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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2018

for students presently in

Class 10
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 204
Code 1000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60


Minutes on Section-III.

2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question


Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 42 +2 0
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 43 to 54 +2 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 55 to 66 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 67 to 80 +1 –0.25
SECTION – III CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 81 to 94 +1 –0.25
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 95 to 108 +1 –0.25

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.

5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 108 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Directions (Q. 1 to 4): In the following question there is a number/letter series with one term missing
shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternative given. Choose that number or letter.

1. 36, ?, 24, 18, 12


(A) 22 (B) 28
(C) 38 (D) 30

2. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, 64, 25, ?


(A) 81 (B) 100
(C) 125 (D) 121

3. C, Z, F, X, I, V, L, T, O, ?, ?
(A) O, P (B) P, Q
(C) R, R (D) S, R

4. 5824, 5242, ?, 4247, 3823


(A) 4467 (B) 4718
(C) 4856 (D) 5164

5. The letter series in the given question follows a pattern. Find out the missing letters to complete
the pattern.
gfe _ ig _ eii _ fei _ gf _ ii
(A) eifgi (B) figie
(C) ifgie (D) ifige
Space for Rough Work

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Directions (Q. 6 to 8): In each of the following questions choose appropriate option from given
alternatives such that the relationship defined by ‘:’ is preserved.

6. BEGK : ADFJ and PSVY : ?


(A) LOQT (B) ROUX
(C) OTUZ (D) ORUX

7. BLOCKED : YOLXPVW and ? : OZFMXS


(A) LAUNCH (B) DEBATE
(C) LABOUR (D) RESULT

8. Menu : Food and Catalogue : ?


(A) Rack (B) Bottle
(C) Library (D) Books

9. B’s mother is sister of A and daughter of C. D is daughter of A and sister of E. How is C related to
E?
(A) Father (B) Grandmother
(C) Grandfather or grand mother (D) Grandfather

Directions (Q. 10 to 11): Read the following Venn Diagram carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Teacher
10 12
5 Doctor
20
14
17
Musician
16
10. How many persons are related to all three?
(A) 20 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 17

11. Only Doctor is represented by?


(A) 16 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 10

12. If farmer ‘C’ has two daughters A and B as well as one son ‘D’. How is D related to A?
(A) Sister (B) Bhabhi (sister-in-law)
(C) Uncle (D) Brother

13. If Ajay is taller than Tara, but shorter than Atul, Atul is shorter than Sharad then who is tallest?
(A) Ajay (B) Tara
(C) Sharad (D) Atul
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Directions (Q. 14 to 15): The sign marked () stands for different mathematical signs. The mathematical
signs in the proper sequence are given in the alternatives. When () is replaced by the mathematically
sign given in one of the alternatives, in the same sequence, the equation becomes correct. Find the
correct alternative. Rule of BODMAS applies.

14. 24  9  2  6
(A) =, +, × (B) ×, =, +
(C) =, ×, + (D) +, ×, =

15. 24  16  5  8
(A) +, ×, = (B) +, =, ×
(C) =, ×, + (D) ×, =, +

Directions (Q. 16 to 17): In the of the following questions, you are given a figure (X) followed by four
alternative figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the
alternatives figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

16.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

17.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


Space for Rough Work

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Directions (Q. 18 to 19): In each of the following questions, a square transparent sheet with a pattern is
given figure (X). Find out from amongst the four alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D) as to how the pattern
would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

18.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

19.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (Q. 20 to 21): In each of the following questions a problem figure is given marked as (X). This
is followed by four answer figures. In the problem figure a blank is left which is shown by question mark.
Find the figure which completes the pattern by replacing question mark (?).

20.
?

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

21.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


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22. In a code language ‘RAJIV’ is coded as ‘WJKBS’, then how do we code the word ‘SINDHU’?
(A) VIEOJT (B) EVIOTJ
(C) WVJKB (D) TOJVEI

23. How many circles are there in the given figure?

(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 6

Directions (Q. 24 to 26): Find the missing character from among the given alternatives.

24. 4 13 3 21
12 7 9 5 9 6 8 5 2 5 12 ?
3 12 7 16
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 12

25. 1 2 1
2 3 5
3 4 6
14 29 ?
(A) 63 (B) 62
(C) 60 (D) 58
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26. 3 6 5

3 720 8 6 360 5 2 ? 4

10 2 2
(A) 80 (B) 90
(C) 100 (D) 200

27. Ram walks 7 km towards North and turns towards left and covers 3 km. Again he turns towards
left and walks 11 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 16 km (B) 21 km
(C) 12 km (D) 5 km

Direction (Q. 28 to 30 ): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D and E, sit around a circular table facing the centre and play ‘Rummy’. A is sitting one seat
away to the left of C, and B is sitting one seat away to the right of C.

28. If D sits between B and C, who sits to the immediate right of A?


(A) E (B) D
(C) B (D) C

29. Which of the following cannot be the correct seating arrangement of these persons either in
clockwise or anticlockwise direction?
(A) A B C D E (B) A D C E B
(C) A B D C E (D) A E C D B

30. If D is not sitting next to B, who is sitting between B and D?


(A) C (B) A
(C) E (D) Can’t be determined
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 42. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. Magnetic field does not interact with


(A) Moving charge (B) Stationary charge
(C) Any charge (D) Cannot say

32. Which of the following method is used in nuclear power plants to generate electricity
(A) Nuclear fission (B) Nuclear fusion
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

33. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy


(A) Wood (B) Petrol
(C) LPG (D) None of these

34. Resistance of a wire does not depends on


(A) Material of the wire
(B) Cross-section area of the wire
(C) Length of the wire
(D) Potential difference applied across the ends of wire

35. A particle enters a magnetic field perpendicularly and goes undeviated, (there is no other field
present) then this paticle must be
(A) Electron (B) Neutron
(C)  -Particle (D) Proton
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36. The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to


(A) Split nuclei (B) Sustain the reaction
(C) Dispose off spent fuel safely (D) Convert nuclear energy into electrical energy

37. Two free parallel straight wires carrying currents in opposite direction
(A) attract each other
(B) do not affect each other
(C) repel each other
(D) get rotated to be perpendicular to the each other

38. Two circular loop of radii 10 cm and 40 cm carries current of 1 A and 2 A respectively. Find the
ratio of magnitude of magnetic field at their centres
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 5 : 1

39. A geothermal power plant is feasible in region that


(A) are near the sea (B) have thermal plants
(C) have coal mines (D) are over hot spots in the crust

40. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit.


(A) Reduces substantially (B) Increases heavily
(C) Does not change (D) Varies continuously

41. Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find


(A) Direction of magnetic field
(B) Direction of current
(C) Direction of magnetic force acting on conductor
(D) None of these

42. The rating of domestic electric power supply in India is


(A) 220 V, 50 Hz (B) 200 V, 60 Hz
(C) 440 V, 120 Hz (D) 400 V, 40 Hz
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 43 to 54. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

43. Beakers A,B and C contain zinc sulphate, silver nitrate and iron(II)sulphate solutions
respectively. A piece of copper is added to each beaker. The colour of the solution will change to
blue in case of :
(A) Beaker A (B) Beaker B
(C) Beaker C (D) All the beakers

44. How much water should be added to 1L of an aqueous solution of HCl having pH = 1 to prepare a
solution having pH = 2?
(A) 0.9L (B) 1.0L
(C) 9.0L (D) 10.0L

45. The atomic number, mass number and number of valence electrons in a carbon atom are
respectively :
(A) 4, 6, 12 (B) 12, 6, 4
(C) 4, 12, 6 (D) 6, 12, 4

46. Which of the following is NOT a physical change?


(A) Boiling of water (B) Combustion of LPG
(C) Melting of ice (D) Hammering an iron block

47. Which among the following contains carbon as one of the constituent atoms?
(A) Formic acid (B) Nitric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) Phosphoric acid

48. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature?


(A) SO2 (B) K2O
(C) PbO2 (D) Na2O
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49. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium
chloride. Which of the following options correctly represents the type of reaction(s) involved?
(i) Displacement reaction (ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction (iv) Double displacement reaction
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) only
(C) (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iv)

50. Calcium hydroxide is also known as :


(A) Limestone (B) Slaked lime
(C) Quick lime (D) Bleaching powder

51. _____________ + dil.HCl  No reaction


Identify the metal :
(A) Na (B) Mg
(C) Cu (D) Ca

52. The colour of aqueous solution of copper sulphate is :


(A) Green (B) Yellow
(C) Blue (D) Colourless

53. Which of these acids do apples majorly contain?


(A) Formic acid (B) Tannic acid
(C) Malic acid (D) Lactic acid

54. Bronze majorly contains __________________ & ________________.


(A) Cu, Zn (B) Cu, Pb
(C) Cu, Sn (D) Cu, Ni

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 55 to 66. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

55. Which of the following rational numbers can be represented as terminating decimals?
12 15
(A) (B)
625 165
16 18
(C) (D)
265 315

56. The arithmetic mean and mode of the data is 24 and 12 respectively, then the median of the data
is
(A) 25 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 22

57. In the given figure, CAB = CED, CD = 8 cm, CE = 10 cm, BE = 2 C


cm, AB = 9 cm, AD = b and DE = a, the value of a + b is 8 cm 10 cm
(A) 13 cm (B) 15 cm D
(C) 12 cm (D) 9 cm b a E
2 cm
A 9 cm
B

4 3
58. The solution set of the system of equations  5y  7,  4y  5 is
x x
1   1 
(A)  , 1 (B)   ,1
3   3 
 1  1 
(C)   , 1 (D)  ,1
 3  3 
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59. Four years ago father’s age was 6 times that of his son. Twelve years from now, father’s age will
be twice that of the son. What is the ratio of father and son’s present ages?
(A) 6 : 1 (B) 7 : 1
(C) 8 : 2 (D) 7 : 2

60. The equations 2x – 3y + 5 = 0 and 6y – 4x = 10, when solved simultaneously, have


(A) only one solution (B) no solution
(C) only two solutions (D) infinite number of solutions

61. If tan15° = 2 – 3 , then the value of cot2 75° is


(A) 7 + 3 (B) 7 – 2 3
(C) 7 – 4 3 (D) 7 + 4 3

62. The mean of the values 1, 2, 3, …….n with respective frequencies x, 2x, 3x …… nx is:
n 1 2n  1
(A) (B)
2 6
n 2n  1
(C) (D)
2 3

area  DEF  A
63. In the given figure, DE || BC and AD : DB = 5 : 4, find .
area  CFB 
(A) 5 : 9 (B) 25 : 16 D E
(C) 25 : 81 (D) none of these
F
B C
64. A number when divided by 259 leaves a remainder 139. What will be the remainder when the
same number is divided by 37?
(A) 28 (B) 29
(C) 30 (D) 31

65. If ,  and  are the three zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x 3 – 64x – 14, what is the value of 3 +
3 + 3?
(A) 36 (B) 40
(C) 42 (D) 64

66. If  +  = 90° then cos2 + cos2 equals to:


1
(A) (B) 0
2
(C) 2 (D) 1
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III


Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 14 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 80. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

67. Calculate the value of current I in given circuit. 5Ω 5Ω


(A) 2 A
(B) 1 A
15 V
(C) 1.5 A 5Ω 5Ω 5Ω
(D) 5 A I

5Ω

68. Four identical lamps each of resistance 1000 ohm


are connected to 220 volts supply as shown in
figure. The reading of the ideal ammeter A is
220 V
220
(A) 4
1000 I
220 A
(B) 6
1000
220
(C) 5
1000
220
(D) 2
1000
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69. Two resistors are joined in parallel having equivalent resistance 6/5 ohm. If one of the resistance
wire is breaks then effective resistance become 2 ohm. Find the resistance of the wire that break:
3
(A)  (B) 2
5
6
(C)  (D) 3 Ω
5

70. Find the equivalent resistance across AB for the given A


circuit. 2Ω
(A) 1 Ω (B) 2 Ω 2Ω
(C) 3 Ω (D) 4 Ω 2Ω
2Ω

2Ω

71. In the given circuit reading of ideal voltmeter is :– 2Ω 2Ω


(A) 2 V
(B) 4 V
(C) 6 V 8V 4Ω 4Ω 2Ω V
(D) 8 V

72. The magnitude of magnetic field due to current carrying arc of I


radius R, having a current I substanding an angle of 60° at the
centre O is 60°
I I R
(A) 0 (B) 0 O
8R 10R
2 0I 0I
(C) (D)
4 R 12R
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73. What is the equivalent resistance between point A and B for the 3
given circuit. 3
(A) 2 Ω (B) 3 Ω 6
(C) 4 Ω (D) None of these 3

A 3 B

74. What is the value of current I in the given circuit ? 3 6 1


(A) 4 A
(B) 8 A
(C) 12 A I
(D) None of these
8V

75. The current flowing through branch BD for the given 6Ω B 3Ω


circuit will be.
(A) 5 A (B) 4 A
(C) 2 A (D) 0 A 15 V 30 V
3Ω

76. A square loop carrying a current I is situated near a long straight


current carrying wire such that the wire is parallel to one of the I
side of the loop and is in the plane of the loop as shown in the
figure.
The loop will
(A) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(B) Move away from the wire
(C) Move towards the wire
(D) Remain stationary 0

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77. In the given circuit current supplied by the cell is :– 4Ω


(A) 3 A (B) 1.2 A 2Ω
(C) 2 A (D) 0.3 A
4Ω
I

12 V

78. In conductors
(A) All the electrons are free to move
(B) There are no free electrons
(C) Some electrons are free to move
(D) All the electrons are bound to their parent atoms

79. A current of 2 A flows through a resistor of 5 Ω. The amount of heat produced in 10 seconds
across the resistor is :–
(A) 200 J (B) 100 J
(C) 10 J (D) 25 J

80. In the given circuit amount of power dissipated across 12 Ω


12 Ω resistor is :– 6A
A B
(A) 24 W 4Ω
(B) 48 W 6Ω
(C) 192 W
(D) 432 W
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 14 Multiple Choice Questions number 81 to 94. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

81. The conjugate acid of NH2 is :


(A) NH3 (B) N2H4
(C) NH4 (D) NH2

82. The hydrogen ion concentration and pH of the solution obtained by mixing 100ml of 1.0M HNO3
with 100ml of 0.8M KOH is :
(A) [H+] = 10–1, pH = 1 (B) [H+] = 10–2, pH = 2
+ –1
(C) [H ] = 10 , pH = 13 (D) [H+] = 10–2, pH = 12

83. Which of these reactions represents a disproportionation reaction?


(A) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr (B) 2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2
(C) 2H2O2  2H2O + O2 (D) CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O

84. Which among these is NOT used as a refining process in metallurgy?


(A) Liquation (B) Distillation
(C) Poling (D) Froth floatation

85. The products obtained when ammonium dichromate undergoes thermal decomposition are :
(A) Cr2O3, NH3 and H2O (B) Cr2O3, N2 and H2O
(C) Cr2O7, N2 and H2O (D) Cr2O7, NO2 and H2O

86. In amalgams, one of the constituent metals is essentially :


(A) Hg (B) Ag
(C) Au (D) Pt
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87. The correct order of increasing oxidation number of iodine in the following compounds is :
(A) HI < I2 < HIO4 < ICl (B) ICl < HI < I2 < HIO4
(C) HI < I2 < ICl < HIO4 (D) HIO4 < ICl < I2 < HI

88. AlCl3 behaves as an acid in accordance with :


(A) Arrhenius Concept (B) Bronsted-Lowry Concept
(C) Lewis Concept (D) All of these

89. The process of carrying out the reduction of metal oxides by heating with coke is termed as :
(A) Roasting (B) Smelting
(C) Zone refining (D) Ore dressing

90. In the equation,


xFeCl3 + H2S  2FeCl2 + yS + zHCl
The values of x, y and z respectively are :
(A) 2, 1, 4 (B) 1, 2, 2
(C) 2, 1, 2 (D) 3, 1, 1

91. Which of the following substances is NOT used as a raw material in solvay’s process?
(A) Sodium chloride (B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Ammonia (D) Sodium hydroxide

92. In Mond’s process, nickel is made to react with :


(A) C (B) CO
(C) H2 (D) O2

93. The average oxidation state of iron in Fe3O4 is :


(A) +8/3 (B) +3/8
(C) –8/3 (D) –3/8

94. Calcium oxychloride is a :


(A) Double salt (B) Acid salt
(C) Mixed salt (D) Basic salt
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 14 Multiple Choice Questions number 95 to 108. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

95. The graph of the polynomial p(x) = 2x 2 + 4x + 3 has its least value at the point ______
(A) (– 1, 9) (B) (1, 9)
(C) (– 1, 1) (D) (0, 3)

96. The sides of triangle are in the ratio 7 : 8 : 9 then


(A) angles of the triangle are in the ratio 7 : 8 : 9 (B) it is an acute angled triangle
(C) it is a right angled triangle (D) it is an obtuse angled triangle

97. Find the square root of 7 – 4 3


(A) 2 + 3 (B) 5 – 3
(C) 2 – 3 (D) 5 + 3

98. Minimum value of the polynomial p(x) = 4x 2 – 6x + 1 is


3 5
(A) – (B) –
4 4
5
(C) – (D) – 
16

cot 54o tan20o


99.  –2=?
tan36o cot 70 o
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) – 2 (D) 0
Space for Rough Work

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100. In the figure DF || AG, DE || AB, AB = 15, CD = 8, AD = x, DE = C


F
10, FG = y and CG = 6, then ratio x : y is: G
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3 D E
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2
A 15 B

101. Let O is any point inside a rectangle ABCD (shown in the figure), A D
then which of the following is true O
(A) OB2 + OD2 = OA2 + OC2
(B) OA2 + OB2 = OC2 + BC2
(C) AD2 + AB2 = OA2 + OB2 B C
(D) DC2 + BC2 = OD2 + OC2

1 1
102. If  and  are the zeroes of x2 – 4x + 1, then    is
 
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) – 5 (D) – 3

x10  1
103. If x2 – 5x + 1 = 0, then has the value
x5
(A) 2524 (B) 2525
(C) 2424 (D) 2010

2 1
104. If p = 2 3  2 3 , then
(A) p3 – 6p + 6 = 0 (B) p3 – 3p – 6 = 0
(C) p3 – 6p – 6 = 0 (D) p3 – 3p + 6 = 0
Space for Rough Work

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105. The biggest among the following is


1 1
(A) 22 (B) 3 3

1 1
(C) 6 6 (D) 8 8

106. In the given figure, ABC is a triangle (not on scale) in which AB = A


6 cm, AC = 8 cm, BC = 10 cm and AD  BC then AD2 = ? 6 cm 8 cm
(A) 23.04 cm (B) 23.05 cm
(C) 23.06 cm (D) 23.07 cm
B D C
10 cm

2 3 4 x 1
107. If sin 2  . . .............. = 1, 0° < x < 100° then the value of x is equal to:
1 2 3 x  2 
(A) 91° (B) 80°
(C) 49° (D) 46°

108. If cos + sin = 2 cos, then cos – sin = ?


(A) 2 tan  (B) 2 sin
2
(C) (D) none of these
cos   sin 
Space for Rough Work

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CLASS – X (PAPER – 1)
ANSWERS
-
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B
5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D
9. C 10. A 11. B 12. D
13. C 14. C 15. B 16. B
17. A 18. B 19. D 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. C 24. B
25. B 26. A 27. D 28. A
29. A 30. B 31. B 32. A
33. A 34. D 35. B 36. C
37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B
41. C 42. A 43. B 44. C
45. D 46. B 47. A 48. C
49. D 50. B 51. C 52. C
53. C 54. C 55. A 56. C
57. A 58. A 59. D 60. D
61. C 62. D 63. C 64. A
65. C 66. D 67. C 68. A
69. D 70. A 71. A 72. D
73. A 74. C 75. A 76. B
77. A 78. C 79. A 80. B
81. A 82. A 83. C 84. D
85. B 86. A 87. C 88. C
89. B 90. C 91. D 92. B
93. A 94. C 95. C 96. B
97. C 98. B 99. D 100. C
101. A 102. A 103. B 104. C
105. B 106. A 107. D 108. B

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