Dear Doctors,

Greetings from POSITIVE. By this time the ‘AIIMS-

Fever’ would have subsided. Successful guys would have settled by now
in the prestigious institute. POSITIVE’S best wishes and congratulations
to all those successful candidates.Guys who couldn’t make it, will be
(must be) horning their skills for the next battle-ALL INDIA-2008.
At this juncture, we at POSITIVE, did a microscopic
audit of the performance of POSITIVE this year, keeping AIIMS-NOV-
2007 as the Gold standard.We were very pleased to know that around 150
questions from AIIMS-NOV-2007,has been discussed in the various
programmes at POSITIVE,which by any yard stick is a decent
performance. As Evidence based medicine is the current concept, we have
provided the evidences for our claim.
A question from AIIMS-NOV-2007 will be followed by
the evidence from POSITIVE-the programme in which the concerned
question was discussed. We have divided POSITIVE’s programmes as
follows-a)MKM-Must Know MCQS-direct,indirect(22) b)POSITIVE
model examinations,pretest,PICU-POSITIVE Intensive Care UNIT(14)
c)OPERATION HARRI (62),d)Consultant’s discussion(55),MKT-Must
Know Table(9)

HAPPY NEW YEAR GREETINGS TO YOU AND

YOUR FAMILY FROM THE ‘‘POSITIVE’’ FAMILY.

POSITIVE’s advanced congratulations for the candidates

who are putting up a sincere effort for ALL INDIA-2008.

A POSITIVE request for the next few months from the

candidates preparing for the entrance examinations-

POSITIVE 2007 1
 EAT MCQ,

DRINK MCQ,

SLEEP MCQ.

With warm regards

POSITIVE

‘POSITIVE REVIEW’ AIIMS NOV-2007

POSITIVE
**MKM-DIRECT
**MKM-INDIRECT
** MODEL,PRETEST,PICU
** OPERATION HARRI
** CONSULTANT’S DISCUSSION
**MKT

POSITIVE 2007 2
 160. In heart patient the worst prognosis during
**MKM-DIRECT pregnancy is seen in- [AIIMS JUNE 2000]
17. . Tongue develops from: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] a) Mitral regurgitation
a. Occipital somites b) Mitral valve prolapse
b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch c) Aortic stenosis
c. Cervical somites d) Pulmonary stenosis
d. .. Ans (c)
22. The muscles of the tongue are developed (Also in consultant’s discussion)
from (TN-1990)
a) Occipital somites b) Cervical somites 86. OC pills are contraindicated in patients
c) Mandibular arch d) Hyoid arch receiving: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Rifampicin
18. The ureter develops from: [AIIMS-NOV- b. Ethambutol
2007] c. Streptomycin
a. Metanephros d. Pyrazinamide
b. Mesonephros Ans[a]
c. Mesonephric duct
144. A 20 years old nulliparous women is on oral
d. Paramesonephric duct
contraceptive pills. She is currently
106. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except: diagnosed as having pulmonary tuberculosis.
[AIIMS-NOV-2007] Which antituberculous drug decreases the
a. Loop diuretics effect of OCP [AIIMS MAY 2001]
b. Lithium a) INH b) Pyrazinamide
c. Vitamin D intoxication c) Ethambutol d) Rifampicin
d. ..
Ans (d)
95. All are causes of hypercalcemia, EXCEPT:
158. Polyhydramnios is associated with all
[AIIMS DEC 1997]
except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a) Thyrotoxicosis b) Sarcoidosis
a. ..
c) Vitamin A toxicity d) Phenytoin toxicity
b. ..
Ans (d) c. Bilateral renal agenesis
(Also discussed in the sessions by consultant d. ..
and in MKT) 163. A pregnant woman is found to have
176. In which of the following heart diseases is excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid.
maternal mortality during pregnancy is Such polyhdraminos is likely to be associated
found to be the highest? [AIIMS-NOV-2007] with all of the following conditions, except:
a. Coarcatation of aorta [AIIMS NOV 2003]
b. Eisenmenger’s complex a) Twinning
c. Aortic stenosis b) Microanencephaly
d. Mitral stenosis c) Oesophageal atresia
d) Bilateral renal agenesis

POSITIVE 2007 3
Ans (d) 36. Irreversible cell injury is indicated by: (AI-
152. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient 2000)
operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in a) Accumulation of calcium in mitochondria
all of the following except: [AIIMS-NOV- b) Myelin figures
2007] c) ATP depletion d) shifting of ribosomes
a. Deep myometrial invasion 53. Which finding on electron microscopy
b. Pelvic lymph node involvement indicates irreversible cell injury? (AIIMS-
c. Enlarged uterine cavity NOV-2002)
d. Poor tumour differentiation a) Dilatation of endoplasmic reticulum
166. All of the following are indications for post b) Dissociation of ribosomes from rough
operative Radiotherapy in a case of endoplasmic reticulum
Carcinoma Endometrium except [AIIMS c) Flocculent densities in the mitochondria
NOV 2004] d) Myelin figures
a) Myometrial invasion > ½ thickness
b) Positive lymph nodes (Also in consultant’s discussion, OPERATION
c) Endocervical involvement HARRI and MKT)
d) Tumor positive for estrogen receptors 77. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis.
Ans (d) Examination reveals only pus cells but no
organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:
45. Vitamin K is required for: [AIIMS-NOV- [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
2007]
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
a. Carboxylation b. H.ducreyi
b. Hydroxylation c. Treponema pallidum
c. .. d. ..
d. ..
31. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to: [AIIMS-
13. Vit K is needed for which of these post NOV-2007]
translational modification processes- [AIIMS
a. Atrial contraction
MAY 2001]
b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right
a) Methylation b) Carboxylation atrium
c) Hydroxylation d) Transketolation c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is
Ans (b) closed
d. ..
(Also in consultants discussion and in
‘OPERATION HARRI’) 112. All of the following phases of the jugular
venous pulse and their causes are correctly
123. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is: matched, Except:(AI – 2002)
[AIIMS-NOV-2007] a) ‘C’ wave – onset of atrial systole
a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria b) ‘a-x’ descent – atrial relaxation
b. .. c) ‘v-y’ – emptying of blood from right atrium
c. .. into right ventricle
d. .. d) ‘y-a’ ascent – filling of the right atrium from
the vena cava

POSITIVE 2007 4
 (Also in consultants discussion and in 70. Which of the following person is present in a
‘OPERATION HARRI’) sub centre: [AIIMS NOV 2007]
a. Multipurpose worker
78. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done
b. Laboratory technician
by using: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
c. Health educator
a. M protein d. Medical officer
b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
c. Group C carbohydrate antigen 57. . A 18 month old child come to you with
d. .. history of immunization taken only for a
Ans [c] single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you
give now? [AIIMS Nov 2007]
54. C-Carbohydrate in Streptococcus
a.Re-start the immunization according to age
hemolyticus is important for : [AIIMS JUNE
b. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of
1998]
OPV and DPT
a) Lancefield classification c. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and
b) Phagocytic inhibition DPT
c) Toxin production d. Give BCG and second doses of OPV and
d) Haemolysis DPT
Ans (a)
(Also in consultants discussion and in 60. Epidemic Dropsy is due to: [AIIMS Nov
‘OPERATION HARRI’) 2007]
55. Under the National Programme for control of a. BOAA
blindness who is supposed to conduct the b. Sanguinarine
vision screening of school students? [AIIMS- c. Aflatoxin
NOV-2007] d. ..
a. School teachers 75. Primary Health Care is: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
b. Medical officers of health centers a. Health for all
c. Ophthalmologists b.
d. Health assistants c.
161. Under the school eye screening programme d.
in India, the initial screening of school 133. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is
children is done by: [AIIMS MAY 2003] seen in all except: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a) School teachers a. PNH
b) Primary level health workers b. Megaloblastic anaemia
c) Eye specialists c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
d) Medical officers d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia
Ans (a) (Also in model exam,consultant’s discussion)

(Also in consultant’s discussion) MKM-INDIRECT

93. . Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
[AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Ritodrine
b. MgSO4

POSITIVE 2007 5
 c. Nifedipine c) Descement’s membrane
d. Progesterone d) Endothelium
Ans (d) Ans (d)
155. The drug that inhibits uterine contractility 47. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
and cause pulmonary edema is- [AIIMS [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
MAY 2001] a. Drabkin’s method
a) Ritodrin b) Nifedipine b. Sahli’s method
c) Indomethacin d) Atosiban c. Spectrometry
Ans (a) d. Wintrobe’s method
Ans.d.
37. Exercise causes: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
71. Anticoagulant of choice for ESR by
a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half Wintrobes method: [AIIMS FEB 1997]
minute of minute
b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to a) Citrate b) Heparine
increase in systolic blood pressure c) Oxalate d) EDTA
c. Body temperature rise Ans (c)
d. …
68. False statement regarding hemodynamic
** MODEL,PRETEST,PICU
changes occurring during exercise is which of 20. Meiosis occurs at which of the following
the following: [AIIMS NOV 1999] transformation: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a) Venous return is augmented by the pumping a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate
action of skeletal muscles spermatocyte
b) The increased adrenergic nerve impulses to b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary
the heart as well as an increased concertation of spermatocyte
circulating catecholamines help to augment the c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
contractile state of the myocardium d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid
c) Venoconstriction in exercising muscles as POSITIVE MODEL-12-05-07-QUESTION &
well as increased cardiac output leads to marked DISCUSSION-7
increase in systemic blood pressure
d) End-diastolic volume increases in the failing 7. During spermatogenesis,which of the following
heart during exercise undergo a second meiotic division
Ans (c) a) Spermatogonia b) Primary spermatocytes
c) Secondary spermatocytes d) Spermatide
186. Transparency of the cornea is maintained
by all except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] 7. Ans (c)
a. Hydration Name Event
b. Wide separated collagen bands Spermatogenesis Spermatogonia Æ
c. Mitotic figures in the central cornea Sperm
d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers Spermato Spermatogonia Æ
172. The corneal transparency is maintained by cytogenesis Spermatocytes
[AIIMS NOV 2005] Sermiogenesis Inert spermatids Æ
a) Keratocytes Actively motile
b) Bowman’s membrane sperms

POSITIVE 2007 6
 Spermatogenesis 21. Ans (d) (Singh – 297)
Spermatogonia Mesonephric duct
- males
* Ureteric bud
Mitosis - Ureters(AIIMS-NOV-
2007***), collecting tubules
* Trigone of bladder
* Postr. Wall of part of prostatic
Primary spermatocyte 1st meiosis∗ urethra
Secondary spermatocyte * Epididymis*
* Ductus Deferens*
* Seminal vesicle
* Ejaculatory Ducts
2nd meiosis * Mesodermal part of prostrate
* Appendix of epididymis *
Spermatids Appendix of Testis
Capacitation of Fallopian tube - Remanant of Para mesonephric duct*
sperms (Cervix)
Sertoli cells Supporting cells 9. Gall bladder epithelium is: [AIIMS-NOV-
Interstitial cells of Testosterone 2007]
leydig a. Simple squamous
Chromosome Haploid 22 b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
number of Autosome + X or Y c. Simple columnar
spermatid d. Simple columnar with brush border
Penetration of Acrosome
Zona pellucida POSITIVE MODEL-12-05-2007-QUESTION
&DISCUSSION- 33,40
18. The ureter develops from: [AIIMS-NOV-
2007]
33. Pick out the odd one out
a. Metanephros
a) Ductus deferens – pseudostratified columnar
b. Mesonephros
b) Fallopian tube – ciliated simple columnar
c. Mesonephric duct
c) Vagina – stratified squamous keratinised
d. Paramesonephric duct
d) Oesophagus – stratified squamous non
keratinized
POSITIVE MODEL-12-05-2007-QUESTION
&DISCUSSION-21 33. Ans ( c )
21. All are derivatives of mesonephric duct in Epithelium
males except ↓ ↓
a) Epididymis b) Vasdeferens * Simple stratified * Squamous
c) Appendix of epididymis pseudo stratified * Cuboidal
d) Appendix of Testis * Columnar

POSITIVE 2007 7
A) Simple Transitional Epithelium
Type Site - Exclusively in excretory passage of urinary
system
Squamous * Mesothelium (cavities eg. - Calyx
Pleura) Pelvis
* Blood vessel, lymphatic Ureters
Lumen – endothelium Bladder
Cuboidal * Small excretory ducts
* PCT Cartilage
* Hyaline Trachea
Columnar * Digestive organs * Fibrous Intervertebral Disc
- Stomach * Elastic Epiglottis
- Small Intestine
- Large Intestine
- Gall Bladder Structure Epithelium
(Microvilli --> striated * Tonsil - Stratified squamous
border) * Tongue papilla - Stratified squamous
B) Pseudostratified columnar –
partial keratinisation
- A single layer
* Lip - Stratified squamous
- Not all cells reach the surface keratinised
Site * Anal canal
* Respiratory passage - upper - Simple columnar
- Trachea - lower - Stratified squamous
- Bronchi Nose - Psuedo stratified
- Bronchioles (Large) a) Olfactory columnar epithelium
* Genital epithelium
- Epididymis b) Respiratory - Pseudo stratified
- Vasdeferens (stereo cilia) epithelium ciliated columnar
Respiratory
C) Stratified epithelium * Terminal - Ciliated columnar
i) Stratified squamous bronchiole (elura cells)
Keratinised Non keratinised Nonciliated cuboidal
* Respiratory - Simple cuboidal
Epidermis (palms and * Mouth
Bronchiole (cilia
soles) * Pharynx
absent)
* Oesophagus
* Alveoli - Simple squamous
* Vagina
* Analcanal 40. A simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium
ii) Stratified Cuboidal and Stratified with extensive basal infoldings of plasma
Columnar membrane is characteristically found in
- Limited distribution a) collecting tubules of kidney
- Excretory ducts of pancreas b) lining epithelium of small intestine
Salivary gland c) striated ducts of the parotid Gland
Sweat gland

POSITIVE 2007 8
 d) Lining epithelium of the oral cavity (endothelium)
40. Ans.: (c) (Ref. Histology – singh-43-50) • Internal Ear
Epithelium • Renal Tubules
. Simple – cell surface has no A) 1. Simple columnar
particular specialization • Mucous membrane of stomach
. ‘Striated’ - ‘Microvilli’ is regular • Large intestine
2. Columnar – Striated
‘Brush Border’ – Microvilli’ is
• small intestine – brush border of
irregular
GB(AIIMS-NOV-2007***)

Site Epithelium 3. Columnar - ciliated

• Collecting Cuboidal epithelium • Respiratory Tract
tubules of with prominent • Uterus
Kidney brush border.
• Uterine Tubes
• Efferent ductules of testes
• Small intestine • Columnar • Middle Ear, auditory tube
epithelium with • Ependymal lining
striated border • Ventricles
• 4. Columnar - Pseudo Stratified
Ducts of Glands • Simple
cuboidal* • Ductus Deferens
• Male urethra
• Oral cavity • Non kertinized
• Auditory tube (some part)
stratified
squamous 5. Columnar
- ciliated Pseudostratified
Parotid ducts
. Intercalated o Cuboidal • Trachea
ducts • Large bronchi
. Striated ducts o columnar B) Cuboidal
. Excretory Ducts o Columnar • Follicles of Thyroid
(Simple)
• Ducts of many Glands
* Striated Ducts
• Surface of ovary
- The cells lining show an
• Inner surface of lens
interesting ultrastructure
- Extensive deep infoldings of basal part of cell • Pigment layer of Retina
membranes* Æ basal striations • Choroid plexus
- Numerous mitochondria in between the • PCT (Brush border)
infoldings. C) 1- Stratified Squamous – Non keratinised
• Mouth
Squamous – Simple • Tongue
• Alveoli of lungs • Pharynx
• ‘Cavities’ – pleura (eg) • Esophagus
• Lining of heart (endocardium) • Vagina
• Blood vessels, lymphatics • Cornea

POSITIVE 2007 9
2- Stratified Squamous - Large Intestine
- Keratinized Æ Epidermis - Gall Bladder
Transistional epithelium (Microvilli --> striated
• Renal Pelvis border)
• Calyx B) Pseudostratified columnar
• Ureter
- A single layer
• Urinary bladder
• Urethra (Part) - Not all cells reach the surface
12. Urothelium does not line: [AIIMS-NOV- Site
2007] * Respiratory passage
a. Collecting ducts - Trachea
b. Minor calyx - Bronchi
c. Ureter - Bronchioles (Large)
d. Urinary bladder * Genital
- Epididymis
POSITIVE MODEL-12-05-2007-QUESTION
- Vasdeferens (stereo cilia)
&DISCUSSION- 33,40
C) Stratified epithelium
33. Pick out the odd one out
i) Stratified squamous
a) Ductus deferens – pseudostratified columnar
b) Fallopian tube – ciliated simple columnar Keratinised Non keratinised
c) Vagina – stratified squamous keratinised Epidermis (palms and * Mouth
d) Oesophagus – stratified squamous non soles) * Pharynx
keratinized * Oesophagus
33. Ans ( c ) * Vagina
* Analcanal
Epithelium
ii) Stratified Cuboidal and Stratified
↓ ↓ Columnar
* Simple stratified * Squamous - Limited distribution
pseudo stratified * Cuboidal - Excretory ducts of pancreas
* Columnar Salivary gland
Sweat gland
A) Simple
Transitional Epithelium(AIIMS-NOV-2007***)
Type Site - Exclusively in excretory passage of urinary
Squamous * Mesothelium (cavities eg. system
Pleura) - Calyx
* Blood vessel, lymphatic Pelvis
Lumen – endothelium Ureters
Cuboidal * Small excretory ducts Bladder
* PCT
Cartilage
Columnar * Digestive organs * Hyaline Trachea
- Stomach * Fibrous Intervertebral Disc
- Small Intestine * Elastic Epiglottis

POSITIVE 2007 10
 • Collecting Cuboidal epithelium
tubules of with prominent
Structure Epithelium brush border.
Kidney
* Tonsil - Stratified squamous
* Tongue papilla - Stratified squamous
– • Small intestine • Columnar
partial keratinisation epithelium with
* Lip - Stratified squamous striated border
keratinised • Ducts of Glands • Simple
* Anal canal cuboidal*
- upper - Simple columnar
• Oral cavity • Non kertinized
- lower - Stratified squamous
stratified
Nose - Psuedo stratified
squamous
a) Olfactory columnar epithelium
Parotid ducts
epithelium
. Intercalated o Cuboidal
b) Respiratory - Pseudo stratified
ducts
epithelium ciliated columnar
. Striated ducts o columnar
Respiratory
. Excretory Ducts o Columnar
* Terminal - Ciliated columnar
(Simple)
bronchiole (elura cells)
* Striated Ducts
Nonciliated cuboidal
- The cells lining show an
* Respiratory - Simple cuboidal
interesting ultrastructure
Bronchiole (cilia
- Extensive deep infoldings of basal part of cell
absent)
membranes* Æ basal striations
* Alveoli - Simple squamous - Numerous mitochondria in between the
40. A simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium infoldings.
with extensive basal infoldings of plasma
membrane is characteristically found in Squamous – Simple
a) collecting tubules of kidney • Alveoli of lungs
b) lining epithelium of small intestine • ‘Cavities’ – pleura (eg)
c) striated ducts of the parotid Gland • Lining of heart (endocardium)
d) Lining epithelium of the oral cavity • Blood vessels, lymphatics
40. Ans.: (c) (Ref. Histology – singh-43-50) (endothelium)
Epithelium • Internal Ear
. Simple – cell surface has no • Renal Tubules
particular specialization B) 1. Simple columnar
. ‘Striated’ - ‘Microvilli’ is regular • Mucous membrane of stomach
‘Brush Border’ – Microvilli’ is • Large intestine
irregular 2. Columnar – Striated
• small intestine – brush border of GB
Site Epithelium
3. Columnar - ciliated
• Respiratory Tract

POSITIVE 2007 11
 • Uterus c. Type 3
• Uterine Tubes d. Type 4
• Efferent ductules of testes Ans[b]
• Middle Ear, auditory tube POSITIVE MODEL-12-05-2007-QUESTION
• Ependymal lining &DISCUSSION- 135
• Ventricles (Also in MKT,OPERATION HARRI)
4. Columnar - Pseudo Stratified
• Ductus Deferens 135. Embryonic Dermis contains ______ Type
collagen
• Male urethra
• Auditory tube (some part) a) I b) II c) III d) IV
5. Columnar 135. Ans (c)
- ciliated Pseudostratified Collagen
• Trachea
Type Distribution
• Large bronchi
I • Skin
B) Cuboidal • Tendon
• Follicles of Thyroid • Bone
• Ducts of many Glands • Dentin
• Surface of ovary • Fascia
• Inner surface of lens II • Cartilage **(only)-
• Pigment layer of Retina AIIMS-NOV-2007)
• Choroid plexus III • Skin
• PCT (Brush border) (Reticulin) • Bolld vessels
C) 1- Stratified Squamous – Non keratinised • Uterus
• Embryonic Dermis
• Mouth IV • Basement membrane
• Tongue
• Pharynx 115. Not used to stain fats: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
• Esophagus a. Oil red O
• Vagina b. Congo red
• Cornea c. Sudan III
2- Stratified Squamous d. Sudan black
- Keratinized Æ Epidermis POSITIVE MODEL-12-05-2007-QUESTION
Transistional epithelium &DISCUSSION- 112
• Renal Pelvis 112. All of the following are stains used to detect
• Calyx lipids except
• Ureter
a) Oil red O b) Sudan Black B
• Urinary bladder c) Osmium Tetroxide d) Mucicarmine
• Urethra (Part) 112. Ans (d)
117. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen Stain Tissue
present is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
A. Carbohydrate
a. Type 1 - PAS
b. Type 2

POSITIVE 2007 12
 - Mucicarmine - Acid mucin 125. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
- Alcian blue (AB) - Acid mucin [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
- Combined AB - PAS - Neutral mucin a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
B. Connective Tissue b. Alcoholic hepatitis
- Vangieson’s - Collagen c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
- Masson’s Trichrome - Collagen d. Hemochromatosis
- Phospho tungstic - Muscle and glial
POSITIVE MODEL 2 2007-QUESTION-32
acid Hematoxylin filaments
- Verhoeff’s elastic - Elastic fibre 32. All of the following can produce macro
- Gordon & sweet - Reticular fibre nodular cirrhosis except (POSITIVE MODEL
C. Lipids -2- 2007-QUESTION-32)
- Oil Red O - Fats a) Viral Hepatitis b) Hemo chromatosis
- Sudan Black B -Fats c) α1 antitrypsin deficiency d) Wilson’s
- Osmium Tetroxide - Fats 32. Ans (b) (P-644,647, HM)
D. Neural Tissue
- Luxol fast blue - Myelin Cirrhosis
- Bielschowsky’s - Axons Macro (> 3 mm) Micro(AIIMS-
E. Pigment and NOV-2007***)
Minerals • Alchoholic* • Primary biliary
- Prussian blue - Iron • Post necrotic • Hemochro
- Masson – Fontana - Melanin - Viral Hepatitis matosis**
- Alizarin Red - Calcium - Drugs, Toxins • Alchoholic
- Von kossa - Mineralized bone →CCL4,Phosphorus • Nutritional
- Rubeanic acid - Copper - Wilson’s*
- Grimelius - Argyrophilic - Clonorchiasis
* α1 antitrypsin
Immunoflorescence (micro or macro)
Source of light – Mercury vapour and xenon
Gas Lamp 198. Hampton’s hump in: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Pulmonary embolism
34. . Metabolic alkalosis is seen in: [AIIMS-
b. Tuberculosis
NOV-2007]
c. Bronchogenic Ca
a. Mineralocortoid excess d. ..
b. Increased excretion of base
c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids
135. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in all except
(POSITIVE MODEL 2 2007)
a) Thilazide diuretic therapy
b) Prolonged vomiting
c) Uretero-sigmoidostomy d) Cushing’s disease
(Also in OPERATION HARRI)

POSITIVE 2007 13
 POSITIVE MODEL-4-QUESTION-33 Character Points
33. A 57 year old man develops acute shortness * Clinical signs and 3.0
of breath shortly after a 12-h automobile symptoms of DVT
ride. The patient consults his internist, and * Alternative diagnosis 3.0
findings on physical examination are normal is less likely than PE
except for tachypnea and tachycardia. An * HR > 100 1.5
electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia * Immobilisation or 1.5
but is otherwise normal. All the following surgery in the previous
statements regarding this patient’s disease 4 wks
process are true EXCEPT (POSITIVE * Previous DVT / PE 1.5
MODEL-4)
* Hemoptysis 1.0
a) An arterial blood gas measurement (ABG) is * Malignancy 1.0
likely to reveal a partial pressure of oxygen
(Paco2) of less than 80 torr Clinical
b) An ABG is likely to reveal a respiratory * Massive - Hypotension
alkalosis (an elevated pH and reduced partial * Moderate or RV Hypokinesis
pressure of carbon dioxide (Paco2) large - Normal pressure
c) The patient should be admitted to the * Small -RV Function – Normal
hospital, and if there is no cotraindication to -Pressure - Normal
anticoagulation, intravenous heparin should be Pulmonary infarction indicates small PE
started pending further testing
d) Normal findings upon examination of the Symptoms & Sign
lower extremities are extremely unusual in this * Dyspnoea – Most frequent symptom
clinical setting * Tachypnoea – Most frequent sign
e) The mortality for this condition, when * Signs of DVT – only in 50%
untreated, is very high Investigations
33.Ans (d) * Blood Tests
Pulmonary Thrombo embolism - D-dimer > 500 ng/mL
* The most common source of paradoxical - PaO2, PaCo2 ↓
embolism – Calf vein thrombosis * ECG - Most frequent
* 50% DVT of pelvic veins, proximal leg veins - ‘T’ wave inversion in V1 – V4 (RVstrain)
→ Pulmonary embolism (asymptomatic) - Tachycardia
- ‘S’ in lead I
Physiological effects - ‘Q’ in lead III
- ↑ Pulmonary vascular resistance Chest Xray
- Impaired gas exchange (↑ dead space)
- Alveolar hyperventilation A normal Xray in a Dyspnoeic pt → PE
- Increased airway resistance
- ↓ Pulmonary compliance * Westermark’s sign - Focal oligemia
Usual cause of death – Progressive RVF * Hampton’s * Peripheral wedge
* Wells Diagnostic score sign(AIIMS-NOV- shaped opacity above
- Maximum – 12.5 points 2007***) the diaphragm
- If ≤ 4 points, PE is only 8% * Palla’s sign * Enlarged Right

POSITIVE 2007 14
 descending c. Looser’s zones
pulmonary Artery d. Proximal myopathy
* Ultrasound – Loss of compressibility of vein POSITIVE-MODEL-4-QUEST-126
* CT chest – supersedes lung scan
* Lung scan – Two or more segmental perfusion
defects in the presence of normal ventilation (Also in OPERATION HARRI)
ECHO 154. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all
except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
- 50% normal
- Mc Conell’s sign* a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the
- RV free wall Hypokinesis with normal RV apical colon
motion → specific for PE b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
c. It occurs after previous surgery
Pulmonary angio: d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use
- Most specific* POSITIVE-MODEL-4-QUEST-180,2O2
- As small as 1-2 mm
Intraluminal filling defect 180. Find the Wrong statement about paralytic
ileus
Treatment
a) After a laparotomy paralytic ileus upto 48
- Heparin – INR 2.0 – 3.0 hrs is normal
- LMWH b) Colon is most prominently affected
- IVC filter c) Small intestine starts action in 16 hrs after
- Thrombolysis laparotomy
- Embolectomy (Trt of idiopathic DVT – d) Spinal anaesthesia causes paralytic ileus
Anticoaggulants indefinitely) e) Colonic pseudo-obstruction is called
99. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except: Ogilvie’s syndrome
[AIIMS-NOV-2007] 180. Ans ( d )
a. Beta blockers Paralytic Ileus
b. Glucocorticoids * Absence of Peristalic waves secondary to
c. .. neuromuscular failure
d. ..
* Post operative
POSITIVE-PRETEST-SESSION-30-QUEST-22 - 24 – 72 hrs
22. All the following drugs cause hyperglycaemia - prolonged in hypo proteinemia or
EXCEPT metabolic abnormality
* Colonic Pseudo obstruction
a) Quinine
- acute – Ogilivie syndrome
b) Cyclosporine
- marked cecal distention
c) L asparaginase
- absence of mechanical cause or
d) Tacrolimus
acute intra abdominal
(Also in OPERATION HARRI) disease(AIIMS-NOV-2007∗∗)
174. In osteomalacia, all are true except: - Trt - colonic decompression
[AIIMS-NOV-2007] - 25% - Recurrence
a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
b. Increased serum calcium

POSITIVE 2007 15
202. Colonic pseudo-obstruction may be
associated with all the following, EXCEPT
(a) Diabetes (b) Porphyria
(c) Hypokalemia
(d) Uremia. (e) Hyperthyroidism
202. Ans : E
Occurs in hypothyroidism. Septicemia,
spinal and pelvic trauma, Phenothiazine
therapy, stroke etc. can also cause. Also
called Ogilvie’s syndrome. X-ray shows
dilated caecum. Usually responds to
conservative management. Colonoscopic
decompression, resection etc. rarely needed.
2. Uppermost structure seen at the hilus of the
left lung is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Pulmonary artery
b. Pulmonary vein
c. Bronchus
d. Bronchial artery
POSITIVE-MODEL-4-QUEST-229
229. The root of left lung:
a) has eparterial and hyperterial
bronchi
b) lies opposite to 2-4th costal cartilages
c) the pulmonary ligament stretches downward
from it to the level of the diaphragm
d) is crossed below by the arch of aorta
229. Ans (c)
Root of Left Lung
* Contents
- Bronchus
- Bronchial Artery
- Pulmonary Artery
- Pulmonary Vein – Upper
- Lower
- Pulmonary Plexus of Nerves
* Arch of Aorta – Crosses above
* Eparterial & hyparterial bronchi –
Right Lung
POSITIVE 2007
(Also in consultant’s discussion)
3. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:
[AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand
b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles
c. Claw hand
d. adduction of thumb
Ans[d]
POSITIVE-MODEL-4 QUEST-266
266. Mr.X. Fell from a tree and sustained
injury in his elbow. In the process his ulnar
nerve was cut. One of the following is true
a) part of the flexor digitorum superficialis
(sublimis) is paralysed
b) there is a loss of sensation in the back of the
index finger
c) flexion at the metacarpophalangeal joints of
the ring and little fingers is lost if their
interphalangeal joints are kept extended
d) the distal phalanges of all the fingers are
extended at the distal interphalangeal joints
266. Ans (c)
· Flex digitorum Superficialis
· Median N
· Sensation at back of index finger – Posterior
cutaneous nerve of fore arm
** OPERATION HARRI
127. What is true about linkage analysis in
familial gene disorders: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a
family is associated with disorders
b. Characteristic DNA polymorphism WITH A
CLINICAL PHENOTYPE
C.Useful to make pedigree chart to show
affected and non-affected family members
D.Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-
paternity
OPERATION HARRI-PAGE-372-FIG-56-10
(SESSION 26 – 2.9.07)
16
111. Caspases are involved in: [AIIMS NOV c. Group C carbohydrate antigen
2007] d. ..
a. Apoptosis
b. .. OPERATION HARRI -P-823 (SESSION 32 –
c. .. 7.10.07)
d. 23. . Not seen in SIADH is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Hyponatremia
OPERATION HARRI-PAGE-455-FIG-69.1 b. Hypouricemia
(SESSION 27 - 9.9.07) c. Volume depletion
96. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the d. ..
following except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] OPERATION HARRI -P-256 (SESSION 26 –
a. Tacrolimus 2.9.07)
b. Metformin (Also in consultant’s discussion)
c. Cyclosporine
d. Phenytoin 28. . Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:
[AIIMS-NOV-2007]
OPERATION HARRI-APPENDIX-TABLE-A5 a. PCT
b. DCT
76. HACEK group includes all except: [AIIMS- c. Collecting duct
NOV-2007] d. Thick ascending loop of Henle
a. Hemophilus aprophillus OPERATION HARRI -P-263 (SESSION 26 –
b. Acinetobacter baumanni 2.9.07)
c. Eikenella corrodens (also in consultant’s discussion)
d. Cardiobacterium hominis
81. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true
OPERATION HARRI--P 867 (SESSION 32 – except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
7.10.07) a. RSV is the most common cause of
bronchiolitis in infants
79. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is: b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
[AIIMS-NOV-2007] c. ..
d. ..
a. Thayer-martin
b. TCBS medium OPERATION HARRI -P-1063, 1154 (SESSION
c. Scirrow’s medium 9 – 20.5.07)
d. Loeffer’s
OPERATION HARRI –P 911 (SESSION 34 83. True about polioviruses is: [AIIMS-NOV-
– 14.10.07) 2007]
(also in consultant’s discussion) a. Most cases are symptomatic
78. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce
by using: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] spastic paralysis
c. ..
a. M protein d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child
b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall less than 3 years of age

POSITIVE 2007 17
 OPERATION HARRI -P-1147 (SESSION 9 – 198. Hampton’s hump in: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
20.5.07) a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Tuberculosis
67. Mirena is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] c. Bronchogenic Ca
a. Used in abortion d. ..
b. Anti-progesterone OPERATION HARRI -P-1562 (SESSION 20
c. Progesterone IUCD – 29.7.07)
d. Hormonal implant 190. A female patient presents with diffuse
alopecia to you. She had suffered from
OPERATION HARRI -P-281-TAB, 283 typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable
(SESSION 26 – 2.9.07) diagnosis is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Androgenetic alopecia
107. All of the following can be used for b. Telogen effluvium
thromboprophylaxis except: [AIIMS-NOV- c. Anagen effluvium
2007] d. Alopecia areata
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin OPERATION HARRI -P-TAB-299 (SESSION
c. Warfarin 26 – 2.9.07)
d. Antithrombin-III 191. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing
alopecia except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
OPERATION HARRI -P-687-689 (SESSION 29 a. Lichen planus
– 23.9.07) b. Discoid lupus erythematosus
108. Used for the treatment of migraine, the c. Alopecia areata
triptans act through: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] d. Lupus vulgaris
a. 5HT-1A
b. 5HT-1B OPERATION HARRI -P-297 (SESSION 26
c. 5HT-1F – 2.9.07)
d. 5HT-3 189. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month
history of nasal discharge, facial pain and
OPERATION HARRI -P-90 (SESSION 24 – fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided.
19.8.07) After 1 month again had symptoms of
116. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following mucopurulent discharge from the middle
except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] meatus and the mucosa of the meatus
appeared congested and oedematous. Next
a. Factor VIII best investigation would be: [AIIMS-NOV-
b. Factor IX 2007]
c. Von Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen a. FACIAL MRI
b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
OPERATION HARRI -P-664 (SESSION 29 – c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
23.9.07) d. Inferior meatus puncture
(Also in MKT)
OPERATION HARRI-P-188 (SESSION 25 –
25.8.07)

POSITIVE 2007 18
187. . A patient presents with Carcinoma of the
larynx involving the left false cords, left OPERATION HARRI -P-254,320-321
arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds (SESSION 26 – 2.9.07)
with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment (Also in consultants discussion)
of choice is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy 94. Bisphosphonates are not used in: [AIIMS-
b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy NOV-2007]
c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy a. Hypercalcemia
d. Total laryngectomy b. Osteoporosis
c. Cancer
OPERATION HARRI -P-505 (SESSION 28 – d. Vitamin D intoxication
16.9.07)
OPERATION HARRI P-562,567,1861
183. A 18 year old girl presents with (SESSION 28, 9 – 16.9.07)
amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky
discharge from the breast. Most likely 82. . In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen
diagnosis is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Anorexia nervosa a.HbsAg
b. Occult carcinoma b.IgManti-HbcAg
c. Hypothyroidism c.HbeAg
d. HIV d.Anti-HbsAg
Ans
OPERATION HARRI -P-430 (SESSION 27 –
9.9.07) OPERATION HARRI-P-1833 (SESSION 9 –
178. Following is associated with maximum risk 27.5.07)
of invasive carcinoma of cervix : [AIIMS- 126. Councilman bodies are seen in: [AIIMS-
NOV-2007] NOV-2007]
a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion b. Wilson’s disease
c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated c. Acute viral hepatitis
with HPV-16 d. ..
d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated OPERATION HARRI-P-1828 (SESSION 9 –
with HIV 27.5.07)
OPERATION HARRI -P-557 (SESSION 28 –
174. In osteomalacia, all are true except:[AIIMS
16.9.07)
Nov 2007]
(In consultants discussion-session-38-18-11-07)
a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
91. Thiazides cause all except: [AIIMS-NOV- b. Increased serum calcium
2007] c. Looser’s zones
a. Hyperglycemia d. Proximal myopathy
b. Increased calcium excretion
c. Increased uric acid excretion
d. Useful in congestive heart failure

POSITIVE 2007 19
 OPERATION HARRI-P-2248 (SESSION 4 – c. Infundibular stenosis
29.4.07) d. Aorta overriding
167. A child presents with history of respitory
infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 OPERATION HARRI-P-1389 (SESSION 23 –
and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. 12.8.07)
Which other test would you do to exclude the 136. With CSF all are true except: [AIIMS Nov
diagnosis of cystic fibrosis: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
2007]
a. Persistent leakage causes headache
a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements b. Neutrophils are normally not present
b. Nasal electrode potential difference c. pH is less than that of blood
c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi
d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation
OPERATION HARRI-P-A-11,1632 (SESSION 9
OPERATION HARRI-P-1546 (SESSION 9 – – 27.5.07)
27.5.07)
138. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension IS
168. A term infant has not passed meconium for CAUSED BY ALL EXCEPT [AIIMS Nov
48 hours. He presents with distension of 2007]
abdomen and emesis since one day. Next
most appropriate investigation would be: a. Hyperventilation
[AIIMS Nov 2007] b. Morbid obesity
c. Fenfluramine
a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis d. High altitude
b. Manometry
c. Lower bowel contrast enema
d. Oesophagoscopy OPERATION HARRI-P-1406 (SESSION 21 –
5.8.07)
OPERATION HARRI -1545 (SESSION 9 – 139. Cushing’s disease includes all except:
27.5.07) [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Central obesity
b. Episodic hypertension
149. The best investigation is thromboembolism c. Easy bruisability
is: [AIIMS Nov 2007] d. Glucose intolerance
a. D-dimer levels
b. Multidetector CT angiography
OPERATION HARRI-2135 (SESSION 13 –
c. Colour Doppler USG
17.6.07)
d. Catheter angiography
140. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in
all except: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
OPERATION HARRIP-1490 (SESSION 21 –
5.8.07) a. renal artery stenosis
b. End stage renal disease
151. All are essential components of TOF except: c. Cushing’s disease
[AIIMS Nov 2007] d. Primary hyperaldosteronism
a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy

POSITIVE 2007 20
 OPERATION HARRI-P-258,2139,2131 56. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in
(SESSION 13 – 17.6.07) apparently healthy persons is: [AIIMS Nov
145. VHL syndrome includes all except: [AIIMS 2007]
Nov 2007] a. Screening
a. Endolymphatic sac tumours b. Surveillance
b. Pheochromocytoma c. Case finding
c. Hemangioendotheliomas d. Notification
d. Islet cell tumours
OPERATION HARRI - 26 (SESSION 24 –
OPERATION HARRI – P - 2236,2453,2458 19.8.07)
(SESSION 14 – 24.6.07, SESSION – 5 – (Also in consultant’s discussion)
6.5.07)
44. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is: 65. Kala-azar, vector is: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
[AIIMS Nov 2007] a. Flea
a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme b. Tsetse fly
hydrolase c. Sand fly
b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes d. Mite
and phagosomes
c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane OPERATION HARRI-1233 (SESSION 36 –
d. .. 28.10.07)
OPERATION HARRI P-2318 (SESSION 15 –
1.7.07)
66. Scrub typhus is transmitted by: [AIIMS Nov
45. Vitamin K is required for: [AIIMS Nov 2007] 2007]
a. Carboxylation a. Reduvid bug
b. Hydroxylation b. Trombiculid mite
c. .. c. Enteric pathogens
d. .. d. Cyclops

OPERATION HARRI P-683 (SESSION 29 – OPERATION HARRI – P – 1004 (SESSION 35

23.9.07) – 21.10.07)
54. Which vaccine should not be given to a child
suffering from convulsions? [AIIMS Nov 72. . Regarding flourosis all are true except:
2007] [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Measles a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental
b. BCG caries in children
c. DPT b Deposition of flurides in the skeletal system
d. OPV and muscles
OPERATION HARRI – P - 835 (SESSION 32 – c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
7.10.07) d. Genu valgum
(Also in consultant’s discussion)

POSITIVE 2007 21
 OPERATION HARRI – P .411 (SESSION 27 – c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence
9.9.07) and many others
d. They are the drug of choice in type III
hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
73. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA
except: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Mustard oil OPERATION HARRI P-2297 (SESSION 15 –
b. Groundnut oil 1.7.07)
c. Corn oil
d. Fish oil 112. . In mitral valve prolapse, the histological
finding is: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
OPERATION HARRI – P-419,2296,2297 a. Hyalinization of the valve
(SESSION 27 – 9.9.07, SESSION 15 – 1.7.07) b. Fibrinoid necrosis
c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
d. ..
80. Prions consist of: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. DNA and RNA
b. DNA, RNA and proteins OPERATION HARRI-1395 (SESSION 23 –
c. RNA and proteins 12.8.07)
d. Only proteins
Ans[d] 119. Most common site of subependymal giant
cell astrocytomas is: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
OPERATION HARRI -2495 (SESSION 4 – a. Foramen of Monro
29.4.07) b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
(Also in consultants discussion) c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle

92. Regarding furosemide, true is: [AIIMS Nov OPERATION HARRI P-2457 (SESSION 4 –
2007] 29.4.07)
a. Given by parenteral route only
b. Used in pulmonary oedema 121. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect
c. Acts at the PCT in: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
d. . a. β2 – microglobulin
b. Transthyretin
OPERATION HARRI -1616 (SESSION 9 – c. AANF
27.5.07) d. Pyrin

88. True about fibrates is all except: [AIIMS Nov OPERATION HARRI P-2024 (SESSION 10
2007] – 3.6.07)
a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein
lipase…decreased LDL…
b. Absorped better on empty stomach and
decreased on food intake

POSITIVE 2007 22
104. All but one acts via GABA Aexcept: [AIIMS examination reveals plenty of RBCs,
Nov 2007] 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely
a. Thiopentone diagnosis is: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
b. Midazolam a. Glomerulonephritis
c. Zolpidem b. Ca-Urinary bladder
d. Promethazine c. Ureteral calculus
d. ..
OPERATION HARRI P-2363 (SESSION 4 –
29.4.07) OPERATION HARRI P-1710 (SESSION 9 –
27.5.07)
144. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally
characterized by: [AIIMS Nov 2007] 137. . Not a feature of DKA is: [AIIMS Nov
a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged 2007]
mitochondria a. Tachypnoea
b. Depletion of glycogen b. Bradycardia
c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum c. Abdominal pain
d. Perinuclear staining d. Dehydration

OPERATION HARRI P-1871 (SESSION 9 – OPERATION HARRI P-2158-TAB (SESSION

27.5.07) 14 – 17.6.07)

169. A 71/2 year old child presents with non- 142. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is: [AIIMS
blanching rash over the extensor aspect of Nov 2007]
arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis a. HBV-DNA polymerase
shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On b. IgG anti-HBc
kidney biopsy which finding will be most c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
commonly seen: [AIIMS Nov 2007] d. Anti-HbsAg
a. Fusion of podocytes
b. Acute tubular necrosis OPERATION HARRI P-1834-TAB (SESSION 9
c. Deposition of IgA – 27.5.07)
d. Thickened basement membrane

132. A patient presents with

OPERATION HARRI P-1682 (SESSION 9 –
27.5.07)
131. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal
complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa
in a waveform pattern which increases
during the night and he becomes exhausted
and is admitted in the hospital. On
examination there is mild hematuria. Urine
hyperparathyroidism. He has a family
history of his siblings having pituitary
involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic
involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and
cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely
diagnosis: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. MEN 1
b. MEN 2A

POSITIVE 2007 23
 c. MEN 2B c. Ureteral agenesis
d. MEN 2C d. Medullary sponge kidney

OPERATION HARRI P-2231 (SESSION 14 – OPERATION HARRI P-1696 (SESSION 9 –

24.6.07) 27.5.07)

27. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for: 15. Regarding genital development, true is:
[AIIMS Nov 2007] [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. FSH a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary
b. LH development
c. Inhibin b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
d. .. c. Male genitals develop earlier than female
genitals
d. Genital development is complete by 10th
OPERATION HARRI P-2188,2199
week
(SESSION 14 – 24.6.07)
(Also in consultants discussion)
OPERATION HARRI P-2198,2214 (SESSION
14 – 24.6.07)
179. According to the new WHO criteria, all are
true in a normal person except: [AIIMS Nov
2007] 148. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:
a. Sperm count > 20 million [AIIMS Nov 2007]
b. Volume > 1 ml a. Intradural extramedullary
c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria) b. Extradural
d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 % c. Intramedullary
d. All have equal distribution
OPERATION HARRI 2188 (SESSION 14 –
24.6.07) 185. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all
except: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. HSG
175. A 18 year old primigravida complained of
b. Hysteroscopy
decreased fetal movements. She delivered a
c. Endometrial culture
baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of
d. Saline infusion USG
gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby
were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively.
The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem OPERATION HARRI-2204 (SESSION 14 –
examination revealed multiple, peripheral, 24.6.07)
radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most
common associated finding in the baby would
be: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
CONSULTANT DISCUSSION
a. Holoprosencephaly
b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis

POSITIVE 2007 24
95. . True about protease inhibitors are all 195. Altered perception of real objects is:
except: [AIIMS Nov 2007] [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) a. Illusion
and action is mediated by MDR-1 gene b. Delusion
b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism c. Hallucination
c. All protease inhibitors interfere with d. Delirium
metabolism by drug interactions SESSION-36 (28-10-07) PSYCHIATRY
d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of DISSCUSSION
CYP3A4 Perception without stimuli – Hallucination
(consultant’s discussion-) misinterpretation – illusion

194. All are characteristics of schizophrenia 53. . In tandem [bleep] number of [bleep] fired
except [AIIMS-NOV-2007] [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Third person auditory hallucinations a.1
b. inappropriate emotions b.2
c. Long stretches of mood changes c. 3
d. Formal thought disorder d.
SESSION-FM (13.5.07)
SESSION-36- 28-10-07 PSYCHIATRY- 13. According to Couinaud’s classification the
Question79 4th segment of the liver is: [AIIMS-NOV-
79. All are features of schizophrenia except 2007]
a) Altered affect a. Caudate lobe
b) Incongruity of emotion b. Quadrate lobe
c) Altered intellectual functions c. Left lobe
d) Neologisms d. Right lobe
Session-19-Page-19-Q.No-21
Most common Hallucination: Auditory
Hallucination 21. Pick the WRONG statement regarding
Schneider’s First Rank Symptoms: hepatic anatomy
1. Thought Echo (a) Liver sinusoids are developed from
2. Thought insertion Endodermal bud
3. Thought withdrawal (b) The basis of segmental division is on hepatic
4. Thought broadcasting arterial branches
5. Made affect (c) Segment I corresponds to Caudate lobe
6. Made impulse (d) Normal liver function test after transplant 3-
7. Made volution 5 weeks.
8. Hallucinations (e) Only hepatic vein to join liver outside liver
9. Somatic passivity is Right hepatic.vein
10. Delusional perception (f) Central structure of Hepatic lobules is central
vein
21. Ans:B.
Is based on French. Couinaud.

POSITIVE 2007 25
“Portal scissurae” -> “Hepatic venous planes”.
Caudate lobe I. Quadrate IV.
Caudate has direct drainage to IVC.
Central structure is central vein.–Direction of blood
flow away
Components of portal tract bileduct, hepatic artery
and portal vein.
Development
Liver endothelium – Vitelline + umbilical vein.
Bud. Connective tissue, kuppfercells -> septum
transversum. Haemopoeitic cells
Hepatic anatomy
a) It is the largest solid organ in the body
(b) The hepatic blood supply is 80% portal vein &
20% hepatic artery
(d) Majority of arterial supply is from right hepatic
artery
(e) Abnormal left hepatic artery arises from
celiac(trunk Liver. Largest organ 1.5kg 2% body Wt
5% New borns
Capsule of liver (Glisson). Devt starts from 3rd week.
Rate of liver regeneration 25±1.2 m/kg or 70ml/day.
Cell division complete in 72 hrs.
Major art supply hepatic artery. Right > Left
Abnormal right hepatic 17% from sup. Mesenteric
artery.
Abnormal left hepatic celiac trunk.
Hepatic duct with longest extra hepatic course is left.
Free edge relation CBD, PV posterior, Hepat Anterior
+ Left.
Only hepatic vein to join liver outside liver – Right
hepatic.
193. Regarding type A personality, false is:
AIIMS-2007
a. Hostility
b. Time pressure
c. Competitiveness
d. Mood fluctuations
POSITIVE 2007
SESSION-36 (28-10-07) PSYCHIATRY
DISCUSSION
90. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage
with rheumatic heart disease , which is
contraindicated: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Misoprostol
b. Methyl ergometrine
c. Oxytocin
d. Carboprost
SESSION 38 (18.11.07)
186. Transparency of the cornea is maintained
by all except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Hydration
b. Wide separated collagen bands
c. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
SESSION-30 (30-09-2007)
6. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary
artery, blood flow is maintained by
anastomosis between: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral
artery
b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery
and Subscapular artery
d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular
artery
Session-1-Page-14 – Q.No-2
2. A 62-year-old woman has a neoplasm of the
left coracoid process completely compressing
the axillary artery. However, the left radial
arterial pulse is normal. An anastomotic
connection between which of the following
arteries best explains this finding?
a) Anterior and posterior humeral circumflex
arteries
b) Subscapular and brachial arteries
c) Subscapular and posterior humeral
circumflex arteries
d) Suprascapular and subscapular arteries
e) Thoracoacromial and supreme thoracic
arteries
26
 2. Ans(d) In this case, the second part of the
axillary artery is being compressed. Therefore,
the anastomotic connection must be between a
branch from the first part of the subclavian
artery on one side and a branch from the third
part of the axillary artery on the other side.
Answer D is the only one that fits this
requirement. The suprascapular artery, a
branch of the thyrocervical trunk of the
subclavian artery anatomoses with the
circumflex scapular artery, a branch of the
subscapular artery. The subscapular artery is a
branch of the third part of the axillary artery.
189. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month
history of nasal discharge, facial pain and
fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided.
After 1 month again had symptoms of
mucopurulent discharge from the middle
meatus and the mucosa of the meatus
appeared congested and oedematous. Next
best investigation would be: [AIIMS-NOV-
2007]
SESSION 22 - ENT (11.8.07)
[snip]. Regarding Phenytoin,false is: [AIIMS-
NOV-2007]
a. Induces microsomal enzymes
b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
d. Highly protein bound
Session-35 (21.10.07) Page-8-Q.No -24
24. False statement about the pharmacokinetics
of anti epileptic drugs is
a) Oxcarbazepine is a prodrug
b) Ethosuximide is highly plasma protein bound
c) High doses of Phenytoin are eliminated by
zero order kinetics
d) Gabapentin is excreted unchanged in urine
24. Ans (b)
Anti epileptics are given orally.All have good
oral bioavailability. Fosphenytoin &
Oxcarbazepine are prodrugs.Plasma protein
binding is less for most drugs. Phenytoin
POSITIVE 2007
(90%)& Valproate (90%) are highly bound to
plasma protein. Most undergo metabolism.
Gabapentin, lopiramate are excreted
unchanged in urine. High doses of Phenytoin
is eliminated by zero order kinetics.(AIIMS-
NOV-2007)
61. In an epidemic the first case of come to the
notice of the investigator is: [AIIMS Nov
2007]
a. Index case
b. Primary case
c. Secondary case
d. Tertiary case
SESSION -SPM - (9-9-2007)
59. Which of the following will cause an increase
in the prevalence of the disease: [AIIMS Nov
2007]
a. Immigration of healthy persons
b. Increased cure rate of the disease
c. Longer duration of the disease
d. ..
SESSION-SPM- (9-9-2007)
58. . Regarding National Polio Surveillance all
are true except: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases
found
b. ..
c. ..
d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is
not done in children < 5years of age
SESSION-SPM- (9-9-2007)
27
74. Not a measure of central tendency: [AIIMS pyloroplasty
Nov 2007] c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and
a. Mode truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
b. Range d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding
c. Variable ulcer
d. Standard deviation
SESSION-19-22-07-07-PAGE-17-Q-12
SESSION-SPM- (9-9-2007)

12. Least chances of complications like dumping

120. Basement membrane consists of all except:
syndromes, and diarrhea is seen in
[AIIMS Nov 2007]
(SESSION-19-22-07-07-PAGE-17-Q-12)
a. Laminin
(a) Highly selective Vagotomy
b. Nidogenin
(b) Truncal vagotomy and Gastrojejunostomy
c. Entactin
(c) Antrectomy and Truncal vagotomy
d. Rhodopsin
(d) Vagotomy and pyloroplasty.
12. Ans : A
SESSION-NEPHROLOGY (22-7-07)
Indications for surgery in bleeding peptic ulcer:
Uncontrollable bleeding
157. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. Inability to identify localize bleeding point.
On examination it is found that she has a Requirement of blood: >6 units.
midline cystic swelling extending till below Treatment: Gastroduodenotomy, suturing of the
the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with bleeding vessel and pyloroplasty(AIIMS-NOV-
deglutition. The thyroid examination is 2007****)
normal. What should be done next? [AIIMS Duodenal ulcer perforation:
Nov 2007] Diagnosis: X-ray chest PA with diaphragm erect.
a. Percutaneous aspiration Minimal amount of gas for pneumoperitoneum:
b. I.V. antibiotics 10 ml.
c. Surgical removal Pneumoperitoneum is absent in 30% of duodenal
d. Observation ulcer perforation.
Treatment is laparotomy & closure with omental
patch.
SESSION-SURGERY – (22-7-2007)
Vomiting is usually absent

159. A 30 year old male patient presents with 170. A child presented with respiratory
distress.was brought to emergency with bag
a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum
and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x
with a bleeding vessel at the base. The
ray shows right sided deviation of
bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On
mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His
examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is
Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What
110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after
is the next step? [AIIMS Nov 2007]
transfusion. Next step in his management will
be: [AIIMS Nov 2007] a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
b. Put a nasogastric tube
a. Proton pump inhibitors
b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and

POSITIVE 2007 28
 c. Surgery
d. Tube thoracostomy SESSION-RADIOLOGY (3-6-2007)

SESSION-PEDIATRICS – (6-10-2007) 5. . Left renal vein crosses the Aorta: [AIIMS

Nov 2007]
130. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric
is due to: [AIIMS Nov 2007] artery
a. Congenital renal defect b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric
b. Obstructive uropathy artery
c. Intrauterine infections and scar c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric
d. Is a normal variety artery
d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric
SESSION-NEPHROLOGY (22.7.07) artery

177. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all

except: [AIIMS Nov 2007] SESSION-19-22-07-07-PAGE-62,55-Q-20
a. Polycystic ovarian disease
b. Multiple pregnancies 20. Nut cracker phenomenon is due to
c. Ovarian cancer (SESSION-19-22-07-07-PAGE-62,55-Q-20)
d. Teratogenecity a) Compression of left renal vein between aorta
and superior mesentric artery
SESSION-PHARMOCOLOGY – (6-5-2007) b) Compression of left renal vein between aorta
and inferior mesentric artery
c) Compression of right renal vein between
199. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is aorta and superior mesentric artery
seen in: [AIIMS Nov 2007] d) Compression of right renal vein between
a. Tetralogy of Fallot aorta and inferior mesentric artery
b. Uncorrected TGA 20. Ans:- (a)
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. Ebstein’s anomaly Compression of left renal vein between aorta
and superior mesentric artery leading to
increased pressure in left renal vein. This leads
SESSION RADIOLOGY (3-6-2007) to anoxia in the medulla favouring sickling in
200. Floating ‘Water-Lilly sign is seen in: left kidney leading to left sided predominance of
[AIIMS Nov 2007] hematuria.
a. Hydatid ds.
b. Aspergillosis 8. One of the following is the watershed area of
c. Tuberculous cavity the colon between the superior and inferior
d. .. mesenteric arteries: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Ascending colon
b. Hepatic flexure
c. Splenic flexure

POSITIVE 2007 29
 d. Descending colon 6. Answer is C
Lipid molecule reduces the surface tension
SESSION-ANATOMY-ABDOMEN (29.7.07) secreted by the type II alveolar cells
The smaller alveoli tends to collapse and the
11. Dangerous area of the face is: [AIIMS Nov
larger alveoli tends to expand further according
2007]
to law of Laplace P=2T/r
a. Ciliary body According to law of Laplace theP1 is less than
b. Sclera the P2
c. Optic nerve But both are exposed to same pressure,When
d. Retina tension is constant, the smaller alveoli tends
shrink and larger alveoli tends expand-Alveolar
SESSION-ANATOMY-HEAD AND NECK (30- instability.The surfactant molecule get arranged
9-2007) as single molecular layer over the alveolar air
14. . If the circumflex artery gives off the fluid interface layer.So the surfactant reduces the
posterior interventricular artery, then the tension of smaller alveoli by crowding and
arterial supply is called: [AIIMS Nov 2007] increases the surface tension of larger one by
separation in the layer
a. Right dominance
b. Left dominance
c. Balanced dominance 33. Ureteric peristalsis is due to: [AIIMS Nov
d. .. 2007]
a. Sympathetic innervation
SESSION –CARDIOLOGY (23-9-07) b. Parasympathetic innervation
c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
30. The mechanism of action of surfactant is: innervation
[AIIMS Nov 2007] d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle
cells in the renal pelvis
a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic SESSION-ANATOMY-ABDOMEN (29-7-07)
d. .. 9. A patient with pericarditis is complaining of chest pain.
The pain is mediated through(AIIMS-NOV-2007***)
a. Deep cardiac plexus b. Superficial cardiac
SESSION-32—PHYSIOLOGY-7-10-07-Q-6 plexus
c. Inter costal brachial nerve d. Phrenic nerve*
For explanation, refer to the MCQs of Thorax & Embryology
6. The following statements are true about discussed in the class. The fibrous pericardium and the outer
surfactant EXCEPT(SESSION-32— layer of the servous pericardium are innervated by the somatic
nerve i.e the phrenic nerve in this case and therefore are
Physiology-7-10-07-Q-6) sensitive to pain. The superficial and deep cardiac plexuses are
A. It is secreted by Type II alveolar epithelial formed by autonomic fibres and they innervate the heart and
cells the inner layer of the serous pericardium). Note that the outer
B. It reduces surface tension layer of all three body cavities develops from the
somatopleuric mesoderm and therefore are innervated by the
C. It decreases the compliance of the lung nerves of the body wall. Hence sensitive to pain. The inner
D. Its major constituent is a lipid layer of the body cavities develops from the splanchnopleuric
mesoderm and therefore is innervated by the autonomic
nervous system. Hence insensitive to pain

POSITIVE 2007 30
 51. All of the following are included in grievous
21. Violent inversion injury – fracture of 5th metatarsal hurt except: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
tuberosity is due to avulsion of the tendon of(AIIMS-
NOV-2007****) a. Loss of testis
A. Peroneus longus b. Loss of eye
B. Peroneus brevis* c. Loss of kidney
C. Peroneus tertius d. Abrasion of the face
D. Extensor digitorum brevis
(For explanation, refer to the MCQ of lower limb
discussed in the class. “Jone’s fracture is due to the avulsion SESSION-FM (13-5-07)
of the tendon of…….”) The tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal
bone is a small projection near its base. It gives attachment
52. Not a part of informed consent is: [AIIMS
to the tendon of peroneus brevis
Nov 2007]
a. ..
24. Penile fracture with intact Buck’s fascia – haematoma b. ..
is seen in(AIIMS-NOV-2007*****)
A. Butterfly perineum
c. ..
B. Shaft of penis d. Concealed information…..
C. Penis, perineum, scrotum, anterior abdominal
wall up to umbilicus*! SESSION-FM (13-5-07)
D. Penis and scrotum
In this case the blood collects in the superficial perineal space.
Therefore it can extend into the scrotum, perineum and the 62. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
anterior abdominal wall. Refer to MCQs of Abdomen a. Maternal deaths/live birth
discussed in the class – the question regarding rupture of
bulbous urethra b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
d. Maternal deaths/100000 population
26. Structure not destroyed in tracheostomy(AIIMS-
NOV-2007*****) SESSION-SPM (9-9-07)
A. Isthmus of thyroid gland
B. Inferior thyroid artery*
C. Thyroidea ima artery 64. Not included in the National Immunisation
D. Inferior thyroid vein Programme is: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
(For explanation, refer to the MCQ of head & neck
discussed in the class). Q.No. “ a. Tetanus toxoid
62. During tracheostomy inferior to the thyroid gland, the b. Hepatitis B
following structures carry the risk being damaged c. BCG
EXCEPT d. Measles
A. Inferior thyroid artery*
B. Inferior thyroid vein
C. Arteria thyroidea ima SESSION-SPM (9-9-07)
D. Jugular venous arch”
B, C & D lie in front of trachea. Therefore, they carry the risk
of being injured during tracheostomy. As the inferior thyroid
84. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the
artery enters the lower pole the gland from lateral side it is person is: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
least likely to be damaged. a. Immune to diphtheria
b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
c. Susceptible to diphtheria
d. Carrier of diphtheria

POSITIVE 2007 31
 Ans [c] 124. . In HIV window period indicates: [AIIMS
Nov 2007]
SESSION-MICRO-1 (24-06-07) a. Time period between infection and onset of
first symptoms
85. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is: b. Time period between infection and detection
[AIIMS Nov 2007] of antibodies against HIV
a. Deep invasion is not seen c. .
b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity d. .
c. Metachromatic granules are seen
d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal SESSION-MEDICINE-1 (14-7-07)
change
146. Which of the following is not included in
SESSION-MICRO1 (24-06-07) intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
[AIIMS Nov 2007]
100. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is a. Pregnancy..
caused by: [AIIMS Nov 2007] b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic
a. Propofol neuropathy
b. Ketamine c. DM with acute MI
c. Atracurium d. Post kidney transplant
d. Fentanyl
SESSION-MEDICINE-1 (14-7-07)
SESSION-ANESTHESIOLOGY (15-4-2007)
153. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will
102. All are true about Thiopentone except: produce pain when there is which of the
[AIIMS Nov 2007] following movements at the hip: [AIIMS Nov
2007]
a. NaCO3 is a preservative
b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias a. Flexion
c. Agent of choice in shock b. Extension
d. Cerebroprotective c. Medial rotation
d. Lateral rotation
SESSION-ANESTHESIOLOGY (15-4-2007)
SESSION-SURGERY-1 (10-6-07)
122. Shock lung is characterized histologically
by: [AIIMS Nov 2007] 161. Most common type of seizures in neonates
are: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
b. Hemosiderosis a. Clonic
c. Interstitial pneumonia b. Tonic
d. Pulmonary oedema c. Subtle
d. Myoclonic
SESSION-PATHOLOGY-1 (29-4-07)
SESSION-PEDIATRICS (6-10-2007)

POSITIVE 2007 32
166. A 2 year old female child developed fever,
cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-
ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe.
She improved with antibiotics but on follow
up at 8 weeks was again found to have
increasing consolidation in right lower lobe
and fever. Your next investigation would be:
[AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Bronchoscopy
b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
c. CT scan of the chest
d. Allergen sensitivity test
SESSION-PEDIATRICS (6-10-2007)
8. A child with recurrent pneumonia should be
investigated for:
A) Cystic fibrosis (B) Foreign body aspiration
(C) Bronchiectasis (D) G.E.reflux (E) All of
the above
171. Kanavel’s sign is seen in: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Tenosynovitis
b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
d. Trigger finger
SESSION-ORTHOPEDICS (19-8-07)
173. Primary impact injury is seen externally
most commonly in the: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Head
b. Chest
c. Legs
d. Abdomen
SESSION-FM (13-5-07)
180. A gravida3 female with a history of 2
previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at
22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the
POSITIVE 2007
cervix. Most appropriate management would
be: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Administer Dinoprostone and bed rest
b. Administer mifipristone and bed rest
c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
d. Apply McDonald’s stitch
SESSION-38 (19-11-2007)
181. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of
transverse lie is associated with the following
complication: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Uterine rupture
b. Vaginal laceration
c. Uterine atony
d. Cervical laceration
SESSION-38 (19-11-2007)
182. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is
seen in: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Molar pregnancy
c. Over estimated gestational age
d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome
SESSION-19 (22-07-07) P-48
186. Transparency of the cornea is maintained
by all except: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Hydration
b. Wide separated collagen bands
c. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
SESSION-30 (30-09-07) P-19-Q-5
5. Transparency of cornea is due to
A. Absence of blood vessels
B. Regular arrangement of collagen fibres
C. Fibres and ground substance having same
refractive index
33
 D. All of the above E. A & B
Ans (d)

188. child presents with ear infection with foul

smelling discharge. On further exploration a
small perforation is found in the pars flaccida
of the tympanic membrane. Most
appropriate next step in the management
would be: [AIIMS Nov 2007]
a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4
weeks
b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
c. Tympanoplasty
d. Tympano-mastoid exploration
2007***)
SESSION-ENT - (11-8-07) S-small intestine Secretin
K-small intestine Gastric inhibitory
MKT L-small intestine
polypeptide
Glucagon-like
substance (glicentin)
12. Urothelium does not line: [AIIMS-NOV-
I-small intestine Cholecystokinin
2007]
D-pylorus, duodenum Somatostatin
a. Collecting ducts Mo-small intestine Motilin
b. Minor calyx EC-digestive tract Serotonin, substance P
c. Ureter D1-digestive tract Vasoactive intestinal
d. Urinary bladder polypeptide
MKT SESSION-1
132. A patient presents with
(8-04-07 EMBRYOLOGY,HISTOLOGY hyperparathyroidism. He has a family
history of his siblings having pituitary
38. Which of the following is correctly matched: involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic
[AIIMS-NOV-2007] involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and
cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely
a. B cells – Somatostain
diagnosis: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
b. D cells – Insulin
c. G cells – Gastrin a. MEN 1
d. ….. b. MEN 2A
c. MEN 2B
MKT-SESSION-1 (8-04-07) d. MEN 2C
11. Principal enteroendocrine cells in the MKT-POSITIVE SESSION
gastrointestinal tract. (Also in OPERATION HRRI-P-2231)
Cell Type and Location Hormone Produced
A-stomach Glucagon 2. Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)
G-pylorus Gastrin(AIIMS-NOV- Type Genetic Gland affected
locus

POSITIVE 2007 34
 Men – 1 Chromo Parathyroid . Primary or tertiary
some 11 hyperplasia / hyperparathyroidism
adenoma . Lithium-induced
Pancreatic islet cell hyperparathyroidism
hyperplasia/adenoma/ . Familial hypocalciuric
carcinoma hypercalcaemia
Pituitary With low (i.e. suppressed)PTH
hyperplasia/adenoma; levels
rarely . Malignancy (e.g.lung, breast,
carcinoid,pheochrom renal, ovarian, colonic and
ocytoma, lipomata thyroid carcinoma)
MEN II Chromo Medullary thyroid . Multiple myeloma
(also some 10 carcinoma . Elevated 1, 25(OH)2 Vitamin
known Pheochromocytoma D3 (e.g. intoxication or
as (bilateral in 50%) sarcoidosis)
“MEN Parathyroid . Thyrotoxicosis
IIA” hyperplasia/adenoma; . Paget’s disease with
rarely cutaneous immobilisation
lichen amyloidosis . Milk alkali syndrome
MEN III Chromo Medullary thyroid . Thiazide diuretics
(also some 10 carcinoma . Addison’s disease
known Pheochromocytoma 135. Fractional excretion of Na++ < 1% is seen
as (commonly bilateral) in: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
‘MEN a. Pre-renal azotemia
IIB’ Mucosal/gastrointesti
b. ATN
nal neuromas
c. Intrinsic renal failure
Marfanoid
d. Renal artery stenosis
features/thickened
‘bumpy’ lips MKT-POSITIVE SESSION
All syndromes display autosomal dominant Urine chemistry in differential diagnosis of ARF
inheritance. Genetic (DNA Polymorphism) Urine Prerenal Ischemic
testing identifies carriers of MEN II and acute Intrinsic
MEN III with > 90% certainly renal acute
106. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except: failure* renal
[AIIMS-NOV-2007] failure
a. Loop diuretics Urine osmolality, > 500 < 250
b. Lithium Uosm (mOsm/kg
c. Vitamin D intoxication H2O)
d. .. Urine to plasma > 1.5 < 1.1
MKT-POSITIVE SESSION osmolality
Urine specific gravity > 1.018 < 1.012
8. Causes of Hyper Calcaemia
Plasma BUN : > 20 < 10-15
With normal or elevated (i.e. creatinine ratio
inappropriate)PTH levels Urinary urea nitrogen : > 8 <3

POSITIVE 2007 35
 plasma urea nitrogen lcollagen * Reticulin
ratio * Van Gieson
Urinary creatinine : > 40 < 20 * Masson’s
plasma creatinine ratio trichrome
Urinary Na+ < 10 > 20 2. Glycogen * PAS with loss
concentration 3. Glycoproteins, * PAS with
(mmol/L) glycolipids diastase
Fractional excretion of <1 >2 (epithelial origin) persistence
AIIMS-NOV- glycomucins
Na+ (%)c(
2007***) 4. Acid mucin * Alcian blue
(mesenchymal
Renal failure index <1 >1 origin)
UNa/Ucr/Pcr 5. Mucin (in * Combined
Urine sediment Hyaline
Muddy general) Alcian blue – PAS
casts
brown 6. Argyrophilic * Silver stains
granular argentaffin
casts granules
(Also in OPERATION HARRI)
7. Cross striations * PTAH stain
71. SAFE strategy is recommended for: [AIIMS-
NOV-2007] 8. Enzymes * Myeloperoxidase
a. Trachoma * Acid
b. Glaucoma phosphatase
c. Diabetic retinopathy * Alkaline
d. Cataract phosphatase
9. Nucleolar * Colloidal silver
SAFE strategy for trachoma: MKT-POSITIVE-
organizer regions stain
2007-OPHTHAL
(NORs)
- Surgery for trichiasis.
- Antibiotics
- Facial Cleanliness. 110. A 2-year old child presents with scattered
-Environmental improvement. lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed
Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly
114. PAS does not stain: [AIIMS-NOV-2007] associated is: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
a. Fungal cell wall a. CD1a
b. Basement membrane of bacteria b. CD57
c. Glycogen c. CD3
d. Lipids d. CD68
MKT –POSITIVE SESSION
MKT - RADIOLOGY and ONCOLOGY
Table 5. Common Histochemical / Cytochemical
Stains in Tumour Diagnosis. 12. Leukocyte Differentiation Antigens (CDs)
SUBSTANCE STAIN CD Hematolymphoid Cell
1. Basement * Periodic acid – Expressiona,b
membrane Schiff (PAS) Related functions or proteins

POSITIVE 2007 36
 CD 1a,b,c Thymomas, Langerhans cell CD 13 Coronavirus receptor, inactivates
histiocytosis(AIIMS NOV- peptides
2007****), Precursor T-LL/L CD 14 Lipopolysaccharide receptor Gp-
(some) 1-linked
Associated with β2- CD 15 HL
microglobulin
Mastocytosis (some ) Lewisx, neutrophil adhesion
CD 2 and phagocytosis
E rosette receptor LFA-3
CD 3 Mature T-cell neoplasms CD 16a Large granular lymphocyte
(many), Precursor T-LL/L(T-cell proliferation (NK type)
ALL); signal transduction
Fcy R; signal transduction on
CD 4 Mature T-cell neoplasms
NK and M
(some)
CD 16 b Fcy R; Gp-1-linked; immune
HIV Gp 120 receptor; MHC-II
complex receptor
receptor recognition
CDw17 Lactoceramide
CD 5 CLL / SLL (many)
CD 18 Integrin heterodimer with CD11,
Mature T-cell neoplasms LFA-1
(many) Mantle cell Mature B-cell neoplasms (most),
lymphoma; CD 19
precursor B-LL/L
T proliferation, CD 72 ligand Modulates B responsiveness
CD 6 T activation
CD 20 Mature B-cell neoplasms,
CD 7 Mature T-cell neoplasms (most), Precursor B-LL/L (some);
AML (Some) HL (nodular lymphocyte
IgM FcR; T and NK activation predominance)
CD 8 Mature T-cell neoplasms (some)
B activation and proliferation
MHC-1 receptor
Tetraspan, signal transduction CD 21 Follicular dendritic cell
CD 9
neoplasms (See CD 35);
CD 10 Precursor B-LL/L (most);
C’ 3D RECEPTOR; EBV
follicular lymphomas (most),
receptor; B activation/
Neutral endopeptidase
proliferation
CD 11a LFA – 1; mediates cell adhesion
CD 22 Mature B-cell neoplasms
binds 1-CAM
C’3bi receptor, αM integrin Mediates adhesion
CD 11b
chain of MAC – I complex CD 23 CLL/SLL (most)
CD 11c HCL ; Marginal zone B-cell Fc epsilon R; cytotoxicity by M
lymphoma (some) AML & Eos
(monoblastic &
myelomonocytic) CD 24 Gp-1-linked; regulates B
C3bi, C3dg receptor; αX proliferation and
integrin chain, LFA α chain differentiation
CD w12 Unknown function CD 25 HCL; HL (most) ALCL (most)

POSITIVE 2007 37
 Mastocytosis, adult T-cell neoplasms, CLL/SLL
leukemia/lymphoma; IL-2H (some), Mantle cell
CD 30 ALCL ; HL lymphoma, AML
Ki-1 (Ber-H2) antigen; TNFR- Leukocyte sialoglycoprotein,
like protein involved in T adhesion
activation CD 44 H-CAM, Lymphocyte homing
CD 31 Platelet-endothelial cell receptor
adhesion molecule -1 CD 45 Leukocyte common antigen
(PECAM-1), Plat GpIIA (LCA)
CD 32 Myeloid leukemias Signal transduction
CD 45 45 RA:B – cell lymphomas,
Fcy R, regulates B RA, HL (nodular lymphocyte
CD 33 AML (most) Precursor B – RB, predominant):
ll/l RC Restricted LCA forms with
Function unknown exons A, B, or C
CD 34 AML (most) Precursor B- & T- CD 45 Mature T-cell neoplasms, B-
LL/L (some) RO cell lymphomas (some)
Restricted LCA forms
Possible role in stromal adhesion
without exons
CD 35 Follicular dendritic cell CD 49
neoplasms α Integrin chains; laminin,
fibronectin & collagen
C’ 3b/C’4b receptor (see CD receptors
21)
CDw52 Campath-1:Target for C’-
CD 36 Plat GpIIIb, Gp-IV; collagen, mediated lysis;
thrombospondin, and
CD 54 --CAM-1: LFA ligand;
malaria receptor
CD 38 Plasma cell neoplasms, rhinovirus & malaria
CLL/SLL receptor
CD 55 Decay accelerating factor; Gp-1-
Leukocyte activation
CD 40 linked; deficiency leads to
TNFR protein involved in B paroxysmal nocturnal
differentiation hemoglobinuria (PNH)
CD 41 Acute megakaryoblastic CD 56 Subset of NK/T-cell
leukemia lymphomas
Plat Gp-IIb; fibrinogen & N-CAM ; Gp-1-linked
Von Willebrand’s factor CD 57 Subset of NK/T-cell
receptor lymphomas
CD 42 Gps IX, 1bα , 1bβ , V CD 59 PNH (antigen lost in PNH)
a–d respectively Gp-1-linked ; bubds C8 abd
C 43 C9, blocks membrane-
Precursor & Mature T-cell attack comlex

POSITIVE 2007 38
 CD 61 Acute megakaryoblastic cell lymphoma
leukemia Human mucosal lymphocyte
Plat GpIIb/IIIa; β3 (HML-1)
integrin; dimer with CD
41 or CD 51 CD 108 HL cell lines
CD Carcinoembryonic antigen CD 114 G-CSFR and GM-CSFR
66b, (CEA), biliary glycoprotein –
d 116
CD 68 Histiocytes (most)(?-AIIMS- CD 117 AML, Mastocytosis
NOV-2007***) ; Stem cell factor receptor ;
Mastocytosis c-kit protein
CD IL – receptors
Endocytosis or lysosomal traffic
121-
CD 72 CD 5 ligand, B-cell activation / 132
proliferation CD 138 Myeloma
CD 77 Syndecan-1; extracellular
Transmembrane signaling in matrix receptor
apoptosis CD 140 Platelet-derived growth factor
CD CD 79a: Precursor B-LL/L,
79a, B-cell lymphomas, CD 141 Thrombomodulin; down-
b myeloma (some) regulates coagulation,
B-cell receptor complex thrombin receptor
signal transduction CD 143
CD 83 Angiotensin converting
Marker for DC enzyme (ACE)
CD 87 Urokinase plasminogen activator CD 148 Lost in carcinoma of breast
receptor bladder , liver
CD 88 Receptor for C’5a; cell CD 154 TNF family; B cell help by T
activation, chemotaxis
cells
CD 90 CD 34 proliferation inhibitor ; CD 155 Polio virus receptor
Gp-1-linked
CD 157 Bone marrow stromal antigen
CD 94 Regulates LFA-1 cytolytic (BST-1)
activity
CD 161 NK cell-mediated cytolytic
CD 96 CD7+ AML; T-activated activity
increased late expression
(TACTILE) 191. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing
CD 99 Precursor B - & T- LL/L alopecia except: [AIIMS-NOV-2007]
Adhesion and signalling; a. Lichen planus
erythrocyte rosetting b. Discoid lupus erythematosus
CD 100 c. Alopecia areata
Function unknown
d. Lupus vulgaris
CD 103 HCL; Enteropathy-type T-

POSITIVE 2007 39
 MKT-POSITIVE –DERM SESSION
9. Simplified tool for the diagnosis of alopecia
Disease
Diffuse loss (non – scarring)
Telogen effluvium
Diffuse alopecia areata
Androgenic alopecia (men)
Androgenetic alopecia (women)
Systemic disease (thyroid, iron
deficiency, systemic lupus
erythematosus, dermatomyositis)
Patchy loss (scarring)
Lichen planopilaris
Discoid lupus erythematosus
Folliculitis decalvans
Pseudopelade
Follicular degeneration syndrome
Patchy loss (non-scarring)
Alopecia localized
Tinea capitis
Traction alopecia
Trichotillomania
Syphilis

POSITIVE 2007 40