Aiims T&D 06-1

AIIMS T&D#06
Q1. The fulcrum line passes through which component of RPD?
a. Occlusal rests
b. Indirect retainer
c. Retentive or reciprocal arm
d. Denture base
Q2. In orthodontics, “Activity Index” refers to the ratio of:
a. ILRC : IL8
b. IL-1B : IL1RA
c. RANKL : OPG
d. ILRC : IL1RA
Q3. Nolla’s stage 6 refers to:
a. Crown completion
b. 1/3rd root completion
c. 2/3rd root completion
d. Full root completion
Q4. Mother of a 2 months old child comes to the dentist with teeth like structures present in the
lower jaw of the child causing laceration/ulceration of the tongue. What should be the treatment
plan?
a. Radiograph to confirm if that’s deciduous teeth, followed by rounding of incisal

edges
b. Extraction of the teeth
c. Do not extract tooth and prescribe anaesthetic gel
d. Counsel the mother about deciduous teeth
Q5. A patient comes with Class 1 molar relationship, with upper and lower crowding. Which
malocclusion does the patient have?
a. Class 1 type 1
b. Class 1 type 2
c. Class 1 type 3
d. Class 1 type 4
Q6. Patient presents with difficulty in moving his neck to the left side. He also complains of difficulty
in rotating and bending the neck on the same side. Patient also presents with slightly tilted head
towards the left side with chin deviated to the other side. Which muscular weakness is involved?
National Helplines: +91-9711224348 / +91-9350256286, Mobile App for OTS: DBMCI MDS
www.dental.dbmci.com (click- MDS Experts), FACEBOOK – MDS-Experts : Premier Group
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Platysma
c. Trapezius
d. Diagastric
Q7. Post trauma, pinpoint pupils are not seen in which one the following?
a. Mid brain hernia (or, cerebral hernia)

b. Adrenaline release (or, loss of sympathetic tone)
c. Horner syndrome
d. Drug reaction
Q8. Difference between primary and permanent teeth
a. primary teeth have more prominent cervical bulge than permanent teeth
b. permanent teeth roots and more slender, long and divergent
c. enamel:dentin ratio is low in primary teeth
d. primary teeth crowns show more bucco-lingual width than permanent teeth
Q9. Which is correct regarding etching of enamel?
a. Less time required to etch primary teeth because enamel is less dense than permanent
teeth
b. More time required to etch primary teeth because enamel is more dense than permanent
teeth
c. More time required to etch primary teeth as enamel is more irregular than permanent teeth
d. Less time required to etch primary teeth because enamel is less irregular than permanent
teeth
Q10. Centre of Rotation for tipping in fixed orthodontic appliance is present at:
a. Long axis of the tooth

b. infinity
c. between buccolingual axis
d. between mesiodistal axis
Q11. Post radiation therapy, a patient of SCC-head and neck region, develops dryness of eyes.
Doctor prescribes eye drops to correct all of the following except?
1. Problem in focusing nearby objects

2. Difficulty in focusing in dim light
3. Increased intra-ocular pressure
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. 1 and 2 both
d. 1 and 3
Q12. Highest slope in stress-strain graph is seen with which amongst the following?
a. Ceramics
b. Enamel
c. Gold alloy
d. Elastomers
Q13. Hepatitis pregnant mother presents with positive for hepatitis surface antigen. Which is the
correct treatment option in order to prevent the child from hepatitis?
a. Hep-B immunoglobin at birth, followed by 1 and 6 months doses

b. Hep-B vaccine at birth, with booster at 1 and 6 months
c. Bottle feeding of the child with Hep-B immunoglobin and vaccine at birth followed by doses
at 1 and 6 months
d. Hep-B immunogloin, Hep-B vaccine at birth, followed by doses at 1 and 6 months.
Q14. For correction of incisal liability in a patient, all are the correction modalities except?
a. Incisal spacing
b. increase in arch length
c. increase in inter canine width
d. incisal labial inclination
Q15. A patient presents with 3 mm gingival recession and 2mm sulcus depth? What’s the actual
clinical attachment loss?
a. 2mm
b. 3mm
c. 4mm
d. 5mm
Q16. A patient was treated with anterior ceramic laminates comes with severe sensitivity after 3-4
days. What’s the most likely cause for this?
a. Improper finishing and microleakage

b. Adhesion cohesion failure
c. Improper cementation
AIIMS T&D#06
d. Improper etching
Q17. A 14 year old boy while playing hockey suffers traumatic avulsion of 11 and 21 and immediately
puts them back in the sockets. He then reports to the dental clinic within 15 minutes. What would be
the next immediate line of treatment?
a. Extraction
b. No extraction and physiologic splinting
c. endodontic therapy
d. replantation of the teeth followed by splinting
Q18. During deglutition, action of what determines allowing only a small bolus of food to enter
oesophagus?
a. Soft palate folds

b. Palatopharyngeal fold
c. Tensor veli palatine muscle
d. opening of the upper oesophageal sphincter
Q19. A patient diagnosed with mandibular nerve neuralgia, positive herpes infection within the
mandibular division of left trigeminal nerve, complains of weakness while opening the mouth. He
also faces problem in protruding of the mandible and his mandible keeps on deviating to the left
while opening the jaw. Which muscle is primarily affected?
a. Left lateral pterygoid

b. Right lateral pterygoid
c. left medial and left lateral pterygoid
d. right medial and lateral pterygoid
Q20. In orthodontics, Wagon wheel effect refers to:
a. inward tipping of anterior teeth due to heavy forces

b. outward tipping of anterior teeth due to heavy forces
c. addition of tip and loss of torque
d. addition of torque and loss of tip
Q21. A patient with increased SNA angle will present as:
a. Maxillary retrognathism
b. mandibular prognathism
c. maxillary prognathism
d. mandibular retrognathism
AIIMS T&D#06
Q22. A person eats well cooked meat and develops signs of diarrhoea, vomiting and abdominal pain
within 2 hrs. The most probable causative organism is:
a. Clostridium toxin
b. Shigella toxin
c. Salmonella toxin
d. Staphylococcal toxin
Q23. Which of the following is not an open method for exposure of an impacted canine?
a. Window technique
b. Tunnel approach
c. Apically positioned flap
d. Full thickness flap
Q24. A group of volunteers work to clean sewers. Some develop high fever after a few days. Most
likely the causative organism is:
a. Leptospirosis
b. Bacillus cerus
c. Chlamydia
d. Neobacterium
Q25. A male patient presents with burning sensation on ingestion of spicy food, blanched mucosa,
and fibrous bands palpable on examination. What will lead to the above presenting condition?
a. OSMF due to arecanut or betel quid chewing

b. SCC due to tobacco
c. smoker’s keratosis due to smoking
d. leukoplakia
Q26. In a normal distribution curve, 99.73% individuals fall in the standard deviation:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Q27. Anterior guidance cannot be used in following cases except?
a. Class 1 with anterior flaring

b. Anterior open bite
AIIMS T&D#06
c. Posterior open bite
d. Severe Class 3 with reverse overjet
Q28. Patient presents with expansile growth extending from 23 to 26 region during past 8 months.
Histologic examination reveals speckled calcified deposition, less stroma, osteoid trabecular bone
pattern with peripheral osteoblastic rimming. Most likely the diagnosis is:
a. Calcifying odontogenic cyst

b. Ameloblastoma
c. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
d. Cemento-ossifying fibroma
Q29. In an automobile accident, a 40-year old lady suffered many facial injuries. She is unable to
close her lips together. Which muscle is most likely involved?
a. Orbicularis oris
b. Levator anguli oris
c. Buccinators
d. Levator labii superioris
Q30. A new born is considered as a neonate till what age?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 6 weeks
Q31. Which of the following pathways does not take place in the matrix of mitochondria?
a. Citric acid cycle

b. HMP shunt
c. Urea cycle
d. Beta oxidation of fatty acids
Q32. Growth hormone secretion will not increase in?
a. Fever
b. high protein diet
c. high fat diet
d. exercise
AIIMS T&D#06
Q33. According to screening done based on “Globocan 2012” for lip cancer, which criteria’s is
followed?
a. Age and demographic information specific

b. Only age only
c. Only gender
d. Age and gender specific
Q34. An injury to Ansa Cervicalis will lead to paralysis of which of the following muscle?
a. Thyrohyoid
b. Cricothyroid
c. Sternothyroid
d. Stylohyoid
Q35. In a village, despite of oral hygiene education and importance, no patient compliance is seen.
Village population does not revert for oral hygiene check up. Which model should be applied in this
situation?
a. Trans-theoretical model
b. Social Compliance theory
c. Health belief model
d. Theory of planned behaviour
Q36. A fearful 7 year old boy reported with grossly decayed and painful primary molar with abscess
and draining sinus. What is to be done?
a. Extraction
b. access opening, cleaning and sterilising so pain subsides and observation for 24-48 hrs
c. pulpectomy and obturation with suitable material
d. prescribe antibiotics for 5 days and observe
Q37. Simplest measure for variation in a quantitative data?
a. Range
b. Mean
c. Median
d. Standard Deviation
Q38. To study incidence of caries in school children of 10 years age group, which is the study to be
done?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Prospective study
b. Cross sectional study
c. retrospective study
d. randomised controlled trial
Q39. Second step in resective osseous surgery is?
a. Vertical grooving
b. Radicular blending
c. Inter-radicular bone marginalisation
d. Gradualising bony margins
Q40. Which of the following steps in scar formation is true?
a. Endothelial cells migration to injury site, formation of new blood vessels, proliferation of
fibroblasts, deposition of connective tissue, maturation and reorganisation of scar
b. Formation of new blood vessels, endothelial cells migration to injury site, proliferation of
fibroblasts, deposition of connective tissue, maturation and reorganisation of scar
c. Proliferation of fibroblasts, endothelial cells migration to injury site, formation of new blood
vessels, deposition of connective tissue, maturation and reorganisation of scar
d. Deposition of connective tissue, formation of new blood vessels, endothelial cells migration
to injury site, proliferation of fibroblasts, maturation and reorganisation of scar
Q41. When soft tissue liner is used, pressure threshold for basal tissues should?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. remain same
d. depends on the basal tissue area
Q42. M3 of Glasgow coma scale represents?
a. Withdraws to pain
b. Decorticate
c. Decerebrate
d. No response
Q43. Which periodontal fibres prevent extrusion of teeth?
a. Apical
b. Oblique
c. Alveolar crest
AIIMS T&D#06
d. Horizontal
Q44. Which of the following is not a processing wax?
a. Utility
b. Boxing
c. Sticky
d. Inlay
Q45. In presence of excessive ADH secretion, which part of renal tubules shows maximum
hypertonic fluid collection?
a. Distal CT
b. Proximal CT
c. Loop of Henle
d. Collecting duct
Q46. Galvanic current is present even in a single isolated metal restoration. This glow of galvanic
current is due to?
a. Saliva contains higher Cl-

b. Dentinal fluid contains higher Cl-
c. Saliva contains higher Na+
d. Saliva contains higher H+
e. Saliva contains higher K+
Q47. Which is true about adrenergic agonists?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Epinehrine – causes rise in systolic and diastolic BP, raises pulse rate, increases
peripheral resistance
b. Nor epinephrine – causes rise in BP, causes reflex bradycardia, increases peripheral
resistance
c. Phenylephrine – causes only rise in systolic BP
d. Isoprenaline increases BP and increases peripheral resistance
Q48. A known diabetic patient comes to a dental office. Post LA injection develops double vision.
Most probable cause for this situation is?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Syncope
d. Injection of LA in parotid gland
Q49. A patient on long term corn diet presents with skin rashes, mental confusion, and diarrhoea.
Which of the following should be added to his diet?
a. Niacin
b. Thiamine
c. Riboflavin
d. Cobalamine
Q50. A 9 (or 11) year old patient presents with unerupted 21. 11 got fractured and traumatised 2
months back which erupted normally at the age of 6.5yrs. What should be done?
a. Start orthodontic treatment for 21

b. Wait and watch for eruption of 21
c. Place RPD for missing 21
d. Radiograph to rule out presence of impacted mesiodens
Q51. In composites, agent which acts as a surface coating agent and also a medium to transfer load
from weaker to stronger stress bearing components?
a. Silane coupling agent

b. Fillers
c. Resin Matrix
d. Adhesive agent
Q52. During long term starvation, adipose tissue is the main source of energy for the body. Which of
the following is helpful in this?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Free FA in serum transported as chylomicrons by LDL
b. Free FA in in blood as very low density lipid molecules
c. Release of free glycerol from adipose tissues
d. Activation of hormone sensitive lipase and subsequent hydrolysis of stored triglycerol
Q53. Picture based, left buccal mucosa. A 50 year old male patient presents with burning mouth on
spicy food intake, spontaneous blister formation for past 4-6 months. On digital palpation, the
mucosa sloughs off. Histologic examination reveals acantholysis and suprabasilar split. What is the
condition?
a. Pemphigus vulagris
b. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
c. Lichen planus
d. OSMF
Q54. Picture based. A 51 year old female patient presents with red and white lesion on tongue, and
burning sensation on spicy food intake. Red lesions disappear after burning subsides. What is the
condition?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Leukoplakia
b. Erythroplakia
c. Erythematic lichen planus
d. Geographic tongue
Q55. A patient complains of repeated episodes of dizziness and fainting to the physician. Which area
does the doctor palpate keeping the blood pressure and pulse rate under observation to draw a
diagnosis?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Q56. Picture based ques of edentulous fractured mandible on right side. An 80 year old male patient
was treated with skeletal pin fixation for mandibular fracture which resulted in a failure. Patient is
having complaints for last six months. What is the desired treatment plan now?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Load bearing reconstruction plate

b. Reconstruction plates with bone grafts
c. mini plates and screws
d. gunning splint with mandibular arch wiring
Q57. Picture based, deep prepared cavity. Two pictures of the same tooth. First picture (A) arrow
point at dentinal surface (where the pulp protective agent is to be placed.) second picture
(B), arrow points at the restored tooth (with restorative material placed on the prepared
cavity). Question asked on which is the suitable material for both the cases.
a. CaOH for A, Zinc oxide for B

b. CaOH for A, GIC for B
c. CaOH for both
d. GIC fo A, Polycarboxylate for B
Q58. Identify the tooth as seen in the following images below:
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Primary maxillary central incisor

b. Permanent maxillary central incisor
c. Permanent maxillary lateral incisor
d. Permanent maxillary canine
Q59. Identify the suturing technique shown in the image below:
a. Loop suture
AIIMS T&D#06
b. Figure of eight
c. Horizontal mattress
d. Vertical mattress
Q60. Identify the below given image:
a. 1st order bend

b. 2nd order bend
c. 3rd order bend
d. 4th order bend
Q61. Identify the type of necrosis in the below image:
a. Liquefactive
b. Caseous
c. Coagulative
d. Haemorrhagic
Q62. OPG of deciduous dentition, identify the anomaly.
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Fusion on 72, 82
b. Underdeveloped mandibular molars 37, 47
c. Concrescence 72-73, 82 83
d. Congenitally missing 32, 42
Q63. What is the approximate dental age of the patient whose mixed dentition radiograph is given
below?
a. 2yrs +/- 6 months

b. 3 yrs +/- 6 months
c. 5yrs +/- 6 months
d. 4 yrs +/- 6months
Q64. Image of direct retainer, identify?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Aker clasp design

b. RPI system
c. I Bar assembly
d. Ring clasp
Q65. Picture based. A 10 year old boy presents with pedunculated sessile mass associated with
lower anteriors present for last few months. Patient shows poor oral hygiene and a lot of calculus
deposition. What should be the treatment plan?
a. Excision by lasers
b. scaling and antibiotics for a week
c. refer to surgical oncology
d. surgical excision of the lesion and to be sent for microscopic examination
Q66. Image based. The below given appliance is used in treatment for?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Fixed appliance for Thumb sucking

b. Fixed appliance for Tongue thrusting
c. Removable appliance for thumb sucking
d. Removable appliance for tongue thrusting
Q67. Image based on amalgam of under triturated, normal triturated, over triturated. Select
correctly the triturated amalgam:
a. A – normal, B – under, C – over

b. A – under, B – normal, C – over
c. A – under, B – over, C – normal
d. A – over, B – normal, C – under
Q68. Identify the pathological condition in the bellow given image
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Crater
b. Reverse architecture
c. Ledges
d. Infrabony defect
Q69. Picture of missing Maxillary Right Central Incisor. Choice of pontic:
a. Ovate
b. Modified ridge lap
c. Sanitary
d. Saddle
Q70. Image Based. Which of the following primary molar relation will lead to Class-II malocclusion in
permanent dentition?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. A and C
Q71. A 13 year old girl presents with greyish teeth, obliterated pulp chambers, chipping off enamel,
and multiple fractures of bones. Which gene is responsible for this condition?
a. AMLEX
b. APC tumor suppressor gene
c. ENAM
d. COL1A1
Q72. A patient is suffering from a debilitating condition that includes progressive degeneration of
the motor axons that innervate the masseter muscle. Which of the following muscles is responsible?
a. Tensor tympani
b. Levator veli palatine
AIIMS T&D#06
c. Genioglossus
d. Orbicularis oris
Q73. In Hb-O2 dissociation curves as shown in the images, resting stage is represented by solid line
and exercise stage is represented by the dotted line. Select the curve which represents the correct
Hb-O2 dissociation curves for resting and exercise stage.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Q74. Platelets circulate in plasma for how many days?
a. 2-4
b. 7-10
c. 10-20
AIIMS T&D#06
d. 120
Q75. Which is true regarding enzyme-substrate graph of Enzymes A and B, as seen in the below
image?
a. Km of Enzyme A is greater than that of Enzyme B

b. Km of Enzyme B is greater than that of Enzyme A
c. Km of Enzyme A and B will become constant with time
d. Km of Enzyme is the normal physiologic substrate concentration
Q76. Relative inability of a material to deform plastically before it ultimately fractures is called:
a. Ductility
b. Malleability
c. Brittleness
d. Pseudoplasticity
Q77. A 30 year old female complains of cough and show positive Mantoux test. She was prescribed
with some medicines for the same and after 2 months of course, she reports back with complaints of
burning and tingling sensation in leg. What is the most probable reason for this?
a. Pyridoxine deficiency due to rifampicin use

b. Pyridoxine deficiency due to INH use
c. Pyridoxine deficiency due to ethambutol use
d. Cobalamine deficiency due to INH use
Q78. Which of the following about dose-response relationship curve of 2 drugs A and B is correct?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Efficacy of A>B, Potency of both drugs are same

b. Efficacy of B>A, Potency of both drugs are same
c. Potency of A>B, Efficacy of both drugs is same
d. Potency of B>A, Efficacy of both drugs is same
Q79. Virulence in mycobacteria is strongly associated with which of the following?
a. Spore formation
b. Heat resistance
c. Composition of envelope
Mycotoxin production
Q80. A farmer who had kidney transplant six months back now complains of high grade fever,
myalgia and back pain for last two weeks. Microbiological investigation revealed Gram+, Catalase+
rods with glucose fermenting organism which also shows tumbling motility. Which is the most likely
causative microbe?
a. Listeria
b. Chlamydia
c. Actinomyces
d. Neobacterium
Q81. Lactose+, glucose fermenting, Gram- rod is isolated from a previously healthy individual who
complains of bloody diarrhoea. Identify the microorganism:
a. H pylori
b. Shigella sonnei
c. Escherichia coli
d. Salmonella enterica
Q82. True statements regarding Images A and B
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Necrosis of A is wedge shaped with the occluded vessel at the apex

b. Coagulative necrosis
c. A is caused due to arterial occlusion in organs with end arterial circulations
d. B is caused due to arterial occlusion in organs with end arterial circulations
Q83. An increased chance of thrombus formation is associated with all of the following factors
except:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Malignancy
c. Low blood volume
d. Slowing of blood flow
Q84. Which amongst the following is used to control bleeding in Oral Surgery?
a. Tranexamic acid
b. Citric acid
c. Acetoacetic acid
d. Phosphoric acid
Q85. What exactly is seen in the given below image?
AIIMS T&D#06
a. Unilateral group function

b. Bilateral balanced occlusion
c. Protrusive registration interference
d. Protrusive balanced contact anterior and posterior
Q86. True about Tanaka Johnson analysis
a. Only radiograph required

b. Only prediction table required
c. Both radiograph and prediction table required
d. Neither radiograph and prediction table required
Q87. Presurgical procedure for treatment of Cleft lip as shown in the below image is:
a. Lip taping
b. Nasal stenting
AIIMS T&D#06
c. Alveolar moulding
d. Naso-alveolar moulding
Q88. Picture Based Question. Treatment of choice for subluxation in young permanent dentition:
a. Fixed splinting for 2 weeks

b. Fixed splinting for 4 weeks
c. Flexible splinting for 2 weeks to allow healing of periodontium
d. Flexible splinting for 4 weeks for pain relief not allowing healing of periodontium
Q89. Which of the following features are not seen in 8 year old child?
a. Edge to edge occlusion

b. Increased overjet and overbite
c. Reduced overjet and overbite
d. Reversed overjet and overbite
Q90. Identify the labelling in the below given image:
AIIMS T&D#06
a. 1, Inferior alveolar artery; 2, dental arteriole; 3, pulpal branches; 4, periodontal ligament

arteriole; 5 and 6, interalveolar arterioles.
b. 1, Inferior alveolar artery; 2, pulpal branches; 3, dental arteriole; 4, interalveolar arterioles; 5
and 6, periodontal ligament arteriole.
c. 1, Inferior alveolar artery; 2, dental arteriole; 3, periodontal ligament arteriole; 4, pulpal
branches; 5 and 6, interalveolar arterioles.
d. 1, Inferior alveolar artery; 2, interalveolar arterioles; 3, pulpal branches; 4, periodontal
ligament arteriole; 5 and 6, dental arterioles.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

Aiims T&D 06-1

Diunggah oleh

Informasi Dokumen

Judul Asli

Hak Cipta

Format Tersedia

Bagikan dokumen Ini

Bagikan atau Tanam Dokumen

Opsi Berbagi

Apakah menurut Anda dokumen ini bermanfaat?

Apakah konten ini tidak pantas?

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

Aiims T&D 06-1

Diunggah oleh

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

AIIMS T&D#06

Q1. The fulcrum line passes through which component of RPD?

Q2. In orthodontics, “Activity Index” refers to the ratio of:

Q3. Nolla’s stage 6 refers to:

a. Radiograph to confirm if that’s deciduous teeth, followed by rounding of incisal

a. Mid brain hernia (or, cerebral hernia)

Q8. Difference between primary and permanent teeth

Q9. Which is correct regarding etching of enamel?

a. Long axis of the tooth

1. Problem in focusing nearby objects

a. Hep-B immunoglobin at birth, followed by 1 and 6 months doses

a. Improper finishing and microleakage

a. Soft palate folds

a. Left lateral pterygoid

Q20. In orthodontics, Wagon wheel effect refers to:

a. inward tipping of anterior teeth due to heavy forces

Q21. A patient with increased SNA angle will present as:

a. OSMF due to arecanut or betel quid chewing

Q27. Anterior guidance cannot be used in following cases except?

a. Class 1 with anterior flaring

a. Calcifying odontogenic cyst

Q30. A new born is considered as a neonate till what age?

a. Citric acid cycle

Q32. Growth hormone secretion will not increase in?

a. Age and demographic information specific

Q37. Simplest measure for variation in a quantitative data?

Q39. Second step in resective osseous surgery is?

Q40. Which of the following steps in scar formation is true?

Q42. M3 of Glasgow coma scale represents?

Q43. Which periodontal fibres prevent extrusion of teeth?

Q44. Which of the following is not a processing wax?

a. Saliva contains higher Cl-

Q47. Which is true about adrenergic agonists?

a. Start orthodontic treatment for 21

a. Silane coupling agent

a. Load bearing reconstruction plate

a. CaOH for A, Zinc oxide for B

Q58. Identify the tooth as seen in the following images below:

a. Primary maxillary central incisor

Q59. Identify the suturing technique shown in the image below:

Q60. Identify the below given image:

a. 1st order bend

Q61. Identify the type of necrosis in the below image:

Q62. OPG of deciduous dentition, identify the anomaly.

a. 2yrs +/- 6 months

Q64. Image of direct retainer, identify?

a. Aker clasp design

a. Fixed appliance for Thumb sucking

a. A – normal, B – under, C – over

Q68. Identify the pathological condition in the bellow given image

Q69. Picture of missing Maxillary Right Central Incisor. Choice of pontic:

Q74. Platelets circulate in plasma for how many days?

a. Km of Enzyme A is greater than that of Enzyme B

a. Pyridoxine deficiency due to rifampicin use

a. Efficacy of A>B, Potency of both drugs are same

Q79. Virulence in mycobacteria is strongly associated with which of the following?

Q82. True statements regarding Images A and B

a. Necrosis of A is wedge shaped with the occluded vessel at the apex

Q85. What exactly is seen in the given below image?

a. Unilateral group function

Q86. True about Tanaka Johnson analysis

a. Only radiograph required

a. Fixed splinting for 2 weeks