ASVAB Extra Sample Test 1

Word Knowledge 5. Coalesce most nearly

means:
1. Collusion most nearly
means: A. Referee
B. Combine
A. Amateur C. Reveal
B. Directive D. Encircle
C. Conspiracy
D. Odyssey
6. Luminous most nearly
means:
2. Foible most nearly means:
A. Fertile
A. Trickery B. Corrupt
B. Rumor C. Mild
C. Rubble D. Bright
D. Shortcoming

For questions 7 to 11, choose the

3. Repugnant most nearly word that has nearly the same
means: meaning as the underlined word.

A. Revolting 7. Mr. Emerson rebuffed his

B. Mistrustful coworker by refusing all
C. Earnest offers of assistance.
D. Confident
A. Snubbed
B. Regretted
4. Malleable most nearly C. Collected
means: D. Alerted

A. Rowdy
B. Hateful 8. The Salvation Army has
C. Adaptable many services to help the
D. Forthright city’s indigent population.

A. Important
B. Needy
C. Fortunate
D. Young
9. It was many years before 13. The word most opposite in
church members could put meaning to trite is:
the bitter schism behind
them and move forward A. Enraged
together. B. Famous
C. Devilish
A. Secret D. Original
B. Idol
C. Belief
D. Split 14. The word most opposite in
meaning to precipitous is:

10. It didn’t take long for the A. Lavish

malcontent factory workers B. Gradual
to voice their anger over the C. Random
new rules. D. Coarse

A. Developed
B. Experienced 15. The word most opposite in
C. Sympathetic meaning to subjugate is:
D. Dissatisfied
A. Submit
B. Risk
11. Quitting his job with no C. Arrange
prospects for new D. Stretch
employment left Joseph in a
precarious position.
16. The word most opposite in
A. Practical meaning to brevity is:
B. Risky
C. Tired A. Goodness
D. Healthy B. Ancestry
C. Length
D. Support
12. The word most opposite in
meaning to foray is:

A. Raid
B. Retreat
C. Species
D. Pattern
Paragraph Comprehension 1. What caused Castro to
think the U.S. would attack
Read the passage below and Cuba?
answer questions 1 to 6.
A. Khrushchev sent aid to
In 1962, the Cuban Missile Crisis Cuba.
placed the world on the verge of a B. Kennedy alerted
nuclear war. Although not a single Castro of an attack.
missile was launched, the crisis is C. There had been a
considered by many to be the previous failed attack.
closest man has come to a nuclear D. The situation had been
war. made public.

After the failed attempt in 1961 by

Cuban exiles to invade Cuba, Fidel 2. Which of the following is
Castro, Cuba’s leader, was certain of the main idea of this
another attack by the United States. passage?
To help defend his country, Castro,
an ally of the Soviet Union, asked A. The standoff in 1962
Premier Nikita Khrushchev for over Soviet Missiles in
military aid. The USSR sent missiles Cuba is known as The
and supplies to build launch pads in Cuban Missile Crisis.
Cuba. These missiles could easily B. An agreement between
reach American soil. President John F.
Kennedy and Premier
In October of 1962, the United Nikita Khrushchev
States discovered the Cuban missile ended the Cuban
bases. U.S. President John F. Missile Crisis.
Kennedy met with government C. The Cuban Missile
officials and for seven days debated Crisis of 1962
the situation. He decided to impose a D. The world waited
blockade around Cuba to prevent nervously as tensions
further shipment from the Soviet built up between the
Union to Cuba. The situation was United States and the
made public and the American Soviet Union.
people waited tensely. Kennedy
secretly brokered an agreement with
Khrushchev. The Soviet Union
agreed to remove the weapons from
Cuba. Kennedy agreed not to invade
Cuba and to also remove US
missiles from Turkey.
3. What would be a good title 5. Based on the passage, the
for the third paragraph of author would agree that:
the passage?
A. The Soviet Union was
A. Kennedy Imposes a falling behind in the
Blockade around Cuba arms race
B. USSR Agrees to B. The world is a much
Remove Missiles from safer place after end of
Cuba the Cuban Missile
C. U.S. and the Soviet Crisis
Union Secretly C. President Kennedy
Negotiate End to the was not an effective
Missile Crisis leader in a time of
D. The World Waits crisis
Nervously While D. The Cuban Missile
Tensions Rise Crisis was one of the
Between Two United States’ most
Countries tense situations

4. According to the passage,

Kennedy’s first act was to: 6. What would be a good title
for the second paragraph of
A. Remove missiles from the passage?
Turkey
B. Impose a blockade A. Nuclear Weapons Able
around Cuba to Reach U.S.
C. Inform the American B. Cuba Defends Itself
people with Soviet Nuclear
D. Support Cuban exiles Weapons
in an invasion of Cuba C. Cuban Exiles Fail in
Attempt to Invade
Cuba
D. Cuba and Soviet Union
Are Allies
Read the passage below and anyone.
answer questions 7 to 11.
Therefore, neither the motorcycle nor
A topic of debate among drivers is the car is more or less dangerous
frequently whether a motorcycle is than the other is; it is the attitude of
more dangerous that an automobile. their operators that creates the
Most experienced drivers would danger, death, and dismemberment
agree that while it is more resultant from accidents.
exhilarating to ride a motorcycle than
to drive an automobile, it is illogical
to therefore conclude that this 7. According to the passage,
exhilaration leads to careless driving an example of safe
and, therefore, more accidents, exhilaration is:
deaths, and injuries to motorcycle
riders than car drivers. The critical A. Riding a motorcycle
concept to be understood here is not B. Driving a car
exhilaration, which is a given, but C. Sledding downhill
how the exhilaration comes about D. Parachuting
and is a cause of serious injury and
death of motorcycle riders.
8. According to the passage,
There is safe and unsafe thrill the author would agree that:
seeking. “Exhilaration” is defined as
the “state of being stimulated, A. It is unsafe to ride a
refreshed, or elated.” An example of motorcycle
safe exhilaration is the excitement of B. Motorcycles can be
sledding downhill, which results in safe
the sled rider feeling stimulated, C. Cars are safer than
refreshed, or elated. motorcycles
D. Exhilaration leads to
Unsafe exhilaration, which is usually careless driving
the consequence of reckless thrill
seeking, is therefore a state of being
over-stimulated, frightened, and 9. What would be a good title
depressed by terror. for this passage?

Which then causes exhilaration that A. Exhilaration

is more dangerous, the car or the B. Automobile and
motorcycle? The answer is that the Motorcycle Safety
two forms of exhilaration are the C. How to Drive Safely
consequences not of the motorcycle D. Which is Safer—the
or the automobile, per se, but of the Car or the Motorcycle?
operation of the respective vehicles.
Without an operator, both vehicles
are metal entities, sitting in space,
neither threatening nor harmful to
10. According to the passage, Arithmetic Reasoning
unsafe exhilaration is the
result of: 1. Family Video stocks 1003
drama movies, 518 science
A. Driving fiction movies and 253
B. Reckless thrill seeking children’s movies. How
C. Over stimulation many more drama titles
D. Elation than children’s titles does
Family Video have in stock?

11. According to the passage, A. 750

what causes danger B. 1003
resulting in driving C. 485
accidents? D. 265

A. Driving a motor cycle

B. Driving a sports car 2. Mr. Vlasic needs to buy 2
C. Exhilaration pens each for the 17
D. The attitude of the students in his class. If
driver pens come in packs of 6
and each pack costs $2.35,
what is the minimum
amount that Mr. Vlasic must
spend?

A. $11.75
B. $14.10
C. $7.05
D. $15.00

3. Brandon earns $1,050 a

week and Brad earns $160 a
day. If both of them work 8
hours a day, 5 days a week
who earns a higher hourly
wage? How much higher is
it?

A. Brad; $6.25
B. Brandon; $6.25
C. Brad; $10.00
D. Brandon; $10.00
4. Matthew’s dad is 5 times as 7. 300 school children went on
old as him. If the difference a field trip. 30% of them
of their ages is 28, how old were first graders, 45%
is Matthew? second graders, and the
rest were third graders.
A. 4 How many more first
B. 5 graders were there than
C. 6 third graders?
D. 7
A. 5
B. 15
5. Dana and Megan have to fill C. 30
500 envelopes for a charity. D. 45
At the end of the morning
Dana has filled 3/20 of the
envelopes and Megan has 8. A dress that costs $155.00
filled 1/4 of them. How many is on sale with a discount of
envelopes have they filled 25%. What is the sale price
together? of the dress?

A. 75 A. $38.75
B. 125 B. $116.25
C. 200 C. $130.00
D. 50 D. $122.50

6. A school garden had been 9. Marlo pays $750 rent each

divided into 7/8 square month. Bea’s rent is 12%
meter plots for students. If higher. What is the ratio of
the area of the garden is Marlo’s rent to Bea’s rent?
210 square meters, how
many students can get A. 5:6
plots? B. 15:16
C. 25:28
A. 240 D. 25:26
B. 210
C. 184
D. 78
10. A cake recipe calls for 5 13. A bag contains 6 black
cups of flour to bake 2 marbles and 4 white
cakes. How many cups of marbles. Sally takes out a
flour will be needed to bake black marble and does not
7 cakes? put it back. What is the
probability that the next
A. 35 marble she picks will also
B. 24.5 be black?
C. 17.5
D. 12 A. 6/10
B. 9/25
C. 1/2
11. The scale of the model of a D. 5/9
car is 1:24. If the full-size
car is 12 ft long, how long is
the model? 14. Mangoes are sold at $8.40 a
dozen. How much will 15
A. 4 inches mangoes cost?
B. 5 inches
C. 6 inches A. $12.60
D. 7 inches B. $11.50
C. $10.70
D. $10.50
12. On the throw of a six-sided
die, what is the probability
that you will roll a number 15. Rosita buys 300 feet of yarn
less than 3? for a craft project. If the
yarn costs 12 cents a yard,
A. 1/2 how much does Rosita
B. 1/6 spend?
C. 1/3
D. 2/3 A. $36.00
B. $1,200.00
C. $360.00
D. $12.00

16. Mrs. Lafferty’s 5 children

are 6, 8, 14, 15, and 17 years
old. What is their average
age?

A. 14
B. 13
C. 12
D. 11
Mathematics Knowledge 6. Solve for x:
5(2x –1) = 3(4x +3)
10!
1. is equal to:
7! 1
A. 6
A. 6 B. –7
B. 61 C. 2
C. 120 D. –3
D. 720

7. Evaluate the expression

4
6 (x + y)3 − 5x + 7y ,
2. =?
6 x62
3
if x = 0 and y = 3.

A. 6 A. 48
B. 69 B. 102
C. 6–1 C. 84
D. 65 D. –8

3. 3
64 = ? 8. Solve: 3 + 6x ≤ 3x − 3

A. 9 A. x ≥ −2
B. 4 B. x ≤ −2
C. 6 C. x≤0
D. 8 D. x ≥1

4. 2(5 − 16 ) ÷ (14 − 12 ) × 3 =? 9. What is the name of a

quadrilateral with four equal
A. 3 sides?
B. 20
C. 32 A. Trapezoid
D. –4 B. Parallelogram
C. Rhombus
D. Pentagon
5. Solve for a:
7a + 2 = 3a – 5 + 2a
10. A 55° angle is:
A. –2
B. 2 A. A right angle
1 B. An acute angle
C. −3 C. An obtuse angle
2
D. An exterior angle
1
D. 3
4
11. An isosceles triangle: 15. How much will it cost to
paint a circular patio of
A. Has no equal sides radius 7 m if the cost of the
B. Has two equal angles paint per square meter is
C. Has no acute angles $2.00?
D. Has two obtuse angles
A. $308.00
B. $154.00
12. The side of an equilateral C. $77.00
triangle is 20 cm. Its D. $616.00
perimeter is:

A. 20 cm 16. A rectangular box has a

B. 40 cm length of 7 ft, a width of 3 ft,
C. 60 cm and a height of 2 ft. What is
D. 80 cm its volume?

A. 67 ft3
13. The area of a rectangle is B. 42 ft3
144 in2. If the length of the C. 42 ft2
rectangle is 16 in., what is D. 24 ft3
its width?

A. 3 in.
B. 5 in.
C. 9 in.
D. 12 in.

14. The circumference of a

circle is equal to 10π cm. Its
radius is:

A. 10 cm
B. 7.5 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 10π cm
General Science 5. A jar with a metal lid is hard
to open. You hold the lid
1. The scale used to measure near the fire and the lid
how acidic or alkaline a loosens. This is because:
substance is is called the:
A. The heated metal lid
A. pH scale expands less than the
B. Celsius scale glass jar
C. Richter scale B. The heated glass jar
D. dB scale contracts while the
metal lid expands
C. The heated metal lid
2. Which of the following is expands more than the
not a compound? glass jar
D. The heated glass jar
A. Baking soda expands while the
B. Concrete metal lid contracts
C. Table salt
D. Water
6. A car goes from 0 to 60 mph
in 5 seconds. What is its
3. C is the chemical symbol average acceleration?
for the element:
A. 60 mph per second
A. Calcium B. 5 mph per second
B. Carbon C. 300 mph per second
C. Chlorine D. 12 mph per second
D. Chromium

7. The arrangement of stars

4. A rainbow is formed as a called the big dipper is part
result of: of the:

A. Reflection of light A. Great Bear

B. Interference of light constellation
C. Diffraction of light B. Little Bear constellation
D. Dispersion of light C. Orion constellation
D. Andromeda
constellation
8. A black hole is a volume of 12. An occluded front is:
space:
A. A type of cold front
A. From which no B. A type of warm front
radiation can escape C. A warm front overrun
B. That does not contain by a cold front
any matter D. A cold front overrun by
C. That is extremely cold a warm front
D. That contains no
energy
13. Isobars are lines
connecting regions of
9. The great red spot seen on equal:
Jupiter is:
A. Pressure
A. A large crater B. Temperature
B. A vast desert C. Humidity
C. An area of very high D. Wind speed
temperature
D. A giant storm
14. Which of these is an abiotic
component of an
10. A dormant volcano: ecosystem?

A. Has never erupted A. Primary producer

B. Is capable of erupting B. Detrivore
C. Will never erupt again C. Herbivore
D. Is currently erupting D. Sunlight

11. Earthquake magnitudes are 15. Which of these are not

measured using a: arthropods?

A. Barometer A. Crustaceans
B. Micrometer B. Worms
C. Seismograph C. Insects
D. Chronograph D. Arachnids

16. The four blood groups are:

A. A, B, C, and D
B. A, B, AB, and O
C. A, B, AB, and BA
D. AB, BC, CD, and DA
Mechanical Comprehension 3. A machine does not:

1. The bar shown in the A. Change the direction of

diagram below pivots about a force
point P. Forces F1 and F2 B. Reduce the effort
are applied at the points needed to lift a heavy
shown. If F1 and F2 are load
equal in magnitude then C. Transfer a force to a
which of the following is different location
true? D. Reduce the amount of
energy needed to
F F perform a task
P

4. The lever below pivots on a

A. F1 exerts a greater
torque on the bar than
F2.
B. F2 exerts a greater
torque on the bar than
F1.
C. F1 and F2 exert equal
torques on the bar.
D. We cannot tell whether
F1 or F2 exerts a
greater torque.
fulcrum. An effort of 2 lbs is
applied on one side of the
fulcrum to lift a load of 8 lbs
on the other side of the
fulcrum. What is the
mechanical advantage of
the lever?
2 8

2. Why is it easier to punch a A. 2

hole in a piece of paper with B. 4
a sharp needle than with a C. 8
blunt pencil? D. 16

A. The needle magnifies

the force applied 5. The lever described in the
B. The pencil is too thick previous question is a:
C. For the same force, the
needle applies greater A. First class lever
pressure on the paper B. Second class lever
D. The needle is longer C. Third class lever
and applies force for a D. Fourth class lever
longer duration
6. The force F needed to lift 9. What type of simple
the 100 lb load in the pulley machine is used to force
system below is: material apart?

A. Lever
B. Screw
C. Pulley
D. Wedge
F

10. The four basic types of

gears are:
100 lbs A. Spur, bevel, worm,
rack and pinion
B. Spur, bevel, worm,
A. 50 lbs crust
B. 33 lbs C. Screw, bevel, worm,
C. 100 lbs rack and pinion
D. 75 lbs D. Spur, screw, worm,
rack and pinion

7. A block and tackle system

consists of: 11. Which of the following is
not an inclined plane?
A. Levers and wheel and
axle A. Stairs
B. A lever and an inclined B. Parking ramp
plane C. Moving walkway
C. Fixed and moveable D. Ladder
pulleys
D. A pulley and a lever
12. A rack and pinion gear:

8. What kind of a simple A. Changes the angle of

machine is a swinging rotation
door? B. Changes the direction
of linear motion
A. Lever C. Changes rotational
B. Inclined plane motion into linear
C. Wheel and axle motion
D. Screw D. Reverses the direction
of rotation
13. The gear ratio of a set of
meshed gears is 4. If the
number of teeth on the
driven gear is 100, what is
the number of teeth on the
driver?

A. 400
B. 100
C. 104
D. 25

14. The primary function of a

spring in a machine is to:

A. Magnify force
B. Store energy
C. Change direction of
rotation
D. Change speed of
movement

15. The lift on an airplane wing

can be explained using:

A. Pascal’s principle
B. Archimedes’ principle
C. Bernoulli’s principle
D. Boyle’s law

16. When pressure is applied to

one part of a confined fluid:

A. It is transmitted
undiminished in all
directions
B. It is reduced by the
time it reaches the
other parts
C. It increases as it moves
through the fluid
D. It is not transmitted to
any other part
Electronics Information 5. Dielectric material is:

1. A circuit segment contains A. Magnetic

only two capacitors of equal B. Nonmagnetic
value, connected in parallel. C. Conductive
If the total capacitance of D. Nonconductive
the circuit segment is 300
uF, what is the value of
each capacitor? 6. Which type of capacitor is
best suited for high
A. 50 uF frequency applications?
B. 150 uF
C. 300 uF A. Mylar
D. 600 uF B. Mica
C. Tantalum
D. Electrolytic
2. The speed of electricity is
approximately the same as
the speed of: 7. Motors are used to convert:

A. Light A. Radiant energy to

B. Sound electrical energy
C. Magnetism B. Electrical energy to
D. Heat radiant energy
C. Mechanical energy to
electrical energy
3. The Ohm is a unit of: D. Electrical energy to
mechanical energy
A. Capacitance
B. Resistance
C. Luminance 9. A core of a typical inductor
D. Inductance core is made of:

A. Tin
4. The power law states that: B. Copper
C. Iron
A. P=I×E D. Carbon
B. P = I2 × E
C. P = I × E2
D. P = I2 × E 2
9. In an AC circuit, inductors 13. In an AC circuit, the term X
behave like: refers to:

A. Frequency-dependent A. Resistance
voltage sources B. Reactance
B. Frequency-dependent C. Impedance
resistors D. Inductance
C. Frequency-
independent voltage
sources 14. A solar cell can be used to
D. Frequency- convert:
independent resistors
A. Radiant energy to
electrical energy
10. In which band of the B. Electrical energy to
electromagnetic spectrum radiant energy
is 60 MHz? C. Mechanical energy to
electrical energy
A. ULF D. Electrical energy to
B. VLF mechanical energy
C. VHF
D. UHF
15. Which is the worst electrical
conductor?
11. What type of mechanical
switch will connect two A. Gold
circuits to one of two B. Silver
positions? C. Copper
D. Iron
A. SPST
B. SPDT
C. DPST 16. What is the smallest
D. DPDT number of diodes required
to make a half-wave
rectifier?
12. What is the AC voltage
delivered to a typical A. 1
household outlet? B. 2
C. 4
A. 60 volts D. 8
B. 100 volts
C. 120 volts
D. 200 volts
Shop Information 4. The Phillips screw is an
evolved form of what type
1. Which statement is true? of screw?

A. A hammer is a type of A. Slot head

sledge. B. Cross slot
B. A sledge is a type of C. Frearson
mallet. D. Square
C. A hammer is a type of
mallet.
D. A mallet is a type of 5. A machine that rotates a
hammer. piece of wood or other
material and shapes it is
called a:
2. How does handle length
affect the force of a A. Lathe
hammer? B. Gouge
C. Slip roll
A. The longer the handle, D. Band saw
the greater the force
B. The shorter the handle,
the greater the force 6. A chisel with an angled
C. The longer the handle, cutting blade that is used
the smaller the force for finishing work is called
D. Handle length does not a:
affect the force of a
hammer A. Butt chisel
B. Corner chisel
3. Kayla measures the length C. Skew chisel
of a piece of wood with a D. Gouge
tape measure. The length is
1
39 ". What is this length in 7. A spanner is another name
4
feet and inches? for a:

A. 39 feet 25 inches A. Caliper

B. 3 feet 25 inches B. Wrench
C. 3 feet 9.25 inches C. Level
D. 3 feet 3.25 inches D. Lathe
8. Which type of wrench is Auto Information
also called a Crescent
wrench? 1. How often should oil be
changed?
A. Pipe wrench
B. Adjustable-end wrench A. Every one month or
C. Socket wrench 1,000 miles
D. Combination wrench B. Every five months or
5,000 miles
C. According to the
9. Breaker bars are used with: manufacturer’s
recommendations
A. Screwdrivers D. Yearly
B. Chisels
C. Sledges
D. Wrenches 2. The mass air flow sensor
does what?

10. Which type of caliper is A. Measures in pounds

used to scribe metal per square inch the
surfaces? compression of the
cylinders
A. Digital caliper B. Measures the amount
B. Micrometer caliper of air going into the
C. Vernier caliper engine
D. Divider caliper C. Measures the speed of
the vehicle by metering
the air flow into the
11. A crocus cloth is used for: engine compartment
D. Measures the amount
A. Polishing of air going out the
B. Removing paint exhaust
C. Applying paint
D. Applying sealant
3. The harmonic balancer is
part of the:

A. Engine
B. Transmission
C. Radiator
D. Differential
4. Which of the following is a 8. Directional tires can only be
part of the transmission? rotated how?

A. The intake valve A. Directional tires can’t

B. The clutch plate be rotated
C. The valve body B. Side to side
D. The flywheel C. Front to back, across
D. Front to back, same
side
5. Where can you find a
dampener spring?
9. How are lug nuts used?
A. In the exhaust gas
recirculation valve A. To hold the axle to the
B. As part of the muffler wheel
C. In the water pump B. To hold the rim to the
D. As part of a strut hub
C. To hold the axle in the
transmission
6. In automotive electronics, D. To hold the brake to
red wires typically indicate: the hub

A. Positive current
B. Negative current 10. The compression ratio is a
C. Grounded circuits measurement of the:
D. High voltage
A. Difference in volume
between the piston
7. Engine coolant is typically down and up
made from propylene B. Amount of air in
glycol. What is one different sized tires
advantage of using this C. Difference between the
over plain water? engine compression at
high and low rpm
A. It is orange, so you can D. Difference between the
see leaks better. engine compression at
B. It prevents corrosion. high and low speed
C. It lubricates the
radiator.
D. It is thicker than water. 11. The evaporator is found in
the:

A. Cooling system
B. Emissions system
C. Electrical system
D. Air conditioning system
Assembling Objects

For each pair of labeled shapes in questions 1 to 8, choose the figure that
shows the shapes connected correctly.

1.

A B C D

2.

.
A B C D
3.

A B C D

4.

A B C D
5.

A B C D

6.

A B C D
7.

A B C D

8.

A B C D
For each set of shapes in questions 9 to 16, choose the figure that shows the
shapes assembled into an object.

9.

A B C D

10.

A B C D
11.

A B C D

12.

A B C D
13.

A B C D

14.

A B C D
15.

A B C D

16.

A B C D
 ASVAB Extra Sample Test 1

Answer Key

WK PC AR MK GS MC EI SI AI AO
1. 1. 1. 1. 1. 1. 1. 1. 1. 1.
C C A D A B B D C C
2. 2. 2. 2. 2. 2. 2. 2. 2. 2.
D A B C B C A A B A
3. 3. 3. 3. 3. 3. 3. 3. 3. 3.
A C B B B D B D A B
4. 4. 4. 4. 4. 4. 4. 4. 4. 4.
C B D A D B A B C B
5. 5. 5. 5. 5. 5. 5. 5. 5. 5.
B D C C C A D A D A
6. 6. 6. 6. 6. 6. 6. 6. 6. 6.
D B A B D A B C A C
7. 7. 7. 7. 7. 7. 7. 7. 7. 7.
A C B A A C D B B D
8. 8. 8. 8. 8. 8. 8. 8. 8. 8.
B B B B A A C B D A
9. 9. 9. 9. 9. 9. 9. 9. 9. 9.
D D C C D D B D B D
10. 10. 10. 10. 10. 10. 10. 10. 10. 10.
D B C B B A C D A B
11. 11. 11. 11. 11. 11. 11. 11. 11. 11.
B D C B C C D A D A
12. 12. 12. 12. 12. 12. 12.
B C C C C C D
13. 13. 13. 13. 13. 13. 13.
D D C A D B A
14. 14. 14. 14. 14. 14. 14.
B D C D B A D
15. 15. 15. 15. 15. 15. 15.
A D A B C D C
16. 16. 16. 16. 16. 16. 16.
C C B B A A D
 ASVAB Extra Sample Test 1 with Rationales

Word Knowledge

1. Collusion most nearly means:

A. Amateur
B. Directive
C. Conspiracy
D. Odyssey

Answer: C. Conspiracy
The word collusion has nearly the same meaning as the word conspiracy. They both
mean a secret agreement.

2. Foible most nearly means:

A. Trickery
B. Rumor
C. Rubble
D. Shortcoming

Answer: D. Shortcoming
The word foible has nearly the same meaning as the word shortcoming. They both
mean a weak point or failing.

3. Repugnant most nearly means:

A. Revolting
B. Mistrustful
C. Earnest
D. Confident

Answer: A. Revolting
The word repugnant has nearly the same meaning as the word revolting. They both
mean offensive or distasteful.
4. Malleable most nearly means:

A. Rowdy
B. Hateful
C. Adaptable
D. Forthright

Answer: C. Adaptable
The word malleable has nearly the same meaning as the word adaptable. They both
mean capable of being shaped or formed; capable of being altered or influenced.

5. Coalesce most nearly means:

A. Referee
B. Combine
C. Reveal
D. Encircle

Answer: B. Combine
The word coalesce has nearly the same meaning as the word combine. They both
mean to unite into a single body or group.

6. Luminous most nearly means:

A. Fertile
B. Corrupt
C. Mild
D. Bright

Answer: D. Bright
The word luminous has nearly the same meaning as the word bright. They both
mean emitting light; glowing.
For questions 7 to 11, choose the word that has nearly the same meaning as
the underlined word.

7. Mr. Emerson rebuffed his coworker by refusing all offers of assistance.

A. Snubbed
B. Regretted
C. Collected
D. Alerted

Answer: A. Snubbed
The word rebuffed has nearly the same meaning as the word snubbed. They both
mean rejected.

8. The Salvation Army has many services to help the city’s indigent
population.

A. Important
B. Needy
C. Fortunate
D. Young

Answer: B. Needy
The word indigent has nearly the same meaning as the word needy. They both
mean impoverished; destitute.

9. It was many years before church members could put the bitter schism
behind them and move forward together.

A. Secret
B. Idol
C. Belief
D. Split

Answer: D. Split
The word schism has nearly the same meaning as the word split. They both mean a
rift; a division or separation of a group.
10. It didn’t take long for the malcontent factory workers to voice their
anger over the new rules.

A. Developed
B. Experienced
C. Sympathetic
D. Dissatisfied

Answer: D. Dissatisfied
The word malcontent has nearly the same meaning as the word dissatisfied. They
both mean discontented or rebellious.

11. Quitting his job with no prospects for new employment left Joseph in a
precarious position.

A. Practical
B. Risky
C. Tired
D. Healthy

Answer: B. Risky
The word precarious has nearly the same meaning as the word risky. They both
mean dangerous or uncertain.

12. The word most opposite in meaning to foray is:

A. Raid
B. Retreat
C. Species
D. Pattern

Answer: B. Retreat
The word foray is most opposite in meaning to the word retreat. Foray means a
quick raid in order to seize something.
13. The word most opposite in meaning to trite is:

A. Enraged
B. Famous
C. Devilish
D. Original

Answer: D. Original
The word trite is most opposite in meaning to the word original. Trite means stale or
worn out by constant use.

14. The word most opposite in meaning to precipitous is:

A. Lavish
B. Gradual
C. Random
D. Coarse

Answer: B. Gradual
The word precipitous is most opposite in meaning to the word gradual. Precipitous
means very steep.

15. The word most opposite in meaning to subjugate is:

A. Submit
B. Risk
C. Arrange
D. Stretch

Answer: A. Submit
The word subjugate is most opposite in meaning to the word submit. Subjugate
means to bring under control; conquer.

16. The word most opposite in meaning to brevity is:

A. Goodness
B. Ancestry
C. Length
D. Support

Answer: C. Length
The word brevity is most opposite in meaning to the word length. Brevity means
shortness; briefness.
Paragraph Comprehension

Read the passage below and answer questions 1 to 6.

In 1962, the Cuban Missile Crisis placed the world on the verge of a nuclear war.
Although not a single missile was launched, the crisis is considered by many to be
the closest man has come to a nuclear war.

After the failed attempt in 1961 by Cuban exiles to invade Cuba, Fidel Castro,
Cuba’s leader, was certain of another attack by the United States. To help defend
his country, Castro, an ally of the Soviet Union, asked Premier Nikita Khrushchev for
military aid. The USSR sent missiles and supplies to build launch pads in Cuba.
These missiles could easily reach American soil.

In October of 1962, the United States discovered the Cuban missile bases. U.S.
President John F. Kennedy met with government officials and for seven days
debated the situation. He decided to impose a blockade around Cuba to prevent
further shipment from the Soviet Union to Cuba. The situation was made public and
the American people waited tensely. Kennedy secretly brokered an agreement with
Khrushchev. The Soviet Union agreed to remove the weapons from Cuba. Kennedy
agreed not to invade Cuba and to also remove US missiles from Turkey.

1. What caused Castro to think the U.S. would attack Cuba?

A. Khrushchev sent aid to Cuba.

B. Kennedy alerted Castro of an attack.
C. There had been a previous failed attack.
D. The situation had been made public.

Answer: C. There had been a previous failed attack.

Choice A and D are actions that take place after Castro believed the U.S. might
invade. They are effects, not a cause. Choice B is not an accurate statement.
Choice C is the reason or cause for Castro’s belief that the U.S. might attack.
2. Which of the following is the main idea of this passage?

A. The standoff in 1962 over Soviet Missiles in Cuba is known as The

Cuban Missile Crisis.
B. An agreement between President John F. Kennedy and Premier Nikita
Khrushchev ended the Cuban Missile Crisis.
C. The Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962
D. The world waited nervously as tensions built up between the United
States and the Soviet Union.

Answer: A. The standoff in 1962 over Soviet Missiles in Cuba is known as The
Cuban Missile Crisis.
Choice B and D are details within the passage. Choice C is the topic of the passage
rather than the main idea. Choice A is the main idea.

3. What would be a good title for the third paragraph of the passage?

A. Kennedy Imposes a Blockade around Cuba

B. USSR Agrees to Remove Missiles from Cuba
C. U.S. and the Soviet Union Secretly Negotiate End to the Missile Crisis
D. The World Waits Nervously While Tensions Rise Between Two
Countries

Answer: C. U.S. and the Soviet Union Secretly Negotiate End to the Missile
Crisis
Choices A, B, and D are details within the passage. Choice C is the main idea and
therefore the best title.

4. According to the passage, Kennedy’s first act was to:

A. Remove missiles from Turkey

B. Impose a blockade around Cuba
C. Inform the American people
D. Support Cuban exiles in an invasion of Cuba

Answer: B. Impose a blockade around Cuba

Choices A, C, and D are details within the passage but they are not Kennedy’s first
action. Choice B is the first action Kennedy took after hearing of the missiles in
Cuba.
5. Based on the passage, the author would agree that:

A. The Soviet Union was falling behind in the arms race

B. The world is a much safer place after end of the Cuban Missile Crisis
C. President Kennedy was not an effective leader in a time of crisis
D. The Cuban Missile Crisis was one of the United States’ most tense
situations

Answer: D. The Cuban Missile Crisis was one of the United States’ most tense
situations
Choices A may be a true statement, but it is not supported by information in the
passage. Choice B is not the correct answer because the passage does not imply or
state the condition of the world after the crisis. Choice C is incorrect because the
evidence in the passage suggests that he was, in fact, an effective leader during the
crisis. It ended peacefully. Choice D is correct. The passage states that this incident
was the closest the world has come to a nuclear attack. That is a most tense
situation.

6. What would be a good title for the second paragraph of the passage?

A. Nuclear Weapons Able to Reach U.S.

B. Cuba Defends Itself with Soviet Nuclear Weapons
C. Cuban Exiles Fail in Attempt to Invade Cuba
D. Cuba and Soviet Union Are Allies

Answer: B. Cuba Defends Itself with Soviet Nuclear Weapons

Choices A, C, and D are details within the passage. Choice B is the main idea and
therefore the best title.
Read the passage below and answer questions 7 to 11.

A topic of debate among drivers is frequently whether a motorcycle is more

dangerous that an automobile. Most experienced drivers would agree that while it is
more exhilarating to ride a motorcycle than to drive an automobile, it is illogical to
therefore conclude that this exhilaration leads to careless driving and, therefore,
more accidents, deaths, and injuries to motorcycle riders than car drivers. The
critical concept to be understood here is not exhilaration, which is a given, but how
the exhilaration comes about and is a cause of serious injury and death of
motorcycle riders.

There is safe and unsafe thrill seeking. “Exhilaration” is defined as the “state of being
stimulated, refreshed, or elated.” An example of safe exhilaration is the excitement
of sledding downhill, which results in the sled rider feeling stimulated, refreshed, or
elated.

Unsafe exhilaration, which is usually the consequence of reckless thrill seeking, is

therefore a state of being over-stimulated, frightened, and depressed by terror.

Which then causes exhilaration that is more dangerous, the car or the motorcycle?
The answer is that the two forms of exhilaration are the consequences not of the
motorcycle or the automobile, per se, but of the operation of the respective vehicles.
Without an operator, both vehicles are metal entities, sitting in space, neither
threatening nor harmful to anyone.

Therefore, neither the motorcycle nor the car is more or less dangerous than the
other is; it is the attitude of their operators that creates the danger, death, and
dismemberment resultant from accidents.

7. According to the passage, an example of safe exhilaration is:

A. Riding a motorcycle
B. Driving a car
C. Sledding downhill
D. Parachuting

Answer: C. Sledding downhill

Choice C is the example given by the author in the second paragraph.
8. According to the passage, the author would agree that:

A. It is unsafe to ride a motorcycle

B. Motorcycles can be safe
C. Cars are safer than motorcycles
D. Exhilaration leads to careless driving

Answer: B. Motorcycles can be safe

Choice A and C are incorrect. The author states that neither the motorcycle nor the
car determine safety, rather it is the driver. Choice D is incorrect. The author states
that it is illogical to conclude that exhilaration leads to careless driving. Choice B is
correct. The author states that it is the attitude of the operator that creates the
danger. Therefore, both the car and the motorcycle can be safe when the operator is
driving with a safe attitude.

9. What would be a good title for this passage?

A. Exhilaration
B. Automobile and Motorcycle Safety
C. How to Drive Safely
D. Which is Safer—the Car or the Motorcycle?

Answer: D. Which is Safer—the Car or the Motorcycle?

Choice A and B are too broad to be good titles. Choice C does not reflect what the
passage is about. Choice D addresses the main idea. The author presents a logical
answer to the question of which is safer, the car or the motorcycle.

10. According to the passage, unsafe exhilaration is the result of:

A. Driving
B. Reckless thrill seeking
C. Over stimulation
D. Elation

Answer: B. Reckless thrill seeking

Choice A is incorrect. It is too broad an answer. Choice C is part of the definition of
unsafe exhilaration. It is not the result of unsafe exhilaration. Choice D is part of the
definition of exhilaration. Choice B is correct.
11. According to the passage, what causes danger resulting in driving
accidents?

A. Driving a motor cycle

B. Driving a sports car
C. Exhilaration
D. The attitude of the driver

Answer: D. The attitude of the driver

Choice A and B are incorrect. The author argues that it is not the vehicle that
presents danger. Choice C is incorrect. Exhilaration can be both safe and unsafe.
Choice D is correct as stated in the final paragraph of the passage.
Arithmetic Reasoning

1. Family Video stocks 1003 drama movies, 518 science fiction movies and
253 children’s movies. How many more drama titles than children’s
titles does Family Video have in stock?

A. 750
B. 1003
C. 485
D. 265

Answer: A. 750
There are 1003 drama movies and 253 children’s movies. So Family Video has 1003
– 253 = 750 more drama titles than children’s titles.

2. Mr. Vlasic needs to buy 2 pens each for the 17 students in his class. If
pens come in packs of 6 and each pack costs $2.35, what is the
minimum amount that Mr. Vlasic must spend?

A. $11.75
B. $14.10
C. $7.05
D. $15.00

Answer: B. $14.10
Mr. Vlasic needs to but 34 pens in all. Since the pens come in packs of 6, Mr. Vlasic
must buy at least 6 packs (36 pens) in order to have enough pens for all his
students. So Mr. Vlasic must spend at least 6 × $2.35 = $14.10.

3. Brandon earns $1,050 a week and Brad earns $160 a day. If both of them
work 8 hours a day, 5 days a week who earns a higher hourly wage? How
much higher is it?

A. Brad; $6.25
B. Brandon; $6.25
C. Brad; $10.00
D. Brandon; $10.00

Answer: B. Brandon; $6.25

To find out who earns more and by how much, find out each person’s hourly wage.
Brandon earns $1,050 for 8 × 5 = 40 hours of work. So his hourly wage is $1,050/40
= $26.25. Brad earns $160 for 8 hours of work. So his hourly wage is $160/8 = $20.
Therefore, Brandon earns $26.25 – $20.00 = $6.25 more an hour.
4. Matthew’s dad is 5 times as old as him. If the difference of their ages is
28, how old is Matthew?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

Answer: D. 7
Let Matthew’s age be x. Then Matthew’s dad is 5x years old. The difference of their
ages is 28. Therefore 5x – x = 28. Solving this equation we get, 4x = 28; x = 7. So
Matthew is 7 years old.

5. Dana and Megan have to fill 500 envelopes for a charity. At the end of
the morning Dana has filled 3/20 of the envelopes and Megan has filled
1/4 of them. How many envelopes have they filled together?

A. 75
B. 125
C. 200
D. 50

Answer: C. 200
The fraction of envelopes Dana and Megan have filled together = 3/20 + 1/4.
Expressing this sum in terms of the common denominator 20, 3/20 + 1/4 = 3/20 +
5/20 = 8/20 = 2/5. 2/5 of 500 = (2/5) × 500 = 200. So Dana and Megan have filled
200 envelopes together.

6. A school garden had been divided into 7/8 square meter plots for
students. If the area of the garden is 210 square meters, how many
students can get plots?

A. 240
B. 210
C. 184
D. 78

Answer: A. 240
Since the 210 square meter garden has been divided into plots of area 7/8 square
meter each, the number of plots is 210 divided by 7/8. To divide by 7/8, flip the
fraction to 8/7 and multiply. 210 × (8/7) = 240. So there are 240 plots.
7. 300 school children went on a field trip. 30% of them were first graders,
45% second graders, and the rest were third graders. How many more
first graders were there than third graders?

A. 5
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45

Answer: B. 15
Since 45% + 30% = 75%, 75% of the children were first and second graders. The
percentage of third graders = 100% – 75% = 25%. The number of third graders =
(25/100) × 300 = 75. The number of first graders = (30/100) × 300 = 90. So there
were 90 – 75 = 15 more first graders than third graders.

8. A dress that costs $155.00 is on sale with a discount of 25%. What is the
sale price of the dress?

A. $38.75
B. $116.25
C. $130.00
D. $122.50

Answer: B. $116.25
The discount amount is 25% of $155 = (25/100) × $155 = $38.75. So the sale price
of the dress = $155 – $38.75 = $116.25.

9. Marlo pays $750 rent each month. Bea’s rent is 12% higher. What is the
ratio of Marlo’s rent to Bea’s rent?

A. 5:6
B. 15:16
C. 25:28
D. 25:26

Answer: C. 25:28
First find Bea’s rent. 12% of $750 = (12/100) × 750 = $90. So Bea’s rent = $750 +
$90 = $840. The ratio of Marlo’s rent to Bea’s rent is 750:840. Dividing by the
common factor 30, 750:840 = 25:28.
10. A cake recipe calls for 5 cups of flour to bake 2 cakes. How many cups
of flour will be needed to bake 7 cakes?

A. 35
B. 24.5
C. 17.5
D. 12

Answer: C. 17.5
Set up the proportion 5/2 = x/7. To solve for x, multiply both sides of the equation by
14 to get 35 = 2x. So x = 17.5.

11. The scale of the model of a car is 1:24. If the full-size car is 12 ft long,
how long is the model?

A. 4 inches
B. 5 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 7 inches

Answer: C. 6 inches
Set up the proportion 1/24 = x/12. To solve for x, multiply both sides of the equation
by 24 to get 1 = 2x. So x = 1/2 ft = 6 inches.

12. On the throw of a six-sided die, what is the probability that you will roll a
number less than 3?

A. 1/2
B. 1/6
C. 1/3
D. 2/3

Answer: C. 1/3
To find the probability, divide the number of acceptable outcomes by the total
number of possible outcomes. The acceptable outcomes are 1 and 2, so there are 2
of them. The total number of possible outcomes is 6. So the probability of rolling a
number less than 3 is 2/6 which reduces to 1/3.
13. A bag contains 6 black marbles and 4 white marbles. Sally takes out a
black marble and does not put it back. What is the probability that the
next marble she picks will also be black?

A. 6/10
B. 9/25
C. 1/2
D. 5/9

Answer: D. 5/9
Since Sally has taken out a black marble, the bag now contains 5 black marbles and
4 white marbles. So the probability of the next marble being black is 5/9.

14. Mangoes are sold at $8.40 a dozen. How much will 15 mangoes cost?

A. $12.60
B. $11.50
C. $10.70
D. $10.50

Answer: D. $10.50
The cost of one mango = $8.40/12 = $0.70. The cost of 15 mangoes = $0.70 × 15 =
$10.50.

15. Rosita buys 300 feet of yarn for a craft project. If the yarn costs 12 cents
a yard, how much does Rosita spend?

A. $36.00
B. $1,200.00
C. $360.00
D. $12.00

Answer: D. $12.00
Since the cost of the yarn is given in yards, first convert the length of yarn Rosita
bought into yards. Since 3 feet = 1 yard, 300 feet = 300/3 = 100 yards. Rosita spent
100 × 12 cents = 1200 cents = $12.00.
16. Mrs. Lafferty’s 5 children are 6, 8, 14, 15, and 17 years old. What is their
average age?

A. 14
B. 13
C. 12
D. 11

Answer: C. 12
To find the average age, add the ages of all the children and divide by the number of
children. The sum of the ages of the children = 6 + 8 + 14 + 15 + 17 = 60. So their
average age = 60/5 = 12.
Mathematics Knowledge

10!
1. is equal to:
7!

A. 6
B. 61
C. 120
D. 720

Answer: D. 720
10! is 10 factorial, which is defined as 10! = 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1.
7! is 7 factorial, which is defined as 7! = 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1.
When 10! is divided by 7!, the common terms 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1 in the numerator
10!
and denominator get cancelled. So = 10 × 9 × 8 = 720.
7!

64
2. =?
63 x62

A. 6
B. 69
C. 6–1
D. 65

Answer: C. 6–1
These are rules for multiplying and dividing terms with exponents:
am
am =
× an am+n=; n am − n .
a
4 4
6 6 64
So 3 = = = 64= −5
6−1 .
6 x62 63+ 2 65

3. 3
64 = ?

A. 9
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: B. 4
4 × 4 × 4 = 64. Therefore, 3
64 = 4.
4. 2(5 − 16 ) ÷ (14 − 12 ) × 3 =?

A. 3
B. 20
C. 32
D. –4

Answer: A. 3
First perform the operation inside parentheses. This gives
2(5 − 16 ) ÷ (14 − 12 ) × 3 = 2(5 − 4) ÷ (14 − 12 ) × 3 = 2(1) ÷ 2 × 3 = 2 ÷ 2 × 3 .
Now do the multiplications and divisions from left to right:
2 ÷ 2 × 3 =1× 3 =3 .

5. Solve for a: 7a + 2 = 3a – 5 + 2a

A. –2
B. 2
1
C. −3
2
1
D. 3
4

1
Answer: C. −3
2
First subtract 7a from both sides to get all the a terms on one side. Then 2 = 3a – 5
+ 2a – 7a. Combine all the a terms: 2 = –2a – 5. Add 5 to both sides to get 7 = –2a.
1
Dividing both sides by –2, a = –7/2 = −3 .
2

6. Solve for x: 5(2x –1) = 3(4x +3)

1
A. 6
B. –7
C. 2
D. –3

Answer: B. –7
First use the distributive law on both sides to write the equation as 10x – 5 = 12x + 9.
Subtract 12x from both sides: –2x – 5 = 9. Add 5 to both sides: –2x = 14. Divide both
sides by –2: x = –7.
7. Evaluate the expression (x + y)3 − 5x + 7y , if x = 0 and y = 3.

A. 48
B. 102
C. 84
D. –8

Answer: A. 48
First substitute the variable values in the expression. Then use order of operations to
evaluate the expression.
(x + y)3 − 5x + 7y = (0 + 3)3 − 5(0) + 7(3) = 33 + 21 = 27 + 21 = 48 .

8. Solve: 3 + 6x ≤ 3x − 3

A. x ≥ −2
B. x ≤ −2
C. x≤0
D. x ≥1

Answer: B. x ≤ −2
Subtract 3x from both sides and combine the x terms: 3 + 6x − 3x ≤ −3; 3 + 3x ≤ −3 .
Subtract 3 from both sides: 3x ≤ −3 − 3; 3x ≤ −6 . Divide both sides by 3: x ≤ −2 .

9. What is the name of a quadrilateral with four equal sides?

A. Trapezoid
B. Parallelogram
C. Rhombus
D. Pentagon

Answer: C. Rhombus
A quadrilateral with four equal sides is called a rhombus. A square is a special kind
of rhombus with all right angles.
10. A 55° angle is:

A. A right angle
B. An acute angle
C. An obtuse angle
D. An exterior angle

Answer: B. An acute angle

Angles smaller than 90 degrees are called acute angles.

11. An isosceles triangle:

A. Has no equal sides

B. Has two equal angles
C. Has no acute angles
D. Has two obtuse angles

Answer: B. Has two equal angles

An isosceles triangle, by definition, has two equal sides and two equal angles.

12. The side of an equilateral triangle is 20 cm. Its perimeter is:

A. 20 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 60 cm
D. 80 cm

Answer: C. 60 cm
Since all three sides of an equilateral triangle are equal, its perimeter is three times
its side. So the perimeter of the triangle = 20 × 3 = 60 cm.

13. The area of a rectangle is 144 in2. If the length of the rectangle is 16 in.,
what is its width?

A. 3 in.
B. 5 in.
C. 9 in.
D. 12 in.

Answer: C. 9 in.
The area of a rectangle = length × width. So the width of a rectangle = area / length.
The width of the given rectangle = 144 in2 / 16 in = 9 in.
14. The circumference of a circle is equal to 10π cm. Its radius is:

A. 10 cm
B. 7.5 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 10π cm

Answer: C. 5 cm
The circumference of the circle = π × diameter = 10π cm, so the diameter of the
circle = 10 cm. Therefore the radius = diameter/2 = 5 cm.

15. How much will it cost to paint a circular patio of radius 7 m if the cost of
the paint per square meter is $2.00?

A. $308.00
B. $154.00
C. $77.00
D. $616.00

Answer: A. $308.00
π r 2 π (7
The area of the patio = = = 2
) 49
=π 154 sq. m. Therefore the cost of painting
the patio = 154 × 2 = $308.00.

16. A rectangular box has a length of 7 ft, a width of 3 ft, and a height of 2 ft.
What is its volume?

A. 67 ft3
B. 42 ft3
C. 42 ft2
D. 24 ft3

Answer: B. 42 ft3
The volume of the rectangular box = length × width × height = 7 × 3 × 2 = 42 ft3. Note
that choice C also has the right number but the wrong unit.
General Science

1. The scale used to measure how acidic or alkaline a substance is is

called the:

A. pH scale
B. Celsius scale
C. Richter scale
D. dB scale

Answer: A. pH scale
The pH scale goes from 0 to 14. A pH less than 7 indicates that a substance is
acidic. A pH greater than 7 indicates that a substance is alkaline. Neutral substances
have pH equal to 7.

2. Which of the following is not a compound?

A. Baking soda
B. Concrete
C. Table salt
D. Water

Answer: B. Concrete
Concrete is a mixture of cement, water, sand, and crushed rock. All the other options
are compounds. Baking soda is sodium bicarbonate, table salt is sodium chloride,
and water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen.

3. C is the chemical symbol for the element:

A. Calcium
B. Carbon
C. Chlorine
D. Chromium

Answer: B. Carbon
C is the chemical symbol for carbon, an element that has millions of known
compounds.
4. A rainbow is formed as a result of:

A. Reflection of light
B. Interference of light
C. Diffraction of light
D. Dispersion of light

Answer: D. Dispersion of light

Dispersion is the separation of white light into its constituent colors. A rainbow is
formed because light of each color bends at a slightly different angle as it passes
through a raindrop.

5. A jar with a metal lid is hard to open. You hold the lid near the fire and
the lid loosens. This is because:

A. The heated metal lid expands less than the glass jar
B. The heated glass jar contracts while the metal lid expands
C. The heated metal lid expands more than the glass jar
D. The heated glass jar expands while the metal lid contracts

Answer: C. The heated metal lid expands more than the glass jar
The metal lid has a higher coefficient of thermal expansion than glass. So it expands
more than the glass does when heated.

6. A car goes from 0 to 60 mph in 5 seconds. What is its average

acceleration?

A. 60 mph per second

B. 5 mph per second
C. 300 mph per second
D. 12 mph per second

Answer: D. 12 mph per second

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Since the velocity change is 60 mph in
5 seconds, the average rate of change is 12 mph per second.
7. The arrangement of stars called the big dipper is part of the:

A. Great Bear constellation

B. Little Bear constellation
C. Orion constellation
D. Andromeda constellation

Answer: A. Great bear constellation

The seven stars forming the big dipper are the brightest stars of the constellation
named the Great Bear or Ursa Major.

8. A black hole is a volume of space:

A. From which no radiation can escape

B. That does not contain any matter
C. That is extremely cold
D. That contains no energy

Answer: A. From which no radiation can escape

A black hole is created when a supergiant star implodes. Even light cannot escape
from a black hole. That is why it looks black.

9. The great red spot seen on Jupiter is:

A. A large crater
B. A vast desert
C. An area of very high temperature
D. A giant storm

Answer: D. A giant storm

The great red spot on Jupiter is a high pressure storm that people have been
observing for hundreds of years.

10. A dormant volcano:

A. Has never erupted

B. Is capable of erupting
C. Will never erupt again
D. Is currently erupting

Answer: B. Is capable of erupting

The word dormant means sleeping. A dormant volcano is currently inactive but may
have erupted in the past and is capable of erupting again.
11. Earthquake magnitudes are measured using a:

A. Barometer
B. Micrometer
C. Seismograph
D. Chronograph

Answer: C. Seismograph
A seismograph is an instrument that is used to detect seismic or earthquake waves.

12. An occluded front is:

A. A type of cold front

B. A type of warm front
C. A warm front overrun by a cold front
D. A cold front overrun by a warm front

Answer: C. A warm front overrun by a cold front

An occluded front is a front formed when a cold front has caught up to a warm front
and has intermingled, usually by sliding under the warmer air.

13. Isobars are lines connecting regions of equal:

A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Humidity
D. Wind speed

Answer: A. Pressure
Weather maps often show lines connecting points of equal atmospheric pressure.
These lines are known as isobars.

14. Which of these is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?

A. Primary producer
B. Detrivore
C. Herbivore
D. Sunlight

Answer: D. Sunlight
The abiotic components of an ecosystem are the non-living components such as
sunlight, water, and soil.
15. Which of these are not arthropods?

A. Crustaceans
B. Worms
C. Insects
D. Arachnids

Answer: B. Worms
Worms are annelids, not arthropods. Arthropods, such as spiders and shellfish, have
jointed legs, segmented bodies, and a hard outer shell or skin.

16. The four blood groups are:

A. A, B, C, and D
B. A, B, AB, and O
C. A, B, AB, and BA
D. AB, BC, CD, and DA

Answer: B. A, B, AB, and O

People with blood group A have A antigens on the surface of their red blood cells
and B antigens in their blood plasma. People with blood group B have B antigens on
the surface of their red blood cells and A antigens in their blood plasma. People with
blood group AB have both A and B antigens on the surface of their red blood cells.
People with blood group O have both A and B antigens in their blood plasma.
Mechanical Comprehension

1. The bar shown in the diagram below pivots about point P. Forces F1
and F2 are applied at the points shown. If F1 and F2 are equal in
magnitude then which of the following is true?

F F
P

A. F1 exerts a greater torque on the bar than F2.

B. F2 exerts a greater torque on the bar than F1.
C. F1 and F2 exert equal torques on the bar.
D. We cannot tell whether F1 or F2 exerts a greater torque.

Answer: B. F2 exerts a greater torque on the bar than F1.

The torque exerted on the bar is a product of the force and the distance of the force
from the pivot point: Torque = Force × Distance. Since both forces are equal, the
one further away from the pivot point, F2, exerts a greater torque.

2. Why is it easier to punch a hole in a piece of paper with a sharp needle

than with a blunt pencil?

A. The needle magnifies the force applied

B. The pencil is too thick
C. For the same force, the needle applies greater pressure on the paper
D. The needle is longer and applies force for a longer duration

Answer: C. For the same force, the needle applies greater pressure on the
paper
Pressure is the force exerted on unit area of a surface. It is given by the formula
F
P= where F is the force exerted and A is the total area on which the force is
A
exerted. So the same force applied on a smaller area results in greater pressure.
3. A machine does not:

A. Change the direction of a force

B. Reduce the effort needed to lift a heavy load
C. Transfer a force to a different location
D. Reduce the amount of energy needed to perform a task

Answer: D. Reduce the amount of energy needed to perform a task

Machines help us do work more easily by reducing effort needed, by changing its
direction or transferring a force to a different place. But the total amount of energy
required to do a task does not change.

4. The lever below pivots on a fulcrum. An effort of 2 lbs is applied on one

side of the fulcrum to lift a load of 8 lbs on the other side of the fulcrum.
What is the mechanical advantage of the lever?

2 8

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Answer: B. 4
Output force Load
Mechanical advantage = = = 8 lbs/ 2 lbs = 4.
Input force Effort

5. The lever described in the previous question is a:

A. First class lever

B. Second class lever
C. Third class lever
D. Fourth class lever

Answer: A. First class lever

In a first class lever, the fulcrum is between the input (effort) and output (load). In a
second class lever, the load is between the fulcrum and effort. In a third class lever,
the effort is between the fulcrum and load. There is no such thing as a fourth class
lever.
6. The force F needed to lift the 100 lb load in the pulley system below is:

100
lbs
A. 50 lbs
B. 33 lbs
C. 100 lbs
D. 75 lbs

Answer: A. 50 lbs
Since 2 ropes are holding up the moveable pulley to the left, the system has a
mechanical advantage of 2. (The fixed pulley to the right does not give any
Load
mechanical advantage.) Since = 2 , Effort = Load/2 = 100/2 = 50 lbs.
Effort

7. A block and tackle system consists of:

A. Levers and wheel and axle

B. A lever and an inclined plane
C. Fixed and moveable pulleys
D. A pulley and a lever

Answer: C. Fixed and moveable pulleys

A block and tackle combines two or more pulleys into a system where one block of
pulleys is fixed while the other remains moveable.
8. What kind of a simple machine is a swinging door?

A. Lever
B. Inclined plane
C. Wheel and axle
D. Screw

Answer: A. Lever
A swinging door is a second class lever with the fulcrum at the hinge at one end and
the effort applied at the other end.

9. What type of simple machine is used to force material apart?

A. Lever
B. Screw
C. Pulley
D. Wedge

Answer: D. Wedge
A wedge is used to force material apart. The blade of an axe is a wedge.

10. The four basic types of gears are:

A. Spur, bevel, worm, rack and pinion

B. Spur, bevel, worm, crust
C. Screw, bevel, worm, rack and pinion
D. Spur, screw, worm, rack and pinion

Answer: A. Spur, bevel, worm, rack and pinion

A gear is a wheel with teeth on it. These teeth can mesh with teeth on other gears so
that when one gear moves, the other one moves as well. The four basic types of
gears are spur gears, bevel gears, worm gears, and rack and pinion gears.
11. Which of the following is not an inclined plane?

A. Stairs
B. Parking ramp
C. Moving walkway
D. Ladder

Answer: C. Moving walkway

Even though stairs are not shaped like a smooth incline, they use a slope to make it
easier for people to climb upwards. Parking ramps and ladders also use angled
surfaces to make it easier to move up. A moving walkway is typically horizontal and
not set at an incline.

12. A rack and pinion gear:

A. Changes the angle of rotation

B. Changes the direction of linear motion
C. Changes rotational motion into linear motion
D. Reverses the direction of rotation

Answer: C. Changes rotational motion into linear motion

A rack and pinion arrangement has one toothed wheel (pinion) meshed with a flat
toothed surface (rack). It converts the rotational motion of the pinion into a linear
motion of the rack.

13. The gear ratio of a set of meshed gears is 4. If the number of teeth on
the driven gear is 100, what is the number of teeth on the driver?

A. 400
B. 100
C. 104
D. 25

Answer: D. 25
number of teeth on driven gear
The gear ratio of a set of meshed gears = . So the
number of teeth on driver
number of teeth on the driver = number of teeth on driven gear / gear ratio = 100/4 =
25.
14. The primary function of a spring in a machine is to:

A. Magnify force
B. Store energy
C. Change direction of rotation
D. Change speed of movement

Answer: B. Store energy

You can compress or extend a spring to store energy in it. Machines often use
springs to store energy for part of a cycle and release it later.
.

15. The lift on an airplane wing can be explained using:

A. Pascal’s principle
B. Archimedes’ principle
C. Bernoulli’s principle
D. Boyle’s law

Answer: C. Bernoulli’s principle

According to Bernoulli’s principle, where the velocity of a fluid is high, the pressure is
low and vice versa. Since the upper surface of the airplane wing is more curved, air
must flow faster and the pressure is lower above the wing than below the wing. This
gives the wing its lift.

16. When pressure is applied to one part of a confined fluid:

A. It is transmitted undiminished in all directions

B. It is reduced by the time it reaches the other parts
C. It increases as it moves through the fluid
D. It is not transmitted to any other part

Answer: A. It is transmitted undiminished in all directions

According to Pascal’s principle, when pressure is applied to a confined fluid it is
transmitted undiminished in all directions. When you press the bottom of a
toothpaste tube, the pressure is transmitted to the top and the toothpaste comes out.
Electronics Information

1. A circuit segment contains only two capacitors of equal value,

connected in parallel. If the total capacitance of the circuit segment is
300 uF, what is the value of each capacitor?

A. 50 uF
B. 150 uF
C. 300 uF
D. 600 uF

Answer: B. 150 uF
The total value of two capacitors connected in parallel can be calculated using the
formula
C = C1 + C2
Since the two capacitors have the same value, each capacitor must be 150 uF.

2. The speed of electricity is approximately the same as the speed of:

A. Light
B. Sound
C. Magnetism
D. Heat

Answer: A. Light
The speed of electricity is almost as fast as the speed of light.

3. The Ohm is a unit of:

A. Capacitance
B. Resistance
C. Luminance
D. Inductance

Answer: B. Resistance
Resistance is measured in Ohms, represented by the symbol Ω.
4. The power law states that:

A. P=I×E
B. P = I2 × E
C. P = I × E2
D. P = I2 × E 2

Answer: A. P = I × E
Power is equal to current times voltage.

5. Dielectric material is:

A. Magnetic
B. Nonmagnetic
C. Conductive
D. Nonconductive

Answer: D. Nonconductive
Dielectric material is nonconductive material, typically used in capacitors.

6. Which type of capacitor is best suited for high frequency applications?

A. Mylar
B. Mica
C. Tantalum
D. Electrolytic

Answer: B. Mica
Mica has a very special use in electronics. Mica capacitors are used for high
frequency applications.

7. Motors are used to convert:

A. Radiant energy to electrical energy

B. Electrical energy to radiant energy
C. Mechanical energy to electrical energy
D. Electrical energy to mechanical energy

Answer: D. Electrical energy to mechanical energy

Motors are used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy, for example, the
turning of the wheels on a car.
9. A core of a typical inductor core is made of:

A. Tin
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Carbon

Answer: C. Iron
A typical inductor is made of copper wire coiled around a ferromagnetic core (iron).

9. In an AC circuit, inductors behave like:

A. Frequency-dependent voltage sources

B. Frequency-dependent resistors
C. Frequency-independent voltage sources
D. Frequency-independent resistors

Answer: B. Frequency-dependent resistors

In an AC circuit, inductive reactance goes up as frequency goes up and inductive
reactance goes down as frequency goes down.

10. In which band of the electromagnetic spectrum is 60 MHz?

A. ULF
B. VLF
C. VHF
D. UHF

Answer: C. VHF
Very High Frequency (VHF) band ranges from 30 MHz to 300 MHz.

11. What type of mechanical switch will connect two circuits to one of two
positions?

A. SPST
B. SPDT
C. DPST
D. DPDT

Answer: D. DPDT
DPDT is an acronym for double-pole, double-throw, also known as a two-way
switch.
12. What is the AC voltage delivered to a typical household outlet?

A. 60 volts
B. 100 volts
C. 120 volts
D. 200 volts

Answer: C. 120 volts

The AC voltage required by a typical household appliance, such as a toaster or
vacuum cleaner, is 120 volts.

13. In an AC circuit, the term X refers to:

A. Resistance
B. Reactance
C. Impedance
D. Inductance

Answer: B. Reactance
Reactance can be capacitive or inductive.

14. A solar cell can be used to convert:

A. Radiant energy to electrical energy

B. Electrical energy to radiant energy
C. Mechanical energy to electrical energy
D. Electrical energy to mechanical energy

Answer: A. Radiant energy to electrical energy

A solar cell converts light (a type of radiant energy) to electricity.

15. Which is the worst electrical conductor?

A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Iron

Answer: D. Iron
Of the four metals listed, iron is the worst electrical conductor; silver is the best.
16. What is the smallest number of diodes required to make a half-wave
rectifier?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Answer: A. 1
A half-wave rectifier is usually made with one diode and one resistor.
Shop Information

1. Which statement is true?

A. A hammer is a type of sledge.

B. A sledge is a type of mallet.
C. A hammer is a type of mallet.
D. A mallet is a type of hammer.

Answer: D. A mallet is a type of hammer.

Mallets and sledges are types of hammers. Most hammers feature a large head
area, which adds mass to the tool to aid in the delivery of a forceful impact, and a
long handle that works as a force multiplier.

2. How does handle length affect the force of a hammer?

A. The longer the handle, the greater the force

B. The shorter the handle, the greater the force
C. The longer the handle, the smaller the force
D. Handle length does not affect the force of a hammer

Answer: A. The longer the handle, the greater the force

The longer the handle, the greater the force multiplier. The handle acts as a simple
lever.

3. Kayla measures the length of a piece of wood with a tape measure. The
1
length is 39 ". What is this length in feet and inches?
4

A. 39 feet 25 inches
B. 3 feet 25 inches
C. 3 feet 9.25 inches
D. 3 feet 3.25 inches

Answer: D. 3 feet 3.25 inches

There are 12 inches in 1 foot., so begin by dividing 39 by 12 to convert from inches
to feet.
4. The Phillips screw is an evolved form of what type of screw?

A. Slot head
B. Cross slot
C. Frearson
D. Square

Answer: B. Cross slot

The Phillips screw is an evolved form of the cross slot screw. It is designed to cam
the screwdriver out of the screw when the screw stalls, preventing damage to the
screw head caused by overdriving.

5. A machine that rotates a piece of wood or other material and shapes it

is called a:

A. Lathe
B. Gouge
C. Slip roll
D. Band saw

Answer: A. Lathe
A lathe is a machine that rotates a piece of material and shapes it. Lathes can be
used to shape wood, metal, glass, and pottery.

6. A chisel with an angled cutting blade that is used for finishing work is
called a:

A. Butt chisel
B. Corner chisel
C. Skew chisel
D. Gouge

Answer: C. Skew chisel

A skew chisel has an angled cutting blade that is used for finishing work.
7. A spanner is another name for a:

A. Caliper
B. Wrench
C. Level
D. Lathe

Answer: B. Wrench
A spanner is another name for a wrench. It is a tool used to provide mechanical
advantage while
applying torque.

8. Which type of wrench is also called a Crescent wrench?

A. Pipe wrench
B. Adjustable-end wrench
C. Socket wrench
D. Combination wrench

Answer: B. Adjustable-end wrench

Adjustable-end wrenches are commonly called Crescent wrenches because they
were initially
developed by the Crescent Tool and Horseshoe Company.

9. Breaker bars are used with:

A. Screwdrivers
B. Chisels
C. Sledges
D. Wrenches

Answer: D. Wrenches
Hand wrenches that are used to torque heavy bolts or bolts that are seized often
have very long handles or attachable handles known as breaker bars.
10. Which type of caliper is used to scribe metal surfaces?

A. Digital caliper
B. Micrometer caliper
C. Vernier caliper
D. Divider caliper

Answer: D. Divider caliper

In metalworking, divider calipers are used to measure distance and scribe metal
surfaces by scratching them.

11. A crocus cloth is used for:

A. Polishing
B. Removing paint
C. Applying paint
D. Applying sealant

Answer: A. Polishing
A crocus cloth can be used for extra-fine polishing. It is similar to sand paper but
uses an applied polishing or lapping compound in place of bonded abrading
particles.
Auto Information

1. How often should oil be changed?

A. Every one month or 1,000 miles

B. Every five months or 5,000 miles
C. According to the manufacturer’s recommendations
D. Yearly

Answer: C. According to the manufacturer’s recommendations

While three months or 30,000 miles was the old standard, changes in manufacture,
oil design (especially with synthetics), and heavy use all determine how often oil
should be changed.

2. The mass air flow sensor does what?

A. Measures in pounds per square inch the compression of the cylinders

B. Measures the amount of air going into the engine
C. Measures the speed of the vehicle by metering the air flow into the
engine compartment
D. Measures the amount of air going out the exhaust

Answer: B. Measures the amount of air going into the engine

The mass air flow sensor lets the car’s computer know how much air the engine is
taking in so it can adjust the fuel and timing.

3. The harmonic balancer is part of the:

A. Engine
B. Transmission
C. Radiator
D. Differential

Answer: A. Engine
The harmonic balancer is mounted on the end of the crank shaft. It reduces vibration
in the engine and serves as a drive pulley for belts.
4. Which of the following is a part of the transmission?

A. The intake valve

B. The clutch plate
C. The valve body
D. The flywheel

Answer: C. The valve body

The valve body controls the clutches in the transmission by channeling pressurized
fluid through a series of valves.

5. Where can you find a dampener spring?

A. In the exhaust gas recirculation valve

B. As part of the muffler
C. In the water pump
D. As part of a strut

Answer: D. As part of a strut

The dampener spring absorbs the impact of bumps in the road.

6. In automotive electronics, red wires typically indicate:

A. Positive current
B. Negative current
C. Grounded circuits
D. High voltage

Answer: A. Positive current

In most automotive applications, red wires are connected to the positive (+) side of
the battery, and black wires are connected to the negative (–) side of the battery.

7. Engine coolant is typically made from propylene glycol. What is one

advantage of using this over plain water?

A. It is orange, so you can see leaks better.

B. It prevents corrosion.
C. It lubricates the radiator.
D. It is thicker than water.

Answer: B. It prevents corrosion.

Plain water fosters corrosion, especially in the presence of heat.
8. Directional tires can only be rotated how?

A. Directional tires can’t be rotated

B. Side to side
C. Front to back, across
D. Front to back, same side

Answer: D. Front to back, same side

Directional tires have tread which is designed to rotate in only one direction, so they
cannot be moved from the right to the left.

9. How are lug nuts used?

A. To hold the axle to the wheel

B. To hold the rim to the hub
C. To hold the axle in the transmission
D. To hold the brake to the hub

Answer: B. To hold the rim to the hub

The lugs are the threaded rods on which the wheel is mounted. The rim is the metal
part of the wheel (the rim/tire assembly).

10. The compression ratio is a measurement of the:

A. Difference in volume between the piston down and up

B. Amount of air in different sized tires
C. Difference between the engine compression at high and low rpm
D. Difference between the engine compression at high and low speed

Answer: A. Difference in volume between the piston down and up

Compression takes place in the engine as the piston rises and squeezes the air/fuel
mixture.
11. The evaporator is found in the:

A. Cooling system
B. Emissions system
C. Electrical system
D. Air conditioning system

Answer: D. Air conditioning system

Chilled refrigerant runs through the evaporator where air is blown over it to cool it for
the car’s interior.
Assembling Objects

For each pair of labeled shapes in questions 1 to 8, choose the figure that
shows the shapes connected correctly.

1.

A B C D

Answer: C
2.

.
A B C D

Answer: A

3.

A B C D

Answer: B
4.

A B C D

Answer: B

5.

A B C D

Answer: A
6.

A B C D

Answer: C

7.

A B C D

Answer: D
8.

A B C D

Answer: A

For each set of shapes in questions 9 to 16, choose the figure that shows the
shapes assembled into an object.

9.

A B C D

Answer: D
10.

A B C D

Answer: B

11.

A B C D

Answer: A
12.

A B C D

Answer: D

13.

A B C D

Answer: A
14.

A B C D

Answer: D

15.

A B C D

Answer: C
16.

A B C D

Answer: D