Ppl020eng

LAPL(A)/PPL(A) question bank
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
AIRCRAFT GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE
020
1
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
1 A halon fire extinguisher:

[A] Is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit if the cockpit is subsequently ventilated.
[B] Is only suitable for wood or fabric fires and is, therefore, of no use in a cockpit
[C] Gives off highly toxic fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit
[D] Is safe to use in an enclosed cockpit.
2 If you suspect carburettor icing when flying an aircraft whose engine is not fitted
with a carburettor air-temperature gauge, the correct action would be:
[A] To always select full carburettor heat unless the engine starts to run roughly, at which
point the carburettor heat should be selected to cold.
[B] To always select full carburettor heat.
[C] To select the appropriate amount of carburettor heat depending on the amount of icing
suspected.
[D] To open the throttle to make up for the lost power.
3 Aquaplaning speed:
[A] Increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces.
[B] Can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure by nine.
[C] Is measured in miles per hour.
[D] Increases as the depth of water on the ground increases.
4 Connecting two 12 volt, 40 ampere-hour, capacity batteries in series will provide

a battery of:
[A] 24 volts and 40 ampere-hours capacity.
[B] 24 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity.
[C] 12 volts and 80 ampere-hours capacity.
[D] 12 volts and 40 ampere hours capacity.
5 If a blockage occurs in the oil cooler of an aircraft engine while the aircraft is in
flight, a by-pass valve allows the oil to by-pass the cooler. The by-pass functions
on the principle of:
[A] Temperature dependence.
[B] Hydraulic selection.
[C] Pressure dependence.
[D] Mechanical selection.
6 A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to:

[A] Give a progressively increasing blade angle from root to tip.
[B] Maintain the optimal Angle of Attack from root to tip.
[C] Compensate for the decreasing linear speed of the blade from root to tip.
[D] Give a progressively increasing pitch from root to tip.
2
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
7 Magnetos are:
[A] Fitted within the distributor and fire in the same sequence as the spark-plugs.
[B] Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment.
[C] Used to generate low voltage sparks for the spark-plugs.
[D] Self-contained, engine driven, electrical generators which produce high voltage sparks.
8 Which of the following is an appropriate action to take if you have a carburettor

fire on startup?
[A] Deselect carburettor heat.
[B] Turn the starter switch to "Off".
[C] Select mixture control to Idle Cut Off (ICO).
[D] All answers are correct.
9 Tyre creep:
[A] Refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes.
[B] Can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel.
[C] Can be prevented with glue.
[D] Can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel.
10 The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system (See PPL(A) 020-01).
In flight if the loadmeter reading drops to zero, the most probable cause is that
the:
[A] Alternator has failed.
[B] Bus-bar is overloaded.
[C] Battery has been fully charged.
[D] Battery is flat.
11 The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:

[A] Decreasing the length of the stroke.
[B] Increasing the engine R.P.M.
[C] Increasing the size of the fuel tank.
[D] Decreasing the area of the cylinder.
12 When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:

[A] The magnetic compass indication is behind the actual magnetic heading.
[B] The compass will be lively.
[C] Acceleration errors are always more significant than turning errors.
[D] Turning errors are greatest closer to the magnetic equator.
3
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
13 In a dive, with the throttle setting constant, the engine R.P.M. of an aircraft fitted
with a fixed pitch propeller will:
[A] Decrease as long as the throttle setting is not changed.
[B] Decrease as the airspeed increases.
[C] Remain constant whatever the airspeed.
[D] Increase if the airspeed is allowed to increase.
14 Immediately after starting an aircraft engine, you must check the starter warning
light. If it is still illuminated you should:
[A] Do nothing. The starter warning light should stay on while the engine is running.
[B] Monitor it for 30 seconds. If it remains illuminated shut down the engine.
[C] Shut down the engine immediately.
[D] Shut down the engine, count to 30, and then attempt a re-start.
15 The significance of using the chemically correct mixture of air and fuel is that:
[A] It gives the best results.
[B] It is the one usually used.
[C] It allows complete combustion to occur.
[D] It is 15:1 by volume.
16 Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed
Indicator indicate the True Airspeed of an aircraft?
[A] At any altitude or temperature.
[B] At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.
[C] At any altitude, provided that the temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA.
[D] In ISA, sea-level conditions only.
17 While carrying out the Dead Cut Check, with the right magneto selected, you
notice that the engine falters, and you suspect it will stop running. What should
you do?
[A] Open the throttle to keep the engine running, and then select both magnetos.
[B] Allow the engine to stop completely, the fault must be find out before the next flight is
conducted.
[C] Quickly switch to both magnetos.
[D] Quickly switch to the left magneto.
18 Theoretically, a 100Ah battery will supply 25A for:

[A] 25 hours.
[B] 4 hours.
[C] 25 minutes.
[D] 100 minutes.
4
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
19 During one complete Otto Cycle, the piston:

[A] Rotates around the gudgeon pin twice.
[B] Receives two power strokes.
[C] Moves towards the cylinder head four times.
[D] Moves towards the cylinder head twice.
20 Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system?

[A] A filter to clean the air.
[B] A vacuum generator.
[C] A system lubrication device.
[D] A vacuum controller.
21 While taxying in an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, you suspect that
you have carburettor icing. The correct action to take would be to:
[A] Avoid the use of carburettor heat on the ground, and rely on the heat of the engine within
the cowlings to melt the ice.
[B] Select carburettor heat to fully hot; then select cold as the rpm drops.
[C] Select carburettor heat to fully hot and leave this setting selected until you have taken off
and are climbing away.
[D] Select carburettor heat to fully hot. Then, before take-off, select carburettor heat cold,
making sure that the engine develops the correct minimum take-off rpm.
22 The Mechanical Tachometer:

[A] Is driven directly from the prop shaft. Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a
generator can be used to produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated
on a gauge calibrated in RPM.
[B] Works on the principle of a magnetic field being induced in a drag cup and creating a
torque which rotates a shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a Tachometer.
[C] Is driven directly from the alternator drive.
[D] Uses the friction generated in a drag cup to rotate a shaft, which is connected to a
pointer, against the pressure of a hairspring.
23 Detonation could result from using:

[A] Too high an RPM.
[B] Too low a manifold pressure.
[C] Too weak a mixture.
[D] A higher grade fuel than recommended.
24 Pre-ignition in a four stroke piston engine is:

[A] The fuel-air mixture burning earlier than plug sparkles.
[B] Characterised by the ringing nature of the explosion it causes.
[C] The explosive combustion of the fuel-air mixture.
[D] Caused by a rich mixture in a hot engine.
5
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
25 If the engine gets too hot, the mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires.
[A] The mixture should be weakened to assist in cooling the engine.
[B] This is called detonation.
[C] The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.
[D] This is called pre-ignition.
26 Instruments normally supplied from the electrical system include the:

[A] Engine rpm indicator and the turn co-ordinator.
[B] Engine rpm indicator and the fuel quantity gauges.
[C] Fuel quantity gauges and the turn co-ordinator.
[D] Turn co-ordinator and oil pressure gauge.
27 Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser which:

[A] Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm increases.
[B] Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm increases.
[C] Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm decreases.
[D] Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm decreases.
28 Where in the engine is the oil temperature read by the temperature probe which
is connected to the engine's oil temperature gauge?
[A] After the oil has passed through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the
engine.
[B] As the oil leaves the oil tank.
[C] Before the oil has passed through the oil cooler.
[D] Inside the hot sections of the engine.
29 To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:

[A] The airspeed can be reduced.
[B] The air-fuel mixture can be weakened.
[C] The air-fuel mixture can be richened.
[D] The cowl flaps can be closed.
30 The component parts of the wing shown in the diagram are: (See PPL(A) 020-02)
A/B/C
[A] Stringers/Secondary Spar/Former
[B] Primary Spar/Formers/Stringer
[C] Front Spar/Formers/Rear Spar
[D] Front Spar/Secondary Spar/Former
6
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
31 Semi-monocoque can be defined as:

[A] A framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of
triangular shape.
[B] A stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal structure framework.
[C] An apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and
longerons over a stressed skin.
[D] A structure with no apertures at all.
32 On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the
ground is normally effected by:
[A] Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.
[B] Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.
[C] Use of the differential braking technique, only.
[D] Cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
33 Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:

[A] Clearance volume to the swept volume.
[B] Swept volume to the total volume.
[C] Total volume to the clearance volume.
[D] Swept volume to the clearance volume.
34 A 100 Ampere-Hour battery:

[A] Takes 100 hours to charge.
[B] Supplies the bus-bars through a 45 Ampere circuit breaker.
[C] Must be used in parallel with another similar battery.
[D] Will, in theory, supply 20 Amps for up to 5 hours.
35 In the event of an alternator or generator failure during flight the:

[A] Shut down all electrical devices and land as soon as possible.
[B] Electrical loads should be reduced to a minimum and a landing made as soon as safely
practicable.
[C] Flight may be continued normally because the battery supplies all electrical loads.
[D] Alternator master switch should be turned off and flight continued normally without
electrical power.
36 If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed indicator and altimeter
become blocked by ice:
[A] Both instruments will over-read.
[B] Both instruments will under-read.
[C] The airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read.
[D] The airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.
7
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
37 Within one "Otto" cycle, the valves of a four stroke piston engine will each open:
[A] During the induction stroke.
[B] Once.
[C] During the power stroke.
[D] Twice.
38 The purpose of the compass deviation card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic
compass is to:
[A] Indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual
magnetic heading.
[B] Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.
[C] Compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot
and/or passengers.
[D] Indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and magnetic north.
39 The most common method for shutting down an aircraft engine equipped with
carburettor is:
[A] Switching the starter switch to off.
[B] Moving the mixture to Idle Cut off (ICO).
[C] Closing the throttle and moving the mixture to ICO.
[D] Closing the throttle.
40 Why do aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark

augmentation?
[A] Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to
produce enough energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture.
[B] Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from
the air-fuel mixture.
[C] In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting.
[D] All answers are correct.
41 Aircraft maintenance carried out by a private pilot in accordance with the pilot's
legal entitlement:
[A] Need not be logged or recorded.
[B] Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a CAD approved inspector.
[C] Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a licensed engineer.
[D] Is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by the pilot who carried out the
maintenance.
42 Carbon monoxide gas, which is highly toxic, may enter the aeroplane cabin in
flight because of an exhaust system defect. Carbon Monoxide:
[A] May be identified by its strong smell.
[B] May be identified by its grey colour.
[C] Has a very distinctive taste.
[D] Is odourless and colourless.
8
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
43 Blade angle ____ from the hub to the tip of a propeller blade in order to maintain
an optimal ____ from hub to tip.
[A] Decreases, Angle of Attack.
[B] Decreases, Geometric Pitch.
[C] Increases, Effective Pitch.
[D] Increases, Angle of Attack.
44 A Direction lndicator:
[A] Suffers from apparent drift of the gyro from the fixed position in space to which it was
aligned, produced by Earth rotation.
[B] Is badly affected by acceleration in a turn.
[C] Is not affected by drift produced from mechanical friction in the gyro gimbal bearings.
[D] Provides a stable reference in azimuth and elevation for maintaining accurate headings
and pitch attitudes.
45 As you climb altitude ____ and density ____ and, therefore, the mixture will
be____.
[A] Increases/Decreases/Increases.
[B] Decreases/Increases/Decreases.
[C] Increases/Decreases/Decreases.
[D] Decreases/Decreases/Increases.
46 The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level:

[A] Increases initially, then remains constant as rpm increases.
[B] Is proportional to the volume of mixture induced into the cylinder.
[C] Increases as rpm increases.
[D] Is constant as rpm increases.
47 As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propeller accelerates along

the runway:
[A] The angle of attack will decrease and the engine R.P.M. remain constant.
[B] The blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle of attack and R.P.M.
[C] The angle of attack will remain constant and the engine R.P.M. will increase.
[D] The linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease.
48 The diagram shows a light aircraft electrical power system, which employs a
centre-zero reading ammeter. (See PPL(A) 020-03). In flight with the battery fully
charged and the battery switch ON, you would expect the ammeter to be:
[A] In the centre-zero position.
[B] To the right showing a large positive reading.
[C] To the left showing a negative reading.
[D] Fluctuating, but mainly showing a negative reading.
9
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
49 A flying control lock:

[A] Will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to overstress the airframe
during normal operations.
[B] Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
[C] Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions.
[D] Is only necessary on the elevators.
50 If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly and immediate action is required to
extinguish it, the safest extinguishant to use is:
[A] Water acid.
[B] Dry powder.
[C] Carbon dioxide.
[D] Bromotrifluoromethane (BTF).
51 When referring to the magnetic compass, pilots must bear in mind that:
[A] Turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish
as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Poles.
[B] Acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish
as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Equator.
[C] Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when
turning through North and South.
[D] Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when
turning through East and West.
52 After starting a cold engine, if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate within
approximately 30 seconds:
[A] This may be ignored if the oil temperature is high, provided that the oil level was checked
to be sufficient before start-up.
[B] The engine must be stopped immediately.
[C] This may be ignored, provided that the oil level was checked to be sufficient before start-
up.
[D] The engine rpm should be increased and then the oil pressure re-checked.
53 Tyre creep may be identified by:

[A] Two white blocks painted on the wheel flange.
[B] A tyre pressure check.
[C] Alignment marks painted on the tyre sidewall and wheel flange.
[D] Two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls.
54 The exhaust gas temperature gauge:

[A] Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too
lean or too rich.
[B] Requires power from the D.C. bus-bar.
[C] Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge.
[D] Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from excessive heat.
10
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
55 The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:

[A] Induction, compression, power, exhaust.
[B] Exhaust, induction, power, compression.
[C] Induction, power, compression, exhaust.
[D] Exhaust power induction, compression.
56 Flying an aircraft with a flat battery, having started the engine using a ground
source, is:
[A] Not recommended because the battery may not charge correctly during flight.
[B] Acceptable because the battery is never required in flight.
[C] Acceptable because the battery will be fully charged again before take-off.
[D] Not recommended because the electrical loads will not be energised.
57 lt is important to ensure the priming pump is locked after use because:

[A] It may cause a fuel leak, resulting in an increased fire risk.
[B] It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an
extremely rich mixture.
[C] It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer into the inlet manifold, causing an
extremely rich mixture.
[D] If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop.
58 What will be the consequence for the validity of an aircraft's arworthiness f the
aircraft is not maintained in accordance with the approved maintenance
schedule detailed in the Certificate of Airworthiness ( C of A)?
[A] The aircraft owner must apply to the CAA for an exemption from the required
maintenance schedule.
[B] The C of A will be rendered invalid until such time as the required maintenance is
completed.
[C] The validity of the C of A will not be affected.
[D] The C of A must be renewed before the aircraft may fly.
59 The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during
the power stroke will:
[A] Follow Charles's Law.
[B] Decrease.
[C] Remain constant.
[D] Increase.
60 The crankshaft in a piston engine:

[A] Controls the clearance of the valves.
[B] Converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion.
[C] Rotates at half the camshaft speed.
[D] Converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement.
11
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
61 Baffles:
[A] Are directional air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder.
[B] Must be close fitting to reduce the flow of air around the engine.
[C] Are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine.
[D] Reduce the flow of air around the engine.
62 Pre-ignition:
[A] Happens after the spark occurs at the plug.
[B] Is also known as pinking.
[C] Is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber.
[D] Occurs after ignition.
63 It is best to run the engine with the mixture:

[A] Chemically correct as this is most efficient.
[B] Slightly rich, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.
[C] Slightly rich, as the remaining fuel helps cool the engine.
[D] Slightly weak, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.
64 The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:

[A] Total cylinder volume to swept volume.
[B] Total cylinder volume to the volume when the piston is at bottom dead centre (BDC).
[C] Cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC to the cylinder volume when the piston is at
TDC.
[D] Swept volume to clearance volume.
65 If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and
the aircraft subsequently descended, the readings on the Altimeter/the VSI/the
ASI would, if ice had blocked the pitot (Total Pressure) tube:
[A] Read Correctly / Under-read / Over-read.
[B] Under-read / Read Correctly / Over-read.
[C] Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Over-read.
[D] Read Correctly / Read Correctly / Untrustworthy.
66 The cylinder head temperature gauge:

[A] Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cylinder, by means of a probe
consisting of two dissimilar metals joined together.
[B] Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle.
[C] Is primarily a fuel management instrument.
[D] Obtains its information from a probe which is installed about four inches from the cylinder
head on the exhaust system.
12
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
67 In icing conditions, if a static vent became blocked during level flight and the
aircraft subsequently climbed, the readings on the Altimeter/the VSI/the ASI
would:
[A] Under-read / Remain unchanged / Over-read
[B] Over-read / Over-read / Under-read
[C] Remain unchanged / Under-read / Over-read
[D] Remain unchanged / Remain unchanged / Under-read
68 The most probable cause of the needle of the oil pressure gauge fluctuating
when the aircraft is in level flight with the engine running at cruise rpm is:
[A] The low power setting.
[B] A loose electrical connection.
[C] A low oil supply.
[D] The presence of air in the oil tank.
69 The principal reason why light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:
[A] Training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on landing is absorbed.
[B] Training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height.
[C] Training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground.
[D] The reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset
by its simplicity, low cost and easy maintenance.
70 In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from:

[A] Atmospheric air remaining in the tanks.
[B] Contamination during re-fuelling.
[C] Poorly fitting fuel caps.
[D] Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain.
71 The oil temperature gauge in the cockpit is connected to a temperature probe

that senses the temperature of the oil:
[A] Before it passes through the oil cooler.
[B] In the sump of the engine.
[C] Within the hot sections of the engine.
[D] After it passes through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine.
72 An altimeter:
[A] Contains an aneroid capsule connected to a static pressure source. The capsule
contracts during a descent.
[B] Contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.
[C] Contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts
during a descent.
[D] Contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent.
13
FCL.215, FCL.120
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73 An accelerator pump is used to prevent a "flat spot". A "flat spot" is:

[A] When the throttle is opened quickly and the demand for fuel cannot be met immediately.
[B] When the throttle is closed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel.
[C] When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich.
[D] When the throttle is closed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich.
74 It is possible to get carburettor icing when the relative humidity is unknown

within a temperature range of:
[A] -30°C to +10°C.
[B] -20°C to +10°C.
[C] 0°C and below.
[D] At any temperature.
75 If a fuse blows during flight it:

[A] May be replaced by a fuse of a higher rating to ensure that it will not blow again.
[B] May be replaced as often as required.
[C] Should not be replaced until after landing.
[D] May be replaced in the air once only, by one of the same value.
76 Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are:

[A] Oleo pneumatic shock-absorber struts.
[B] Spring coil struts.
[C] Spring steel struts.
[D] Compressed rubber struts.
77 If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed
Indicator becomes blocked, the indicator will:
[A] Continue to show the same reading.
[B] Show a zero reading, after a short delay.
[C] Indicate a descent.
[D] Indicate a climb.
78 When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in
the pitot tube is:
[A] Static pressure only.
[B] Total pressure plus dynamic pressure.
[C] Dynamic pressure plus static pressure.
[D] Dynamic pressure only.
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FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
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79 Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller
blade?
[A] Increased TAS and increased RPM.
[B] Decreased TAS and increased RPM.
[C] Decreased TAS and decreased RPM.
[D] Increased TAS and decreased RPM.
80 The gyro in an artificial horizon is:

[A] An earth gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis.
[B] A tied gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
[C] An earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
[D] An earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's lateral axis.
81 On a fixed pitch propeller aircraft whose engine is fitted with a carburettor, the of
induction system icing are:
[A] A sudden drop in rpm and engine temperature.
[B] A gradual drop in rpm and possible rough running and vibration.
[C] A rise in manifold pressure and a reduction in air-speed, in level flight.
[D] A rise in engine oil temperature and a fall in oil pressure.
82 The main advantage of an alternator over a generator is that:

[A] An alternator produces direct current from its armature.
[B] The output of a generator fluctuates too much.
[C] An alternator will give almost full power at engine idling speed.
[D] A generator can only produce alternating current.
83 As air enters the restriction of a Venturi, velocity ____ , static or ambient

pressure ____ and temperature ____ .
[A] Increases / Decreases / Decreases
[B] Decreases / Decreases / Increases
[C] Decreases / Increases / Decreases
[D] lncreases / lncreases / Increases
84 Which instruments are usually powered by a vacuum pump system?

(1) Direction Indicator
(2) Turn Coordinator
(3) Attitude Indicator
(4) Altimeter
(5) Magnetic Compass.
[A] (1), (3) and (4).
[B] (1) and (3).
[C] (1) and (2).
[D] (1), (3) and (5).
15
FCL.215, FCL.120
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85 Detonation is:
[A] Harmful to the pistons.
[B] Also known as 'piston slap'.
[C] Part of normal engine running.
[D] Cannot be identified externally.
86 The distributor arm rotates at:

[A] A half engine speed.
[B] Twice engine speed.
[C] Engine speed.
[D] One quarter engine speed.
87 A Direction Indicator may be aligned with the magnetic compass:

[A] To minimise the effect of magnetic dip.
[B] Because of the effect of liquid swirl.
[C] By using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the wings are level.
[D] Periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn.
88 Where, in an aircraft engine fuel system, is the electric fuel-boost pump normally
fitted?
[A] Between the mechanical fuel pump and the carburettor.
[B] At the highest point of the fuel tank.
[C] Immediately adjacent to the mechanical fuel pump.
[D] At the lowest point of the fuel tank.
89 A magnetic heading:
[A] Is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation.
[B] Is not affected by turning errors.
[C] Is always referenced to True North.
[D] Is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation.
90 The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by:

[A] The engine's oil pressure relief valve.
[B] The engine's high capacity pressure pump.
[C] The engine's filter by-pass valve.
[D] Ensuring that the engine does not exceed the red-line rpm value.
91 How soon after starting a cold aircraft engine should the oil pressure gauge give
an indication?
[A] By the time pre-flight checks are complete; otherwise shut down the engine.
[B] Immediately; otherwise shut down the engine.
[C] As long as the oil levels were at an adequate level before start-up, and RPM is within
limits, it is probable that the oil pressure gauge is faulty and should be reported after the
flight.
[D] Within 30 seconds; otherwise shut down the engine.
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92 If the gyro of a turn indicator runs at a lower RPM than its design specification,
how will the actual rate of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of turn shown
on the turn indicator?
[A] The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated.
[B] The turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn.
[C] The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated.
[D] The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated.
93 To work at its highest efficiency, the engine:

[A] Oil system must constantly be supplied with hot oil.
[B] Must be used at high altitude to take advantage of the cooling effect of the atmosphere.
[C] Needs to be at the lowest temperature consistent with safe operation.
[D] Needs to be at the highest temperature consistent with safe operation.
94 On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure.

However, the gyrodriven instruments appear to be functioning normally, and the
Low Vacuum Warning Light is off. Where do you think the problem lies?
[A] With the Low Vacuum Warning Light.
[B] In the gyro driven instruments.
[C] In the suction gauge.
[D] In the suction system.
95 When a compass swing is being carried out:

[A] It will enable the aircraft's true heading to be determined.
[B] The aircraft's heading compass reading is compared with readings from a 'land or datum'
compass.
[C] It will enable the aircraft's variation to be determined.
[D] It can be carried out on any part of the airfield which is dry and flat.
96 What part(s) of a reciprocating aircraft engine seal(s) the combustion chamber?

[A] The cylinder gasket.
[B] The cylinder rings and valves.
[C] The camshaft.
[D] The spark plugs.
97 The piston rod in a reciprocating engine forms a link between:

[A] The rocker arm and the valve body.
[B] The valve rod and the rocker arm.
[C] The cylinder piston and the crankshaft.
[D] The cylinder piston and the camshaft.
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98 What part in a reciprocating four-stroke engine operates the piston valves?

[A] The diffuser valve.
[B] The piston rod.
[C] The camshaft.
[D] The piston bolt.
99 The purpose of fins around the cylinder of a reciprocating air-cooled aircraft

engine is:
[A] Decrease the cooling area and lower engine mass.
[B] Increase the cooling area and better cylinder cooling.
[C] A cylinder augmentation.
[D] A lower engine aerodynamic drag.
100 The power of an aviation engine without a supercharger decreases with altitude
because of:
[A] Lower air density and therefore insufficient cylinder loading.
[B] Higher air density it receives too poor fuel/air mixture.
[C] Lower outside temperatures it does not operate at optimum temperature.
[D] Lower air density it receives too rich fuel/air mixture.
101 A reciprocating aviation engine develops the highest power:

[A] At high altitudes.
[B] In level flight at low altitude.
[C] During takeoff with full RPM.
[D] During takeoff.
102 Oil in a reciprocating engine serves:

[A] For quiet engine operating only.
[B] To increase mixture combustion temperature in the cylinders.
[C] As additive for proper fuel/air which burns in the cylinders.
[D] For lubricating and cooling of the engine.
103 What would be the most likely cause of fluctuating oil pressure in an aircraft
engine?
[A] Low oil level.
[B] Loose prop seal.
[C] Faulty oil pressure indicator.
[D] Worn or loose bearing.
104 When the engine is stopped, the main source of electrical power is the:
[A] Magneto.
[B] Circuit breaker.
[C] Generator or alternator.
[D] Battery.
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105 For exciting of the alternator an initial electrical current is needed, provided by
the:
[A] Magneto.
[B] Battery
[C] Current distributor.
[D] Ignition coil.
106 Can the alternator of an aircraft engine operate without the battery?
[A] Yes, provided the magnetos operate properly.
[B] Yes, however at high RPM only.
[C] No, not in any case.
[D] Yes, provided the pilot has switched off all electrical services on board.
107 To which source of electrical power is the starter of an aircraft engine connected
to?
[A] Depends on the type of aircraft.
[B] To the alternator or generator.
[C] To the external source of electrical power only.
[D] Directly to the battery.
108 The battery master switch should be turned to OFF after the engine is stopped to
avoid the battery discharging through the:
[A] Magnetos.
[B] Ignition switch.
[C] Electrical services connected to it.
[D] Alternator or generator.
109 One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for:
[A] Improved engine efficiency = improved performance.
[B] Uniform heat distribution.
[C] Double capacity.
[D] Balanced cylinder head pressure.
110 What would be the result of a single magneto failure on an aircraft in cruise
flight?
[A] A slight drop in RPM, plus a slight increase in fuel consumption.
[B] The engine would backfire excessively.
[C] Black smoke would be observed from the exhaust.
[D] The engine would be difficult to control.
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111 Can an engine of a parked modern reciprocating aircraft fire if somebody turns
the propeller by hand?
[A] No, under no circumstances.
[B] Yes, provided the master switch is on or ignition is faulty.
[C] Yes, always.
[D] Normally not if the engine is cold with ignition switched off.
112 The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:

[A] Increase in air pressure in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air velocity.
[B] Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
[C] Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
[D] Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
113 A carburettor is used to supply:

[A] Fuel to the engine cylinders.
[B] Air to the engine cylinders.
[C] A fuel/air mixture to the engine cylinders.
[D] Fuel in atmospheric pressure to the engine cylinders.
114 An engine that does not have a carburettor but rather metered fuel that is fed
under:
[A] Supercharging.
[B] Pressure into the induction manifold, is said to have.
[C] Metering carburettor.
[D] Fuel injection.
115 The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:
[A] Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure.
[B] Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
[C] Density of the air.
[D] Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air
density.
116 What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburettor heat is applied?
[A] The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
[B] The fuel/air mixture stays the same.
[C] The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
[D] A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
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117 While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What
will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
[A] The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean and may cause pre-ignition.
[B] The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
[C] The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may
cause detonation.
[D] There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the
excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
118 If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburettor,

the first indication of carburettor ice would most likely be:
[A] Loss of RPM.
[B] Engine roughness.
[C] A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
[D] A rise in cylinder head temperature.
119 Carburettor ice has formed in the venturi of your carburettor and your aircraft
starts losing power. Will the use of carburettor heat result in immediate increase
in RPM?
[A] Yes, since carburettor heat simply melts the ice and does not affect RPM.
[B] No, since carburettor heat simply melts the ice and does not affect RPM.
[C] Yes, since the carburettor ice will melt immediately.
[D] No, in a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft there will first be some rough running and a further
loss of RPM as the melted ice is ingested by the engine. Then RPM will increase.
120 What is the purpose of an auxiliary fuel boost pump installed in some light
aircraft?
[A] Pre-injection of fuel into engine cylinders.
[B] Providing fuel to the carburettor during start-up and supplying fuel if the engine driven fuel
pump fails.
[C] Faster emptying of fuel tanks.
[D] Increasing engine efficiency.
121 Why do high compression engines require fuels of a higher grade?

[A] To avoid detonation and resulting destruction of the engine.
[B] To avoid pre-ignition and resulting destruction of the engine.
[C] To develop more power.
[D] To prevent carburettor icing at high speeds.
122 On a reciprocating aviation engine, what is controlled by the exhaust

temperature gauge (EGT)?
[A] Oil pressure.
[B] Carburettor icing.
[C] Quality of the fuel/air mixture.
[D] Oil consumption.
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123 An abnormally high oil temperature indication in case of a four-stroke engine

may be caused by:
[A] The oil level being too low.
[B] Excessively rich mixture.
[C] Operating with too high viscosity oil.
[D] The oil level being too high.
124 For internal cooling, a reciprocating aircraft engine especially depends on:
[A] A properly functioning thermostat.
[B] The air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
[C] The liquid coolant flowing over the exhaust manifold.
[D] The circulation of lubricating oil.
125 As the throttle is advanced, what happens to the constant-speed propeller of an

aircraft?
[A] RPM will increase.
[B] Angle of attack will decrease.
[C] Angle of attack will not change.
[D] Angle of attack will increase.
126 In what flight condition is a torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?
[A] High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
[B] High airspeed, low power, high angle of attack.
[C] Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
[D] Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
127 Which adverse effect, caused by a gyroscopic effect, will a pilot experience
during the takeoff roll while lifting a tail off the ground?
[A] Banking tendency.
[B] Yawing.
[C] Nose up tendency.
[D] Pitching.
128 What is the function of a shimmy dumper on an aircraft undercarriage?

[A] To dumpen bouncing.
[B] To decrease main leg piston travel.
[C] To prevent nose wheel vibrations.
[D] To decrease shocks on direction pedals.
129 Which instrument(s) is(are) connected to the total pressure?

[A] Classic vertical speed indicator and altimeter.
[B] Classic vertical speed indicator only.
[C] Airspeed indicator, classic rate-of-climb indicator and altimeter.
[D] Airspeed indicator only.
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130 Besides the altimeter, which instruments are connected to the static pressure
line?
[A] Airspeed indicator and external temperature indicator.
[B] Airspeed indicator only.
[C] Airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.
[D] Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and turn-and-skid indicator.
131 What causes the true airspeed of an airplane to differ from its indicated
airspeed?
[A] Variations in temperature and air density.
[B] Pitot error caused by flow losses in the pitot tube.
[C] The forward wind component.
[D] Yaw error caused by the yawing movement in cruise flight.
132 Which is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed
indicators on any one aircraft or glider?
[A] Never-exceed speed (VNE).
[B] Maneuvering speed (VA).
[C] Maximum speed with wing flaps extended (VFE).
[D] Maximum structural cruising speed (VMO).
133 The maximum speed for flaps extension:

[A] Is equal to the maximum cruising speed.
[B] Must refer to Certificate of Airworthiness.
[C] Is equal to the maneuvering speed.
[D] Must refer to manual.
134 What does the green color band on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft indicate?
[A] The landing gear and flaps operating speed range.
[B] Dangerous area.
[C] Maximum allowed speed.
[D] Normal operating speed range.
135 What does the red line on an aviation instrument generally represent?
[A] Normal operating range.
[B] Dangerous area.
[C] Maximal or minimal allowed value.
[D] Landing gear operating speed range.
136 The red line on an airspeed indicator of a sport aircraft represents:

[A] The maximum speed for abrupt controls movement.
[B] The speed which must not be exceeded any time.
[C] The speed which could be exceeded with the wing flaps raised and the landing gear
retracted.
[D] The speed which could be exceeded in calm air only.
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137 The barometric pressure scale on an aircraft altimeter serves for:

[A] Pressure difference reading between the air pressure at the airport level and the air
pressure at the sea level.
[B] Air pressure reading at flight altitude.
[C] Exact setting of the altimeter during the annual inspection in a service facility.
[D] Setting of pressure value at the pressure level, from which will the altimeter measure
altitudes.
138 If set to QNH, what will be aircraft altimeter reading after landing?
[A] Airfield height above the pressure plane 1013,2 hPa.
[B] Airfield pressure altitude above the standard value.
[C] Zero.
[D] Airfield height above the mean sea level.
139 What height does the altimeter indicate if set to local QNH?
[A] Height above terrain.
[B] Flight level.
[C] Height above sea level.
[D] Height above airport.
140 Which altitudes indicates an aircraft altimeter if set to standard atmospheric

pressure?
[A] True altitudes above the ground surface.
[B] Flight levels.
[C] Relative altitudes.
[D] Absolute altitudes.
141 What would be the indication of an aircraft altimeter if the pilot fails to set QNH
during descent, and therefore lives the instrument set to the standard pressure?
[A] The airport heigh above the pressure plane 1013.2 hPa.
[B] The airport elevation.
[C] The indication is not usable.
[D] Zero.
142 If a pilot changes the altimeter setting to a lower pressure, the altitude indication
will:
[A] Decrease.
[B] Increase.
[C] Unreliable.
[D] Stay unchanged.
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143 When set to QFE pressure, an altimeter will indicate the:

[A] True altitude above ground surface.
[B] Altitude above sea level.
[C] Flight level.
[D] Height above the airfield.
144 If an altimeter is set to QFE pressure, the instrument indication after landing will
be:
[A] Zero.
[B] The airfield elevation.
[C] The airfield pressure height above the standard value.
[D] The airfield height above the pressure plain 1013.2 hPa.
145 If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure
without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the aircraft true altitude:
[A] Increases.
[B] Decreases.
[C] Will be unreliable.
[D] Stays unchanged.
146 What unit of measurement is in use in aviation when vertical velocity parameters
are reported?
[A] Feet per second.
[B] Feet per minute.
[C] Meters per second.
[D] Meters per minute.
147 During a walk around check you move the control column of your aircraft to one
side and notice that the up-aileron deflects more than the down-aileron. You
would normally:
[A] Consider situation normal as long as the difference in deflections on opposite sides is
equal, however you would make a technical remark in the book.
[B] Call the mechanic.
[C] Fix uneven deflections by adjusting the regulating screws on the aileron control system.
[D] Do nothing, because the ailerons are of the type "differential".
148 What should be done if your aircraft engine overheats while taxiing?
[A] Shut off the engine immediately.
[B] Turn into wind and idle at the recommended RPM.
[C] Speed up the engine for improved airflow over the cooling fins.
[D] Enrich mixture to provide cooler combustion temperatures.
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149 What is the proper pilot procedure in case of a popped-out circuit breaker?
[A] Push it again.
[B] Not to push in the circuit breaker in any case.
[C] Switch off all related equipment and then push the circuit breaker in.
[D] Wait until the circuit breaker cools and push it in; if it popes up again, do not push the
circuit breaker and hold it in by finger
150 If an engine failure is accompanied by mechanical noise and the propeller stops
rotating, the cause of the engine failure is most likely:
[A] Flame out in cylinder.
[B] Fuel starvation.
[C] Break-up of a piston valve.
[D] Failure of a magneto.
151 Following a sudden and complete loss of power from the engine, there is no
mechanical noise and the propeller continues to windmill. The likely cause of the
power loss is:
[A] Failure of a engine nacelle.
[B] Failure of a magneto.
[C] Break-up of a piston or valve.
[D] Fuel starvation.
152 What should you do if your cylinder head temperature drops too low during an
approach to land or in a glide?
[A] Lean the mixture.
[B] Reduce airspeed to decrease the cooling effect of the airflow.
[C] Turn on carburetor heating.
[D] Apply sufficient power to keep the engine warm.
153 What is the reason for shutting down an aviation reciprocating engine using the
mixture lever rather than the ignition switch?
[A] By doing that we prevent the engine to be shut down at too high temperature.
[B] By doing that we avoid self-ignition due to presence of the fuel/air mixture in cylinders.
[C] Because if switching off magnetos the engine stops very rapidly and damage of the main
shaft bearings could occur.
[D] Because an engine cannot be shut down by switching the magnetos off.
154 What initial precaution should be taken by the pilot when parking an aircraft with
a magneto that is unable to be grounded because of a faulty connection in the
ignition switch?
[A] The aircraft should be grounded by making an entry in the Journey log.
[B] A placard should be placed on the aircraft warning others of "live magnetos".
[C] Other pilots should be warned against flying the aircraft.
[D] The CCA should be notified at once.
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155 What is the most reliable practical method of checking the fuel level in the
reservoirs of an aircraft while on ground?
[A] Reading the fuel gauges with engine running.
[B] Visual checking the fuel level in the reservoir.
[C] Weighing of an aircraft.
[D] Shaking the aircraft and observing the fuel bouncing.
156 Why should you check a sample of fuel from the sump and filter before each
flight?
[A] To be sure that the proper grade of fuel is used.
[B] To be certain that the fuel is free flowing.
[C] To be certain that the fuel is free of contaminants and of the proper grade.
[D] To know that the fuel pump is working properly.
157 Which fuel contaminant is the most difficult to isolate with simple filter systems?
[A] Grease or oil.
[B] Fine rust or dirt particles.
[C] Ice.
[D] Water.
158 To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel
tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the:
[A] Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
[B] Lowest point in the fuel system.
[C] Highest point in the fuel system.
[D] Fuel strainer drain.
159 What is the best way to reduce the possibility of water contamination in fuel
tanks?
[A] Tank vents should be plugged while the aircraft is parked overnight.
[B] Always keeping the fuel tanks full will help to eliminate condensation.
[C] Fuel filters should be sealed to keep out rainwater.
[D] Always keeping the fuel tanks empty will help to eliminate condensation.
160 Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good
operating procedure because this will:
[A] Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
[B] Prevent moisture condensation by increasing airspace in the tanks.
[C] Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
[D] Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
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161 What happens if the filler cap comes loose on one of your wing fuel tanks?
[A] The aerodynamics flow about the fuel filler neck will disrupt fuel flow.
[B] Rainwater will enter the tank and contaminate the fuel.
[C] The low pressure on the top of the wing will cause all the fuel to be siphoned out.
[D] The loose cap will cause damage to control surfaces if it flies off.
162 What will happen if the fuel primer pump is not locked enough after its use?
[A] The fuel/air mixture will be too poor because of the air leaking into the intake manifold.
[B] Dropping of a fuel in the cockpit.
[C] Detonations in the engine because of too rich fuel/air mixture.
[D] The fuel/air mixture will be too rich because of the fuel leaking into the intake manifold.
163 What is the reason for most of the refuelling fires caused by static electricity
sparks?
[A] Refuelling a grounded aircraft with the engine running.
[B] Refuelling a grounded aircraft with the main bat switch "ON".
[C] Refuelling an ungrounded aircraft from plastic containers.
[D] Refuelling an ungrounded aircraft from metal containers.
164 What is the specific mass of aviation gasoline?

[A] 0.72 kg/liter.
[B] 1. 72 kg/liter.
[C] 0.60 kg/liter.
[D] 1.00 kg/liter.
165 1 USA gallon of AVGAS 100 LL weights:

[A] 5 lbs.
[B] 6 lbs.
[C] 3 lbs.
[D] 4 lbs.
166 53 liters of AVGAS 100 LL weights:

[A] 80 kg.
[B] 42 kg.
[C] 38 kg.
[D] 74 kg.
167 Aviation gasoline 80/87 grade is colored:

[A] Green.
[B] Red.
[C] Blue.
[D] Violet.
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168 Aviation gasoline 100/130 grade is colored:

[A] Green.
[B] Red.
[C] Blue.
[D] Violet.
169 Aviation gasoline 100LL is colored:

[A] Violet.
[B] Green.
[C] Red.
[D] Blue.
170 What fuel should you use in your aircraft if the specified grade is not available?
[A] The next higher grade of aviation fuel.
[B] The next lower grade of aviation fuel.
[C] Automotive gas SUPER of the same or next higher grade.
[D] Unleaded automotive gas of the same grade.
171 If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the
engine, it will most likely cause:
[A] Pre-ignition.
[B] Lower cylinder head temperatures.
[C] A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
[D] Detonation.
172 Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil
temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
[A] Operating with lower-than-normal oil pressure.
[B] Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
[C] Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.
[D] Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
173 Detonation may occur at high-power settings when:

[A] An excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
[B] An excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive decrease in power.
[C] The fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.
[D] The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
174 On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump
used?
[A] All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
[B] Constantly except in starting the engine.
[C] Only takeoff and landing.
[D] In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
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175 What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
[A] Test each brake and the parking brake.
[B] Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper
grounding.
[C] Ensure the radios and transponder are working properly.
[D] Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
176 When an engine is started up, the pilot should monitor oil pressure. If the engine
is cold prior to start up, it should be:
[A] Shut down, if oil pressure has not reached normal limits by the time the airplane is ready
for takeoff.
[B] Operated normally, since it may take 10 minutes for oil pressure to rise.
[C] Shut down, if oil pressure is not seen to rise within approximately 30 seconds of start up.
[D] Shut down immediately if oil pressure does not rise immediately upon start up.
177 What should normally be done if after start-up of a hot four-stroke aviation
engine oil pressure does not reach proper level?
[A] Nothing, because instruments on modern aircraft are cheap and unreliable.
[B] Enrich the mixture to prevent unnormal rise of the cylinder heads temperature.
[C] Shut down the engine.
[D] Increase engine RPM thus allowing the oil pump to increase oil pressure.
178 The most probable reason for propeller back-rotating during starting of an
reciprocating aviation engine is:
[A] Insufficient priming of fuel.
[B] Too poor mixture.
[C] Excessive priming of fuel.
[D] Too rich mixture.
179 The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch
has been turned off is:
[A] Broken spark plug.
[B] Carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.
[C] A broken magneto ground wire.
[D] A magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing.
180 When and where should the pilot check the aircraft wheel brakes?
[A] Immediately after leaving the parking spot.
[B] On the runway, after the aircraft gains some speed.
[C] After takeoff.
[D] Any time during taxiing towards a runway.
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181 A reading 5 inhg on the vacuum gauge of an aircraft is the indication of :

[A] Insufficient suction.
[B] Excessive suction.
[C] Normal suction.
[D] Insufficient or excessive suction.
182 A reading 2 inhg on the vacuum gauge of an aircraft is the indication of:
[A] Normal suction.
[B] Insufficient suction.
[C] Excessive suction.
[D] Insufficient or excessive suction.
183 How frequently should the precision of aviation magnetic compass be checked?
[A] Each month.
[B] Before first initial inspection of an aircraft.
[C] Each year before an annual inspection of an aircraft or after installing of optional
instruments or radio equipment, or more frequently, if necessary.
[D] After each long flight.
184 The pilot could normally check the state of charge of the oleo-pneumatic units
during a walkaround inspection by:
[A] This check could not be performed by the pilot.
[B] Measuring the pressure in the oleo-pneumatic units.
[C] Inspecting the hydraulic fluid level in the oleo-pneumatic units.
[D] Inspecting how much the struts extend.
185 The red marks on the nose landing gear and the main landing gear of an aircraft
serve for:
[A] Tyre pressure checking.
[B] Wheel balancing.
[C] Tyre-wheel alignment checking.
[D] Tyre type recognizing.
186 If a tyre has moved so that the red marks are out of alignment, then:
[A] The brakes will be unserviceable.
[B] It should be inspected and possibly re-fitted or replaced .
[C] Tyre pressure should be checked.
[D] It is serviceable.
187 Braking with an individual main wheel is known as:

[A] Differential braking.
[B] Individual braking.
[C] Directional braking.
[D] Continuous braking.
31
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
188 As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes with the mixture control set in RICH, the
fuel/air mixture:
[A] Becomes leaner.
[B] Does not change.
[C] Mixture fluctuates.
[D] Becomes richer.
189 While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What
will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
[A] The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
[B] The fuel/air mixture may become excessively reach.
[C] There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the
excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
[D] The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may
cause detonation.
190 During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine
roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the
carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most
logical initial action?
[A] Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
[B] Check the mixture control lever is in FULL RICH position.
[C] Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
[D] Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
191 Correct procedure for leaning the mixture during cruise is pulling the mixture
level back towards LEAN until RPM will:
[A] Reach the maximum.
[B] Drop to the minimum.
[C] Start to fluctuate.
[D] Reach the maximum; at this point return the mixture level slightly forward.
192 If, during start-up a fire occurs in the engine air intake, a generally suitable
procedure is to:
[A] Keep turning the engine, but move the mixture control to IDLE CUT-OFF and open the
throttle.
[B] Place the starter switch to OFF.
[C] Set mixture lever forward.
[D] Continue with the normal start.
193 What is indicated by black smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the
run-up?
[A] The piston rings are stuck or worn.
[B] The choke is out too far.
[C] The mixture is too rich.
[D] The carburetor is set too lean.
32
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
194 What is indicated by blue smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the run-
up?
[A] The mixture is too rich.
[B] The carburetor is set too lean.
[C] The piston rings are stuck or worn.
[D] The choke is out too far.
195 How should the mixture control be set for takeoff at sea level?
[A] Aft (FULL RICH).
[B] Aft (FULL LEAN).
[C] Forward (FULL LEAN).
[D] Forward (FULL RICH).
196 The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller
can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting:
[A] An increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
[B] A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
[C] An increase in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
[D] A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
197 During cruise flight you apply full carburetor heat to your aircraft with fixed-pitch
propeller. What is the expected effect in RPM under normal cond itions?
[A] No effect.
[B] It would cause a slight increase in RPM due to hot air intake.
[C] It would cause a slight decrease in RPM due to the change in fuel/air mixture.
[D] The RPM would fluctuate due to the unstable fuel/air mixture.
198 During engine run-up test on ground the pilot can check the proper functioning
of carburetor heating by moving the carburetor heat lever to HOT and noting:
[A] This check should not be performed on ground.
[B] A slight rise in RPM.
[C] A slight drop in RPM.
[D] Increased flow of hot air into the cockpit.
199 The carburetor heat during taxi should be used with caution due to:
[A] Overheating of the engine.
[B] Rich mixture which can cause fouling of the spark plugs.
[C] High temperatures which can cause detonations.
[D] Dust and other foreign particles which can cause damage if ingested into engine.
33
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
200 How should you select propeller pitch for takeoff if your aircraft has a constant
speed propeller?
[A] Fine pitch (Low RPM) for maximum efficiency.
[B] Coarse pitch (Low RPM) for maximum thrust.
[C] Fine pitch (High RPM) for maximum power.
[D] Coarse pitch (Low RPM) for minimum noise.
201 In an airplane with a controllable pitch propeller, power reduction should be

made by first reducing:
[A] The manifold pressure with the throttle, and then adjusting the RPM with the propeller
control.
[B] The manifold pressure with the propeller control, and then reducing the RPM with the
throttle.
[C] The RPM with the throttle and then reducing the manifold pressure with the propeller
control.
[D] The RPM with the propeller control, and then reducing the manifold pressure with the
throttle.
202 When transiting an airplane with a constant-speed propeller from a cruise to a

climb, the pilot should:
[A] Increase the RPM with the throttle first, and then increase the manifold pressure with the
propeller control.
[B] Increase the manifold pressure with the throttle first, and then increase the RPM with the
propeller control.
[C] Decrease the manifold pressure with the propeller control first, and then increase the
RPM with the throttle.
[D] Increase the PRM with the propeller control before advancing the throttle.
203 Shortly after an aviation engine start-up you noticed on the left-zero ammeter a
high current reading despite of all electrical consumers not connected? You
should normally:
[A] Shut down the engine immediately, because the alternator is not functioning.
[B] Do nothing, because in such cases an alternator provides the electrical current for battery
charging only, which normally deplenishes a little during an engine start-up.
[C] Reset the alternator CB and, if the condition does not recover, shut down the engine and
report to the mechanic non-operating alternator.
[D] Reset the alternator master switch and, if the condition does not recover, shut down the
engine and report to the mechanic non-operating alternator.
204 What is the meaning of the zero reading on a left-zero ammeter in flight?
[A] Deplenishing accumulator.
[B] The alternator is not functioning.
[C] Normal condition because none of electrical consumers is switched on.
[D] Ammeter is not working.
34
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
205 How could you recognize by the indication of the left-zero ammeter a non-
functioning aircraft alternator? The instrument reading will be:
[A] Zero and stays zero even after the significant electrical consumer is switched on (e.i. The
landing light),
[B] Increase significantly after the electrical consumer is switched on.
[C] Maximum.
[D] Not possible to recognize.
206 Shortly after aircraft engine start-up you notice that the pointer of a center-zero
ammeter is deflected to the right with electrical consumers switched off. This
indication means:
[A] Deplenishing accumulator, therefore the engine should be shut down.
[B] Alternator is offline.
[C] Deplenishing accumulator, because the alternator is not functioning, therefore alternator
exciting should be attempted by switching the master switch on and off. If the pointer
does not return to zero, the engine should be shut down and the mechanic advised.
[D] Charging accumulator, because during an engine start-up the accumulator normally
deplenishes a little.
207 What may zero reading on the center-zero ammeter indicate during cruise flight?
[A] No electrical equipment is switched on.
[B] Normal condition; the alternator provides electrical power for electrical equipment.
[C] Alternator off-line.
[D] Abnormal condition; the battery provides electrical power for electrical equipment.
208 In flight you notice that the pointer of a center-zero ammeter is deflected to the
left. What does this indication mean and what should you as the pilot of an
aircraft normally do?
[A] Normal condition; the instruments indicate present consumption of the electricity,
provided by the alternator.
[B] Not-normal condition; the accumulator deplenishes, because the alternator is not
functioning or is not capable to cover all the demands of electrical consumers connected.
If after switching off-on of the master switch the situation doesn't recover, reduce an
electrical consumption to minimum and a land to the nearest suitable airfield.
[C] Normal condition; the accumulator is charging, therefore the flight will be continued, the
indication of an instrument should be monitored and a drop of indication should be
expected.
[D] Not-normal condition; you can continue flight as planned.
209 In flight you notice the orange light glowing on the instrumental panel. What
does this mean?
[A] Overheated alternator.
[B] Too high output voltage.
[C] Flat battery.
[D] Alternator does not deliver any electrical current.
35
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
210 An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this
situation, you would:
[A] Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and al
so experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require
alternating current.
[B] Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting
system, and avionics equipment.
[C] Experience avionics equipment failure.
[D] Propably the engine will shut down witihin 30 minutes, when you lose also all electrical
equipment.
36
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Appendix
PPL(A) 020-01
37
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
Appendix
PPL(A) 020-02
38
FCL.215, FCL.120
Rev 1.5
21.12.2016
Appendix
PPL(A) 020-03
39

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LAPL(A)/PPL(A) question bank

1 A halon fire extinguisher:

4 Connecting two 12 volt, 40 ampere-hour, capacity batteries in series will provide

6 A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to:

8 Which of the following is an appropriate action to take if you have a carburettor

11 The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:

12 When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:

18 Theoretically, a 100Ah battery will supply 25A for:

19 During one complete Otto Cycle, the piston:

20 Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system?

22 The Mechanical Tachometer:

23 Detonation could result from using:

24 Pre-ignition in a four stroke piston engine is:

26 Instruments normally supplied from the electrical system include the:

27 Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser which:

29 To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:

31 Semi-monocoque can be defined as:

33 Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:

34 A 100 Ampere-Hour battery:

35 In the event of an alternator or generator failure during flight the:

40 Why do aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark

46 The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level:

47 As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propeller accelerates along

49 A flying control lock:

53 Tyre creep may be identified by:

54 The exhaust gas temperature gauge:

55 The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:

57 lt is important to ensure the priming pump is locked after use because:

60 The crankshaft in a piston engine:

63 It is best to run the engine with the mixture:

64 The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:

66 The cylinder head temperature gauge:

70 In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from:

71 The oil temperature gauge in the cockpit is connected to a temperature probe

73 An accelerator pump is used to prevent a "flat spot". A "flat spot" is:

74 It is possible to get carburettor icing when the relative humidity is unknown

75 If a fuse blows during flight it:

76 Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are:

80 The gyro in an artificial horizon is:

82 The main advantage of an alternator over a generator is that:

83 As air enters the restriction of a Venturi, velocity ____ , static or ambient

84 Which instruments are usually powered by a vacuum pump system?

86 The distributor arm rotates at:

87 A Direction Indicator may be aligned with the magnetic compass:

90 The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by:

93 To work at its highest efficiency, the engine:

94 On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure.

95 When a compass swing is being carried out:

96 What part(s) of a reciprocating aircraft engine seal(s) the combustion chamber?

97 The piston rod in a reciprocating engine forms a link between:

98 What part in a reciprocating four-stroke engine operates the piston valves?

99 The purpose of fins around the cylinder of a reciprocating air-cooled aircraft

101 A reciprocating aviation engine develops the highest power:

102 Oil in a reciprocating engine serves:

112 The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:

113 A carburettor is used to supply:

118 If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburettor,

121 Why do high compression engines require fuels of a higher grade?

122 On a reciprocating aviation engine, what is controlled by the exhaust

123 An abnormally high oil temperature indication in case of a four-stroke engine

125 As the throttle is advanced, what happens to the constant-speed propeller of an

128 What is the function of a shimmy dumper on an aircraft undercarriage?

129 Which instrument(s) is(are) connected to the total pressure?