Model Question papers

Model Question paper (JEE) (1)

1. In close container, metal carbonate having weight 312.5 gm on 80% decomposition gives metal
oxide and carbon dioxide. Volume of liberated dry carbon dioxide at STP is 56 litre. Find equivalent
weight of metal. (At STP volume of 1 mole gas = 22.4 litre)
(A) 9 g/equi. (B) 20 g/equi.

(C) 32.5 g/equi. (D) 12 g/equi.

Jm3
2. For Nitrogen gas, values for Vanderwaal’s constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are 0.1363 and
mol2

3
3.85 × 10–5 m . Find critical temperature (Tc) of nitrogen gas ?
mole

(A) 125.98 K (B) 251 K

(C) 425 K (D) 225.3 K
3. In ground state electronic configuration of atom having atomic number 16, second last e– possess Quantum
1
numbers. n = 3, l = 1, ms = 0, s = then what are the Quantum numbers of last electron ?
2

1 1
(A) n = 3, l = 1, ms = – 1, s = + (B) n = 3, l = 0, ms =
2 2

1 1
(C) n = 3, l = 0, ms = 0, s = + (D) n = 3, l = 1, ms = – 1, s = +
2 2

4. Select correct option by matching group I (Type of solid), group II (physical Nature) and group III
(electronic conductance) properly.
Group 1 Group 2 Group 3
(A) Metallic solid (I) Solid (X) Conductor
(B) Covalent solid (II) hard but brittle (Y) Non conductor
(C) Non polar Molecular (III) Soft (Z ) Conductor in solid and liquid state
solid
(D) Ionic solid (IV) hard but malleable (W) Non-conductor in solid state but in
and ductile liquid state conductor
(A) (A) - (II) (Z), (B) - (III) (Y), (C) -(IV) (X), (D) (I) (Z)
(B) (A) - (II) (Y), (B) - (I) (X), (C) - (III) (Z), (D) (IV) (Y)
(C) (A) - (IV) (Z), (B) - (I) (Y), (C) -(III) (Y), (D) (II) (W)
(D) (A) - (IV) (W), (B) - (I) (Y), (C) -(II) (Y), (D) (II) (Z)

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5. Which of following graph is correct for Temperature of substance ® Internal Energy ?
X = Freezing point, Y = Melting point
(A) (B)

Internal Energy
Internal Energy
X X

Y Y

Temperature Temperature

(C) (D)
Internal Energy

Internal Energy
Y

Y X
X

Temperature Temperature
6. What is the pH of resultant solution, when equal volume of aqueous solutions of HCl are mixed
having y pH and x pH at 298 K temperature ?

¥ 10 x  y µ ¥ 2(10 x  10 y ) µ
(A) log ¦
§ 2(10 x  10 y ) ¶·
(B) – log ¦
§ 10 x  y ¶·

¥ 210 x  y µ ¥ 210 x  y µ
(C) log ¦ x
§ 10  10 y ¶·
(D) – log ¦ x
§ 10  10 y ¶·

7. What is the solubility of Fe(OH)2 in 0.01 M NaOH solution ? Ksp of Fe(OH)2 = 1.5 × 10–15 .
(A) 1.5 × 10–13 M (B) 1.5 × 10–17 M (C) 1.5 × 10–19 M (D) 1.5 × 10–11 M
8. Cell potential of given cell at 25o C is 0.245 V. A | A2+(0.00001M) || B2+(0.0001 M)
| B At 25°C,
1
Equilibrium constant of cell B | B2+(c1) || M+(c2) | M is 1.0 × 105 Mole
2 then calculate at 25°C
litre
equilibrium constant of cell A | A2+(XM) || M+(YM) | M.
–1 –1 –1 –1
(A) 1.0 × 10–5 M
(B) 1.0 × 107 M
(C) 1.0 × 102o M
(D) 1.0 × 1015 M

L L L L

9. Which of following is not true for order of reaction ?

(A) Order is not affected by stoichiometric co-efficients of balanced reaction.
(B) Order of reaction is sum of powers of reactant concentration in differential rate formula
(C) Order is determined only by experimental method.
(D) Order is never fraction number.
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10. [M(L1)(L2)(L3)(L4)(L)2]3– where L1, L2, L3, L4 and L are mono dentate ligand, M = Metalic atom.
How many stereo isomers are possible for given complex ion ? (with enaentiomers)
(A) 9 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) 12
11. Which of the following is correct Basicity order of given oxides ?
(A) Lu2O3 > Sm2O3 > Ce2O3 (B) Sm2O3 > Lu2O3 > Ce2O3

(C) Lu2O3 > Ce2O3 > Sm2O3 (D) Ce2O3 > Sm2O3 > Lu2O3
12. Which catalyst is used when Butyne and HCN reacts to give Adiponitrile ?
(A) Rh/Pd complex (B) Mo(VI) complex (C) Ni, Pd complex (D) [Rh(CO)2I2]–
13. Select correct order of Acidity ?
(A) P-methyl benzoic acid < benzoic acid < P-nitro benzoic acid < O-nitro benzoic acid
(B) O-nitro benzoic acid < benzoic acid < P-methyl benzoic acid < P-nitro benzoic acid
(C) Benzoic acid < P-nitro benzoic acid < P-methyl benzoic acid < O-nitro benzoic acid
(D) P-methyl benzoic acid < benzoic acid < O-nitro benzoic acid < P-nitro benzoic acid
14. Which compound is Insoluble in HCl ?
(A) CH3NH-C6H5 (B) (CH3)2NSO2-C6H5

(C) (C6H5)3N (D) CH3CH2N(C6H5)2

15. Which option is correct for synthetic polymer ?
(A) May be Biodegradable. (B) PDI = 1.
(C) Possess always less molecular weight. (D) All three options are right
16. Why deodrants are added in Ayurvedic soaps ?
(A) To increase froth. (B) To keep froth for more time.
(C) To keep skin smooth. (D) To prevent Bad smell of perspiration.
17. Match group-I and group-II properly :
Group I (Metal) Group II Alloys
(i) Copper (A) Constant (B) Alnico (C) Magnelium
(ii) Aluminium (D) muntz metal (E) Bell Metal (F) Duralumin
(A) (i)-(A),(C),(D), (ii)-(B),(E),(F) (B) (i)-(A),(D),(E), (ii)-(B),(C),(F)
(C) (i)-(B),(D),(F), (ii)-(A),(C),(E) (D) (i)-(A),(C),(D), (ii)-(B),(F),(E)
18. In given statements, one is statement (A) and second is reason (R). Study properly all
statements and choose correct option Ñ
Statement (A) : Nitrogen molecule will not form dp–pp bond.
Reason (R) : d-orbitals are Un-available in valence shell of nitrogen atom.
(A) statement (A) and reason (R) both are correct and reason (R) is of statement (A).
(B) statement (A) and reason (R) both are correct but reason (R) is not of statement (A).
(C) statement (A) and reason (R) both are correct, both reasons are incorrect.
(D) statement (A) is incorrect while reason (R) is correct.

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19. Which of following structure is D-Lactic acid.
(A) H (B) OH (C) CH3 (D) CH3

OH COOH H COOH
H 3C H CH3 HO COOH H OH
COOH
20. Which Mechanism is this ?

.. ..+
:Br:
.. + RCH2 – O – PBr2 RCH 2Br + HOPBr2
H
(A) First step of reaction mechanism of alcohol with PBr3
(B) Second step of reaction mechanism of alcohol with PBr3
(C) First step of reaction mechanism of ether with PBr3
(D) Second step of reaction mechanism of ether with PBr3
21. Which is the correct increasing order of dipole moment for given molecules ?
I–CHCl3 II–CH3Cl, III–CCl4, IV–CH2Cl2
(A) III < II < IV < I (B) III < II < I < IV (C) III < IV < I < II (D) I < III < IV < II
22. Group-13 elements...
(A) As atomic number increases, stability of +1 and +3 oxidation state increases.
(B) As atomic number increases, stability of +1 and +3 oxidation state decreases.
(C) As atomic number increases, stability of +1 oxidation state increases but stability of +3
oxidation state decreases.
(D) As atmoic numebr increases, stability of +1 oxidation state decreases but stability of +3
oxidation state increases.
23. Product of which of following reaction shows tautomerism ?
(A) Chlorination of ethene (B) Hydrogenation of ethyne
(C) Hydrohalogenation of propene (D) Hydration of propyne
24. How many times Global warming potential of methane gas is greater than CFC ?
(A) 1000 (B) 1500000 (C) 150 (D) 25000
25. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) KMnO4 is oxidised by hydrogen peroxide so pink colour of aqueous solution disappear.
(ii) Hydrogen Peroxide molecule have three s bonds.
(iii) Hydrogen Peroxide act as oxidising and reducing agent in both acidic and basic medium.
(iv) Density of H2O2(s) is 1.44 gm/cm.
(A) (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii) (C) (ii), (iv) (D) (iii)
26. Which is the correct structure of Berylium chloride in vapour state ?
Cl Cl

(A) Cl – Be Be – Cl (B) Cl – Be Be – Cl

Cl Cl

Cl Cl

(C) Cl – Be Be – Cl (D) Cl – Be Be – Cl

Cl Cl
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27. Match group-I and group-II properly and select correct answer.
Group-I : Compound, Group -II : s & p bonds in one molecule
Group-I Group-II
(A) (CN)2CH – CH(CH)2 (I) 14, 4

(B) (CH º C)2 CH – CH = CH2 (II) 11, 8

(C) CH3 – CH(CN) – CH = CH – CHO (III) 12, 5

(A) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I) (B) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III)
(C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II) (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I)
28. Iron pyrite on Roasting gives X gas. X-gas on dissolving in water gives Acid-Y. So, X and Y are
respectively...
(A) SO2 and H2SO4 (B) SO3 and H2SO4
(C) SO2 and H2SO3 (D) SO3 and H2SO3
29. Which option is correct for mechanism of reaction of alcohol with halogen acid (HCl) in presence
of Anhydrous ZnCl2.
(A) Water is eliminated from oxonium ion to form Carbocation in rate determining step.
(B) Proton is removed from alcohol to form alkoxide ion in first step.
(C) In second step, water molecule is added in carbocation to form oxonium ion.
(D) In third step, Cl– reacts with oxonium ion and forms chloro alkane.
30. Which elements are tested by Lassign test ?
(A) C, S. P, N (B) N, P, S, H (C) X, N, C, S (D) X, N, S, P
ˆ

Model Question Paper (JEE) (2)

1. Metal hydroxide on heating gives 60% decomposition and forms 1 gm metal oxide. For complete

1
neutralization of undecomposed metal hydroxide 100 ml N H2SO4 solution is required. Find
3
equivalent weight of metal.
(A) 9 gm/equi. (B) 20 gm/equi. (C) 23 gm/equi. (D) 12 gm/equi.
2. At normal temperature which of following gas will be heated on expansion ?
(A) Nitrogen and Helium (B) Nitrogen and Hydrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Helium (D) Hydrogen and Oxygen
3. In which of following orbital probability of finding e– is not zero in XY plane ?
(A) 3dxy (B) 3dyz (C) 2pz (D) 3dzx
4. What is minimum distance between two F– centres in crystal lattice structure of CaF2 ?

+ – + –
4(r + + r − ) 2(r + + r − )
(A) 2(r + r ) (B) 3 (r + r ) (C) (D)
3 3

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5. Statement (A) : Entropy of any substance is zero in standard state.

Reason (R) : Entropy is measure of disorder of substance.

(A) Both statement (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is giving explanation of statement (A).
(B) Both statement (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not giving explanation of statement (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct and Reason (R) is wrong.
(D) Statement (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is correct.
6. Which of following statements are true, if solution-2 is hypotonic compare to solution-1.
(i) Vapour pressure of solution-2 is greater than solution-1.
(ii) Boiling point of solution-2 is greater than solution-1.
(ii) Freezing point of solution-2 is greater than solution-1.
(iv) Molarity of solute in solution-2 is greater than solution-1.
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) (C) (i) (D) (i), (ii), (iii)
7. At 500 K temperature. In close vessel having volume 10 litre 1 mole CO(g) and 1 mole H2O(g) are
heated. At equilibrium H2O(g) reacts 40% by mass. Calcualte equilibrium constant (Kp) for reaction.
H2O(g) + CO(g) H2(g) + CO2(g)
9 2 4 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 9 9 2

Scm 2
8. At constant temperature, Molar conductivity of aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is 150
Eq
Find equivalent conductivity of same solution.

Scm 2 Scm 2 Scm 2

(A) 300 (B) 75 (C) 150 (D) None of the above.
Eq Eq Eq
9. Activation Energy of reaction in absence of catalyst is 41720 joule/mole and in presence of catalyst
is 35760 Joule/mole. Time required to complete 40% reaction at 350 K temperature in absence of
catalyst is equal to complete same in presence of catalyst then at what temperature reaction is done
in presence of catalyst ? (Both time initial concentration of reactant is same and For Forward and
Backward reaction Arrhenious constant A is equal.]
(A) 320 K (B) 280 K (C) 290 K (D) 300 K
10. When two mole [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl, three mole [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and two mole [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
containing aqueous solution reacted completely with aqueous AgNO3 then how many moles of AgCl
obtained as precipitate ?
(A) 6 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12
OH
H+ H+
11. C = O + H2 N – Z C Schiff’s reagent then what is Z ?
NHZ –H2O

(A) –R (B) –OH (C) –NH 2 (D) –NH –C6H5

12. What is correct order of Basicity of amine in gaseous state ?
(A) (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 (B) CH3NH < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH
(C) (CH3)2N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2 (D) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N
13. a Cu(s) + bHNO3 dil.® cCu(NO3)2(s) + X + dH2O(l) then a, b and X respectively are.
(A) 4, 10, N2O(g) (B) 3, 8, 2NO(g) (C) 1, 4, 2NO2(g) (D) 4, 10, N2O3(g)
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14. Choose correct option for given statements. T = True statement, F = False statement.
(i) Reaction of Bromo alkane or chloro alkane with silver fluoride in dry Acetone is called
Finkelstein reaction.

(ii) Bromomethane or chloromethane converted to Fluoromethane by Swartz reaction.

(iii) Propene on addition reaction with HBr gives Isopropyl Bromide as main product.

(iv) Electrophilic substitution reaction of Toluene with Difuorine will not give proper product.

(A) T T T T (B) F T T F (C) F T FT (D) F T T T

(BH 3) 2 H2O2 OH –
15. X Y Z 3R – CH2 – OH X, Y, Z respectively are ......

(A) X = 3R–CH=CH2, Y=(R–CH2–CH2O)3B, Z=(R–CH2–CH2)3B

(B) X = 3R–CH2–CH2, Y=(R–CH2=CH)3B, Z=(R–CH2–CH2)3B

(C) X = 3R–CH=CH2, Y=(R–CH2–CH2)3B, Z=(R–CH2–CH2O)3B

(D) X = 3R–CH2–CH, Y=(R–CH2=CH)3B, Z=(R–CH2–O)3B

16. Which of following possess equal dipole moment ?

(I) Cl (II) Cl (III) Cl (IV) Cl

Cl

Cl Cl Cl
Cl

(A) I and III (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) I and IV

17. Match group I and II properly.

Group I (Compound) Group II (Uses)

(I) Carbon dioxide (p) To prepare Magnetic tape and Iron carbonyl

(II) Carbon monoxide (q) To prepare Fluor stone

(III) Carbon Disulphide (r) To prepare Carbogen mixture

(IV) Silicon carbide (s) As Insecticide to stop spoiling of food material.

(A) (I)-(r), (II)-(p), (III)-(s), (IV)-(q) (B) (I)-(r), (II)-(s), (III)-(p), (IV)-(q)

(C) (I)-(r), (II)-(p), (III)-(p), (IV)-(s) (D) (I)-(p), (II)-(r), (III)-(s), (IV)-(q)

18. Which of following alkene compound gives geometrical isomerism ?

(A) 1, 1-dichloro, 2-methyl prop-1-ene (B) Propene

(C) Isobutylene (D) 1,1-dichloro, 3-methyl penta 1,3 diene

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19. Match group I and II properly.
Group 1 (Compoud) Group 2 (Property)
(I) NO2(g) (p) Carcinogenic
(II) 3,4-Benzpyrene (q) Irritation and Swelling in wind pipe
(III) SO2(g) (r) Hazardous to living cells
(IV) CO2(g) (s) Global warming
(A) (I)-(r), (II)-(s), (III)-(p), (IV)-(q) (B) (I)-(p), (II)-(r), (III)-(s), (IV)-(q)
(C) (I)-(r), (II)-(p), (III)-(q), (IV)-(s) (D) (I)-(r), (II)-(p), (III)-(s), (IV)-(q)
20. In electro-refining of copper, which noble metals are obtained in anode mud ?
(A) Au, Ag, Zn (B) Au, Ac, Pt (C) Au, Ag, Pt (D) Au, Sb, Zn
21. Which of following acid possess S–S bond ?
(i) H 2S 2O 7 (ii) H2S2O8 (iii) H2S2O6 (iv) H2S2O5 (v) H2S2O4
(A) (iii), (iv), (v) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (iv)

22. A + Cl2 }}}}}}}m B }}}}}}}

[O] 3Cl
Bleaching powder
Bleaching powder
m C In above reaction A, B, C are....
2

–2HCl –3HCl

(A) Ethanol, Chloral, Acetaldehyde (B) Ethanol, Chloral, Chloroform

(C) Ethanol, Acetaldehyde, Chloroform (D) Ethanol, Acetaldehyde, Chloral
23. In given reaction Find X, Y and Z.

X + H2O }}}}}
dil H SO
2
Pressure
m 2Y 3Y + PBr
4
3
® 3Z + H3PO3
(A) C2H5O C2H5, C2H5OH, CH2 = CH2 (B) C2H5O C2H5, C2H5OH, CH3CHO
(C) C2H5O C2H5, C2H5OH, CH3CH2Br (D) C2H5OH, C2H5OC2H5 CH3CH2Br
24. Choose correct option from following True statement (T) False statement (F)
(i) Dihydrogen molecule having same spin of proton is called ortho hydrogen.
(ii) Dihydrogen molecule having same spin of proton is called para hydrogen.
(iii) At room temperature, ortho hydrogen is more stable than para hydrogen.
(iv) At room temperature, 75% para hydrogen and 25% ortho hydrogen, mixture is obtained.
(A) F T T T (B) T F T F (C) F T F F (D) T F F T
25. What is action of K+ ion in cell fluid ?
(A) To activate enzymes
(B) Producing ATP by oxidation of Glucose
(C) In transmission of nerve signal with sodium ion
(D) All of given
26. Which of following correct for –I Effect ?
(A) –NO2 > –COOH > –OH > –Cl (B) –COOH > –OCH3 > –OH > –C6H5
(C) –COOH > –Br > –OH > –C6H5 (D) –NO2 > –OCH3 > Cl > C6H5
27. Which method is useful to isolate constituents of ink ?
(A) Chromatography (B) Distillation (C) Co-agulation (D) Floucculation

750
28. Which option is correct for atomic radius ?
(A) Zn < Cu (B) V > Ti (C) Mn = Cr (D) Co > Cr
29. Which units are attached in b – (+) – Lactose ?
(A) b–D–(+) Galactose and b–D–(+) Glucose (B) b–D–(+) Galactose and b–D–(+) Glucose
(C) a –D–(+) Galactose and b–D–(+) Glucose (D) b–D–(+) Galactose and –D–(+) Glucose
a

30. An Aqueous Inorganic solution gives pink colour. Which is soluble in aqueous solution of Acetic
acid. So, which cation will be present in Inorganic solution ?

(A) Fe2+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Zn2+ (D) Mn2+

•

Model Question Paper (JEE) (3)

1. 1 gm Alkaline earth Metal carbonate is dissolved in 25 ml Normal HCl solution. After completion of
N
reaction. For neutralisation of remaining solution 50 ml NaOH solution is required. Find
10
Equivalent weight of Metal carbonate and Metal, Atomic weight of Metal respectively.
(A) 40, 20, 50 gm (B) 20, 50, 40 gm (C) 50, 20, 40 gm (D) 50, 40, 20 gm
2. Which order of temperature is right for gases ? Tc = Critical temperature Tb = Boyle temperature
Ti = Inversion temperature ?
(A) Tc < Ti < Tb (B) Tc < Tb < Ti (C) Tb < Tc < Ti (D) Ti < Tc < Tb
3. For more than one electron contain system (atom or ion) 2 < n + l < 4. Then Find total number of
electrons ?
(A) 10 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 18
4. In given Unit cell of fcc, which number contained spheres are responsible for forming tetraheldral
voids ?
4 3
13
1 2

11
12 10
9

8 7
14
5 6
(ykf]rík)
(A) 2, 9, 10 13 (B) 5, 8, 9, 12 (C) 9, 11, 12, 14 (D) 6, 10, 14, 11
5. Which among the following option is correct for spontaneous reaction carried out at K temperature
for which DH < 0 and DS < 0.

∆H ∆H
(A) >T (B) <T (C) DH – TDS > 0 (D) DH > AS
∆S ∆S
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6. For Binary solutions of two liquid select correct option. (T = Ture statement F = False statement)
(i) Azeotropic mixture of liquid A
and liquid B possess maximum
boiling point.
(ii) When Vapour pressure of both

®
liquid in mixture is same then

Vapour pressure
XA < XB
(iii) Given mixture shows positive
deviation to Raoult’s law

(iv) When XA = XB then PA < PB

XA = 0 XA = 1
XB = 1 XB = 0

(A) T F T F (B) F F T F (C) F T T F (D) F F T T

7. Concentration of aqueous solution of salt prepared from basic strong acid and acidic weak base is
CoM. Find out molarity of OH– ion.

Kb × Co Kb × Kw
(A) (B)
Kw Co

Kw × Co
(C) (D) None of the above
Kb

8. For a cell, Zn|Zn2+(c1) || Cu2+(c2)|Cu Ecell > Eocell What will be change in cell potential if
concentration of both half cell solution is decreased to 0.1 M. (C1 and C2 > 0.1 M)
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) No change occurs (D) Can’t predictable
9. In Van-Arkel Method, How Impurities of Oxygen and Nitrogen removed respectively from metals
like Zirkonium and Titanium ?
(A) (i) Impure metal heated with Iodine in vacuum. (ii) Metal Iodide electrically heated on pt-wire
at 1800 K temperature.
(B) (i) Impure metal heated with Iodine in vaccum. (ii) Metal Iodide electrically heated on
tungsten wire at 1800 K temperature.
(C) (i) Impure metal electrically heated on Pt-wire in vacuum. (ii) Metal heated with Iodine at
1800 K temperature.
(D) (i) Impure metal heated with Iodine (ii) Metal iodide heated in absence of air at 1800 K
temperature
10. Select correct statements :
(i) Acidicity of hydride of group-16 elements increase down in a group.
(ii) Stability of halides of group-16 elements is F– < Cl– < Br– <I–
(iii) Reducing nature of oxides of group-16 decreases down in a group.
(iv) In compounds of hexahalides of group-16 elements only hexafluorides are stable.
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (iii) (D) (i), (iv)

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11. Order of ease of SN2 reaction is ...
(A) 3o -halide < 2o-halide < 1o-halide < methyl halide
(B) 2o -halide < 1o-halide < 3o-halide < methyl halide
(C) methyl halide < 1o - halide < 2o - halide < 3o halide
(D) methyl halide < 3o - halide < 2o - halide < 2o-halide < 1o-halide
12. Which of following alcohol possess Lowest boiling point ?
(A) CH3CH2C(CH3)(OH)CH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
(C) CH3CH(CH3)CH(OH)CH3 (D) CH3CH2CH2CH(OH)CH3
13. According to VSEPR theory, how many number of Lp, Lp–Bp and Bp–Bp repulsions respectively
present in AB3E2 type molecule?
(A) 1, 3, 4 (B) 0, 2, 2 (C) 0, 4, 2 (D) 1, 4, 2
14. What change is observed when concentration of reactants decreased in any reaction at equilibrium ?
(A) rate of reverse reaction increases. (B) rate of forward reaction decreases.
(C) Given both. (D) None of the above.
15. Which out of following silicate possess cross linkage ?
(A) Zircon (B) Beryl (C) Diopside (D) Trimolite
16. Which reactions are required respectively to prepare 1,1-dichloro ethane from Acetylene.
(A) hydrogenation, chlorination (B) hydrochlorination, hydrachlorination
(C) hydrogenation, hydrochlorination (D) chlorination, hydrochlorination
17. According to BIS what is the amount of TDS, chloride and sulphate in ppm respectively for drinking
water ?
(A) 300, 250, 200 (B) 500, 250, 200 (C) 250, 500, 200 (D) 500, 200, 250
18. In given statements, one is statement (A) and second is reason (R). Study properly all
statements and choose correct option Ñ
Statement (A) : negative value of electron gain Enthalpy for ‘Cl’ is more than ‘F’
Reason (R) : Prinicple Quantum number for outermost shell of Fluorine is 2 and possess 7
electron in outer shell, so repulsion increase.
(A) statement (A) and reason (R) are correct. But reason (R) is not giving explanation for
statement (A)
(B) statement (A) and reason (R) are correct and reason (R) is giving explanation for
statement (A).
(C) statement (A) and reason (R) both are incorrect.
(D) statement (A) is incorrect and reason (R) is correct.
19. Which option is correct if Group-I and Group-II matched properly.
Group-1 Group-2
(A) Calgon (I) Useful to remove Permanent hardness.
(B) Zeolite (II) Sodium hexameta phosphate
(C) Washing soda (III) Useful to remove temporary hardness
(IV) Cation exchanger
(V) Synthetic resion
(A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I) (B) (A)-(IV), (B)-(V), (C)-(I)
(C) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I) (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV)
753
20. Group-(I) = Compound and Group (II) is uses. Match group (I) and (II) properly.
Group-1 Group-2
(P) Calcium Carbonate (I) To prepare statues
(Q) Quick lime (II) To prepare ammonia from Ammonium chloride
(R) Calcium hydroxide (III) As filler in cosmetics
(S) plaster of paris (IV) In Inner layer of electric furnace
(V) to prepare calcium carbide
(VI) As Antacid in Medicine
(VII) In moulding of Dentine
(VIII) To Distinguish CO2 in laboratory

(A) (P)-(III),(VI), (Q)-(IV),(V), (R)-(I),(VIII), (S)-(II),(VII)

(B) (P)-(III),(VI), (Q)-(IV),(V), (R)-(II),(VII), (S)-(I),(VIII)
(C) (P)-(III),(V), (Q)-(IV),(VI), (R)-(II)(VIII), (S)-(I),(VII)
(D) (P)-(III),(VI), (Q)-(IV)(V), (R)-(II),(VIII), (S)-(I),(VII)
21. Give decreasing order of stability of carbanion.
(I) (CH3)3C– (II) (CH3)2CH– (III) CH3CH2– (IV) C6H5CH2–
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I (C) IV > I > II > III (D) I > II > IV > III
22. What is the arrangement of hybride orbitals in space for 1, 2, 3 carbon number in a given
compound ?
1 2 3 4
CH3 – CO – C º CH
(A) Tetrahedral, planar trigonal, linear (B) Planar trigonal, tetrahedral, linear
(C) Tetrahedral, linear, planar trigonal (D) Planar trigonal, linear, tetrahedral
−2000 −1000
23. A ® B KA = 1015 ,C ® D KC = 1014E At what temperature KA = KC ?
T T

2000 1000
(A) 1000 K (B) 2000 K (C) K (D) K
2.303 2.303
24. Match group-1 and group-2 properly :
Group-1 Group-2
(P) Aerosol (I) Optically active
(Q) Emulsion (II) Purification
(R) Tyndall effect (III) Smoke
(S) Dialysis (IV) Medicines
(A) (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(II), (S)-(I) (B) (P)-(II), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(III)
(C) (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(I), (S)-(II) (D) (P)-(III), (Q)-(I), (R)-(IV), (S)-(III)
25. Which out of following first species is more stable than second ?
(A) Mn2+, Mn3+ (B) Fe2+, Fe3+ (C) Sc2+, Sc3+ (D) Ti3+, Ti4+
26. How many cyclic structures are possible in given complex ion [M(EDTA)]n+ ?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 8
754
 O

C6H5 – C
H 2O /
27. O X + Y What are products X and Y respectively.
CH3 – C

(A) Benzoic acid, Methanoic acid (B) Hexanoic acid, Ethanoic acid
(C) Benzoic acid, Ehtanoic acid (D) Hexanoic acid, Metanoic acid
28. If the product C of the given reaction undergoes oxidation with KMnO4, then the product obtained
is

NO2

Sn/HCl NaNO 2/HCl C2H 5OH

A B C
NO 2
CH3

(A) Salicylic acid (B) Benzene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid

(C) 2,4-diamino benzoic acid (D) Benzoic acid
29. Order of Base in Nucleotide chain of one DNA is CAGCTG. What will be the order of second
respective nucleotide chain ?
(A) GTOGAG (B) GACGTC (C) GTGCAC (D) GTOGAC
30. In Given reaction, Give main products (A) and (B) respectively :
Zn
Ag2S A B
(A) Na[Ag(CN)2], Ag (B) Na[Ag(CN)4], Ag (C) AgCN, Zn(CN)2 (D) Na2S, Zns
•

Model Question Paper (JEE) (4)

1. When rod of Zn metal is dipped in 50 ml, solution of aqueous HCl, 304 ml. dihydrogen gas is
released at C temperature and 740 bar pressure, then what would be the normality of HCl
solution ?
(A) 0.105 N (B) 0.501 N (C) 0.255 N (D) 0.415 N
2. What is the value of compressibility factor Z for real gas at critical temperature ?
(A) 0.735 (B) 1.275 (C) 0.257 (D) 0.375
3. How many acceptable values of wave function y will be obtain for n = 4, l = 3, m = 0 ?
(A) 16 (B) 7 (C) 1 (D) 32
4. If the length of edge of unit cell is x for complete body centroid cubic lattice, then what would be
the radius of void formed in it ?

 5− 3  5− 3  5− 3  5− 3
(A)   × x (B)   × x (C)   × x (D)   × x
 4   3   2   3 
755
5. The initial volume of gaseous system is 10 liter, if 4 lit. bar work is done on the system at 1 bar
constant pressure then the final pressure of the system would be ?
(A) 6 litre (B) 14 litre (C) 16 litre (D) 4 litre
6. Which among the following indicates ppm ?

mlgram gram microgram gram

(A) (B) 3 (C) (D)
mllitre (decimeter) litre (meter)3

7. Which of the following change will be beneficial to obtain more product for given reaction in which
equilibrium is established ? N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + heat.

(A) Increase in temperature and volume of vessel

(B) Decrease in temperature and volume of vessel
(C) Increase in temperature and decrease in volume of vessel
(D) Decrease in temperature and increase in volume of vessel
8. The Ksp of sparingly soluble salt is , then what will be the ratio of molar conductivity and specific
conductivity of the solution ?
(A) 5 × 105 litre/mole (B) 5 × 104 litre/mole (C) 5 × 103 litre/mole (D) 5 × 102 litre/mole

9. AlOx(OH)3–2x where 0 < X < 1 in a given formula Al2O3.2H2O what is the value of X for ?
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.5
10. In which of The given reaction ammonig gas is produce ?

(i) (NH4)2Cr2O7(s) (ii) Mg3N2(s) + 6H2O(I) ®

(iii) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq) ® (iv) NH4Cl(s) + Ca(OH)2(aq) ®

(A) (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii) (C) (ii), (iv) (D) (ii)
11. In which of the given reaction phenylacetate is obtain as a product ?
(A) By esterification of benzoic acid and methanol
(B) By reaction between phenol and acetic anhydride in presence of alkaline medium
(C) By both reactions (A) and (B)
(D) Cannot be obtained by both the reactions.
12. Match the following section-A with section-B :
Section-A Section-B
(1) Lucas test (a) Reaction of bromo or chloromethane with metal fluoride
(2) Sandmeyer reaction (b) Reaction of benzenediazonium chloride Cu2Cl2 with and HCl
(3) Swartz reaction (c) Reaction for detection of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol in
laboratory
(d) Reaction of haloalkane with alcoholic KOH
(e) Reaction of haloalkane with ethanolic Mg metal
(A) (1)-(e), (2)-(d), (3)-(b) (B) (1)-(a), (2)-(e), (3)-(b)
(C) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(d) (D) (1)-(c), (2)-(b), (3)-(a)
756
13. Match the following section-A with section-B :

Section-A : Molecule Section-B : Type of molecule

(1) NF3 (a) AB4E

(2) ClF3 (b) AB4E2

(3) SF4 (c) AB3E

(4) XeF4 (d) AB3E2

(A) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(b) (B) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(a), (4)-(b)
(C) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(b), (4)-(a) (D) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(b), (4)-(a)
14. The correct order for the first ionization enthalpy is ...... .

(A) Al > Ga (B) B < Al (C) In < Tl (D) Ga < In

15. Identify Y and Z in the given reaction respectively

CH 2= CH2 [anhy.AlCl]3 ZnO

Benzene Y Z + H2
353 K 903 K

(A) Toluene and Benzoic acid (B) Ethylbenzene and Styrene

(C) Ethylbenzene and Benzaldehyde (D) Ethylbenzene and Benzylalchol

16. The ionic character of A–B bond is 19.5 %, if electronegativity of atom A is 2.0 then what would
be the electronegativity of atom B ?

(A) 1.5 (B) 2.8 (C) 4.0 (D) 3.0

17. If H = Protium, D = Deuterium and T = Tritium, then match the group-1, group-2 and group-3.

Group-1 (Dihydrogen) Group-2 (Number of neutron) Group-3 (Molecualr mass)

(A) DT (I) 2 (IV) 4 (X) 3

(B) HT (II) 1 (V) 5 (Y) 5

(C) HD (III) 3 (Z) 4

(A) (A)-(V)-(Y), (B)-(I)-(Z), (C)-(II)-(X) (B) (A)-(IV)-(Y), (B)-(I)-(Z), (C)-(III)-(X)

(C) (A)-(III)-(Y), (B)-(I)-(Z), (C)-(II)-(X) (D) (A)-(III)-(Y), (B)-(IV)-(Z), (C)-(II)-(X)

18. Which of the following are the functions of Calcium in human body ?

(i) Interneuronal transmission (ii) To activate enzymes (iii) As a co-factor in the transfer of phosphate
ion (iv) In coagulation of blood (v) To convert glucose in to ATP by oxidation.

(A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (iv) (C) (ii), (v) (D) (iv), (v)

757
19. In group-1 structural formula of compound and in group-2 IUPAC name are given, then match
group-1 with group-2 and choose the correct option.

Group-1 Group-2
CH3
(P) H 3C (I) Oct-3-yn-5-ene

NH2
CH3
(Q) H3C (II) 4-isopropyl-5-methyloctane
HO

CH3
(R) H 3C (III) Oct-3-en-6-yne

H3C CH3
CH3
(S) H3C .
(IV) 3-Aminohexan-4-ol
CH3

(V) Oct-3-en-5-yne
(VI) 4-Methyl-5-isopropyloctane
(VII) 4-Aminohexan-3-ol
(VIII) Oct-5-en-2-yne

(A) (P)-(III), (Q)-(VII), (R)-(I), (S)-(II) (B) (P)-(VIII), (Q)-(VII), (R)-(V), (S)-(II)
(C) (P)-(VIII), (Q)-(VII), (R)-(I), (S)-(II) (D) (P)-(III), (Q)-(IV), (R)-(V), (S)-(VI)
20. Reaction A ® product is a zeroth order reaction and the reaction B ® product is first order reaction,
at what concentration of reactant A the half-life period for both the reaction becomes equal ?
(A) 2ln(2) M (B) 2 M (C) 0.5ln(2) M (D) 0.5log(2) M
21. Which of the following option is correct on matching group-1 with group-2 ?
Group-1 (System) Group-2 (Diameter of particles present in medium)
(X) Colloid (I) Less than 1 nm
(Y) True solution (II) Between 1 nm to 1000 nm
(Z) Suspension (III) More than 1000 nm
(A) (X)-(III), (Y)-(I), (Z)-(II) (B) (X)-(I), (Y)-(II), (Z)-(III)
(C) (X)-(II), (Y)-(III), (Z)-(I) (D) (X)-(II), (Y)-(I), (Z)-(III)
22. The correct order for basicity of hydroxide is ?
(A) Nd(OH)3 > Ce(OH)3 > Lu(OH)3 (B) Ce(OH)3 > Lu(OH)3 > Sm(OH)3
(C) Ce(OH)3 > Gd(OH)3 > Lu(OH)3 (D) Lu(OH)3 > Ce(OH)3 > Pm(OH)3
23. As per Crystal Field Theory which of the following option is correct for electronic configuration in
octahedral field ?
(A) P > Doct (t2g)3 (eg)1 (B) P < Doct (t2g)3 (eg)1
(C) P > Doct (t2g)4 (eg)o (D) P > Doct (eg)2 (t2g)2
758
 H 3C O
C H2 H+
24. C + H2O C + D Identify C and D in the given reaction.
C H2
H 3C O
(A) Propanone and Ethanol (B) Ethanol and Ethylene glycol
(C) Acetone and Ethylene glycol (D) Ethanal and Ethanol
25. The correct order for basicity in aqueous solution is ?
(A) (CH3)2NH < (CH3)2N < CH3NH2 (B) CH3NH < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH
(C) (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2 (D) (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH2
26. A, B, C and D are different amino acids, all these amino acids are arranged linearly by peptide in
such a way though one terminal always possess D, then how many tetrapeptide can be formed ?
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 24 (D) 30
27. Which of the following option is correct on matching group-1 with group-2 ?
Group-1 (Polymer) Group-2 (Mechanism)
(X) Polythene (I) Cationic addition polymerization
(Y) Polystyrene (II) Free radical addition polymerization
(Z) Butyl rubber (III) Aniomic addition polymerization
(A) (X)-(II), (Y)-(III), (Z)-(I) (B) (X)-(I), (Y)-(II), (Z)-(III)
(C) (X)-(II), (Y)-(I), (Z)-(III) (D) (X)-(III), (Y)-(I), (Z)-(II)
28. Which of the given is not a pair of enantiomer ?

(i) OH (ii) CH3 (iii) HO

H
Cl H CH3
H
OH
CH3 Cl Cl

(iv) Cl (v) H
CH3 OH
Cl
H

OH CH3
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (v) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (iv) and (v)
29. The correct order of Ksp for given salts is ....
(A) CuS > ZnS (B) Fe(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2
(C) Mg(OH)2 > Mn(OH)2 (D) PbS > MnS
30. Choose the correct option for given statements :
Assertion (A) : Precipitates do not obtain on adding AgNO3 aqueous solution of in aqueous
solution of KF.
Reason (R) : AgF is soluble in water.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is correct explanation for the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion.
(C) Both assertion and reason aer incorrect.
(D) The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
ˆ
759
 Model Question Paper (JEE) (5)
1. 9.5 gram dioxygen is present in 25 gram NaOH sample, then the purity of the sample is ...
(Impurity does not contain oxygen) (Atomic mass of Na, O and H is 23, 16 and 1 gram mole–1.)
(A) 95 % (B) 98 % (C) 90 % (D) 92 %
cm
2. The maximum probable speed of a gas at constant temperature is 2.4 then the average speed of
second
that gas would be ?
cm cm cm cm
(A) 2.13 (B) 2.7 (C) 3.3 (D) 2.5
second second second second
3. When an electron of hydrogen atom transit from third exited state to lower energy levels then the total
number of lines obtain in ultra-violate region, visible region and infra-red region are respectively ......
(A) 0, 2, 1, 3 (B) 1, 2, 2, 5 (C) 1, 2, 3, 6 (D) 3, 2, 1, 6
4. The crystal structure of Diamond is FCC and each carbon is attached with four other carbon atoms
by covalent bond, then what percentage of length of body diagonal is occupied by carbon atoms in
that unit cell ?
(A) 25 % (B) 40 % (C) 50 % (D) 45 %
5. Heat always flows from....
(A) More heat to less heat (B) More density to less density
(C) More mass to less mass (D) More temperature to less temperature
6. At constant temperature which out of following given aqueous solutions will give maximum osmotic
pressure when two solutions are separated by semi permeable membrane ?

(i) 0.08 M Na3PO4 (ii) 0.1 M FeCl3 (iii) 0.12 M CaCl2 (iv) 0.07 M K4 [Fe(CN)6]
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
7. Which of the given graph is proper ? Where 1, 2, 3, 4 are 0.1 M aqueous solutions of H2SO4,
Na2CO3, HNO3 and CH3COOH respectively.

(A) (B)

pH pH

1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4

(C) (D)

pH pH

1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
760
8. Which of the following statement is correct, if A|A2+, B|B2+, C|C2+ and D|D2+ standard oxidation
potential of half-cells A, B and are in descending order ?
(A) Solution of salt of cannot be filled in a vessel A2+ of metal B.
(B) Solution of salt of can be filled in a vessel D2+ of metal C.
(C) Solution of salt of can not be filled in vessel D2+ of metal B.
(D) All the given statements are correct.
9. In given statements, one is statement (A) and second is reason (R). Study properly all
statements and choose correct option Ñ
Assertion (A) : During Bessemerisation, cuprous oxide is formed by oxidation of cuprous
sulphide only after all the iron sulphide is converted to iron oxide.
Reason (R) : Iron has got more attraction for oxygen and copper has more attraction for
sulphur.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is correct explanation for the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion.
(C) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(D) The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
10. Match the following group-1 with group-2 :
Group-1 Compound Group-2 Shape of Molecule

(i) XeF4 (ii) BrF5 (A) Trigonal pyramid (B) ‘T’

(iii) XeF6 (iv) CIF3 (C) Pentagonal bipyramid (D) Tetrahedral

(v) IF7 (E) Square planner (F) Distroted octahedral

(G) Square pyramid (H) Trigonal bipyramida

(A) (i)-(E), (ii)-(G), (iii)-(H), (iv)-(B), (v)-(C) (B) (i)-(E), (ii)-(G), (iii)-(F), (iv)-(B), (v)-(C)
(C) (i)-(E), (ii)-(H), (iii)-(F), (iv)-(B), (v)-(C) (D) (i)-(D), (ii)-(G), (iii)-(F), (iv)-(B), (v)-(C)

11. X + : OH– }}}}

SN m
2
reaction
Y + : in this formula X = monohalo alkane. If Y possesses two optical
isomers and molecular mass of haloalkane X is 151 gm mole–1 then identify X. (Br = 80 gm.mole–1)
(A) 3-bromopentane (B) 2-bromobutane
(C) Isopentylbromide (D) 2-bromopentane
12. Which of the following statement/staements is/are correct for given reaction ? The priority order is
– Br > –A > –OH
2
SN
R – CH – Br – R – CH – OH + Br–
OH
A A
(A) If the configuration of organic reagent is R, then the configuration of main organic product will
be R.
(B) If the configuration of organic reagent is R, then the configuration of main organic product will
be S.
(C) The organic product will be optically inactive racemic mixture.
(D) The organic reagent and the main organic product will always rotate plane of polarised light in
same direction.
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (iv)
761
13. The correct ascending order of bond angle for the molecules SO2, NH3, H2O and CH4 is ?
(A) H–N–H < H–O–H < H–C–H < O–S–O (B) H–O–H < H–N–H < H–C–H < O–S–O
(C) O–S–O < H–C–H < H–N–H < H–O–H (D) H-O-H < H–N–H < O–S–O < H–C–H
14. Match the following group-1 and group-2 :
Group-1 : Silicate ion Group-2 : Shared oxygen atoms

(i) Si2O76– (A) 6

(ii) Si3O96– (B) 3

(iii) Si6O1812– (C) 1

(D) 4
(A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(D) (B) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A)
(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A) (D) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A)
15. Which compound does not obey Huckel’s rule ?
(A) Biphenyl (B) Naphtalene (C) Napthacene (D) Anthracene
16. Which order of greenhouse gases is correct on the basis of GWP ?
(A) CO2 > CH4 > N2O > CFC (B) CFC > CO2 > CH4 > N2O
(C) CFC > CO2 > N2O > CH4 (D) CFC > N2O > CH4 > CO2
17. Which of the given statements are correct ?
(i) The value of oxygen DiH2 is more than that of nitrogen DiH2.
(ii) The value of oxygen DiH1 is more than that of nitrogen DiH1.
(iii) The value of Na DiH2 is more than that of Mg DiH2.
(iv) The value of Na DiH1 is more than that of nitrogen DiH1.
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
18. What is the volume of 0.5 N Na2S2O3 solution required for its reaction with which obtained on
adding 40.0 ml. acidic KI solution in 3.4 % solution W/V H2O2 ?
(A) 16.0 ml (B) 160 ml (C) 80 ml (D) 120 ml
19. At 373 K temperature Reaction A(g) 2B(g) + C(g) taking place in close container is of first
order. Reaction started by taking pure reactant ‘A’. Total gaseous pressure is obtain 150 mm after
20 minutes and after long time total gaseous pressure in container is 225 mm. then find total
gaseous pressure and rate constant respectively in container after 40 minutes.
(A) 187.5 mm, In (2) (B) 200 mm In(3) (C) 300 mm In(2) (D) 300 mm In(3)
20. In which of the given option of the pair of colloids physical state of dispersion medium is same but
physical state of dispersing phase is different.
(A) Coloured glass and smoke (B) Cheese and hair cream
(C) Milk and froth (D) Pumice stone and pesticide spray
21. All the metals of which of the following option are not a transition metals ?
(A) Ti, Cd, Hg (B) Cd, Hg, V (C) Hg, Zn, Ag (D) Hg, Cd, Zn
22. Which of the given compound shows geometrical isomerism ?
(A) [CoCl2(en)2]NO3 (B) K2[Ni(CN)Cl3] (C) Na2[Mn(en)(CN)4] (D) All of the given

762
23. The correct increasing order of the boiling point is ....
(A) Dimethylether < Ethanol < Ethanamine < Acetic acid
(B) Ethanol < Acetic acid < Ethanamine < Dimethylether
(C) Dimethylether < Ethanol < Acetic acid < Ethanamine
(D) Dimethylether < Ethanamine < Ethanol < Acetic acid
24. In which of the given reaction the number of carbon atom in product molecule decreases compared
to reactant molecule ?
(A) In reduction of nitrile (B) In reduction of amide
(C) In Hoffmann reaction (D) In all of the given
25. Match the following group-1 with group-2 :

Group-1 Carbohydrate Group-2 Molecular formula

(i) Stachyose (P) C6H12O5

(ii) Raffinose (Q) C12H22O11

(iii) Cellobiose (R) C18H32O16

(iv) Rhamnose (S) C24H42O21

(A) (i)-(S), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(P), (iv)-(Q) (B) (i)-(S), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(Q), (iv)-(P)
(C) (i)-(R), (ii)-(S), (iii)-(Q), (iv)-(P) (D) (i)-(S), (ii)-(Q), (iii)-(R), (iv)-(P)
26. The Zeigler-Natta catalyst is ...
(A) [(C2H5)3Al] + TiCl4 (B) [(C2H5)3 Ti] + AlCl3 (C) [(C2H5)4Al] + TiCl3 (D) [(C2H5)3Ti] + AlCl4
27. The sweetness of Saccharin and Alitame is X and Y times more than that of sucrose, then X : Y = ......
(A) 11 : 20 (B) 55 : 40 (C) 55 : 20 (D) 11 : 40
28. Which of the given compound is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction ?

(A) Cl (B) Cl (C) Cl (D) Cl

NO2 NO2

NO2
NO2 NO2

29. The fluoride compounds of alkaline earth metals are less soluble in water than that of their chlorides
Because...
(A) The fluoride compounds of alkaline earth metals possess more negative value of lattice enthalpy
than that of their chloride.
(B) The chloride compounds of alkaline earth metals possess more negative value of lattice enthalpy
than that of their fluoride.
(C) The chloride compounds of alkaline earth metals possess more covalent character than that of
their fluoride.
(D) The ionic size of chloride compounds of alkaline earth methals is more than that of their fluoride.
763
30. Which of the following isomer is of meso form ?

(A) H3C COOH (B) HOOC OH

H3C HOOC
OH C H3
HOOC OH HO CH 3

(C) HOOC C H3 (D) HO COOH

HO H3 C
OH C H3
H3 C COOH H 3C OH
ˆ

Model Question Paper (JEE) (6)

1. If 0.33 gram carbon dioxide gas is obtain on complete combustion of 0.11 gram hydrocarbon gas,
then what would be the empirical formula of that hydrocarbon gas ?
(A) C3H8 (B) C3H6 (C) C2H6 (D) C4H8
2. If the density of gas-A is two times of gas-B and the molecular mass of gas-A is half of gas-B,
then the ratio of partial pressure of gas-A and gas-B would be ?
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 2
3. If the radius of first orbit of Bohr’s model is ‘x’, then what would be the de-Broglie wave length of
the electron rotating in second orbit of that atom ?
(A) 3px (B) 2px (C) 4px (D) 6px
4. The correct increasing order on the basis of packing efficiency is ?
(A) Primitive < fcc = hcp < bcc (B) bcc < Primitive < fcc = hcp
(C) fcc = hcp < bcc < Primitive (D) Primitive < bcc < fcc = hcp
5. The absolute value of which of the given function can be obtain ?
(A) G (Free energy) (B) H (Enthalpy) (C) S (Entropy) (D) U (Internal energy)
6. Choose the correct statements from the given :
(i) Liquid-A and liquid-B form maximum boiling aziotropic mixture. In this mixture inter molecular
attraction is A-A, B-B > A-B.
(ii) In maximum boiling aziotropic mixture of liquid-A and liquid-B on increasing mole of liquid-A
the vapour pressure of solution increases.
(iii) The vapour pressure of the system is maximum in maximum boiling aziotropic mixture.
(iv) The mole fraction of the given component will found to be same in its liquid and vapour phase
for aziotropic mixture.
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iv) (C) (i) (D) (i), (ii), (iii)
7. Which of the given formula is correct for an acidic buffer solution formed from the mixture of HA
+ MA ?
(A) pH = log[MA] – log[Ka] – log[HA] (B) pH = log[HA] – log[Ka] – log[MA]
(C) pH = log[MA] + log[Ka] – log[HA] (D) pH = log[HA] + log[Ka] – log[MA]

764
8. The resistance was found y W of an aqueous solution of KCl which possess X mho (cm) -1
conductivity, if the resistance of an aqueous solution of NaCl measured with the same instrument
was found to be z W , then what would be the specific conductivity of NaCl solution ?
1 -1
(A) xyz mho (cm) (B) mho (cm)-1 (C) mho (cm)-1 (D) zyz mho (cm)-1
9. If NaCN is added as depressant to the ore containing ZnS and PbS, then PbS, skims off on the
upper part with the forth and ZnS does not come with the forth because....
(A) Water soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] is formed.
(B) Water soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] is formed.
(C) Water soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)2] is formed.
(D) Water soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)2] is formed.
10. Which compound is obtain on partial hydrolysis of XeF6 ?
(A) XeO3 (B) XeOF3 (C) XeO2F2 (D) XeO3F
11. The correct stability order of carbocation is ?
(A) (CH3)3C+ < (CH3)2CH+ < CH3CH2+ < CH2 = CH – CH2+
(B) CH3CH2+ < CH2 = CH – CH2+ < (CH3)2 CH+ < (CH3)3C+
(C) CH3CH2+ < (CH3)2 CH+ < (CH3)3C+ < CH2 = CH – CH2+
(D) CH3CH2+ < (CH3)2CH+ < CH2 = CH – CH2+ < (CH3)3C+
12. Choose the correct option for given statements.
Assertion (A) : The order of boiling point in alcohol possessing same number of carbon atom
is monohydric alcohol < dihydric alcohol < trihydric alcohol
Reason (R) : In alcohol possessing same number of carbon the number of hydrogen bond
increases with increase in number of –OH group so inter molecular attraction
increases.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is correct explanation for the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion.
(C) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(D) The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
13. Which of the given species are isoelectronic ?
(A) O2, S, NaF (B) CH4, Ne, N2 (C) CO32–, SO2, C4H8 (D) CO2, C3H4, NO2–
14. The ratio of mole number of Fe atom possessing Fe0.9S1.0 +3 and +2 oxidation state in is
approximately ...
(A) 0.286 (B) 0.521 (C) 3.5 (D) 0.432
15. If 10 ml KMnO4 solution is required for complete oxidation of 30 ml, 1.5 volume acidic solution,
then what would be the normality of KMnO4 solution ?
(A) 0.08 N (B) 0.8 N (C) 8.0 N (D) 0.4 N
16. Choose the correct option for given statements :
Assertion (A) : Be and Mg does not give characteristic flame.
Reason (R) : The electrons of Be and Mg are so strongly bonded that they do not excited in
flame.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explantion for the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is correct explanation for the assertion.
(C) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(D) The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.

765
17. The number of bond sp3 – sp2 bond, sp3 – sp bond and Pp – Pp bond in given compound is
respectively ?
(P) (CN)2 CH–CH(CN)CH = CH2 (Q) (CH º C)(CH2=CH)2 C–CH = CH2
(R) CH2 = C = CH–CH2–COOH
(A) P–1, 3, 5 Q–3, 1, 4 R–2, 0 2 (B) P–1, 3, 7 Q–3, 2, 5 R–2, 0, 3
(C) p–1, 3, 4 Q–3, 1, 4 R–2, 0, 3 (D) P–1, 3, 7 Q–3, 1, 5 R–2, 0, 3
18. Which compound will be obtained on heating tin oxalate ?
(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) SnO2 (D) A and B both.
19. The number of hydrogen atom in 3, 3, 5-triethyl-4-propyloctane 1o, 2o and 3o is respectively ?
(A) 18, 8, 2 (B) 15, 8, 1 (C) 18, 16, 2 (D) 18, 16, 1
20. The carboxyhemoglobin complex is ...... times more stable then oxyhemoglobin complex.
(A) 200 (B) 500 (C) 300 (D) 400

[R]o − [R]t
21. If the graph of ® t is straight line for the reaction containing one reactant, then what
[R]t
would be the order of reaction ?
(A) 0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2
22. Which of the following electrolyte possess maximum coagulation value for Fe(OH)3 sol ?
(A) Na3PO 4 (B) NaCl (C) Na2SO4 (D) Na2CO3
23. Which of the given is paramagnetic ?
(A) ZnS (B) V2O5 (C) Fe2O3 (D) CuCl
24. In which of the given compound optical isomerism will occur ?
(A) K2[Ni(Ox)2] (B) [CoCl2(en)2]NO3
(C) Na2[Mn(en)(CN)4] (D) All of the given

COOH
(i) KMnO 4 / KOH,
25. x + 9[O] + 2CO2 + 3H2O What is compound X here ?
(ii) dil. H2SO4

(A) Toluene (B) Ethylbenzene (C) Isopropylbenzene (D) m-Xylene

26. How much dibromine will be used during bromination of 9.3 gram of aniline by bromine water ?
(At. mass : C = 12, H = 1, n = 14, Br = 80 gram mol–1)
(A) 48 gram (B) 24 gram (C) 96 gram (D) 72 gram
27. Match the following group-1 with group-2 :
Group-1 (Protein) Group-2 (Type of protein)

(I) Myosin (p) Globular

(II) Insulin (q) Quaternary
(III) Myglobin (r) Fibrous
(IV) Hemoglobin (s) Tertiary

(A) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q) (B) (i)-(r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(q)
(C) (i)-(p), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(q) (D) (i)-(r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(s)

766
28. Which of the following polymer is used in preparation of printing rollers ?
(A) Teflon (B) Bakelite (C) Neoprene (D) Nylon-6
29. ...... and ...... of phenol solution acts as antiseptic and disinfectant respectively.
(A) 1 %, 0.2 % (B) 2 %, 0.1 % (C) 0.2 %, 0.1 % (D) 0.2 %, 1 %
30. If a metal crystalizes in fcc parttern, then what would be the minimum distance between two
centers of tetrahedral voids formed in it ? radius of metal atom is r.

3r
(A) 2r (B) 2r (C) (D) 3r
2

• Model Question Paper (JEE-1)

Answers : 1. (B), 2. (A), 3. (D), 4. (B), 5. (A), 6. (C), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (B),
11. (D), 12. (C), 13. (A), 14. (B), 15. (A), 16. (D), 17. (B), 18. (A), 19. (B),
20. (B), 21. (C), 22. (C), 23. (D), 24. (B), 25. (A), 26. (B), 27. (A), 28. (C),
29. (A), 30. (D).
• Model Question Paper (JEE-2)
Answers : 1. (D), 2. (C), 3. (A), 4. (D), 5. (D), 6. (B), 7. (C), 8. (A), 9. (D), 10. (B),
11. (A), 12. (D), 13. (A), 14. (D), 15. (C), 16. (B), 17. (A), 18. (D), 19. (C),
20. (C), 21. (A), 22. (D), 23. (C), 24. (B), 25. (D), 26. (C), 27. (A), 28. (C),
29. (B), 30. (D).
• Model Question Paper (JEE-3)
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (B), 3. (D), 4. (A), 5. (A), 6. (C), 7. (B), 8. (A), 9. (B), 10. (D),
11. (A), 12. (A), 13. (C), 14. (B), 15. (D), 16. (A), 17. (B), 18. (B), 19. (C),
20. (D), 21. (B), 22. (A), 23. (D), 24. (C), 25. (A), 26. (B), 27. (C), 28. (D),
29. (D), 30. (C).
• Model Question Paper (JEE-4)
Answers : 1. (B), 2. (D), 3. (C), 4. (A), 5. (B), 6. (D), 7. (B), 8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (C),
11. (B), 12. (D), 13. (A), 14. (C), 15. (B), 16. (D), 17. (C), 18. (B), 19. (B),
20. (A), 21. (D), 22. (C), 23. (A), 24. (C), 25. (D), 26. (B), 27. (A), 28. (D),
29. (C), 30. (A).
• Model Question Paper (JEE-5)
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (D), 4. (C), 5. (D), 6. (C), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (A), 10. (B),
11. (D), 12. (A), 13. (B), 14. (C), 15. (A), 16. (D), 17. (A), 18. (B), 19. (B),
20. (C), 21. (D), 22. (A), 23. (D), 24. (C), 25. (B), 26. (A), 27. (D), 28. (D),
29. (A), 30. (C).
• Model Question Paper (JEE-6)
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (C), 4. (D), 5. (C), 6. (B), 7. (A), 8. (D), 9. (B), 10. (C),
11. (B), 12. (A), 13. (C), 14. (A), 15. (B), 16. (B), 17. (D), 18. (D), 19. (C),
20. (C), 21. (D), 22. (B), 23. (C), 24. (B), 25. (C), 26. (A), 27. (B), 28. (C),
29. (D), 30. (B).

767
 Question Papers of JEE
JEE Main Paper (2013)
1. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca,
Ba, S, Se and Ar ?
(A) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (B) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
(C) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar (D) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
2. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical
formula of the hydrocarbon is :
(A) C6H5 (B) C7H8 (C) C2H4 (D) C3H4
3. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation
energy of such a reaction will be :
(R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 and log2 = 0.301)
(A) 58.5 KJ mol–1 (B) 60.5 KJ mol–1 (C) 53.6 KJ mol–1 (D) 48.6 KJ mol–1
4. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was :
(A) Ammonia (B) Phosgene (C) Methylisocyanate (D) Methylamine
5. An organic compound A upon reacting with NH3 gives B. On heating, B gives C. C in presence of
KOH reacts with Br2 to give CH3CH2NH2 A is :

(A) CH3 – CH – COOH (B) CH3CH 2COOH

CH3

(C) CH3COOH (D) CH3CH2CH2COOH

6. Compound (A) C8H9Br gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcoholic AgNO3. Oxidation of
(A) gives an acid (B), C8H6O4. (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identify the compound (A).

CH2Br
CH2Br CH2Br C2H5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 Br
CH3 CH3

7. A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated with CH3COCl to get a compound with molecular
mass 390. The number of amino groups present per molecule of the former compound is :
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 5
8. Which one of the following molecules is expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour ?
(A) O 2 (B) S2 (C) C2 (D) N2
9. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, both the species are not likely to exit ?
(A) H22+, He2 (B) H2–, He22+ (C) H2+, He22– (D) H2–, He22–
10. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism ?
(A) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (B) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+ (C) [Co(en)3]3+ (D) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
768
11. The coagulating power of eletrolytes having ions Na+, Al3+ and Ba2+ for arsenic sulphide sol
increases in the order :
(A) Ba2+ < Na+ < Al3+ (B) Al3+ < Na+ < Ba2+ (C) Al3+ < Ba2+ < Na+ (D) Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+

12. Consider the following reaction : XMnO4– + YC2O42– + ZH+ ® XMn 2+

+ 2YCO2 +
Z
H O The
2 2
values of X, Y and Z in the reaction are respectively :
(A) 2, 5 and 16 (B) 5, 2 and 8 (C) 5, 2 and 16 (D) 2, 5 and 8
13. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the solid state ?
(A) Sulphur (B) Phosphorus (C) Iodine (D) Silicon
14. A solution of (–) –1– chloro –1 – phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of a
small amount of SbCl5 due to the formation of :
(A) carbocation (B) free radical (C) carbanion (D) carbene
15. An unknown alcohol is treated with the “Lucas reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is
primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what mechanism :
(A) Secondary alcohol by SN2 (B) tertiary alcohol by SN2
(C) Secondary alcohol by SN1 (D) tertiary alcohol by SN1
16. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?
(A) 2.0 L (B) 9.0 L (C) 0.1 L (D) 0.9 L
17. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 ml of 0.5 MHCl with 250 ml of 2(M) HCl will be :
(A) 1.75 M (B) 0.975 M (C) 0.875 M (D) 1.00 M
18. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 ml to 375 ml at a
constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for
the process will be : (R = 8.314 J/mol K) (In 7.5 = 2.01)
(A) q = – 208 J , w = + 208 J (B) q = + 208 J, w = + 208 J
(C) q = + 208 J , w = – 208 J (D) q = – 208 J, w = – 208 J
19. Experimetaily it was found that a metal oxide has forumla M0.98O. Metal M, is present as M2+ and
M3+ in its oxide Fraction of the metal which exists as M3+ would be :
(A) 6.05 % (B) 5.08 % (C) 7.01 % (D) 4.08 %
20. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is denoted by C* , average speed by C and mean square
speed by C, then for a large number of molecules the ratios of these speeds are :
(A) C* : C : C = 1 : 1.128 : 1.225 (B) C* : C : C = 1 : 1.225 : 1.128

(C) C* : C : C = 1 : 225 : 1.128 : 1 (D) C* : C : C = 1.128 : 1.225 : 1

21. Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing acidity :

OH OH OH OH

Cl CH3 NO2 OCH3

(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) III > I > II > IV (B) IV > III > I > II (C) II > IV > I > III (D) I > II > III > IV

769
22. The order of stability of the following carbocations :

+
CH2 = CH–+CH2; CH3–CH2–+CH2: CH2

I II III
(A) I > II > III (B) III > I > II (C) III > II > I (D) II > III > I
23. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be :
(A) – 10.2 eV (B) + 2.55 eV (C) – 2.55 eV (D) – 5.1 eV
24. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic numbers.
Which one of them is expected to have the highest EoM3+/M2+ value ?
(A) Fe(Z = 26) (B) Co(Z = 27) (C) Cr(Z = 24) (D) Mn(Z = 25)
25. Stability of the species Li2, Li2– and Li2+ increases in the order of :
(A) Li2 < Li2– < Li2+ (B) Li2– < Li2 < Li2+ (C) Li2 < Li2+ < Li2– (D) Li2– < Li2+ < Li2
26. Which of the following is the wrong statement ?
(A) Ozone is violet-black in solid state. (B) Ozone is diamagnetic gas.
(C) ONCl and ONO– are not isoelectronic. (D) O3 molecule is bent.

 Z2 
27. Energy of an electron is given by E = – 2.178 × 10–18 J  2  . Wavelength of light required to
n 
excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2 will be : (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js and
C = 3.0 × 108 ms–1)
(A) 6.500 × 10–7 m (B) 8.500 × 10–7 m (C) 1.214 × 10–7 m (D) 2.816 × 10–7 m
28. Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves ?
(A) 8 molecules of ATP (B) 6 molecules of ATP
(C) 18 molecules of ATP (D) 10 molecules of ATP
29. Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated
against it ?
(A) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr3+ < Sc3+ : stability in aqueous solution
(B) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : Number of oxidation states
(C) V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ : paramagnetic behaviour

(D) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : ionic size
30. EoCr3+/Cr = – 0.74V; EoMnO4–/Mn2+ = 1.51 V, EoCr2O72–/Cr3+ = 1.33 V, EoCl/Cl– = 1.36 V. Based
on the data given above, strongest oxidising agent will be ?
(A) Mn2+ (B) MnO4– (C) Cl– (D) Cr3+

770
 JEE Main Paper (2014)
1. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C2H5OH(ag), 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and
0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) at 25° C. Which statement is true about these solutions, assuming all salts to
be strong electrolytes ?
(A) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(B) 0.125M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(C) 0.500M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(D) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
2. Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA ?
(A) Adenine (B) Cytosine (C) Thymine (D) Quinoline
3. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pKb
value ?
(A) CH3NH 2 (B) (CH3)3N (C) C6H5NH2 (D) (CH3)2NH
4. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is :
(A) Ca (B) Cu (C) Cr (D) Ag
5. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the
organic compound formed is :
(A) an alkanediol (B) an alkyl cyanide
(C) an alkyl isocyanide (D) an alkanol
1
6. For the reaction SO2(g) + O2(g) SO3(g) if kp = kc(RT)x where the symbols have usual
2
meaning then the value of x is : (assuming ideality)
1 1
(A) – (B) (C) 1 (D) –1
2 2

7. Given below are the half-cell reactions :

Mn2+ + 2 e ® Mn; E = – 1.18 V

o

2(Mn + e ® Mn ); E = 1.51 V
3+ 2+ o

The E° for 3Mn ® Mn + 2Mn

2+ 3+

(A) –2.69 V; the reaction will occur. (B) –0.33 V; the reaction will not occur.
(C) –0.33 V; the reaction will not occur. (D) –2.69 V; the reaction will not occur.
8. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals equation at low pressure can be written as :

a Pb Pb Pb
(A) Z = 1 – (B) Z = 1 – (C) Z = 1 + (D) Z = 1 +
VRT RT RT RT

LiAlH4 PCl5 Alcohol

9. In the reaction, CH3COOH A B C the product C is ...... .
KOH
(A) Acetylene (B) Ethylene (C) Acetyl chloride (D) Acetaldehyde
771
10. Among the following oxoacids, the correct decreasing order of acid strength is ...... .
(A) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 (B) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
(C) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl (D) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
11. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particualr gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of
number of their molecule is :
(A) 7 : 32 (B) 1 : 8 (C) 3 : 16 (D) 1 : 4
12. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO ?
(A) It is a neutral oxide.
(B) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide.
(C) It’s bond order is 2.5.
(D) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
13. Which series of reactions correctly represents chemical relations related to iron and its compound ?
O2, ^W¤
(A) Fe FeO FeSO4 Fe
H2SO4

Cl2, QÇN Zn
(B) Fe FeCl3 FeCl2 Fe
O2, Co, 600oC Co, 700oC
(C) Fe Fe3O4 FeO Fe
dil H2SO4, O2
(D) Fe H SO FeSO4 Fe2(SO4)3 Fe
2 4

14. For which of the following molecule significant m ¹ 0 ?

Cl Cl NC CN HO OH HS Sh

I II II IV
(A) I and II (B) Only II (C) III and IV (D) Only I
15. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following
expressions is correct ?

3a 3.a
(A) rCs+ + rCl– = (B) rCs+ + rCl– = (C) rCs+ + rCl– = 3.a (D) rCs+ + rCl– = 3a
2 2
16. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer ?
(A) Neoprene (B) Teflon (C) Acrylonitrile (D) Dacron
17. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of R–CH2OH ® R–CHO is ...... .
(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) CrO3
(C) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate) (D) KMnO4
18. For complete combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) ® 2CO 2(g)
+ 3H2O(l) the amount of heat
–1
produced as measured in bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 KJ mol at 25°C. Assuming standard
condition the Enthalpy of combustion, DcH, for the reaction will be : (R = 8.314 KJ. mol–1)
(A) –1361.95 KJ mol–1 (B) –1460.50 KJ mol–1 (C) –1350.50 KJ mol–1 (D) –1366.95 KJ mol–1

772
19. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with four monodentate ligands L1, L2, L3 and L4 absorb
wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strength of the four ligands is ...... .
(A) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4 (B) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1 (C) L1 < L2 < L4 < L1 (D) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1
20. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl method and
M
the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 ml of sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required
10
M
20 mL of sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the
10
compound is ...... .
(A) 10 % (B) 3 % (C) 5 % (D) 6 %
21. In which of the following reactions H2O2 acts as a reducing agent ?
(1) H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e– ® 2H2O (2) H2O2 – 2e– ® O2 + 2H+
(3) H2O2 + 2e– ® 2OH– (4) H2O2 + 2OH– – 2e– ® O2 + 2H2O
(A) 3, 4 (B) 1,3 (C) 2, 4 (D) 1, 2
22. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3 is :
(A) It contains Cs+ and I3– ions. (B) It contains Cs3+ and I– ions.
(C) It contains Cs+, I– and lattice I2 molecule. (D) It is covalent molecule.
23. The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane with silver powder
is ?
(A) Ethene (B) 2-Butyne (C) 2-Butene (D) Acetylene
24. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are l
C
and l
¥
respectively. The correct relationship between l
C
and l¥ is given as :
(where the constant B is positive)
(A) l
C
= l¥ – (A) C (B) l
C
= l¥ – (B) C

(C) l
C
= la + (B) C (D) l
C
= l¥ + (B) C
25. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 W. The specific conductance of the solution is
1.45 m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 W. The molar conductivity
of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in Sm2 mol–1 is :
(A) 5 × 10–3 (B) 5 × 103 (C) 5 × 102 (D) 5 × 10–4
26. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under pressure at 125o C yields a product which on
acetylation produces C.
o +
125 C H
ONa + CO2 B Ac O C The major product C would be :
5 Atm 2

(A) OH (B) OH (C) O COCH3 (D) O COCH3

COCH3 COOCH 3
COOH
COOH
COCH3
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 excess

27. The equation which is balance and represents the correct product(s) is :
(A) [CoCl(CH3)5] + 5H+ ® Co2+ + 5NH4+ + Cl–

excess
(B) [Mg(H2O)6]2+ + (EDTA)4– → [Mg(EDTA)]2– + 6H2O)
NaOH
(C) CuSO4 + 4KCN ® K2[Cu(CN)4] + K2SO4
(D) Li2O + 2KCl ® 2LiCl + K2O
28. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is :
1 1 1 1
(A) 5, 1, 0, + (B) 5, 1, 1, + (C) 5, 0, 1, + (D) 5, 0, 0, +
2 2 2 2
29. For the non-stoichiometre reaction 2A + B ® C + D the following kinetic data were obtained in
three seperate experiments, all at 298 K.
Initial Initial Initial rate of
Concentration Concentration formation of C
(A) (B) (mol. L–1 S–1)
0.1 M 0.1 M 1.2 × 10–3
0.1 M 0.2 M 1.2 × 10–3
0.2 M 0.1 M 2.4 × 10–3

The rate law for the formation of C is :

dc dc dc dc
(A) = K [A]2 [B] (B) = K [A] [B]2 (C) = K [A] (D) = K [A] [B]
dt dt dt dt
30. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds :
(A) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3 CCl
(B) CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)2 CHCl > (CH3)3 CCl
(C) (CH3)2 CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3 CCl
(D) CH3Cl > (CH3)2 CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)3 CCl

JEE Main Paper (2015)

1. Which compound would give 5-keto-2-methyl hexanal upon ozonolysis ?

(A) CH3 (B) CH3 (C) CH3 (D) CH3

H 3C CH3

H3C CH3

2. Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble ?

(A) Vitamin E (B) Vitamin K (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D
3. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than its
lattice enthalpy ?
(A) BaSO4 (B) SrSO4 (C) CaSO4 (D) BeSO4

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 NH2

NaNO2/HCl CuCN/KCN
4. In the reaction o D E + N2 the product E is :
05 C
CH3

CN CH3

(A) (B)

CH3

COOH

(C) (D) H3C CH3

CH3

5. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius
of sodium atom is approximately ?

(A) 5.72 Å (B) 0.93 Å (C) 1.86 Å (D) 3.22 Å

6. Which of the following compounds is not colored yellow ?

(A) (NH4)3[As(Mo3O10)4] (B) BaCrO4

(C) Zn2[Fe(CN)6] (D) K3[Co(NO2)6]

7. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen ?
(A) – 3.4 eV (B) + 6.8 eV (C) + 13.6 eV (D) – 6.8 eV
8. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid ?
(A) Phenelzine (B) Ranitidine
(C) Aluminium hydroxide (D) Cimetidine

9. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3–, O2– and F– are respectively :

(A) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (B) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
(C) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (D) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
10. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the extraction of Al, which of the following
statements is false ?

(A) Al3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al

(B) Na3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte

(C) CO and CO2 are produced in this process.

(D) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity

775
11. In the following sequence of reactions :
KMnO4 SOCl2 H2/Pd
Toluene A B C

(A) C6H5CH2OH (B) C6H5CHO (C) C6H5COOH (D) C6H5CH3

12. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to :
(A) shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions.
(B) loss of active species on collision.
(C) low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species.
(D) increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved.
13. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism ?
(A) 2-Phenyl-1-butene (B) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propane
(C) 1-Phenyl-2-butene (D) 3-phenyl-1-butene
14. Match the catalysts to the correct process :
Catalyst Process

A. TiCl3 (i) Wacker process (A) A–(ii) B–(iii) C–(iv) D–(i)

B. Pd Cl2 (ii) Ziegler-Natta polymerization (B) A–(iii) B–(i) C–(ii) D–(iv)

C. CuCl2 (iii) Contact process (C) A–(iii) B–(ii) C–(iv) D–(i)

D. V2O 5 (iv) Deacon’s process (D) A–(ii) B–(i) C–(iv) D–(iii)

15. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the
molecules is :
(A) London force (B) hydrogen bond
(C) ion-ion interaction (D) ion-dipole interaction
16. The molecular formula of a commerical resin used for exchanging ions in water softening is
C6H7SO3Na (Mol wt - 206). What would be the maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin when
expressed in mole per gram resin ?

2 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
309 412 103 206

17. Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at
the cathode is : (at mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)
(A) 2 g (B) 127 g (C) 0 g (D) 63.5 g
18. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for square planar [Pt (Cl)(py)(NH3)(NH2OH]+ is
(py = pyridine) :
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 3
19. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250 mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr.
The percentage of bromine in the compound is : (at mass of Ag = 108 amu, Br-80 amu)
(A) 48 (B) 60 (C) 24 (D) 36
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20. The color of KMnO4 is due to :
(A) L ® M charge transfer transition (B) s ® s* charge transfer transition
(C) d-d transition (D) M ® L charge transfer transition
21. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by :
(A) Finkelstein reaction (B) Swarts reaction
(C) Free radical fluorination (D) Sandmeyer’s reaction
22. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 ml of acetic acid solution 0.06 N in a flask. After an
hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic
acid adsorbed (per gram of charcola) is :
(A) 42 mg (B) 54 mg (C) 18 mg (D) 36 mg
23. Which among the following is the most reactive ?
(A) I 2 (B) ICI (C) Cl2 (D) Br 2
24. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20° C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol–1)
of the substance is :
(A) 128 (B) 488 (C) 32 (D) 64
25. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction : 2A B + C is 2492.2 J. At a
1 1
given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = , [B] = 2 and [C] = . The reaction
2 2
proceeds in the : (R = 8.314 J/K/mol–1, e = 2.718)
(A) forward direction because Qc < kc (B) reverse direction because Qc < kc
(C) forward direction because Qc > kc (D) reverse direction because Qc > kc
26. Which one has the highest boiling point ?
(A) Kr (B) Xe (C) He (D) Ne
27. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints and lacquers ?
(A) Polyporpene (B) Poly vinyl chloride (C) Bakelite (D) Glyptal
28. The following reaction is performed at 298 K :
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)

The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 KJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free
energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K ? (kp = 1.6 × 10–12)

ln(1.6 × 1012 )
(A) 86600 – (B) 0.5 [2 × 86600 – R (298) ln (1.6 × 1012)]
R(298)

(C) R (298) ln (1.6 × 1012) – 86600 (D) 86600 + R (298) ln (1.6 × 1012)
29. From the following statements regarding H2O2, choose the incorrect statement :
(A) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark.
(B) It has to be kept away from dust
(C) It can act only as an oxidizing agent.
(D) It decomposes on exposure to light

777
30. Assertion (A) : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do
not react to form oxides of nitrogen.
Reason (R) : The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature.
(A) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect
(C) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion
(D) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion.

• JEE Main Paper (2013)

Answers : 1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (C), 4. (C), 5. (B), 6. (B), 7. (D), 8. (C), (D), 9. (A), 10. (A),
11. (D), 12. (A), 13. (D), 14. (A), 15. (D), 16. (B), 17. (C), 18. (C), 19. (D),
20. (A), 21. (A), 22. (B), 23. (D), 24. (B), 25. (D), 26. (A), (B), (C), (D),
27. (C), 28. (C), 29. (B), 30. (B),

• JEE Main Paper (2014)

Answers : 1. (D), 2. (D), 3. (D), 4. (A), 5. (C), 6. (A), 7. (D), 8. (A), 9. (B), 10. (B),
11. (A), 12. (D), 13. (C), 14. (C), 15. (B), 16. (D), 17. (C), 18. (D), 19. (D),
20. (A), 21. (C), 22. (A), (23. (B), 24. (B), 25. (D), 26. (D), 27. (A), 28. (D),
29. (C), 30. (A)

• JEE Main Paper (2015)

Answers : 1. (D), 2. (C), 3. (D), 4. (A), 5. (C), 6. (C), 7. (A), 8. (A), 9. (C), 10. (D),
11. (B), 12. (C), 13. (C), 14. (D), 15. (D), 16. (B), 17. 4, 18. 4, 19. (C),
20. (A), 21. (B), 22. (C), 23. (C), 24. (D), 25. (D), 26. (B), 27. (D), 28. (B),
29. (C), 30. (C).

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