Anda di halaman 1dari 26

Full file at http://TestbankCollege.

eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
Chapter 4

4-1 Figure P4-1 shows a simply supported beam and the cross-section at midspan. The
beam supports a uniform service (unfactored) dead load consisting of its own weight plus
1.4 kips/ft and a uniform service (unfactored) live load of 1.5 kip/ft. The concrete strength is
3500 psi, and the yield strength of the reinforcement is 60,000 psi. The concrete is normal-
weight concrete. Use load and strength reduction factors from ACI Code Sections 9.2 and
9.3. For the midspan section shown in part (b) of Fig. P4-1, compute f M n and show that it
exceeds M u .

1. Calculate the dead load of the beam.


24 �12
Weight/ft = �0.15 = 0.3 kips/ft
144

2. Compute the factored moment, M u .


Factored load/ft: wu = 1.2(0.30 + 1.40) + 1.6(1.50) = 4.44 k/ft
M u = wu l 2 8 = 4.44 �202 8 = 222 kips-ft

3. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 3 No. 9 bars = 3 �1.00 in.2 = 3.00 in.2

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding. From equilibrium (using Eq. (4-14)):

A f
s y 3.00 �60000
a =b c= = = 5.04 in.
1 '
0.85 f b 0.85 �3500 �12
c
a
For f c' = 3500 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
5.04 = 5.93 in.
1
0.85

Check whether tension steel is yielding:

( )
using Eq.(4-18) e s = e t = �
�d - c �
�c �
�e =�
cu
�21.5 - 5.93 �
� 5.93 �
�0.003 = 0.00788

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Compute the nominal moment strength, using Eq. (4-21):


� 5.04 �
3.00 �60000 �� 21.5 -
� a� � 2 ��= 285 kips-ft
M =A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000

Since, e t = 0.00788 > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9. Then,
f M n = 0.9 �285 kip-ft = 256 kip-ft. Clearly, f M n > M u

4-1
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
4-2 A cantilever beam shown in Fig. P4-2. The beam supports a uniform service
(unfactored) dead load of 1 kip/ft plus its own dead load and it supports a concentrated
service (unfactored) live load of 12 kips as shown. The concrete is normal-weight concrete
with f c' = 4000 psi and the steel is Grade 60. Use load and strength-reduction factors form
ACI Code Section 9.2 and 9.3. For the end section shown in part (b) of Fig. P4-2, compute
f M n and show it exceeds M u .

1. Calculate the dead load of the beam.


30 �18
Weight/ft = �0.15 = 0.563 kips/ft
144

2. Compute the factored moment, M u .


Factored distributed load/ft: wu = 1.2(0.563 + 1.0) = 1.88 k/ft
Factored live load is a concentrated load: Pu = 1.6 �12 = 19.2 kips
( ) ( )
M u = - wu l 2 2 - Pu ( l - 1) = - 1.88 �102 2 - ( 19.2 �9 ) = -267 k-ft

3. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 6 No. 8 bars = 6 �0.79 in.2 =4.74 in.2

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding. From equilibrium (using Eq. (4-14)):

A f
s y 4.74 �60000
a =b c= = = 2.79 in.
1
0.85 f ' b 0.85 �4000 �30
c
a
For f c' = 4000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
2.79 = 3.28 in.
1
0.85

Check whether tension steel is yielding:

( ) �d - c �
using. Eq.(4-18) e s = e t = �
�c �
� e =�
cu
� 15.5 - 3.28 �
� 3.28 �
�0.003 = 0.011 > 0.0021

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Compute the nominal moment strength, using Eq. (4-21):

� 2.79 �
4.74 �60000 ��15.5 -
� a� � 2 ��= 334 kip-ft
M = A f �d - �=
n s y� 2 � 12000

Since, e t = 0.011 > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9. Then,
f M n = 0.9 �334 = 301 kip-ft = 267 kip-ft. Clearly, f M n > M u

4-2
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
4-3 (a) Compare f M n for singly reinforced rectangular beams having the following
properties. Use loads and strength reduction factors from ACI Code Sections 9.2 and 9.3.

Beam b d f c' fy
Bars
No. (in.) (in.) (psi) (psi)
1 12 22 3 No. 7 3,000 60,000
2 12 22 2 No. 9 plus 1 No. 8 3,000 60,000
3 12 22 3 No. 7 3,000 40,000
4 12 22 3 No. 7 4,500 60,000
5 12 33 3 No. 7 3,000 60,000

Beam No.1

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding.
A f
s y 3 �0.60 �60000
a =b c= = = 3.53 in.
1
0.85 f ' b 0.85 �3000 �12
c
a
For f c' = 3000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
3.53 = 4.15 in.
1
0.85

e
s ( = et ) = �d -c�
�c �

e =�
�cu
�22 - 4.15 �
� 4.15 �
�0.003 = 0.013

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Since, e t > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9.


� 3.53 �
0.9 �3 �0.60 �60000 �� 22 -
� a� � 2 ��= 164 kip-ft
f M = f A f �d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000

For Beam 1, f M n = 164 kip-ft

Beam No.2

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding.

A f ( 2 �1.00 + 0.79 ) �60000 = 5.47


s y
a =b c= = in.
1 ' 0.85 �3000 �12
0.85 f b
c
a
For f c' = 3000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
5.47 = 6.44 in.
1
0.85

4-3
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

e
s ( = et ) = �d -c�
�c �

e =�
�cu
�22 - 6.44 �
� 6.44 �
��0.003 = 0.0072

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Since, e t > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9.


� 5.47 �
0.9 �2.79 �60000 �� 22 -
� a � � 2 ��= 242 kip-ft
f M = f A f �d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
For Beam 2, f M n = 242 kip-ft

Beam No.3

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding.

A f
s y 1.8 �40000
a =b c= = = 2.35 in.
1
0.85 f ' b 0.85 �3000 �12
c
a
For f c' = 3000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
2.35 = 2.76 in.
1
0.85

e
s ( = et ) = �d -c �
�c �

e =�
�cu
�22 - 2.76 �
� 2.76 �
��0.003 = 0.021

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Since, e t > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9.


� 2.35 �
0.9 �1.8 �40000 �� 22 -
� a� � 2 � �= 113 kip-ft
fM = f A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
For Beam 3, f M n = 113 kip-ft

Beam No.4

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding.
A f
s y 1.8 �60000
a =b c= = = 2.35 in.
1 '
0.85 f b 0.85 �4500 �12
c
a
For f c' = 4500 psi, b1 = 0.825 . Therefore, c = b =
2.35 = 2.85 in.
1
0.825

e
s ( = et ) = �d -c�
�c �

e =�
�cu
�22 - 2.85 �
� 2.85 �
�0.003 = 0.020

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

4-4
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
Since, e t > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9.
� 2.35 �
0.9 �1.8 �60000 �� 22 -
� a� � 2 ��= 169 kip-ft
fM = f A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
For Beam 4, f M n = 169 kip-ft

Beam No.5

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding.
A f
s y 1.8 �60000
a =b c= = = 3.53 in.
1
0.85 f ' b 0.85 �3000 �12
c
a
For f c' = 3000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
3.53 = 4.15 in.
1
0.85

e
s ( = et ) = �d -c�
�c �

e =�
�cu
�33 - 4.15 �
� 4.15 �
�0.003 = 0.021

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Since, e t > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9.


� 3.53 �
0.9 �1.8 �60000 �� 33 -
� a� � 2 ��= 253 kip-ft
fM = f A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
For Beam 5, f M = 253 kip-ft
n

(b) Taking beam 1 as the reference point, discuss the effects of changing As , f y , f c' ,
and d on f M n . (Note that each beam has the same properties as beam 1 except for the
italicized quantity.)

Beam fM
n

No. (kips-ft)
1 164
2 242
3 113
4 169
5 253

Effect of As (Beams 1 and 2)


An increase of 55% in As (from 1.80 to 2.79 in.2) caused on increase of 48% in f M n . It is clear
that increasing the tension steel area causes a proportional increase in the strength of the section,
with a loss of ductility. Note that in this case, the strength reduction factor was 0.9 for both
sections.

4-5
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

Effect of f y (Beams 1 and 3)


A decrease of 33% in f y caused a decreased of 31% in f M n . A decrease in the steel yield
strength has essentially the same effect as decreasing the tension steel area.

Effect of f c' (Beams 1 and 4)


An increase of 50% in f c' caused an increase of 3% in f M n . It is clear that changes in the
concrete strength have a much smaller effect on moment strength compared with changes in the
tension steel area and steel yield strength.

Effect of d (Beams 1 and 5)


An increase of 50% in d caused an increase of 54% in f M n .It is clear that increasing the
effective flexural depth of the section increases the section moment strength (without decreasing
the section ductility).

(c) What is the most effective way of increasing f M n ? What is the least effective
way?

Disregarding any other effects of increasing d , As or f y such as changes in cost, etc., the most
effective way to increase f M n is the increase the effective flexural depth of the section, d ,
followed by increasing f y and As . Note that increasing f y and As too much may make the beam
over-reinforced and thus will result in a decrease in ductility.

The least effective way of increasing f M n is to increase f c' .Note that increasing f c' will cause a
significant increase in curvature at failure.

4-6
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
4-4 A 12-ft-long cantilever supports its own dead load plus an additional uniform
service (unfactored) dead load of 0.5 kip/ft. The beam is made from normal-weight 4000-psi
concrete and has b = 16 in., d = 15.5 in., and h = 18 in. It is reinforced with four No. 7 Grade-
60 bars. Compute the maximum service (unfactored) concentrated live load that can be
applied at 1ft from the free end of the cantilever. Use load and strength –reduction factors
from ACI Code Sections 9.2 and 9.3. Also check As ,min .

1. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 4 No. 7 bars = 4 �0.60 in.2 =2.40 in.2

Compute the depth of the equivalent rectangular stress block, a , assuming that tension steel is
yielding. From equilibrium (using Eq. (4-14)):
A f
s y 2.4 �60000
a =b c= = = 2.65 in.
1
0.85 f ' b 0.85 �4000 �16
c
For f c' = 4000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = a b = 2.65 0.85 = 3.1 in.
1

Check whether tension steel is yielding:

( )
using Eq.(4-18) e s = e t = �
�d - c �
�c �
�e =�
cu
�15.5 - 3.1 �
� 3.1 �
�0.003 = 0.012

Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Compute the nominal moment strength, using Eq. (4-21):


� 2.65 �
2.4 �60000 �� 15.5 -
� a� � 2 � �= 170 kips-ft
M =A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000

Since, e t = 0.012 > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and,


f M n = 0.9 �170 kips-ft = 153 kips-ft

2. Compute Live Load

Set M u = f M n = 153 kips-ft

16 �18
Weight/ft of beam = �0.15 = 0.3 kips/ft
144
Factored dead load = 1.2 ( 0.3 + 0.5 ) = 0.96 kips/ft
Factored dead load moment = wl 2 2 = 0.96 �122 2 = 69.1 kips-ft

Therefore the maximum factored live load moment is: 153 kips-ft – 69.1 kip-ft = 83.9 kips-ft

Maximum factored load at 1 ft from the tip = 83.9 kips-ft / 11 ft = 7.63 kips
Maximum concentrated service live load = 7.63 kips / 1.6 = 4.77 kips

4-7
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

3. Check of As ,min

The section is subjected to positive bending and tension is at the bottom of this section, so we
should use bw in Eq. (4-11). Also, 3 f c' is equal to 189 psi, so use 200 psi in the numerator:
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �16 �15.5 = 0.82 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

4-8
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

4-5 Compute f M n and check As ,min for the beam shown in Fig. P4-5. Use f c' = 4500 psi
and f y = 60,000 psi.

1. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 6 No. 8 bars = 6 �0.79 in.2 =4.74 in.2

The tension reinforcement for this section is provided in two layers, where the distance from the
tension edge to the centroid of the total tension reinforcement is given as d = 19 in.

Assuming that the depth of the Whitney stress block is less than or equal to the thickness of the
compression flange, a �h f ( ) ( )
and that the tension steel is yielding, e s �e y , using Eq. (4-16):

A f
s y 4.74 �60000
a= = = 1.55 in. < h f = 6 in. (o.k.)
'
0.85 f b e 0.85 �4500 �48
c

For f c' = 4500 psi, b1 = 0.825 . Therefore, c = a b = 1.55 0.825 = 1.88 in.
1

Comparing the calculated depth to the neutral axis, c , to the values for d and dt , it is clear that
the tension steel strain, e s , easily exceeds the yield strain (0.00207) and the strain at the level of
the extreme layer of tension reinforcement, e t , exceeds the limit for tension-controlled sections
(0.005). Thus, f =0.9 and we can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :

� 1.55 �
4.74 �60000 �� 19 -
� a� � 2 �
�= 432 kips-ft
M =A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
f M n = 0.9 �432 kips-ft = 389 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

The section is subjected to positive bending and tension is at the bottom of this section, so we
should use bw in Eq. (4-11). Also, 3 f c' is equal to 201 psi, so use 3 f c' in the numerator:
3 f c' 201
As ,min = bw d = �12 �19 = 0.76 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

4-9
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

4-6 Compute f M n and check As ,min for the beam shown in Fig. P4-6. Use f c' = 4000 psi
and f y = 60,000 psi.

1. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 6 No. 8 bars = 6 �0.79 in.2 =4.74 in.2

The tension reinforcement for this section is provided in two layers, where the distance from the
tension edge to the centroid of the total tension reinforcement is given as d = 18.5 in.

Assuming that the depth of the Whitney stress block is less than or equal to the thickness of the
( ) ( )
compression flange, a �h f and that the tension steel is yielding, e s �e y , using Eq. (4-16):

A f
s y 4.74 �60000
a= = = 4.18 in. < h f = 5 in. (o.k.)
0.85 f ' b e 0.85 �4000 �20
c

For f c' = 4000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = a b = 4.18 0.85 = 4.92 in.
1

Check whether tension steel is yielding:


�d - c � �18.5 - 4.95 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = � e =�
� cu � �0.003 = 0.0082
�c � � 4.95 �
Thus, e s > 0.002 and it is clear that the steel is yielding in both layers of reinforcement.
It is also clear that the section is tension-controlled ( f =0.9), but just for illustration the value of
e can be calculated as:
t
�d - c � �19.5 - 4.92 �
e = �t e =� � �0.003 = 0.0089
t � c � � cu � 4.92 �

We can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :


� 4.18 �
4.74 �60000 �� 18.5 -
� a� � 2 � �= 389 kips-ft
M = A f �d - �=
n s y� 2 � 12000
f M n = 0.9 �389 kips-ft = 350 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

The section is subjected to positive bending and tension is at the bottom of this section, so we
should use bw in Eq. (4-11). Also, 3 f c' is equal to 190 psi, so use 200 psi in the numerator:
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �12 �18.5 = 0.74 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

4-10
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

4-7 Compute the negative-moment capacity, f M n , and check As ,min for the beam shown
in Fig. P4-7. Use f c' = 3500 psi and f y = 40,000 psi.

1. Calculation of f M n

This section is subjected to negative bending and tension will develop in the top flange and the
compression zone is at the bottom of the section. ACI Code Section 10.6.6 requires that a portion
of the tension reinforcement be distributed in the flange, so assuming that the No. 6 bars in the
flange are part of the tension reinforcement:

As = 6 �0.44 = 2.64 in.2

The depth of the Whitney stress block can be calculated using Eq. (4-16) , using b = 12 in., since
the compression zone is at the bottom of the section:

A f
s y 2.64 �40000
a= = = 2.96 in.
'
0.85 f b e 0.85 �3500 �12
c

a
For f c' = 3500 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
2.96 = 3.48 in.
1
0.85

We should confirm that the steel is yielding:

�d - c � 19.5 - 3.48 �

using Eq.(4-18) e s = ( e t = ) � e =�
� �0.003 = 0.014

� c �cu � 3.48 �
( )
Clearly, the steel is yielding e s > e y = 0.00207 and this is tension-controlled section
( e t > 0.005) .

We can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :

� 2.96 �
2.64 �40000 �� 19.5 -
� a� � 2 ��= 159 kips-ft
M = A f �d - �=
n s y� 2 � 12000
f M n = 0.9 �159 kips-ft = 143 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

The beam is subjected to negative bending and since the flanged portion of the beam section is in
tension, the value of As ,min will depend on the use of that beam.
Assuming that the beam is part of a continuous, statically indeterminate floor system, the
minimum tension reinforcement should be calculated using bw in Eq. (4-11). Also, 3 f c' is equal
to 177 psi, so use 200 psi in the numerator:

4-11
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �12 �19.5 = 1.17 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 40,000

However, for a statically determinate beam, bw should be replaced by the smaller of


2bw ( = 24 in.) or be . Given that be is 48 in. for this beam section,
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �24 �19.5 = 2.34 < As (o.k.)
fy 40,000

4-12
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
4-8 For the beam shown in Fig. P4-8, f c' = 3500 psi and f y = 60,000 psi.

(a) Compute the effective flange width at midspan.

The limits given in ACI Code Section 8.12 for determining the effective compression flange, be ,
for a flanged section that is part of a continuous floor system are:

� l �
� 4 �
� �
be �� bw + 2(8h f ) �
�b + 2(clear trans. distance)/2 �
�w �

Assuming that the columns are 18 in. �18 in. , the longitudinal span is approximated as:
�18 in. �
l = 21 ft + � �ft = 22.5 ft
�12 in. �
� ft �
�12 in. �
The clear transverse distance for the 9 ft.-6 in. span is: 9.5 ft - � �= 8.5 ft
�12 in. �
� ft �
1 �12 in. 18 in. �
and for the 11 ft. span is: 11 ft - � + �= 9.75 ft
2� 12 in. 12 in. �
� ft ft �
So, the average clear transverse distance is 9.125 ft

The effective compression flange can now be computed as:

� 22.5 ft ( 12 in./ft ) �
� = 67.5 in. �
� 4 �
� �
be �� 12 in. + 2 ( 8 �6 in.) = 108 in. �
� �
�12 in. + 2 ( 9.125 ft ( 12 in./ft ) ) /2=122 in.�
� �
The first limit governs for this section, so be = 67.5 in.

(b) Compute f M n for the positive- and negative-moment regions and check
As ,min for both sections. At the supports, the bottom bars are in one layer; at midspan, the
No. 8 bars are in the bottom, the No. 7 bars in a second layer.

Positive moment region

1. Calculation of f M n

Tension steel area: As = 3 No. 8 bars + 2 No. 7 bars = 3 �0.79 + 2 �0.60 = 3.57 in.2

4-13
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
The tension reinforcement for this section is provided in two layers. Assuming the section will
include a No. 3 or No. 4 stirrup, it is reasonable to assume that the distance from the extreme
tension edge of the section to the centroid of the lowest layer of steel is approximately 2.5 in.
Thus the distance from the top of the section to the extreme layer of tension reinforcement, dt ,
can be calculated to be:

dt = 21 in. – 2.5 in. =18.5 in.

The minimum spacing required between layers of reinforcement is 1 in. (ACI Code Section
7.6.2). Thus the spacing between the centers of the layers is approximately 2 in. So the distance
from the tension edge to the centroid of the total tension reinforcement is:

( 3 �0.79 ) �2.5 + ( 2 �0.60 ) �4.5 = 3.17 in.


3.57

Therefore, the effective flexural depth, d , is:

d = 21 in. – 3.17 in. =17.8 in.

Assuming that the depth of the Whitney stress block is less than or equal to the thickness of the
( ) ( )
compression flange, a �h f = 6 in. and that the tension steel is yielding, e s �e y , using Eq.(4-
16):

A f
s y 3.57 �60000
a= = = 1.07 in. < h f = 6 in. (o.k.)
0.85 f ' b e 0.85 �3500 �67.5
c

For f c' = 3500 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = a b = 1.07 0.85 = 1.26 in.
1

Comparing the calculated depth to the neutral axis, c , to the values for d and dt , it is clear that
the tension steel strain, e s , easily exceeds the yield strain (0.00207) and the strain at the level of
the extreme layer of tension reinforcement, e t , exceeds the limit for tension-controlled sections
(0.005). Thus, f =0.9 and we can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :

� 1.07 �
3.57 �60000 �� 17.8 -
� a� � 2 ��= 308 kips-ft
M =A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
f M n = 0.9 �308 kips-ft = 277 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

The section is subjected to positive bending and tension is at the bottom of this section, so we
should use bw in Eq. (4-11). Also, 3 f c' is equal to 177 psi, so use 200 psi in the numerator:

4-14
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �12 �17.8 = 0.71 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

Negative moment region

The tension and compression reinforcement for this section is provided in single layers.
Assuming the section will include a No. 3 or No. 4 stirrup, it is reasonable to assume that the
distance from the extreme tension or compression edge of the section to the centroid of the
tension or compression layer of steel is approximately 2.5 in.

As = 7 No. 7 bars = 7 �0.60 = 4.2 in.2 , d = 18.5 in.


As' = = 2 No. 8 bars = 2 �0.79 = 1.58 in.2 , d ' = 2.5 in.

Because this is a doubly reinforced section, we will initially assume the tension steel is yielding
and use the trial and error procedure described in Section 4-7 to find the neutral axis depth, c.

Try c = d 4 �4.5 in.


�c - d ' � �4.5 - 2.5 �
e s' = � � e cu = � �0.003 = 0.00133

� c � � 4.5 �
f s' = E s e s' = 29,000 ksi �0.00133 = 38.6 ksi ( �f y )

( )
C 's = As' f s' - 0.85 f c' = 1.58 in.2 ( 38.6 ksi - 2.98 ksi ) = 56.3 kips
Cc = 0.85 f c'bb1c = 0.85 �3.5 ksi �12 in. �0.85 �4.5 in.=137 kips
T = As f y = 4.20 in.2 �60 ksi = 252 kips
Because T > Cc + C 's , we should increase c for the second trial.

Try c = 5.9 in.


e s' = 0.00173
(
f s' = 50.2 ksi �f y )
C 's = 74.6 kips
Cc = 179 kips
T = 254 kips �Cc + Cs = 254 kips

With section equilibrium established, we must confirm the assumption that the tension steel is
yielding.
�d - c � �18.5 - 5.9 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = � e =�
�cu ��0.003 = 0.0064
�c � � 5.9 �
( )
Thus, the steel is yielding e s > 0.00207 and it is a tension-controlled section ( e t > e s = 0.0102 ) .
So, using a = b1c = 0.85 �5.9 in. = 5.0 in. , use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n .
� a�
M = Cc �
n � 2�
( )
d - �+ C 's d - d ' = 179 kips �16 in. + 74.6 kips �16 in.

M = 2865 k-in. + 1195 k-in = 4060 k-in = 338 k-ft


n

4-15
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
f M n = 0.9 �338 kips-ft = 304 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

The flanged portion of the beam section is in tension and the value of As ,min will depend on the
use of that beam. Since the beam is part of a continuous, statically indeterminate floor system, the
minimum tension reinforcement should be calculated using bw in Eq. (4-11). Also, 3 f c' is equal
to 177 psi, so use 200 psi in the numerator:
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �12 �18.5 = 0.74 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

4-16
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

Compute f M n and check As ,min for the beam shown in Fig. P4-9. Use f c = 3500 psi
'
4-9
and f y = 60, 000 psi, and

(a) the reinforcement is six No. 8 bars.

1. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 6 No. 8 bars = 6 �0.79 in.2 = 4.74 in.2

Assuming that the depth of the Whitney stress block is less than or equal to the thickness of the
( )
top flange, ( a �5 in.) and that the tension steel is yielding, e s �e y , using Eq. (4-16) with
b = 30 in. :

A f
s y 4.74 �60000
a= = = 3.19 in. < h f = 5 in. (o.k.)
'
0.85 f b 0.85 �3500 �30
c

a
For f c' = 3500 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
3.19 = 3.76 in.
1
0.85

Check whether tension steel is yielding:


�d - c � �32.5 - 3.76 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = ( e t = ) � e =�
�cu
�0.003 = 0.023

�c � � 3.76 �
Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Since, e t > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9.

We can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :


� 3.18 �
4.74 �60000 �� 32.5 -
� a� � 2 ��= 733 kips-ft
M = A f �d - �=
n s y� 2 � 12000
f M n = 0.9 �733 kips-ft = 659 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

The flanged portion of the beam section is in tension and the value of As ,min will depend on the
use of that beam.
Assuming that the beam is part of a continuous, statically indeterminate floor system, the
minimum tension reinforcement should be calculated using bw = 2 �5 = 10 in. in Eq. (4-11). Also,
3 f c' is equal to 177 psi, so use 200 psi in the numerator:
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �10 �32.5 = 1.08 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

4-17
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
However, for a statically determinate beam, bw should be replaced by the smaller of
2bw ( = 20 in.) or be . Given that be is 30 in. for this beam section,
200 200
As ,min = bw d = �20 �32.5 = 2.17 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

(b) the reinforcement is nine No. 8 bars.

1. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 9 No. 8 bars = 9 �0.79 in.2 =7.11 in.2

Assuming that the depth of the Whitney stress block is less than or equal to the thickness of the
( ) ( )
compression flange, a �h f = 5 in. and that the tension steel is yielding, e s �e y , using Eq. (4-
16) with b = 30 in. :

A f
s y 7.11 �60000
a= = = 4.78 in. < h f = 5 in. (o.k.)
0.85 f ' b 0.85 �3500 �30
c

a
For f c' = 3500 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
4.78 = 5.62 in.
1
0.85

Check whether tension steel is yielding:


�d - c � �32.5 - 5.62 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = ( e t = ) � e =�
� �0.003 = 0.014

� c �cu � 5.62 �
Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).

Since, e t > 0.005 the section is clearly tension-controlled and f =0.9.

We can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :

� 4.78 �
7.11 �60000 �� 32.5 -
� a� � 2 � �= 1070 kips-ft
M =A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
f M n = 0.9 �1070 kips-ft = 963 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

As ,min is the same as in part (a).

4-18
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

4-10 Compute f M n and check As ,min for the beam shown in Fig. P4-10. Use f c' = 5000 psi
and f y = 60,000 psi, and

1. Compute the nominal moment capacity of the beam, M n and the strength reduction factor, f .

Tension steel area: As = 8 No. 7 bars = 8 �0.60 in.2 =4.8 in.2


Tension will develop in the bottom flange and the compression zone is at the top of the section.
( )
Thus, assuming that the tension steel is yielding, e s �e y , in Eq. (4-16) we should use
b = 2 �6 = 12 in. and we find the depth of the Whitney stress block as:

A f
s y 4.8 �60000
a= = = 5.65 in.
'
0.85 f b 0.85 �5000 �12
c
a
For f c' = 5000 psi, b1 = 0.80 . Therefore, c = b =
5.65 = 7.06 in.
1
0.80
Check whether tension steel is yielding:
�d - c � �23.5 - 7.06 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = ( e t = ) � e =�
�cu
�0.003 = 0.007

� c � � 7.06 �
Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).
Since, e t > 0.005 the section is tension-controlled and f =0.9.
We can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :

� 5.65 �
4.8 �60000 �� 23.5 -
� a� � 2 ��= 496 kips-ft
M =A f � d - �=
n s y� 2� 12000
f M n = 0.9 �496 kips-ft = 446 kips-ft

2. Check of As ,min

The flanged portion of the beam section is in tension and the value of As ,min will depend on the
use of that beam.
Assuming that the beam is part of a continuous, statically indeterminate floor system, the
minimum tension reinforcement should be calculated using bw = 2 �6 = 12 in. in Eq. (4-11). Also,
note that 3 f c' is equal to 212 psi:
212 212
As ,min = bw d = �12 �23.5 = 1.00 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000
However, for a statically determined beam, bw should be replaced by the smaller of
2bw ( = 24 in.) or be . Given that be is 42 in. for this beam section,
212 212
As ,min = bw d = �24 �23.5 = 1.99 in.2 < As (o.k.)
fy 60,000

4-19
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
4-11 (a) Compute f M n for the three beams shown in Fig. P4-11. In each case, f c' = 4000
psi and f y = 60 ksi, b = 12 in., d = 32.5 in., and h = 36 in.

Beam No. 1

Tension steel area: As = 6 No. 9 bars = 6 �1.00 in.2 =6.00 in.2

The tension reinforcement for this section is provided in two layers. Assuming the section will
include a No. 3 or No. 4 stirrup, it is reasonable to assume that the distance from the extreme
tension edge of the section to the centroid of the lowest layer of steel is approximately 2.5 in.
Thus the distance from the top of the section to the extreme layer of tension reinforcement, dt ,
can be calculated to be:

dt = 36 in. – 2.5 in. =33.5 in.

The effective flexural depth, d , is given as : d = 32.5 in.

( )
Assuming that the tension steel is yielding, e s �e y , using Eq. (4-16):

A f
s y 6.00 �60000
a= = = 8.82 in.
0.85 f ' b 0.85 �4000 �12
c
a
For f c' = 4000 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Therefore, c = b =
8.82 = 10.4 in.
1
0.85

We need to check whether tension steel is yielding:


�d - c � �32.5 - 10.4 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = � � e =�
cu � �0.003 = 0.0064
� c � � 10.4 �
Thus, e s > 0.002 and the steel is yielding ( f s = f y ).
Also, clearly e t > 0.005 , the section is tension-controlled and f =0.9.

Thus, f =0.9 and we can use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n :

� 8.82 �
6.00 �60000 �� 32.5 -
� a� � 2 ��= 843 kips-ft
M = A f �d - �=
n s y� 2 � 12000
f M n = 0.9 �843 kips-ft = 759 kips-ft

Beam No. 2

Tension steel area: As = 6 No. 9 bars = 6 �1.00 in.2 =6.00 in.2


'
Compression steel area: A s = 2 No. 9 bars = 2 �1.00 in.2 =2.00 in.2

As was discussed for beam No. 1, d = 32 in., dt = 33.5 in. and d ' is given as d ' = 2.5 in.

4-20
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

Because this is a doubly reinforced section, we will initially assume the tension steel is yielding
and use the trial and error procedure described in Section 4-7 to find the neutral axis depth, c.

Try c = d 4 �8 in.
�c - d ' � �8 - 2.5 �
e s' = � � e cu = � �0.003 = 0.00206

� c � � 8 �
f s' = E s e s' = 29,000 ksi �0.00206 = 59.7 ksi ( �f y )

( )
C 's = As' f s' - 0.85 f c' = 2.00 in.2 ( 59.7 ksi - 3.4 ksi ) = 113 kips
Cc = 0.85 f c'bb1c = 0.85 �4 ksi �12 in. �0.85 �8 in.=277 kips
T = As f y = 6.00 in.2 �60 ksi = 360 kips
Because T < Cc + C 's , we should decrease c for the second trial.

Try c = 7.4 in.


e s' = 0.00199
(
f s' = 57.7 ksi �f y )
C 's = 109 kips
Cc = 257 kips
T = 360 kips �Cc + C 's = 366 kips

With section equilibrium established, we must confirm the assumption that the tension steel is
yielding.
�d - c � �32.5 - 7.4 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = � e =�
�cu ��0.003 = 0.0102
�c � � 7.4 �
( )
Clearly, the steel is yielding e s > 0.00207 and it is a tension-controlled section ( e t > e s = 0.0102 ) .
So, using a = b1c = 0.85 �7.4 in. = 6.3 in. , use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n .
� a�
M = Cc �
n � 2�
( )
d - �+ C 's d - d ' = 257 kips �29.3 in. + 108.6 kips �30 in.

M = 7545 k-in. + 3270 k-in = 10800 k-in = 901 k-ft


n
f M n = 0.9 �901 kips-ft = 811 kips-ft

Beam No. 3

Tension steel area: As = 6 No. 9 bars = 6 �1.00 in.2 =6.00 in.2


'
Compression steel area: A s = 4 No. 9 bars = 4 �1.00 in.2 =4.00 in.2

As was discussed for beam No. 1, d = 32.5 in., and dt = 33.5 in.
The compression reinforcement for this beam section is provided in two layers and d ' is given as
3.5 in.

4-21
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
Because this is a doubly reinforced section, we will the same procedure as for beam No. 2
(assuming that the tension steel is yielding).
The depth of the neutral axis for this section should be smaller compared with beam section No.
2, since the compression reinforcement is increased for this section.

Try c = 7 in.
�c - d ' � �7 - 3.5 �
e s' = � e cu = �
� �0.003 = 0.0015

�c � � 7 �
f s' = E s e s' = 29, 000 ksi �0.0015 = 43.5 ksi ( �f y )

( )
C 's = As' f s' - 0.85 f c' = 4.00 in.2 ( 43.5 ksi - 3.4 ksi ) = 160 kips
Cc = 0.85 fc'bb1c = 0.85 �4 ksi �12 in. �0.85 �7 in.=243 kips
T = As f y = 6.00 in.2 �60 ksi = 360 kips
Because T < Cc + C 's , we should decrease c for the second trial.

Try c = 6.3 in. (Note that both layers of the compression steel will actually be in the compression zone)
e s' = 0.00133
(
f s' = 38.6 ksi �f y )
C 's = 141 kips
Cc = 218 kips
T = 360 kips �Cc + Cs = 359 kips

With section equilibrium established, we must confirm the assumption that the tension steel is
yielding.

�d - c � �32.5 - 6.3 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = � e =�
�cu ��0.003 = 0.012
�c � � 6.3 �
Clearly, the steel is yielding ( e s > 0.00207 ) and it is a tension-controlled section
( e t > e s = 0.012 ) .
So, using a = b1c = 0.85 �6.3 in. = 5.36 in. , use Eq. (4-21) to calculate M n .

� a�
M = Cc �
n � 2�
( )
d - �+ C 's d - d ' = 218 kips �29.8 in. + 141 kips �29 in.

M = 6495 k-in. + 4090 k-in = 10585 k-in = 882 k-ft


n
f M n = 0.9 �882 kips-ft = 794 kips-ft

4-22
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight
(b) From the results of part (a), comment on weather adding compression
reinforcement is a cost-effective way of increasing the strength, f M n , of a beam.

Comparing the values of f M n for the three beams, it is clear that for a given amount of tension
reinforcement, the addition of compression steel has little effect on the nominal moment capacity,
provided the tension steel yields in the beam without compression reinforcement. As a result,
adding compression reinforcement in not a cost effective way of increasing the nominal moment
capacity of a beam. However, adding compression reinforcement improves the ductility and
might be necessary when large amounts of tension reinforcement are used to change the mode of
failure.

4-23
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

4-12 Compute f M n for the beam shown in Fig. P4-12. Use f c' = 3500 psi and
f y = 60,000 psi. Does the steel yield in this beam at nominal strength?

As = 6 No. 8 bars = 6 �0.79 in.2 =4.74 in.2 , d = 25 in. - 2.5 in. = 22.5 in.
As' = 2 No. 7 bars = 2 �0.60 in.2 =1.2 in.2 , d ' = 2.5 in.

Because this is a doubly reinforced section, we will initially assume the tension steel is yielding
and use the trial and error procedure described in Section 4-7 to find the neutral axis depth, c.

Try c = d 4 �5.5 in.


For f c' = 3500 psi, b1 = 0.85 . Thus, a = 0.85 �5.5 in. = 4.68 in. < 5.0 in.
Since the depth of the Whitney stress block is less than 5.0 in. , ( a < 5.0 in.) ,the width of the
compression zone is constant and equal to 10 in., i.e. b = 10 in.

�c - d ' � �5.5 - 2.5 �


e s' = � e cu = �
� �0.003 = 0.00164

� c � � 5.5 �

f ' = E e ' = 29,000 ksi �0.00164 = 47.6 ksi �f


s s s y( )
( )
C 's = As' f s' - 0.85 f c' = 1.2 in.2 ( 47.6 ksi - 2.98 ksi ) = 53.5 kips
Cc = 0.85 f c'bb1c = 0.85 �3.5 ksi �10 in. �0.85 �5.5 in.=139 kips
T = As f y = 4.74 in.2 �60 ksi = 284 kips
Because T > Cc + C 's , we should increase c for the second trial.

Try c = 6.5 in.


and find a = 0.85 �6.5 in. = 5.53 in.> 5.0 in.
e s' = 0.00185
(
f s' = 53.7 ksi �f y )
C 's = 60.9 kips
In this case, the width of the compression zone is not constant. Using a similar reasoning as in the
case of flanged sections, where the depth of the Whitney stress block is in the web of the section,
the compression force can be calculated from the following equations (refer to Fig. S4-12):

Ccw = 0.85 f c' �( 10 in.) �a = 0.85 �3.5 ksi �10 in. �5.53 in.=165 kips
Ccf = 0.85 f c' �( 20 - 10 in.) �( a - 5 in.) = 0.85 �3.5 ksi �10 in. �0.53 in. = 15.8 kips
Cc = 165 + 15.8 = 181 kips
T = 284 kips > Cc + C 's = 242 kips , we should increase c for the third trial.

Try c = 7.2 in.


and find a = 0.85 �7.2 in. = 6.12 in.> 5.0 in.
e s' = 0.00196

4-24
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

(
f s' = 56.8 ksi �f y )
C 's = 64.6 kips
Ccw = 182 kips
Ccf = 33.3 kips
Cc = 215 kips
T = 284 kips �Cc + C 's = 276 kips

With section equilibrium established, we must confirm the assumption that the tension steel is
yielding.

�d - c � �22.5 - 6.12 �
using Eq.(4-18) e s = � e =�
�cu
�0.003 = 0.00803

� c � � 6.12 �
( )
Thus, the steel is yielding e s > 0.00207 and it is a tension-controlled section ( e t > e s = 0.012 ) .

Summing the moments about the level of the tension reinforcement:

� a� � a -5
M = Ccw �
n
d - �+ Ccf
� 2�


d-
2


(
- 5 �+ C 's d - d ' )
M = 182 kips �19.4 in. + 33.3 kips �16.9 in. + 64.6 kips �20 in.
n
M = 3530 k-in. + 563 k-in +1290 k-in = 5385 k-in = 449 k-ft
n
f M n = 0.9 �500 kips-ft = 404 kips-ft

4-25
Full file at http://TestbankCollege.eu/Solution-Manual-Reinforced-Concrete-5th-Edition-
Wight

bw
0.85f'c
ht a

f's
d
h

f
fs=fy
b (assumed)
a) total beam section and stres distribution

bw

ht a/2 d' Cs
a
Ccw

d
h

T1
F
b
b) Part 1: web of section and corresponding internal forces

bw

ht a (a+ht)/2
Ccf
d
h

T2
F
b
c) Part 2: overhanging flanges and corresponding internal forces

Fig. S4-12.1 Beam section and internal forces for the case of a > ht .

4-26

Anda mungkin juga menyukai