com
NavyBMR.com
March 2018 RP3
Advancement Exam Study Guide
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RP3
Occupational References
JOINT TRAVEL REGULATIONS (JTR) (07-2017), THE JOINT TRAVEL REGULATIONS UNIFORMED SERVICE
MEMBERS AND DOD CIVILIAN EMPLOYEES; CHAPTER 3-No questions available
MCRP 1-10.1, ORGANIZATION OF THE UNITED STATES MARINE CORPS-No questions available
MCRP 3-30D.3, RELIGIOUS MINISTRY TEAM HANDBOOK-No questions available
MCRP 3-30D.4, THE COMMANDER`S HANDBOOK FOR RELIGIOUS MINISTRY SUPPORT-No questions
available
MCRP 8-10B.2, RIFLE MARKSMANSHIP; CHAPTER 3, 4, 8-No questions available
MCTP 13-10C, UNIT EMBARKATION HANDBOOK-No questions available
MCTP 3-30E, COMBAT AND OPERATIONAL STRESS CONTROL-No questions available
NAVSUP P-485, VOLUME I (REVISION-5), OPERATIONAL FORCES SUPPLY PROCEDURES; COVER PAGE-No
questions available
NAVSUPINST 4200.99C, DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY GOVERNMENT-WIDE COMMERCIAL PURCHASE CARD
PROGRAM POLICY; CHAPTER 1, 4-No questions available
NTP-3 (J), NAVAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS PROCEDURE TELECOMMUNICATIONS USERS MANUAL; ANNEX
C; CHAPTER 5-No questions available
NTTP 1-05.1M, RELIGIOUS LAY LEADER-No questions available
OPNAVINST 1730.1E, RELIGIOUS MINISTRY IN THE NAVY-No questions available
OPNAVINST 1738.1A, CHAPLAINS RELIGIOUS ENRICHMENT DEVELOPMENT OPERATION-No questions
available
SECNAV M-5210.1 (REVISION-1), DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY NAVY RECORDS MANAGEMENT PROGRAM
RECORDS MANAGEMENT MANUAL-No questions available
SECNAV M-5210.2 (2012), DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY STANDARD SUBJECT IDENTIFICATION CODE (SSIC)
MANUAL-No questions available Reference
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C-WAY USER GUIDE (REVISION-1), CAREER WAYPOINT (C-WAY) USER GUIDE-No questions available
NAVADMIN 061-16, IMPLEMENTATION OF PHYSICAL READINESS PROGRAM POLICY CHANGES UPDATE #2-
No questions available
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THE BLUEJACKET`S MANUAL (REVISION-24TH), THE BLUEJACKET`S MANUAL-(Can’t Post Due to Copyright)
-No questions available
-END-
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Come up with the answer in your head before looking at the possible answers, this
way the choices given on the test won't throw you off or trick you.
If there is no guessing penalty, always take an educated guess and select an answer.
Don't keep on changing your answer, usually your first choice is the right one, unless
you misread the question.
In "All of the above" and "None of the above" choices, if you are certain one of the
statements is true don't choose "None of the above" or one of the statements are false
don't choose "All of the above".
In a question with an "All of the above" choice, if you see that at least two correct
statements, then "All of the above" is probably the answer.
Usually the correct answer is the choice with the most information.
Students with better study methods and strategies score higher on their exams.
Everyone is different, different methods work for different people the following are
only suggestions on improving upon your current studying techniques.
It is best to review the material right after class when it's still fresh in your memory.
Don't try to do all your studying the night before the test. Instead space out your
studying, review class materials at least several times a week, focusing on one topic at a
time.
Have all of your study material in front of you: lecture notes, course textbooks, study
guides and any other relevant material.
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Find a comfortable and quiet place to study with good lighting and little distractions
(try avoiding your own bed, it is very tempting to just lie down and take a nap).
Learn the general concepts first, don't worry about learning the details until you have
learned the main ideas.
Take notes and write down a summary of the important ideas as you read through
your study material.
Take short breaks frequently. Your memory retains the information that you study at
the beginning and the end better than what you study in the middle.
Space out your studying, you'll learn more by studying a little every day instead of
waiting to cram at the last minute. By studying every day, the material will stay in your
long-term memory but if you try to study at the last moment, the material will only reside
in your short-term memory that you'll easily forget.
Make sure that you understand the material well, don't just read through the material
and try to memorize everything.
If you choose to study in a group, only study with others who are serious about the
test.
Test yourself or have someone test you on the material to find out what your weak and
strong areas are. You can use the review questions at the end of each chapter or practice
tests the teacher may give out as well as other materials.
Listening to relaxing music such as classical or jazz on a low volume can relieve some
of the boredom of studying.
Don't study later than the time you usually go to sleep, you may fall asleep or be
tempted to go to sleep, instead try studying in the afternoon or early evening. If you are a
morning person try studying in the morning.
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Commitment to Accuracy
NavyBMR.com makes every effort to keep our study guides up-to-date and free of
technical errors. We appreciate your help in this process. If you have an idea for
improving this study guide, or if you find an error, a typographical mistake, or an
inaccuracy, please e-mail us at navybmrtechsupport@gmail.com with the subject
“Inaccuracies found”. Be sure to include the exact chapter number, topic, detailed
description, and correction, if applicable. Your input will be brought to the attention of
our Technical Review Committee and our material will be updated if found to be
inaccurate.
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(20 Questions)
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(313 Questions)
Chapter 1
1. Who support, manage and execute the Command Religious Program (CRP)?
(Page 1-1)
RMTs
2. What rating was established to provide comprehensive professional support
of the command religious program support the Navy’s chaplains in meeting the
religious accommodation needs of service members and their families? (Page
1-2)
RP
3. The RP rating was officially established on what date? (Page 1-3)
15 January 1979
4. With the rating of specialist (W), first class, who was the first chaplain’s
assistant in the history of the Navy? (Page 1-4)
W. Everett Hendricks
5. Advancing to Chief Specialist (W) in February 1944 who is recognized as
being the first individual to be advanced to Chief Petty Officer in the specialist
(W) rating? (Page 1-5)
Alfred R. Markin
6. Who was the first woman to be selected as a Specialist (W)? (Page 1-6)
Virginia T. Moore
7. So far as it is known, who was the only one trained to be an assistant for a
Navy chaplain who met death as the result of enemy action during the war?
(Page 1-7)
Robert Harold Ascher
8. Two chaplain’s assistants who served with the Marine Corps received the
Purple Heart medal. They were Robert E. Anthony, wounded in the Tinian
Campaign on 28 July 1944 and who else who was wounded at Iwo Jima on 2
March 1945? (Page 1-7)
John F. Muralt
9. Who was the first member of the Coast Guard to receive the rate of
Specialist (W) who transferred to this rating from yeoman in November 1943?
(Page 1-7)
Emil Zemanuel
10. The Navy’s first Chaplain’s School was established on what date which
was located in Frazier Hall, Naval Base, Norfolk, Virginia? (Page 1-8)
1 March 1942
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11. In February of what year, the Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) approved
the establishment of the RP rating? (Page 1-12)
1978
12. In January of what year, the official RP rating was established? (Page 1-12)
1979
13. In May 1979, the who approved the insignia for the RP rating? (Page 1-12)
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
14. What delineate specified tasks that demonstrate the ability to perform
within a given paygrade? (Page 1-13)
Occupational standards
15. What is the quality of being loyal? (Page 1-14)
Fidelity
16. The CMC/SEL serves as the principal enlisted assistant to the Chief of
Chaplains (COC) and Deputy COCs, advising on all matters pertaining to
leadership of the RP rating, and serves as enlisted community leader and
sponsor on all matters pertaining to RPs per what instruction? (Page 1-14)
SECNAVINST 1730.7D
17. Religious Program Managers manage and execute the what, which
accommodates diverse religious ministry requirements? (Page 1-15)
CRP
18. It is DON policy that who are not authorized to obtain weapons
qualifications, warfare qualifications, or bear arms? (Page 1-15)
Chaplains
19. To become a Navy chaplain, a candidate must possess a minimum of how
many years religious leadership experience? (Page 1-16)
Two
20. To meet the requirements of religious accommodation, morale and welfare,
and to facilitate the understanding of the complexities of religion with regard to
its personnel and mission, the DON has designated four core CHC capabilities:
care, facilitate, provide, and what else? (Page 1-16)
Advise
21. The Chaplain Corps was established on what date, at the same time the
second article of Navy Regulations was adopted? (Page 1-16)
28 November 1775
22. Who was the first chaplain known to have served in the Continental Navy,
reporting aboard the frigate BOSTON in October 1778? (Page 1-16)
Reverend Benjamin Balch
23. The office of the Chief of Chaplains (COC) was established in what year?
(Page 1-17)
1917
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24. How many chaplains have been killed in action? (Page 1-17)
Sixteen
25. Who was the first chaplain to die in the line of duty? (Page 1-17)
John Lenhart
26. The Chief of Chaplains is appointed under section 5142 of Title 10, U.S.
Code, and serves, per SECNAVINST 1730.7D and what article of the U.S.
Navy Regulations, as principal advisor, community leader, and advocate on
matters concerning religious accommodation, delivery of religious ministry,
and professional matters relative to chaplains and RPs? (Page 1-17)
Article 1009
27. The senior supervisory chaplain in each of the large organizational
subdivision is defined by what instruction? (Page 1-18)
SECNAVINST 5351.1
Chapter 2
1. On Navy ships, what provide instructions for the safe stowage of toxic
materials in certain locations? (Page 2-3)
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
2. What training can provide the most effective method of learning several
OCCSTDs? (Page 2-4)
OJT
3. Components or parts of a computer system are grouped into what two
general categories? (Page 2-5)
Hardware and software
4. What is a program or instruction for the PC hardware to follow? (Page 2-5)
Software
5. What allow you to set up a table of rows and columns and specify what
calculations you want performed? (Page 2-5)
Spreadsheets
6. What tools are used to create attractive, effective printed materials such as
bulletins, newsletters, advertisements, brochures, manuals, and other
documents? (Page 2-6)
Desktop publishing
7. What software allows for the storage, manipulation, and retrieval of data?
(Page 2-7)
Database management
8. What is a form of programmed care and troubleshooting that when carefully
done can reduce machine breakdowns? (Page 2-8)
Planned Maintenance Service (PMS)
9. What lets us know that the other person understands the message? (Page 2-9)
Feedback
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10. What is the official guide for quality and style in preparing and formatting
standard letters, multiple-address letters, endorsements, memorandums,
business letters, addressing envelopes, personnel matters, and correspondence
management? (Page 2-10)
SECNAV M-5216.5
11. What provides a message service to its users within the Navy? (Page 2-10)
Naval Telecommunications System
12. What contains detailed procedures for drafting and typing naval messages?
(Page 2-10)
NTP-3
13. What messages are those directing or affecting the actual use or movement
of forces, ships, troops and aircraft; issuing reports affecting the safety of lives,
ships, forces, or areas; and message traffic relating to exercises conducted for
fleet training and readiness? (Page 2-10)
Operational
14. What messages pertain to matters of such a nature or urgency including
reports, perishable information, and urgent matters that must be brought to the
early attention of seniors? (Page 2-10)
Administrative
15. What contains authorized message addresses? (Page 2-10)
SNDL
16. What make up the nonverbal part of a message between a sender and a
receiver? (Page 2-11)
Gestures
17. Activity calendars include how many elements for every activity
scheduled? (Page 2-13)
Four
18. What is a technical legal term which is defined as a special relationship
involving a spoken or written communication between two or more persons
which seals the confessor/counselor from releasing any information derived
from the communication? (Page 2-14)
Privileged communication
19. Privileged communication, confidentiality, and personal privacy are all
concerned with the rights of the individual guaranteed under the what? (Page 2-
15)
Privacy Act of 1974
20. Headquartered in Washington, D.C., what provides a means for military
family members to communicate emergency or emergent matters to deployed
Sailors and Marines? (Page 2-16)
American Red Cross (ARC)
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42. Regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the U.S.
Navy are promulgated in what which is referred to as the SORM? (Page 2-34)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
43. Descriptions of authorized U.S. Navy uniforms and the proper manner for
their wear are contained in what? (Page 2-35)
NAVPERS 15665
44. What are the four principal religions represented within the Chaplain
Corps? (Page 2-36)
Christian, Jewish, Islam, and Buddhist
45. What contains instructions governing the administration of Navy
personnel? (Page 2-36)
NAVPERS 15560
46. Each article in the MILPERSMAN is identified by a how many digit
number? (Page 2-36)
7
47. Changes to the MILPERSMAN are published how often? (Page 2-36)
Quarterly
48. Administration of the enlisted advancement system is promulgated in which
instruction which is the Manual of Advancement? (Page 2-37)
BUPERSINST 1430.16
49. What provides guidance for activities and personnel on classifying and
safeguarding classified information? (Page 2-37)
SECNAV M-5510.36
50. What instruction provides a standard method of issuing directives by all
naval activities? (Page 2-38)
OPNAVINST 5215.17
51. What contains the standard procedures and formats used to promulgate
policy, procedural, and informational releases in the Department of the Navy?
(Page 2-39)
Directives Issuance System
52. What is a directive containing authority or information having continuing
reference value, or requiring continuing action? (Page 2-39)
Instruction
53. What is a directive of a one-time or brief nature which has a self-canceling
provision? (Page 2-39)
Notice
54. The Navy Directives Issuance System (OPNAVINST 5215.17) is managed
from an overall standpoint by whom? (Page 2-40)
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
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55. Each command has a what which evaluates the system’s operations within
the individual organization on a continuing basis? (Page 2-40)
Directives control point
56. What contains the standard requirements for the preparation, identification,
promulgation, and distribution of letter-type directives? (Page 2-41)
OPNAVINST 5215.17
57. There are basically three types of special-type directives which include;
Message-type directives, Publication-type directives, and what else? (Page 2-
44)
Joint directives
58. There are how many parts of speech contained in the English language?
(Page 2-55)
Eight
59. What instruction establishes procedures for assisting the next of kin of
deceased Navy personnel? (Page 2-55)
BUPERSINST 1770.3
60. The Navy seeks to aid the next of kin through personal visits by a
uniformed Navy representative with what title? (Page 2-55)
Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO)
61. What program is defined as the search for, recovery, identification, care,
and disposition of the remains of deceased persons for whom the Department of
the Navy is responsible? (Page 2-56)
Decedent Affairs Program
62. Guidance in the rendering of military honors at funerals of active duty,
retired, and former members of the Navy is provided in what series? (Page 2-
57)
NAVPERS 15555
63. Comprehensive guidance concerning doctrinal and related publications for
use within the Marine Corps is contained in what? (Page 2-57)
Doctrinal Publications Guide (FMFM 0-3)
64. What publication establishes policies and standards on the operation and
maintenance of the Marine Corps Directives System? (Page 2-58)
MCDP 1-0
65. What is a planning tool used to release religious program publicity
information to the public affairs office and internal media in a timely manner?
(Page 2-59)
Future file
66. What is an official Navy statement prepared in news story form? (Page 2-
60)
Navy news release
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80. What is the architectural division of the worship center on either side of the
nave? (Page 2-77)
Aisle
81. What is the area of the worship center assigned to the officiating clergy?
(Page 2-77)
Chancel
82. What is the part of the worship center reserved for the administration of
baptism? (Page 2-77)
Baptistry
83. What is a small room or area reserved for special purposes, such as the
reservation of the Blessed Sacrament, a shrine, or a small place for service?
(Page 2-77)
Chapel
84. What is a room or annex of the worship center where finishings for the altar
are kept and the ministers vest and prepare themselves? (Page 2-77)
Sacristy
85. What are statistical highlights that provide a brief form of a timely graphic
and narrative statement of meaningful changes, changes in broad religious
education areas, and suggested areas for further investigation? (Page 2-84)
Flash analyses
86. Analytical statistical reviews provide for the examining of progress in
religious education program areas covering a period of time longer than what
time frame? (Page 2-84)
1 month
87. Experiments have shown that about 75% of what a person learns is acquired
through the sense of sight, whereas only about what percent is acquired through
the sense of hearing? (Page 2-85)
13%
88. What is an organized outline of a single topic taken from the course of
study and developed in detail, showing the specific knowledge and/or skills to
be taught by the RE instructor during one particular session? (Page 2-87)
Lesson plan
89. What term has been defined as the incentive, drive, or pressure to take
action? (Page 2-89)
Motivation
90. The teaching-by-doing method of instruction involves ―doing by both the
instructor and the student. This method is most effective when a skill is to be
taught to one student or a small group of students. Classroom time may not
permit a group of more than how many to learn the skill when this method is
employed? (Page 2-90)
10
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Chapter 3
1. What has been defined as the attitude of individuals to the power(s) which
they conceive as having ultimate control over their destinies and interests?
(Page 3-1)
Religion
2. The Thirty Years War began in what year as a civil war between Roman
Catholics and Protestants in the German states? (Page 3-1)
1618
3. Religious freedom in America is based upon the guarantees given in the 1st
and what other amendment to the Constitution of the United States? (Page 3-2)
14th
4. What is the religion stemming from belief in the life, teachings, death, and
resurrection of Jesus Christ? (Page 3-2)
Christianity
5. Among the world religions, what is the most widespread with one in three
people on earth identifying themselves as practioniers of this religion? (Page 3-
3)
Christianity
6. What is the oldest of the three major western religions? (Page 3-3)
Judaism
7. What means “to surrender to Allah.”? (Page 3-3)
Islam
8. What is a Sanskrit word that means “to become enlightened.”? (Page 3-3)
Buddha
9. Christians believe that Jesus Christ remained on earth for how many days
after His resurrection, and then ascended into heaven? (Page 3-4)
40
10. The first believers in Christ were Jews by birth and training, and, at first,
were considered a sect of Judaism. But gradually the followers of Christ came
to think of themselves as belonging to an independent religion. Where were
they first called “Christians” where one of the first Christian communities
outside of Palestine was established? (Page 3-4)
Antioch, Syria
11. Becoming emperor 42 years after the death of Constantine about A.D. 380,
who made Christianity the official religion of the Roman Empire? (Page 3-4)
Theodosius I
12. What century has been held by many as “the age of faith,” a time when the
authority of the Christian church was accepted almost without question? (Page
3-4)
13th
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13. As of 1977, there were over how many distinct groups or bodies which
identified themselves with American Christianity? (Page 3-5)
800
14. What is the chief symbol of Christianity? (Page 3-5)
Cross
15. Holy days of obligation are normally associated with what faith tradition?
(Page 3-6)
Roman Catholic
16. Within Christianity, what is a season of preparation observed for 4 to 6
weeks before Christmas? (Page 3-6)
Advent
17. What is the 40-day penitential period of fasting in preparation for Easter
that is commonly observed by many Christian denominations? (Page 3-6)
Lent
18. Within Christian churches, Easter Sunday observances are the culminating
point of a series of services held during Holy Week, beginning with what?
(Page 3-7)
Palm Sunday
19. From the beginning of recorded time, calendar makers have used events
great and small as a starting point for their date guides. Early Christians dated
events from the birth of Jesus, which they called “the year 1.” All dates before
that year are listed as B.C. or “before Christ.” Dates after that year are listed as
A.D. or what meaning in the year of our Lord? (Page 3-7)
Anno Domini
20. The Jerusalem liturgical year (cycle) begins with the Nativity and ends with
what? (Page 3-8)
Pentecost
21. What is a rite or series of rites prescribed for public worship in a Christian
church in accordance with an authorized or stated form? (Page 3-8)
Liturgy
22. Most Christian bodies would follow a form of worship which to, or a
variation of the liturgy or rites used by Catholic, Orthodox, and what other
groups? (Page 3-8)
Protestant
23. The first Roman Catholic parish in America was established in St.
Augustine, FL, in what year? (Page 3-9)
1565
24. The first Roman Catholic diocese in the United States was established in
Baltimore, Maryland, in what year? (Page 3-9)
1789
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25. The governing body of the Roman Catholic Church is headed by the what?
(Page 3-9)
Sovereign pontiff
26. What is the supreme council of the Roman Catholic church? (Page 3-9)
Sacred College
27. What is the district over which a bishop has ecclesiastical authority? (Page
3-9)
Diocese
28. The sacraments of the church are of utmost importance to Roman Catholics.
The church teaches that Jesus Christ directly instituted the seven sacraments:
Baptism, Confirmation, Holy Eucharist, Penance, Extreme Unction, Holy
Orders, and what else? (Page 3-9)
Marriage
29. The Roman Catholic faith tradition celebrates what as its central worship
service? (Page 3-9)
Mass
30. The Christian church divided into two separate groups – the Eastern Greek
faction and the Western Latin faction in what year? (Page 3-10)
A.D. 1054
31. The Eastern Orthodox faith is based on the doctrinal decisions of the seven
ecumenical councils. The last council was held in what year? (Page 3-10)
A.D. 787
32. The Eastern Orthodox faith tradition has three main worship services:
Divine Liturgy, Great Vespers, and what else? (Page 3-11)
Matins
33. What is the term used to express the Eucharistic celebration in the Orthodox
churches? (Page 3-11)
Divine Liturgy
34. What is the sacrament of spiritual rebirth that gives souls the new life of
sanctifying grace by which they become children of God? (Page 3-12)
Baptism
35. What is the sacrament of spiritual strength and maturity through which the
Holy Spirit enables Catholics to profess their faith? (Page 3-12)
Confirmation
36. What is the sacrament in which Jesus Christ is considered to be contained,
offered, and received in the elements of bread and wine? (Page 3-12)
Communion
37. What is the sacrament by which sins are forgiven through the absolution of
the priest? (Page 3-12)
Confession
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38. What is the sacrament for all those who are sick or are in danger of death
from sickness, accident, or old age? (Page 3-12)
Viaticum
39. What is the sacrament through which one receives the power and grace to
perform the sacred duties of the priesthood? (Page 3-12)
Ordination
40. What is the sacrament by which baptized men and women bind themselves
for life in a lawful marriage and receive the grace to discharge their duties?
(Page 3-12)
Matrimony
41. Some Christian bodies prohibit the use of alcohol, drugs, or tobacco. Some
may be vegetarians. A general list of dietary restrictions, by country, may be
found within what instruction? (Page 3-12)
OPNAVINST 1710.7A
42. What is the belief in one God who demands that people behave according
to God-given rules of conduct? (Page 3-14)
Ethical monotheism
43. The Jews believe that the first five books of the Bible, which contain 613
commandments, were given to them by God through whom? (Page 3-14)
Moses
44. What is a symbol commonly associated with Judaism? (Page 3-15)
Star of David
45. The four largest branches within Judaism are Orthodox, Reform,
Conservative, and what else? (Page 3-15)
Reconstructionist
46. The first official Jewish congregation, Shearith Isriel (remnant of Israel),
was established in America in what year? (Page 3-16)
1654
47. What is the most precious and revered object in the synagogue? (Page 3-17)
Torah
48. What contains all of the Jewish religious laws? (Page 3-17)
Talmud
49. What is a collection of expositions (explanations or interpretations) of the
Bible? (Page 3-18)
Midrash
50. What is meant to be a summary of Jewish law as it is found in the Talmud?
(Page 3-18)
Shulchan Aruch
51. What is the single greatest source of independent Jewish learning today?
(Page 3-18)
Siddur
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63. Muslims may give of their wealth as they please, but are required to give
what percent of their total wealth each year? Usually Muslims do so during the
month of Ramadan – the month of fasting – to the Islamic state, a community,
or a welfare organization for distribution to the less fortunate? (Page 3-36)
2 1/2%
64. The most important and fundamental religious concepts of Islam are put
forth in what, which means “The Path.”? (Page 3-37)
Sharia
65. What consists of a number of authoritative collections of “Tradition” which
record the way (Sunnah) of the Prophet (Muhammad)? (Page 3-37)
Hadith
66. For many Muslims, the fast of what is the most scrupulously observed of all
religious duties? (Page 3-38)
Ramadan
67. What is the most important building for Muslims? (Page 3-39)
Mosque
68. What is an Indian Sanskrit word that means, "The One Who Awakened?
(Page 3-44)
Buddha
69. The teachings of the Buddha are collectively known as what? (Page 3-44)
Dharma
70. What is the predominant religion of Burma, Sri Lanka, Taiwan, Japan,
Cambodia, Thailand, and Bhutan? (Page 3-44)
Buddhism
71. There is no single sacred book in Buddhism, comparable to the Bible or
Koran. The most important literature is called what, signifying that the book
contains the words of the Buddha? (Page 3-47)
Sutra
72. Who is thought to have been the first military commander to fly the
American flag when it was first flown aboard his vessel, the Ranger, in
Portsmouth, NH on July 4, 1777? (Page 3-49)
John Paul Jones
73. State, official, and special military funerals are conducted in accordance
with what series? (Page 3-50)
OPNAVINST 5360.1
74. There are three general types of naval funerals: Full Honor, Simple Honor,
and what other funerals? (Page 3-51)
Dependent funerals
Chapter 4
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1. What are command facilities designated to be used for divine services? (Page
4-1)
Military chapels
2. What area is the entryway into the chapel facility which is used to minimize
distractions caused by latecomers, to assemble ushers, and to distribute
religious literature and ecclesiastical items? (Page 4-3)
Narthex
3. What is the largest area within a CRP chapel facility? (Page 4-3)
Nave
4. What is the area which is normally used by the chaplain when conducting
divine services? (Page 4-3)
Chancel
5. What is a table upon which Eucharistic elements may be consecrated by the
chaplain and an area which can serve as a focal point for the worship ritual?
(Page 4-4)
Altar
6. What is a repository for the Jewish Torah Scrolls? (Page 4-4)
Ark
7. What is used by chaplains for preaching or conducting worship services?
(Page 4-4)
Pulpit
8. What is a reading desk from which scripture lessons normally read? (Page 4-
4)
Lectern
9. What area in a CRP facility is essentially an ecclesiastical gear locker used to
store ecclesiastical appointments, altar cloths, linens, vestments, and perishable
consumables? (Page 4-4)
Sacristy/Vestry
10. What is used in conducting worship services under field/combat conditions
using the Christian chaplain’s kit or the Jewish chaplain’s kit? (Page 4-6)
Portable field altar
11. All chaplains in the FMF maintain a how many-day supply of consumable
and non-consumable items that are to be used only for combat? (Page 4-18)
30
12. What is the principal Jewish service? (Page 4-19)
Sabbath
13. What is a handwritten Hebrew scroll containing the first five books of the
Bible? (Page 4-19)
Torah Scroll
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14. What is the raised platform upon which the desk for reading the Torah and
the Ark stands? (Page 4-21)
Bimah
15. What is a small skullcap worn by Jewish men? (Page 4-22)
Yarmulkah
16. What is a prayer shawl worn by men on the Jewish Sabbath, Holy Days,
and weekday morning services? (Page 4-22)
Tallit
17. There are three main Orthodox services – the Divine Liturgy, Great
Vespers, and what else? (Page 4-23)
Matins
18. A Great Vespers service lasts approximately how long and is primarily a
preparatory service, preparing the faithful for the Divine Liturgy? (Page 4-23)
30 minutes
19. What is a movable wall or screen placed in the sanctuary/chancel area used
to display icons (religious paintings which are venerated, kissed, by the
people)? (Page 4-23)
Iconostasis
20. What are religious paintings of Jesus Christ, the Virgin Mary, and various
saints of the Orthodox church? (Page 4-24)
Icons
21. What is a piece of material, approximately 24 inches x 18 inches, bearing a
representation of the figure of Christ laid out for burial? (Page 4-24)
Antimension
22. What is the basic liturgical vestment and corresponds to the western alb?
(Page 4-27)
Sticharion
23. What is the distinguishing emblem of the Orthodox priesthood and is also
referred to as the priestly stole? (Page 4-27)
Epitrachelion
24. What is the focal point of the Roman Catholic worship service or Mass?
(Page 4-40)
Altar
25. The source of the modern Roman Catholic Eucharistic Liturgy is the
General Instruction of the what? (Page 4-41)
Roman Missal
26. What are containers which contain the water and wine which become
sacred elements during the Mass? (Page 4-43)
Cruets
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27. What are those linens which are used during or in conjunction with the
celebration of the Mass? (Page 4-43)
Eucharistic linens
28. Roman Catholic vestments which may be used for Mass at a chapel ashore
are how many in number? (Page 4-45)
Four
29. What teaches that all faiths have, in essence, one common message: the
existence of a Supreme Being, the one and only God, whose Sovereignty is to
be acknowledged in worship and in the pledge to obey His teaching and
commandments, conveyed through His messengers and prophets who were sent
at various times and in many places throughout history? (Page 4-47)
Islam
30. What is the most important building for Muslims? (Page 4-47)
Mosque
31. The most important and fundamental religious concepts of Islam are put
forth in the what which means “The Path.”? (Page 4-49)
Sharia
32. A string of how many beads each symbolizing one of the desires to be
overcome prior to enlightenment, is used by devout Buddhists while
meditating? (Page 4-54)
108
33. The Wheel of Life is one of the earliest symbols of Buddhism and consists
of a circle (wheel) with either eight or how many divisions? (Page 4-55)
12
34. What are the sacred books of Buddhism? (Page 4-55)
Tripitaka
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5. The process of preparing for, recovering from, and adjusting to life in the
face of stress, adversity, trauma, or tragedy is defined as what? (Page 5-5)
Resilience
6. Prior to what year, stress casualties, such as “shell shock,” were believed to
be true medical injuries caused by physical disruption in the brain as a result of
nearby artillery blasts? (Page 5-6)
1916
7. Service members in what stress Zone feel mild and temporary distress or loss
of function due to stress? (Page 5-10)
Yellow “Reacting”
8. What stress Zone can be defined as encompassing more severe and persistent
forms of distress or loss of function that signal the presence of some kind of
damage to the mind, brain, or spirit? (Page 5-11)
Orange “Injured”
9. Combat operational stress injuries have how many different possible
mechanisms or causes? (Page 5-11)
Four
10. What has been called the “signature injury” of the current wars in Iraq and
Afghanistan? (Page 5-13)
Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
11. COSRs are the mildest and most common form of deployment-related
stress problems, while what is the most severe? (Page 5-14)
PTSD
12. What is the only condition in the present DSM that includes a stressor as
part of the diagnosis? (Page 5-17)
PTSD
13. The core features of PTSD are remarkably consistent over time and from
one individual to another. These features include how many cardinal symptoms
and several associated sets of symptoms? (Page 5-17)
Four
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15. Who is a person who moves regularly from country, place or locality to find
work? (Page 6-15)
Migrant
16. A civilian removed from a place of residence by competent authority or
military direction for reasons of personal security or the requirements of the
military situation is defined as what? (Page 6-15)
Evacuee
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19. How many types of appropriations may be used in the Navy depending on
the purpose for which they are issued? (Page 7-10)
Three
20. What type of appropriation is available for incurring obligations until the
purpose for which the appropriation was made is accomplished? (Page 7-10)
Continuing
21. Two types of funds are used extensively throughout the Navy and RP’s
need to understand how and why they are used. What are the two types of
funds? (Page 7-11)
Revolving and trust
22. What is established to provide working capital for the Navy? (Page 7-11)
Revolving fund
23. What provides the necessary capital to finance the purchase and
maintenance of stocks of common supply items which are required for the
support and operation of the entire Navy? (Page 7-11)
Navy Stock Fund (NSF)
24. The total value of the NSF is reviewed how often by Congress and is
adjusted accordingly to meet current operating requirements? (Page 7-11)
Annually
25. What serves as the “holding account” for NSF-procured supplies until they
are sold? (Page 7-12)
Navy Stock Account
26. What is a revolving fund which is used to finance the cost of maintaining
and operating industrial commercial-type activities such as naval shipyards?
(Page 7-13)
Navy Industrial Fund (NIP)
27. What provides a single permanent revolving fund for financing all work
which is not chargeable to some current naval appropriation? (Page 7-13)
Naval Working Fund (NWF)
28. What is defined as an estimate of the amount of money which will be
required by a ship, staff, squadron, shore installation, or other unit, to perform
its assigned mission? (Page 7-16)
OPTAR
29. What is the conscious process of selecting and developing the best course
of action in order to accomplish an objective? (Page 7-17)
Planning
30. Planning in the Department of Defense system is normally projected how
many years in the future? (Page 7-17)
5
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1. Navy’s General Library Program (NGLP), under the control the Commander
Naval Installations Command (CNIC) Fleet and Family Readiness Program,
provides for 422 afloat and 32 ashore libraries with an inventory of more than
how many books? (Page 8-1)
2.5 million
2. The first ship’s library was placed aboard the warship USS Franklin in what
year? (Page 8-1)
1821
3. The first ship’s library venture was initiated by whom who was a New York
philanthropist? (Page 8-1)
Mr. William Wood
4. Who serves as Navy resource sponsor for the NGLP? (Page 8-4)
SECNAV
5. Under SECNAV, who is assigned responsibility to coordinate and align
policies for Naval library and information centers throughout the Department of
the Navy (DON)? (Page 8-4)
Chief Information Officer (CIO)
6. What serves as inventory manager for library materials in the NGLP, and
directs and coordinates within the naval service the redistribution of
collections, furnishings, and equipment of libraries being consolidated or
closed? (Page 8-4)
CNIC
7. Aboard ship, who is responsible for the maintenance and operation of the
command’s general library program? (Page 8-6)
Commanding Officer
8. What assists in the training of library officers and attendants through
publications, consultations, and through the provision of training aids? (Page 8-
8)
NGLP
9. The basic collection of books provided for the shipboard library is generally
based on 1.5 clothbound books per authorized billet. Nonfiction books make up
approximately what percent of the total? (Page 8-9)
65%
10. Any ship’s general library collection can and may be augmented from the
library material stocks maintained by the NGLP. The library officer or the RP
is responsible for the preparation of the actual letter request for submission to
CNIC. The timing of stock requests is critical. A minimum of how many weeks
from time of receipt of the request to shipment from contracted vendors is
normally required? (Page 8-9)
8
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11. Mass market paperbacks are furnished how often by CNIC to ships to
supplement the clothbound library collection? (Page 8-13)
Monthly
12. Nonfiction books are filed in the ships library in numerical order by what
class number? (Page 8-17)
Dewey Decimal
13. The usual loan period for books in the general library collection is how
many weeks with an option for renewal? (Page 8-21)
2
14. Loan period for audio books should not exceed how many days? (Page 8-
22)
3
15. What is a procedure for meeting needs of library patrons arising from
serious research and study which cannot be met from the library’s collection or
via the acquisition procedures of a library? (Page 8-23)
Interlibrary loan and borrowing
16. What form must be used in interlibrary transactions? (Page 8-23)
SF 162
17. Details on plans for libraries of newly constructed/converted ships are given
in what series? (Page 8-24)
OPNAVINST 9330.5
18. Library air-conditioning, ventilation, humidity, the lighting system, and
noise and vibration levels must conform to standards specified in what series?
(Page 8-26)
OPNAVINST 9330.5
19. No unsupported span of shelves in the ships library should be over how
many feet long? (Page 8-26)
3
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(20 Questions)
Section I
1. What section of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year
2000 required the Department of Defense to provide Military Funeral Honors
to all eligible veterans, upon request, beginning January 1, 2000? (Page I-1)
Section 578
2. The funeral honors ceremony shall, at a minimum, consist of the folding and
presentation of the American flag and the playing of what? (Page I-1)
Taps
3. What term means a decedent who served in the active military, naval, or air
service (as defined in 38 U.S.C. § 101(24)) and who was discharged or released
from the military under conditions other than dishonorable? (Page I-3)
Veteran
4. Who may waive the Military Funeral Honors requirement if it is considered
necessary to meet the requirements of war, national emergency, contingency
operation or other military requirements? (Page I-3)
Secretary of Defense
5. Members who die while on active duty or who have been awarded the Medal
of Honor, shall be provided a detail consisting of the following: 6 body bearers,
a how many person firing detail, an Officer-in-Charge (OIC) or a Petty Officer-
in-Charge (POIC) and a bugler? (Page I-3)
7
6. The eligibility for funeral honors of members who die while in an appellate
leave status will be determined on a case-by-case basis by whom? (Page I-3)
Commander Navy Personnel Command
7. When personnel are limited, military funeral honors may be efficiently
rendered by a detail of how many members and the OIC/POIC? (Page I-4)
Eight
8. If possible, the firing detail should be positioned approximately how many
feet from the foot of the grave, aligned to fire in the general direction of, but
not directly at, the grave or mourners? (Page I-4)
100
9. When the remains of the deceased have been cremated, only how many body
bearers are needed to transport the urn and folded flag from the vehicle
containing the cremains to the grave? (Page I-5)
Two
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10. In the event of an active duty death, the next of kin may request the services
of a Navy chaplain through the what? (Page I-6)
CACO
11. In naval funerals, when the National Ensign is draped over the casket, what
part of the flag is over the left shoulder of the deceased? (Page I-6)
Blue Field
Section II
1. The regulations for the disposition of remains and inurned cremated remains
(cremains) from a naval vessel, or inurned cremains from a naval aircraft are
set forth by what? (Page II-1)
Bureau of Medicine and Surgery
2. Requests to conduct committal of remains casketed in a metal casket or
inurned cremains at sea from a ship, or to disperse cremains from an aircraft
should be referred by the what (in the case of active duty members)? (Page II-
1)
CACO
3. Any change in the schedule that would cause a delay to exceed the how
many weeks disposition of remains at sea date, the MMSO should advise the
next of kin and the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) of the change?
(Page II-1)
10
4. Committal at sea of remains shall be conducted outside the 3-mile limit, off
the continental shelf, and a depth greater than how many fathoms? (Page II-2)
100
5. Dispersion of cremains at sea from an aircraft shall not be performed less
than how many miles from the nearest land? (Page II-2)
3
6. Who shall coordinate arrangements for delivery of remains or cremated
remains to either the ship at dockside for committal at sea or to the
commanding officer of the activity responsible for dispersion of cremated
remains at sea from an aircraft? (Page II-2)
MMSO
7. There are two component parts of the ceremony of at sea disposition: What
are they? (Page II-5)
Religious and military
8. Disposition at sea is normally accomplished within how many weeks from
the time the responsible Fleet Commander-in-Chief is notified of a request?
(Page II-7)
8 to 10
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(31 Questions)
Section 1
1. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted when directed
by the Department of the Navy for officials (less 4 star admiral)? (Page 2-1)
Special Full Honor (Combined)
2. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for a 4 star
admiral? (Page 2-1)
Special Full Honor
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3. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for vice
admirals, rear admirals and captains? (Page 2-2)
Full Honor (Company)
4. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for officers
below the rank of captain? (Page 2-2)
Full Honor (Platoon)
5. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for Master Chief
Petty Officers of the Navy? (Page 2-2)
Full Honor (Squad)
6. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for senior chief
petty officers and all other enlisted personnel? (Page 2-3)
Simple Honor Funeral
Section 3
1. Who commands all military units that participate in a naval funeral, and
together with the chaplain, is responsible for the proper conduct of the funeral
ceremony? (Page 3-1)
Escort commander
2. The escort commander for naval funerals conducted at Arlington National
Cemetery is assigned in accordance with what instruction? (Page 3-1)
OPNAVINST 5360.3
3. Who marches in formation with and issues all commands to the escort, color
detail and band? (Page 3-1)
Commander of troops
Section 4
1. Ft. Myer chapel services usually begin on the hour, although Catholic
services often begin how many minutes before the hour? (Page 4-1)
Fifteen
Section 5
1. A Grave Service is applicable only to Simple Honor and what other funerals?
(Page 6-1)
Dependent
Section 7
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1. In Full Honor funerals of officers and officials entitled to a gun salute, the
gun salute fired by an Army saluting battery takes place immediately prior to
the what? (Page 8-2)
Chaplain’s benediction
Section 9
1. The personal flag is carried at what funerals of officers and officials who are
entitled to a gun salute? (Page 9-1)
FULL HONOR
Section 10
1. If honorary pallbearers take part in the funeral ceremony they should meet at
the chapel, transfer location or grave at least how many minutes before
ceremony time in order to receive instructions? (Page 11-1)
Twenty
2. The uniform for honorary pallbearers is the service dress of the season. In
case of cold or inclement weather overcoats or raincoats may be worn. Grey
gloves are worn with the overcoat. What are never worn? (Page 11-2)
White gloves
Section 12
1. In naval funerals the flag is folded by the casket bearer detail immediately
after the sounding of what? (Page 12-1)
Taps
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2. When the flag is completely folded, only the blue field should be visible and
the flag should be folded in what shape? (Page 12-1)
Triangle
Section 13
1. When the flag is draped over the casket, the blue field of the flag is over
what shoulder of the deceased? (Page 13-2)
Left
Section 14
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(113 Questions)
Chapter 1
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20. Which date were all memorandums, letters, spreadsheets, hard copy or
electronic lists and surveys that collected, used, or maintained the Social
Security Number (SSN) eliminated unless they had justification for continued
use of the SSN and could be verified? (Page 2-7)
October 1st, 2015
21. How many digits is the Electronic Data Interchange Personal Identifier
(EDIPI)? (Page 2-8)
10
22. What is the standard paper size for all official letterhead stationery? (Page
2-8)
8.5”x11”
23. What may never be included on the From line when using command
letterhead stationery? (Page 2-8)
Individual name
24. How many inches is the diameter of the DoD seal used on Department of
the Navy (DON) letterhead stationery? (Page 2-9)
1”
25. What must the address lines of letterhead for Navy activities conform to?
(Page 2-9)
Standard Navy Distribution List (SNDL)
26. What must the address lines of letterhead for Marine Corps activities
comply with? (Page 2-9)
MCO 5215.1K
27. What can be used to prevent a letter from becoming too detailed? (Page 2-
9)
Enclosure
28. Where must enclosures be marked? (Page 2-10)
First page
29. Where must enclosure markings be placed on the page? (Page 2-10)
Lower right corner
30. How many digits are used to express military time? (Page 2-11)
4
31. How many different types of date formats may be used in Navy
correspondence? (Page 2-11)
3
32. What are one of the most misused aspects of correspondence? (Page 2-11)
Abbreviations and acronyms
33. Which manual should be referenced for examples on punctuating,
capitalizing, and spelling? (Page 2-12)
Government Printing Office (GPO) Style Manual
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34. What is the preferred font style for official correspondence? (Page 2-13)
Times New Roman
35. What is the preferred font size for official correspondence? (Page 2-13)
12
36. Which type of font may be used for informal correspondence? (Page 2-13)
Courier New
37. Which color should be used by the activity head for correspondence
editing? (Page 2-13)
Red
38. Which color should be used by the Executive Officer for correspondence
editing? (Page 2-13)
Green
39. Which color should be used by Heads of Administration for correspondence
editing? (Page 2-13)
Purple
Chapter 3
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1. What must be used for long-haul data communications support? (Page 4-1)
Defense Data Network
2. How often at a minimum must users check their e-mail inbox per day? (Page
4-1)
Twice
3. Activities should ensure that personnel should create an automated e-mail
response annotating that they are absent if they are absent for more than how
many days? (Page 4-1)
3
4. E-mail must be marked in accordance with which instruction when
transmitting Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? (Page 4-1)
SECNAVINST 5211.5E
5. What must be used to digitally sign e-mail messages which require integrity
or non-repudiation? (Page 4-3)
DoD Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Chapter 5
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6. What is the maximum character limit per line, including spaces, on envelope
return addresses? (Page 6-2)
47
7. The last line of the address should be no lower than 5/8” and the top line of
the address should be no higher than how many inches from the bottom of the
envelope? (Page 6-2)
2.25”
8. Which instruction contains the definitions of classes of mail and special
supplemental postal services? (Page 6-3)
OPNAVINST 5218.7C
9. Where should the mail marking, i.e., first-class, priority, etc., be placed on
the envelope? (Page 6-3)
Upper right corner
Chapter 7
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1. Which type of letter should be used for more than one action addressee?
(Page 8-1)
Multiple-address
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Chapter 11
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4. Changes to action office assignment shall be made within how many hours
of initial assignment? (Page 12-2)
48
5. Within how many working days of being entered into the Central
Management System (CMS) for taskers should all general correspondence be
responded to? (Page 12-2)
10
6. Within how many working days of being entered into taskers should all
Congressional correspondence be responded to? (Page 12-2)
5
7. Which form should be used to request an extension of an OSD tasker? (Page
12-2)
SD Form 391
8. Who will sign all correspondence addressed to the chairpersons of
Congressional committees or subcommittees except for routine reports to
Congress? (Page 12-6)
SECNAV
9. Which type of memorandum should be used within the President and White
house staff, DoD, Office of the Secretary of the Navy, and Chief of Naval
Operations and to send routine material to other Federal agencies? (Page 12-6)
Memoranda for correspondence
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Chapter 5
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(32 Questions)
Introduction
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1. The ROF custodian shall Maintain files for a minimum of how many fiscal
years at Navy commands and Marine Corps commands? (Page 3-2)
4
Chapter 4
1. Commands with ROFs shall establish ROF audit boards and at appoint at
least how many members of the command to serve on the board? (Page 4-1)
Two
2. The Marine Corps Non-Appropriated Fund Audit Service (MCNAFAS) shall
conduct audits of ROFs at Marine Corps commands in accordance with what
reference? (Page 4-1)
MCO 7510.2E
3. The ROF audit board shall conduct audits at least how often or when
directed by the commanding officer? (Page 4-1)
Quarterly
Chapter 5
1. Who may not serve as a designated faith group representative? (Page 5-1)
Fund administrator
2. When a faith group, which has a ROF sub-account, does not have an
assigned chaplain, the command may appoint a Lay Leader, governed by what
reference, to serve as the designated faith group representative? (Page 5-1)
MILPERSMAN 1730-010
Chapter 6
1. The ROF organizational card shall identify the commander as President, the
administrator as the Vice President, and the custodian as the what? (Page 6-1)
Secretary/Treasurer
2. Commanders shall use the Sub-Account ROF Receipt to acknowledge
individual donations equal to or greater than what amount ensuring compliance
with Internal Revenue Code Sec.170(f)(B)? (Page 6-3)
$250
3. Manually maintained ROF ledgers shall be kept in what color ink? (Page 6-
4)
Blank
4. Each ROF sub-account shall maintain a "subsidiary ledger" or a "subsidiary
ledger to the receipts ledger" to record individual donations of what amount or
more? (Page 6-4)
$250
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5. The subsidiary ledger shall be reconciled with the respective ROF sub-
account ledger how often? (Page 6-4)
Monthly
6. What expenses/income are items, which cannot properly be attributed to any
sub-account? (Page 6-5)
Fair-Share
7. What accounting basis shall be used for the ROF? (Page 6-7)
Cash
Appendix C
1. What are operation and maintenance funds made available by the Congress
of the United States for the purpose of providing required logistical support for
the free exercise of religion through the Command Religious Program? (Page
C-1)
Appropriated Funds
2. Documentation of funds from receipt to deposit or from request for
disbursement to completion of the disbursement form what? (Page C-1)
Audit Trail
3. Documentation of funds from receipt to deposit or from request for
disbursement to completion of the disbursement are known as what? (Page C-
1)
Charitable organization
4. What are religious organizations registered with the Department of Defense
and other affiliated religious groups granted tax-free status by the Internal
Revenue Service? (Page C-1)
Faith groups
5. What is a faith group sponsored effort, coordinated by the respective faith
group representative, to develop and promote faith group participation,
cohesiveness, spiritual enrichment, or extend appreciation to volunteers? (Page
C-1)
Fellowship
6. The 12 months used for a complete accounting cycle are known as what?
(Page C-2)
Fiscal year
7. What is the accounting document on which receipts, expenses and balances
are recorded? (Page C-2)
Ledger
8. What is the process of comparing the bank statement with the custodian's
financial records to insure that no discrepancies exist? (Page C-2)
Reconciliation
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(200 Questions)
Chapter 1
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7. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E6-E7? (Page
2-2)
36
8. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E7-E8? (Page
2-2)
36
9. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E8-E9? (Page
2-2)
36
10. What publication defines the path of advancement? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS l8068F
11. What form should be used to enter the actual designation date for rating
conversions in the same paygrade? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS 1070/604
12. Which MILPERSMAN article contains guidance on personnel designations
other than those graduating from “A” school? (Page 2-2)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
13. What contain procedures for establishing eligibility for entry into
closed/open ratings with regards to Rating Entry for General Apprentices
(REGA) and Career Reenlistment Objectives (CREO), and Enlisted Career
Management Objectives (ECMO) ALNAVRESFORs for drilling Navy
Reservists? (Page 2-2)
NAVADMINs
14. How long prior to selection board convening must personnel who are
Selection Board Eligible submit for a change of rating in order to receive a
review by the selection board in the new rating? (Page 2-3)
1 month
15. MILPERSMAN 1440-010 along with which other article contain the
methods for changing from one path of advancement to another? (Page 2-3)
1160-090
16. What authority is required to participate in Navy-wide examinations for
change in rating? (Page 2-3)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
17. Which type of alien has been lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent
residence under an immigration visa? (Page 2-4)
Immigrant alien
18. How many years is the naturalization residency requirement reduced down
to after 3 years of honorable service in the U.S. Armed Forces? (Page 2-5)
3
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30. What is the date from which an advancement candidate's total service in
paygrade is considered to have commenced for the purpose of computing
advancement eligibility for the next higher paygrade? (Page 2-15)
TIR
31. What is defined as those members not under a Navy contract at time of
reentry to naval service or Navy Reservists attached to the IRR? (Page 2-15)
Break in service
32. A break in service of what duration for NAVETs returning to active duty or
to Drilling Reserve in the same paygrade held at discharge, release, or transfer
to the IRR will have an adjusted TIR date? (Page 2-15)
24 hours
33. Lost time exceeding how many days as a result of an unauthorized absence,
sick-misconduct, misconduct, or confinement is not creditable in computing
service in paygrade? (Page 2-18)
15
34. What paygrades (one paygrade only) do COs/OICs have the authority to
reinstate members to anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher
authority? (Page 2-19)
E2 or E3
35. What holds the only reinstatement authority to reinstate E4 through E6
paygrades? (Page 2-20)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
36. Up to what amount of the required TIR for Sailors in paygrades E5 and E6
who received an Early Promote promotion recommendation on their most
recent observed periodic evaluation in their current paygrade can be waived by
COs/OICs? (Page 2-20)
1 year
37. For up to how many consecutive examination cycles covered by the most
recent observed periodic evaluation report can CO’s authorize Early TIR
waivers? (Page 2-20)
Two
38. How long must personnel have served as an E6 prior to participation in the
E7 examination for LDO purposes? (Page 2-21)
1 year
Chapter 3
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2. At least how long prior to the scheduled examination should ESO’s prepare
worksheets for eligible candidates? (Page 3-1)
1 month
3. Approximately how many days prior to the scheduled examination date
should the ESO review each advancement exam candidates worksheet? (Page
3-1)
10
4. What is the maximum number of award points authorized for E6
advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
12
5. How many award points is a Medal of Honor worth when calculating the
FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
10
6. How many award points is a Navy Cross worth when calculating the FMS
for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
5
7. How many award points is a Distinguished Service Medal or Cross worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
8. How many award points is a Silver Star Medal worth when calculating FMS
for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
9. How many award points is a Legion of Merit worth when calculating FMS
for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
10. How many award points is a Distinguished Flying Cross worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
11. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
12. How many award points is a Bronze Star Medal worth when calculating
FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
13. How many award points is a Purple Heart worth when calculating FMS for
E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
14. How many award points is a Defense Meritorious Service Medal worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
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15. How many award points is a Meritorious Service Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
16. How many award points is an Air Medal (Strike/Flight) worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
17. How many award points is a Joint Service Commendation Medal worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
18. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Commendation
Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?
(Page 3-6)
3
19. How many award points is an Executive Letter of Commendation worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
20. How many award points is a Joint Service Achievement Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
21. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal
worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page
3-6)
2
22. How many award points is a Combat Action Ribbon worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
23. How many award points is a Gold Life Saving Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
24. How many award points is a Good Conduct Medal (Navy or Marine Corps)
worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page
3-6)
2
25. How many award points is a Navy Reserve Meritorious Service Medal
worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page
3-6)
2
26. How many award points is a Letter of Commendation (Flag/Senior
Executive Service) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam
candidates? (Page 3-6)
1
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27. What is the maximum number of points for letters of commendation signed
by a flag, general or Senior Executive Service (SES) officer that will be
credited towards the awards factor for E4, E5, and E6 candidates? (Page 3-7)
Two
28. Which awards are considered Letters of Commendation that are signed by
flag officers? (Page 3-7)
Gold and Silver Wreath
29. PMA is required for each advancement candidate except for E8/9 and E7
PEP candidates who have already achieved an advancement examination
standard score of what or greater and have been identified as Selection Board
Eligible? (Page 3-8)
50
30. What is an Early Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
4.0
31. What is an Must Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.8
32. What is a Promotable evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.6
33. What is a Progressing evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.4
34. What is a Significant Problems evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-
8)
2.0
35. What should requests for correction or addition to awards factor after the
advancement exam be submitted to? (Page 3-11)
NETPDTC
Chapter 4
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1. Who reviews all the directives pertinent to the advancement system with all
other designated personnel prior to examination administration? (Page 6-1)
ESO
2. What type of pencil or electrographic black lead pencil must exam
candidates use? (Page 6-2)
#2
3. Which ratings are not authorized to use preprogrammed construction,
electrician, plumbing, or other calculators that are specifically designed for
tradesman use? (Page 6-3)
Seabee
4. Which advancement exam candidates are authorized to use general scientific
calculators that are not programmable? (Page 6-3)
Engineering Aid (EA)
5. What are not authorized to be worn during the examination? (Page 6-3)
Wristwatches
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17. Which USPS mail service will Overseas Shore Commands use to send in
advancement exam answer sheets? (Page 6-9)
3-day express
18. Who is solely responsible for ensuring that all examination booklets and
related testing materials are accurately accounted for and destroyed? (Page 6-
10)
CO/OIC
19. Which manual contains the destruction procedures to be followed after
administering the advancement examination for destroying all examination
booklets, used and unused, and scratch paper? (Page 6-10)
SECNAV M-5510.36
20. How long must copies of reports be maintained locally at the command for
the destruction and receipts for transfer of examinations? (Page 6-11)
2 years
21. Within how many days after the last drill weekend of the month that the
advancement examination was administered must the unused inactive reserve
examinations be destroyed? (Page 6-11)
5
22. At least how many consecutive days in one of the eligible areas are Sailors
required to serve to be considered an eligible assignment? (Page 6-11)
30
23. Which day in January are Active Duty E7 Regular advancement
examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
3rd Thursday
24. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E6 Regular
advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
1st Thursday
25. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E5 Regular
advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
2nd Thursday
26. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E4 Regular
advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
3rd Thursday
27. If Sailors are within how many days of a pending deployment to Iraq,
Afghanistan, or the Horn of Africa and they are eligible in all other respects for
participation in the E4 to E7 advancement examinations than they are
authorized to take early examinations? (Page 6-14)
60
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28. No more than how many days prior to deployment date (to include the
indoctrination and training pipeline but not including any personal leave) will
commands submit early examination requests in the same format as a substitute
examination request? (Page 6-15)
90
29. The EMF along with what else are used by NETPDTC to automatically
validate all personnel who are TIR eligible for E8/9? (Page 6-19)
IMAPMIS
30. Approximately how many months prior to the convening date of E8/9
selection boards will NETPDTC forward an Examination Status Verification
Report (ESVR) listing all E7/8 TIR eligible personnel? (Page 6-19)
3
Chapter 7
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2. Executive Order along with what else designate combat and direct support
combat zones? (Page 8-1)
Congressional Action
3. A 1-year TIR waiver is authorized for the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program for advancement to what paygrade? (Page 8-2)
E6
4. What has the overall authority for the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
CHNAVPERS
5. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to
E-2? (Page 8-2)
Unlimited
6. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to
E-3? (Page 8-2)
6
7. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for advancing personnel to E-4 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
4
8. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for advancing personnel to E-5 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
2
9. How many quotas per quarter are authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for advancing personnel to E-6 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
1
10. Within how many years of the meritorious action/performance in combat
must nominations be submitted for the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-3)
1
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1. How will Sailors who die while in a selectee or Passed Not Advanced (PNA)
status be advanced? (Page 9-1)
Posthumously
2. What form will the CNO (N135C) prepare upon receipt of an posthumous
advancement authorization to indicate a posthumous advancement? (Page 9-2)
DD 1300
Chapter 10
1. What is the highest paygrade that may be held by recruiters to be eligible for
meritorious advancement under the recruiter meritorious advancement
program? (Page 10-1)
E-6
2. What has final EROY or ERROY approval after selection boards have
reviewed all nominations? (Page 10-1)
COMNAVCRUITCOM
3. What is the minimum TIR that must be met by the EROY and ERROY prior
to effecting the meritorious advancement to the next paygrade? (Page 10-1)
1 year
4. What will COMNAVCRUITCOM forward their EROY and ERROY
selections to for issuance of advancement authorization? (Page 10-2)
NAVPERSCOM
Chapter 11
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8. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are
required to be eligible for advancement to E-9? (Page 12-2)
19
9. What is the maximum percentage of the total number of Sailors in the E7/8/9
paygrades that may have less than the prescribed TAFMS? (Page 12-2)
10%
10. What convenes the enlisted selection boards? (Page 12-3)
CHNAVPERS
11. Where are the permanent records for each rating maintained? (Page 12-3)
Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)
12. What is the electronic snapshot of the official record referred to as? (Page
12-3)
PSR
13. Who is the only person that can submit unofficial correspondence to the
President of the selection board? (Page 12-3)
Candidate
14. What is the single most important factor that influences selection during the
enlisted selection board? (Page 12-4)
Sustained superior performance
15. How many different selection board panel members review each
candidate’s record? (Page 12-4)
Two
16. What is the process called when the enlisted selection board panel arranges
all the candidates from top to bottom once the review of an entire rating is
complete? (Page 12-4)
Slating
17. What is the final approval authority for all enlisted selection board
recommendations? (Page 12-5)
CHNAVPERS
18. What is the official announcement made to individual Navy commands that
must be in the command’s possession prior to frocking of selectees? (Page 12-
5)
NAVADMIN
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(230 Questions)
Enclosure 1
1. Which type of report is used for officers (W2-O6) under the Navy
Performance Evaluation System? (Page E1-1)
FITREP
2. Which type of report is used for Chief Petty Officers (CPO) (E7-E9) under
the Navy Performance Evaluation System? (Page E1-1)
CHIEFEVAL
3. Which type of report is used for enlisted personnel (E1-E6) under the Navy
Performance Evaluation System? (Page E1-1)
EVAL
4. How many points is the scale that performance traits are graded on? (Page
E1-1)
5
5. Which performance trait grade represents performance to full Navy
standards? (Page E1-1)
3.0
6. Which performance trait grades must be substantiated in the comments, as
well as general comments on the remainder of the evaluative blocks? (Page E1-
1)
1.0
7. How many steps is the promotion recommendation scale for all forms? (Page
E1-1)
5
8. No promotion recommendation higher than what is allowed for pay grades
O1 and O2 (with the exception of limited duty officers (LDOs))? (Page E1-1)
Promotable
9. An enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 and civilians in command positions who
hold the grade of GS-9 through GS-12 may sign reports on which grade and
below? (Page E1-2)
E-5
10. A Chief Petty Officer (CPO) or Senior Chief Petty Officer (SCPO) may
sign reports on personnel at or below which grade? (Page E1-2)
E-4
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11. Reports for E1-E9 reports may be signed by civilians in command positions
who hold which minimum grade or equivalent? (Page 2)
GS-13
12. EVALs on personnel in which grade and below should contain the
signatures of a rater and senior rater? (Page E1-2)
E-6
13. Who is ultimately responsible for the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, and EVAL
program? (Page E1-4)
Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)
14. How many types of reports are there? (Page E1-4)
3
15. Which type of reports are the foundation of the performance record and
must cover, day-for-day, all naval service on active duty or inactive drilling
Reserve duty, except for enlisted initial entry training and other limited
circumstances? (Page E1-4)
Regular
16. Which type of reports provide a record of significant performance for active
duty (ACDU) and Full Time Support (FTS) members fulfilling additional duty
(ADDU) or temporary additional duty (TEMADD) orders; and for Reservists
supporting the ACDU and/or their designated cross-assigned billet assignment?
(Page E1-4)
Concurrent
17. The administrative blocks, blocks 1, 3-19, blocks 22-26, block 44
(FITREP/CHIEFEVAL) or which block on the (EVAL), identify the report,
define the context in which it was received, and make it more informative to
detailers and selection boards? (Page E1-5)
48
18. What is the FITREP and EVAL form-filler computer application program?
(Page E1-5)
NAVFIT 98A
19. Which performance trait grade is reserved for performance that is far above
standards and is notable for its exemplary or leadership quality? (Page E1-5)
5.0
20. Which performance trait grade means generally poor performance that is
not improving, or unsatisfactory performance with respect to a single standard?
(Page E1-5)
1.0
21. Which performance trait grade means the Sailor could be promoted two pay
grades, and still be a standout in this trait? (Page E1-6)
Superstar Performance – 5.0
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Introduction
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18. Which performance report block contains the members physical readiness
status? (Page 1-6)
20
19. Which performance report block contains the members billet subcategory,
if any? (Page 1-8)
21
20. Which performance report block names the reporting senior? (Page 1-11)
22
21. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s grade?
(Page 1-11)
23
22. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's four-digit
officer designator? (Page 1-12)
24
23. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s title? (Page
1-12)
25
24. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s UIC? (Page
1-12)
26
25. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s social
security number? (Page 1-12)
27
26. Which performance report block contains command employment and
command achievements? (Page 1-13)
28
27. Which performance report block contains the members
Primary/Collateral/Watchstanding duties? (Page 1-13)
29
28. Which performance report block contains the date the member was
counseled? (Page 1-14)
30
29. Which performance report block contains the name of the members
counselor? (Page 1-14)
31
30. Which performance report block contains the signature of the individual
counseled? (Page 1-15)
32
31. Which performance report blocks contain the members performance traits?
(Page 1-15)
33-39
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32. Which performance report block contains the individual trait average?
(Page 1-16)
40
33. Which EVAL performance report block contains the career
recommendations for the member being counseled? (Page 1-17)
41
34. Which performance report block contains the signature of the rater? (Page
1-17)
42
35. Which EVAL performance report block contains comments on
performance? (Page 1-17)
43
36. Which performance report block contains the members
qualifications/achievements? (Page 1-17)
44
37. Which EVAL performance report block contains the individuals promotion
recommendation? (Page 1-18)
45
38. What is the highest promotion recommendation a member can receive who
receives one or two 2.0 trait grades? (Page 1-18)
Promotable
39. What must Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity
(FITREP/EVAL), and Character (CHIEFEVAL) be evaluated as at a minimum
to maintain eligibility for advancement and receive a recommendation of
Promotable? (Page 1-18)
3.0
40. Enlisted members who receive any performance trait grade of what lose
eligibility for the Navy Good Conduct Medal and must reestablish a new 3-year
period following the end date of the report? (Page 1-18)
1.0
41. What is the maximum promotion recommendation that Ensign and
lieutenant junior grade can receive on their FITREPs for designators other than
LDO (6XXX)? (Page 1-19)
Promotable
42. What does Significant Problems equal on the scale for enlisted performance
reports? (Page 1-19)
2.0
43. What is the upper limit on Early Promote recommendations for all pay
grades except non-Limited Duty Officer O1/O2 for each summary group?
(Page 1-20)
20%
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44. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for E1-E4 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
No limit
45. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for E5-E6 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
60%
46. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for E7-E9 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
50%
47. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for LDO O1-O2 for each summary group? (Page
1-20)
No limit
48. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for W3-W5s for each summary group? (Page 1-
20)
50%
49. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for O-3s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
60%
50. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for O-4s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
50%
51. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for O-5 and O-6s for each summary group? (Page
1-20)
40%
52. Which EVAL performance report block contains the summary? (Page 1-22)
46
53. Which performance report block contains the retention recommendation?
(Page 1-24)
47
54. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting seniors
address? (Page 1-25)
48
55. Which performance report block contains the signature of the senior rater?
(Page 1-25)
49
56. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting senior
signature? (Page 1-25)
50
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57. Which EVAL performance report block contains the signature of the
individual being evaluated? (Page 1-25)
51
58. The reporting senior shall hand write in the signature block of the member
“certified, copy provided” if the report is not adverse and if the member is not
expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or how
many days (inactive duty)? (Page 1-26)
30
59. Which EVAL performance report block contains the regular reporting
senior signature on concurrent reports? (Page 1-26)
52
60. Which manual should be used for instructions on mailing classified
material? (Page 1-29)
SECNAV M-5510.36
Chapter 2
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1. Which type of reports are normally considered to be regular reports for both
officers and enlisted? (Page 3-1)
Special
2. What is the only type of report that provides continuity? (Page 3-1)
Regular
3. No more than how many months may be covered by regular reports,
including letter-extensions, without NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval?
(Page 3-1)
15
4. Periodic reports may be omitted if the member received an Observed
Regular report ending no more than how many months prior to the Periodic
report date? (Page 3-2)
3
5. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are not required from an interim
reporting senior who has been on board for how many months or less if the
reporting senior's permanent relief agrees to cover the period in the next
Regular report? (Page 3-4)
3
6. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are optional for personnel in which
paygrades? (Page 3-4)
E1-E9
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7. Periodic reports may be omitted and added to the next period if Detachment
of Reporting Senior reports were submitted for a particular paygrade, and, if the
next report is the periodic report but is less than how many days from the
previous Detachment of Reporting Senior report? (Page 3-5)
90
8. A Promotion/Frocking EVAL must always be submitted upon promotion or
frocking to which paygrade? (Page 3-5)
E-7
9. Promotion/frocking reports for officers or enlisted members who have been
promoted should not be submitted unless the change in Periodic report dates
will result in more than how many months between Regular reports? (Page 3-5)
15
10. A new reporting senior who has not written an “Observed” report on a
member may submit a Special report on an officer or CPO who is eligible
before a promotion selection board if the individual has performed significant
duties under that reporting senior for at least how many months? (Page 3-7)
3
11. An E-6 may receive a Special report for a promotion selection board who
has performed duty at a new command for at least how many months who has
not yet received an Observed report? (Page 3-7)
3
12. A Special report may not be submitted for the sole purpose of raising what?
(Page 3-8)
Performance Mark Average (PMA)
13. Which type of reports are Detachment of Reporting Senior reports that are
optional for E1-E6 submitted as? (Page 3-9)
Special
14. Special FITREPs for superior performance or recommendations are
specifically prohibited for which personnel? (Page 3-9)
Officers
15. For up to how many months can a Special report be extended for unless it
was submitted for the reduction-in-rate of an enlisted member? (Page 3-9)
3
Chapter 4
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1. An “X” in which block identifies a Not Observed (NOB) report? (Page 6-1)
16
2. Which type of reports are intended to fulfill reporting requirements during
periods of brief service when a detailed assessment cannot be provided? (Page
6-1)
Not Observed (NOB)
3. Not Observed (NOB) reports may be submitted for short periods of duty or
TEMDU (no more than how many months) that are purely for administrative or
training purposes, during which the member’s performance is completely
independent of their permanent command’s influence? (Page 6-1)
3
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4. Not Observed (NOB) reports are suitable for periods of how many or more
days? (Page 6-1)
10
5. What should be used to assess periods under 10 days? (Page 6-1)
Performance Information Memorandum (PIM)
6. When circumstances warrant, it is allowable to evaluate a maximum of how
many traits without making a promotion recommendation? (Page 6-1)
3
7. An Observed report with a “NOB” promotion recommendation cannot be
submitted if the member receives a 1.0 in any trait, a single 2.0 or below in
Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity or Character, how
many 2.0 trait grades, or adverse information in the comments? (Page 6-2)
3
8. Which blocks can’t contain entries on a Not Observed (NOB) EVAL? (Page
6-2)
33-39, 41, 46, and 47
9. Which blocks can’t contain entries on a Not Observed (NOB)
FITREP/CHIEFEVAL? (Page 6-2)
33-40, 43
Chapter 7
1. When a member is ordered for duty to a civilian (other than U.S. Federal
Government) or foreign activity, the orders will normally designate an assigned
reporting senior. Who is the assigned reporting senior for the member if none
are designated? (Page 7-1)
U.S. administrative commander
2. How many months before a Periodic report is due and on detachment of the
member are letter reports desired? (Page 7-1)
1
3. Which format must letter reports be in? (Page 7-2)
Narrative
Chapter 8
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2. Which type of report will be submitted by reporting seniors when needed for
a purpose such as the establishment of an advancement recommendation,
document superior or substandard performance, a recommendation for a special
program, reduction in rate, etc.? (Page 8-1)
Special
3. Begin Regular EVAL continuity as of the date of detachment from the final
phase of Initial Entry Training (IET) or at the end of the second regular
reporting period during IET if the training is expected to exceed how many
months? (Page 8-1)
12
4. Either submit a Detachment of Individual Regular report, or provide a
Performance Information Memorandum (PIM) for submission to the next
reporting senior for DUINS or TEMDUINS lasting how many months or less?
(Page 8-2)
3
5. If the training activity does not submit a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL,
the next Regular report must include the Duty Under Instruction (DUINS) or
Temporary Duty Under Instruction (TEMDUINS) period in which block and
must provide Regular report continuity? (Page 8-2)
29
6. A report may be delayed up to how many months for Duty Under Instruction
(DUINS) only, to the end of an academic period, provided it is submitted in
time for any selection board for which the member may be eligible? (Page 8-2)
3
Chapter 9
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1. Which format must be used for the flag officer endorsement that is required
when a captain (or below) reports on another captain in the same competitive
category? (Page 11-1)
Letter
2. If the flag officer endorsement contains comments that the endorsing officer
considers to be adverse, the entire report and endorsement must be referred to
the officer reported on. The officer reported on must respond by letter to which
command via the endorsing officer? (Page 11-2)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)
Chapter 12
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Chapter 13
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4. The rater, senior rater, and reporting senior are expected to reach overall
agreement. In the unusual situation where a reporting senior does not agree
with the trait grades or related comments assigned by either the rater or senior
rater and consensus cannot be reached, the evaluation shall reflect the reporting
senior's decision. What should be typed on the finished report in the signature
blocks for either the rater, senior rater, or both, whichever may be the case?
(Page 14-1)
REFUSED TO SIGN
5. Reporting seniors must personally sign each report on which their name
appears. In addition, the reporting senior will include the Member Trait
Average (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL only) and Summary Group Average next to
the line identifier in block 50 (EVAL) and which (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL)
block? (Page 14-1)
45
6. If a member is on Leave, Assigned TEMADD, or Remotely Assigned and is
not expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or
how many days (inactive duty) and the report is not adverse, the reporting
senior should enter “Certified Copy Provided” in the member's signature block
and submit the report to NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)? (Page 14-2)
30
Chapter 15
1. After a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL has been filed in the OMPF, it may
be modified only through an administrative change or the addition of
supplementary material, or through which other process? (Page 15-1)
Appeal
2. Administrative changes correct the administrative blocks of the FITREP,
CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL. Which type of material clarifies, amends, or corrects
the evaluative blocks? (Page 15-1)
Supplementary
3. The command or reporting senior originating the report or the member’s
current command may request administrative changes to block 1, blocks 3-19,
blocks 22-26, block 44 (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL) or which (EVAL) block?
(Page 15-1)
48
4. The original reporting senior may submit supplementary material within how
many years after the ending date of the report? (Page 15-2)
2
5. Supplementary material may be submitted as either a letter-supplement or a
supplemental report. Which is preferred? (Page 15-2)
Letter-supplement
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4. For E1-E4 personnel, the counselor will normally be the rater (which grade
or above), who is usually the division, department, or work center leading petty
officer? (Page 18-2)
E-6
5. Which month is E1-E3 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
January
6. Which month is E4 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
December
7. Which month is E5 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
September
8. Which month is E6 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
May
9. Counseling should motivate performance improvement. How many major
objectives are there to accomplish during the counseling session? (Page 18-3)
6
Chapter 19
1. What is the assessment period for O7-O8 regular reports? (Page 19-2)
June 1st through May 31st
2. When must O7-O8 regular reports be signed by the member? (Page 19-2)
July 31st
3. When must O7-O8 regular reports arrive at NAVPERSCOM for record
entry? (Page 19-2)
September 1st
4. Which physical fitness assessment code is placed in block 20 when the
member passes both the PRT and BCA? (Page 19-3)
P
5. Which physical fitness assessment code is placed in block 20 when the
member passed the BCA but was authorized non-participation in the PRT for
other than medical waiver reasons? (Page 19-3)
B
6. Which physical fitness assessment code is placed in block 20 when the
member passed BCA but was medically waived from 1 or more PRT event(s)?
(Page 19-3)
W
7. Each trait of a flag officer’s performance is based on individual dimensions
and strategic planning and execution. How many of the nine performance traits
should be listed that create the most results for organization success and overall
alignment to mission? (Page 19-8)
3
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(663 Questions)
Chapter 1
1. Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines? (Page 1-1)
Policy
2. What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal?
(Page 1-1)
Program
3. What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called?
(Page 1-1)
Environmental pollution
4. Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural
and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field
irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion? (Page 1-1)
Agricultural
5. Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal
discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and
processing certain ores? (Page 1-1)
Industrial
6. Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts
used on streets in wintertime? (Page 1-1)
Municipal
7. Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne
vessels, and cars and trucks? (Page 1-1)
Transportation
8. What are the unburned fuel vapors called that motor vehicles release into the
air? (Page 1-1)
Hydrocarbons
9. Vessels may not discharge pulped trash within how many nautical miles of
the U.S. coastline? (Page 1-3)
12
10. How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted
trash can be discharged? (Page 1-3)
1,000
11. How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be
before discharging any trash? (Page 1-3)
25
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12. Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to
comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to
environmental noise reduction? (Page 1-3)
Noise Prevention
13. What type of fuel do most of the Navy’s ships and all of its aircraft use?
(Page 1-4)
Petroleum
14. Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to ease the relocation of naval
personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station
(PCS) orders? (Page 1-5)
CNO
15. Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor? (Page 1-5)
NAVPERS 1330/2
16. What program provides information and support to help personnel who are
guests in foreign lands? (Page 1-5)
Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)
17. What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be
visiting? (Page 1-7)
SITES
18. Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase
performance within the Department of the Navy? (Page 1-7)
Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)
19. What is the maximum MILCAP award? (Page 1-7)
$25,000
20. Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the
beginning of what week of pregnancy? (Page 1-9)
28th
21. How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant
servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit? (Page 1-9)
4
22. Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a
treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
(Page 1-9)
6
23. How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally
grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby? (Page 1-9)
42
24. Service members in a single or dual military status with children or
dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan?
(Page 1-10)
19
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25. Which program carries out the Department of the Navy’s policy to detect,
deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement? (Page 1-11)
Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)
26. What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the
government of its resources or rights? (Page 1-11)
Fraud
27. What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government
resources defined as? (Page 1-11)
Waste
28. What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources
referred to as? (Page 1-11)
Abuse
29. What naval office inquires into and reports on any matter that affects the
discipline or military efficiency of the DoN? (Page 1-12)
Inspector General (IG)
30. What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records
are maintained by agencies of the federal government? (Page 1-13)
Privacy Act
31. Which Navy Regulations Article defines Equal Opportunity? (Page 1-14)
Article 1164
32. What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a
positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment? (Page 1-14)
CMEO
33. What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that
person’s race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin? (Page 1-15)
Insensitive practice
34. What provides information about government housing and the type, cost,
and availability of private housing? (Page 1-16)
HRO
35. Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and
assembly? (Page 1-16)
First Amendment
36. What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members,
regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military
member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to
any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or
harmful? (Page 1-17)
Hazing
37. What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other
verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called? (Page 1-19)
Sexual harassment
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38. Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with
what else are the three criterias for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual
harassment? (Page 1-19)
Unwelcome
39. Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when
they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for
submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 1-20)
Quid pro quo
40. Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment?
(Page 1-21)
Red zone
41. What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be
considered to be sexual harassment? (Page 1-21)
Yellow zone
42. Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states “No person in the Navy is to
enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect
differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline.”? (Page 1-
22)
Article 1165
43. What volunteer liaises between command and families? (Page 1-23)
Command ombudsman
44. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for
preferred reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-R1
45. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment?
(Page 1-24)
RE-1
46. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary
reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-R3
47. Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for
reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-4
48. Who directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program? (Page 1-24)
Chief of Naval Personnel
Chapter 2
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2. How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain? (Page 2-2)
Six
3. Which Code of Conduct article states that “When questioned, should I
become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service
number and date of birth”? (Page 2-2)
V
4. What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police
duties? (Page 2-3)
Shore Patrol (SP)
5. Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA? (Page
2-4)
Executive Officer
6. What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and
efficiency? (Page 2-4)
Discipline
7. Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses
must not be repeated? (Page 2-5)
Deterrent
8. The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official
sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy? (Page 2-6)
SORN
9. What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities? (Page 2-6)
U.S. Navy Regulations
10. Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the
Department of the Navy? (Page 2-6)
Chief of Naval Operations
11. Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the
President? (Page 2-6)
Secretary of the Navy
12. Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy
regulations? (Page 2-7)
Article 92
13. Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence? (Page 2-7)
Article 1002
14. Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing
officers orally and in writing? (Page 2-8)
Article 1010
15. Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to
perform their duties? (Page 2-8)
Article 1021
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16. Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in
authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates? (Page 2-8)
Abusive language
17. Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for
command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat? (Page 2-8)
Article 1033
18. Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority? (Page 2-8)
Article 1038
19. Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of
whom? (Page 2-8)
Chief of Naval Personnel
20. What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be
visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for? (Page 2-9)
4
21. What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans
to other armed service members? (Page 2-9)
18
22. Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges? (Page 2-10)
Article 1134
23. Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty? (Page 2-12)
Article 1157
24. Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct
of all Navy members? (Page 2-12)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
25. Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under
different military codes? (Page 2-15)
1951
26. What year did the UCMJ become effective? (Page 2-15)
1951
27. Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully
explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person? (Page 2-15)
Article 137
28. What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment
for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits?
(Page 2-17)
Arrest
29. What is the physical restraint of a person called? (Page 2-17)
Confinement
30. Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers’ non-judicial
punishment? (Page 2-18)
Article 15
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43. What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the
circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or
damage of any military property? (Page 2-28)
Neglect
44. Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty? (Page 2-28)
Article 112
45. What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on
post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war? (Page 2-29)
Death
46. What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning
(pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled? (Page 2-29)
Malingering
47. How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may
oppose them to be classified as a riot? (Page 2-30)
Three
48. What is the unlawful killing of another called? (Page 2-30)
Manslaughter
49. What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or
inflict great bodily harm? (Page 2-30)
Involuntary manslaughter
50. What is any person guilty of who engages in unnatural carnal copulation
with another person of the same or opposite sex or with an animal? (Page 2-32)
Sodomy
51. Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not
specifically mentioned in other articles? (Page 2-34)
Article 134
52. What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as? (Page 2-36)
Captain’s mast
53. What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship,
station, etc.)? (Page 2-36)
Restriction
54. What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or non-
duty hours, or both called? (Page 2-36)
Correctional custody
55. Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed
only on enlisted persons in what pay-grade and below aboard ship? (Page 2-36)
E-3
56. What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be
assigned? (Page 2-36)
2 hours
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57. How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to
be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the
next superior in the chain of command? (Page 2-37)
5
58. Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination? (Page 2-37)
Article 31
59. Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to
communicate with the commanding officer? (Page 2-37)
Article 1107
60. Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on
article 16 of the UCMJ? (Page 2-37)
General
61. What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be
made up of? (Page 2-37)
Three
62. A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how
many members? (Page 2-37)
Five
Chapter 3
1. What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard
ships? (Page 3-1)
Deck log
2. Who keeps the ship’s deck log while at sea? (Page 3-1)
Quartermaster Of the Watch (QOOW)
3. Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at
other specified times? (Page 3-2)
Battle
4. Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and
watch condition? (Page 3-2)
WQS
5. Which condition sets general quarters? (Page 3-3)
Condition I
6. What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as
extended periods of shore bombardment? (Page 3-3)
Condition II
7. What is the normal wartime cruising watch? (Page 3-3)
Condition III
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22. Who maintains the ship’s deck log and assists the OOD in navigational
matters while underway? (Page 3-5)
QMOW
23. Who ensures all deck watch stations are manned with qualified personnel
and all watch standers in previous watch sections are relieved? (Page 3-5)
BMOW
24. At least how often should lookouts be rotated? (Page 3-5)
Hourly
25. Who steers the courses prescribed by the conning officer? (Page 3-6)
Helmsman
26. Who stands watch at the engine order telegraph on the bridge ringing up the
conning officer’s orders to the engine room ensuring all bells are correctly
answered? (Page 3-6)
Lee helmsman
27. What are the two types of orders that govern sentries? (Page 3-7)
General and special
28. How many general orders are there that sentries must follow? (Page 3-8)
11
29. How many methods are used for relieving armed sentries? (Page 3-10)
Two
30. Deadly force may only be authorized by whom? (Page 3-11)
CO
31. How many degrees above the horizon is monitored by low sky lookouts?
(Page 3-11)
5
32. What is the direction of an object relative to the ship referred to as? (Page
3-13)
Bearing
33. How many types of bearings are there? (Page 3-13)
Three
34. Which bearing type uses the ship’s bow as a reference point? (Page 3-13)
Relative
35. What is the relative bearing of your ship from another ship referred to as?
(Page 3-14)
Target angle
36. What metric are ranges always reported in? (Page 3-15)
Yards
37. How many minutes does it take personnel to reach their best night vision
called dark adaptation? (Page 3-17)
30
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38. How many miles away in good weather can lookouts easily spot planes
with the naked eye? (Page 3-17)
15
39. What step-by-step eye search technique do lookouts use? (Page 3-17)
Scanning
Chapter 4
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28. What year did the President, on the recommendation of the Secretary of the
Navy, establish an official flag for the United States Navy? (Page 4-23)
1959
29. Which flag is regarded as an international guarantee of amnesty from
attack? (Page 4-23)
Red Cross
30. Substitute pennants are flown when certain officers are absent while in port
for a period of up to how many hours? (Page 4-24)
72
31. Which flag is hoisted whenever the ship is taking aboard, transferring, or
handling dangerous commodities, such as ammunition and fuel? (Page 4-25)
Bravo
32. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for any civilian
official or flag officer whose official salute is 19 or more guns? (Page 4-26)
Spread eagle
33. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for a flag or general
officer whose official salute is less than 19 guns or for a civil official whose
salute is 11 or more guns but less than 19? (Page 4-26)
Halbert
34. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for an officer of the
grade, or relative grade, of Captain in the Navy, or for certain diplomatic
officials? (Page 4-26)
Ball
35. What special device will boat flagstaff be marked with for an officer of the
grade, or relative grade, of Commander? (Page 4-26)
Star
36. What are informal courtesy visits that require no special ceremonies known
as? (Page 4-28)
Call
Chapter 5
1. What date did the Second Continental Congress create the United States
Navy by authorizing the purchase of two vessels? (Page 5-1)
October 13, 1775
2. Ships-of-the-line, Frigates, along with what else were the three major classes
of vessels during the Revolutionary war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
Sloops-of-War
3. Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over
100 guns of various sizes during the revolutionary war and into the 19th
century? (Page 5-2)
Ships-of-the-line
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4. How many guns were generally carried by Frigates during the revolutionary
war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
28 to 44
5. Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush-deck
ship that carried smooth-bore cannons? (Page 5-2)
Schooner
6. What was the name of the first warfare submarine? (Page 5-2)
Turtle
7. What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval
vessel where the “Flag of Freedom” was hoisted by John Paul Jones? (Page 5-
2)
USS Alfred
8. What year was the first Continental Navy squadron put to sea by Esek
Hopkins? (Page 5-3)
1776
9. Who is the father of our highest naval traditions? (Page 5-3)
John Paul Jones
10. What became one of the first foreign powers to recognize the struggling
government of the American Colonies? (Page 5-4)
France
11. At the end of the Revolutionary War, a new federal government was
established. In 1783, the Navy was down to five ships. The Navy was
disbanded, and the last frigate, the USS Alliance, was sold in what year? (Page
5-5)
1785
12. What year was the Department of the Navy established by John Adams?
(Page 5-5)
1798
13. What war was the origin of the famous expression “Millions for defense,
but not one cent for tribute”? (Page 5-6)
Quasi War
14. What nickname was earned by the USS Constitution when Captain Isaac
Hull defeated the British frigate Guerriere with it on August 19, 1812? (Page 5-
6)
Old Ironsides
15. Who defeated a British squadron on Lake Erie on September 10, 1813, and
wrote his dispatch “We have met the enemy and they are ours.”? (Page 5-6)
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry
16. Who was the first to successfully power a commercial steamboat with
steam? (Page 5-7)
Robert Fulton
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17. What was the first Navy warship to use steam? (Page 5-7)
USS Demologos
18. What year did the Navy launch the USS Pennsylvania which was the largest
of ship-of-the-line vessel? (Page 5-7)
1837
19. What year did the Navy launch the USS Missouri and the USS Mississippi
which were our first ocean-going, steam-driven capital ships? (Page 5-7)
1841
20. What year did the Navy launch the USS Michigan which was the first iron-
hulled warship? (Page 5-7)
1843
21. Who is referred to as the “Father of the Steam Navy”? (Page 5-7)
Commander Matthew Calbraith Perry
22. What year was the USS Princeton which was the Navy’s first successful
steamship launched? (Page 5-7)
1843
23. What year was USS New Ironsides, that had armor allowing it to survive 50
hits in one battle, launched by the Union? (Page 5-8)
1862
24. Which war saw the most changes and advances made in ship design than
during any period since the Navy originated in 1775? (Page 5-8)
Civil War
25. Which submarine was a jinx to the Confederate Navy? (Page 5-8)
CSS Hunley
26. What gave the famous order “Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!” on
August 5th, 1864? (Page 5-9)
David Farragut
27. Who defined sea power, showed the importance of understanding naval
needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an
overwhelming force to defeat the enemy’s Navy? (Page 5-10)
Alfred T. Mahan
28. How many Navy ships were in active service a year and a half after the
Civil War? (Page 5-10)
56
29. Which vessel has been labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. Fleet?
(Page 5-10)
USS Newark
30. What year did the USS Cushing which was one of the Navy’s first torpedo
boats join the fleet? (Page 5-10)
1890
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31. What year did the periscope start being replaced as the submarine’s basic
visual aid? (Page 5-11)
1958
32. What was the name of the first operational submarine in the Navy? (Page 5-
12)
USS Holland
33. The USS Skipjack (SS 24) along with what else were the first vessels to
have diesel engines installed? (Page 5-12)
USS Sturgeon (SS 25)
34. What year did construction begin on the first United States Navy
Destroyer? (Page 5-12)
1899
35. How many destroyers were ordered during World War I? (Page 5-12)
273
36. The USS Texas along with which other vessel were the first two
commissioned battleships? (Page 5-13)
USS Maine
37. Who was the U.S. Navy’s first officer in charge of aviation? (Page 5-13)
Captain Washington Irving Chambers
38. Who successfully took off from and landed a biplane on a platform rigged
aboard USS Pennsylvania (ACR 4) demonstrating the practical use of naval
aircraft? (Page 5-13)
Eugene Ely
39. Who was the first Naval Aviator? (Page 5-13)
Lieutenant T. G. Ellyson
40. What was the first battleship to use oil? (Page 5-13)
USS Nevada (BB 36)
41. What year did the Great White Fleet depart Hampton Roads, Virginia for a
round-the-world cruise to display the flag? (Page 5-14)
1907
42. What was the main German U-boats defense? (Page 5-14)
Destroyers
43. The USS Nicholson along with what other destroyer were the first U.S.
ships to sink an enemy submarine on November 17, 1917? (Page 5-14)
USS Fanning
44. What year was the recommendation given by a Navy surgeon to employ
women in hospitals in order to care for the Navy’s sick and wounded? (Page 5-
14)
1811
45. What year were the Nurse Corps officially established? (Page 5-14)
1908
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46. Who piloted the NC-4 which became the first airplane to fly across the
Atlantic? (Page 5-15)
LCDR Albert C. Read
47. What year did the USS Ranger join the fleet? (Page 5-15)
1934
48. What year did the Japanese attack Pearl Harbor? (Page 5-16)
1941
49. Which battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers?
(Page 5-16)
Coral Sea
50. Which battle was the turning point of the war in the Pacific? (Page 5-17)
Midway
51. What year was the invasion of Normandy? (Page 5-17)
1944
52. Which war did radar and sonar came into full use? (Page 5-18)
World War II
53. What year did Congress authorize the Women’s Reserve establishment with
an estimated goal of 10,000 enlisted women and 1,000 officers? (Page 5-18)
1942
54. What was the first Reserve classification for female officers? (Page 5-18)
W-V(S)
55. What year did a squadron of FH-1 Phantoms qualify for carrier operations
aboard the USS Saipan (CVL-48)? (Page 5-19)
1948
56. What year did the Korean Conflict end? (Page 5-21)
1953
57. What was the first nuclear submarine put to sea on January 17, 1955? (Page
5-21)
USS Nautilus
58. Who made America’s first suborbital flight on May 5, 1961? (Page 5-22)
Commander Alan B. Shepard, Jr.
59. What year did America enter the Vietnam conflict? (Page 5-23)
1965
60. What was the first nuclear-powered carrier in the world? (Page 5-24)
USS Enterprise (CVN 65)
61. Former Navy pilot Neil Armstrong became the first man to set foot on the
moon on what date? (Page 5-24)
July 20, 1969
62. What was the Navy’s first deep diving vehicle? (Page 5-24)
USS Alvin
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63. What was the first Trident submarine which was a nuclear powered fleet
ballistic missile submarine? (Page 5-24)
USS Ohio (SSBN-726)
Chapter 6
1. What year was the Department of Defense (DoD) created by the United
States? (Page 6-1)
1947
2. Who heads the DoD? (Page 6-1)
Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
3. What year was the Department of the Navy established? (Page 6-3)
1798
4. Which series is used for guiding unit organization? (Page 6-6)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
5. Battle along with what other organization comprise the two ship organization
elements? (Page 6-7)
Administrative
6. Which department collects and evaluates combat and operational information
as well as conducts electronic warfare? (Page 6-8)
Operations
7. Which department operates, cares for, and maintains all propulsion and
auxiliary machinery? (Page 6-8)
Engineering
8. Who directly represents the Commanding Officer in maintaining shipboard
general efficiency? (Page 6-9)
XO
9. Who is the voice of all enlisted personnel having direct access to the
Commanding Officer? (Page 6-10)
CMC
10. What is the basic unit of shipboard organization? (Page 6-10)
Division
11. Which department is responsible for official correspondence, personnel
records, and directives? (Page 6-12)
Administrative
12. What is the relationship of juniors and seniors within an organization
called? (Page 6-14)
Chain of Command
13. What requires individuals to be accountable for the performance of their
assigned tasks within an organization? (Page 6-14)
Responsibility
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14. What is the ability of personnel to report, explain, or justify every action
taken? (Page 6-14)
Accountability
15. The chain of command extends from nonrated personnel all the way to
whom? (Page 6-15)
President of the United States
Chapter 7
1. What is the general work that goes on about the ship’s deck and the
equipment used called? (Page 7-1)
Deck seamanship
2. What concerns the use and care of line consisting of forming knots, making
splices, and fashioning useful and decorative articles from small stuff and
twine? (Page 7-1)
Marlinespike seamanship
3. Which equipment is used for anchoring and mooring with anchors? (Page 7-
1)
Ground tackle
4. How many feet make up a standard shot of anchor chain? (Page 7-2)
90
5. What is the opening in a bulwark or life rail that gives access to a brow or an
accommodation ladder? (Page 7-3)
Gangway
6. What types of ramps are used between ships or between the ship and a pier?
(Page 7-3)
Brows
7. What are often placed between the pier and the ship to provide protection to
the side of the ship while it is alongside a pier? (Page 7-3)
Camels
8. What are swung over the side of the ship to give bumper support against
damage whenever a ship lies alongside another ship or a pier? (Page 7-3)
Fenders
9. What are the main thing used aboard ships and boats to secure mooring
lines? (Page 7-4)
Deck fittings
10. Which method of securing boats are used by ships that are at anchor or
moored to a buoy to rig out their boat booms for the purpose of mooring their
boats well clear of the side? (Page 7-4)
Hauling out to the boom
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13. What is the first half deck or partial deck below the flight deck called?
(Page 8-4)
Gallery deck
14. What are partial decks between complete decks called? (Page 8-4)
Half deck
15. What general term designates deck heights above the main deck? (Page 8-
4)
Level
16. What are partial decks below the lowest complete deck called? (Page 8-4)
Platforms
17. What is a partial deck above the main deck located all the way aft? (Page 8-
4)
Poop deck
18. What is an area designated by the Commanding Officer to conduct official
functions? (Page 8-4)
Quarterdeck
19. What are horizontal openings for access through decks called? (Page 8-6)
Hatches
20. What is the solid part of a ship above the main deck called? (Page 8-6)
Superstructure
21. Pole, tripod, along with what else are the three general mast designs? (Page
8-6)
Cage
22. What are the large pipes that carry off smoke and gases from the boilers
called? (Page 8-6)
Stacks
23. What is a light spar suspended at an angle abaft the upper part of the
mainmast called? (Page 8-7)
Gaff
24. Which station controls the engineering functions of a ship? (Page 8-8)
Main control
25. What term describes the offensive weapons a ship carries? (Page 8-14)
Armament
26. How many statute miles per hour is one knot equal to? (Page 8-14)
1 1/8
27. How many feet are there in one nautical mile? (Page 8-14)
6,080
28. How many categories are U.S. Navy ships divided into? (Page 8-14)
Four
29. What speeds are cruisers capable of in knots? (Page 8-16)
30+
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30. What type of ships are fast and have a variety of armaments but have little
to no armor? (Page 8-18)
Destroyers
31. How many tons of water are displaced by Spruance class destroyers when
fully loaded? (Page 8-18)
7,800
32. What class of DDG’s are the most powerful and survivable class ever put to
sea? (Page 8-18)
Arleigh Burke
33. What resemble destroyers in appearance, but are slower, have only a single
screw, and carry less armament? (Page 8-20)
Frigates
34. What are used to locate and destroy enemy ships and submarines? (Page 8-
20)
SSNs
35. What is the largest undersea craft developed by the Navy? (Page 8-20)
Ohio class
36. Which class of submarine possesses stealth characteristics that make it the
world’s quietest submarine? (Page 8-20)
Seawolf’s
37. What were early submarines named after? (Page 8-20)
Marine life
38. What is the fastest means of landing large numbers of personnel,
equipment, and supplies on enemy-held territory? (Page 8-22)
Amphibious assault
39. What class of ships are the largest amphibious ships in the world? (Page 8-
22)
Wasp-class
40. What ships provide amphibious command and control for major
amphibious operations? (Page 8-25)
LCCs
41. What ships were designed to clear mines from vital waterways? (Page 8-25)
MCM’s
42. What ships are capable of supplying fuel, ammunition, dry stores and
refrigerated stores? (Page 8-26)
AOE
43. What term is applied to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and
personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way? (Page 8-27)
Replenishment at sea
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58. Which aircraft is used for intermediate and advanced portions of the
Navy/Marine Corps pilot training program for jet carrier aviation and tactical
strike missions? (Page 8-39)
T-45A Goshawk
59. Which aircraft is used to provide primary flight training for student pilots
attached to the Chief of Naval Air Training? (Page 8-39)
T-34C
60. How many pounds of cargo is the CH-46 Sea Knight capable of carrying?
(Page 8-40)
4,000
61. Which aircraft tows and operates various mine countermeasure devices that
are designed to detect and neutralize submerged naval mines? (Page 8-41)
Sea Stallion
62. Which type of aircraft is a joint-service, multimission aircraft that has
vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) capabilities? (Page 8-42)
V-22 Osprey
Chapter 9
1. What are practices called that have been established for so long that they
now have the force of law? (Page 9-1)
Customs
2. What are acts or verbal expressions of consideration or respect for others
referred to as? (Page 9-1)
Courtesies
3. What are the salutes that are rendered to individuals of merit called? (Page 9-
9)
Honors
4. Within how many yards from the ship must boats pass to be considered
“close aboard”? (Page 9-9)
400
5. Which day of the week are Side boys not paraded? (Page 9-10)
Sunday
6. How many gun salutes are warranted for the President of the United States?
(Page 9-10)
21
7. Military officers below what rank are not entitled to gun salutes? (Page 9-10)
Commodore
8. What are the formal acts that are performed on public occasions called?
(Page 9-11)
Ceremonies
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9. What is the largest national ensign in the ship or station’s allowance referred
to as that is flown on Sundays, authorized holidays, or other days the President
proclaims? (Page 9-12)
Holiday colors
10. Which part of the ship contains officers staterooms and wardrooms? (Page
9-16)
Officers’ country
Chapter 10
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1. What is any .60-caliber, 15-mm, or smaller bore firearm referred to as? (Page
11-1)
Small arm
2. What is the M-14’s maximum range? (Page 11-3)
4,075 yards
3. What is the maximum effective range of the M-16A1/A2? (Page 11-3)
460 meters
4. What is the maximum effective range of the .45-caliber service pistol? (Page
11-13)
50 yards
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11. What is the nerve center and directing force of the entire damage control
organization? (Page 12-6)
DCC
12. What is the ships highest state of readiness? (Page 12-8)
General Quarters
13. What is the emergency damage control communication system employed in
the event of primary, auxiliary, and supplementary communications circuit
failure? (Page 12-9)
X40J
14. Which signal is sounded by the OOD to notify the crew of a battle
condition (GQ)? (Page 12-10)
General alarm
15. If all methods of communications have failed, what are used to relay orders
and information? (Page 12-10)
Messengers
16. XRAY, YOKE, along with what else are the three material conditions of
readiness? (Page 12-11)
ZEBRA
17. Which material condition is set during working hours when the ship is in
port, when there is no danger of attack, and when there is no threat from bad
weather? (Page 12-11)
XRAY
18. What are used by repair party personnel to find damage control fittings and
closures in each compartment? (Page 12-11)
CCOLs
19. Which fittings are vital sea suctions, ventilation fittings valves serving vital
equipment, and valves that must be open to maintain mobility and fire
protection? (Page 12-13)
WILLIAM
20. How many minutes of breathable air does the EEBD provide the wearer
with? (Page 12-14)
15
21. Approximately how many minutes will the SCBA last after it is activated?
(Page 12-18)
30
22. Fuel, Heat, along with what else comprise the fire triangle? (Page 12-19)
Oxygen
23. What is the lowest temperature called that flammable materials give off
vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied? (Page 12-20)
Flash point
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24. What is the temperature called that fuel will continue to burn after it has
been ignited? (Page 12-20)
Fire point
25. What is the lowest temperature called that material must be heated to give
off vapors that will burn without the aid of a spark or flame? (Page 12-20)
Self-ignition point
26. Conduction, Convection, or what other method can transfer heat from fires?
(Page 12-20)
Radiation
27. Which heat transfer method transfers heat through a body or from one body
to another by direct physical contact? (Page 12-20)
Conduction
28. Which heat transfer method transfers heat through the motion of circulating
gases or liquids? (Page 12-21)
Convection
29. Which heat transfer method transfers heat from a source across an
intervening space? (Page 12-21)
Radiation
30. How many classifications are fires divided into? (Page 12-21)
Four
31. What protect firefighters from short duration flame (flash) exposure, heat,
and falling debris? (Page 12-23)
Firefighter’s ensemble
32. What protect personnel from high temperatures resulting from the use of
explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire? (Page 12-24)
Anti-flash clothing
33. What size are the fireplugs in fire hose stations aboard ships larger than
frigates? (Page 12-24)
2 1/2-inch
Chapter 13
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4. What are the two broad types of antipersonnel agents? (Page 13-2)
Casualty and Incapacitating
5. Which type of antidote must be immediately administered to counteract the
rapid action of nerve agents? (Page 13-4)
2-PAM C1
6. Which type of agents effect the eyes, mucous membranes, lungs, and skin?
(Page 13-4)
Blister
7. Which type of agents inhibit enzyme actions responsible for transferring
oxygen from the blood to the cells of the body? (Page 13-4)
Blood
8. Which type of warfare uses living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to
disable or to destroy people and domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate
supplies? (Page 13-6)
Biological warfare (BW)
9. What is the casualty rate of pulmonary anthrax? (Page 13-7)
90%
10. What can the mortality rate be reduced to if plague pneumonia victims are
treated early? (Page 13-7)
5%
11. What is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness? (Page 13-7)
Malaise
12. What is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an
infection? (Page 13-7)
Inflammation
13. How many feet above the surface does a nuclear blast have to detonate to
be considered a high altitude blast? (Page 13-8)
100,000
14. What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical
equipment in a burnout that’s equivalent (equal) to that caused by a lightning
strike? (Page 13-8)
EMP
15. What are the two types of nuclear radiation? (Page 13-9)
Initial and residual
16. How many categories are Nuclear weapons effects divided into? (Page 13-
10)
3
17. Second-degree burns may be received at over what distance from nuclear
weapons? (Page 13-11)
25
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18. How many minutes can it take to recover from flash blindness at night?
(Page 13-11)
45
19. Alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, along with what else are the different
types of nuclear radiation hazards? (Page 13-11)
Neutrons
20. What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation
hazards? (Page 13-11)
Neutrons
21. What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the
surface called? (Page 13-12)
Underwater shock
22. What occurs in electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or
neutron radiation? (Page 13-12)
TREE
23. What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation
caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar
systems? (Page 13-12)
Blueout
24. What is the interference of radio transmissions through ion fields formed in
a detonation caused by an atmospheric nuclear explosion? (Page 13-12)
Blackout
25. What determines the effectiveness of decontamination measures? (Page 13-
14)
Detailed survey
26. What are dose rates expressed in? (Page 13-14)
Roentgens
27. Which protective mask was designed to provide full protection against
tactical concentrations of chemical and biological agents, toxins, and
radiological fallout particles? (Page 13-19)
MCU-2/P
28. What is the shelf life of the unopened chemical-protective overgarment?
(Page 13-20)
5 years
29. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment in
nonchemical environments once it is removed from its protective envelope?
(Page 13-20)
14
30. How many hours of continuous protection do chemical-protective
overgarments provide after exposure to chemical contamination? (Page 13-20)
6
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31. What flexible system protects against chemical agents that is used in CW
defense to help accomplish the mission? (Page 13-22)
MOPP
32. How many MOPP levels are there? (Page 13-22)
Four
33. Which MOPP level offers the most protection? (Page 13-22)
Four
34. How many people do decontamination teams usually consist of? (Page 13-
22)
Six
35. What protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR
contamination by filtering the air supply and maintaining an overpressure to
prevent the penetration of contaminants? (Page 13-26)
Collective Protection System (CPS)
Chapter 14
1. What is the emergency care given to sick or injured persons until medical
care is available? (Page 14-1)
First aid
2. Saving lives, preventing further injury, along with what else are the main
first aid objectives? (Page 14-1)
Limiting infection
3. What state is a person in who’s stopped breathing but is still alive? (Page 14-
3)
Respiratory failure
4. What condition occurs when air enters the stomach instead of the lungs
during artificial ventilation? (Page 14-3)
Gastric distention
5. What is the complete stoppage of heart function referred to as? (Page 14-4)
Cardiac arrest
6. How many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest must CPR be started within
to be effective? (Page 14-4)
4
7. Which condition occurs whenever there is a break in the wall of one or more
blood vessels? (Page 14-9)
Hemorrhage
8. How many quarts of blood does the average adult body contain? (Page 14-9)
5
9. How many pints of blood loss will usually cause shock? (Page 14-9)
2
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24. Which type of injuries occur when the ligaments and soft tissues are
damaged that support joints? (Page 14-23)
Sprains
25. What type of injury is caused by the forcible over stretching or tearing of a
muscle or tendon? (Page 14-23)
Strain
26. What is the most commonly used Navy service litter used for transporting
sick or injured persons? (Page 14-28)
Stokes stretcher
27. Which type of stretcher was designed for removing an injured person from
engine-room spaces, holds, and other compartments where access hatches are
too small to permit the use of regular stretchers? (Page 14-28)
Neil Robertson
28. What are the two most common sexually transmitted diseases in the United
States? (Page 14-30)
Syphilis and gonorrhea
29. What is the painless sore called that is the first sign of syphilis? (Page 14-
30)
Chancre
30. How many days after sexual contact with an infected partner do signs of
gonorrhea in males usually appear? (Page 14-31)
3 to 5
31. Which increasingly common viral infection produces recurrent, painful
genital sores similar to cold sores that occur around the mouth? (Page 14-31)
Genital herpes
32. What year was Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) first
reported in the United States? (Page 14-31)
1981
Chapter 15
1. How many yards should personnel abandoning ship be away from the ship
before they rest? (Page 15-2)
150 to 200
2. How many days on regular rations can the survival kits in large life boats
sustain 15 to 20 people? (Page 15-9)
5
3. How many days can personnel go without water before they die? (Page 15-
11)
8 to 12
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4. How many ounces of water per day can personnel survive on in a lifeboat?
(Page 15-11)
6
5. How many weeks, or longer, can a person survive without food as long as
they have water? (Page 15-12)
4
6. What water temperature, or lower, puts personnel at risk for hypothermia?
(Page 15-12)
75° F
7. Which condition is characterized by swelling of the foot accompanied by
numbness and pallor (lack of color) or discoloration? (Page 15-13)
Immersion foot
8. How many basic devices for recovering a person in the water do helicopters
use? (Page 15-14)
Three
9. Which mneumonic device can aid personnel to reduce or even avoid the
shock of being isolated behind the enemy lines, in a desolate area, or in enemy
hands? (Page 15-15)
SURVIVAL
10. How many varieties of plants are edible? (Page 15-19)
120,000
11. How long should scavenger birds be boiled before they are cooked in order
to kill any parasites? (Page 15-22)
20 minutes
12. What is the process of traveling through enemy-held territory without being
captured? (Page 15-23)
Evasion
13. What directs personnel to begin planning their escape the minute they are
taken prisoner? (Page 15-27)
Code of Conduct
Chapter 16
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16. How often is the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record for E-3 and
below submitted? (Page 16-14)
Biannually
17. What form is used to document the official history of a person’s Naval
career? (Page 16-15)
NAVPERS 1070/600
18. What form is used to document dependents and emergency data in the
service record? (Page 16-16)
NAVPERS 1070/602W
19. Which service record form documents the Enlisted Qualifications History?
(Page 16-16)
NAVPERS 1070/604
20. What words are used to show that the CO has authorized a person to sign
the document? (Page 16-22)
By direction
21. What systems are used to improve fleet material readiness? (Page 16-23)
3-M
22. Fundamentals, Systems, along with what else are the three sections that
PQS standards are divided into? (Page 16-24)
Watch Stations
23. Which PQS section deals with the major working parts of the installation,
organization, or equipment that the PQS is concerned with? (Page 16-24)
Systems
24. What is it called when personnel are taught skills that are directed toward
specific tasks? (Page 16-24)
Training
25. What is it called when personnel are taught broad, general, or specific
knowledge? (Page 16-24)
Education
26. Who is the point of contact for all Navy training and education programs?
(Page 16-25)
Educational Services Officer (ESO)
27. What type of training teaches personnel how to perform a duty or task by
actually doing it? (Page 16-25)
OJT
28. What type of non-occupational training are all naval personnel required to
take on a periodic basis? (Page 16-25)
General Military Training (GMT)
29. Which type of schools provide general indoctrination and teach basic
military skills and knowledge? (Page 16-26)
Class “R”
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30. Which type of schools provide the basic technical knowledge and skills
required to prepare personnel for a Navy rating as well as further specialized
training? (Page16-26)
Class “A”
31. Which type of schools provide personnel with the advanced knowledge,
skills, and techniques required to perform a particular job in a billet? (Page 16-
26)
Class “C”
32. Which type of schools provide team training to officer and enlisted fleet
personnel who are normally ship company members? (Page 16-26)
Class “F”
33. Which type of schools provide training in the skills that lead to the
designation of naval aviator or naval flight officer? (Page 16-26)
Class “V”
34. Which command publishes TRAMANs? (Page 16-26)
NETPDTC
35. What name is given to the in-service voluntary educational programs and
the supporting services provided by the Navy to help you with your education?
(Page 16-27)
Navy Campus
36. Which program provides undergraduate courses from accredited colleges or
universities to shipboard personnel? (Page 16-27)
Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)
37. What provides a wide range of examination and certification programs,
operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and
developmental activities? (Page 16-27)
DANTES
38. Up to how many months does the Enlisted Education Advancement
Program (EEAP) allow career-motivated individuals to earn an associate of
arts/sciences degree? (Page 16-27)
24
39. How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy or Regular
Marine Corps may be appointed by the Secretary of the Navy to the Naval
Academy at Annapolis, Maryland? (Page 16-28)
85
40. Which program is intended to help people who have been educationally
deprived but have demonstrated they have the basic qualities and desires
needed to earn a commission? (Page 16-29)
BOOST
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1. What is the money paid to personnel for services they render? (Page 17-1)
Pay
2. Basic, Incentive, along with what else are the three types of Navy pay? (Page
17-1)
Special
3. Which type of pay is based upon the members paygrade and length of
service? (Page 17-1)
Basic
4. How many years of service are E-3’s eligible to receive longevity raises?
(Page 17-1)
4
5. What type of money is used to reimburse personnel for expenses necessary
to perform their job? (Page 17-2)
Allowance
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6. Which type of allowance is used to help personnel pay for suitable living
quarters when government quarters are unavailable or not assigned? (Page 17-
2)
BAQ
7. What is the single allowance called that incorporates both basic allowance
for quarters and the variable housing allowance? (Page 17-3)
Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH)
8. What are designated amounts of money that are to be withheld from pay and
paid directly to someone else? (Page 17-3)
Allotments
9. What is the computerized pay and leave accounting system located at the
Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Cleveland, Ohio? (Page 17-3)
JUMPS
10. How many days of leave can personnel earn in each year of active duty?
(Page 17-4)
30
11. What is an authorized absence from work or duty for a short period called?
(Page 17-4)
Liberty
12. Which type of leave is not charged to your earned, advance, or excess leave
account? (Page 17-4)
Convalescent
13. What booklet is used to record transactions involving checking accounts?
(Page 17-7)
Check register
14. What is a plan to spend money or a plan of money management? (Page 17-
11)
Budget
15. What is the total amount of pay before any deductions are taken out called?
(Page 17-12)
Gross income
16. What is the money paid after all deductions and allotments are paid called?
(Page 17-12)
Net income
17. What is an easy method for estimating the number of years it will take for
an investment’s value to double at a specific interest rate or rate of return?
(Page 17-12)
Rule of 72
18. What is the rent paid for using borrowed money or credit known as? (Page
17-13)
Interest
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19. How many days after personnel separate from the Navy does SGLI
coverage continue for? (Page 17-15)
120
20. What is an individual who is abused or whose welfare is harmed or
threatened by acts of omission or commission by another individual or
individuals known as? (Page 17-16)
Victim
21. What establishes the education, support, and awareness programs so that
families and their command understand the risk factors of child and spouse
abuse? (Page 17-17)
FAP
22. What occurs when there is an imbalance between the demands of our lives
and the resources we have to deal with those demands? (Page 17-17)
Stress
Chapter 18
1. What term generally applies to persons who are assigned to clean living or
berthing compartments or spaces? (Page 18-1)
Compartment cleaner
2. Which type of materials have the ability to remove contamination and soil?
(Page 18-2)
Detergents
3. What are held to improve ship appearance and sanitary conditions, aid in
ship preservation by extending paint life, and reduce the dirt intake caused by
operating equipment? (Page 18-2)
Field days
4. Which term means to exhaust the areas and provide fresh air in spaces which
personnel are working with solvents? (Page 18-5)
Ventilation
5. When a spill involves more than how many gallons of solvent it must be
immediately reported to supervisors, DCC, or the OOD? (Page 18-6)
5
6. Personnel should inspect the contents of any paint or solvent container that is
older than how many years? (Page 18-7)
2
7. What lists solvent storage requirements? (Page 18-8)
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
8. How many minutes between air changes are recommended when working
with chlorinated cleaning solvents in enclosed spaces? (Page 18-9)
3
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10. What are the specially constructed compartments aboard ships called where
ammunition is stowed? (Page 19-12)
Magazines
11. Projectiles greater than or equal to what size in diameter are color-coded to
indicate the projectile type and the kind of bursting charge they contain? (Page
19-12)
3-inches
12. What level of voltage causes the most deaths? (Page 19-13)
115-volt
13. How many minutes before entry must compartments that contain
compressed gases be ventilated for if the ventilation has been secured? (Page
19-15)
15
14. Up to how many years after exposure can it take for asbestos-related
disease symptoms to manifest?
45
15. How many minutes after the job is completed must personnel assigned fire
watch duties remain at the location to make sure that no fire hazards exist?
(Page 19-17)
30
16. What is the mixture of all liquid domestic wastes, especially human body
wastes (fecal matter and urine)? (Page 19-18)
Sewage
17. At what temperature does LOX boil into a gaseous oxygen that is capable
of immediately freezing any object it contacts? (Page 19-22)
-297°F
18. How much pressure can LOX exert when it expands as a gas and is
confined and allowed to warm? (Page 19-22)
12,000 psi
19. What is the combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity,
airflow, and workload called that places stress on the body? (Page 19-22)
Heat stress
20. Which condition results when body temperature reaches subnormal levels?
(Page 19-23)
Hypothermia
21. Which instruction governs the Navy’s equipment tag-out bill? (Page 19-25)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
22. Who is responsible for knowing the material condition of a department and
the state of readiness at all times? (Page 19-25)
DDO
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23. Who monitors engineering plant statuses at all times and how tag-out bills
will affect plant readiness? (Page 19-25)
EOOW
24. What is the process called of checking a tag or label? (Page 19-26)
Second-checking
25. Which tag color means that a certain DANGER exists if the valve or
equipment lineup is changed? (Page 19-26)
Red
26. What color are CAUTION tags? (Page 19-26)
Yellow
27. What color are OUT-OF-CALIBRATION labels? (Page 19-27)
Orange
28. What are used to control the entire tag-out procedure? (Page 19-28)
Tag-out logs
29. Which instruction contains Navy safety information? (Page 19-29)
OPNAVINST 5100.19
Chapter 20
1. What term describes a nation’s ability to protect its political, economic, and
military interests through control of the sea? (Page 20-1)
Sea power
2. Who was the first person to use the term “sea power”? (Page 20-1)
Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN
3. Which publication defines Naval strategy? (Page 20-6)
Naval Warfare Publication 3 (NWP-3)
4. What broad course of action is designed to achieve national objectives in
support of national interests? (Page 20-6)
National strategy
5. What are those conditions that are advantageous for our nation to pursue or
protect? (Page 20-6)
National interests
6. What are the specific goals our nation seeks to advance, support, or protect?
(Page 20-6)
National objectives
7. What is the U.S. Navy’s primary function? (Page 20-7)
Sea control
8. What is the ability to use sea power throughout the world in the timely and
precise manner needed to accomplish a given goal? (Page 20-7)
Power projection
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9. What year did Congress authorize the first six frigates of the Continental
Navy? (Page 20-9)
1794
10. What year was the Coast Guard established as the United States Revenue
Marine? (Page 20-10)
1790
11. What year was the Military Sealift Command (MSC) established? (Page 20-
12)
1949
12. Nearly what percent of all military cargo on privately owned U.S. flagships
and other merchant marine vessels are shipped by MSC? (Page 20-12)
25
Chapter 21
1. What does the Navy define as the art of influencing people to progress
towards the accomplishment of a specific goal? (Page 21-1)
Leadership
2. Moral principles, personal example, along with what else are the three
elements that make an effective Navy leader? (Page 21-1)
Administrative ability
3. What is immediate obedience an automatic response to? (Page 21-3)
Command
4. What is reasoned obedience the proper response to? (Page 21-3)
Order
Chapter 22
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(176 Questions)
Chapter 1
Section 1
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1. Which uniform may be worn during any season when traveling on leave,
TAD or transfer? (Section 1301.1)
Service Dress Blues
2. Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or
situations when warranted by local conditions? (Section 1301.2)
Area coordinators
3. What should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform
or civilian clothing requirements for their destination? (Section 1301.3)
DoD Foreign Clearance Guide
4. Which publication should Navy personnel in a duty, leave, or liberty status
consult when traveling on commercial international flights to determine what
appropriate uniform or civilian clothing is required? (Section 1301.4)
USAF Foreign Clearance Guide
5. Which uniform may not be worn when commuting to and from work?
(Section 1301.5.a)
Navy Blue Coveralls
6. What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the
means of a private vehicle including all travel aboard DOD-owned/controlled
aircraft referred to as? (Section 1301.5.a)
Commuting
7. What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing NWUs off base?
(Section 1301.5.b.1)
Alcohol
8. Within the National Capital Region (NCR) the NWU is authorized for wear
at all locations with the exception of inside the pentagon building, national mall
area bounded by capitol hill and surrounding senate and house offices, the
white house and executive office building, state department and all what?
(Section 1301.5.b.1)
Monuments and memorials
9. Which uniform is not authorized for wear during commercial travel (e.g.
airlines, railways, or bus, etc.) but is authorized on commuter transportation
(e.g. Metrorail, metro bus, commuter bus, VRE, ferries)? (Section 1301.5.b.2)
NWU
10. Who must authorize tan flight suits to be worn in CONUS in hot weather
environments? (Section 1301.5.c)
TYCOM
Section 4
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1. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article states that no person in the Naval
service shall have any article of wearing apparel belonging to any other person
in the naval service without permission from proper authority? (Section
1401.2.b)
Article 1161
2. Which section of Title 10, U.S. Code stipulates that no one person except
members of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps, may wear uniform
which has components similar to distinctive parts of Army, Navy, Air Force or
Marine Corps uniforms? (Section 1401.3.a.2)
771
3. Which medal, if awarded, allows personnel to wear their uniform at any time
except under specific circumstances? (Section 1401.3.3)
Medal of Honor
4. The Secretary of the Navy prescribed the following distinctive mark for
members of military societies which are composed entirely of honorably
discharged officers and enlisted personnel and the instructors and members of
duly organized cadet corps. This distinctive mark is a diamond, how many
inches long in the vertical axis, made of any fabric, white on blue, forestry
green, or khaki clothing and blue on white clothing? (Section 1401.4)
3.5”
5. What should the U.S. Flag never be used for? (Section 1401.5.c)
Advertising
Section 5
1. What are the minimum items which must be worn on uniforms unless the
prescribing authority directs otherwise? (Section 1501.1.a)
Basic uniform components
2. Which type of uniform items may be directed or authorized for wear with the
basic uniform? (Section 1501.1.b)
Prescribable
3. Which type of uniform items are purchased at the wearer's expense which
may be worn with the basic uniform but are not prescribable? (Section
1501.1.c)
Optional
4. What is a style called that is followed for a short period of time with
exaggerated zeal? (Section 1501.1.f)
Faddish
5. Who must authorize the fabrics to be used for manufacturing Naval
uniforms? (Section 1501.3)
Chief of Naval Operations
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6. Who ensures that specifications for all articles of uniform and insignia
prescribed for naval personnel are prepared and maintained for approval of the
Chief of Naval Operations? (Section 1501.4.a)
Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command
7. What is charged by the CNO to continually review all Navy uniform
matters? (Section 1501.5)
Navy Uniform Board
Chapter 2
Section 1
1. Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower
natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what
length to blend with hair-style for men? (Section 2101.1.a)
3/4 inch
2. How many inches is the maximum length for Men’s hair? (Section 2101.1.a)
Four
3. Approximately how many inches will the bulk of mens hair not exceed?
(Section 2101.1.a)
Two
4. What is defined as the distance that the mass of hair protrudes from the
scalp? (Section 2101.1.a)
Bulk
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5. What part of the ear will sideburns not extend past? (Section 2101.1.a)
Middle
6. When a womans hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of
uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. what size), and tightly
interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance? (Section
2101.1.b)
1/4 inch
7. What is the maximum length that womens hair may extend past the top of
the jumper collar? (Section 2101.1.b)
1.5”
8. What is the maximum length that the bulk of womens hair as measured from
the scalp can be? (Section 2101.1.b)
2”
9. What is the maximum number of small barrettes, combs, or clips that are
similar to the members hair color that may be used in womens hair? (Section
2101.1.b)
Two
10. The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized by the
Commanding Officer per what instruction? (Section 2101.2)
BUPERSINST 1000.22
11. Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the
corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line
drawn from the corner of the mouth? (Section 2101.2)
1/4 inch
12. What is the maximum length that an individual mustache hair that is fully
extended can be? (Section 2101.2)
½ inch
13. If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved,
manicured, styled or outlined nor exceed what length? (Section 2102.2)
1/4 inch
14. What form shall Female Service Members submit to their Commanding
Officer to express their desire to obtain permanent makeup? (Section
2102.4.b.1)
NAVPERS 1336/3
15. Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males? (Section
2102.5.a)
Fingertips
16. What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the fingertip that
females can have? (Section 2102.5.a)
1/4 inch
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17. While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a
wedding/engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what
fingers? (Section 2102.6.a)
Thumbs
18. For women, one earring per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in
uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte
finish, screw on or with posts? (Section 2102.6.2)
4mm - 6mm
19. Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criterias that will
be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy
personnel? (Section 2102.7)
Cosmetic
20. What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face,
or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section
2102.8)
Mutilation
21. Tattoos/body art/brands/mutilation/dental ornamentation may be waived if
they existed prior to what date and are not prejudicial to good order, discipline,
and morale or are of a nature to bring discredit upon the naval service? (Section
2102.10)
January 24th, 2003
22. For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in
length? (Section 2102.11)
4
Chapter 3
Section 1
1. DoD Directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform
requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must
meet? (Section 3101.2)
DoD Instruction 1338.18
2. Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for Naval uniform
manufacturing? (Section 3101.3)
Chief of Naval Operations
3. Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to
ensure that they possess the required items? (Section 3101.4)
E1-E3
4. Approximately how high should stencil letters be? (Section 3101.5)
3/8 inch
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5. What should the size of the embroidered letters on Navy coveralls be?
(Section 3101.5)
3/4 inch
6. Coveralls shall be embroidered in gold for officers and CPOs and what color
for E6 and below? (Section 3101.5)
Silver
7. Navy coveralls and NWU's are required to have U.S. NAVY tape of what
size, worn centered side to side over the wearer’s left breast pocket? (Section
3101.6)
1/4 inch
8. Who must authorize the transfer or exchange of an enlisted person's
uniform? (Section 3101.7)
Commanding Officer
Section 2
1. On the Dinner Dress Blue Jacket, how many 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons are
there down each side of the front, with a front closure held in by buttons placed
inside each front facing secured with an elastic closure (older style)? (Section
3501.14)
Three
2. The Newer style Dinner Dress Blue jacket is without buttons placed inside
each front facing and is secured with how many 28-line Navy eagle gilt buttons
with a link chain closure? (Section 3501.14)
Two
3. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe will
Male Trousers, Blue, Evening? (Section 3501.91)
2
4. Dress shoes shall be plain toed, oxford style black, brown, or white, low
quarter, lace shoe, made of smooth leather or synthetic leather. The heel shall
be an outside heel that is how high with a flat sole? (Section 3501.54)
3/4 inch - 7/8 inch
5. What should be the approximate thickness of the soles in womens dress
heels? (Section 3501.54)
1/4 inch
6. The Male Necktie, Bow, Black shall be plain style with square ends between
2 inches and how many inches in vertical width? (Section 3501.36)
2.75”
7. The All-Weather Coat, Blue is a black, single-breasted, beltless, water
repellent coat made of a poly/cotton poplin fabric mix of what percent poly
what percent cotton poplin? (Section 3501.1)
65/35
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18. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe
should dress blue trousers hang? (Section 3501.90)
2”
19. Which side of the buckle do women wear the belt with clip with the
exception of the Navy Working Uniform (NWU) and Coveralls? (Section
3501.2)
Right
20. How many detachable 35-line Navy eagle gilt buttons on the right front are
there on the service dress white officers/CPO coat? (Section 3501.17)
5
21. The male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand is made of authorized
fabric measuring no more than how many inches wide? (Section 3501.37)
3.25”
22. Within what distance of the top of the belt buckle does the bottom of the
male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand hang? (Section 3501.37)
1”
23. The sword worn with the ceremonial uniform for LCDR and above shall
have a cut and thrust blade, from 22 inches to how many inches long, half
basket hilt, and fit in a scabbard of plain black grain leather or synthetic
material presenting the leather appearance? (Section 3501.84)
36”
24. The traditional sword belt is made of plain black grain leather, or synthetic
material presenting the same appearance, 1-3/4 inch wide, with sling straps of
the same material, 3/4 inch wide. The buckle and mounting are gold plated
with the buckle how many inches in diameter? (Section 3501.84)
2”
25. What is the maximum width that tie clasps are authorized to be? (Section
3501.87)
5/16 inch
26. How far below the center of the tie in a horizontal position may tie clasps
be worn on the four-in-hand tie? (Section 3501.87)
1”
27. The blue garrison cap will be worn squarely on the head, with fore and aft
crease centered vertically between the eyebrows and the lowest point
approximately what distance above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.10)
1 inch
28. The black jacket should be worn with the zipper closed at least what
amount of the way up? (Section 3501.30)
¾
29. Which personnel will not wear insignia on the sweater? (Section 3501.83)
E6 and below
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30. Which uniform is miniature command insignia not worn with? (Section
5201.1.b)
Full Dress
31. Poly/cotton may be worn only as Working Khaki effective as of what year?
(Section 3501.94)
1999
32. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe
shall service khaki trousers hang? (Section 3501.94)
2 inches
33. Which fabric makes up 100 percent of the dress white jumper? (Section
3501.33)
Polyester
34. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe
shall coveralls hang? (Section 3501.18)
2 inches
35. When authorized, coverall sleeves will be rolled with the inside out,
forming a roll approximately how many inches wide, and terminating at a point
approximately 2 inches above the elbow? (Section 3501.18)
Three
36. The watch cap will worn with a single fold approximately 3.5 inches - 4
inches diagonally from the base of the back of the head, across the ears and on
the forehead with the bottom of the fold what distance above the eyebrows?
(Section 3501.11)
¼ inch
37. The Navy ballcap shall be worn squarely on the head, with bottom edge
parallel to and at least how far above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.8)
1.5 inch
38. What type of fabric is the optional gold long sleeve PTU shirt 100% made
of with anti-microbial and moisture wicking materials and a crewneck collar?
(Section 3601.3)
Polyester
39. When authorized, NWU sleeves will be rolled (cuff right-side out) forming
a 3 inch wide band covered by the cuff of the shirt (the outside digital
camouflage pattern of the NWU will show). Approximately how many inches
above the elbow will the termination point of the roll be? (Section 3603.5)
Two
40. How many of the top boot eyelets should be covered by the blouse from the
NWU trouser legs? (Section 3603.6)
Three
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41. The appropriate embroidered rank/rate collar insignias will be worn on the
NWU by E-4 to O-10 personnel. Except for flag officers, the center of the
insignia will be placed at a point at approximately what distance from the front
and lower edges of the collar and the vertical axis of the insignia will lie along
an imaginary line bisecting the angle of the collar point? (Section 3603.13)
1 inch
42. NWU identification markings will be embroidered in approximately 3/4
inch block letters on approximately 1-1/4 inch wide fabric strips. Names
exceedingly long can be embroidered in approximately what size letters?
(Section 3603.16)
1/2 inch
43. Authorized (current assignment) Force or command/unit patch may be
worn on the NWU wearer's right breast pocket. The size of the patch shall not
exceed how many inches in length/width/diameter? (Section 3603.16)
3 to 3-1/2
44. At least what percent of the way should the NWU Parka zipper be closed?
(Section 3603.11)
75%
45. The tip end of the utility belt will pass through the buckle, feeding back
around the locking bar to the wearer's left, extending how many inches beyond
the buckle? (Section 3603.7a)
2-4
Section 4
1. White hats shall be worn squarely on the head with the lower front edge
approximately what distance above the eyebrows and not crushed, bent, or
rolled? (Section 3501.27)
1.5”
2. Which type of dark blue fabric is the dress blue jumper made from? (Section
3501.32)
Wool serge
3. The dress blue jumper collar is trimmed with three stripes of white tape, each
3/16 inch wide and 3/16 inch apart with the outer stripe at what distance from
the collar edge? (Section 3501.32)
1/4 inch
4. What size is the plain black silk or synthetic fabric square that the
neckerchief is made from? (Section 3501.38)
36”
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5. What percentage of the distance from the wrist to the knuckles should the
pettycoat sleeves reach when the arms are hanging naturally at the sides?
(Section 3501.41)
75%
6. Approximately how many inches above the floor at the back of the shoe
should the black trousers for the E-6 and below service uniform hang? (Section
3602.5)
1 to 2 inches
7. What color are the ball earrings worn by E6 and below personnel? (Section
3501.23)
Silver
8. How many inches below the crease behind the knee can the Female Officer
Formal and Dinner Dress Uniform Skirt Length be? (Section 3501.62)
1.5 inches
9. How deep must civilian handbags be when worn with the full dress uniform?
(Section 3501.25)
2-4”
10. Approximately what distance from the forehead hairline tilted slightly to
the right shall women wear the beret toward the front of the head? (Section
3501.3)
3/4 inch
11. What two leg length sizes do PTU shorts come in? (Section 3601.6)
6”or 8”
12. What shall athletic socks not extend past? (Section 3601.7)
Mid-calf
Chapter 4
1. Sleeve insignia are gold stripes, black on green coats, in widths of either 2
inch, ½ inch, or what other size indicating the individual's rank? (Section
4101.1)
1/4 inch
2. Sleeve insignia stripes encircle the sleeve with the lower edge of the first
stripe how many inches from the edge of the sleeve? (Section 4101.2)
Two
3. What is the interval between stripes for sleeves that have multiple insignia
stripes? (Section 4101.2)
1/4 inch
4. Which officer rank is identified by one sleeve stripe that is 0.5”? (Section
4101.3.a)
Ensign
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5. What officer rank wears a one ½ inch stripe with one 1/4 inch stripe above
it? (Section 4101.3.a)
Lieutenant Junior Grade (LTJG)
6. Which officer rank is identified by two ½ inch stripes on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Lieutenant (LT)
7. Which officer rank is identified by two ½ inch stripes with one ¼ inch stripe
in between on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Lieutenant Commander (LCDR)
8. Which officer rank is identified by three ½ inch stripes on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Commander (CDR)
9. Which officer rank is identified by four ½ inch stripes on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Captain (CPT)
10. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Rear admiral lower half
11. What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with one ½ inch stripe
above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Rear admiral
12. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with two ½ inch stripes
above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Vice Admiral
13. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with three ½ inch
stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Admiral
14. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with four ½ inch
stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Fleet Admiral
15. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/4 inch stripe with breaks 2
inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-1
16. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2
inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-2
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17. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2
inches apart, two breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-3
18. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with one
break, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)
W-4
19. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch
bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-5
20. What type of officer is identified by a five-pointed gold star placed on the
sleeve with one ray pointing downward? (Section 4102.3)
Line
21. Which type of officers are identified by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf,
surcharged with a silver embroidered acorn, placed on the sleeve, stem down?
(Section 4102.3)
Medical corps
22. Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered spread oak
leaf, placed on the sleeve, stem down? (Section 4102.3)
Nurse corps
23. Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered sprig of three
oak leaves and three acorns, placed on the sleeve with the longer dimension
parallel to the upper stripe, stem to the front (right and left)? (Section 4102.3)
Supply corps
24. How many inches wide are the rating badges for female CPO’s? (Section
4211.1.a)
2.5
25. Approximately what percent of the size of the men's rating badges are
womens rating insignia, chevrons and rockers? (Section 4211.1.a)
75%
26. Who wears three gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the
specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.a)
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
27. Who wear two gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the
specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.c)
Fleet/Force Master Chief Petty Officers
28. How many inches long are male CPO's service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
7
29. How wide are male El-E6 service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
3/8 inch
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30. How many inches long are female service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
5.25
31. How many inches from the end of the sleeve is the lower end of the first
service stripe? (Section 4231.2)
Two
32. How many inches above the upper edge of the cuff on jumpers having a
buttoned cuff is the lower end of the first service stripe? (Section 4231.2)
1.5
33. How far are service stripes placed apart when more than one is authorized?
(Section 4231.2)
1/4 inch
34. How many years of active duty service or reserve service in an active status
in any of the armed services does it take for personnel to earn one service
stripe? (Section 4231.4)
Four
35. How many cumulative years of good conduct do personnel have to have
served before wearing gold service stripes? (Section 4232)
12
36. How many months at a maximum after the effective completion date of a
rating merger must personnel transition to the new rating badge? (Section
4235)
24
Chapter 5
Chapter 6
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3. Who wears white leather gauntlet gloves, baldric, and tall bear skin hat when
in Full Dress Blue or Whites in the Navy Band? (Section 6301.1.c.5)
Drum Major
4. Which instruction establishes burial uniform policy? (Section 6404.1)
NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
5. What is defined as articles of clothing worn as part of the doctrinal or
traditional observance of the religious faith practiced by the member? (Section
6405.1)
Religious apparel
6. Up to how many months from the date of delivery based on medical officer
diagnosis/recommendation may the Commanding Officer approve the wear of
maternity uniforms? (Section 6701.1)
Six
7. What is defined as any clothing loaned to an individual by a naval activity,
for which there is a requirement above and beyond authorized Navy uniforms?
(Section 6801.1)
Organizational clothing
8. Which type of clothing provides increased protection from flash fire
situations which have been prevalent with the threat of Improvised Explosive
Devices and other safety hazards? (Section 6802.6)
Flame-Resistant Organization Clothing/Gear (FROG)
9. Flight suits shall be clean and well kept. Sleeves will be worn full length
with hook and pile (Velcro) sleeve cuffs closed or with a maximum of how
many outward rolls when not engaged in flight operations? (Section 6803.3.a)
Two
10. What is defined as Summer Whites without ribbons for both male and
female medical personnel? (Section 6902.2)
Indoor Duty White
11. Reserve officers, on active duty for periods less than how many months,
need not have a sword, sword accessories, or Dinner Dress Jackets? (Section
61001.1.b)
Six
Chapter 7
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2. What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face,
or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section
7101.7)
Mutilation
3. Who establishes the requirement for enlisted personnel to wear civilian
clothing in the performance of their official duties? (Section 7102.1)
Chief of Naval Operations (N131U)
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Chapter 1
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26. What shall E-9 Active duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO
be appointed as that have completed 2 years TIR as of 1 October of the year in
which the CWO board convenes? (Page 1-7)
CWO3
27. What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active duty CWOs selected
for LDO be appointed as? (Page 1-7)
LTJG (02E)
28. Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as
of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for
LDO applicants? (Page 1-8)
3
29. Active duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of
active duty service? (Page 1-8)
16
30. What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must
meet at the time of application and appointment? (Page 1-8)
Satisfactory medium
31. Active Duty CWO applicants must not have more than how many years of
active duty service? (Page 1-9)
22
32. Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for
highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Navy or Naval Reserve
to earn a degree and receive a commission? (Page 1-9)
STA-21
33. How many components make up STA-21? (Page 1-10)
2
34. Which program was designed to improve STA-21 applicants academic
skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)? (Page 1-10)
BOOST
35. Which 8-week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination
held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university
assignment? (Page 1-10)
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
36. Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance?
(Page 1-10)
OPNAVINST 1160.6A
37. All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what
course? (Page 1-10)
NSI
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38. Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to
supplement tuition cost, books, and fees? (Page 1-11)
$10,000
39. Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they
eligible for tuition assistance under the Navy’s Tuition Assistance Montgomery
GI Bill (MGIB) educational benefits? (Page 1-11)
BUPERSINST 1780.1
40. How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a
baccalaureate degree in? (Page 1-11)
36
41. What age must STA-21 candidates be able to complete degree requirements
and be commissioned prior to? (Page 1-11)
31
42. Within how many years of STA-21 application due date must candidates
have certified copies of SAT or ACT test scores? (Page 1-11)
3
43. What is the minimum ACT english score required for STA-21 candidates?
(Page 1-11)
20
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6. Which completed form must OCS, MECP, or MSC IPP program applicants
who do not have either a valid Entry Level National Agency Check (ENTNAC)
or National Agency Check (NAC) include with the Officer Programs
Application? (Page 2-5)
SF 86
Chapter 3
1. What are Enlisted members who apply to the U.S. Naval Academy and are
not selected for direct entry automatically considered for entrance into? (Page
3-1)
NAPS
2. Applicants should not have passed which birthday on July 1st of the year that
they will be considered for NAPS? (Page 3-1)
22nd
3. How many enlisted members of the Regular and Reserve Navy and Marine
Corps may be appointed to the Naval Academy each year by the Secretary of
the Navy? (Page 3-1)
170
4. What is a four-year military college that offers an outstanding opportunity
for qualified young persons to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or
Marine Corps after obtaining a Bachelor of Science degree? (Page 3-2)
U.S. Naval Academy
5. What is the minimum active duty service obligation upon initial appointment
for graduates of the U.S. Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)
5
6. Which school provides intensive instruction and preparation for the
academic, military and physical training at the Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)
7. What is the minimum age that people can be to apply to the Naval Academy?
(Page 3-2)
17
8. What administers medical examinations for Naval Academy applicants?
(Page 3-3)
DODMERB
9. Applicants to the Naval Academy in addition to other requirements must be
scholastically qualified with an acceptable secondary school transcript with
college preparatory subjects and grades indicating college capability and a class
standing normally in the top what percent in high school? (Page 3-4)
40%
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10. What is the maximum acceptable age of SAT or ACT scores when applying
for the Naval Academy? (Page 3-4)
2 years
11. What is the minimum ACT English score necessary to be considered for a
Secretary of the Navy nomination to the Naval Academy? (Page 3-4)
22
12. What will remain the final authority on whether a member meets Naval
Academy academic requirements based on a whole person assessment? (Page
3-6)
Naval Academy's Admissions Board
13. A minimum of how many remaining months of active obligated service, as
of July 1st of the entering year must service members offered an appointment
to the Naval Academy have? (Page 3-7)
24
14. What is the maximum number of years that Midshipmen who are separated
or whose resignations are accepted after the start of the junior year in the Naval
Academy, but before completing the course of instruction, may be transferred
to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty?
(Page 3-8)
4
15. How many years may Midshipmen who complete the course of instruction
in the Naval Academy and decline to accept an appointment as a commissioned
officer be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and
ordered to active duty? (Page 3-8)
4
16. Approximately how much money must be remitted by each Naval Academy
candidate upon admission to the Naval Academy as an entry deposit which is
applied to the initial uniform issue? (Page 3-9)
$2,500
Chapter 4
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17. There is no specific deadline for officer applications as selections are made
on a continuous basis throughout the year except for which officers that have
annual selections? (Page 4-8)
Public Affairs Officer (PAO)
18. How many officer interviews are required for an officer application? (Page
4-9)
Three
19. What minimum paygrade should the officer(s) conducting officer
application interviews be? (Page 4-9)
O-3
20. Which officer program disqualifies personnel who have defective color
vision? (Page 4-9)
URL
21. Officer selectees will be required to have an HIV test within how long after
they apply for the program regardless of date of physical exam? (Page 4-10)
1 year
22. How many months must OCS applicants have of obligated service
remaining on their current enlistment upon receipt of OCS orders? (Page 4-10)
6 months
23. Voluntary extensions for OCS are not authorized if the aggregate of all
extensions during the current enlistment exceeds how many months? (Page 4-
11)
48
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5. How many years of active duty service obligation are incurred by MECP
graduates? (Page 5-2)
4
6. What is the last birthday that MECP applicants can have reached by the time
of initial appointment and commissioning to be eligible? (Page 5-2)
42nd
7. MECP applicants are required to submit a precommissioning SF 88 or DD
Form 2808 and SF 93 or DD Form 2807-1 within the last 12 months (or how
many months for those applicants deployed)? (Page 5-3)
18
8. What is the minimum recommended SAT score for MECP applicants? (Page
5-4)
1000
9. How many of the last consecutive years of EVAL’s shall all MECP packages
contain? (Page 5-5)
Five
10. How many years within the application due date are SAT or ACT test
scores considered acceptable for MECP packages? (Page 5-5)
3
11. What convenes an annual selection board to consider eligible MECP
applicants? (Page 5-9)
CHNAVPERS
12. How many years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP
appointees upon commissioning? (Page 5-9)
8
13. What school must be completed by MECP appointees? (Page 5-10)
Officer Development School (ODS)
14. How many times can Nurse Corps Officers take and fail the licensure
examination before they may be re-appointed through the training attrite
process to a different officer community/designator to complete any incurred
active duty obligation? (Page 5-10)
2
15. Within how many days of notification of selection must any MECP selectee
who does not desire to participate in the program notify Commander,
NAVMEDEDTRACOM (Code OG3)? (Page 5-10)
15
16. Within how many months after NAVMEDEDTRACOM receives a
program letter of acceptance from the MECP selectee will PCS orders be
issued? (Page 5-11)
5
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1. MSC IPP is available to communities for members of the Regular Navy and
Regular Marine Corps, and Naval Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve on active
duty, including Full Time Support (FTS), and Active Reserve (AR) serving in
any rating or Military Occupational Specialty (MOS), in paygrades E-5 through
what paygrade at the time of application (paygrade is not waiverable)? (Page 6-
1)
E-9
2. All applicants who have completed a bachelor’s degree, including applicants
who have completed a master's, must submit official GRE, GMAT, or the
appropriate test score defined within the specialty requirement completed
within how many years of application due date for MSC IPP? (Page 6-2)
5
3. What is the recommended ACT score for MSC IPP candidates? (Page 6-2)
42
4. Up to how many months do personnel selected for any MSC IPP program
who require training to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)
with benefits that include tuition, mandatory fees, book allowance, full pay and
allowances for their enlisted paygrades, and eligibility for advancement while
in college? (Page 6-2)
48
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1. LDO and CWO applicants must be of good moral character and have no
record of disciplinary action under Article 15, Uniform Code of Military
Justice, no courts martial conviction or civilian felony conviction, or conviction
by a civil court for misdemeanors (except minor traffic violations ($300 or less)
in the past how years as of 1 October of the year application is made? (Page 7-
1)
3
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2. How many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will any
substantiated drug or alcohol abuse result in disqualification for LDO and
CWO applicants? (Page 7-1)
3
3. Which chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department defines the physical
qualifications required for appointment to LDO and CWO? (Page 7-1)
15
4. What are the minimum PRT scores that must be met by LDO and CWO
applicants at the time of application and appointment? (Page 7-1)
Satisfactory-medium
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(20 Questions)
1. Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four
elements of the Navy’s suicide prevention program? (Page 2)
Reporting
2. At least how often will suicide prevention training be conducted for all
Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and
for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military
installations? (Page 2)
Annually
3. MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for
reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors? (Page 5)
OPNAVINST 3100.6
4. What is a self-inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit or explicit) of
the intent to die? (Page 5)
Suicide
5. Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the
Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) to report suicide
instances and undetermined deaths for which suicide has not been excluded by
the medical examiner? (Page 5)
60
6. How many weeks after a member’s suicide are commands advised to
maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the
DoDSER and respond to unforeseen questions? (Page 5)
6-8
7. What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal
outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence
(either implicit or explicit) of intent to die? (Page 5)
Suicide attempt
8. Within how many days of medical evaluation must a DoDSER be completed
for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service members, as determined by
competent medical authority? (Page 5)
30
9. Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully
implemented? (Page 6)
SPC
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3. In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk
management process is applied on? (Page 3)
Time critical
4. Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting
factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task? (Page
3)
In-depth
5. Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to
apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission or task? (Page 4)
Deliberate
6. Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management
at the time critical level? (Page 4)
ABCD
7. The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that
consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the
hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step? (Page
5)
Supervise
8. Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide
enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation? (Page 6)
Identify and Assess the hazards
9. What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an
intuitive fashion with help screens and process information? (Page 7)
TRACS
10. What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively
impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death, or property damage?
(Page 7)
Hazard
11. What is the foundation of the entire risk management process? (Page 7)
Hazard identification
12. What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to
mission or task degradation? (Page 8)
Root cause
13. What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a
result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property
damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or
task? (Page 8)
Severity
14. Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to
accomplish the mission? (Page 8)
Category I
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3. Which ORM steps does the “A” in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model
combine? (Page 5)
Identify and Assess hazards
4. Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to
making risk decisions? (Page 5)
Balance resources
5. Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM
process? (Page 5)
Communicate to others
6. Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the “D” in the mnemonic of the
ABCD model correlated to? (Page 5)
Implement controls and Supervise
Enclosure 3
1. Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal
military education and training for the individual and offers a one-time
opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills
training? (Page 2)
Accession point
2. Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command
ORM manager? (Page 3)
XO
3. Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate
it up the chain of command? (Page 3)
ORM manager
4. How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course? (Page 4)
Triennially
Enclosure 4
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1. What is that portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the
mission or task called? (Page 1)
Acceptable risk
2. Which condition refers to all the items that compete for an individual’s or
crew’s attention during the execution of a mission or task? (Page 1)
Additive Condition
3. Which technique guides a group in an interactive exchange of ideas,
deferring judgment until the end of the session? (Page 1)
Brainstorming
4. Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel,
or the mission? (Page 2)
Consequential
5. What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a
hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as? (Page 2)
Controls
6. What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and
percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard? (Page 2)
Exposure
7. How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process? (Page 3)
6
8. What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that
assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards?
(Page 3)
Operational Analysis
9. What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an
operation, task, or mission? (Page 3)
Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
10. What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have been identified
and selected? (Page 3)
Residual risk
11. What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people
or equipment? (Page 3)
Resource
12. What is an expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative
consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability, and severity? (Page
4)
Risk
13. What is an expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its
severity and probability into a single Arabic numeral which can be used to help
determine hazard abatement priorities? (Page 4)
Risk Assessment Code (RAC)
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14. What refers to the degree of accuracy by which one's perception of the
current environment mirrors reality? (Page 4)
Situational Awareness (SA)
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10. How often must Commanding Officers and Officers In Charge provide
Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment training and grievance procedure
instruction as required per SECNAVINST 5350.16A for all assigned command
members as part of CPPD generated GMT? (Page 8)
Annually
11. What is the minimum recommended number of years of active duty service
for officers to be the CMEO Manager? (Page 9)
4
12. How long at a minimum should CMEO Managers serve in their position?
(Page 9)
One year
13. How many years must CO’s/OIC’s ensure that completed copies of all
Navy Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint
Forms are maintained in the CMEO Manager record file? (Page 9)
Three
14. CO’s/OIC’s shall ensure that detailed Naval messages, are sent upon receipt
of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or SH, per which reference?
(Page 9)
DOD Directive 1325.6
15. Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment
must CO’s/OIC’s ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is
submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIC? (Page 10)
60
16. Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to
commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other
members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 10)
EOA
17. Who functions as the single point of contact, when practicable, for
command equal opportunity issues? (Page 10)
CMEO Manager
18. How many years will CMEO Managers maintain CMEO record files?
(Page 11)
Three
Enclosure 1
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5. Which color light on the traffic light scale would repeated requests for dates,
leering, staring, or whistling be that many would find unacceptable? (Page 3)
Yellow
6. Which color light on the traffic light scale would sexual favors in return for
employment rewards would be that are always considered sexual harassment?
(Page 3)
Red
Enclosure 5
1. What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting
discriminatory practices? (Page 1)
Chain of command
2. Which instruction contains the DoN's policy on military Equal Opportunity
complaint processing? (Page 1)
SECNAVINST 5350.16A
3. How many days within the offending incident should Equal Opportunity
complaints be made? (Page 2)
60
4. Which form can individuals use to file Equal Opportunity complaints? (Page
3)
NAVPERS 5354/2
5. Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a
formal Equal Opportunity complaint submit the complaint to the commander or
other designated authority? (Page 3)
1
6. Within how many hours of receiving a formal Equal Opportunity complaint
must an advocate be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender as well as
any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing? (Page 4)
24
7. Within how many hours after receiving an Equal Opportunity complaint
submission must the investigation commence? (Page 4)
72
8. Within how many days after the Equal Opportunity investigation commences
must a close-out message be sent describing what actions were taken? (Page 4)
20
9. How often must an updated message be sent if the equal opportunity
complaint investigation is not completed at the 20-day point until the close-out
message describing case disposition is released? (Page 4)
Every 14 days
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10. How many days after the final Equal Opportunity investigation action must
commands conduct a follow-up debrief? (Page 5)
30-45
11. How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity
complaints and investigations for? (Page 5)
36
Enclosure 7
1. Who serve as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanders
and Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers providing
assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 1)
EOAs
2. How often must EOA’s conduct a review of subordinate commands'
executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the
commander? (Page 1)
Annually
Enclosure 8
1. The role of what person is to ensure that the complainant, accused, and
witness in an EO case are informed about EO complaint processing and are
advised of available support and counseling services? (Page 1)
Personal advocate
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(10 Questions)
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(74 Questions)
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1. Who serves as the Department of the Navy representative to the DoD Sexual
Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Integrated Process Team (IPT)?
(Page 1)
DON-SAPRO
2. At least how many key milestones of Service-level sexual assault victim
support processes are identified by the DON-SAPRO in coordination with
Service representatives? (Page 1)
Four
3. How many full-time SARCs at a minimum shall be assigned to each brigade
or equivalent unit level of the Navy and Marine Corps? (Page 2)
One
4. Only members of the Armed Forces and civilian employees of the
Department of Defense may be assigned to duty as a SARC as of what date?
(Page 2)
October 1st, 2013
5. Who ensures that all Department of the Navy (DON) military and civilian
healthcare personnel, including those not assigned to Medical Treatment
Facilities (MTFs), receive SAPR training? (Page 5)
CHBUMED
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9. How many years will the SAFE Kit, which includes the DD Form 2911 or
civilian forensic examination report, if available, be retained for? (Page 10)
5
Enclosure 5
1. Within how many days of taking command shall each commander meet with
the SARC for one-on-one SAPR training? (Page 1)
30
2. Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault unrestricted report
must the SARC update the installation commander? (Page 1)
24
3. How often must Commanders provide victims of a sexual assault who filed
an Unrestricted Report updates? (Page 3)
Monthly
4. Who will the Commander of the Service member who is a subject of a sexual
assault allegation immediately provide in writing all disposition data, to include
any administrative or judicial action taken, stemming from the sexual assault
investigation to? (Page 4)
MCIO
5. What do SARCs have to have a favorable check from to be permitted access
to enter sexual assault reports into DSAID? (Page 5)
National Agency Check (NAC)
6. What are used to enhance communications and the sharing of information
regarding sexual assault prosecutions, as well as of the sexual assault care and
forensic examinations that involve Service members and eligible TRICARE
beneficiaries? (Page 6)
MOA’s/MOU’s
7. Who may order a member of a Reserve Component who is the alleged victim
of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be
released from active duty before the LOD determination is made to be retained
on active duty until completion of the LOD determination upon request of the
member? (Page 8)
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
8. How many days from the date of the request by a member of a Reserve
Component to continue on active duty who is the alleged victim of sexual
assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from
active duty before the LOD determination is made, or to be ordered to active
duty, respectively, be decided within? (Page 8)
30
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4. How many years will the DD Form 2910 as well as the DD Form 2911’s
filed in connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the
request of a service member? (Page 3)
50
5. Within how many hours of receiving an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault
must the SARC or SAPR VA provide the installation commander with
information regarding the Unrestricted Report? (Page 4)
24
6. At least how often will the SARC or SAPR VA facilitate SAPR training?
(Page 5)
Annually
7. Which form will be used to document a sexual assault victims consent in
writing to transfer case management documents when a sexual assault victim
has a temporary or permanent change of station or is deployed? (Page 6)
DD Form 2910
8. Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault report must SARCs
enter information into DSAID either through direct data entry or by Military
Service DSAID interface? (Page 7)
48
9. An extension of how many hours can be granted to SARCs who are in
deployed locations that have internet connectivity issues to enter sexual assault
information into DSAID either through direct data entry by SARCs or by
Military Service DSAID interface? (Page 7)
96
10. Who serves as the CMG co-chair? (Page 7)
Installation SARC
Enclosure 7
1. How many years from the date of the victim’s Restricted Report of the
sexual assault will any evidence along with the SAFE Kit be stored for? (Page
3)
5
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2. How long after the sexual assault restricted report must the SARC contact
the victim to inquire whether they wish to change their reporting option to
unrestricted? (Page 3)
One year
3. How many years will the DD Forms 2910 and 2911 that are filed in
connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the request
of the victim? (Page 3)
50
4. How many business days do SARCs have to provide sexual assault victims
copies of their DD Form 2910 and/or DD Form 2911 upon request? (Page 4)
7
5. At least how many days before the expiration of the 5-year sexual assault
restricted report storage period will a NCIS Consolidated Evidence Facility
representative notify the installation SARC that the storage period is about to
expire and confirm with the SARC that the victim has not made a request to
change to Unrestricted Reporting or made a request for any personal effects?
(Page 4)
30
Enclosure 9
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6. How often at a minimum will briefings occur for the CMG chair and co-
chair while the sexual assault victim is on a high-risk status? (Page 5)
Weekly
Enclosure 10
1. What serves as the centralized, case-level database for the collection and
maintenance of information regarding sexual assaults? (Page 1)
Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID)
2. Which Office of Management and Budget control number has DSAID been
assigned? (Page 1)
0704-0482
Enclosure 12
1. Who submits the annual Fiscal Year (FY) reports to Congress on sexual
assaults that involve military servicemembers? (Page 1)
USD (P&R)
2. Which Report Control Symbol has been assigned by the Defense Manpower
Data Center (DMDC) for the MSA Sexual Assault Survey? (Page 2)
DD-P&R(A) 2198
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