crystal structure
34. Iron belongs to ---------- structure
35. Cubic crystal system has ------------------- Bravies lattices
36. Packing factor for SC is--------------
37.
UNIT-V
X-RAY DIFFRACTION AND DEFECTS IN CRYSTALS
1. Derive Bragg’s Law of X-ray diffraction.

2. Explain the significance of burger’s vector.
3. What are the applications of X-ray diffraction
4. What are point defects?
5. What are Edge and Screw dislocations?
6. What are Frenkel and Schottky imperfections.
7. What is meant by Stacking faults?
8. Explain twin boundary in a crystal.
9. A beam of x rays is incident on an ionic crystal with lattice spacing 0.313 nm.
Calculate the wavelength of x rays if the first order Braggs reflection takes place at a glancing
angle of 7˚48 ̍ .
10. Lattice constant of copper is 0.38 nm.Calculate the distance between (110) planes.

1. Describe powder method of X-ray diffraction technique to determine the crystal structure.
2. Explain the Frenkel defect and derive the equation of frenkel defect to create energy vacancy.
3. Describe Laue method of X-ray diffraction technique to determine the crystal structure.
4. Discuss the schottky defect in the case of ionic crystals.
5. State and explain Bragg’s law.
6. Write a notes on defects in the crystals?
7. Write a notes on (a).line defects (b) volume defects
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8. (a) What is Burger’s vector?Explain.
(b) Explain (a) An edge dislocation. (b) screw dislocation.
X-RAY DIFFRACTION & DEFECTS IN CRYSTALS
UNIT-V
1. The wave length associated with a moving particle

a. depends upon the charge associated with it.
b. Does not depend upon the charge associated with it.
c. Depends upon the medium in which the particle travels.
d. None of these.
1. A proton and -particle has the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the -particle is four
times that of a proton, how do their de Broglie wave length compare ?
a) p = /2 b) p = /4
c) p = 2 d) p = 4
2. Because of which property of the crystals, x-rays can be diffracted from the crystals.
a. random arrangements of atoms
b. colour of the crystals
c. periodic array of atoms
d. none of these
3. An electron, neutron and proton have the same de Broglie wave lenths; which particle has
greater velocity ?
a) electron b) proton c) neutron
4. x-rays consist of
a. negatively charged particles
b. electromagnetic radiation.
c. Positively charged particles
d. A stream of neutrons
5. x-rays are produced when an element of high atomic weight is bambarded by high energy
a) protons b) photons c) neutrons d) electrons
6. If 50 kV is the applied potential in an x-ray tube, then the minimum wavelength of x-

rays produced is
a) 0.2 nm b) 2 nm c) 0.2 A  d) 2 A
7. As the wavelength of x-rays is smaller than that of visible light, the speed of x-rays in
vacuum is
a. same as that of visible light
b. larger than that of visible light
c. smaller that that of visible light
8. If the Fermi energy of silver at OK is 5 electron volt, the mean energy of electron in silver at
OK is
a) 6 electron volt b) 12 electron volt
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c) 1.5 electron volt d) 3 electron volt
9. If the Fermi energy of a metal is 1.4 electron volt, the Fermi temperature of the metal is
approximately.
a) 1.6 × 103K b) 1.6 × 104K
5
c) 1.6 × 10 K d) 1.6 × 106K
10. E1 is the lowest energy value of the electron in a one dimensional potential box of side a and
E2 is the lowest energy value of the electron in a cubical box of side a/2, then E 2/E1 is
a) 12 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2
11. Crystal defects are :

a) point and line defects b) surface defects
c) volume defects d) all
12. Point defects are :
a) lattice site defects b) compositional defects
c) electronic defects d) all
13. Electrical charge neutrality is maintained in :
a) Schottky defect b) Frenkel defect c) Both a and b d) none
14. Schottky defect may exist in :
a) NaCl crystal b) KCl crystal c) KBr crystal d) all
15. Substitutional defect and interstitial impurity defect belong to :
a) Compositional defect b) Schottky defect
c) Frenkel defect d) lattice site defects
16. Non-uniformity of charge or energy distribution in the crystal is referred to as :
a) point defect b) electronic defect
c) Schottky defect d) Frenkel defect
17. Point defects in crystals are formed by :
a) thermal fluctuations b) Large deformation
c) bombarding with high energetic particles d) all
18. Edge dislocation and screw dislocation belong to :
a) electronic defect b) compositional defects
c) line defects d) point defects
19. If the incomplete plane is below the slip plane, then the edge dislocation is :
a) Positive b) negative c) both a and b d) none
20. In edge dislocation, the Burger’s vector is _________ to the dislocation line.
a) parallel b) at an angle of 450
c) Perpendicular d) at an angle of 600
21. If Ev is the energy required to form a vacancy in the crystal containing ‘N’ atoms at temperature
‘T0, the number of vacancies in the crystal is [KB = Boltzmann constant]
  EV    K BT 
   
K T EV 
a) N exp  B  b) N exp 
 EV    EV 
   
K T 2K BT 
c) N exp  B  d) N exp 
FILL IN THE BLANKS

22. X-ray powder method is usually carried for ________ materials.
a) Polycrystalline b) Powder
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c) single crystal d) amorphous
23. Using powder diffraction ___________ of a crystal can be determined.
a) the interatomic spacing b) the interplanar spacing
c) both a and b d) none
24. In powder method, _______chromatic X-rays are used.
a) mono b) Poly
c) both a and b d) none
25. In Laue method, __________X-rays are used.
a) monochromatic b) white c) both a and b d) none
26. X-rays consist of ------------
27. X-rays are produced when an element of high atomic weight is bombarded by high energy-
29.Line defects are -------------- dimensional imperfections.
28. Schottkey defect is a -----------------
29. Edge disclocation is a -------------\
30. Screw disclocation is a ----------
31. Line imperfections are called -----------
32. Frenkel defects are -----------------
33. Twin boundary is a ---------------------
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Syllabus
UNIT-I
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Introduction to Mechanics: Basic Concepts, system of Forces Coplanar Concurrent Forces - Components in
Space Resultant -Moment of Forces and its Application - Couples and Resultant of Force Systems. Equilibrium of
system of Forces: Free body diagrams, Equations of Equilibrium of Coplanar Systems and Spatial Systems.
UNIT-II
Friction: Types of friction -Limiting friction -Laws of Friction -static and Dynamic Frictions - Motion of Bodies –
Wedge Screw, Screw-jack and differential screw –jack.
UNIT-III
Centroid and Center of Gravity: Introduction – Centroids of lines – Centroids of area - Centroids of Composite
figures - Theorem of Pappus -Centre of Gravity of Bodies – Centroids of Volumes – Center of gravity of composite
bodies.
Area moments of Inertia: Introduction – Definition of Moment of Inertia -Polar Moment of Inertia – Radius of
gyration. Transfer Theorem for moment of inertia – Moments of inertia by integration - Moments of Inertia of
Composite Figures, Product of Inertia, Transfer Formula for Product of Inertia.
UNIT-IV
Mass Moment of Inertia: Introduction - Moment of Inertia of Masses – Radius of gyration - Transfer Formula for
Mass Moments of Inertia – Mass moments of inertia by integration - Mass moment of inertia of composite bodies.
Virtual Work: Theory of virtual work-Application.
UNIT-V
Kinetics: Kinetics of a particle-D’Alemberts principle-Motion in a curved path – work, energy and power.
Principle of conservation of energy- Kinetics of rigid body in translation, rotationwork done-Principle of work-
energy-Impulse-momentum.
Mechanical Vibrations: Definitions, Concepts-Simple Harmonic motion- free vibrations- Simple and compound
pendulums
UNIT-I
1.
According to principle of conservation of energy, the total momentum of a system of masses in any direction
remains constant unless acted upon by an external force in that direction.
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A.True
B.False
2.
The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as
A.rolling friction
B.dynamic friction
C.limiting friction
D.static friction
3.
Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the ball with velocity v is
made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a velocity
A.V
B.v/2
C.v/4
D.v/8
4.
The term 'force' may be defined as an agent which produces or tends to produce, destroys or tends to destroy
motion.
A.Agree
B.Disagree
5.
The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one.
A.Correct
B.Incorrect
6.
The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle θ to the horizontal and weight being pulled up the
inclined plane by vertical effort is
A.sin θ
B.cos θ
C.tan θ
D.cosec θ
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7.
The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range on upward inclined plane for the
same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
A.less than
B.more than
C.equal to
8.
The angle of inclination of a vehicle when moving along a circular path __________ upon its mass.
A.Depends
B.does not depend
9.
The polygon law of forces states that if a number of forces, acting simultaneously on a particle, be represented in
magnitude and direction by the sides a polygon taken in order, then their resultant is represented in magnitude
and direction by the closing side of the polygon, taken in opposite direction.
A.Correct
B.Incorrect
10.
If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle between the
two forces is
A.30°
B.60°
C.90°
D.120°
11. The weight of a body is due to ---

12. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of-- VlOkg and when
acting at 60� produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are--
13. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in--
14. Which is not the unit of pressure--
15. Which is not the unit of work, energy and heat—
16. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in----
17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ----
18. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions-----
19. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is------
10. 20. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as-------
Short questions;
1. Define Force & Explain the System of Forces?

2. What do you mean by Free-Body Diagram?
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3. What is couple? State its characteristics?
4. State and Explain Parallelogram Law of Forces?
5. State and Explain Law of Transmissibility of Forces?
6. State and Explain Varignon’s Theorem?
7. State and Explain Lami’s Theorem?
8. Explain the term Unit Vector & Position Vector?
9. Define the moment of force about a point? Write an expression in the vector form?
10. What are the conditions of equilibrium for concurrent and non-concurrent force system.
11. Define parallelogram law of forces and give mathematical formulae
12. Explain in brief free body diagrams.
13. State triangle law and explain Lami’s theorem.
14. Define the law of polygon of forces.
15. Define moment of a couple. Give at least five examples where effect of couple is realized
16. Define equilibrium of a body and give conditions of equilibrium when subjected to forces.
17. Two coplanar forces act towards a point with an angle of 450 between them. If their resultant is 100kN and one of
the forces is 20kN calculate the other force.
18. Two forces act at an angle of 1200. The bigger forces is 60N and the resultant is perpendicular to the smaller one.
Find the smaller force.
19. Two equal forces 10N each act at right angles to each other. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant if
that produces the same effect as the two forces.
20. A Single force of 10 N is resolved into two concurrent forces f 6 N each. Find the angle between them.
ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. Determine the horizontal and vertical components of a force of 150N acting on a body at an angle of 120 0 with
horizontal?
2. The Horizontal and vertical components of a given force are 120N and 80N respectively. Find the Magnitude and
direction of a given force?
3. Three Forces of magnitudes 40KN, 15KN, and 20KN are acting at a point O as shown in fig. The angles made by
40KN, 15KN, 20KN forces with X- axis are 60 0 , 1200, 2400 respectively determine the magnitude and direction
of Resultant Force?
4. A Block weighing W=10kN is resting on an inclined plane as shown in the figure Determine its components
normal and parallel to its inclined plane?
5. A Sphere weighing 100N is tied to a smooth wall by a string as shown in the figure. Find the tension T in the string
and the reaction R from the wall.
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6. Determine the magnitude, direction and position of resultant of system of forces as shown in figure.
7. Two forces P and Q are acting on a body as shown in the figure. Determine the magnitude of resultant.
8. Determine force P and Y component of P, if X component of P is 893N. Refer the figure given below.
9. The resultant of two forces one of which is double the other is 260N. If the direction of the larger force is
reversed and the other remains unchanged, the resultant reduces to 180N.
Determine the magnitude of the forces and angle between them.
10. An Electric light fixture weighs 30N hangs from a point 'O' by two strings OA and OB as shown in figure.
Determine the forces in the string.
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11. A circular roller of radius 5cm and of weight 100N rests on a smooth horizontal surface and is held in position by
an inclined bar AB of length 10cm as shown in fig. A horizontal pull force of 200N is acting at B. Find the tension
in the bar AB and the vertical reaction at C (under equilibrium condition).
12. Two identical rollers each of weight Q=100N are supported by an inclined plane and a vertical wall as shown in fig
4. Assuming smooth surfaces. Find the reactions induced at the points of support A, B, C.
13. A Ball of weight W rests upon a smooth horizontal plane and has attached to its centre two strings AB and AC
which pass over frictionless pulleys at B and C carry loads P and Q respectively, as shown in figure. If the string
AB is horizontal, find the angle  that the string AC makes with the horizontal when the ball is in a position of
equilibrium. Also find the pressure R between the ball and the plane.
14. A roller of weight 100N rests on a smooth inclined plane and is kept from rolling down by string AC as shown in
the figure. Find the tension S in the string and reaction R b at the point of contact B.
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15. A ball of weight Q = 12N rests in a right angled trough as shown in the figure. Determine the forces exerted in the
sides of the trough at D and E if all surfaces are perfectly smooth.
16. Find the reactions Ra and Rb induced at the supports A and B of the right angled bar ACB supported as shown in
the figure and subjected to a vertical load P applied at the midpoint of AC.
17. A Simply supported beam of 6m span is subjected to a point load of 2kN at a distance of 1.5m from A as shown in
the figure and a triangular load with zero intensity at 2m from A increasing to 3kN per m at a point 5m from A.
Determine the reactions at the supports A and B.
18. Two spheres each of weight 50N and of radius 10cm rest in a horizontal channel of width 36cm as shown in fig .
Find the reactions at the points of contact A, B and C.
19. Two smooth circular cylinders each of weight 1000N and of radius 15cm are connected at their centres by a string
AB of length 40cm and rest upon a horizontal plane, supporting above them a third cylinder of weight 2000N and
radius 15cm as shown in fig. Find the force S in the string AB and the reactions produced on the
Floor at the points of contact D an E.
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20. Four parallel Forces of magnitudes 100N, 200N, 50N, 400N are acting as shown in fig. determine the magnitude of
the resultant and also the distance of the resultant from point A.
UNIT- II
1.
If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are doubled, then the acceleration in the string
will be
A.Same
B.Half
C.Double
2.
The loss of kinetic energy during inelastic impact, is given by(where m1 = Mass of the first body,m2 = Mass of
the second body, and u1 and u2 = Velocities of the first and second bodies respectively.)
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A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
The centre of gravity of a hemisphere lies at a distance of 3r / 8 from its base measured along the vertical radius.
A.Correct
B.Incorrect
4.
The above figure shows the three coplaner forces P, Q and R acting at a point O. If these forces are in
equilibrium, then
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having width (b) and depth (d) about an axis passing through its C.G.
and parallel to the depth (d), is
82 | P a g e
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
The polygon law of forces states that if a number of forces, acting simultaneously on a particle, be represented in
magnitude and direction by the sides a polygon taken in order, then their resultant is represented in magnitude
and direction by the closing side of the polygon, taken in opposite direction.
A.Correct
B.Incorrect
7.
A smooth cylinder lying on a __________ is in neutral equilibrium.
A.curved surface
B.convex surface
C.horizontal surface
8.
The velocity of a particle (v) moving with simple harmonic motion, at any instant is given by(where r =
Amplitude of motion, and y = Displacement of the particle from mean position.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
Varingon's theorem of moments states that if a number of coplaner forces acting on a particle are in
equilibrium, then
A.their algebraic sum is zero
B.their lines of action are at equal distances
C.the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant force about the
D.
same point.
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10.
A block ot mass 20 kg lying on a rough horizontal plane is connected by a light string passing over a smooth
pulley to another mass 5 kg, which can move freely in the Vertical direction, as shown in the below figure. The
tension in the string will __________ with the increase in coefficient of friction.
A.Increase
B.Decrease
C.not be effected
11. If a suspended body is struck at the center of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing through the point
of suspension will be------
12. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected-----
13. The center of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be----
14. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle) applied in
the direction---
15. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will be
16. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to---
17. Coulomb friction is the friction between---
18. Angle oT friction is the----
19. Coefficient of friction is the----
20. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is----
2 Mark Questions
1. Write about Sliding & Rolling Friction.

2. What is wedge? State its purpose.
3. Define angle of friction & Coefficient of friction
4. What is magnitude of force required to pull body on a rough horizontal surface.
5. What is limiting friction. Explain.
6. What are the laws of friction.
7. A Block of weight 20N rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 degree with horizontal.The co-
efficient of friction between the block and the plane is 0.7.find the frictional force.
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8. A body weighing 400 N is on rough horizontal plane by a pull of 180 N acting at an angle of 30 degree with
horizontal. Find the co-efficient of friction
9. Find the effort required to move a load of 10KN up the plane of 30 0 angle, Coefficient of friction is 0.26. The effort
is applied parallel to the plane
10. A load of 2500N is to be raised by a screw jack with a screw helix angle of 3 0. Find the effort required if the
coefficient of friction between screw and nut is 0.025.
11. A block of weight W=400N is resting on an inclined plane . Find the least value of Force P which makes an angle
of 300 with the horizontal. Take coefficient of friction as 0.3.
12. What are the effects of friction?
13. State the laws of solid friction ?
14. What do you understand by the limiting friction? And define angle of repose.
15. Derive the least inclined force required to drag body resting on a horizontal plane in terms of weight of
the body, angle of the inclined force and angle of friction.
16. What is the principle of a screw jack?
17. Derive an expression for the effort required to move a body up aninclined plane when the effort is parallel to the
plane.
18. Draw a neat sketch of a screw jack and mark salient parts on it.
19. A load of 2500N is to be raised by a screw jack with a screw helix angle of 3 0. Find the effort required if the
coefficient of friction between screw and nut is 0.025.
20. A block of weight W=400N is resting on an inclined plane . Find the least value of Force P which makes an angle
of 300 with the horizontal. Take coefficient of friction as 0.3.
10 Mark Questions
1. A ladder 5m long and 250N weight is placed against a vertical wall in a position where its inclination to the
vertical is 300 . A Man weighing 800N climbs the ladder. At what position will he induce slipping? The coefficient
of friction for both the contact surfaces of the ladder i.e. with the wall and floor is 0.2.
2. Two blocks of weight W1 and W2 rest on a rough inclined plane and are connected by a short
piece of string . If the coefficients of friction are µ1 = 0.2 and µ2 = 0.3, respectively, find the angle of
inclination of the plane for which slipping will impend. Assume W1=W2=50N.
3. Derive the expression for max efficiency of screw jack.
4. Find the effort required to i) to raise a load W up the plane ii) to lower the Load W. the effort is applied at the
end of handle.
5. A body is subjected to a force F as shown in figure . If x component of force is 600 N, find the component
perpendicular to the plane.
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6. Two blocks A and B are placed on a plane. The weights of A and B are 800N and 400N respectively. The
coefficient of friction between block A and plane is 0.3 and that between block B and plane is 0.2. To what angle θ
the plane should be raised so that bodies start slipping down the plane as shown in below figure
7. F ind the effort required to apply at the end of a handle, fitted to the screw head of screw-jack to lift a load of
1500N. The length of the handle is 70cm. The mean diameter and the pitch of the screw-jack are 6cm and 0.9cm
respectively. The coefficient of friction is given as 0.095. If instead of raising the load of 1500N, the same load is
lowered, determine the effort required to apply at the end of handle.
8. Define the following
i. Friction
ii. Angle of friction
iii. Limiting friction
iv. Cone of friction
(b) A ladder 5m long and of 250N weight is placed against a vertical wall in a position where its inclination to the
vertical is 300. A man weighing 800N climbs the ladder. At what position will he induce slipping? The coefficientof
friction for both the contact surfaces of the ladder viz. with the wall and the floor is 0.2
9. Calculate the magnitude of the clockwise couple M required to turn the 50kg cylinder in the
supporting block as shown in the figure 2. The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.3
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10. a)Give four applications of friction.
b) With a neat sketch of screw jack derive the force required to apply at the end of the lever of a screw jack
to raise and lower a weight of W Newton.
11. Obtain an equation for the length of the belt in an open belt drive
A ladder 6m long and with 300N weight is resting against a wall at an angle of 60 to the ground. A man
weighing 750N climbs the ladder.
12. At what position along the ladder from bottom does he induce slipping? The coefficient of friction for both
wall and the ground with ladder is 0.2.
13. Derive a relation for the efficiency of a screw jack, taking friction into account
14. An open belt running over two pulleys 1200 mm and 500 mm diameters connects two parallel shafts 4000 mm
a part. The tension in the belt is 1830 N. Coefficient of friction between the belt and the pulley is 0.3.The
driven pulley of 1200 mm diameter runs at 200 rpm. Determine
15. a) Power transmitted
b) torque on each of two shafts
16. a) Derive an expression for length of crossed belt drive

b) A ladder 5m long weighing 200N leans against a smooth vertical wall at an angle of 600 with horizontal. A
man weighing 700N stands at mid-height of ladder when it is about to slip. Calculate the coefficient of friction
between the ladder and ground
17. a) Draw a neat sketch of simple screw jack and derive an expression for minimum effort required to raise a
load
b) Find the effort required at the end of the lever 300mm long of a screw jack, the mean diameter of the
screw is 26mm, load acting is 10KN, helical angle is 150, and coefficient of friction between screw and nut is
0.22.
18. a)What is angle of repose? Prove that angle of rep se is equal to the angle of friction.
b) A shaft running at 100 rpm drives another shaft at 200 rpm and transmits 12kW. The belt is 100 mm wide
and 12mm thick and coefficient of friction is 0.25. the distance between the shaft is 2.5 m and the diameter f
smaller pulley is 500 mm.
19. Calculate the stress in (i) an open belt and (ii) crossed belt, connecting two pulleys
20. An open belt running over two pulleys 1200 mm and 500 mm diameters connects two parallel shafts 4000 mm
a part. The tension in the belt is 1830 N. Coefficient of friction between the belt and the pulley is 0.3.The
driven pulley of 1200 mm diameter runs at 200 rpm. Determine
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UNIT- III
1.
The velocity ratio of a simple wheel and axle with D and d as the diameters of effort wheel and load axle, is
A.D + d
B.D – d
C.D x d
D.D / d
2.
The unit of force in S.I. system of units is
A.Dyne
B.Kilogram
C.Newton
D.Watt
3.
The moment of inertia of a solid cone of mass m and base radius r about its vertical axis is
A.3mr2/5
B.3mr2/10
C.2mr2/5
D.4mr2/5
4.
A body is said to move or vibrate with simple harmonic motion if its acceleration is directed towards the mean
position.
A.True
B.False
5.
A ladder is resting on a rough ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall. The force of friction will act
A.downward at its upper end
B.upward at its upper end
C.zero at its upper end
D.perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
6.
Joule is the unit of
88 | P a g e
A.Force
B.Work
C.Power
D.Velocity
7.
The force induced in the string AB due to the load W, as shown in the below figure is
A.W sin θ
B.W cos θ
C.W sec θ
D.W cosec θ
8.
A spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axis. According to Routh's rule, the moment of inertia of
a body about an axis passing through its centre of gravity is(where, M = Mass of the body, and S = Sum of the
squares of the two semi-axes.)
A.MS/3
B.MS/4
C.MS/5
D.none of these
9.
The three forces of 100 N, 200 N and 300 N have their lines of action parallel to each other but act in the
opposite directions. These forces are known as
A.coplaner concurrent forces
B.coplaner non-concurrent forces
C.like parallel forces
D.unlike parallel forces
10.
The efficiency of a lifting machine is the ratio of
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A.output to the input
B.work done by the machine to the work done on the machine
C.mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio
D.all of the above
11. Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of---
12. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called---
13. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of
the remainder from the center of circular plate---
14. Centre of percussion is---
15. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an imaginary
section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than---
16. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction---
17.The units of moment of inertia of an area are---
18. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to---
19. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small approaches the
following curve---
20. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are---
2 Mark Questions
1. Differentiate between centroid and centre of gravity.
2. State Theorems of Pappus.
3. Locate the centroid of a right angle triangle of Base 30mm and height 40mm W.r.to X and Y axes.
4. Find the centroid of a uniform wire bent in the form of a quadrant of the arc of a circle of radius r.
5. Derive the expression for centroid of a Rectangle of base b and height h fro First principles.
6. Derive the expression Y coordinate of centroid of a Triangle of base b and height h.
7. What is perpendicular axis theorem.
8. What is parallel axis theorem.
9. Find the centroid of a T section of flange 150X20 and web 20X100.
10. Find the centre of gravity of a right circular cone of base 40mm diameter and height 60mm.
11. Determine Y coordinate of centre of gravity of hemisphere of diameter 50mm.
12.An I- section is made up of top flange, 80 X 20 mm web 120 X 20 mm and bottom flange 100
13. Find the centroid of the shaded area as shown in fig
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14. The corner of the plate is cut off and a hole of diameter 50mm is punched as shown in fig. The centre
of a circle is at a distance of 50mm from left and bottom edges of the plate. Locate the position of
centroid.
15. Find the Moment of Inertia of shaded area about the axis AB.
16. Determine the moment of inertia of semi-circle of radius r from first principles.
17. Derive the expression for centroid of Rectangle of base b and height h from First principles.
18. Derive the expression Y coordinate of centroid of a Triangle of base b and height h.
19. What is perpendicular axis theorem.
20. Derive the expression for centroid of a Rectangle of base b and height h fromFirst principles
10 Mark Questions
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1. Locate the centroid of the composite area a shown in fig.
2. Locate the centroid of the shaded portion as shown in fig
3. Locate the centroid of the shaded area as shown in fig.
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4. Find the Moment of Inertia about the horizontal centrodal axis as shown in fig.
5. Find the moment of inertia of section about centroidal X axis and Y axis as shown in fig.
6. Find the M. I of the section about the centroidal X-X and Y-Y axis
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7. Locate the centroid of plane area as shown in fig.
8. Find the centroid of shaded area as shown in fig
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9.Determine the co-ordinates of the C.G. of the area OAB, if the curve AB is represented by the equation (x 2/a2)+
(y2/b2)=1 as shown in below figure
10. a) Find the Centre of gravity of the “T “lamina as shown in figure. All dimensions are in mm
b) Determine the coordinates of centroid of the shaded area as shown in figure, if the area removed is
semicircular. All dimensions are in mm.
11. a) Find the Centre of gravity of the “T “lamina as shown in figure. All dimensions are in mm
b) Determine the coordinates of centroid of the shaded area as shown in figure, if the area removed is
semicircular. All dimensions are in mm
12. a) Find the centroid of the plane lamina shown in _Figure
B)Find the centroid of the plane lamina shown in Figure
13. a) Find the centroid of the shaded plane area shown in figure.
b) Uniform lamina shown in fig consists of rectangle, a semi-circle and a triangle. Find the Centre of gravity.
14. a) State and prove parallel axis theorem of area moment of inertia.
b) Find the moment of inertia for the shaded area parallel to x –axis. As shown in the Figure
15. a) State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.
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b) Find the moment of inertia of the area in the given figure about the axis ‘AB’
16. Determine the moment of Inertia of a triangle with respect to its centroid AL x axis parallel to the base.
17. Find the moment of the inertia of the section shown in the figure 5 about horizontal and vertical centroid AL axes.
All dimension in cm R = 8.
18. a) Find the moment of inertia about the horizontal centroid AL axis of shaded portion for the Figure
b) Determine the moment of inertia of the inverted T-section shown in figure about an axis passing through the
centroid of the section and perpendicular to the stemDerive an expression for the moment of inertia of a circular ring
of uniform cross section of radius ‘R’ about its diametrical axis
19. Derive an expression for the moment of inertia of a circular plate of radius ‘R’ and thickness ‘t’ about its centroid AL
axis
20. Determine the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of radius ‘R’about its diametrical axis.
UNIT-IV
1.
When a body of mass moment of inertia I (about a given axis) is rotated about that axis with an angular velocity
to, then the kinetic energy of rotation is
A.Iω
B.Iω2
C.0.5Iω
D.0.5Iω2
2.
The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to produce an acceleration of 5 m/s 2, is
A.20N
B.100N
C.500N
D.none of these
3.
The motion of the body from one extremity to the other is known as a beat.
A.Agree
B.Disagree
4.
The centre of gravity of a rectangle lies at a point where its two diagonals meet each other.
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A.Agree
B.Disagree
5.
A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members are __________ (2j - 3), where j is the number of joints.
A.equal to
B.less than
C.greater than
D.either (b) or (c)
6.
Moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section as shown in the below figure about X-X axis, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
Two equal and opposite parallel forces whose lines of action are different, can be replaced by a single force
parallel to the given forces.
A.Correct
B.Incorrect
8.
All the steel trusses of the bridges, have one of their end roller supported, and other end hinged. The main
advantage of such a support is that the truss remains stable.
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A.True
B.False
9.
The time of flight of a projectile on downward inclined plane depends upon
A.angle of projection
B.angle of inclination of the plane
C.both (a) and (b)
D.none of these
10.
The force induced in the string BC due to the load W as shown in the below figure is
A.W sin θ
B.W cos θ
C.W tan θ
D.W cot θ
11. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a fixed
point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one---
12. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order---
13. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in---
14. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its M.I. about
horizontal axis is----
15. Which of the following is not the unit of energy----
16. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another surface is
called-----
17. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly equal
to-----
18. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r----------
19. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows---------
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20. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is--------
2 Mark Questions
1. Find the moment of inertia of a rectangle of base b and height h about its centroidal X axes and Y axes.
2. Find the mass moment of inertia of a rectangular plate of size a X b and thickness t about its centroidal axes.
3. What is virtual work and Virtual displacement?
4. Explain the concept of virtual work with examples.
5. What is transfer formula of Mass M.I.
6. What is Radius of gyration? Explain in brief.
7. Find the mass moment of inertia of sphere of radius r from first principles.
8. A homogeneous body consisting of solid cone of base dia 50mm and height 60 mm is kept on a solid hemisphere
of base dia 50mm. Locate the Centre of gravity of composite body.
9. State and prove parallel axis theorem of mass M.I.
10. Derive the expression for Mass M.I of Cone. A cube of side 400mm has a mas density of 2000kg/m3. Find the
mass M.I of the Cone about its centroid AL axis parallel to one of its sides.
11. A cylinder of diameter 500mm and height 1200mm has mass density of 8000kg/m3. Find the mass M.I of cylinder
with respect to the axis of the cylinder.
12. Find the radius of gyration of a solid square disc of side length 12cm.
13. Find the radius of gyration of a circular section of radius 300mm.
14. Define the terms velocity and acceleration
15. Define angular displacement angular velocity angular acceleration
16. A stone is thrown vertically upwards and returns in 5sec.How high does it go
17. A body falling freely under the action of gravity passes two points 9m apart vertically 0.2sec.from what height
above the higher point did it start to fall?
18. Explain the term recoil of gun. How will you find the velocity of the bullet?
19. Explain types of motion and distinguish between uniform motion and accelerated motion
20. A car weighing 18kn rounds a curve of 60mts radius banked at an angle of 300.find the frictional force acting on
the tires when the is travelling at 96.54kmph.the coefficient of friction between tires and road is 0.6.
10 Mark Questions
1. Determine the mass moment of inertia of a thin equilateral triangular plate of

mass ‘m’ and thickness ‘t’ about the axis perpendicular to the plane of the plate
and passing through the mass center. Base width= ‘b’ and height of vertex above
base= ‘h’. Density of material is ‘w’.
2. a) Show that the moment of inertia of a thin circular ring of mass ‘M’ and mean
radius ‘R’ with respect to its geometric axis is MR2.
(b) Find out the mass moment of inertia of a right circular cone of base radius ‘R’ and mass ‘M’ about the axis of
the cone.
3. A weight of 100 N is raised by two frictionless pulleys of the same diameter shown in
the figure 4. Determine the effort P required to hold the weight in equilibrium using
the method of virtual work
99 | P a g e
4. Determine the reactions at the supports by using principle of virtual work.
5. Referring to the figure Determine equilibrium positions as defined by angles ɵ1

and ɵ2 from the principle of virtual work.
6. a) Determine the reactions at the supports by using the principle of virtual work.
100 | P a g e
b) Determine the reactions at the supports by using the principle of virtual work.
7.A wheel rotating about a fixed axis at 20rpm is uniformly accelerated for 70seconds, during which time it
makes 50 revolutions. Find the a) angular velocity at the end of this interval and b) the time required for the speed
to reach 100 revolutions per minute.
8. A stone is dropped into a well while splash is heard after 4.5 seconds. Another stone is dropped with an initial
velocity, v and the splash is heard after 4 seconds. If the velocity of the sound is 336m/s, determine the initial
velocity of second stone.
9. A particle starts moving along a straight line with initial velocity of 25m/s, from O under a uniform acceleration
of -2.5m/s2. Determine.
i. Velocity, displacement and the distance travelled at t=5 sec.
ii. How long the particle moves in the same direction? What are its velocity, displacement and distance
covered then?
iii. The instantaneous velocity, displacement and the distance covered at t=15 sec,
iv. The time required to come back to O, vel city displacement and distance covered then and
v. Instantaneous velocity, displacement and distance c versed at t=25 sec.
10. Two stations P and Q are 5.2km apart. An aut m bile starts from rest from the station P and accelerates
uniformly to attain a speed of 48 kmph in 30 seconds. This speed is maintained until the brakes are applied. The
automobile comes to rest at the station Q with a uniform retardation of one meter per second. Determine the total
time required to cover the distance between these two stations.
101 | P a g e
11. A motorist is travelling at 90 kmph, when he observes a traffic light 250m ahead of him turns red. The traffic
light is timed to stay red for 12 sec. If the motorist wishes to pass the light without stopping, just as it turns green.
Determine
(i) The required uniform deceleration of motor and
(ii) The speed of the motor as it passes the traffic light.
12. Determine the time required for a car to travel 1km along a road if the car starts from rest, reaches a maximum
speed at some intermediate point, and then stops at the end of the road.The car can accelerate or decelerate at
1.5m/s2.
13. A ball is thrown from horizontal level, such that it clears a wall 6m high, situated at a horizontal distance of
35m. If the angle of projection is 600 with respect to the horizontal, what should be the minimum velocity of
projection?
14. A ball is thrown from top of building with speed 12m/s at angle of depression 300 with horizontal, strikes the
ground 11.3 m horizontally from foot of the building. Determine height of building.
15. An aero plane is flying in horizontal direction with a velocity of 540 km/hr and at a height of 2200 m. When it
is vertically above the point A on the ground, a body is dropped from it. The body strikes the ground at point B.
calculate the distance AB (ignore air resistance). Also find velocity at B and time taken to reach B.
16. A particle projected from a point A, with the angle of projection equal to 150 falls short of a mark B on
the horizontal plane through A by 22.5 and when the angle of projection is 450 if falls beyond B by same distance.
Show that for the particle to fall exactly at B, the angle of projection must be.
17. A body is projected at an angle such that its horizontal range is 3 times the maximum height. Find the angle of
projection.
18. A projectile is aimed at a target on the horizontal plane and falls 12 m short when the angle of projection is
150, while it overshoots by 24m when the angle is 450. Find the, angle of projection to hit the target.
19. Two stations P and Q are 5.2km apart. An aut m bile starts from rest from the station P and accelerates
uniformly to attain a speed of 48 kmph in 30 seconds. This speed is maintained until the brakes are applied. The
automobile comes to rest at the station Q with a uniform retardation of one meter per second. Determine the total
time required to cover the distance between these two stations
20. A motorist is travelling at 90 kmph, when he observes a traffic light 250m ahead of him turns red. The traffic
light is timed to stay red for 12 sec. If the motorist wishes to pass the light without stopping, just as it turns green.
UNIT-V
1.
The velocity ratio of a simple wheel and axle with D and d as the diameters of effort wheel and load axle, is
A.D + d
B.D – d
C.D x d
D.D / d
102 | P a g e
2.
The unit of force in S.I. system of units is
A.Dyne
B.Kilogram
C.Newton
D.Watt
3.
The moment of inertia of a solid cone of mass m and base radius r about its vertical axis is
A.3mr2/5
B.3mr2/10
C.2mr2/5
D.4mr2/5
4.
A body is said to move or vibrate with simple harmonic motion if its acceleration is directed towards the mean
position.
A.True
B.False
5.
A ladder is resting on a rough ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall. The force of friction will act
A.downward at its upper end
B.upward at its upper end
C.zero at its upper end
D.perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
6.
Joule is the unit of
A.Force
B.Work
C.Power
D.Velocity
103 | P a g e
7.
The force induced in the string AB due to the load W, as shown in the below figure is
A.W sin θ
B.W cos θ
C.W sec θ
D.W cosec θ
8.
A spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axis. According to Routh's rule, the moment of inertia of
a body about an axis passing through its centre of gravity is(where, M = Mass of the body, and S = Sum of the
squares of the two semi-axes.)
A.MS/3
B.MS/4
C.MS/5
D.none of these
9.
The three forces of 100 N, 200 N and 300 N have their lines of action parallel to each other but act in the
opposite directions. These forces are known as
A.coplaner concurrent forces
B.coplaner non-concurrent forces
C.like parallel forces
D.unlike parallel forces
10.
The efficiency of a lifting machine is the ratio of
A.output to the input
B.work done by the machine to the work done on the machine
C.mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio
D.all of the above
11. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a fixed point is
equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one---
104 | P a g e
12. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in-----
13.The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its M.I. about
horizontal axis is----
14. Which of the following is not the unit of energy-----
15. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
16. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to move down
is known as angle of-----
17. A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the lever of------
18. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then which is
correct statement about density of metal----------
19. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be--------
20. In ideal machines----------
2 Mark Questions
1. State and Explain Work-Energy Principle?

2. Define the terms work, Power and Energy?
3. Explain the following terms: Momentum, Impulse and Impulsive Force?
4. Define the term Coefficient of Restitution?
5. State the Principle of Conservation of Linear momentum of a Particle?
6. Define Simple Harmonic Motion and obtain the relation between velocity and displacement from the mean
position?
7. Define the following terms: Amplitude, Periodic Time and Frequency?
8. Define the term Free Vibration and Explain different types of Vibrations?
9. Derive the Expression for the Time period of a Simple Pendulum?
10. Derive the Expression for the Time period of a Torsional Pendulum?.
11. A Body of Mass 6 kg is moving with a velocity of 40m/s. What will be the Kinetic Energy?
12. A spring of Stiffness 10 N/mm is pulled from an extension of 1mm to an extension of 2mm. Calculate the work?
13. The Mass of Flywheel is 109 kg and its radius of gyration is 0.38m. Calculate the kinetic energy stored in when
rotating at 200 rev/min.
14. A Bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired into a target with a velocity of 650 m/s. The mass of the target is 7.5 kg which is
free to move. Find the common velocity of bullet and target.
15. A Body of mass, m1 is moving with a velocity of ‘u’ m/s collides with another body of mass, m 2 which is at rest.
After collision both the bodies move with common velocity, V. find the loss of K.E due to collision.
16. If a displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion is x = 0.3 sin(0.4t) metre, Find its Displacement and
velocity when t = 10 Seconds.
17. Find the Length of a simple pendulum to make (i) one complete oscillations per second (ii) half an oscillation per
second.
18. A Vertical Shaft 5 mm in diameter and 1m in length has its upper end fixed to the ceiling. At the lower end it
carries a rotor of diameter 200mm and weight 20N. The modulus of rigidity for the material of the rotor is 0.85 x
105 N/mm2. Calculate the frequency of torsional vibrations for the system.
19. A Weight of 10N attached to a spring oscillates at a frequency of 60 oscillations per minute. If the maximum
amplitude is 30mm, find the tension induced in the spring. Also find the spring constant and maximum velocity in
the spring.
20. Define ‘Simple Harmonic Motion’ and obtain the relation between velocity and displacement from the mean
position.
105 | P a g e
10 Mark questions
1. A projectile is fired from the edge of a 150m high cliff with an initial velocity of 180m/sec at an angle of elevation
of 300with the horizontal. Neglecting air resistance find i) the horizontal distance from the gun to the point where
the projectile strikes the ground. ii) The greatest elevation above the ground reached by the projectile.
2. Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are placed on two inclined planes of elevations ɵ 1 and ɵ2 and are connected by a
string. Find i) the acceleration of the masses ii) Tension in the string. The coeff of friction between both the blocks
and the planes is same and is µ. Assume the following numerical data M 1= 5kg, Ɵ1=300, M2= 10kg, Ɵ2=600 and
µ=0.33.
3. Two rough planes inclined at 300 and 600 to the horizontal and of the same height are placed back to back. Masses
of 12 kg and 30 kg are placed on the faces and connected by a string passing over the top of the planes. If μ= 0.6
find the velocity of the blocks when they travel a distance of 10m, starting from rest.
4. A stone is thrown from the top of a building upward at an angle of 40 0 with the horizontal with an initial speed of
30m/s. The height of the building above ground level is 30m. Determine
i. The horizontal distance from the point of projection to the point where the stone strikes the ground.
ii. The greatest height reached by the stone above the ground level.
iii. The velocity with which the stone strikes the ground
iv. Time of flight
5. Mass MA=25 kg rests on a rough inclined plane of angle 45 0 with coeff of friction µ=0.25. It is connected to
another Mass MB=50kg by a string as shown in fig. If the two masses are released from rest, Determine their
velocities after the mass MB descends a distance of 0.5m.
6. The step pulley shown in figure starts from rest and accelerates at 2rad/s 2.What time is required for block A to
move 20m. Find also the velocity of A and B at that time.
7. Differentiate between simple pendulum and compound pendulum.
106 | P a g e
b) A solid Aluminium sphere of 50 cm diameter is attached to the lower end of a 10 m long Aluminium rod of 5
cm diameter, the upper end of which is fixed. Find the period of this pendulum. Take G = 24 x 109 N/m2 and ρ =
27000 kg/m3 for aluminium.
8. a) Derive an expression for kinetic energy of a body rotating about a fixed axis
b)A bullet of mass 25gms moving horizontal with a velocity of 600m/s strikes a wooden block of mass 5Kg resting
on a rough horizontal surface. The bullet after striking the block remains buried in the block and both travels a
distance of 90cms before coming to rest. Determine: (a) average resistance between the block and horizontal
surface (b) coefficient of friction between block and horizontal surface.
9. a)Prove that the work done by body is equal to change in its kinetic energy
b)A hammer of mass 1500Kg drops from a height of 60cms on a pile of mass 750Kg. find (i) the common velocity
after impact assuming plastic impact (ii) average resistance of the ground the pile comes to rest after
penetrating 5cms in to the ground.
10. a) Define the law of conservation of momentum and prove it

b) A block of mass 5Kgs resting on a 300 inclined plane is released. The block after travelling a distance of
0.5m along the inclined plane hits a spring of stiffness 15N/cm. Find the maximum compression of the spring.
Assume coefficient of friction between the block and inclined plane is 0.2.
11. a) What is a simple pendulum? Derive an equation for the time period
b)Two blocks A and B are connected with the inextensible string as shown in figure. The system is released from
rest. Determine the velocity of block A after it has moved 1.5m. Assume the coefficient of friction between block A
and the plane is 0.25, masses of A and B are 200Kgs and 300Kgs respectively.
12. a) Explain mathematically the effect of variations in g (acceleration due to gravity) on the oscillations of a
simple pendulum b)A flywheel 50KN and having radius of gyration 1m lost it speed from 400rpm to 280rpm in 2
minutes. Calculate (i) torque acting on it (ii) change in Kinetic Energy (iii) change in angular momentum.
13. a) Derive the work energy equation for translation.
b) A man wishes to move a wooden box of 1m3 to a distance of 5m with least amount of work. If the block
weighs 1KN and coefficient of friction is 0.3, find whether he should tip it of slide it?
14. a) How a orsional pendulum differs from simple pendulum? Derive an expression for the time period of a
Torsional pendulum.
b) Determine the magnitude and the direction of the resultant of two forces 7 and 8 acting at a point with an
included angle of 60o with between them. The force of 7 N being horizontal
15. a) Define the term coefficient of restitution. State the principle of conservation of linear momentum of a
particle.
b) Determine the velocity of block B shown in figure after 5s staring from rest.
16. a) Define the following (i) Kinetic Energy (ii) Potential Energy.
b)Find the length of a seconds pendulum assuming the value of g as 9.81m/s2.
17. A man wishes to move wooden box of 1 metre cube to a distance of 5m with the least amount of work.
If the blck weighs 1 kN and the coefficient of friction is 0.3, find whether he should tip it or slide it.
18. A mass of 20kg is projected up an inclined of 260 with vel city of 4m/s. If μ=0.2
i.Find maximum distance that the package will m ve al ng the plane and
107 | P a g e
ii. What will be the velocity of the package when it comes back to initial position?
19. A body weighing 300 N is pushed up a 30 0 plane by a 400 N force acting parallel to the plane. If the
initial velocity of the body is 1.5 m/sec and coefficient of kinetic friction is μ=0.2, what velocity will the
body have after moving 6m?
20.Find the power of a locomotive, drawing a train whose weight including that of engine is 420 kN up an incline
1 in 120 at a steady speed of 56kmph, the frictional resistance being 5N/kN. While the train is ascending the
incline, the steam is shut off.Find how far it will move before coming to rest, assuming that the resistance to
motion remains the same.
EE106ES/EE205ES:
BASIC ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
Course Objectives:
 To introduce the concept of electrical circuits and its components
 To introduce the concepts of diodes & transistors, and
 To impart the knowledge of various configurations, characteristics and applications.
Course Outcomes: After this course, the student will be able
 To analyze and solve electrical circuits using network laws and theorems.
 To identify and characterize diodes and various types of transistors.
UNIT - I
Basic Concepts of Electrical Circuits and Single Phase AC Circuits
Electrical Circuits: R-L-C Parameters, Voltage and Current, Independent and Dependent
Sources, Source Transformation – V-I relationship for passive elements, Kirchoff’s Laws,
Network reduction techniques – series, parallel, series-parallel, star-to-delta, delta-to-star
transformation, Nodal Analysis,
Single Phase AC Circuits: R.M.S. and Average values, Form Factor, steady state analysis of
series, parallel and series-parallel combinations of R, L and C with sinusoidal excitation,
concept of reactance, impedance, susceptance and admittance – phase and phase difference,
Concept of power factor, j-notation, complex and polar forms of representation.
UNIT - II
Resonance: Series resonance and Parallel resonance circuits, concept of bandwidth and Q
factor, Locus Diagrams for RL, RC and RLC Combinations for Various Parameters.
Network Theorems: Thevenin’s, Norton’s, Maximum Power Transfer, Superposition,
Reciprocity, Tellegen’s, Millman’s and Compensation theorems for DC and AC excitations.
UNIT - III
P-N Junction Diode: Diode equation, Energy Band diagram, Volt-Ampere characteristics,
Temperature dependence, Ideal versus practical, Static and dynamic resistances, Equivalent
circuit, Load line analysis, Diffusion and Transition Capacitances.
Rectifiers and Filters: P-N junction diode as a rectifier - Half Wave Rectifier, Ripple Factor -
Full Wave Rectifier, Bridge Rectifier, Harmonic components in Rectifier Circuits, Filters –
Inductor Filters, Capacitor Filters, L- section Filters, π- section Filters.
UNIT - IV
Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT): Construction, Principle of Operation, Symbol,
Amplifying Action, Common Emitter, Common Base and Common Collector configurations.
Transistor Biasing And Stabilization - Operating point, DC & AC load lines, Biasing - Fixed
Bias, Emitter Feedback Bias, Collector to Emitter feedback bias, Voltage divider bias, Bias
stability, Stabilization against variations in VBE and β, Bias Compensation using Diodes and
Transistors.
Transistor Configurations: BJT modeling, Hybrid model, Determination of h-parameters
from transistor characteristics, Analysis of CE, CB and CC configurations using h-parameters,
108 | P a g e
Comparison of CE, CB and CC configurations.
UNIT- V
Junction Field Effect Transistor: Construction, Principle of Operation, Symbol, Pinch-Off
Voltage, Volt-Ampere Characteristic, Comparison of BJT and FET, Small Signal Model,
Biasing FET.
Special Purpose Devices: Breakdown Mechanisms in Semi-Conductor Diodes, Zener diode
characteristics, Use of Zener diode as simple regulator, Principle of operation and
Characteristics of Tunnel Diode (With help of Energy band diagram) and Varactor Diode,
Principle of Operation of SCR.
Text Books:
1. Basic Electrical and electronics Engineering –M S Sukija TK Nagasarkar Oxford

University
2. Basic Electrical and electronics Engineering-D P Kothari. I J Nagarath Mc Graw Hill
Education
References:
1. Electronic Devices and Circuits – R.L. Boylestad and Louis Nashelsky, PEI/PHI, 9th Ed,
2006.
2. Millman’s Electronic Devices and Circuits – J. Millman and C. C. Halkias, Satyabratajit,
TMH, 2/e, 1998.
3. Engineering circuit analysis- by William Hayt and Jack E. Kemmerly, McGraw Hill
Company, 6th edition.
4. Linear circuit analysis (time domain phasor and Laplace transform approaches)- 2nd
edition by Raymond A. DeCarlo and Pen-Min-Lin, Oxford University Press-2004.
5. Network Theory by N. C. Jagan & C. Lakshminarayana, B.S. Publications.
6. Network Theory by Sudhakar, Shyam Mohan Palli, TMH.UNIT -1
109 | P a g e
UNIT -1
PART-A (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1 State Kirchhoff’s voltage law and Kirchhoff’s current law?

2 Explain ideal voltage and current source?
3 Discuss the applications of both series and parallel combination?
4 Discuss resistor, capacitor, and inductor with relevant expression?
5 Explain the equations for resistors in equivalent delta. If the resistors
Ra, Rb and Rc are connected electrically in star?
6 State Ohm’s law?
7 Define RMS Value?
8 State advantages of alternating quantities?
9 Define form factor?
10 Define average Value?
11 Explain polar form and rectangular form?
12 Differentiate ac and dc quantities?
13 Define time period and frequency?
14 Define cycle and waveform?
PART – B (LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Explain two capacitors are connected in series then Ceq =(C1*C2)/(C1+C2)?

2. Explain derivation of star-delta conversion equations?
3. Explain derivation of delta-star conversion equations?
4. Explain in detail the volt-ampere relationship of R, L and C elemen with neat diagrams?
5. Explain about series and parallel networks of resistor?
6. Explain about series and parallel networks of inductor?
7. Explain classification of network elements?
8. Explain following terms:
i) Impedance ii) admittance iii) susceptance iv) conductance v)Power factor ?
Remember 7
9. Write about series RL circuit?
10. Write about series RC circuit?
11. Explain behavior of RLC Series circuit ?
12. Explain i) rectangular form ii) polar form ?
13.. Explain significance of J-Operator?
15 .Discuss what are the advantages of AC quantities?

16. Explain conversion from rectangular form to polar form?
17. Explain conversion from polar form to rectangular form?
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS:
110 | P a g e
1. Resistivity of a wire depends on
(a) length (b) material
(c) cross section area (d) none of the above
2. Two bulbs marked 200 watt-250 volts and 100 watt-250 volts are joined in
series to 250 volts supply. Power consumed in circuit is
(a) 33 watt (b) 67 watt
(c) 100 watt (d) 300 watt
3. A circuit contains two un-equal resistances in parallel
(a) current is same in both
(b) large current flows in larger resistor
(c) potential difference across each is same
(d) smaller resistance has smaller conductance
4. Conductance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohm/m (b) m/ohm
(c) mho/m (d) mho
5. Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ohms when in
series and 1 ohm when in parallel. The resistances are
(a) 3 ohms and 6 ohms (b) 3 ohms and 9 ohms
(c) 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms (d) 1.5 ohms and 0.5 ohms
6. When have three resistances of values 2, 3 and 6. Which of the following
combination will give an effective resistance of 4 ohms?
(a) All the three resistances in parallel
(b) 2 resistance in series with parallel combination of 3 ohm and 6 ohm
resistance
(c) 3 ohm resistance in series with parallel combination of 2 ohm and 6 ohm
resistance
(d) 6 ohm resistance in series with parallel combination of 2 ohm and 3 ohm
resistance.
7. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
(a) dc circuits (b) high currents
(c) small resistors (d) semi-conductors
8. Ohm’s law is not applicable in all the following cases Except
(a) Electrolytes (b) Arc lamps
(c) Insulators (d) Vacuum ratio values
9. The element of electric heater is made of
(a) copper (b) steel
(c) carbon (d) nichrome
10. Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient?

(a) Brass (b) Mercury
(c) Electrolytes (d) Silver
11. Variable resistors are
(a) Wire wound resistors (b) Thin film resistors
(c) Thick film resistors (d) Al of the above
12. Low resistance can be accurately measured by
(a) Kelvin bridge (b) Wheat stone bridge
(c) Wein’s bridge (d) None of the above
13. Temperature coefficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/ohms0C (b) mhos/ohm0C
(c) mhos/0C (d) ohms/0C
14. Which material is expected to have least resistivity?
(a) Copper (b) Lead
(c) Mercury (d) Zinc
111 | P a g e
15. The resistance temperature coefficient is defined as
(a) increase in resistance per degree centigrade
(b) decrease in resistance per degree centigrade
(c) the ratio of increase in resistance per degree centigrade
to the resistance at 00C
(d) the ratio of increases in resistance per degree centigrade
to the rate of rise of resistance at 00C
16. For a fixed supply voltage the current flowing through a conductor will decrease when
(a) cross-sectional area of the conductor is increased
(b) length of the conductor is reduced
(c) length of the conductor is reduced
(d) cross-sectional area is increased and length is decreased
17. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
(a) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(b) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(c) supply wires are made of superior material
(d) resistance of heater coil is more than that supply wires
18. Even though an ac waveform can take any shape the _______ is the most preferable.
A. Square wave B. Sine wave C. Triangular wave D.
Rectified wave
Ans. B
19. The period of a wave is ________
A. The same as frequency B. Time required to complete one cycle C. Express in amperes
D. None of the above
Ans. B
20. The form factor is the ratio of________
A. Peak value to the rms value B. RMS value to average value C. Average value to rms value
Ans. B
21. The period of a sine wave is 1/50seconds. Its frequency is _______.
A. 20 Hz B. 30 Hz C. 40 Hz
D. 50 Hz
Ans. D
22. In a series resonance, following will occur when,
A. V = VR B. Xl = XC C. Vl = VC
D. Z = R
Ans. B
23. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is ______.
A. Minimum B. Maximum C. Zero
Ans. A
24. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity
A. Inductive B. Capacitive C. Resistive
D. Both A and B
Ans. C
25. The maximum value of an ac quantity is called as its_______.
A. Amplitude B. Peak to peak value C. RMS value
D. None of above
Ans. B
26. The capacitive reactance is defined as XC_______.
A. 2πfc B. 1/2πfc C. Wc
D. 2πfl
Ans. B
112 | P a g e
27. If voltage across pure resistance is V=Vmsin(wt+π/6) then current flowing through it will be
I=___________.
A. IMsin(wt) B. IMsin(wt+π /6) C. IMsin(wt-π/6)
D. IMsin(wt+π/2)
Ans. B
28. Average power is purely resistive ac circuit is equal to P=________.
A. VIsin Ф B. VIcos Ф C. VI
D. VMIM
Ans. C
29. The _____can never store energy.

A. Resistor B. Inductor C. Capacitor
D. Energy source
Ans. D
30. For a purely inductive ac circuit the ____leads_____ by 90º
A. Current, voltage B. Voltage, current C. Power, current
D. Voltage, power
Ans. B
31. The _______is directly proportional to frequency.
A. Capacitive reactance B. Hysteresis loss C. Inductive reactance
D. Eddy current loss
Ans. C
UNIT – II 2M
1 State Maximum power transfer theorem?
2 State and explain step by step procedure of the superposition theorem
3 Explain the procedure of the reciprocity theorem
4 State and explain the Thevenin’s theorem?
5 Explain the procedure of the Norton’s theorem?
6 State the Maximum power transfer theorem?
7 State Thevinins Theorem?
8 Define quality factor.
9 Write the characteristics of series resonance?
10 What is resonance?
11 What is Band width and Selectivity?
12 What is resonance?
13 What is Band width and Selectivity?
113 | P a g e
5M
1. a) State and explain KVL and KCL with an example?

b) Find the equivalent resistance between terminals A and B for given circuit?
2. A coil of inductance 5 mH and resistance 10 Ω is connected in parallel with a 250 nF capacitor

across a 50 V variable-frequency supply. Determine (a) the resonant frequency, (b) the dynamic
resistance, (c) the current at resonance, and (d) the circuit Q-factor at resonance.
3. Derive the condition for maximum transfer theorem?
4. a) What is the importance of J – operator ?
b) A resistance of 8 ohm connected in series with inductive reactance of 10 ohms. The
current in the circuit is 10 A. Find the i) Total Voltage in the circuit ii) VR and VL iii) Phase angle.
5. a) State Maximum power transfer theorem?
b) State Thevenin’s theorem and find current in branch AB for given circuit?
6. a) State compensation theorem ?

b) State super position theorem and find current in branch AB for given circuit? E1 = 10V, E2 = 15V
and R1 = 10 ohm, R2 = 15 ohm and R3 = 5 ohms.
7. a) Define resonant frequency?

b) Find the values of R ,L, C in a RLC series circuit that resonates at 1.5 KHz and consumes 50
W from a 50 V a.c. source operating at the resonance frequency. The bandwidth is 0.75 KHz.
8 . . A pure inductance of 150 mH is connected in parallel with a 40 μF capacitor across a 50 V,

variable frequency supply. Determine (a) the resonant frequency of the circuit and (b) the current
circulating in the capacitor and inductance at resonance.
9. Q. 1- A series L–R–C circuit has a sinusoidal input voltage of maximum value 12 V. If
inductance, L = 20 mH, resistance, R = 80 Ω, and capacitance, C = 400 nF, determine (a) the
resonant frequency, (b) the value of the p.d. across the capacitor at the resonant frequency, (c) the
frequency at which the p.d. across the capacitor is a maximum, and (d) the value of the maximum
voltage across the capacitor.
10. write the procedure for finding current in circuit by using thevenins and nortons theorems?
Objective questions
1. Kirchhoff s current law states that

(a) net current flow at the junction is positive
(b) Algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero 114 | P a g e
(c) no current can leave the junction without some current entering it.
(d) total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
Ans: b
UNIT-III
P - N JUNCTION DIODE & RECTIFIERS AND FILTERS 2M
1. Write the applications of diode?
2. List the differences between ideal diode and practical diode?
3. Define diffusion capacitance and transition capacitance?
4. Define static resistance and dynamic resistance?
5. Write the equation of diode current?
6. Explain the temperature dependence of VI characteristics of PN diode?
7. Define drift current and diffusion current?
8. Define rectifier?
9. Define ripple factor, efficiency and transformer utilization factor?
10. What is the need for a filter in rectifier?
5M
1. What is potential energy barrier of the p-n junction? How does it arise and what is its order of magnitude?
2. Sketch the V-I characteristics of p - n junction diode for forward bias voltages and reverse bias voltage?
3. Explain the concept of diode capacitance. Derive expression for transition capacitance?
4. Define depletion region at p-n junction? What is the effect of forward and reverse biasing of p-n
junction on the depletion region? Explain with necessary diagrams?
5. Write Differences between
1. Static and dynamic resistances of a p – n diode
2. Transition and Diffusion capacitances of a p – n diode
6. Draw the circuit of a half - wave -rectifier and find out the ripple factor, % regulation? Efficiency and PIV?
7. Draw the circuit of bridge rectifier and explain its operation with the help of input and output waveforms?
8. With suitable diagrams, explain the working of centre-tapped full wave rectifier. Derive expressions for
VDC, IDC, Vrms and Irmsfor it?
9. Explain the relative merits and demerits of all the rectifiers?
10. Explain about L-section and π-section filters?
11. Explain the operation of inductor filter and capacitor filter derive expression for ripple factor of FWR?
Objective questions
1. The arrow direction in the diode symbol indicates
a. Direction of electron flow.
b. Direction of hole flow (Direction of conventional current)
c. Opposite to the direction of hole flow
d. None of the above
2. The knee voltage (cut in voltage) of Si diode is
a. 0.2 V b. 0.7 V c. 0.8 V d. 1.0 V
3. When the diode is forward biased, it is equivalent to
a. An off switch b. An On switch
c. A high resistance d. None of the above
4. Under normal reverse bias voltage applied to diode, the reverse current in Si diode
a. 100 mA b. order of μA
c. 1000 μA d. None of these
5. Avalanche breakdown in a diode occurs when
a. Potential barrier is reduced to zero.
b. Forward current exceeds certain value.
c. Reverse bias exceeds a certain value.
d. None of these
6. Reverse saturation current in a Silicon PN junction diode nearly doubles for very
a. 20 rise in temp. b. 50 rise in temp.
c. 60 rise in temp. d. 100 rise in temp.
7. A forward potential of 10V is applied to a Si diode. A resistance of 1 KΩ is also in series with the
115 | P a g e
diode. The current is
a. 10 Ma b. 9.3 mA c. 0.7 mA d. 0
8. In the diode equation, the voltage equivalent of temperature is
a. 11600/T b. T/11600 c. T x 11600 d. 11600/T2
9. Barrier potential at the room tem. (250 C) is 0.7V, its value at 1250 C is
a. 0.5 V b. 0.3 V c. 0.9 V d. 0.7 V
10. When a reverse bias is applied to a diode, it will
a. Raise the potential barrier
b. Lower the potential barrier
c. Increases the majority-carrier a current greatly
d. None of these
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b)
5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b)
9. (a) 10. (a)
1. In a half wave rectifier, the load current flows for what part of the cycle.
a. 00
b. 900
c. 1800
d. 3600
2. In a full wave rectifier, the current in each diode flows for
a. whole cycle of the input signal
b. half cycle of the input signal
c. more than half cycle of the input signal
d. none of these
3. in a full wave rectifier, if the input frequency is 50 Hz, then output frequency will be
a. 50 Hz
b. 75 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 200 Hz
4. In a center tap full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage between center tap and one end of the
secondary, the maximum voltage coming across the reverse bias diode is
a. Vm
b. 2 Vm
c. Vm/2
d. Vm/√2
5. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is
a. 40.6%
b. 100%
c. 81.2%
d. 85.6%
6. In a bridge type full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage across the secondary of the transformer,
the maximum voltage coming across each reverse biased diode is
a. Vm
b. 2 Vm
c. Vm/2
d. Vm/√2
7. To get a peak load voltage of 40V out of a bridge rectifier. What is the approximate rms value of
secondary voltage?
a. 0 V
b. 14.4 V
c. 28.3 V
116 | P a g e
d. 56.6 V
8. If the line frequency is 50 Hz, the output frequency of bridge rectifier is
a. 25 Hz
b. 50 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 200 Hz
9. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is
a. 0.482
b. 0.812
c. 1.11
d. 1.21
10. The bridge rectifier is preferred to an ordinary two diode full wave rectifier because
a. it needs much smaller transformer for the same output
b. no center tap required
c. less PIV rating per diode
d. all the above
11. The basic purpose of filter is to
a. minimize variations in ac input signal
b. suppress harmonics in rectified output
c. remove ripples from the rectified output
d. stabilize dc output voltage
12. The use of a capacitor filter in a rectifier circuit gives satisfactory performance only when the load
a. current is high
b. current is low
c. voltage is high
d. voltage is low
13. A half wave rectifier is equivalent to
a. clamper circuit
b. a clipper circuit
c. a clamper circuit with negative bias
d. a clamper circuit with positive bias
14. The basic reason why a full wave rectifier has a twice the efficiency of a half wave rectifier is that
a. it makes use of transformer
b. its ripple factor is much less
c. it utilizes both half-cycle of the input
d. its output frequency is double the line frequency
15. In a rectifier, larger the value of shunt capacitor filter
a. larger the peak-to-peak value of ripple voltage
b. larger the peak current in the rectifying diode
c. longer the time that current pulse flows through the diode
d. smaller the dc voltage across the load
16. In a LC filter, the ripple factor,
a. Increases with the load current
b. increases with the load resistance
c. remains constant with the load current
d. has the lowest value
17. The main reason why a bleeder resistor is used in a dc power supply is that it
a. keeps the supply ON
b. improves voltage regulation
c. improves filtering action
d. both (b) and (c)
18. Which rectifier requires four diodes?
a. half-wave voltage doubler
117 | P a g e
b. full-wave voltage doubler
c. full-wave bridge circuit
d. voltage quadrupler
19. The dc output polarity from a half-wave rectifier can be reversed by reversing
a. the diode
b. transformer primary
c. transformer secondary
d. both (b) and (c)
Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b)
5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c)
9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c)
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a)
UNIT-IV
BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTOR AND UJT
2M
1. What is meant by operating point Q?
2. Draw the symbols of NPN and PNP transistor?
3. Explain the operation of BJT and its types?
4. Define early effect or base width modulation?
5. Define current amplification factor?
6. Explain about the various regions in a transistor?
7. Write the relation between IC, β, IB and ICBO in a BJT?
8. Define three stability factors?
9. Why biasing is necessary in BJT amplifiers?
10. Draw the circuit diagram of a emitter feedback bias circuit of CE amplifiers?
5M
1. Draw the input and output characteristics of a Transistor in common emitter configuration?
2. Draw the input and output characteristics of a Transistor in common base configuration?
3. Draw the input and output characteristics of a Transistor in common collector configuration?
4. Explain the constructional details of Bipolar Junction Transistor?
5. Derive the relation among α, β and γ?
6. Define biasing? Draw the fixed bias circuit and obtain the expression for the stability factor?
7. Draw the collector-emitter feedback bias circuit and obtain the expression for the stability factor?
8. Draw the emitter feedback bias circuit and obtain the expression for the stability factor?
9. Draw the circuit diagram of CB amplifier using accurate h-parameter model?
10. Draw the circuit diagram of CE amplifier using accurate h-parameter model?
11. Draw the circuit diagram of CC amplifier using accurate h-parameter model?
12. What are the compensation techniques used for VBE and ICO Explain with help of suitable circuits?
?
Objective questions
1. The arrowhead on the transistor symbol points in the direction of

a. electron flow in the emitter region.
b. minority carrier flow in the emitter region.
118 | P a g e
c. majority carrier flow in the remitter region.
d. Conventional current flow in the emitter region.
2. The silicon transistor are more widely used than germanium transistors because
a. they have smaller leakage current
b. they have better ability to dissipate heat
c. they have smaller depletion layer
d. they have larger current carrying capacity
3. For an NPN transistor in normal bias
a. only holes cross the collector junction
b. only majority carriers cross the collector junction
c. the emitter junction has high resistance
d. emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased
4. The most commonly used transistor circuit arrangement is
a. common base b. common emitter
c. common collector d. none of the above
5. The emitter of the transistor is doped
a. heavily b. lightly
c. moderately d. none of these
6. For transistor action
a. the base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
b. the emitter junction must be forward biased and collector junction should be reverse biased.
c. the emitter should be heavily doped to supply the required amount of majority carriers.
d. all of these.
7. The ICBO is the current that flows when some dc voltage is applied
a. in the forward direction to the emitter junction with collector open
b. in the reverse direction to the emitter junction with collector open
c. in the reverse direction to the collector junction with emitter open
d. in the forward direction to the collector junction with emitter open
8. The magnitude of current ICBO
a. depends largely upon the emitter doping
b. depends largely upon emitter-base junction base potential
c. Increases with the increase in temperature
d. is generally greater in silicon than in germanium transistor
9. The current ICBO flows in the
a. emitter and base leads b. collector and base leads
c. emitter and collector leads d. none of these
10. In CE mode of transistor, the most noticeable effect of a small increase in temperature is
a. the increase in output resistance
b. the increase in leakage current ICEO
c. the decrease in current gain
d. the increase in ac current gain
11. In CE configuration, the output V-I characteristics are drawn by taking
a. VCE versus IC for constant value of IE
b. VCE versus IC for constant value of IB
c. VCE versus IE for constant value of VCB
d. None of these
12. In CE configuration, the input V-I characteristics are drawn by taking

a. VCE versus IC for constant value of IE
b. VBE versus IE for constant value of VCE
c. VBE versus IB for constant value of IC
d. VBE versus IB for constant value of VCEs
13. The emitter current in a junction with normal bias
119 | P a g e
a. is almost equal to the base current
b. is equal to the sum of IB and IC
c. changes greatly by a small changes in collector bias voltage
d. is equal to ICBO
14. The β of a transistor may be determined directly from the curve plotted between
a. VCE and IC for constant IB b. VCE and IC for constant IE
c. VCE and IE for constant IB d. VBE and IE for constant VCE
15. In CB configuration, the output V-I characteristics of a transistor are drawn by taking
a. VCB versus IC for constant IE b. VCB versus IB for constant IE
c. VCE versus IC for constant IE d. VCB versus IB for constant IE
16. In which mode of BJT operation are both junction reverse biased
a. active b. saturation
c. cut off d. revers active
17. In which mode of BJT operation are both junction forward biased
a. active b. saturation
c. cut off d. reverse active
18. In a bipolar junction transistor the base region is made very thin so that
a. recombination in base region is minimum
b. electric field gradient in base is high
c. base can be easily fabricated s
d. base can be easily biased
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b)
5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c)
17. (b) 18. (a)
UNIT-V
FIELD EFFECT TRANSISTOR AND SPECIAL TYPES OF DIODES
2M
1. Why FET is called a voltage operated device?
2. List the important features of FET?
3. Define pinch off voltage?
4. Draw the static characteristics curves of an n-channel JFET?
5. Define rd and Gm?
6. Define zener breakdown mechanism?
7. Writethe differences between avalanche and zener breakdown?
8. List the applications of varactor diode?
9. List the applications of Zener diode?
10. Define tunnel diode and operation ?
5M
1. Explain the operation of FET with its characteristics?
2. Bring out the differences between BJT and FET.
3. Draw the small-signal model of FET. and Derive expressions for voltage gain and output resistance?
4. Sketch the V-I characteristics of Zener diode for forward bias voltages and reverse bias voltage?
5. Explain the tunneling phenomenon. Explain the characteristics of tunnel diode with the help of necessary
energy band diagrams?
6. Explain the construction and working of varactor diode?
7. Explain the construction and working of SCR?
120 | P a g e
8. With the help of neat sketches and characteristic curves explain the construction & operation of a JFET
and mark the regions of operation on the characteristics?
9. How a FET can be used as a voltage variable Resistance (VVR)?
10. Write differences between Avalanchi and zener break down mechanisms?
Objective questions
1. A field effect transistor (FET)
a. Uses a forward bias p-n junction
b. Uses a high concentration emitter junction
c. Has a very high input resistance
d. Depends on flow of minority carrier
2. As compared to transistor amplifier JFET amplifier has

a. Higher voltage gain, less input impedance
b. Less voltage gain, less input impedance
c. Less voltage gain, higher input impedance
d. Higher voltage gain, higher input impedance
3. The best location for setting a Q-point on dc load line of an FET Amplifier is at
a. Saturation point
b. Cutoff point
c. Mid- point
d. None of these
4. The pinch off voltage is the voltage

a. At which gate source junction breaks down
b. Which causes depletion regions to meet
c. The voltage applied between drain & source
d. Neither of these
5. If properly biased JFET acts as
a. Current controlled current source
b. Voltage controlled voltage source
c. Voltage controlled current source
d. Current controlled voltage source
6. The voltage gain of a common source JFET amplifier depends upon its
a. Transconductance (gm)
b. Amplification factor (μ)
c. External load resistance
d. Both (a) and (c)
7. A common gate amplifier has
a. High input resistance and high output resistance
b. Low input resistance and high output resistance
c. Low input resistance and low output resistance
121 | P a g e
d. High input resistance and low output resistance
8. A transconductance amplifier has
a. High input impedance and low output impedance
b. Low input impedance and high output impedance
c. High input and output impedances
d. Low input and output impedances
9. A JFET is similar is operation to
a. Diode
b. Pentode
c. Triode
d. Tetrode
10. In a common source JFET amplifier the output voltage is
a. 1800 out of phase with input
b. In phase with input
c. 900 out of phase with input 3
d. None of the above
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
LEVEL2
1. Zener diode, when used in voltage stabilization circuit is biased in
a. Reverse bias region below the breakdown region.
b. Reverse breakdown region.
c. Forward biased region.
d. Forward biased constant current mode.
2. In a Zener diode
a. Only the P-region is heavily doped
b. Only the N-region is heavily doped
c. Both P and N region are heavily doped
d. Both P and N region are lightly doped
3. Which of these has highly doped p and n region?
a. PIN diode b. Tunnel diode
c. Schottkey diode d. Photo diode
4. Which of these diodes has the layer of intrinsic semiconductor
a. Zener diode b. PIN diode
c. Photo diode d. Schottkey diode
5. In which of the following diodes the width of junction barrier is very large
a. Tunnel diode b. Photo diode
c. PIN diode d. Schottkey diode
6. Which of these diodes has degenerate p and n material
a. Zener diode b. PIN diode
c. Tunnel diode d. Photo diode
8. Which of these diodes is also called hot carrier diode.
a. PIN diode b. LED
c. Photo diode d. Schottkey diode
9. In which of these diode the reverse recovery time is nearly zero.
a. Diode b. Tunnel Diode
c. Schottkey Diode d. PIN Diode
10. In which of the following diodes, the negative resistance region exists, in v-I characteristics
a. PIN diode b. Schottkey diode
122 | P a g e
c. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode
11. The of doped regions in PIN diode are
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
12. Which of the following diode is a voltage controlled capacitor
a. Zener diode b. p n diode
c. Varactor diode d. LED
13. In LED light is emitted because
a. Recombination of charge carriers take place
b. Diode gets heated up
c. Light falling on gets amplified
d. Light gets reflected due to lens action
14. Ga As LED emits radiation in
a. Ultraviolet region
b. Violet, blue, green, range of visible region
c. Visible region d. Infrared region
15. Which of these diodes is used in seven segment display
a. PIN diode b. LED
c. Photo diode d. Tunnel diode
16. The barrier potential of Schottkey diode is
a. 0.25V b. 0.7V c. 0.3V d. 1.7V
17. The diode which has zero breakdown voltage is
a. Zener diode b. Schottkey diode
c. Breakdown diode d. Tunnel diode
18. The I- V characteristic solar cell lies in
a. I quadrant b. II quadrant
c. III quadrant d. IV quadrant
19. The light emitted by LASER diode is
a. Monochromatic b. Coherent
c. Visible d. Both (a) and (b)
20. The LASER diode sources require
a. Spontaneous emission
b. Absorption
c. Stimulated emission
d. None
Answers Key
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (C) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a)
17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21.(c)
123 | P a g e
124 | P a g e

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TECH FIRST YEAR HAND BOOK

Shri T.Bala Reddy -- Chairman- Shantha Educational Society- St.Peter’s Engineering

Shri.T.V.Reddy --Secretary,St.Peter’s Engineering College

Smt.T.Saroja Reddy -- Director – St.Peter’s Engineering College.

IMPORTANT FUNCTIONAL HEADS:

Dr.M.NARENDRA KUMAR--Principal-St.Peter’s Engineering College

Dr.R.P.SREEDEVI--HOD-S&H-St.Peter’s Engineering College

Dr.M.RAJA --HOD-CSE-St.Peter’s Engineering College

Ms.M.VILASINI RAJA--HOD-ECE—St.Peter’s Engineering College

Ms.K.SRILATHA--HOD-EEE—St.Peter’s Engineering College

Mr.J.PRADEEP KUMAR--HOD-Mech-St.Peter’s Engineering College

Mr.DASIKA.LI--HOD-CE-St.Peter’s Engineering College

Mr. N.RAVI SUDHAKAR– PRO - St.Peter’s Engineering College

S. No. PARTICULARS PAGE NO.

I. VISION & MISSION 5

II. QUALITY POLICY 5

IV. GENERAL INFORMATION 5

VI. GUIDELINES, RULES AND REGULATIONS 7

VII. TRAINING & PLACEMENTS 11

IX. STUDENT ACTIVITIES 12

S. No. TEACHING SCHEDULE & ASSIGNMENTS PAGE NO.

1. PROFESSIONAL COMMUNICATION IN ENGLISH 14

10. BEEE 108

II. QUALITY POLICY

IV. GENERAL INFORMATION

D. Growth of the Institution

DIPLOMA UG COURSES PG COURSES

- B. Tech. CSE M. Tech. Computer Science Engineering

ME B. Tech. Mech. Engg. M.Tech - Machine Design

- B Tech. Civil Engg. ------

International Journals published by ECE, ME and CSE departments.

2. Internet/ Intranet Facility

6. Transport - College Buses

VI. GUIDELINES, RULES AND REGULATIONS OF THE CAMPUS

2. Ragging and Indiscipline

Ragging is prohibited as per Act 26 of A.P. Legislative Assembly -1997.

S.No. Nature of Ragging Punishment

9. Intimation of Change of Address

10. Wearing of ID cards

11. Obtaining Gate Passes

12. Ban on Usage of Mobile Phones

14. Electronic Items for Music and Entertainment

15. Discipline in Buses

16. Late Comers

17. Leave / Sick Leave

18. Assignments / Lab Records Submissions

Procedures for Laboratories

Computer Programming Lab:

English Language Communication Skills Lab:

D. Undertaking from students and parents:

F. Parent teacher meeting:

Parent teacher meeting will be conducted every year.

VII. TRAINING & PLACEMENT

Training and Placement Officer - Mr.A.Rajesh Kumar (Mobile No.:7893244000)

Book Bank Scheme

IX. STUDENT ACTIVITIES

Work Shops & Student Paper Presentation Contests

S.No Branch Name of the Institution

1.Institute of Electronics and Telecommunications Engineering(IETE)

Literary Club-ELSAC(English Language Skills Activity Centre)

Phone Number : 8019008578

For any administrative problems and information, please contact:

4. Technology recognizes no self-limit principle- in terms, of or _.