POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION 5.

The inherent power of the government to impose

reasonable restriction on the liberation of its citizens for the
TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE – Choose the letter of the best answer maintenance of public order and safety –
and shade the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to your a. Police Power
answer. b. Power of Taxation
c. Power of Administration
d. Power of Eminent Domain
1. The number of PLEB in every legislative district – 6. The agency of the community that is responsible for
a. 1 enforcing the law, maintaining public order, preventing and
b. 2 detecting crimes.
c. 3 a. Court
d. 4 b. Executive
2. The one that was established in all Police stations c. Correction
throughout the country to administer cases involving crimes d. Law Enforcement
against chastity, sexual harassment, abuses committed 7. The branch of the government which is responsible for
against woman and children and other similar acts – execution or enforcement of laws either in National,
a. VIP Desk Provincial, Municipal or Barangay Level.
b. Women’s Desk a. Executive
c. Information Desk b. Judiciary
d. Abuse Children Desk c. Legislative
3. The third officer in command in the BFP, PNP, and BJMP – d. Law Enforcement Agencies
a. Chief 8. The word Police was fundamentally derived from Greek
b. Deputy Chief word _______ which means persons who governs a city.
c. Deputy for Operation a. Pulis
d. Deputy for Administration b. Politia
4. The first officer in command in the PNP has the rank of – c. Politeia
a. Director d. Militia
b. Director General 9. _______ is the agency of the government that is responsible
c. Chief Superintendent for enforcing the law and detecting crime.
d. Deputy Director General a. Police
 b. Politia b. Organize
c. Politeia c. Organization
d. Policeman d. Police Organization
10. The fundamental theory of police service which states that 15. Which of the following functions are designed to meet the
policeman is considered as servants of the community. basic Police missions?
a. Policing Theory a. Line
b. Evolution Theory b. Staff
c. Continental Theory c. Auxiliary
d. Home Rule Theory d. Investigation
11. Under the modern concept of police service, a certain police 16. The organizational process concerning the implementation
service is effective and efficient if – with the objectives and plans and internal operating
a. There are no crime with AOR efficiency of the police organization –
b. A few criminals were arrested a. Control
c. A lot of criminals were arrested b. Management
d. There are a lot of crime occurred within AOR. c. Police Management
12. The act of a person, higher authority, conferring power, d. Police Administration
authority, duty or responsibility to a lower authority – 17. The duties and responsibilities carried out by the police
a. Authority agencies concerning public order and public safety –
b. Organize a. Management
c. Organizing b. Police Power
d. Delegation of Authority c. Police Functions
13. The association of human being to attain a specific goal or d. Police Administration
objectives – 18. The various units of a police organization are the following
a. Authority except;
b. Organize a. Police Units
c. Organization b. Functional Units
d. Police Organization c. Geographical
14. The number of Police units systematically arranged for d. Territorial Units
some purpose and objective – 19. The primary sub – division of bureau –
a. Authority a. Unit
 b. Section a. Marriage
c. Bureau b. Control
d. Division c. Police Management
20. The combination of line and staff units son that the services d. Police Administration
of personnel performing special functions can be provided 25. The functional group within a section –
to police officers performing line function – a. Unit
a. Functional Type b. Section
b. Staff Police Organization c. Bureau
c. Line Type of Organization d. Division
d. Line and Staff Police Organization 26. The process of making an organization fit with its objectives,
21. The type of police organization where personnel have to resources and environment.
serve several heads – a. Authority
a. Functional Type b. Organize
b. Staff Police Organization c. Organizing
c. Line Type of Organization d. Delegation of Authority
d. Line and Staff Police Organization 27. The area assigned for patrol purposes, whether by foot or
22. The unit within a division which is necessary for by vehicle.
specialization – a. Post
a. Unit b. Beat
b. Section c. Area
c. Bureau d. Sector
d. Division 28. The straight line organization which is often called the
23. The largest organic functional unit within a large individual, military, or departmental type of organization. It
department – is the simplest and clearest form of police organization.
a. Unit a. Functional Type
b. Section b. Staff Police Organization
c. Bureau c. Line Type of Organization
d. Division d. Line and Staff Police Organization
24. The act of directing or conducting affairs or interest of 29. The process of selecting goals and determining how to
various units – achieve them –
 a. Staffing a. Directing
b. Planning b. Appraisal
c. Organizing c. Budgeting
d. Decision Making d. Recording
30. The act of placing personnel to the positions in the 35. The system of classifying and compiling written
organizational structure considering the qualifications – communication going inside and going outside the
a. Staffing organization –
b. Planning a. Directing
c. Organizing b. Appraisal
d. Decision Making c. Budgeting
31. The act of choosing from among the alternative courses of d. Recording
action – 36. The manner of integrating the different elements within and
a. Staffing outside of an organization into a harmonious relationship –
b. Planning a. Appraisal
c. Organizing b. Budgeting
d. Decision Making c. Recording
32. The process of giving orders, commands, directives or d. Coordinating
instructions to personnel in order to rule or guide them in 37. The process of choosing among the candidates the more
accomplishing the goals or objectives of an organization – suitable person for the current position or for future
a. Directing position –
b. Planning a. Training
c. Staffing b. Appraisal
d. Decision making c. Selection
33. The smallest functional unit within an organization – d. Appointment
a. Unit 38. The act of improving the ability required in the future job
b. Section and it is the key from bandage of ignorance –
c. Bureau a. Training
d. Division b. Appraisal
34. The management of income and expenditures within the c. Appointment
organization – d. Development
39. The act of improving the ability for the current job – b. RA 1080
a. Training c. RA 6506
b. Appraisal d. RA 6040
c. Appointment 45. Under RA 6975, chapter II, Sec 13, the NAPOLCOM is
d. Development composed of _________ excluding the Chairman.
40. The process of measuring performance – a. 5 members
a. Training b. 6 members
b. Appraisal c. 4 members
c. Appointment d. 7 members
d. Development 46. The set of police officers should be under the control of only
41. The set of activities and processes used to legally obtain a one superior police officer –
sufficient number of the people for specific jobs – a. Scalar Principle
a. Training b. Span of Control
b. Appraisal c. Unity of Objective
c. Appointment d. Unity of Command
d. Recruitment 47. The superior must manage a number of persons that he can
42. The appointing authority must prioritize the selection of the effectively control –
next in rank in filling up vacant position – a. Scalar Principle
a. Ranking Rule b. Span of Control
b. Scalar Principle c. Unity of Objective
c. Unity of Objective d. Unity of Command
d. Next in Rank Rule 48. The provincial governor shall have the power to choose the
43. The members of the Police organization must be motivated PNP Provincial Director from the list of how many eligible
by common thing in accomplishing a common mission – candidates recommended by the PNP Regional Director?
a. Ranking Rule a. 3
b. Scalar Principle b. 7
c. Unity of Objective c. 5
d. Next in Rank Rule d. 9
44. The act creating the board of examiners for criminology – 49. The policing system where the complainant/ victim goes to
a. RA 4864 the middle of the community and shouts to call all male
 residents to assemble. The victim reports his complainant to 54. It introduced the closure of gates of London, which started
the assembly. Consequently, all the male residents will go the curfew hours –
after the criminal and apprehend him. a. Justice of Peace
a. Hue and Cry System b. Statute of 1295
b. Royal Judge System c. Star Chamber Court
c. Tun Policing System d. Statute of Winchester
d. Frankpledge Policing System 55. The various functions are arranged into workable pattern –
50. In Frankpledge system, the Tytingmen is composed of – a. Ranking Rule
a. 9 members b. Scalar Principle
b. 10 members c. Unity of Objective
c. 11 members d. Line and Staff Principle
d. 12 members 56. The vertical hierarchy of organization and unbroken chain of
51. The one who divided the kingdom into 55 military districts command from top to bottom must be observed –
known as Shire – Reeves. a. Ranking Rule
a. King John b. Scalar Principle
b. King Henry c. Unity of Objective
c. King Richard d. Next in Rank Rule
d. King William Norman 57. Introduced the Watch and Ward System –
52. The leaders/ rulers of districts in the Shire – Reeve System – a. Justice of Peace
a. Shire b. Statute of 1295
b. Reeve c. Star Chamber Court
c. Governor d. Statute of Winchester
d. Shire – reeve 58. The special court establish to try offenders against the state
53. The one who issued the proclamation “Keepers of Peace” –
requiring the appointment of knights to maintain peace and a. Justice of Peace
order at the place where the king is residing. b. Statute of 1295
a. King John c. Star Chamber Court
b. King Henry d. Statute of Winchester
c. King Richard 59. He is regarded as the father of Modern Policing System for
d. King William Norman introduction of London Metropolitan Police –
 a. John Fielding 64. The First chief of the Manila Police Department who was
b. King Stephen appointed by Taft Commission on August 7, 1901 –
c. Henry Fielding a. Capt. Alfredo Lim
d. Sir Robert Peel b. Capt. William Taft
60. The one which is known as Rattle Watch because they c. Capt. George Curry
carried rattles while on duty to inform the public of their d. Brig. Gen Henry T. Allen
watchful presence – 65. The specific portion in the 1987 Philippine Constitution
a. Bellmen which provides for the creation of one police force which
b. Modern Watch national in scope and civilian in character.
c. Night Watchmen a. Art. VI, Sec. 16
d. Either A or B b. Art. XVI, Sec. 6
61. A body of rural police organized in each town that was c. Art. XXVI, Sec. 6
created by the Royal Decree of January 8, 1836. This police d. Art. XVI, Sec.26
force was composed of 5% of the able – bodied male 66. It is otherwise known as the DILG Act of 1990, creating four
inhabitants of each town or province, and each member Bureaus under the DILG –
serve for at least 3 years. a. RA 4864
a. Guardilleros b. RA 6975
b. Guardia Civil c. RA 8551
c. Carabanieros de Seguridad Publico d. RA 9708
d. Cuerpo de Carabineros Seguridad Publico 67. The law which integrated the city/ municipal police force,
62. The Japanese Military Police during Japanese Occupation – jail and fire department within Manila area –
a. Kidotai a. PD 421
b. Toketia b. PD 482
c. Militia c. PD 765
d. Kempetai d. RA 6975
63. An act which cerate the insular constabulary – 68. The following are special training centers, except –
a. Act 157 a. National Police College
b. Act 175 b. Bomb Service Training Center
c. RA 157 c. Philippine National Training Center
d. RA 175 d. Philippine National Police Academy
69. The equivalent rank of PNPA cadets – d. Second year law or earned at least 12 units in
a. PO1 Masters Degree
b. SPO1 74. The minimum height requirement for males to enter the
c. Inspector PNP –
d. Higher than SPO4 lower than Inspector a. 1.57 meters
70. The initial rank of PNPA Graduate – b. 1.60 meters
a. PO1 c. 1.62 meters
b. SPO1 d. 1.64 meters
c. Inspector 75. The minimum height required for females to enter the PNP
d. Higher than SPO4 lower than Inspector –
71. RA 6975 is otherwise known as the PNP Reformed and a. 1.57 meters
Reorganization Act of 1998, this statement is – b. 1.60 meters
a. Wholly true c. 1.62 meters
b. Partly true d. 1.64 meters
c. Wholly false 76. A person entering the PNP must weigh not more or less
d. Partly false than how many kilograms from the standard weight
72. Which among the following law started the corresponding to his/ her height, age and sex.
professionalization of the PNP by creating the NAPOLCOM a. 5
which set standards and guidelines regarding recruitment b. 7
and the like – c. 8
a. RA 6875 d. 9
b. RA 8551 77. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to
c. RA 9263 waiver in age?
d. RA 4864 a. Jun, 20 years old can enter the PNP without waiver
73. The minimum educational qualification of a City Director of b. Sammy, 20 years old may enter the PNP with waiver
PNP – c. Jerry, 20 years old is totally disqualified to enter the
a. Law graduate PNP
b. College graduate d. Johnny, 20 years old may enter the PNP without
c. Master’s degree graduate waiver because he is member of cultural minority.
78. The following are applicants to the PNP; Jun who was a d. RA 9708
waiver in age, Jerry who has a waiver in height, Sammy who 82. All except one are characteristics of PNP –
has a waiver in weight, Johnny who has a waiver in a. Local in scope
educational attainment, who among them will be prioritized b. Civilian in character
to enter the PNP? c. Administered and controlled by NAPOLCOM
a. Jun d. Highly efficient and competent public force
b. Jerry 83. The ex – office member of the National Police Commission –
c. Sammy a. Chief PNP
d. Johnny b. Secretary of DND
79. The period given to comply with educational requirement c. Secretary of DILG
after an applicant entered the PNP – service after the d. Secretary of NAPOLCOM
effectivity of RA 9708 – 84. The meaning of the term ex – officio?
a. 2 years a. At its own instance
b. 3 years b. Headed by only one person
c. 5 years c. Held by two or more persons
d. None of the aforementioned d. An accompanying office by virtue of a current
80. The removal from the PNP service of a police officer who is position
52 years of age and served 27 years in the government due 85. The minimum number of women to compose the
to non – compliance of the minimum educational NAPOLCOM –
requirement within the period given by law – a. 1
a. Divorce b. 2
b. Demotion c. 3
c. Separation d. 4
d. Retirement 86. The ex – officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM –
81. The act providing for the reform and reorganization of the a. Chief PNP
PNP and for the other purposes, amending certain b. Chief of Police
provisions of RA 6975 – c. Secretary of DILG
a. RA 7659 d. Representative of the PNP
b. RA 9551 87. The National Appellate Board and Regional Appellate Board
c. RA 8551 are known as –
 a. NAPOLCOM Boards b. Separation
b. PNP Legal Service c. Retirement
c. Administrative Boards d. Retrenchment
d. Disciplinary Appellate Boards 93. The one who administer the entrance and promotional
88. The board that has jurisdiction over cases that are decided examination for policemen –
by the Chief PNP – a. Chief PNP
a. National Appellate Board b. Civil Service Commission
b. Regional Appellate Board c. National Police Commission
c. Provincial Appellate Board d. DILG
d. NAPOLCOM Commissioner 94. The maximum tenure of Chief PNP –
89. The duration of field training programs – a. 2 years
a. 6 months b. 4 years
b. 12 months c. 6 years
c. 15 months d. 8 years
d. 18 months 95. The promotion of a policeman due to exhibited acts of
90. During the FTP new members of the PNP will be trained in – conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of his/ her life
a. Intelligence, Patrol, Traffic above and beyond the call of duty –
b. Investigation, Patrol, Traffic a. Regular promotion
c. Investigation, Intelligence, Traffic b. Special promotion
d. Investigation, Intelligence, Patrol c. Ordinary promotion
91. The uniformed members of the PNP shall be considered d. Posthumous promotion
employees of – 96. The forum where criminal cases against policeman may be
a. Local government filled –
b. Municipal government a. Courts
c. Regional government b. Extra affairs service
d. National government c. Internal affairs service
92. The removal from the service other than the waiver d. People’s Law Enforcement Board
program or attainment of compulsory retirement age of 56 97. The kind of jurisdiction where two or more courts, bodies,
years of age – or tribunals may hear a particular cases –
a. Dismissal a. Original Jurisdiction
 b. Exclusive Jurisdiction c. Secretary of DILG
c. Appellate Jurisdiction d. Mayors of Cities or Municipalities
d. Concurrent Jurisdiction
98. The act of filling multiple complaints involving the same
parties for the cause –
a. Form shopping
b. Court shopping
c. Window shopping
d. Complaints shopping
99. The national office of the Internal Affairs Service is headed
by –
a. Director General
b. General Director
c. Supervisor General
d. Inspector General
100. The head of the IAS head office is –
a. Military
b. Civilian
c. Neophyte
d. PNP member
101. The regional appellate board shall have appellate
jurisdiction over cases decided by the following except;
a. PLEB
b. Mayor
c. Chief PNP
d. Regional Director
102. The central receiving entity for any citizens
complaint against officers and members of the PNP –
a. PLEB
b. Chief of Police
SECURITY AND SAFETY MANAGEMENT a. 1st line of defence
b. 3rd line of defence
TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE – Choose the letter of the best answer c. 2nd line of defence
and shade the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to your d. 4th line of defence
answer. 6. Who among the following can you considered as a casual
pilferer?
a. Jimmy, take things from the company he work with
1. Which among the following can be considered as the when he was alone
highest law as a basis of security management? b. Barricas, took things which belongs to the company
a. Constitution through surreptitious manner
b. Self – preservation c. Lupin the 3rd, take things from the company he
c. Statutes or legislative laws work with despite of the fact that the company is
d. Rules, laws and regulations highly secured
2. The most common outwardly inclined additional barrier d. Ruel, an employee of a five star hotel with cctv and
which is put above the fence is the – guards was able to bring out things from their
a. Concertina company for its own benefits.
b. Chain link 7. Security is nor present during the primeval time, this
c. Barbed wire statement is –
d. Electrical wire a. True, I’m sure
3. All, except one are considered as 3rd line of defence – b. False, I’m not certain
a. Safe c. Partly true, according to me
b. Vault d. Partly false based from my experience
c. Floors 8. Electric wire fence is what type of barrier if it is established
d. File room to protect human against intrusion and any other
4. The following are structural except; undesirable activities –
a. Rift a. Natural
b. Fence b. Human
c. Door c. Energy
d. Roadblocks d. Structural
5. Vault is considered as;
9. The agency that was believed to be the first protector of 14. The Jollibee corporation wants to protect their recipes,
Roman Citizens and property against harm are the – therefore they should focus on –
a. Bobies a. Crisis security
b. King’s peace b. Physical security
c. Praetorian guards c. Industrial security
d. Bow street runners d. Operational security
10. An employee who steals with predetermined plans is called 15. If you are the PSG your function is to protect the President
– of the Philippines, therefore you are usually conducting
a. Casual robbers what type of security?
b. Casual pilferer a. VIP Security
c. Systematic pilferer b. Bank Security
d. Systematic robbers c. President Security
11. The importance of Victory Liner Corporation which d. Operational Security
reference to the national economy and security is example 16. The unobstructed area between the perimeter barrier and
of – the installation as well as the area between the perimeter
a. Security survey barrier and extension structures is called –
b. Relative criticality a. Clear zones
c. Security inspection b. Utility openings
d. Relative vulnerability c. Gates and doors
12. All of the following are natural hazard, except; d. Sidewalk elevator
a. Tsunami 17. It provides access to areas within the perimeter barriers and
b. Storm pitch should be locked or guarded at all times –
c. Evasion of prisoners a. Clear zones
d. Underground eruption b. Utility openings
13. A house – like structure put above the fence used for c. Gates and doors
protection is called – d. Sidewalk elevator
a. Tower 18. For security purposes, if you are a security consultant what
b. Fence top should you advice to the owner regarding utility openings –
c. Top guard a. It should be locked
d. Guard control station b. It should be guarded
 c. Grills should be installed c. Personal security
d. Utility openings should be open at all times d. Personnel security
19. The additional overhand which is 45 degrees in angle 24. Which of the following best describes glare projection light?
outwardly inclined because its purpose is to – a. The lightning is focused sag on a pile of items rather
a. Prevent escape than on the background
b. Prevent intrusion b. The width of the lighted – atop can be controlled
c. To prevent visual access and adjusted to suit the security needs
d. More difficult to observe what is inside c. Lights intensity is focused to the intruder while the
20. There are two general classification of fence according to observer or guard remains in the comparative
visual access first is full view fence and second is – darkness
a. Solid fence d. Consists of stationary or portable manually
b. No – view fence operated search lights which maybe lighted
c. Blocked fence continuously during hours of darkness or only as
d. Semi view fence needed, and usually supplementary to either of the
21. As to delivery system, the type of security in AU is first two types.
proprietary, this statement is – 25. In malls, and in other establishments like AU, for the
a. True purposes of personnel security and physical security, a type
b. False of light which automatically on in case of electric failure is
c. Maybe true established, this type of lighting is called –
d. Maybe false a. Floodlights
22. As to delivery system, what type of security system applied b. Automatic light
in super malls? c. Emergency light
a. Proprietary system d. Stationary light
b. Contractual system 26. Lucky Tyan is a security supervisor in a hotel, he use various
c. Both A and B measures which prevent or delay the enemy or
d. Neither A or B unauthorized persons in gaining information through the
23. Protection of employees of a certain company against injury communication system, so he is more focused on what type
or harm forms part of what type of security? of security?
a. Physical security a. Hotel security
b. Physical security b. Information security
 c. Other forms of security 30. Perimeter barrier like fence, all, door, wire fence is a type of
d. Communication security –
27. Ronald Benjamin is a Jollibee operations supervisor, he a. Human
knows the process on how to make jolly crispy fried, Jollibee b. Animal
fried chicken and so on and so forth, when a certain c. Structure
company want to follow the procedures on how the Jollibee d. Physical
Corporation make their products, they offered Ronald 5 31. Generally, it is instrument used for locking and unlocking –
million pesos. Due to human susceptibility and because of a. Key
temptation Ronald gave the information to latter company, b. Locks
the acts of Ronald is called – c. Master key
a. Pilferage d. Sub – master key
b. Sabotage 32. A type of lock that offer very little security and therefore be
c. Espionage used only to have privacy but not to provide a high degree
d. Vulnerability of security is –
28. You want to apply as security guard, what is the first phase a. Warded lock
that you will undergo wherein the interviewer determines b. Disc tumbler lock
you suitability for employment through you’ve given c. Combination lock
answers on the different type of questions being d. Card operated lock
conducted? 33. These types of locks are designed for the use of automobile
a. Initial interview industry and are in general used in car doors today. Because
b. Question and answer this lock is easy and cheap to be manufactured, its use has
c. Q and A after orientation expanded to other areas such as desks, fillies and padlocks.
d. Orientation and training The delay afforded is approximately ten minutes.
29. A portable and detachable lock having a sliding hasp with a. Warded lock
passes through a staple ring or the like and is then made b. Disc tumbler lock
fast or secured is called – c. Combination lock
a. Key d. Card operated lock
b. Vault 34. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents
c. Locks or small items in an office or installation –
d. Padlock a. Safe
 b. Vault 39. A key that is capable of opening all the lock within a
c. File room particular area or grouping in a particular facility.
d. Storage room a. Master key
35. Its door should be made of steel at least 6 inches in b. Change key
thickness and walls, ceiling, floor reinforce concrete at least c. Sub – master key
12 inches in thickness and must resistive up to 6 hours. d. Grand master key
a. Safe 40. A type of key that is capable of opening everything in a
b. Vault system involving two or more master key groups.
c. File room a. Master key
d. Storage room b. Change key
36. It include exterior and interior parallel area near the c. Sub – master key
perimeter barrier in industrial compound – d. Grand master key
a. Clear zone 41. The certificate issued to a person while access to classified
b. Twilight zone matter at appropriate level is called –
c. Protected zone a. Security clearance
d. Partial line zone b. Security orientation
37. A cubicle in a building constructed a little lighter than a c. Security indoctrination
vault but bigger size to accommodate limited people to d. Background investigation
work on the records inside and should at most be 12 feet 42. Cabinet that is constructed purposely for safekeeping of
high and it must have a watertight door and at least fire keys.
proof for one hour. a. Key cabinet
a. Safe b. Storage cabinet
b. Vault c. Sub – master cabinet
c. File room d. Grand master cabinet
d. Storage room 43. A record that contains code number of the and to whom the
38. All except one are kind of bank alarm – keys of the specific locks was issued –
a. Push button a. Key record
b. Barbed tape b. Key record cabinet
c. Foot rail alarm c. Key storage cabinet
d. Double squeeze button d. Audit record cabinet
44. Before a security expert can recommend what type of c. Security promotion
security will be needed by an industrial establishments, d. Security investigation
there is a need for him to undertake a – 48. Who among the following meets the age qualification to
a. Security check secure a License to Operate a Private Security Agency?
b. Security survey a. Jun who is 22 years old
c. Security training b. Rey who is 20 years old
d. Security education c. Sam who is 35 years old
45. These type of lighting equipment consists of wide beam d. Dennis who is turning 25 years old
units, primarily used to extend the illumination in long, 49. New employees should be briefed on security rules and
horizontal strips to protect the approaches to the perimeter regulations of the organization and the importance of
barrier. These can be used to accommodate most outdoor observing them. This process is called –
security lighting needs, including the illumination of a. Security reminders
boundaries, fences and buildings and for the emphasis of b. Security orientation
vital areas or particular buildings. c. Security information
a. Street lights d. Security investigation
b. Flood lights 50. He steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to
c. Search lights unexpected opportunity and little chance of detection?
d. Fresnel lights a. Casual pilferer
46. As security Director of Company B, you should know how b. Unusual pilferer
many beds, are normally available in multiple injury c. Ordinary pilferer
situation and how many ___________ patients can be d. Systematic pilferer
processed at a single time. 51. Three of the following are legal basis of Physical Security;
a. Male I. Natural Rights
b. Female II. Statutory Rights
c. Wounded III. Constitutional Rights
d. Emergency IV. Self – preservation
47. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is a. I, II, IV
determined through a process called – b. I, II, III
a. Security training c. II, III, IV
b. Security education d. I, III, IV
52. Under physical security what should be placed between the 56. The following are the three major types of security;
prospective intruder and target installation? I. Physical security
a. Net II. Document security
b. Risk III. Personnel security
c. Barrier IV. Document and information security
d. Hazard a. I, II, III
53. An additional overhand or barbed wire place on vertical b. I, III, IV
perimeter fences upward and outward with a 45 – degrees c. I, II, IV
with three to four stands of barbed – wires, 6 inches apart d. II, III, IV
and must be stalled o the supporting arms is called – 57. It is a type of physical barrier wherein persons are being
a. Top tower used in providing a guarding system or by the nature of
b. Top guard their employment and location, fulfil security functions.
c. Cellar guard a. Animal barrier
d. Tower guard house b. Energy barrier
54. It is a type of security that involves the protection of c. Human barrier
process, formula and patents, industrial and manufacturing d. Structural barrier
activities from espionage, infiltration, loss, compromise or 58. There is impenetrable barrier, this statement is –
photocopying. a. True
a. Physical security b. False
b. Document security c. Partly true
c. Operational security d. Partly false
d. Communication security 59. It is a level of security system designed to impede and
55. It is a type of security concerned with the physical measures detect some unauthorized external activity such as on small
adopted to prevent unauthorized access to equipment, retail store.
facilities, material and document and to safeguard them a. Minimum security
against espionage, sabotage damage loss and theft. b. Low – level security
a. Physical security c. Medium security
b. Document security d. High – level security
c. Operational security 60. It is a type of perimeter fence wherein visual access is
d. Communication security denied, like concretes and bricks.
 a. Fence c. Tree houses
b. Solid fence d. Guard control stations
c. Full view fence 65. A type of alarm system that are usually placed in the teller’s
d. Semi – solid fence cash drawer and connected to the alarm system using a
61. Barbed wire fence is an example of – wire connector wherein if currency is removed from the
a. Fence devices, the alarm is activated. The advantage of these
b. Solid fence devices is that the robbers frequently remove the currency
c. Full view fence and activate the alarm. This is particularly helpful when the
d. Semi – solid fence employees are immediately forced to leave their station
62. The following are characteristics of barbed wire fence without having an opportunity to activate the alarm safely.
except; a. Bill trap
a. It should not less than 7 feet high excluding the top b. Foot button
guard c. Foot – rail activator
b. It must be firmly affixed to post not more than 6 d. Knee or thigh button
feet apart 66. These types of alarm system are usually installed inside the
c. Standard barbed wire is twisted, double – strand, 12 desk of teller station so they can be activated by knee or
gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal thigh pressure. They are commonly found in location where
distance part personnel usually perform their duties from a seated
d. The distance between strands must exceed 6 inches position.
at least vertically and midway between posts. a. Bill trap
63. The standard height of fence including the top guard is – b. Foot button
a. 6 feet c. Foot – rail activator
b. 7 feet d. Knee or thigh button
c. 8 feet 67. It is a type of protective alarm system where the station is
d. 9 feet located outside the installation. It can be located in an
64. It is an additional protective barrier which is normally agency and the installation is one of the subscribers. When
located at main perimeter entrance to secure areas located alarm is sounded, station notifies police and other agency. A
outdoors, and manned by a guard on a fulltime basis. system in which the alarm signal is relayed to remote panel
a. Tower located at the facilities of private owned protection. Service
b. Top guard company manned by its personnel.
 a. Auxiliary system b. Sensor
b. Proprietary system c. Metallic wire
c. Local alarm system d. Annunciator
d. Central station system 71. It is a type of protective alarm system which is a local alarm
68. It is a type of protective alarm system wherein the sensor system in which a bell or siren is sounded with no
activates the circuit, which in turn activates a horn or siren predictable response. This system are used in residence or
or even flashing light located in the immediate vicinity of small retail establishments, which cannot afford a respond
the alarmed area. Only guard with sound or hearing can system. The hope is that a neighbour or passing will reach to
respond to such alarms, so their use is restricted to the alarm and call for police assistance, but such a call is
situations where guards are so located that their response is purely a matter of chance.
assured. a. Auxiliary system
a. Auxiliary system b. Dial alarm system
b. Proprietary system c. Proprietary system
c. Local alarm system d. Local alarm – by – chance – system
d. Central station system 72. It is otherwise known as private security agency law of the
69. It is a type of protective alarm system wherein it is set to Philippines.
dial a predestined number when the alarm is activated. The a. Act 3815
numbers selected might be the police or the subscriber’s b. Act 5487
home, number, or both. When the phone is answered, a c. RA 3815
recording states than an intrusion is in progress at the d. RA 5487
location so alarmed. This system is relatively inexpensive to 73. It is an association of all licensed security agencies and
install and operate, but since it is dependent on general company security forces.
phone circuit, it could fail if line were busy or if the phone a. LTO
connection were cut. b. SAGSD
a. Auxiliary system c. PADPAO
b. Dial alarm system d. License to exercise profession
c. Proprietary system 74. It is a license certificate document, issued e Chief Philippine
d. Local alarm by – chance – system National Police or his duly authorized representative,
70. The following are parts of alarm system except; authorizing a person to engage in employing security guard
a. Circuit or detective, or a judicial person to establish, engage, direct,
 manage or operate an individual or a private detective for a chemical compound a process of manufacturing
agency or private security agency or company security force treating or preserving materials, a pattern for machine or
after payment of the prescribed dues or fee an association device, or a list of customers. It differs from other secret
of all licensed security agency and company security force. information as a single or ephemeral event. It is a process or
a. LTO device for continuous use in the protection of the business.
b. SAGSD a. Patent
c. PADPAO b. Trade Secret
d. License to exercise profession c. Business Secret
75. It is a document issued by the Chief, Philippine National d. Proprietary Information
Police or his duly authorized representative recognizing a 78. Under the law, any person who offers or renders personal
person to be qualified to perform his duties as private services to watch or secure either a residence or business
security or training personnel. establishment or both or building, compounds or areas, for
a. LTO hire or compensation or as employee thereof is known as –
b. SAGSD a. Blue Army
c. PADPAO b. Guard for Hire
d. License to exercise profession c. Security Guard
76. Before a Private Security Agency (PSA) can operate; it has to d. Personal Body Guard
secure a ___________ categorized as either temporary or 79. Which of the following is not a man – made hazard in an
regular. A temporary licensed is issued by the PNP thru Civil industrial firm?
Security Group Directorate after the applicant/licensee a. Arson
should have complied with all the requirements while it has b. Pilferage
less than two hundred guards. c. Sabotage
a. PNP approval d. Lighting storm
b. Mayors Permit 80. The first line of physical defence of an industrial complex,
c. SEC Registration viewing from the outside is –
d. License to operate a. Perimeter barrier
77. This consist of any formula , pattern, device or compilation b. The building itself
of information which is used in one’s business and which c. The doors, lock and windows
gives him an opportunity to gain an advance over d. Entry points where security guards are posted
competitors who do not know or use it. It may be a formula
81. The management for keys in a plant, office or business b. Kabit System
organization to prevent unauthorized access to said keys is c. Concubinage
– d. Illegal partnership
a. Control key 86. The mesh opening of a chain link fence should not be larger
b. Key control than?
c. Security key a. 1 inch per side
d. Instruction alarm key b. 3 inch per side
82. Private Security Agency, under the law should apply for c. 2 inch per side
regular license only when in a possession of at least 70 d. 4 inch per side
license firearms and a minimum of – 87. Concertina wire is usually use for –
a. 100 guards a. Concrete fencing
b. 150 guards b. Temporary fencing
c. 200 guards c. Permanent fencing
d. 1000 guards d. Semi – permanent fencing
83. Under the law, the maximum age qualification in order to 88. A regular license to operate a security agency is valid for –
be issued a security guard license to exercise a professional a. 1 year
is – b. 3 years
a. 60 c. 2 years
b. 30 d. 4 years
c. 50 89. Who among the following is authorized to establish a
d. 55 security agency?
84. Under the law, the minimum age qualification in order to be a. JC, dummy of a foreigner
issued a security guard license to exercise a professional is – b. Jomar, a habitual drunkard
a. 18 years old c. Jay, mentally incompetent
b. 21 years old d. James, honorably discharged from AFP or PNP
c. 20 years old 90. A type of inspection conducted with prior notice to the
d. 25 years old installation to be inspected is called –
85. The private security profession, the term “merging” of a a. Formal
security agency is otherwise known as – b. Random
a. Adultery c. Informal
 d. Systematic b. Reclassifying
91. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business c. Downgrading
government or industrial environment for which the d. Declassifying
manager has responsibility. 96. Grant of access to classified matter only to properly cleared
a. Risk transfer persons in the performance of their official duties.
b. Risk reduction a. Clearance
c. Risk avoidance b. Need to know
d. Risk spreading c. Secrecy discipline
92. Susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss d. Compartmentation
or disruption of operation due to various hazard is called – 97. A technique or personnel security investigation which offers
a. Criticality security managers an opportunity to learn of problems not
b. Relative criticality previously known.
c. Probability a. Profiling
d. Relative vulnerability b. Exit interview
93. A risk management strategy is done through c. Positive vetting
compartmentation or decentralization to limit the impact of d. Financial and lifestyle inquiry
the potential loss refers to – 98. It is the process of inspecting or examining with careful
a. Risk transfer thoroughness.
b. Risk reduction a. Profiling
c. Risk spreading b. Positive vetting
d. Risk self – assumption c. Undercover investigation
94. What is the color of the document if the security d. Background investigation
classification assigned to it is Secret? 99. The badge or coded pass issued to an employee which
a. Red authorize him to enter a specific area until his authorization
b. Blue is terminated is called.
c. Green a. Single pass system
d. White b. Multiple pass system
95. Act of assigning a higher classification on a document than c. Coded pass system
that previously assigned to it is called – d. Pass exchange system
a. Upgrading
100. The weakest link in the security chain of an POLICE PERSONNEL AND RECORD MANAGEMENT
organization is –
a. Lock TEST I. MULTIPLE CHOICE – Choose the letter of the best answer
b. Barrier and shade the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to your
c. Document answer.
d. Personnel

1. Operational reports include those relating to the reporting

of police incidents, investigations, arrest, identification of
persons, and miscellaneous reports unnecessary to the
conduct of routine operations. This statement is –
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. None of the above
2. Everything taken from prisoners property until shown to be
otherwise is known as Prisoner’s Property receipt. Booking
report is a current list of the prisoners in custody which will
indicate the status and disposition of each. It does not
provide information to each division as to the inmates or
inmates in jail. This latter statement is –
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. None of the above
3. Every time any file is issued, a record should make on a
colored charge often called as?
a. Out card
b. Spot map
c. Borrower’s slip
 d. Numbered property index 8. The fundamental concept concerning police service which
4. It provides supervising officers with evidence of weakness in states that policemen a considered as servants of higher
the police service and shows the individual officer where his authorities. The people have little or no share at all in the
attention is especially needed. duties, nor have any direct connection with them.
a. Map a. Policing theory
b. Plan b. Evolution theory
c. Spot map c. Home rule theory
d. Police report d. Continental theory
5. This presents data on any specialized subject but usually 9. Refers to the set of activities and processes used to legally
related to completed staff work, and adds to the specific obtain a sufficient number of the right people at the right
knowledge to proper police management. place and time so that the people and the organization can
a. Police report select each other in their own best short and long run
b. Technical report interest.
c. Technique report a. Training
d. Operational report b. Selection
6. Except for one the following are incidents to be recorded; c. Development
a. All calls in which any member of the police force d. Recruitment
dispatches or takes official action 10. A report that is done after an important incident takes place
b. Reportable vehicular and other types of accidents in a certain area at a given time is known as the Spot
which require police action Report. What is the other term for this report?
c. Damage to property a. Final report
d. All arrest unmade b. Close report
7. Which of the following is a true mechanics of a report? c. Initial report
a. Report shall be written to present a chronological d. Follow – up report
record of events always begin with time and date 11. If you are a member of the selection committee for
b. Every incident shall be unwritten in a separate applicants, who among the following should be preferred?
report a. Mr. B height 5’5” weight 60, education 3rd year
c. In shall be inaccurate and state facts not opinions college, age 31 years old.
d. Abbreviations shall be avoided except those that b. Mr. A height 5’3”, weight 63, education college
are commonly known graduate, age 34 years old.
 c. Mr. C height 5t’5” weight 63, education college c. Budgeting
graduate, age 21 years old d. Organizing
d. Mr. D height 5’6” weight 43, education college 16. The process of choosing from among candidates from
graduate, age 20 years old. within the organization or from the outside, the more
12. It is the attempt improve the ability required by the job of suitable person for the current position or for future
operative employees and is immediately focused on skill. positions.
a. Training a. Training
b. Selection b. Selection
c. Recruitment c. Recruitment
d. Development d. Development
13. It is the filling and keeping filled positions in the 17. It is the establishment or a rank order of persons to be
organizational structure. This is done by identifying work certified as eligible appointment –
force requirements, inventorying the people available, a. Selection
recruiting, placing, promoting, appraising, compensating b. Recruitment
and training of personnel. c. Written test
a. Staffing d. Initial application
b. Planning 18. What is the specific article and section in the constitution
c. Budgeting provides that the Philippine Government should create one
d. Organizing police force which is national and scope and civilian in
14. Criminologist can enter the PNP via lateral with rank of Character –
Inspector if there are vacancies, an imam can enter the rank a. Article XIV Sec. 6
of – b. Article VI Sec. 16
a. Inspector c. Article XVI Sec. 6
b. Sr. inspector d. Article XIV Sec. 16
c. Chief Inspector 19. It requires decision making that is choosing from among
d. All start at PO1 alternatives future courses of action.
15. It is the entire personnel function of recruiting and training a. Staffing
staff and maintaining favourable working condition. b. Directing
a. Staffing c. Planning
b. Planning d. Organizing
20. It is an increase in the level of authority due to satisfactory 25. Which of the following is not a purpose of performance
performance – evaluation?
a. Appraisal a. To increase productivity and efficiency of police
b. Promotion works.
c. Appointment b. To serve as guide for salary increases, promotion
d. Recruit training c. To assimilate supervision
21. A theory of emphasizing on the characteristics of d. None of the above
government – 26. It is lasting, intended for indefinite position.
a. Bureaucratic model a. Appraisal
b. General management b. Appointment
c. Scientific management c. Temporary appointment
d. Science of administration d. Permanent appointment
22. The inherent responsibility of a police organization to be 27. It is the designation of a person into an office or position by
answerable for the misconducts committed by its members. competent authority.
a. Management a. Selection
b. Police management b. Appraisal
c. Police accountability c. Recruitment
d. Police administration d. Appointment
23. The various units of a police organization are the following 28. The following are methods in performance evaluation
except; except;
a. Territorial a. Essay method
b. Line units b. Written method
c. Geographical c. Rating methods
d. Functional units d. Graphic rating scale
24. The primary subdivision of the PNP is – 29. It is usually refers to the recruit training with the primary
a. Unit concern of orienting the recruits to understand the basic
b. Bureau nature and demand of police work.
c. Section a. Roll call training
d. Division b. In – service training
c. Pre – service training
 d. Administrative training c. Educational attainment
30. It is the periodic briefing in the form of short lectures, d. All of the above
demonstration and discussion during regular hour. 35. Which ranks are appointed by the President upon the
a. Outside training recommendation of the Chief PNP with the proper
b. Roll call training endorsement by the Chairman of the NAPOLCOM?
c. Administrative training a. Insp. – Supt.
d. Top management training b. PO1 – SPO4
31. It is training designed for high ranking or management c. Director General
positions. d. Sr. Supt – Dep. Dir. Gen.
a. Outside training 36. The fundamental concept concerning police service which
b. Roll call training states that policeman a considered as servants of higher
c. Administrative training authorities. The people have little or no share at all in the
d. Top management training duties, nor have any direct connection with them.
32. It implies that personnel from a lower position are placed at a. Policing theory
a higher position. b. Evolution theory
a. Appraisal c. Home rule theory
b. Promotion d. Continental theory
c. Appointment 37. The concept concerning police service which states that the
d. Recruit training public look at policemen as more effective if they conduct
33. Which ranks are appointed by the PNP Regional Director for numerous arrests and place behind bars what they have
regional personnel and attested by the NAPOLCOM? arrested.
a. Insp. – Supt. a. Old concept
b. PO1 – SPO4 b. Modern concept
c. Director General c. Jurassic concept
d. Sr. Supt – Dep. Dir. Gen. d. Neophyte concept
34. Which of the following requirements for initial appointment 38. The concept concerning police service which states that the
to the PNP maybe waived when the number of qualified public look at policemen as more effective in the absence of
applicants fails below the minimum annual quota? crime.
a. Age a. Old concept
b. Height / weight b. Modern concept
 c. Dinosauric concept
d. Neophyte concept
39.