902B B.P.S. IX S.A. II Science Chapterwise 5 Printable Worksheets With Solution 2014 15

BRILLIANT PUBLIC SCHOOL ,
SITAMARHI
(Affiliated up to +2 level to C.B.S.E., New Delhi)
Affiliation No. - 330419
IX S.A.-II Science Chapterwise

Printable Worksheets with Solution
Session : 2014-15
Office: Rajopatti, Dumra Road, Sitamarhi(Bihar), Pin-843301

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SCIENCE (Class IX: S.A.-II)
Index
CBSE Chapter-wise Solved Test Papers
1. Atoms and Molecules 001

2. Structure of the Atom 012
3. Diversity in Living Organisms 022
4. Work and Energy 034
5. Sound 044
6. Why Do We Fall Ill 055
7. Natural Resources 067
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
CLASS - IX Science (Atoms and Molecules)
1. Atomic radius is measured in nanometers and [1]

(a) 1nm = 10-10m (b) 1m = 10-10nm
(c) 1m = 10-9nm (d) 1nm = 10-9m
2. Symbol of Iron is :- (a) Ir (b) I (c) Fe (d) None of these [1]
3. Atomicity of chlorine and Argon is [1]

(a) Diatomic and Monoatomic (b) Monoatomic and Diatomic
(c) Monoatomic and Monoatomic (d) Diatomic and Diatomic
4. Molecular mass of water ( H 2O ) is (a) 18g (b) 8g (c) 33g (d) 34g [1]
5. State law of conservation of Mass? [2]
6. Define Valency? Find the Valency of oxygen and Aluminum. [2]
7. Calculate the molar mass of Na2SO4 and CaCO3? [2]
8. Write the chemical formula for [2]

a) Calcium Phosphate b) Magnesium Hydroxide c) Aluminum chloride.
9. State the Postulates of Dalton Theory? [3]
10. Find the percentage of water of crystallization in feSO4. 7H2O. [3]
11. 2.42g of copper gave 3.025g of a black oxide of copper, 6. 49g of a black oxide, on [3]
reduction with hydrogen, gave 5.192g of copper. Show that these figures are in
accordance with law of constant proportion?
12. A compound was found to have the following percentage composition by mass [3]
Zn = 22.65%, S = 11.15%, H = 4.88%, O = 61.32%. The relative molecular mass is
287g/mol. Find the molecular formula of the compound, assuming that all the
hydrogen in the compound is present in water of crystallizations.
1
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
CLASS - IX Science (Structure of Atom)
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. (C)

Ans 02. (C)
Ans 03. (A)
Ans 04. (A)
Ans 05. According to law of conservation of Mass, mass can neither be created nor be
destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Ans 06. Valency is defined as the number of electrons that an element has to gain or
loose from its outermost shell so that it can be stable or the combining capacity
of an atom.
Oxygen – Atomic number = 8; Electronic configuration = 2, 6 i.e. it has to gain 2e-
so that in : outer most shell has 8e-, Valency of O is -2 Similarly, valency of Al
(Aluminum) is +3 (∵ electronic configuration → 2, 8, 3) so it looses 3e- from its
outermost shell.
Ans 07. Molar Mass of Na2 SO4 =

⇒ 2× Mass of sodium + 1× Mass of sulphur + 4× Mass of oxygen
= 2×23+1×32+4×16
= 46+32+64
= 142 a.m.u.
Molar Mass of CaCO3 =
⇒ 1× Mass of calcium +1×Mass of carbon + 3×Mass of oxygen
= 40+12+3×16
= 40+12+48 = 100 a.m.u.
2
Ans 08. Chemical formula for
1) Calcium Phosphate
Ca3 (PO4)2
2) Magnesium Hydroxide
Mg (OH)2
3) Alminium chloride
Al Cl3
Ans 09. The postulates of Dalton theory are

a) All matter is made of vary tiny particles called atom
b) Atoms are indivisible particle; they cannot be created or destroyed during
a chemical reaction
c) Atoms of a \given element are identical in mass and chemical properties
d) Atoms of different elements have different mass and chemical properties.
e) Atom combines in the ratio of their whole number to form compounds
f) The relative number and kinds of atoms are constant in a compound.
Ans 10. The RMM of FeSO4.7H2O= 55.9 + 32.0 + 4 × 16 + 7(18)

= 55.9 + 32 + 64 + 126
= 277.9 g/mol.
277.9 g/mol of FeSO4 contain 126g of water
3
100 × 126
∴ 100g of crystal will contain g of water of crystallization
277.9
This is 45.34 of water of crystallization
The amount of water of crystallization in FeSo4.7H2O = 45.34% by mass.
Ans 11. The percentage of copper is first oxide

2.43 × 100
= = 80.0
3.025
5.192 × 100
The percentage of copper is second oxide =
6.49
= 80.02
As the percentage of copper in both the oxides is same, thence law of constant
composition is verified.
22.65 11.15 61.32 4.88

Ans 12. Zn : S:O:H = : : :
65 32 10 1
= 0.3485 : 0.3484 : 3.833 : 4.88
To obtain an integral ratio, we divide by smallest number
0.3485 0.3484 03.833 4.88
= : : :
0.3484 0.3484 0.3484 0.3484
= 1 : 1 : 11 : 14
∴ empirical formula is Zn SO11H14
Let Molecular formula be ( ZnSO11 H14 ) n
RMM for the molecular = n(65 + 32 + (11× 16) + 14

Formula = 287
287n = 287
n=1
∴ Molecular formula is Zn SO11H14
4
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
1. 1 Mole of a compound contains – [1]

(a) 6.023×1023 atoms (b) 6.023×1024 atoms
(c) 60.23×1023 atoms (d) 6.023×1025 atoms
2. Oxygen is – (a) Monovalent (b) Bivalent (c) Trivalent (d) Tetravalent [1]
3. What is the molecular formula for Calcium Hydroxide? [1]
(a) Ca (OH)2 (b) Ca OH (c) Ca2 OH (d) Ca H2
4. Neutron is [1]
(a) Chargeless and Massless (b) Chargeless and has Mass
(c) Has charge and Mass (d) Has charge and Massless.
5. State the law of constant Proportion? [2]
6. How many molecules of water are present in a drop of water which has a mass of [2]
50mg?
7. Find the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of an element [2]
X which is represented as 207 X 82 .
8. Define the terms:- a) Atomic number b) Mass number [2]

9. Which element will be more reactive and why → the element whose atomic [3]
number is 10 or the one whose atomic number is 11?
10. What are the failures of Dalton Atomic theory? [3]
11. Calculate the molecular Mass of [3]
a) Ammonium sulphate ( NH 4 ) 2 SO4 
b) Penicillin [C16 H18 N 2 SO4 ]
c) Paracetamol [C8 H 9 NO ]
12. The following questions are about one mole of sulphuric acid [ H 2 SO4 ] ? [?]
a) Find the number of gram atoms of hydrogen in it?
b) How many atoms of hydrogen does it have?
c) How many atoms (in grams) of hydrogen are present for every gram atom of
oxygen in it?
d) Calculate the number of atoms in H2SO4?
5
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. (A) Ans 02. (B)

Ans 03. (A) Ans 04. (B)
Ans 05. According to law of constant proportion, whatever the method of its formation, a
chemical compound in its pure state will always contain the same elements
combined together in the fixed ratio by mass.
Ans 06. We know that :-

1 mole of an compound = 6.023×1023 atoms
= Gram molecular mass
Gram Molecular mass of H2O = 18g
18 g = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
6.023 × 1023
1g = atoms
18
6.23 ×10 23 × 50 × 10−3
Now 50mg of H 2 O =
18
= 1.673×1021 molecules.
207
Ans 07. The element is X 82
Now, 82 = Atomic Number

207 = Mass Number.
a) Atomic number = number of protons
82 = Number of protons.
b) Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons
207 = 82 + Number of neutrons
207 – 82 = Number of neutrons
125 = Number of neutrons.
6
Ans 08. Atomic Number is defined as the total number of protons present in an atom.
Mass number is defined as the sum total of number of protons and the number of
neutrons present in an atom.
Ans 09. Element with atomic number 11 is more reactive than the one with atomic
number 10 because electronic configuration of atomic number 11 will be 2, 8, 1
so, it has to loose only 1e- from its outermost shall to be stable which is more
easy than the element with atomic number 10 because its electronic
configuration is 2, 8 and has 8e- in the outermost shell and hence is already
stable.
Ans 10. Failures of Dalton Atomic Theory are :-

1) Atom is not the smallest particle as it is made up of protons, neutrons and
electrons.
2) Atom’s mass can be cornered to energy (E = mc2) and hence can be
created and destroyed.
3) Atoms of one element have been charged into atoms of another element
through artificial transmutation of elements.
4) Atoms of same element need not resemble each other in all respects as
isotopes (Different of same element) exist.
5) Atoms of different elements need not differ in all respects as isobars
(same forms of different elements) exist.
Ans 11. a) Ammonium Sulphate ( NH 4 ) 2 SO4 
= [1× mass of N+4 × Mass of Hydngen ] × 2 + 1× Mass of sulphur +4 × Mass of oxygen

= [1×14 + 4 × 1] × 2 + 1× 32 + 4 × 16
= 18 × 2 + 32 + 64
= 36 + 32 + 64 = 132 g / mol.
b) Penicillin [C16 H18 N 2 SO4 ]
=16 × mass of carbon + 18 × Mass of hydrogen + 2 × Mass of Nitrogen + 1 ×

mass of sulphur + 4 × Mass of oxygen.
7
= 16 × 12 + 18 × 1 + 2 × 14 + 1 × 32 + 4 × 16
= 192 + 18 + 28 + 32 + 64 = 334 g /mol.
c) Paracetamol [C8 H 9 NO ]
= 8 × Mass of carbon + 9 × Mass of hydrogen + 1 × mass of Nitrogen + 1 × mass

of oxygen.
= 8 × 12 + 9 × 1 + 1 × 14 + 1 ×16
= 96 + 9 + 14 + 16
= 135 g /mol
Ans 12. 1 Mole of H2 SO4 = gram molecular Mass = 6.023 × 1023 molecules
a) In H2 So4 → 2 gram atoms of hydrogen are present
b) 6.023 × 1023 atoms = H2SO4
So, 2H = 2×6.023×1023
= 12.046×1023
c) In H2SO4;
for every 2 hydrogen there ave4 oxygen
4
so for 1 hydrogen = oxygen are present
2
= 2 oxygen are present
2
For 1 oxygen = hydrogen one present
4
= 0.5 Hydrogen are present
d) 1 Mole of H2SO4 = 6.023×1023 atoms.
8
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
1. Which of the following statements is correct? [1]

(a) Cathode rays travel in straight line and have momentum.
(b) Cathode rays travel in straight line and have no momentum
(c) Cathode rays do not travel in straight line but have Momentum.
(d) Cathode rays do not travel in straight line and have no momentum.
2. β –particles are represented as :- (a) −10 e (b) +10 e (c) −11e (d) 01e [1]
40 40
3. 18 Ar and 20 Ca are (a) Isotopes (b) Isobars (c) Isotones (d) Both b and c [1]
4. The maximum number of electrons in L shell is (a) 8 (b) 18 (c) 28 (d) 38. [1]
5. What are α, β and γ – rays composed of. [2]
6. What is meant by e/m ratio? What was the value of this ratio for a particle in the [2]
cathode rays?
7. Complete the following equations which describe nuclear charge – [2]

a) 23
11 Na + 01n → _______ + −10 e
b) 49 Be + 24 He → 01n + ______
c) 168 O + 01n → _______ + 24 He
8. Stat the properties of cathode rays? [2]
9. Write an experiment to show that cathode rays travel in straight line? [3]
10. What is radioactivity? What are the applications of radioisotopes? [3]
11. There are 2 elements C and B. C emits an α – particle and B emits a β – particle. [3]
How will the resultant elements charge?
12. What are isotopes? Name the isotopes of hydrogen and draw the structure of their [3]
atoms?
9
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. (A) Cathode rays travel in straight line and have momentum.
0
Ans 02. (A) −1 e
Ans 03. (B) Isobars
Ans 04. (A) 8.
Ans 05. α-particles are made up of helium ions with +2 charge.

β-rays are negatively charged particles and are fast moving electrons.
γ- rays are neutral but are high frequency electromagnetic radiation.
e
Ans 06. ratio is the ratio of charge of the particle to mass of those particle.
m
e
The ratio for cathode rays was found out to be 1.759×1011 C / Kg.
m
Ans 07. In any nuclear reaction, mass number (no. of p+ + no. of no) and atomic
number (no. of p+) must be conserved.
23
1) 11 Na + 01n → 12
24
Mg + −10 e
2) 49 Be + 24 He → 01n + 126 C
3) 168 O + 01n → 136 C + 24 He
Ans 08. Properties of cathode rays are :-

1) They travel in straight line
2) They have momentum and energy
3) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
Ans 09. Experiment to show that cathode rays travel in straight line:-
a) Take a discharge tube coated with a fluorescent substance
b) Place an opaque object in the path of the cathode rays.
10
c) When cathode rays were made to pass through the discharge tube then
discharge the glowed wherever cathode rays fall except in the region of the
shadow of the opaque object.
d) The above experiment shows that cathode rays travel is straight line.
Ans 10. The spontaneous emission of radiation by a substance is called as radioactivity.

Applications of radioisotopes:-
a) Isotope of CO-60 emits r-radiation which is used in radiotherapy for cancer.
b) Iodine-131 is used in diagnosis and treatment of disease of the thyroid gland.
c) Isotope P-32 is used in treatment of leukemia.
d) Carbon – 14 is used to study biochemical processes.
Ans 11 When a α-particle is released, atomic number decreases by 2-units and mass
number decrease by 4- units. When a β particle is releases by 1 unit and mass
number remains the same.
So, c-emits a α-particle so,
A− 4
Z C → Z − 2 C + 2 He
A 4
The resultant element will have its atomic number decreases by 2 units and mass
number decreases by 4 units.
B-emits a β-particle, so,
Z B → Z +1 B + −1 e
A A 0
The atomic number of B increases by 1 unit and mass number remains same.
Ans 12. Isotopes are atoms of the same element having same atomic number and
different mass number.
There are 3 isotopes of hydrogen:-
orbits
1) Protium = 11H e e
orbits e
2
2) Deuterium - H 1
+
+ +
3) Tritium = 13 H P+ Nucleus P P Nucleus P+ +
P P
p+ = Proton Protium Deuterium Tritium
e- = electron.
11
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
1. Atomic Number of an element is equal to:- [1]

(a) Number of Protons (b) Number of electrons
(c) Number of neutrons (d) Both a) and b)
2. The charge of proton (p+) is :- [1]

(a) +1.6 × 10-19C (b) -1.6 × 10-19C
(c) +1.6 × 1019C (d) -1.6 × 1019C
3. 20 22 [1]
Ne and Ne are (a) Isotopes (b) Isobars (c) Isotones (d) Both a) and b)
10 10
4. 4  [1]
Helium  He  has :-
2 
(a) 2 P + and 2 no (b) 2P + and 4no (c) 4 P + and 2 no (d) 2P + and 4no
5. The nucleus of an atom of Bi – 210 (atomic number = 83) emits a β -particle and [2]
becomes a polonium nuclide. Write as equation for the nuclear change described.
6. How can one conclude that electrons are fundamental particles? [2]
7. What happens to the nucleus of an atom when it emits a r-ray? [2]
8. Write the electronic configuration of following ions:- [2]

(a) Cl- (b) Mg (c) Al3+ (d) O
9. In a gold – foil experiment :- [3]

a) Why did many α – particles pass through the gold foil undeflected?
b) Why did few α – particles deflect through small angles.
c) Why did few α – parties, after striking the gold foil, retrace their path.
10. Compare the three major particles in atoms with respect to their mass and charge? [3]
11. Write an experiment to show cathode rays are deflected by magnetic fields? [3]
12. Write the postulates of Bohr theory? [3]
12
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Number of Protons
Ans 02. +1.6 × 10-19C
Ans 03. Isotopes
Ans 04. 2 P + and 2 no
Ans 05. Whenever a β – particle is emitted, atomic number increase by 1 unit and mass
number remains same. So. Equality is
210 210 0
Bi → Po + e
83 84 −1
e
Ans 06. Electrons were concluded to be the fundamental particles because the ratio of
m
electron remains same irrespective of the nature of gas and electrodes inside the
discharge tube.
Ans 07. When a nucleus emits a γ – ray than there is no change in the mass or charge of
nuclide but energy of nuclide decreases by an amount equal to energy of photon
emitted.
Ans 08. a) Cl- ⇒ electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8

b) Mg ⇒ electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
c) Al3+ ⇒ electronic configuration = 2, 8
d) O = electronic configuration = 2, 6.
Ans 09. a) Many α – particle passed through the gold foil undeflected shows that
most of the space inside the atom was empty.
b) Few α – particles deflected through small angles shows that there is
positive charge at the centre of the gold foil.
c) Few α – particle after striking the gold foil retrace their path shows that
the positively charged centre was concentrated in a very small volume
of space and was called nucleus.
13
Ans 10.
Particles Symbol Mass Charge
1. Proton P+ 1836(9.1×10-31)Kg +1.6 × 10-19C
2. Neutron No 1836(9.1×10-31)Kg O
3. Electron e- 9.1× 10-31 Kg -1.6 × 10-19C
Inside an atom, proton and neutron are concentrated at the centre in a nucleus
and electrons revolve around the nucleus in definite circular orbits.
Ans 11. Experiment to show that cathode rays were deflected by magnetic fields :-
1) Take a discharge tube with fluorescent material on its inside.
2) Place a horse – shoe magnet in the centre of the discharge tube.
3) When cathodic rays are produced and travel through discharge tube,
then cathode rays get deflected by the magnets in the direction of anode
showing that they are deflected by magnetic field and also that they are
negatively charged.
- +
Discharge
N S Tube
Anode
florescence
Magnet
Cathode
Ans 12. The postulates of Bohr’s theory are :-

1) Electron move around the nucleus in definite circular path called orbits.
2) Each orbit is associated with a fixed amount of energy.
3) The larger the radius of the orbit, the greater is the energy of the electrons
in them.
4) Electrons can move from one orbit to another by gaining or losing a fixed
amount of energy.
14
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
1. In which form is oxygen stable? [1]
(a) O2- (b) O2+ (c) O (d) Both a) and c)
2. How many electrons does Na+ has in its Outermost shell? [1]
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 18 (d) 8
3. Atomic number of an element during a Chemical reaction. [1]
(a) Increases (b) Remain Constant (c) Decreases (d) May be a) or c)
4. The molecular formula for Aluminum chloride us [1]
(a) Al3 Cl (b) Al Cl3 (c) AlCl3 (d) Both b and c
5. State Mendeleev’s Periodic law? [2]
6. Define ionization energy and electron affinity? [2]
7. Why is atomic number is more important than atomic weight in predicting the [2]
chemical properties of elements?
8. What are the advantages of the Periodic Table? [2]
9. Explain the variation of atomic radius along a period and down a group. [3]
10. Why metals are electropositive and non-metals are electronegative in nature? [3]
11. Explain the formation of Al3+ ion and why is it formed? [3]
15
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. O2-
Ans 02. 8
Ans 03. Remain Constant
Ans 04. Al Cl3
Ans 05. According to Mendeleev’s Periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of
elements and periodic function of their atomic weight (mass).
Ans 06. Ionization energy of an element is the amount of energy that must be supplied to
one mole of the element in the gaseous state to obtain one mole of caters in the
gaseous state.
Electron affinity →pt is the energy change that accompanies the formation of one
mole of anions in the gaseous state from one mole of the atoms of the element in
the gaseous state.
Ans 07. Atomic number is the number of protons in an atom and during a chemical
reaction the number of protons remains unchanged. Atomic number also gives
number of electrons. Electrons are present in shell which participate in chemical
reactions and decides chemical properties. Whereas atomic weight is the sum of
number of protons and number of neutrons so atomic number is more important
in predicting the chemical properties of elements.
16
Asn 08. Advantages of periodic Table are :-
1) The chemical properties of the element of the same group are similar.
2) The physical properties show a gradual variation down a group.
3) There is a definite trend in the properties of elements along a period.
4) The trend of properties helps to predict the method of preparation and
properties of other elements.
Ans 09. Atomic radius increases down a group because as we move along a group the
atomic number increases and the number of shells also increases and the
distance of the nucleus from the outermost election increases as it gets far away
from the nucleus.
Atomic radius decreases along a period because as we move from left to right
along a period, the atomic number of the atom increases, and the positive charge
nucleus and electrons are added to the same orbit and increased nuclear charge
will increase the force of attraction of the electrons.
Ans 10. Metals are electropositive in nature because all metals loose electrons from their
outermost shell in order to become stable and hence become positively charged.
Non-metals are electronegative in nature because all non-metals gain electrons
in order to become stable and hence become negatively charged.
Ans 11. Because Al has atomic number of 13, its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 3 so in
order that it becomes stable, it should have 8 electrons in its lose 3e- from its
outermost shell and as result it has 8 e- in the outermost shell and forms Al3+ ion.
23 13 P
P
3+
Al Al ion
17
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
1. Atomicity of fluorine is :- (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 [1]
2. Molecular formula for calcium fluoride is – [1]

(a) Ca F2 (b) Ca F (c) Ca2 F (d) 2 Ca F
3. Electronic configuration of calcium is [1]

(a) 2, 8, 8, 2 (b) 2, 8, 6, 4 (c) 2, 8, 7, 1 (d) 2, 8, 1, 7.
4. Nitrogen is :- (a) Monatomic (b) Diatomic (c) Triatomic (d) Tetratomic [1]
5. Which of the following electronic configuration are wrong and why? [2]
(a) 2, 8, 2 (b) 2, 8, 8, 2 (c) 2, 8, 9, 1.
6. What are ions? What are its two types? [2]
7. Show diagrammatically the formation O2- ion? [2]
8. Define Isotopes and Isobars? [2]
9. Find the percentage composition of sucrose ( C12 H 22O11 ) . [3]
10. Complete the following Table : [3]

Ion Number of Atomic Number of Atomic
electrons Number Neutrons Mass
a) 86
Rb + 37
B) 24
Mg 2+12
c) 80
Br − 35
11. Calculate [3]

a) The number of gram – atoms of oxygen
b) The number of atom of oxygen
c) The number of molecules of ozone in 32 g of ozone [O3]
12. What mass of water will contain the same number of molecules as 8,0g of ferrous [3]
oxide [FeO] ?
18
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. 2.
Ans 02. Ca F2
Ans 03. 2, 8, 8, 2.
Ans 04. Diatomic.
Ans 05. 2, 8, 9, 1 is wrong because after filling 8 electrons in third shell next two
electrons in the fourth shell to maintain stability of an atom.
Ans 06. When one or more electrons are removed from a neural atom, a positively
charged particle is formed and this is called an ion. It is of two types
1) Cation
2) Anion.
Ans 07. The atomic number of oxygen [0] = 8

Electronic configuration of 0=2, 6 ie so, it needs only 2 electrons to complete its
outermost orbit and hence on gaining 2e- it be comes O2- ion and electronic
configuration is 2, 8.
8P
8n
Ans 08. Isotopes are atoms which have same atomic number but different mass number
for eg: 126 C 146 C .
Isobars are atoms which have the same mass number but different atomic
number eg : 40 40
18 Ar 19 K .
19
Ans 09. The molecular mass of Sucrose ( C12 H 22O11 ) is
12 × (12) + 22 (1) + 11(16) C H O
= 144 + 22 + 176
342g of sucrose contains : 144g 22g 176g
= 342 g /mol.
100 X 144 22 X 100 176 X 100
100g of sucrose contains : 342 342 342
The composition of sucrose
42.11g 6.43g 51.46g
by Mass is
C = 42.11%
H=6.43%
O=51.46%
Ans 10. An element is represented as ZA X

X – Symbol of element; Z=Atomic number A=Mass Number.
Z = Atomic Number = No. of protons
Number of protons = Number of electrons
A = Mass Number = No. of protons + No of neutrons.
Ion Number of electrons Z N A

86 +
a) Rb 37
36 37 49 86
24 2+
B) Mg 12
10 12 12 24
c) 80
Br − 35 36 35 45 80
Ans 11. 1 Mole of O = Gram Atomic Mass = Number of atoms

a) In oxygen, 2 gram – atoms are present
b) Gram Atomic mass of oxygen = 6.023 × 1023 atoms

= 1 Mole of oxygen
16g of oxygen (O) = 6.023 × 1023
6.023 × 1023 × 32
32g of oxygen (O 2 ) =
16
1.205 × 1024
c) 48g of O3 = 6.023 × 1023 molecules
6.023 × 1023
1g of O3 =
48
6.23 × 1023
32 g of O3 = × 32
48
= 4.015 × 1023
20
Ans 12. Gram Atomic Mass = 6.023×1023 atoms
So, 18g of H2O = 6.023×1023 atoms.
In FeO = 56+16= 72g
So, 72g of FeO = 6.023×1023
6.023 × 1023
1g of FeO =
72
6.023 ×10 23 × 8
8g of FeO =
72
8g of FeO = 0.669 ×1023
18 g of H 2 O = 6.023 ×1023 atoms
18
gms = 1 atoms
6.023 ×10 23
18 × 0.669 × 10 23
gm = 0.669 ×1023 atoms
6.023 × 10 23
2g of water contains = 0.669 ×1023

So, 2g of water will contain the same number of Molecules as 8 g of Feo.
21
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
CLASS - IX Science (Diversity in Living Organism)
1 The lowest category of classification is – [1]
(a) phylum (b) genus (c) species (d) family
2 Prokaryotic organism is found in kingdom. [1]
(a) protista (b) fungi, (c) monera (d) plantae
3 Which of the following structures are characteristics of reptiles but not of [1]
amphibians?
(a) Scales (b) Lungs (c) Smooth moist skin (d) Vertebral Column
4 Water vascular system is characteristic of. [1]
(a) porifera (b) Mollusca (c) Echinodermata (d) cnidaria
5 Name two egg laying mammals. [2]
6 Mention the features of vertebrates [2]
7 Give the technical name of the following – [2]
(a) pea (b) potato (c) tiger (d) humans
8 How pteridophytes different from phanerogams? [2]
9 What is the basis of grouping organisms into live kingdoms? [3]
10 Define – (a) bilateral symmetry (b) coelom (c) Triptoblastic [3]
11 Differentiate monocot and dicot plant. [3]

12 Write characteristics of angiosperms. [3]
22
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
[ANSWERS]
Ans1. Species
Ans2. Monera
Ans3. Scales
Ans4. Echinodermata
Ans5. Mammals give birth to young one but some mammals lay eggs like – platypus and
echidna
Ans6. a) Presence of tubular, dorsal, hollow nerve cord.

b) Presence of a solid, rod – like structure called the notochord at some stage.
c) triploblastic and coelomate
d) Presence of post – anal tail (reduced or absent in many adult chordates)
Ans7. a) Pisum sativum

b) Solanum tuberosum
c) Panthera tigris
d) Homo sapiens
Ans8. Pteridophyta has hidden reproductive organs. External flower or seeds are absent.
In phanerogams, well developed reproductive organs which produce seeds are
present
Ans9. Basis for the classification of five kingdom classification –

a) Cell structure
b) Mode and source of nutrition
c) Body organization
23
Ans10. Bilateral symmetry – Body can be divided into two similar halves only by one plane
that passes through the central or median axis eg – tortoise, humans.
Coelom – It is the body cavity which is lined externally as well as by regular layer of
mesoderm
Triploblastic – When the body of an animal develops form three germ layer –
ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm, are called triploblastic
Ans11.
Character Monocots ( Monocotyledonae ) Dicots ( Dicotyledonae )

1. seed – cotyledons One Two
2. seed – germination Hypogeal Epigeal or hypogeal
3. Root Primary root short lived, Primary root present.
adventitious fibrous root system (forming tap root system)
present
4. leaf Isobilateral – Parallel venation. Dorsiventral – Reticulate
venation
5. stem – cambium Absent Present
Ans12. Characteristics of angiosperms –

a) The angiosperms are the dominant group of land plants. These are the most
common flowering plants.
b) The angiosperms are seed bearing plants and the seeds are enclosed inside
the fruit formed from ovary.
c) Carpel is like of megasporophyll as gymnosperms, but it is differentiated
ovary, style and stigma
d) The pollen grain is received by the stigma causing pollination.
e) Ovary develops into fruit and ovules into seeds after the act of fertilization.
24
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
1 Which one of the following is not the exclusive trait of Arthropoda? [1]
(a) presence of wings (b) jointed appendages
(c) chitinous exoskeleton (d) presence of haemocoel
2 Pinus is a ---------- plant. [1]
(a) bryophytic (b) gymnospermous (c) Pteridophytic (d) angiosperms
3 Well defined nucleus is absent is – [1]
(a) blue green algae (b) diatoms (c) algae (d) yeast
4 Which is the simplest of the following many – celled animals? [1]
(a) sponge (b) hydra (c) starfish (d) jellyfish
5 Define – sporophyte and gametophyte [2]
6 What is alternation of generation? [2]
7 What is Binomial nomouclature? Who proposed it? [2]
8 State any two characteristic features of animals [2]
9 Write the main characteristics of Mammalia . [3]
10 Describe the general characteristics of Gymnosperms [3]
11 What is classification? What is the need of classification? What is the basis of [3]
classification?
12 Observe the figures given below and [3]
answer the following questions.
(a) which of the following animals are
invertebrates underline them
(b) name the underlined animals
(c) give two important characteristics
of underlined animals.
25
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
[ANSWERS]
Ans1. Presence of wings
Ans2. Gymnospermous
Ans3. Blue green algae
Ans4. Sponge
Ans5. sporophyte – It is the diploid (2n) phase or individuals in the life of an organism
and produce spores.
Gametophyte – It is the haploid (n) phase or individuals in the life – cycle of an
organism and produce gametes for sexual reproduction.
Ans6. When sporophyte diploid (2n) phase alternates to gametophyte haploid (n) phase or
vice versa. In order to complete life cycle, it is called alternation of generation. e.g
Obelia and fern etc.
Ans7. It is the naming system in which the name of the organism has two words first word
is the name of ‘genus’ and second word is the name of ‘species’ of the organism. It
was proposed by Carl Von Linnaeus.
Ans8. Characteristics of animals –

a) Animals are multicelluar organisms with heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
b) They have power of locomotion and possess nervous system.
Ans9. Characteristics of mammalia are –

a) Mostly terrestrial but found in all types of habitats
b) Body is of varied shape divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail.
c) Skin covered with hair and has sweat glands
d) They possess mammary glands which produce milk to nourish the young ones
e) Respiratory organs are lungs only.
f) The heart is four – chambered
Ans10. Characteristics of gymnosperms.

a) The stem is erect aerial branched or unbranhced.
b) The leaves are usually dimorphic i.e., presence of two types of leaves on a plant.
26
c) These are naked seeded plants i.e., their ovules are not enclosed in the ovary.
d) The microsporophyll (male reproductive organ) and megasporphyll (female
reproductive organ) are compactly arranged around the central axis forming
male cone & female cone respectively
Ans11. Classification – The process of grouping similar things into groups or categories on
the basis of similarities and differences is called classification.
Need of classification – It is very difficult to study large number of organisms
individually. So organism having similar characters grouped together and the
studied easily.
Classification – Cell structure, mode & source for the nutrition and body
organization.
Ans12. a) A, B, D
b) A – Amoeba, B – Starfish (asterias) D – Hydra.
c) i)Amoeba –
1. It is uninucleate
2. locomotion is by finger like pseudopodia
ii) Asterias (starfish) –
1. Body is radially symmetrical
2. Body cavity is modified into a water – vascular system with elastic tube –
like outword extension for locomotion called tube – feet or podia.
iii) Hydra –
1. Mouth is surrounded by tentacles which helps in feeding
2. Respiratory, circulatory and excretory organs are absent.
27
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
CLASS - IX BIOLOGY (Diversity in living organisms)
1. Which one is not a flightless bird? [1]

(a) Ostrich (b) kiwi (c) Penguin (d) Dove
2. Which phylum contains the greatest number of species of animals? [1]

(a) sponges (b) molluscs (c) Arthropods (d) Chordates.
3. Pteridophyta do not have – [1]

(a) root (b) stem (c) flowers (d) leaves.
4. Who is known as father of taxonomy? [1]

(a) Linnaeus (b) Darwin (c) Mendel (d) Watson
5. Name the group of plants with the following characters : [2]

a) Plants with out root, stem, leaf and flowers.
b) Plants lacking chlorophyll.
6. Name the various units of classification. [2]
7. Why are bacteria and fungi classified along with plants? [2]
8. Give difference between bony and cartilaginous fishes. [2]
9. Write characteristics of Aves. [3]
10. You are given an assortment of plants on laboratory table. What characteristics [3]
will you look for in order to label a particular specimen as –
(a) Angiosperm (b) Moss (c) Algae (d) Fungi (e) Gymnosperm.
11. What are the major divisions of the kingdom planate? What is the basis of these [3]
divisions?
12. Write characteristics of kingdom Animalia. [3]
28
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Dove

Ans 02. Arthropods
Ans 03. Flowers
Ans 04. Linnaeus.
Ans 05. (a) Thallophyta
(b) Fungi
Ans 06. Units of classification are – species, Genus family, order, class, Phylum (Division),
Kingdom.
Ans 07. Bacteria are kept under plants because they are mostly non-green and they
possess cell wall. Fungi is kept under plants because it do not move but it lacks
chlorophyll and derive nutrition from dead organic matter or by other methods.
Ans 08. In bony fishes skeleton is bony (made up of bones) while in cartilaginous fishes
skeleton is made up of cartilage.
Ans 09. Characteristics of aves are –
(i) Body is covered with feathers divided into head, neck and tail.
(ii) Birds are bipedal. The fore-limbs are modified into wings for flight.
(iii) Mouth is surrounded by a beak. Teeth are absent.
(iv) Skeleton is light because the long bones are hollow and contain air cavities.
(v) Respiration is by lungs which have air-sacs.
(vi) The heart is four – chambered.
Ans .10. Angiosperm – Flowering plants
Moss - Leaves and roots are absent, presence of rhizoids.
Algae - Absence of stem, root and leaves, presence of pigments.
Fungi - Non-green, made up of hyphae
Gymnosperm – Naked – seeded plants, i.e, seeds are not enclosed within the fruit.
29
Ans 11. Major division of kingdom plantae – thallophya, bryophyta, pteridophyta,
gymnosperms and angiosperms. This kingdom includes Basis for classification –
(a) All organisms which are multicellular, eukaryotic and green autotrophs.
(b) Green plants are further classified on the basis of differentiation of the plant
body.
(c) Second level of classification plant body has vascular tissue or not. Further
classification is based on (i) whether seeds are present or not. (ii) Whether seeds
are enclosed within fruit or not.
Ans 12. Characteristics of kingdom animalia are
(a) Animals are multicellular, eukaryotic organisms
(b) Animal nutrition is heterotrophic. They lack photosynthetic pigments.
(c) Animal lack cell walls.
(d) Animals possess the power of locomotion
(e) Most Animals have a nervous system which is used to coordinate their body
actions and response.
(f) In sexual reproduction, animals produce haploid male gametes (sperms) and
female gametes.
30
CBSE TEST PAPER-04
1. Presence of diaphragm is the characteristic feature of – [1]

(a) amphibian (b) reptile (c) mammals (d) Pisces.
2. The branch of Biology dealing with classification is known as – [1]

(a) Physiology (b) taxonomy (c) Paleontology (d) mycology
3. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to fungi? [1]

(a) Non-green (b) saprophytic or parasitic (c) Autotrophic (d) Heterotrophic
4. Which of the following is not a criterion for classification of living organisms? [1]
(a) Body design of the organism
(b) Ability to produce one’s own food
(c) Membrane bound nucleus & cell organelles
(d) Height to the plant
5. In what respects are lichens unusual plants? [2]
6. Name two coelenterates with diagrams. How do poriferan animals differ from [2]
coelenterate animals?
7. Differentiate between the heart of a fish and a birds? [2]
8. What is the difference notochord and nerve card? [2]
9. Name the group of plants known as “Amphibians of plant world”. Mention their [3]
three important characters.
10. Give three points of how birds have adapted themselves to an aerial mode of life. [3]
11. Give difference between vertebrates and invertebrates. [3]
31
CBSE TEST PAPER-04
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Mammals.

Ans 02. Taxonomy
Ans 03. Autotrophic
Ans 04. Height to the plant.
Ans 05. A lichen is a close partnership between an alga and a fungus. The algal cells grow
in the fungal mycelium. Alga make food by photosynthesis. The fungus provides
shelter and protection to the alga. Thus, both the alga and the fungus benefit.
This kind of association is called a symbiotic association.
Ans 06. Examples of coelenterates.

Poriferans are the simplest
multicellular and branched. The
cells are loosely held together and
do not form tissue Coelenterates
have one continuous central cavity
called coelentron.
Ans 07. Heart of fish is two chambered – auricle and ventricle whereas birds have four
chambered heart.
Ans 08. Notochord is a solid stiff but flexible rod like structure gives vertebral column in
higher chordates (animals) while nervecord is a solid or hollow tube like
structure gives brain and spinal cord (nervous system)
Ans 09. Bryophytes are the plants which lives on land and in water so they are called
amphibians of the plant kingdom. These plants shows following character -
32
(a) The plant body is either thallus – like (thalloid) or leaf like (foliose)
(b) True leaves and roots are lacking; the plants are anchored to the soil by
means of filamentous rhizoids.
(c) Plant body is green and autotrophic
(d) The vascular tissue are absent.
Ans 10. Adaptations of birds to aerial mode of life.

(a) Their body is covered with feathers.
(b) Forelimbs are modified into wings
(c) They have hollow bones which helps them in flight.
Ans 11.
Vertebrates Invertebrates
a Internal skeleton present Internal skeleton absent.
b Vertebral column (backbone) present Vertebral column (backbone) absent
c Two pairs of limbs present. Three or more pairs of limbs if present
d A tail is usually present. A tail is absent
e Body covered by hair Hair are not present
f Nerve cord is dorsally located. Nerve cord is ventrally located.
33
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
CLASS - IX Science (Work and Energy)
1. S.I. unit of power is :- (a) J/s (b) Js (c) s/J (d) Js2 [1]
2. If the body starts from rest, then change in its kinetic energy is [1]
(a) positive (b) Negative
(c) Zero (d) May be Positive or negative depending upon the mass of the body
3. Which of the following quantities have same units? [1]
(a) Power and energy (b) Power and work
(c) work and energy (d) None of the above
4. If a body is stored at a height ‘h’ then it will posses :- [1]
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (c) Both (d) None
5. If a huge force acts on an object, but the displacement of the object is zero then [2]
what can we say about the work done?
6. Differentiate between Potential and kinetic energy? [2]
7. State the law of conservation of energy? [2]
8. A man of mass 50 Kg runs up a flight of stairs having a rise of 5m, is 4s. [2]
a) What is the work done by the man?
b) What is the average power developed by the man?
9. In the force – displacement graph, calculate the F(N)
[3]
work done during A B
8
a) the interval 0<x<2 m
b) the interval 2<x<6 m
c) the interval 0<x<9 m C x(m)
0 2 6 9
E D
10. Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of the body? Calculate the kinetic [3]
energy for a body of mass 5 Kg moving a velocity 2.5m/s2
11. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 40m/s. [3]
a) At what height will its kinetic energy and potential energy be equal
b) Calculate the P. E. of the body if its mass = 10Kg
12. A body of mass 5Kg is lifted vertically at a constant velocity of 12m. calculate [3]
a) the force applied
b) work done in lifting the body
c) what happens to the work performed ?
34
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. J/s
Ans 02. Positive
Ans 03. Work and energy
Ans 04. Potential energy
Ans 05. Work done on the body is defined as the force applied on the body producing a
net displacement on the body.
Work Done = Force × Displacement
If the application of force produces no displacement the work done on the body
is zero.
Ans 06.
Potential energy Kinetic energy
1) It is the energy possessed by the It is the energy possessed by the body
body on the virtue of its position. on the virtue of its motion.
2) Potential energy = Mgh 1
Kinetic energy = mv 2
M= Mass 2
g = Acceleration due to gravity M = Mass
h = Height V = velocity
3) eg of potential energy water stored eg :- a moving car
in a upper head tank
Ans 07. According to law of conservation of energy :-

1) energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, it can only be changed from
one form to another
2) energy of the universe is constant.
Ans 08. Mass of Man = 50Kg

Distance moved = 5m
Time Taken = 4s
a) work Done = Force × Acceleration
In this case, Increase in Potential energy =
Work done = Mgh
= 50×10×5
= 2500J
35
work Done
b) Power =
Time Taken
2500
=
4
= 625w
Ans 09. Since area under a force displacement graph gives the work done, hence
a) for 0<x<2
work Done = Area of triangle OAE
1
= × Base × Height
2
1
= × OE × AE
2
1
= × 2×8
2
= 8J
b) for 2<x<6
work Done = Area of rectangle A BED
= Length × Bneadth
= A B × BD
= 4× 8
=32J
c) for 6<x<9
work Done = Area of triangle DBC
1
= × Base × Height
2
1
= × DCBD
2
1
= × 3× 8
2
= 12J
Ans 10. Kinetic energy of the body is defined as the energy possessed by the virtue of
motion of the body.
Let a body of mass ‘m’ is at rest.

A force F N acts on it and produces an acceleration of a m/s2 and it acquires a
velocity of v m/s and moves a distance of s m.
Now, from third equation of motion
36
v 2 = u 2 + 2as
v 2 = o + 2as
v2
o= ( u = o ∵ body starts from rest )
2s
From Newton’s second law,
F = ma
m × v2 mv 2
= =
2s 2s
Work Done on the moving Body = Kinetic energy
= Force × Dis tan ce
mv 2 1
= × s = mv 2
2s 2
Mass = 5Kg
Velocity = 2.5m/s
1
K. E = mv 2
2
1
= × 5 × ( 2.5 )
2
2
3125
=
2 × 100
1562.5
=
100
K. E = 15.625J
Ans 11. Initial velocity = u = o

Final velocity = v = 40m/s
M = Mass of the body
1
a) Kinetic energy = K. E. = mv 2
2
Potential energy = P.E= mgh
Now, K. E = P.E
1 2
mv = mgh
2
1
m × ( 40 ) m × g × h
2
2
1600
= gh
2
800 = gh
800 80m = h
=h
10
37
b) PE = mgh
PE =10×10×80
P.E. = 8000J
Ans 12. Mass = m = 5Kg

Height = h = 12m.
g = Acceleration due to gravity= 10m/s2
a) P.E. = mgh
= 5×12×10
= 600J
b) Force = ?
Work done = P. E. energy of the Body
Force × Distance Moved = 600
F × 12 = 600
F = 50N
c) The work done in lifting the body gets stored as the potential energy.
38
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
1. If the force applied on the body distances the body in the opposite direction of [1]
force applied then work done is
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Data incomplete
2. If the force is applied at an angle θ then work done is [1]

(a) W = FS Cos θ F = Force (b) W = FS θ S = Distance
(c) W = FS Sin θ W = work (d) None
3. What is the work done in lifting a body of mass 5Kg vertically through 9m? [1]
(a) 450J (b) -450J (c) 45J (d) 540J
4. How are Joule (J) and ergs (erg) related? [1]

(a) 1J = 107 erg (b) 1erg = 107 J (c) 1J = 10-7 erg (d) None
5. State the difference between Power and energy? [2]

6. Write the expression for [2]
a) the potential energy of the body b) the kinetic energy of the body
7. If a 100J of work was done, when a force of 12.5N acts, what was the distance [2]
moved by the force?
8. A 1800 Kg car is moving at 30m/s. when brakes are applied. If the average force [2]
exerted by the brakes is 6000N, find the distance travelled by the car before it
comes to rest?
9. Derive an expression for the potential energy of the body. Calculate P.E of body of [3]
mass 10Kg at a height of 10m.
10. Show that total energy is conserved if the ball of mass ‘m’ is the thrown [3]
downwards from a height ‘h’
11. What is Power? Show that power = Force × velocity? Calculate power of a body of [3]
Mass 10Kg accelerating with 10m/s2 acquires a velocity of 5m/s?
12. What do you understand by the units of electrical energy? How many joules of [3]
energy is consumed if the electrical meter shows 400 units of energy?
39
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Negative
Ans 02. W = FS Cos θ F = Force
Ans 03. 450J
Ans 04. 1J = 107 erg
Ans 05.
Power Energy
1) It is the rate of doing work or work It is ability of a body to do work.
done per unit time.
2) S.I. units of Power are Joule/second S.I. units of energy are Joules.
Ans 06. a) Potential energy of = P.E = mgh

m = Mass of Body
g = Acceleration due to gravity
h = Height
1
b) Kinetic energy of = mv 2
2
the body
m = Mass of body
v = Velocity of body
Ans 07. W = Work = 100J

Force = F = 12.5N
Distance Moved
S = Displacement
Since, work done = Force × Distance moved
W = FS
100 = 12.5 × 5
100 × 10
=S
12.5
1000
=S 8m = S
125
40
Ans 08. M = Mass of car = 1800Kg
V = velocity of car = 30 m/s
F = Force = 6000N
1
K. E = mv 2
2
1
= 1800 × 900
2
K E = 810000J
K. E of car = work done by the car = force × Displacement
810000 = 6000 × Displacement
810000
= Displacement
6000
135m = Displacement
Ans 09. Potential energy of a body of mass = m Kg at a height = h m from the ground.
Gravitational force of attraction on the body = mgN
In order to lift this body to B at h m above the ground.

In order to lift this body with a constant velocity, force applied = mg N
Distance moved by force = h m
Work done in lifting the body from a to B = Force × Distance
= mg × h = mgh
Energy spent in lifting the body to height ‘h’. As energy cannot be destroyed, this
energy gets stored in the body as its potential energy
m = 10 Kg
P. E = mgh
g = 10 m/s2
h = 10 m
P. E = mgh
= 10×10×10
= 1000 Joules
Ans 10. According to law of conservation of energy, energy is neither created nor be
destroyed. It can be only changed from one form to another.
Consider a body of mass ‘m’ at rest at A at an elevation ‘h’ from the ground.
Total energy at A
Potential energy of the body = mgh
As the body is at rest, K. E = O
Total energy of the body at A = PE + KE
= mgh + O
= mgh
41
Total energy on the ground :-
Let the body fall to ground As it strikes the ground, its elevation is O.
∴ P. E. w. rt. Ground = O
Let us find its velocity as it strikes the ground at B.
As it falls freely, vo = O
Acceleration = -gm/s2
Distance Travelled = -h
v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh
v 2 = 2 ( − g )( − h )
v 2 = 2 gh
1 1
K .E = mv 2 = × m × 2 gh = mgh
2 2
Total energy of the body on ground = KE + PE
= mgh + O
= mgh
Total energy at point C.
Let the ball fall through x and be at C during its fall.
Elevation of the body at c = h – x
Potential energy at C = mg (h – x)
Let the velocity at C be v
v 2 = u 2 + 2as
v 2 = 2 ( − g )( − x )
= 2gx
1 1
KE = mv 2 = × m × 2 gx = mgx
2 2
Total energy at C = mg (h – x) + mgx
= mgh
i. e total energy at all point of the fall is always same.
Ans 11. Power is the rate at which work is done

Work Done
Power =
Time taken
Unit of Power is watt (w)
Work Done(w)
P = Power =
Time taken(t)
Force × Displacement (F × S)
P=
Time taken(t)
42
F ×S
P=
t
S
= v = velocity
t
Mass = 10 Kg
a = acceleration = 10m/s2
v = 5 m/s
P = F ×v
P = M ×a ×v P = FV
P = 10 × 10 × 5
P = 500 W
Ans 12. Unit of electrical energy is defined as the energy spent (or used) by electrical
appliance at the rate of 1 kw for 1 hr.
or 1 unit = 1 kwh
Now, 1kwh = 1000w ×3600s
= 3.6×106ws
1Joule( J )
1w =
1sec ond ( S )
3.6 × 106 J × S
1unit = 1Kwh = = 3.6 × 106 J
S
So, if 400 units of electrical energy is consumed then,
1Unit = 3.6 × 106 J
3.6
400Units = × 106 × 400 J
10
400units = 144×107J
43
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
CLASS - IX Science (Sound)
1. Wavelength of sound wave has units :- [1]

(a) metres (b) metres/sound (c) (metres)2 (d) meters/second2
2. Light is a (a) Longitudinal wave (b) Transverse wave (c) Both (d) None [1]
3. In compression, pressure density is [1]
(a) High (b) Less
(c) Remains same (d) May be a) or b) depending upon disturbance
4. Frequency of ultrasonic sound wave is [1]

(a) Greater than 20 HZ (b) Greater than 20,000 HZ
(c) Greater than 2 HZ (d) Greater than 2 MHZ
5. Differentiate between longitudinal and transverse wave? [2]

6. Define the terms:- 1) Wavelength 2) Frequency [2]
7. An underwater device directs ultrasounds of frequency 75 KHZ towards water [2]
surface. What is the wavelength of sound in the air above the water surface and
what is its frequency? Speed of sound in air = 340m/s.
8. What is an echo? Name two areas of its application? [2]

9. What happens when sound travels in air? [3]
10. Establish the relation for a wave that velocity = frequency X wavelength. [3]
11. When a wave travels from one medium to another, the wavelength changes but [3]
not the frequency. The wavelength of sound disturbance 30 cm in air and of the
wave velocity is 340 m/s. What will be the wavelength of this disturbance in
Helium & water? The speed of sound in helium is 970 m/s and 1450 m/s in water?
12. Sound waves of wavelength λ travel from a medium in which its velocity is v m/s [3]
into another medium in which if velocity is 3 v m/s. What is the wavelength of the
sound λ in the second medium?
44
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Metres
Ans 02. Transverse wave
Ans 03. High
Ans 04 . Greater than 20,000 HZ
Ans 05.
Longitudinal wave Transverse Wave
1. In this, particles of the medium In the, particles of the medium
oscillate parallel to the direction of oscillate perpendicular to the
propagation of wave direction of propagation of wave
2. eg:- Sound waves eg :- Light waves.
Ans 06. A) The distance between two consecutive rest or two consecutive troughs is
known as the wavelength of the wave.
b) The number of vibrations that particle covers in 1 second is called the
frequency wave.
Ans 07. When sound wave travels from one medium to another, the frequency remain
unchanged while the wavelength and velocity change
Frequency in air = 75,000 HZ
v 340
Wavelength, λ = = = 4.53 × 10−3 m
f 75, 000
Ans 08. When sound waves strike a surface, they are reflected with the same velocity and
the reflected sound wave are heard as echo. It is used in SONAR and detecting
flaws in metal objects.
Ans 09. When sound wave travels through air then the pressure and density of air
changes. As the disturbance propagates through a medium, then alternate
regions of pressure variations are created.
The region where particle come closer to each other (high density) and pressure
of air is high is called as compression. The region where particles far apart from
each other (low density) and pressure of air is less is called as rarefaction
compression and rarefactions always occur together.
45
Distance Travelled
An s10. Since, velocity =
Time Taken
For a wave, for one vibration, the distance b/w two consecutive crest or trough is
called its wavelength ( λ ) .
Time required to complete one vibration is called its Time Period (T).
λ
so,ν =
T
1
Now,ν = λ ×
T
1
= γ ( frequency of wave )
T
ν =λ γ
γ (Frequency) is defined as the no. of vibrations particle covers in 1 second.
Ans 11. Wavelength of sound disturbance ( λ ) = 30cm

Wave velocity of sound ( γ ) = 340 m/s
ν = γ λ (velocity = frequency × wavelength)
30
340 = γ × m
100
340 × 100
=γ
30
3400 / s
⇒ =γ
3
a) Helium :→ speed of sound = 970m/s
ν =γ λ
3400
970 = ×λ
3
970 × 3
=λ
3400
0.856m = λ
b) water :→ speed of sound = 1450 m/s

ν =γ λ
3400
1450= ×λ
3
1450 × 3
=λ
3400
1.28m = λ
46
Ans 12. Since velocity = wavelength × frequency
ν =λf
ν
f =
λ
Now, when waves moves from one medium to another, the frequency remains
the same
ν1 ν 2
=
λ1 λ2
Now, when velocity in first Medium = 1 =
velocity in Second Medium = 3v
ν 3ν
=
λ1 λ2
λ1 1
=
λ2 3
λ
λ2 = 1
3
The wavelength of the sound in the second medium is one – third of the
wavelength in the first Medium.
47
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
1. S. I. units of frequency are :- [1]

(a) second (b) second-1 (c) (second)2 (d) decond-2
2. Stethoscope work on the principle of :- [1]

(a) Multiple reflection of sound (b) Ultrasounds
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
3. Audible Range of human ear is :- [1]

(a) 20 HZ – 20 KHZ (b) 20 HZ – 20 MHZ
(c) 20HZ – 20,000 HZ (d) Both a) and b)
4. The order of bones is human area from outside to inside :- [1]

(a) Hammer, stirrup Anvil (b) Hammer, Anvil and stirrup
(c) Anvil, Stirrup and Hammer (d) Stirrup, Hammer and Anvil
5. Why are sound waves called as mechanical waves? [2]

6. Define a) Time Period b) Amplitude of a wave [2]
7. What do you understand by loud and soft sound? [2]
8. A sound wave travels at a speed of 340m/s. If the wavelength of wave is 1.4m, [2]
what is the frequency of wave?
9. Sound requires a medium to travel? Justify experimentally. [3]

10. A cork on the surface of water moves up down completing five vibrations in 4s. [3]
The waves travel from a cork to the shore which is 20m away in 10s calculate
(a) the speed (b) frequency (c) wavelength
11. An observer far away from a railway station hears the train starting. The sound [3]
arrives both from the steel rails and through air with a time difference of 3.5s. How
far is the railway station from the observer? The speed of sound in air and steal is
340m/s and 5130m/s respectively?
12. How can ultrasound be used to detect the defect in metal block? [3]
48
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Second-1
Ans 02. Multiple reflection of sound
Ans 03. Both a and b
Ans 04. Hammer, stirrup Anvil.
Ans 05. Mechanical waves are those which requires a medium for their propagation,
Since sound also requires medium for its Propagation, hence is a mechanical
wave.
Ans 06. a) Time Period of a wave :- The time required by a wave to complete one
vibration is called time Period.
b) Amplitude :- The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on
either side of mean value is called the amplitude of wave.
Ans 07. Louder sound :- Sound which have w a v e D is tr u rb a n c e
higher amplitude and high energy

are called louder sound
T im e
w a v e D is t r u r b a n c e
Softer sound :- Sound which have

lesser amplitude and less energy are T im e
called soft sound.
49
Ans 08. Speed of sound wave = 340m/s
Wavelength of sound wave = 1.4m
Frequency = ?
Since, velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
V =γ λ
340=γ × 1.4
340 × 10
=γ
1.4
1700
=γ
7
242.85 / s = γ ( frequency )
Ans 09. Sound requires medium for propagation and it can be proved by following
experiment:-
1) Take a bell jar and suspend an electric bell in it,
2) The bell jar is connected to a vacuum pump. Till the air is in the bell jar, the
sound of the electric bell is louder.
3) Now, with the help of vacuum pump, pump out the air gradually
4) Now as air is pumped out, the sound of the bell gets fainter and fainter.
5) Now, when the bell jar is completely vacuumed no sound is heard.
6) This shows that air is required for propagation of sound.
Ans 10. Time required to complete 4 vibrations = 4 sec.

4
Time required to complete 1 vibrations sec.
5
Time required to complete 1 vibration = Time Period
4
Time Period (T) = second
5
1 5
γ ( frequency ) = = . / second
T 4
λ = 1.25 / second
Distance Travelled = 20m
Time taken = 10 second
Dis tan ce 20
Velocity = = = 2m / s
Time 10
Now, V = γ λ
Velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
50
2 = 1.25 × λ
2 × 100
=λ
125
200
=λ 1.6m = λ
125
So, a) Speed = 2m/s

b) wavelength = 1.6m
c) Frequency = 1.25/second
Ans 11. Let distance between railway station and observer = d

Speed of sound in air = 340m/s
Distance
Time taken by sound in air =
speed
d
= m
340
Speed of sound in steel = 5130m/s
d
Time taken by sound in steel = m
5130
Time difference between sound in steel and air
d d
3.5 = −
340 5130
5130d − 340d
3.5 =
340 × 5130
3.5 × 340 × 5130=4790d
3.5 × 340 × 5130
=d
4790 × 10
1274.46m = d
Ans 12. Ultrasound are those waves which have frequency greater than 20 KHZ. Now,
metal blocks are subjected to ultrasound at one end and at the other end,
detectors are placed. If the metal block does not contain any defect then
ultrasound travel through and are detected by detectors. If the metal block has
any defect, than from that region ultrasounds are not detected and gets reflected
back indicating the presence of defect in the block.
51
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
1. Which of the following is used in echocardiography? [1]

(a) Ultrasound waves (b) Infrasound waves
(c) X-Ray waves (d) Both a) and c)
2. Infrasound is produced by:- [1]

(a) Bats (b) Dogs (c) Rhinoceros (d) Rats
3. Speed of sound is maximum in :- [1]

(a) Solids (b) Liquids (c) Gases (d) Plasma
4. Inner Ear is called as [1]

(a) cochlea (b) Pinna (c) Hammer (d) Anvil
5. What do you understand by low pitched and high pitched sound? [2]
6. Why do we see light first and hear the sound later during thunderstorm? [2]
7. What are laws of reflection of sound? [2]
8. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved? [2]
9. What is reverberation? What is done to reduce it? [3]
10. Discuss briefly the structure and working of human ear? [3]
11. A man standing in a valley between two parallel mountains fires a gun and hears [3]
echo at an interval of 2 s and 3.5s. what is
a) the distance between two mountains
b) the location of the man with respect to the mountain.
12. What is SONAR? Write its working? [3]
52
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Ultrasound waves

Ans 02. Rhinoceros
Ans 03. Solids
Ans 04. Cochlea
Ans 05. High pitch sound are those sound which have higher frequency that is in 1
second they complete large number of vibrations.
Low pitch sound are those sound which have lesser frequency that is in 1 second
they complete less number of vibrations
wave Distrurbance
wave Distrurbance
Time Time
Low pitch sound High pitch sound
Ans 06. Since speed of light is greater than the speed of sound hence it travels faster and
is seen first during a thunderstorm.
Ans 07. Laws of reflection of sound :-

1) The incident, normal and reflected all lie in the same plane
2) Angle of incidence of sound is equal to angle of reflection of sound.
Ans 08. Ceilings of concert halls are corned so that sound after reflection from the curved
surface which have greater surface area, can reach to all places of halls.
Ans 09. The repeated reflection of sound that results in the persistence of sound is celled
as reverberation. We can reduce reverberation by:-
1) Covering roofs and walls of auditorium with sound absorbing materials
2) seat materials is also selected on the basis of sound absorbing property
z
53
Ans 10. Structure of human ear:-
Outer ear is called pinna followed by an
auditory canal in which ends in a tympanic
membrane. The tympanic membrane is
then connected to three bones, hammer,
anvil and stirrup. Then there is cochlea
connected to an auditory nerve.
Working of human ear →
The pinna collects the sound and collected sound passes through reaches
auditory nerve. After which it forces the ear drum (tympanic membrane) to
vibrate. The vibrations are than amplified by 3 bones and the pressure variations
reaches the inner ear after which cochlea converts them to electrical signal.
Auditory nerve carries the electrical signal to brain and brain interprets them as
sound.
Ans 11. The speed of sound is air = 340m/s

The two mountains are marked as A & B and man is at P.
The first echo comes from mountain A.
Time taken by echo to reach man = 2s A B
Time taken by sound to trammel from P to A = 1s
Distance travelled by sound in 1S = 340m
The Distance of A from P = 340m P
The second Echo comes from mountain B.

Time taken by echo to reach Thomas = 3.5s
Time taken by sound to trend from P to A = 1.75s
Distance travelled by sound in 1.75 sec = 340 × 1.75
= 595m
Distance of B from P = 595m
Distance between mountains = 340 + 595 = 935m
Ans 12. SONAR stands for sound Navigation and Ranging. It uses ultrasonic waves. It
consists of a transmitter which produces and transmits ultrasonic waves. These
waves travel though water and after striking the object on the sea bed gets
reflected back and are sensed by detector. The waves are then converted to
electrical signals by detector. The time taken by wave to reach detector is
recorded. Now, distance of the object from the ship is calculated by wring
distance
formula speed = .
time
54
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
CLASS - IX BIOLOGY (Why do fall ill)
1. Which one of the following is not important for individual health? [1]
(a) Living in clean space (b) Good economic condition
(c) Social equality and harmony (d) Living in a large and well furnished house.
2. ‘Penicillin’, a life saving antibiotic, was discovered by [1]

(a) Alexander Fleming (b) Edward Jenner
(c) H.G. Khorana (d) William Harvey.
3. Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making anti-bacterial medicines [1]
because-
(a) Viruses make use of host machinery.
(b) Viruses are on the border line of living and non-living
(c)Viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own
(d) Viruses have a protein coat.
4. Which on of the following deficiency disease? [1]

(a) Diabetes (b) Malaria (c) Goitre (d) Tetnus
5. How are acute diseases different from chronic diseases? [2]
6. What is the full form of AIDS? Name the causal organism. [2]
7. State two conditions essential for keeping good health. [2]
8. Define (a) health (b) disease. [2]
9. Why are antibiotics not effective for viral disease. [3]
10. What is inflammation? What are the changes occur during inflammation? [3]
11. Why do some children fall ill more frequently than others living in the same [3]
locality?
12. How can the disease be prevented? [3]
55
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Living in large furnished house.
Ans 02. Alexander Fleming
Ans 03. Viruses have very few bio-chemical mechanisms of their own.
Ans 04. Goitre.
Ans 05. Acute disease – Diseases which last for short periods of time and are severe are
called acute diseases.
Chronic disease – Diseases which are long lasting are called chronic diseases.
Ans 06. AIDS – Acquired Immuno deficiency syndrome It is caused by HIV – Human
Immuno deficiency virus.
Ans 07. Conditions for keeping good health are

(a) Public and personal hygiene
(b) Regular exercise, sleep and relaxation.
(c) Proper habits.
(d) Nutrition
Ans 08. Health – It is defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well being
and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
Disease – A disease in the malfunctioning of body organs due to one reason or
the other.
Ans 09. Antibiotics block the bacterial pathways without affecting the pathways of
humans. In the case of viruses, they have very few biochemical pathways of their
own. They use the metabolic machinery of host and grow and reproduce.
56
Ans 10. It is the recruitment process by immune system in which immune system
recruits many cells to the affected tissue to kill the disease causing germs.
During this process, certain local effects such as swelling and pain and general
effects such as fever may develop.
Ans 11. A system which protects our body from diseases and infections is known as
immune system. This system is developed in adults due to long term exposure to
environment. Children fall ill more frequently because they do not have well
developed immune system.
Ans 12. Diseases can be prevented by –

(a) By presenting exposure to disease causing microbes – For this, exposure to
over crowded areas can be avoided, source of drinking water must be checked,
and we must provide clean environments.
(b) By consuming proper and sufficient food / balanced diet.
(c)By immunization.
57
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
1. The chemical that kill or stop the growing of certain kinds of microbes are called- [1]
(a) vaccines (b) microbes (c) antibiotics (d) fungi
2. Choose the wrong statement – [1]

(a) High blood pressure is caused by excessive weight and lack of exercise.
(b) Cancers can be caused by genetic abnormalities.
(c) Peptic ulcers are caused by eating acidic food.
(d) Acne is not caused by staphylococci.
3. Rabies occurs through the bite of. [1]

(a) female Anopheles Mosquito (b) Female culex mosquito
(c) Rabid dog (d) housefly.
4. AIDS is caused by – [1]

(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Protozoa (d) Fungi
5. What are non-communicable diseases? Give examples. [2]
6. Define carriers. Give two examples. [2]
7. Why do children need vaccination? [2]
8. How can we prevent influenza? [2]
9. Give two examples for each of the following: [3]

(a) Chronic diseases (b) Infectious diseases (c) Non-infection diseases.
10. Give difference between vaccines and antibiotics. [3]
11. The body of a patient has lost its power of fighting against infections. Which [3]
disease may the patient be suffering from? Name the pathogen and describe any
two modes of its transmission from the patient to other person.
12. What are the means of spread of diseases? [3]
58
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Antibiotics.
Ans 02. Acne is not caused by staphylococci.
Ans 03. Rabid dog.
Ans 04. Virus.
Ans 05. Non-communicable diseases are those which cannot be spread from person to
person.
For example – Diabetes, cancer.
Ans 06. Carriers are the organisms which harbor disease-causing germs without showing
away sign of disease themselves, but have the ability to infect other healthy
individuals.
For Example – Housefly, female insect Anopheles.
Ans 07. The children are more susceptible to disease, hence are given vaccines to
develop immunity against some diseases.
Ans 08. Influenza is an air borne disease, so it is prevented by keeping away from the
patients.
Ans 09. (a) Chronic diseases – Tuberculosis, arthritis

(b) Infectious diseases – Common cold, Mumps
(c) Non-infections diseases – Haemophilia, obesity
59
Ans 10.
Vaccines Antibiotics
a Vaccines are the suspension of Antibiotics are organic substances
weakened living or killed microbes of produced by living micro-
same disease against which the organisms. An antibiotic may be
human body is to be protected or used against more than one disease.
immunized.
b These are given to develop resistance These are used to inhibit the
or immunity of are body against growth or to kill pathogenic
certain diseases. microbes.
c These are used before the appearance These are given after the
of diseases in order to prevent them appearance of disease or infection
for their occurrence. for controlling it.
Ans 11. Patient is suffering from AIDS.

It is caused by HIV (Human Immuno deficiency Virus) Modes of transmission are
(1) By sexual contact with infected person.
(2) By the use infected syringe.
Ans 12. Diseases spread through –

(1) Air – When an infected person sneezes or coughs or spits, a
healthy person standing nearby can inhale these
droplets, causing infection in that person.
(2) By water – Some diseases can spread from one person to another
when a sick person’s stools gets into water. The people
drinking the infected water thus get the disease.
(3) By physical contact – Some of the diseases like AIDS, syphilis and gonorrhea
spread by sexual contact. These diseases are not
transmitted by casual physical contact like
handshakes, hug’s, sports like wrestling and other
ways in which we touch other socially.
60
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
CLASS - IX BIOLOGY (Why do we fall ill)
1. Identify a protozoan disease – [1]

(a) Ringworm (b) Measles (c) Diphtheria (d) Amoebiasis
2. If you live in a overcrowded and poorly ventilated house, it is possible that you [1]
may suffer from which of the following diseases.
(a) Cancer (b) AIDS (c) Air borne diseases (d) Cholera.
3. The symptom of goitre is [1]

(a) Swelling of eye (b) Swelling of the thyroid gland
(c) Swelling of the liver (d) Swelling of the limbs.
4. Which one of the following does not help in the prevention of AIDS? [1]
(a) Use of disposable syringes.
(b) Safe sex practiced between single partners.
(c) Proper screening of blood before transfusion
(d) Using same syringe again and again
5. State giving reasons whether the following statements are correct or not. [2]
(a) Health is only the absence of any physical disease.
(b) Children need not be immunized.
6. What is peptic ulcer? [2]
7. What are the different types of diseases? Explain them. [2]
8. Which bacterium causes peptic ulcers? Who discovered the above pathogen? [2]
9. What are the conditions favoring for air-bone diseases? [3]
10. What are the various dimensions of health? [3]
11. What are the causes of diseases? [3]
12. Give the schedule of immunization for infants and children upto six years. [3]
61
CBSE TEST PAPER-03
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Amoebiasis.
Ans 02. Air borne diseases.
Ans 03. Swelling of the thyroid gland
Ans 04. Using same syringe again and again.
And 05. A) This statement is incorrect because health is a state of complete physical,
mental and social well being, not merely absence of disease.
b) This statement is incorrect because children need to be immunized because
of poorly developed immune system they are more susceptible to diseases.
Ans 06. Peptic ulcer is a disease in which patient is suffering from acidity related pain
and bleeding in the stomach and duodenum, due to stressful life style.
Ans 07. Diseases are broadly grouped into two types –

a) Communicable or infectious disease – Those diseases which are passed on
from one person to another in various ways through air, water, food,
physical contact and insects.
b) Non-communicable diseases – Those diseases which cannot be spread from
person to Peron. Forex - arthritis, marasmus etc.
Ans 08. Peptic ulcer is caused by bacterium Helicobacter pylori, it was discovered by
Robin warren and Barry Marshall.
Ans 09. Conditions favoring for air-borne infections -

a) Close proximity to the infected person.
b) Over – crowding
c) Poor – Ventilation
62
Ans 10. Various dimensions of health are –
a) Physical dimensions Physical health implies ‘perfect functioning of all the
organs and systems of the body.
b) Mental dimension – Mental health implies a state of balance and harmony
between the individual and surrounding world.
c) Social dimension – A person is socially healthy if he has a good job, a good
house, a happy family, good neighbors and understanding friends.
Ans 11. Causes of diseases are –

a) Infection by micro – organisms – Bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoa and worms
cause communicable diseases.
b) Malfunctioning of body organs.
c) Deficiency of one or more nutrients.
d) Genetic factors
e) Polluted environment.
Ans 12. Schedule of Immunization
Age Vaccine No. of doses.

Infant 3-9 months DPT 3 doses at intervals of 1-2 months
Polio 3 doses at intervals of 1-2 months
BCG 1
9-12 months Measles 1
18-24 months DPT 1 (booster)
Polio 1 (booster)
Children 5-6 years Typhoid 2
63
CBSE TEST PAPER-04
1. You are aware of Polio Eradication Programme in your city. Children are [1]
vaccinated because –
(a) vaccination kills polio causing micro-organisms
(b) Prevents the entry of polio causing micro-organisms
(c) It creates immunity in the body.
(d) all the above.
2. ‘BCG’ vaccine is given to infants for protection against – [1]
(a) Diarrhoea (b) cholera (c) Pneumonia (d) Tuberculosis
3. Which one is not sexually transmitted disease? [1]
(a) AIDS (b) Gonorrhoea (c) syphilis (d) Diabetes.
4. Which one of the following causes kala-azar? [1]
(a) Ascaris (b) Trypanosome (c) Leishmania (d) Bacteria
5. Name the target organs for the following disease- [2]
(a) Hepatitis targets ______________
(b) Fits or unconsciousness targets __________________
(C) Pneumonia targets _________________
(d) Fungal disease targets ______________
6. How are diseases diagnosed by physician? [2]
7. Who discovered ‘vaccine’ for the first time? Name two diseases which can be [2]
prevented by using vaccine.
8. Name the approaches generally adopted to treat infectious diseases. [2]
9. Explain giving reasons – [3]
(a) Balanced diet is necessary for maintaining health body.
(b) Health of an organism depends upon the surrounding environmental
conditions.
10. What is immunization, immune system, immunity? [3]
11. Name the agents and the diseases caused by them? [3]
12. What are the different aspects of maintaining good health? [3]
64
CBSE TEST PAPER-04
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. It creates immunity in the body.

Ans 02. Pneumonia.
Ans 03. Diabetes
Ans 04. Leishmania.
Ans 05. a) liver

b) Brain
c) lungs
d) skin
Ans 06. The malfunctioning of organs produces external symptoms of diseases.

Symptoms indicate that there is something ‘wrong’ within the body. On the basis
of symptoms doctor diagnosed the diseases.
Ans 07. Vaccines were first developed by Edward Jenner for the treatment of smallpox.
Polio and Tuberculosis can be prevented by using vaccine.
Ans 08. There are two approaches to treat the infections diseases. These are –
a) To reduce the effects of the disease.
b) To eliminate or kill the cause of the disease.
Ans 09. a) Balanced diet contain all the nutrient required for maintaining proper health
as well as needed for growth and repair. Lack of single nutrient causes deficiency
diseases.
b) surrounding environmental conditions plays an important role in the
maintenance of health. For ex we feel depressed if –(i) surrounding are dirty or
polluted (ii) garbage is not collected or disposed off (iii) drains are not cleaned
65
and water collects in the streets or open spaces. Unclean surrounding causes the
entry of germs via air, water, food or vectors and makes the person unhealthy.
Ans 10. Immunization is a specific method of preventing diseases by inoculating vaccines

in the human body.
Immune system – It is a system which protect are body against infection
Immunity – The body’s power to resist and overcome infection is called
immunity.
Ans 11.
Agents Diseases caused
i) Bacteria Tuberculosis, typhoid, cholera.
ii) Viruses Common cold, AIDS, Chicken pox.
iii) Fungi Ringworm, athlete’s foot, skin infection
iv) Protozoa Malaria, kala – azar, sleeping sickness
v) Worms Filariasis, ascariasis.
Ans 12. Different aspects for maintaining good health-

a) Community health – It involves all the factors relating to personal health
along with the services necessary for providing good health for the
community.
b) Personal health (hygiene) It is the science of preserving and promoting
health mainly through the active efforts of an individual. It is practiced
through active, sanitary habits and healthy way of life.
c) Exercise, relaxation and sleep. Regular exercise is very necessary to keep
the body fit. Proper sleep of about 6-8 hours is essential, Relaxation is very
essential for good health.
d) Nutrition – Optimum nutrition is essential for maintenance of good health.
One should take sufficient and balanced food for maintaining good health.
66
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
CLASS - IX BIOLOGY (Natural Resources)
1. Biotic components of biosphere is not constituted by – [1]

(a) Producers (b) Consumers (c) decomposer (d) air
2. Major source of mineral in soil is the – [1]

(a) Parent rock from which soil is covered (b) Plants
(c) animals (d) bacteria
3. One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature [1]
(a) the sun (b) water (c) wind (d) polythene bags
4. The nitrogen molecules present in air can be converted into nitrates and nitrites [1]
by –
a) a biological process of nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil
b) a biological process of carbon fixing factor present in soil
c) any of the industries manufacturing nitrogenous compounds.
d) The plants used as cereal crops in field
5. What is the role of decomposer in biogeochemical cycles? [2]
6. What is greenhouse effect? Name a green house gas? [2]
7. How can we prevent soil erosion? [2]
8. What are the causes of water pollution? [2]
9. List the abiotic and biotic factors of soil formation. [3]
10. Mention human activities that lead to air pollution. [3]
11. Why does Mathura refinery pose problem to Taj Mahal ? [3]
12. How does the atmosphere act as a protective blanket? Mention the harmful affects [3]
of ultraviolet rays?
13. Draw nitrogen cycle? Explain the different steps. [5]
67
CBSE TEST PAPER-01
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Air
Ans 02. Parent rock from which soil is covered.
Ans 03. Polythene bags
Ans 04. A biological process of nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil.
Ans 05. Decomposers decomposes dead decaying organic matter into simpler form and
return minerals into nutrient pool like air, water and soil.
Ans 06. Increase in earth’s temperature due to increased CO2 concentration in

atmosphere, this phenomenon is known as green house effect.
Carbon dioxide is one of the green house gasses.
Ans 07. Methods of prevention of soil erosion –

a) Deforestation should be stopped. Afforestion should be done.
b) The boundaries of the fields should be planted with trees in two or three
rows, to reduce the effect of strong winds in the fields.
c) Crop rotation helps to maintain the fertility of the soil. The water holding
capacity of the soil is also maintained by this method.
Ans 08. Causes of water pollution are –

a) Domestic wastes like detergents and sewage
b) Agricultural wastes, such as fertilizers and pesticides which are used to
increases crop yield.
c) Substances like compounds of calcium and magnesium get dissolved in
water from natural deposits, acting as pollutants
d) Rivers, ponds and lakes are used by people for bathing and washing. These
activities contaminate water with various germs such as bacteria and
protozoans.
Ans 09. Abiotic factors responsible for soil formation are :-

a) Sun - the sun heats up rocks during the day so that they expand. In night,
the rocks cool down and contract. Unequal expansion and contraction in
different parts of rock results in the formation of cracks and turns into
soil.
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b) Water – Continual movement of rain and river water, causes breaking
down of rock particles into finer particles
c) Wind – Wind blowing across a rock surface also has an abrasive effect an
the rocks.
Biotic factors responsible for soil formation – certain life forms like the lichens
can grow on the surface of rocks. The lichens produce acids which corrode the
rocky surface, and produce fine particles.
Ans 10. Sources of air pollution are

a) Forest fires, smoking volcanoes dust storms, pollen grains floating in air
and decay of organic natter
b) Over – population, deforestation, urbanistion, and industrialization.
c) Burning of fossil fuels in automobiles, thermal power plants and
industries.
Ans 11. Mathura refinery released acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen
dioxide in the air. In the air, in the presence of moisture, sulphur dioxide is
oxidised to sulphuric acid (H2SO4) and nitrogen dioxide is oxidized to nitric acid.
These acid come down to earth surface and water bodies along with rain water.
The rain water containing acids as pollutants in it called acid rain. This acid rain
is posing problem to the marbles of Taj Mahal.
Ans 12. The atmosphere acts as protective blanket for the Earth. It absorbs most of the
harmful radiation such as ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun. The
harmful radiation are absorbed in the upper atmosphere as well as reflected
back into the space. The excessive heat and sun’s rays are reflected back into the
space by dust particles, water vapours and clouds. Due to this Earth receives the
right amount of heat and sun’s rays, which helps in climate control and allows
living organisms to exist.
Harmful effects of U. V. rays – It causes blindness and skin cancer.
Ans 13. Steps of Nitrogen cycle

1) Ammonification – The process of conversion of complex organic
compounds like proteins into ammonia (NH3) is called ammonification.
2) Nitrification – The process of conversion of ammonia into nitrites and
nitrates is called nitrification. It occurs in two steps.
a ) A m m o n ia N itra te
N itr o s o m o n a s
(B a c te ria )
b ) N itr ite N itro b a c to r N itra te
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3) Denitrification – The process of conversion of nitrite salts in the soil and
water to free nitrogen gas. This is done by bacteria pseudomonas.
70
CBSE TEST PAPER-02
1. Which one of these are not fossil fuel – [1]

(a) coal (b) Petrol (c) Diesel (d) wood
2. Which step is not involved in the carbon cycle? [1]

(a) Photosynthesis (b) Transpiration (c) Respiration (d) Burning of fossil fuels.
3. Total earth’s surface covered by water is [1]

(a) 75% (b) 60% (c) 85% (d) 50%
4. Growth of lichens on barren rocks is followed by the growth of [1]

(a) Mosses (b) ferns (c) gymnosperms (d) Algae.
5. What are the different types of natural resources? Give examples. [2]
6. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources. [2]
7. River from land, add minerals to sea water. Discuss how? [2]
8. Draw water cycle. [2]
9. Give reasons – [3]

a) step farming is common in hills.
b) fertile soil has lot of humus.
10. What are the harmful effects of air pollution. [3]
11. Why does water need conservation even though large oceans surround the land [3]
masses?
12. What is weathering? What are the different means by which weathering occurs. [3]
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CBSE TEST PAPER-02
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Wood Ans 02. Transpiration.
Ans 03. 75% Ans 04. Mosses.
Ans 05. Natural resources are of two types -

a) Inexhaustible natural resources – Those resources that are present in
unlimited quantity in nature and are not likely to be exhausted by human
activities, for example air, water, solar energy.
b) Exhaustible natural resource – These resources are present in limited
quantity in nature and these are likely to be exhausted by human activities
for example coal, petroleum, minerals.
Ans 06.
Renewable Resources Non-renewable resources
1. These sources can be used again and The sources cannot be used again
again. and again.
2. These are not exhaustible. These are exhaustible.
Ans 07. River passes through land takes minerals present in the soil and adds it into the
sea water.
Ans 08.
.
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Ans 09. (a) On the sloping areas in hills, step farming reduces the steepness of the slopes
and checking soil erosion.
(b) Decomposition of dead organic matter takes place in the top layer soil. This
convents organic matter into humus. Hence, fertile soil has humus.
Ans 10. Harmful effects of air pollution –

(a) Air pollution effects the respiratory system of living beings and causes
bronchitis, pneumonia, asthma and lung cancer.
(b) Burning of fossil fuels like coal and patrol releases oxides of nitrogen and
sulphur, which causes acid rain.
(c) The burning of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum also increases the
amount of suspended particles in air. Presence of these pollutants in air
during cold season causes the formation of smog which reduces visibility
and causes problems on the roads.
Ans 11. Water needs conservation –

(a) Due to increasing population, use of water increases in large quantities.
(b) Due to increased water pollution.
(c) Due to less rainfall water level decreases.
Ans 12. Formation of soil due to breakdown of rocks is known as weathering.

It occurs by
(a) Physical means – such as the sun (temperature), rain, wind, frost.
(b) Biological means – Through the action of plants, animals and micro-
organisms.
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CBSE TEST PAPER-03
1. If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of the earth will [1]
(a) increase (b) go on decreasing
(c) Increase during day and decrease during night (d) be unaffected.
2. The fertility of soil is lost due to [1]

(a) Afforestation (b) crop rotation
(c) Soil erosion (d) strip cropping
3. Which organism cannot fix atmospheric Nitrogen? [1]

(a) Rhizobium (b) Nostoc
(c) Azotobactor (d) E. coli
4. Harmful UV radiations coming from sun to earth are absorbed by – [1]

(a) O2 (b) CO2
(c) NO2 (d) O3
5. Mention two ways of restoring fertility of soil. [2]
6. Why does cultivation of legumes improves soil fertility? [2]
7. Mention two causes of over-exploitation of natural resources. [2]
8. Name the constituents of soil. [2]
9. List the ways by which carbon dioxide concentration increases in the atmosphere. [3]
10. ‘Water is essential for the sustenance of life’ Justify the statement. [3]
11. How do forests influence our air, water and soil? [3]
12. What is green house effect? How it affects earth’s atmosphere. [3]
13. Draw carbon cycle.
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CBSE TEST PAPER-03
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. Increases during day and decrease during night.
Ans 02. Soil erosion.
Ans 03. E. coli
Ans 04. O3 (ozone)
Ans 05. Soil fertility can be restored by –

(a) By alternating cropping with leguminous crops.
(b) By application of manures and fertilizers.
Ans 06. Leguminous plants bears nodules in their roots. These nodules contain nitrogen
fixing bacteria, which converts atmospheric nitrogen into soluble form and adds
it into the soil and thus increases the fertility of soil.
And 07. Causes of over exploitation of natural resources are –

(a) tremendous population increase
(b) industrial and technological progress which has increased the rate at which
these resources are being used.
(c) Rapid urbanization.
Ans 08. Soil contain the following components –

(a) Soil particles – gravel, sand, silt and clay.
(b) Humus – Organic neater, formed by decomposition of dead organisms.
(c) Soil air
(d) Soil water
(e) Soil organisms.
Ans 09. (a) Both plants and animals release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere as a
product of respiration.
(b) By decomposition of organic wastes and dead bodies by decomposers.
(c) By burning of fossil fuels, like wood, coal, petrol, gas and kerosene.
(d) By volcanic eruptions.
(e) By weathering of carbonate containing rocks through the action of soil
micro-organisms, plant roots and acid rain.
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Ans 10. Importance of water for life –
(a) It acts as a universal solvent.
(b) Most of the activities occur in water inside the body.
(c) Substances are transported from one part of the body to the other in a
dissolved form.
(d) It dissolves waste products and help in excretion.
(e) Aquatic organisms utilize oxygen dissolved in water.
Ans 11. (a) Forest act as purifier of air, They utilize carbon – dioxide and release
oxygen, in the process of photosynthesis.
(b) Forest also maintain level of water under the soil Roots of trees absorbs
water and increase water level.
Trees also help in the formation of clouds by the process of transpiration
and increases humidity (water vapour) in the air. This water vapour further
forms clouds and helps in rain.
(c) Roots of trees hold the soil and prevent soil erosion. This maintains the
fertility of the soil.
Ans 12. Increased concentration of CO2, water vopour and other atmospheric gases like
methane nitrous oxides inhibit the escape of solar radiations. This results in
increase of the temperature of atmosphere above the surface of earth making it
warmer. This phenomenon is known as green house effect.
The warm atmosphere would melt the snow of polar and alpine regions which
may raise the sea-level and submerge low lying area of laud.
Ans 13.
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CBSE TEST PAPER-04
1. Which substance is responsible for depletion of ozone layer? [1]

(a) CO2 (b) CH4 (C) CFC’S (d) CO
2. Which of the following statements does not give the correct definition in relation [1]
with ‘water pollution’?
(a) The addition of undesirable substances from water bodies.
(b) The removal of desirable substances from water bodies.
(c)A change in pressure of water bodies.
(d) A change in temperature of the water bodies.
3. Rainfall patterns depend on – [1]

(a) The underground water table
(b) The number of water bodies in an area.
(c) The density pattern of human population in an area.
(d) The prevailing season in an area.
4. The major component of air in Venus & Mars is – [1]

(a) O2 (b) CO2 (c) NO2 (d) He
5. What is a soil? How is it important to us? [2]
6. Mention importance of air [2]
7. Write the factors on which fertility of soil depends. [2]
8. What is biological nitrogen fixation? Name the organisms responsible for it. [2]
9. What are the harmful effects of water pollution? [3]
10. What is biogeochemical cycle? How cycling of nutrients takes place in the [3]
atmosphere?
11. List the ways by which carbon dioxide concentration decrease from the [3]
atmosphere.
12. How do fossil fuels causes air pollution? [3]
77
CBSE TEST PAPER-04
[ANSWERS]
Ans 01. CFC’s
Ans 02. A change in pressure of water bodies.
Ans 03. The number of water bodies in an area.
Ans 04. CO2
Ans 05. The topmost fertile layer of earth is called soil. It provides us –
(i) Food and Fodder.
(ii) Clothing
(iii) Provide anchorage to the plants.
(iv) Water and minerals to the plants.
Ans 06. Importance of air –

a) It provides oxygen for respiration in plants and animals.
b) It provides CO2 for photosynthesis
c) Atmosphere filters sunlight reaching to earth and affects the climate.
d) It is reservoir of several elements essential for life.
Ans 07. The fertility of soil depends upon –

(a) presence of organic matter (humus) and nutrients.
(b) Capacity of the soil to retain water and air.
Ans 08. It is a process in which atmospheric nitrogen is converted into usable or soluble
form by micro-organism. Microbes responsible nitrogen fixation are –
Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Blue green algae, etc.
Ans 09. Harmful effects of water pollution are –

a) Polluted water causes water –borne diseases such as dysentery, cholera,
jaundice.
b) Pesticides like DDT enter into the water bodies along with rain water. From
here, they enter the food chain via producers and they get concentrated at each
trophic level. This is known as biological magnification. It badly affects the
organism at of the top of the food chain.
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c) Eutrophication – The excessive growth of phytoplankton due to discharge of
sewage water, reduces the dissolved oxygen which affects aquatic life.
Ans 10. The cyclic flow of nutrients between non-living environment (soil, air, water)
and living organisms is called biogeochemical cycling.
Consumers
(animals)
D
D
ea
ec
om
t h
po
&
si
tio
n
Producer Death & Decomposition Decomposers
(plants)
Nutrient in
environment
Ans 11. Ways by which carbon dioxide concentration decreases –

a) Photosynthesis – Plants takes carbon dioxide from air and utilizes it in the
synthesis of food.
b) Fossilization – Dead plants and animals changes into fossils fuels like coal &
petroleum due pressure, temperature of earth
c) Carbon dioxide present in water traps carbonates and graphites in the rocks.
Ans 12. Burning of fossil fuels has following effects –

a) Burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. It cause
respiratory problems as well as acid rain.
b) Burning of fossil fuels increase amount of suspended particles in air, which
forms smog during winter. It reduces visibility and causes accidents on roads.
c) On burning it release CO2 which traps Solar energy and increases the
temperature of the earth.
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CBSE TEST PAPER-05
CLASS - IX Science (Natural resources)
1. Which of the following is present abundantly in air? [1]

(a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) CO2 (d) Water
2. The regions of earth from outside to inside is:- [1]

(a) Core, mantle, and crust (b) Core, crust, and mantle
(c) crust, mental, and core (d) mantle, core, and crust
3. Which layer is topmost layer from earth’s surface? [1]

(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere (d) Thermosphere
4. The process by which O2 gets converted to CO2 is:- [1]

(a) Photosynthesis (b) Breathing
(c) Respiration (d) Both (a) and (b)
5. What is atmosphere? What are its different regions? [1]
6. What are biogeochemical cycles? [2]
7. Why is life possible on earth? [2]
8. Why do terrestrial life forms require fresh water? [2]
9. How does atmosphere control the climate? [2]
10. Write in detail what happens when water gets polluted. [3]
11. Discuss the nitrogen cycle in nature? [3]
12. What is greenhouse effect? What would happen if the level of CO2 in air would [3]
increase?
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CBSE TEST PAPER-05
[ANSWERS]
Ans01. (a)
Ans02. (c)
Ans03. (d)
Ans04. (d)
Ans05. The layer of air surrounding the earth is called as atmosphere. The different
regions are:-
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Ans06. The constant interaction between biotic and abiotic components of biosphere
which involves exchange of matter and energy is called as biogeochemical cycle.
Ans07. Life is possible on earth because of the following reasons:-

(a) The temperature on earth is suitable for different life forms.
(b) The presence of oxygen in air which is required by all living organisms.
Ans08. Terrestrial life forms require fresh water because their bodies cannot tolerate
and cannot excrete the high amounts of dissolved salt in saline water.
Ans09. The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the earth steady during the day
and prevents the sudden increase temperature during day. It also prevents the
escape of heat into the outer space and thus maintains a liveable climate on earth.
Ans10. When water gets polluted, then following events happen:-

(a) Undesirable substances get added to water-bodies which may cause cholera.
(b) Desirable substance may get removed from water-bodies and dissolved
oxygen in water which is important for aquatic life and endangering aquatic
life.
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(c) If water gets polluted, then temperature of water changes which would
adversely affect the life forms in water.
Ans11. Nitrogen cycle in following steps:-

(a) Nitrogen in atmosphere gets converted to protoplasm in green plants by
nitrogen fixation.
(b) The protoplasm gets converted into ammonia by ammonification.
(c) The ammonia then converts to nitrites and then nitrates.
(d) Then nitrogen in atmosphere gets directly converted to nitrates through
nitrification.
(e) The nitrates get converted into nitrogen through denitrification.
Ans12. The phenomenon by which heat is trapped by various gases in air leading to
higher temperature on earth is called as green house effect.
If the levels of CO2 increase in air, then because CO2 is a greenhouse gas,
greenhouse effect would increase leading to rapid increase in temperature of
earth’s atmosphere. This would results in melting of glaciers and would endanger
life forms on earth.
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CBSE TEST PAPER-06
1. Conversion of water vapours into droplets of water is by:- [1]

(a) Evaporation (b) Condensation
(c) Sublimation (d) Freezing
2. Water evaporates from the surface of leaf by:- [1]

(a) Transpiration (b) Evaporation
(c) Condensation (d) Both (a) and (b)
3. Percentage composition of O2 in air is [1]

(a) 21% (b) 52%
(c) 78% (d) 12.5%
4. CFC stand for [1]

(a) carbon fluorine compounds (b) carbon fluoro compound
(c) chloro fluoro Carbons (d) chlorine fluoro compound
5. How are wind created? [1]
6. How does sun helps in breaking up of rocks into smaller pieces? [2]
7. Write the composition of air. [2]
8. How is soil pollution done? [3]
9. Explain carbon cycle in nature. [2]
10. What is the function of ozone in the atmosphere? How is ozone hole created? [3]
11. What is soil? What is the role of soil in agriculture? [3]
83
CBSE TEST PAPER-06
[ANSWERS]
Ans01. (b) Ans02. (a)
Ans03. (a) Ans04. (c)
Ans05. During the day, the air above the land gets heated faster and starts rising. As the
rises, a region of low pressure is created and the air over the sea moves into the
area of low pressure. This movement of air from one region to another creates
winds.
Ans06. Sun heats up rocks during the day so that they expand. In the night, these rocks
cool down and contract. Because all parts of rock do not expand and contract at
same rate, as a result huge cracks are formed and then they break into smaller
pieces.
Ans07. Composition of air is as follows:-

Gas Percentage by volume Percentage by mass
(a) Nitrogen 78.09 75.5
(b) Oxygen 20.95 23.2
(c) Argon 0.93 1.0
(d) CO2 0.031 0.046
(e) Neon 0.002 Negligible
(f) Helium 0.0005 Negligible
In addition to this, water vapours are prevent
Ans08. Soil pollution happens in following ways:-

(a) Use of large amounts of fertilizers and pesticide kills the microorganisms that
help in recycling of nutrients in soil.
(b) Earthworms are also killed by pesticide which enriches the soil by making
humus.
(c) Useful components get removed and other harmful substances get added
which affect the fertility of soil.
84
Ans09.
(a) CO2 in air is converted into organic compounds in plants and when they
are eaten up by animals then it goes to animals.
(b) Organic compounds in plants also get converted to petroleum, coal.
(c) CO2 directly converts into carbonates in water and then to limestone.
(d) Organic compound in animals get converted to Co2 in atmosphere by
respiration and decomposition.
Ans10. Ozone layer absorbs harmful radiations from the sun and prevents them from
reaching the earth’s surface where they may damage the forms of life. Compound
like CFC reacts with ozone to molecules and convert them to free oxygen. As a
result, reaction in ozone layer takes place and ozone holes have been detected
over Antarctica.
Ans11. The soil refers to the loose surface of the earth’s crust. Soil is the medium for
growth of all plants. It provides physical supports and nutrients and also the
sufficient quantities of air and water for growth of plants.
85
CBSE TEST PAPER-07
1. Water vapours changes into water droplets by:- [1]

(a) condensation (b) evaporation
(c) sublimation (d) none
2. Which of the following is a green house gas? [1]

(a) CO2 (b) O2
(c) ozone gas (d) both (a) and (b)
3. Layer of earth where life is possible is called [1]

(a) biosphere (b) lithosphere
(c) hydrosphere (d) none
4. Main constituent of atmosphere of mars is:- [1]

(a) O2 (b) CO2
(c) ozone gas (d) none
5. What is smog? How is it formed? [1]
6. Why water is so important in life? [2]
7. How does living organism help in the erosion of rocks? [2]
8. How is rain formed? [2]
9. Discuss the oxygen cycle in atmosphere? [2]
10. What is the difference between the atmospheres of the earth and atmosphere of [3]
Venus and Mars?
11. What is air pollution? How does it lead to acid rain? [3]
12. Why is CO2 so important for life on earth? What are the two ways by which it is [3]
fixed on earth?
86
CBSE TEST PAPER-07
[ANSWERS]
Ans01. (a)
Ans02. (a)
Ans03. (a)
Ans04. (b)
Ans05. Smog is smoke and fog. It is formed when air gets polluted and high levels of
smoke is formed. When it gets mixed with fog then smog is formed.
Ans06. Water is important for life in following ways:-

(a) All cellular processes important for life take place in water medium.
(b) Water helps in transportation of substances in the body.
(c) It also helps in transportation of substances in plant also.
Ans07. Living organism like lichen while growing on the surface of rocks, they release
certain substances that cause the rock surface to powder down and hence break
rocks into fine particles.
Ans08. Water from water bodies gets evaporated and water vapours are formed. These
water vapours then move up the atmosphere and condense into small water
droplets. As many water droplets combine, bigger water droplets are formed, as
they grow heavy and big, the fall down in the form of rain.
87
Ans09. (a) Atmospheric oxygen is taken by
animal and human beings
respiration.
(b) They then release CO2 and H2oas
by- products of respiration.
(c) The CO2 and H2O is used up
during photosynthesis by plants.
(d) The plants form organic
molecules like glucose and
atmospheric oxygen.
(e) Oxygen is thus replenished
whereas glucose stored in plants and eaten up by animal.
Ans10. Atmosphere of earth has oxygen which is important for sustaining life on earth It is
required during breathing and respiration two most important events of life,
whereas atmosphere of Mars has CO2 as units main constituent and thus life is
not possible on earth.
Ans11. The mixing of undesirable substances in air that changes the basic constituents of
air and makes it harmful is called air pollution.
When we burn fossil fuel like coal and petroleum, various oxides of nitrogen and
sulphur are produced. These oxygen then mixes with rain water and form nitric
and sulphuric acid which then falls down on earth surface as acid rain. This acid
rain is very dangerous as it can cause various disorders to living organisms and
also destroys the buildings and monuments.
Ans12 CO2 helps in heating up of the earth’s surface which helps to maintain suitable
temperature for life forms on earth. It is also required for photosynthesis by
plants. It is fixed in two ways-
(a) Green plants convert CO2 into glucose in presence of sunlight.
(b) Marine animals use carbonates dissolved in sea- water to make their shells.
88
CBSE MIXED TEST PAPER-
(2nd Terminal Unit Test)
CLASS - IX SCIENCE
[Time : 1.5 hrs.] [M. M.: ]
General Instructions:-
(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Marks allotted to each question are indicated against it.
1. Which has more inertia.

(a) A stone or a tennis ball of the same size. 1mark
2. Air contains specific proportion of oxygen (21%) and Nitrogen still it is considered a mixture.
Why? 1mark
3. Name the plant tissue which is capable of cell division. Where is it present in the plant? 1mark
4. What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made? 1mark
5. Give one structural difference between Xylem and Phloem. 1mark
6. Give two differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms. 2 marks
7. Why do you fall in forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop? 2 marks
8. Name the connective tissue which has liquid matrix. Give one function of the tissue. 2 marks
9. Which would require a greater force-accelerating a 8 kg. mass at 5m/s or 10 kg . mass at 6m/s2?
2
Calculate and show. 2marks

10. To make a saturated solution 40g of salt is dissolved in 300 gm. Water at 293 k. Find its
concentration at this temperature. 2 marks
11. (a) An object of mass 80 kg. is accelerated informly from a velocity of 8 m/s to 12m/s in 5s.
Calculate the initial and final momentum. Find the force exerted on the object. 3 marks
89
(b) Explain 3rd law of Motion with help of an example.
12. Explain with help of a diagram how we can separate a mixture of salt and camphor. Name the
process. 3 marks
13. (i) Which Kingdom/Division of the following belong to:
(a) Paramoecium
(b) Penicillium
(c) Bacteria
(d) spirogyra
(ii) Name one primitive and one advanced organism. 3 marks
14. Name the tissue present in the following:
(a) Inner lining of stomach
(b) Husk of coconut
(c) Connects bone to bone
(d) Brian
(e) Stores fat
(f) Present in aquatic plants and has air spaces. 3 marks
15. State the II law of Motion and derive its mathematics formulation. 3 marks
16. Name the three types of muscles present in human body. Give one structural difference between
the three. Make a labelled diagram any two. 5 marks
17. How are colloids, solution and suspension different from each other. Give any three differences.
Give one example of suspension. 5 marks
90
(2nd Terminal Unit Test)
CLASS - IX SCIENCE
[Time : 2.0 hrs.] [M. M.: ]
General Instructions:-
(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Marks allotted to each question are indicated against it.
Physics (Section A)
1. Give an example of situation: one object with a constant acceleration but with a 1-marks
zero velocity.
2. Define Inertia 1-marks
3. A motor boat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a constant 2-marks
rate of 3m/s2 for 8s. How far does the boat travel during this time?
4. Differentiate between distance and displacement. 3-marks
5. Drive the equation for Newton’s second law of motion. 3-marks
6. A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of 20 m/s across the frozen surface of a 3-marks
lake comes to rest after travelling a distance of 50m. What is the force of friction
between the stone and the ice?
7. (a)Plot a distance – time graph from the readings given below: 5-marks
X Time Sec 0 1 2 4 5 7
Y Distance M 0 7 14 28 35 49
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(b)What can you say about the type of motion of the body?
(c) What will be the distance covered in 8 seconds?
8. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of 150m/s strikes a 5-marks
stationery wooden block and comes to rest in 0.03 seconds. Calculate the distance
of penetration of the bullet into the block. Also calculate the magnitude of the force
exerted by the wooden block on the bullet.
Section-B (chemistry) 4-marks
Answer the following questions in one sentence:
1. Name the S.I. unit of temperature.
2. Name the solvent like component of a colloid.
3. Name the change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid
state.
4. Name the process of separation of components of air.
Answer the following questions in 2 or 3 sentences each. 4-marks
1. Differentiate between the following:
a. Laten head of fusion & vaporization.
b. Solution & Colloids.
2. Give two examples each for the following: 4 marks
a. Gel b. Sol
c. Emulsion d. Foam
3. How does the water kept in an earthen pot become cool during summer? 3-marks
4. Mention any two applications of the following methods of separation. 3-marks
a. Chromatography
b. Crystallization
c. Centrifugation
5. Give reason for the following 2-marks
92
a. On a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the open ground.
b. Water droplets are seen on the outer surface of a glass containing ice cold water.
Section C (Biology)
1. Write the name of any two diseases that are transmitted by sexual contact. 1-mark
2. Where do lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane gets synthesized? 1-mark
3. Name the following: 2-marks
a. Protein factory of the cell.
b. Tissue that forms inner lining of our mouth.
c. Cell organelle known as cellular house keepers.
d. These cell contain chemical suberin.
4. Differentiate between Xylem and Phloem. 2-marks
5. State any two conditions for good heath. Mention the causal agents for following 2-marks
diseases:-
a. Elephantiasis
b. Sleeping sickness
6. Write down one difference between cell wall and plasma membrane. Draw to show 2-marks
the structure of plasma membrane . Also mention one function of cell membrane.
7. What would happen to the life of a cell, if there was no Golgi apparatus? 3-marks
8. What are acute and chronic diseases? Which one of the two is more harmful and 3-marks
why? Give an example in support of your answer.
9. Draw a sketch to show the location of meristematic tissue in a plant body and write 3-marks
the functions of each one of them.
10. In which tissue would you find Haversian canal and chondrocyte? Show the 5-marks
classification of connective tissue by the outline diagram. Mention any two
functions of connective tissue.
93
2nd Terminal Examination
CLASS - IX SCIENCE
[Time : 2.5 hrs.] [M. M.: ]
PHYSICS
Q1. Define acceleration? Give its units. [1]
Q2. What are the difference between the mass of an objects and its weight. [2]
Q3. Why is the weight of an objects on the moon 1/6th its weight on the earth. [2]
Q4. Relative density of the silver is 10.8 the density of the water is s103kg m-3. What is density of
the silver in SI unit.
Q5. An object the mass 15kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 4 m/s. what is the kinetic
energy possessed by the object?
Q6. What is power? Define 1watt of the power. A lamp consumes 1000j of electrical energy in
10S. what is its powers?
BIOLOGY
Q1. Define ligament tissue [1]
Q2. Define tissue and atom. [1]
Q3. Define Cotyledons [1]
Q4. Define miro-organisms. Give its four types of organisms? [1]
Q5. Define Health?
Q6. How are clouds formed?
Q7. Explain why both atmosphere and water essential for life.
94
Q8. Deference between Hypotonic solution isotonic solution, hypertonic solution. [2]
Q9. Write about the cell organelle.

a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Lysosmes
Q10. Write about the Nitrogen cycle or carbon cycle with labelled diagram. [3]
CHEMISTRY
Q1. What is the physical state of water ie water (a) 250oC (b) 100oC? [1]
Q2. What types of clothes should we wear in summer? [1]
Q3. Give reason to justify why does water is liquid at room temperature? [1]
Q4. What produces more severe burn boiling water or steam? [1]
Q5. Name the technique to separate

(a) Butter from curd.
(b) Salt from sea water.
Q6. What is a chemical change? Give examples? [2]
Q7. Write the four postulate’s of Dalton’s atomic theory. [2]
Q8. What is an atom? Write its constituents? Also calculate numbers of particles in each of the
following i.e 46g of Na atom. [2]
Q9. (a) Differentiate between valency and isotopes with e.g.? And also write the valency of (i) O
atom (ii) Ca atom [3]
Q10. Write chemical formulate of the following:-

(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium Oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Ammonium chloride
(e) Calcium chloride
(f) Sulphuric Acid.
95
FIRST UNIT TEST
CLASS - IX SCIENCE
[Time: 11/2 hrs.] [M. M.: ]
SECTION – A
Q1. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance – time graph is a straight line?
[1]
Q2. Convert 20k and 300k Celsius scale? [1]
Q3. What is dry ice? [1]
Q4. When solid melts, it s temperature remains the same, so where does heat energy go? [1]
Q5. Give S.I. unit of acceleration and uniform velocity. [1]
Q6. Why does a desert cooler work better on a hot dry day? [2]
Q7. State two properties of particles. [2]
Q8. Draw neat and labelled diagram to represent sublimation? [2]
Q9. A gas exerts pressure on the walls of ht container? [2]
OR
How does evaporation cause cooling?
Q10. What do following graphs represent? [2]
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q11. Why do you consider uniform circular motion as an accelerated motion? [3]
Q12. An object travels 16m in 4 seconds and then another 16m in 8 seconds. What is the average
speed of the object? [3]
OR
96
A car accelerates uniformly from 25m/sec to 45 m/sec in 5 seconds. Calculate its
acceleration.
Q13. A ball is dropped from a height of 20m if its acceleration increases at the rate of 10m/sec2
with what velocity it strikes the ground and in what time? [3]
Q14. Derive first tow equations of motion graphically? [3]
Q15. Distinguish between:- [3]
(a) Uniform and Non uniform motion
(b) Distance and displacement
(c) Speed and velocity
Q16. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane? [1]
Q17. What does DNA stand for? [1]
Q18. State four differences between plant cell and animal cell? [2]
OR
How do prokaryotic cell differ from Eukaryotic cell?
Q19. Draw neat and labelled diagram of plant cell. [3]
Q20. State the main functions of [3]
(a) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Apical meristem
(d) Xylem tissue
(e) Stomata
(f) Aerenchyma
97
SECOND UNIT TEST
CLASS - IX SCIENCE
[Time: 11/2 hrs.] [M. M.: ]
General Instruction:
(1) Attempt all the questions
(2) Draw diagram where – ever necessary
Q1. a. What is pure substance.

b. Name the technique to separate butter from curd.
c. Define tissue.
d. What happens when force is applied to an object
e. What is the S.I. unit of force?
f. Where is apical meristem found?
g. Name the tissue responsible for movements in our body.
h. In which kingdom will you place are organism which is single called eukaryotic and
Photosynthetic.
Q2. a. Differentiate ligament and Tendon

b. What will be the acceleration of a body of mass 5kg if a force of 200N is applied on ti?
c. How many types of elements together make xylem tissues? Name them.
d. A solution contains 40gm of common salt in 320gms of water. Calculate the concentration
in terms of mass by mass percentage of solution
e. Describe an activity to separate dye of ink using chromatography.
Q3. a. How can we separate a mixture of salt and Ammonium Chloride. Explain with diagram.
b. Why does the passenger in a bus tend to fall backwards when it starts suddenly?
c. Draw the diagram of Nerve cell and label it.
d. Differentiate Parenchyma, Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma tissue.
Q4. Define suspension. Write two properties of each giving examples
Q5. State Newton’s second law of motion. How it can be used to define the unit of force.
98
THIRD UNIT TEST
CLASS - IX SCIENCE
[Time: 11/2 hrs.] [M. M.: ]
(1) All questions are compulsory.
(2) Marks allotted are indicated against each questions
(3) Attempt Part A and Part B separately on the same answer sheet.
PART – A
Q1. In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immerse in a liquid act? [1]
Q2. ‘Work is a scalar quantity’ want do you mean by it? [1]
Q3. What Avogadro’s number? [1]
Q4. What does 115B indicate? [1]
Q5. A small Iron needle sink in water but a ship made of iron floats why? [1]
Q6. State whether the work is being done in the following activities or not? [2]
a. A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
b. A coolie carrying out photosynthesis.
c. A box is swimming in a pool.
d. A windmill is lifting water from a well.
Q7. Hwy do we use school bags with wide strips? [2]
Q8. What are the properties of cathode rays? [2]
Q9. Calculate the number of moles in the following. [2]

a. 16gm of O2
b. 3.0111023C atoms.
Q10. a Define Archimedes Principle
b. What will happen if
99
i. W>B
ii. W<B
W = weight of body
B = Buoyant force
Q11. A 5kg ball is thrown up with a speed of 10m/s (g = 10m/s2) [3]

a. Find its Kinetic energy at the time of throw?
b. What is the height of which it rises?
Q12. Calculate which has more atoms and how much [3]
-92gm of Sodium or 112gm of Iron
(Atomic masses: Na = 23, Fe = 56)
Q13. Complete the following table, where elements are hypothetical. [3]
S.N Elements Atomic Atomic p n e Electronic
Mass Number Configuration

1 X - 17 17 20 17 2, 8, 7
2 Y 12 – 06 06 06 2, 4
3 Z 23 11 – 12 11 2, 8, 1
4 P 19 09 09 – 09 2, 7
5 Q 09 04 04 05 – 2, 2
6 R 31 15 15 16 15 -
PART – B
Q14. Which disease we want to eradicate from our country by pulse polio programme? [1]
Q15. What do you mean by the term climate? [1]
Q16. Under what condition you are most likely to fall sick and why? [3]
a. Diabetes
b. Measles
c. Dwarfism
d.
Q17. Name tows activities which may be polluting water resources. [2]
Q18. What causes wind? [1]
Q19. Write point wise how forests influence the quality of our air, soil and water resources. [1]
Q20. What is the various modes o f transmission of diseases? [3]
100
THIRD UNIT TEST
CLASS - IX SCIENCE(MCQ)
[Time: 11/2 hrs.] [M. M.: ]
(1) Choose the correct answer from the options given against each of the questions and
marks it on the answer sheet attached.
(2) Question number 1 to 20 carry ½ mark each.
(3) Question number 21 to 30 carry 1 marks each.
(4) Cutting, erasing & use of fluid is not allowed on the answer sheet.
PART – A
Q1. Which one of the following shows tyndall effect?

(a) Salt solution (c) Milk
(b) Copper sulphate solution (d) None of these
Q2. Which of the following is a mixture?

(a) Sugar (c) Salt
(b) Water (d) Air
Q3. The colour of copper sulphate solution is

(a) Blue (c) Black
(b) Yellow (d) Red
Q4. Sound waves cannot travel through

(a) Water (c) Iron
(b) Vacuum (d) Air
Q5. We can find out the density of given body by using a relation.
M (c) D = MV
(a) D =
V (d) D = MV2
V
(b) D =
M
101
Q6. The correct way of reading the liquid level in a measuring cylinder is shown in the following
figure
Q7. Which of the following show the correct set up?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q8. Which part is labelled as in the given animal cell?

(a) Cell wall
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Cytoplasm
(d) Nucleus
102
9. The given diagram represents
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Scalerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Salaried
Q10. ----------image not clear--------------
Q11. ----------- image not clear -------------
Q12. A true solution of common salt is prepared by dissolving

(a) Common slat in HCl (c) Common salt in Alcohol
(b) Common salt in H2SO4 (d) Common salt in water
Q13. On heating iron and sulphur together in a China Dish.

(a) A mixture of iron sulphide is formed
(b) A compound iron sulphide is formed
(c) A mixture of iron and sulphur is formed
(d) None of these
Q14. The reaction

2Mg + O2 2MgO is a
(a) Displacement reaction (c) Sublimation reaction
(b) Combination reaction (d) Decomposition reaction
Q15. What will be colour of ht solution in test tube 2?

(a) Blue black
(b) Brown
(c) Red
(d) Colouless
Q16. We can recover solute from a true solution of common salt by the process of
(a) Sublimation (c) Sedimentation
(b) Evaporation (d) Decantation
Q17. When iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution than which metal colour gets coated
on iron nail
(a) Brown (c) Green
(b) Black (d) Reddish brown
103
Q18. When a body ‘A’ and cold body ‘B’ are mixed then
(a) A loses, B gain energy (c) Both A and B gain energy
(b) B loses, A gain energy (d) Both A and B lose energy
Q19. Which of the following plant groups bears naked seeds?

(a) Angiospermae (c) Bryophyte
(b) Gymnospermae (d) Pteridophyte
Q20. ----------- image not clear -----------
Q21. The correct arrangement of true solution, suspension and colloid with respect to their
particle size is -
(a) Suspension < colloid < true solution
(b) Colloid < true solution < suspension
(c) True solution < colloid < suspension
(d) True solution < suspension < colloid
Q22. Most suitable metal for obtaining Hydrogen gas in the laboratory is
(a) Sodium (c) Calcium
(b) Potassium (d) Zinc
Q23. Using a spring balance, a given solid is weighted in the air. It is then weighted by immersing
fully in water in each of three vessels containing water as shown in given figures A, B and c.
The apparent weight of solid will be
(a) Least in A
(b) Least in C
(c) Least in B
(d) Equal in all
Q24. Which of the following graphs represents a cooling curve.
104
Q25. Cell of the onion peel under a light microscope is shown below: correct labeling of 1, 2, 3, 4
will be
(a) 1. Cell wall 2. Cytoplasm 3. Central Vocoule 4. Nucleus

(b) 1. Cytoplasm 2. Central Vocoule 3. Cytoplasm 4. Nucleus
(c) 1. Central Vocoule 2. Nucleus 3. Cell wall 4. Cytoplasm
(d) 1. Cell wall 2. Cytoplasm 3. Nucleus 4. Central Vocoule
Q26. ------------ image not clear --------------
Q27. Which of the following cause a disease called ‘dropsy’?

(a) Milk is adulterated with urea
(b) Edible oil is adulterated with argemone oil
(c) Arhar dal is adulterated with ‘Kesaril dal’
(d) Turmeric power is adulterated with ‘Lead Chromate’
Q28. Which of the following is nocturnal organism?

(a) Cockroach (c) Earth warm
(b) Bird (d) Fish
Q29. On mixing of iron and sulphur in carbon disulphide

(a) Yellow particles of sulphur changes to red particles
(b) Grey particles of Iron dissolve
(c) Both iron and sulphur dissolve
(d) Yellow particles of sulphur dissolve
Q30. ------------- image not clear --------------
105
CBSE UNIT TEST PAPER-
CLASS - IX (SCIENCE)
PHYSICS
1. Define acceleration ? Give its units.

2. What are the difference between the mass of an objects and its weight.
3. Why is the weight of an objects on the moon 1/6 th its weight on the earth.
4. Relative density of the silver is 10.8 the density of the water is 10 3 kg m -3
What is density of the silver in SI unit
5. An object of the mass 15kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 4 m/s.
What is the kinetic energy possessed by the object ?
6. What is power? Define 1 watt of the power. A lamp consumes 1000 j of electrical
energy in 10S. What is its powers?
BIOLOGY
1. Define ligament tissue
2. Define tissue and atom.
3. Define Cotyledons
4. Define miro-organisms. Give its four types of organisms?
5. Define Health?
6. How are clouds formed?
7. Explain why both atmosphere and water essential for life.
8. Difference between Hypotonic solution isotonic solution, hypertonic solution.
9. Write about the cell organelle.
a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Lysosomes
10. Write about the Nitrogen cycle or carbon cycle with labeled diagram.
106
CHEMISTRY
1. What is the physical state of matter ie water (a) 250 0C (b) 100 0C ?
2. What types of clothes should we wear in summer ?
3. Give reason to justify why does water is liquid at room temperature?
4. What produces more servere burn boiling water or steam ?
5. Name the technique to separate
1) Butter from curd.
2) Salt from sea water.
6. What is a chemical change? Give examples?
7. Write the four postulate’s of Dalton’s atomic theory.
8. What is an atom? Write its constituents? Also calculate numbers of particles in each of the
following i.e 46g of Na atom.
9 Differentiate between valency and isotopes with e.g.? And also write the valency of
(i) O atom
(ii) Ca atom
10. Write chemical formulae of the following :-
a) Magnesium chloride
b) Calcium Oxide
c) copper nitrate
d) Ammonium chloride
e) Calcium chloride
f) Sulphuric Acid.
107
CBSE TEST PAPER-
Class – IX Science
Time :-1.5 Hrs. M.M. :-
Chemistry
1. Convert the following temperature into Celsius scale [2]
a. 400K
b. 673K
2. What is the physical state of water at [2]
a. 2500C
b. 1000 C
3. What produce more severe bums, boiling water or steam? Give reason. [2]
4. Name A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram. [3]
5. Give reasons for [4]

a. We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid
block of wood we need a karate expert.
b. B. Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
Physics
1. Under what conditions is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to [1]
aver – age speed?
2. Interpret the type of motion represented by the following graphs. [1]
108
3. Why is the motion in a circle at constant speed called accelerated motion? [2]
4. Differentiate between speed and velocity? [2]
5. A motorboat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a [3]
constant rate of 3.0m/s2for 8.0s. How far does the boat travel during this time.
6. An athlete completes on round of a circular track of diameter 200m in 40s. What [3]
will be the distance and displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20s?
Biology
1. Name two organelles which contain their own genetic material [2]
2. Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell ( Give ant 2 differences ) [2]
3. Which organelle is known as the power of the cell? Why? [2]
4. Give the function of following cell organelles [2]
i. Ribosomes
ii. Chloroplast
iii. Lysosomes
5. List any four differences between a plant cell and an animal cell. [2]]
6. Draw well labeled diagram of a typical animal cell as seen under electron [4]
microscope.
109

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902B B.P.S. IX S.A. II Science Chapterwise 5 Printable Worksheets With Solution 2014 15

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BRILLIANT PUBLIC SCHOOL ,

IX S.A.-II Science Chapterwise

Office: Rajopatti, Dumra Road, Sitamarhi(Bihar), Pin-843301

CBSE Chapter-wise Solved Test Papers

1. Atoms and Molecules 001

1. Atomic radius is measured in nanometers and [1]

2. Symbol of Iron is :- (a) Ir (b) I (c) Fe (d) None of these [1]

3. Atomicity of chlorine and Argon is [1]

5. State law of conservation of Mass? [2]

6. Define Valency? Find the Valency of oxygen and Aluminum. [2]

7. Calculate the molar mass of Na2SO4 and CaCO3? [2]

8. Write the chemical formula for [2]

9. State the Postulates of Dalton Theory? [3]

10. Find the percentage of water of crystallization in feSO4. 7H2O. [3]

Ans 01. (C)

Ans 07. Molar Mass of Na2 SO4 =

Ans 09. The postulates of Dalton theory are

Ans 10. The RMM of FeSO4.7H2O= 55.9 + 32.0 + 4 × 16 + 7(18)

Ans 11. The percentage of copper is first oxide

22.65 11.15 61.32 4.88

RMM for the molecular = n(65 + 32 + (11× 16) + 14

1. 1 Mole of a compound contains – [1]

8. Define the terms:- a) Atomic number b) Mass number [2]

Ans 01. (A) Ans 02. (B)

Ans 06. We know that :-

Now, 82 = Atomic Number

Ans 10. Failures of Dalton Atomic Theory are :-

Ans 11. a) Ammonium Sulphate ( NH 4 ) 2 SO4 

= [1× mass of N+4 × Mass of Hydngen ] × 2 + 1× Mass of sulphur +4 × Mass of oxygen

b) Penicillin [C16 H18 N 2 SO4 ]

=16 × mass of carbon + 18 × Mass of hydrogen + 2 × Mass of Nitrogen + 1 ×

= 8 × Mass of carbon + 9 × Mass of hydrogen + 1 × mass of Nitrogen + 1 × mass

1. Which of the following statements is correct? [1]

5. What are α, β and γ – rays composed of. [2]

7. Complete the following equations which describe nuclear charge – [2]

c) 168 O + 01n → _______ + 24 He

8. Stat the properties of cathode rays? [2]

10. What is radioactivity? What are the applications of radioisotopes? [3]

Ans 03. (B) Isobars

Ans 04. (A) 8.

Ans 05. α-particles are made up of helium ions with +2 charge.

Ans 08. Properties of cathode rays are :-

Ans 10. The spontaneous emission of radiation by a substance is called as radioactivity.

p+ = Proton Protium Deuterium Tritium

1. Atomic Number of an element is equal to:- [1]

2. The charge of proton (p+) is :- [1]

7. What happens to the nucleus of an atom when it emits a r-ray? [2]

8. Write the electronic configuration of following ions:- [2]

9. In a gold – foil experiment :- [3]

12. Write the postulates of Bohr theory? [3]

Ans 02. +1.6 × 10-19C

Ans 03. Isotopes

Ans 04. 2 P + and 2 no

Ans 08. a) Cl- ⇒ electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8

Ans 12. The postulates of Bohr’s theory are :-

1. In which form is oxygen stable? [1]

(a) O2- (b) O2+ (c) O (d) Both a) and c)

(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 18 (d) 8

3. Atomic number of an element during a Chemical reaction. [1]

(a) Increases (b) Remain Constant (c) Decreases (d) May be a) or c)

4. The molecular formula for Aluminum chloride us [1]

(a) Al3 Cl (b) Al Cl3 (c) AlCl3 (d) Both b and c