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ENGINEERS ACADEMY

CE : Full Length JEn : Mock Test Paper |1


1. In Shivaji's Council of Ministers the Prime 1. f'kokth ds eaf=ifj"kn esa iz/kkuea=h dks D;k dgk tkrk Fkk\
Minister was called? (a) is'kok (b) lfpo
(a) Peshwa (b) Sachiv
(c) ea=h (d) lkear
(c) Mantri (d) Samant
2. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls /kwi ds p'esa ds fy, mi;ksx
2. Which one of the following is used seen glasses? fd;k tkrk gS\
(a) Pyrex glass (b) Flint glass
(a) ikbjsDl dk¡p (b) f¶yaV dk¡p
(c) Crook glass (d) Crystal glass
(c) Øqd dk¡p (d) fØLVy dk¡p
3. Which Dehli sultan resorted to price control and
3. fnYyh ds fdl lqYrku us dher fu;U=.k vkSj jk'ku
rationing?
O;oLFkk vkjEHk fd;k Fkk\
(a) Bahlol lodi
(a) cgyksy yksnh
(b) Allaudin khilji
(b) vykmÌhu f[kyth
(c) Mohammad-bin-Tughlag
(c) eksgEen fcu rqxyd
(d) Balban
4. In the presidential system of government, the (d) cyou
president is 4. ljdkj dh v/;{kh; iz.kkyh esa jk"Vªifr gksrk gS&
(a) Head of the State (a) jkT; dk v/;{k
(b) Head of the Government (b) ljdkj dk v/;{k
(c) Head of the Executive (c) dk;Zikfydk dk v/;{k
(d) Head of the State and Head of the (d) jkT; dk v/;{k vkSj ljdkj dk v/;{k
Government 5. cktkj ckxokuh fdl Js.kh esa vkrh gS\
5. Market Gardening comes in which category?
(a) thfodk [ksrh
(a) Subsistance farming
(b) ,dy —f"k
(b) Monoculture
(c) m|ku —f"k
(c) Horticulture
(d) js'ke dhVikyu
(d) Sericulture
6. fo'o esa ^^rEckdw jfgr fnol** dc euk;k tkrk gS\
6. World "No Tobacco Day" was observed globally as?
(a) 31 ebZ (b) 15 twu
(a) 31 May (b) 15 June
(c) 2 twu (d) 20 twu
(c) 2 June (d) 20 June
7. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh igyh cgqmÌs'kh; ifj;kstuk
7. Which one of the following is first multipurpose
project constructed in india? dk fuekZ.k Hkkjr esa fd;k x;k\
(a) Tungabadra (b) Rihand (a) rqaxHknzk (b) fjgan
(c) Farraka Barrage (d) Damodar (c) QjDdk cSjst (d) nkeksnj
8. When was the first all India Postage Stamp 8. igyk vf[ky Hkkjrh; Mkd&fVdV dc tkjh fd;k
issued? x;k Fkk\
(a) 1856 (b) 1854 (a) 1856 (b) 1854
(c) 1850 (d) 1858 (c) 1850 (d) 1858
9. Who among the following Gupta Emperor was 9. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk xqIr lezkV ^^foØekfnR;** uke
know as "Vikramaditya"? ls tkuk tkrk gSA
(a) Kumara Gupta (b) Chandra Gupta-I (a) dqekj xqIr (b) pUnz xqIr&I
(c) Chandra Gupta-II (d) Samudra Gupta (c) pUnzxqIr&II (d) leqnz xqIr
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10. The Election Commission of India is? 10. Hkkjr dk fuokZpu vk;ksx\
(a) Quasi-legislative body (a) v/kZ fo/kk;h fudk; gS
(b) Executive body (b) dk;Z ikyd fudk; gS
(c) Quasi Judicial body (c) v/kZ U;kf;d fudk; gS
(d) An Independent body (d) ,d Lora= fudk; gS
11. Match List-I with list-II and select the correct 11. lwph&I dks lwph&II ls lqEesfyr dhft;s rFkk lwfp;ksa ds
answer using the codes given below the lists. uhps fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj dk
List-I List-II p;u dhft;s\
A. Dhobie itch 1. Virus lw p h -I lwp h -II
A. /kksch bp 1 - fo"kk.kq
B. Malaria 2. Bacteria
B. eysfj;k 2 - thok.kq
C. Pheumonia 3. Fungi
C. U;weksfu;k 3 - dod
D. Mumps 4. Worms
D. eEi~l 4 - —fe
Codes: A B C D
dwV % A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1 (c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
12. Which of the following atmospheric gases are 12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh ok;qe.Myh; xSals gfjr x`g
responsible for green house effect? izHkko gsrq mÙkjnk;h gS\
1. Carbon dioxide 1. dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM
2. Methane 2. ehFksu
3. Oxygen 3. vkWDlhtu
4. Nitrogen 4. ukbVªkstu
Select the correct answer the codes given fn;s x, dwVksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj dk p;u
bleow dhft;s
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 vkSj 2 (b) 2 vkSj 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(c) 1 vkSj 3 (d) 2 vkSj 4
13. The 12th five year plan of India mainly Focuses
13. Hkkjr dh ckjgoha iapo"khZ; ;kstuk dk eq[; mÌs';
on
gS \
(a) Accelerating Industrial Growth
(a) vkS|ksfxd fodkl dks xfr iznku djuk
(b) Increasing rate of Investment
(b) fuos'k dh nj dks rst djuk
(c) Accelerating Employment Growth
(c) jkstxkj o`f) dks rst djuk
(d) Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
(d) T;knk rst /kkj.k;h rFkk lekos'kh lao`f)
14. What is the symbol of world wild life fund
(WWF)? 14. fo'o oU; thou fuf/k (WWF) dk izrhd fpUg D;k gS\
(a) Bear (b) White Tiger (a) Hkkyw (b) 'osr ck?k
(c) Red Panda (d) Rhododendron (c) yky iaMk (d) cqa#p dk Qwy

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15. Disguised unemployment means? 15. izPNUu csjkstxkjh dk vFkZ D;k gS\
(a) Not working whole day (a) iwjs fnu dk;Z u djuk
(b) Production is less (b) mRiknu de gksuk
(c) Marginal Productivity is zero
(c) lhekar mRikndrk 'kwU; gksuk
(d) Working as self-employed
(d) Lo&jkstxkj ds :i esa dk;Z djuk
16. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is
appointed by 16. Hkkjr ds eq[; fuokZpu vk;qDr dh fu;qfDr fdlds }kjk

(a) Chief Justice of India


dh tkrh gS\
(b) Prime Minister (a) Hkkjr ds eq[; U;k;k/kh'k

(c) Parliament (b) iz/kkuea=h


(d) President (c) laln
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (d) jk"Vªifr
answer using codes given below the lists. 17. lwph&I dks lwph&II ls lqEesfyr dhft, rFkk lwfp;ksa ds
List-I List-II uhps fn;s x;s dwVksas dk mi;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj dk
A. Areometer 1. Measurement of altiude p;u dhft;sA
B. Ammeter 2. Measurement of engine lw p h -I lwp h -II
speed
A. ,sjksehVj 1- Å¡pkbZ ekiu
C. Anemometer 3. Measurement of electric
current
B. vehVj 2- bZatu xfr ekiu
D. Altimeter 4. Measurement of wind C. ,uheksehVj 3- fo|qr /kkjk ekiu
speed D. vkYVhehVj 4- iou osx ekiu
5. Measurement of air/gas 5- ok;q@xSl ?kuRo@Hkkj ekiu
density/weight.
dwV : A B C D
Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 4 3 2
18. LAN usVodZ esa izR;sd flLVe dh igpku gksrh gS&
18. In a LAN Network every system is identified by
(a) uke }kjk
(a) Name
(b) MAC ,Mªl
s }kjk
(b) MAC Address
(c) IP ,Mªsl }kjk
(c) IP Address
(d) Serial Number given by manufacture (d) fuekZrk }kjk nh xbZ Øe la[;k ls

19. Identify the incorrect pair middle tier of 19. iapk;rh jkt laLFkkvksa ds e/;orhZ Lrj ,oa lacaf/kr
panchayati Raj institution and the concerned state? jkT; ds =qfViw.kZ ;qXe dks igpkfu,\
(a) Khsetra samite – Uttar Pradesh (a) {ks= lfefr & mÙkj izns'k
(b) Panchayat Union councial – Tamil Nadu (b) iapk;r la?k ifj"kn & rfeyukMq
(c) Taluka Panchayat – Gujrat (c) rkyqdk iapk;r & xqtjkr
(d) Panchayat Samite – Madhya Pradesh (d) iapk;r lfefr & e/; izns'k
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20. After the enactment by parliament of india, the Date 20. Hkkjr dh laln }kjk vf/kfu;e fd, tkus ds ckn
of commencement of "Right to Information Act"? ^^lwpuk dk vf/kdkj vf/kfu;e** dk 'kqHkkjEHk gqvk\
(a) 15 June, 2005 (a) 15 twu] 2005 dks
(b) 22 June, 2005 (b) 22 twu] 2005 dks
(c) 2 October, 2005 (c) 2 vDVwcj] 2005 dks
(d) 12 October, 2005 (d) 12 vDVwcj] 2005 dks
21. According to Human Development Report 2016, 21. ekuo fodkl fjiksVZ 2016 ds vuqlkj] ekuo fodkl
India's rank in human development India is?
lwpdkad esa Hkkjr dk Øe gS\
(a) 130 (b) 134
(a) 130 (b) 134
(c) 136 (d) 139
(c) 136 (d) 139
22. Match the following and select the correct answer
22. fuEufyf[kr dks lqEesfyr dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, dwV
using the code given below
dk mi;ksx djrs gq, mÙkj nhft,&
List-I List-II
lw p h -I lwp h -II
(Iron-Deposit) (State)
¼ykSg &v;Ld teko½ ¼jkT;½
A. Mayurbhani 1. Karnataka
A. e;wjHkat 1 - dukZVd
B. Kundermukh Deposits 2. Orissa
B. dqUnszeq[k teko 2 - mM+hlk
C. Bailadila 3. Jharkhand
C. cSykfMyk 3 - >kj[k.M+
D. Bonai Range 4. Chhattisgarh
D. cksukbZ Js.kh 4 - NÙkhlx<+
Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 dwV : A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
23. Where Kajiranga National Park is located? 23. dkthjaxk jk"Vªh; m|ku dgk¡ fLFkr gS\
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Orissa (a) rfeyukMq (b) mM+hlk
(c) Rajasthan (d) Assam (c) jktLFkku (d) vle
24. Mudumalai Sanctuary is famous for? 24. eqnqeykbZ vHk;kj.; izfl) gS\
(a) Tigers (b) Bisons (a) ck?k (b) taxyh HkSlk
(c) Elephants (d) Birds (c) gkFkh (d) i{kh
25. Based on the new appointment of governor match 25. u;s jkT;iky in ij fu;qDr fd;s x;s gS\ lgh mÙkj dks
the correct answer- lqEesfyr dhft,\
A. Manipur 1. Najma Heptulla A - ef.kiqj 1. utek gsirqYyk
B. Punjab 2. V.P. Singh
B - iatkc 2. oh- ih- flag
C. Assam 3. Jagdish Mukhi
C - vle 3. txnh'k eq[kh
D. Andman Nicobar 4. Banwari lal Purohit
D - v.Meku fudksckj 4. cuokjh yky iqjksfgr
Island
vkblySa.M
Codes: A B C D
dwV % A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 4 2 (c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
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26. Who had propounded the dynamical theory of 26. TokjHkkVk dh mRifÙk lEcU/kh xfrd fl)kUr fdlus
origin of ocean tides? izfrikfnr fd;k\
(a) Harris (b) Airy (a) gSfjl (b) ,;jh
(c) Whewell (d) Laplace (c) ososy (d) ykIykl
27. The short radio waves are reflected from which
27. vk;ue.My dh fdl ijr ls jsfM+;ksa dh y?kq rjaxs
of the Ionospheric layer?
ijkofrZr gksrh gS\
(a) D–Layer (b) E–Layer
(a) Mh&ijr (b) bZ&ijr
(c) F–Layer (d) G–Layer
(c) ,Q&ijr (d) th&ijr
28. The portion of solar radiation energy reflected
back from the surface of object is called? 28. fdlh oLrq dh lrg ij igq¡pus okys fofdj.k ÅtkZ dk
(a) Absorption (b) Scattering ftruk Hkkx ijkorZu gksrk gS] dgykrk gS\
(c) Diffusion (d) Albedo (a) vo'kks"k.k (b) izdh.kZu
29. Which country was the first to launch artificial (c) folj.k (d) /koyrk
satellite? 29. Øf=e mixzg iz{ksi.k djus okyk izFke ns'k dkSu Fkk\
(a) USA (b) Russia (a) ;w-,l-,- (b) :l
(c) China (d) Germany (c) phu (d) teZuh
30. Nanotechnology is related to- 30. uSuksVsDuksykWth ¼vfrlw{e rjuhdh½ lEcfU/kr gS&
(a) Atomic Engineering
(a) ijek.kq ¼,Vksfed½ vfHk;kaf=dh
(b) Carbon Engineering
(b) dkcZu vfHk;kaf=dh ls
(c) Microbiology
(c) lw{ethofoKku ls
(d) Microphysics
(d) lw{e&HkkSfrdh ls
31. What is the theme of the 2016 world
Humanitarian Day? 31. 2016 fo'o ekuoh; fnol dk fo"k; D;k gS\
(a) Share Humanity (a) ekuork ds lk>k
(b) One Humanity (b) ,d ekuork
(c) People Helping People (c) yksxksa dks yksxksa dh enn djus
(d) Insprie the World's Humanity (d) fo'o ekuork ls izsfjr
32. Swez canal joins- 32. Qkjl dh [kkM+h vkSj vjc lkxj
(a) Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea (a) Qkjl dh [kkM+h vkSj vjc lkxj
(b) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea (b) yky lkxj vkSj Hkwe/; lkxj
(c) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea (c) Hkwe/;lkxj vkSj dkyk lkxj
(d) Red Sea and Arabian Sea (d) yky lkxj vkSj vjc lkxj
33. The longest river of Europe is– 33. ;wjksi dh lcls yEch unh gS&
(a) Rhine (b) Rhone
(a) jkbu (b) jksu
(c) Danube (d) Volga
(c) MsU;wc (d) oksYxk
34. The first women president of India National
34. Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dk¡xzsl dh igyh efgyk v/;{k Fkh\
Congress was-
(a) deyk nsoh pV~Vksi/;k;
(a) Kamla Devi Chattopdhyaya
(b) Sarojini Naidu (b) ljkstuh uk;Mw
(c) Annie Besant (c) ,uh fclsUV
(d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (d) jktdqekjh ve`r dkSj
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35. Who betrayed Siraj-Ud-Daula in the Battle of 35. 1757bZ- esa Iyklh dh yM+kbZ esa fljkt&mn&nkSyk dks
plassey in 1757? fdlus /kks[kk fn;k Fkk\
(a) Hyder Ali (b) Mir Qasim (a) gSnjvyh (b) ehjdkfle
(c) Mir Jaffar (d) Nawab of Awadh (c) ehjtkQj (d) vo/k dk uokc
36. Who among the following has written the famous 36. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls izfl) ys[kd us ^^ekyxqM+h
book 'malgudi Days' ? Mst** iqLrd fy[kh gS\
(a) V. S. Naipaul (a) oh- ,l- uk;iky
(b) Deepak Chopra (b) nhid pkSiM+k
(c) Rabindranath Tagore (c) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj
(d) R. K. Narayan (d) vkj- ds- ukjk;.k
37. Jaziya was reimaposed during the reign of – 37. ^^tkft;k** fdl 'kkld ds nkSjku iqu% ykxw fd;k x;k Fkk&
(a) Akbar (b) Aurangzeb (a) vdcj (b) vkSajxtsc
(c) Jahagir (d) Humayan (c) tgk¡xhj (d) áwek;w¡
38. The upanishads were translated into persian Dara 38. mifu"kn~ dk Qkjlh esa vuqokn fd;k x;k ftlds 'kh"kZd
Shikhoh were the title? nkjkf'kdksg Fks\
(a) Al–Fihrist (a) vy&fQgjhLr
(b) Kitab–Ul–Bayan (b) fdrkc&my&c;ku
(c) Majm–Ul–Bahrain (c) ete&my&cgjhu
(d) Sirr–I–Akbar (d) flj&bZ&vdcj
39. Gandhiji Launched the Non–Co–Operation 39. xk¡/khth }kjk vlg;ksx vkUnksyu izkjEHk fd;k x;k
Movement in– FkkA
(a) 1920 (b) 1919 (a) 1920 (b) 1919
(c) 1921 (d) 1922 (c) 1921 (d) 1922
40. Dyarchy was first introduced in India under– 40. }S/k 'kklu Hkkjr esa igyh ckj fdlds vUrxZr is'k fd;k
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 x;k Fkk\
(a) Hkkjr 'kklu vf/kfu;e 1935
(b) Morley – Minto Reforms
(b) ekysZ & feUVks lq/kkj
(c) Mont – Ford Reforms
(c) ekUVsD;w & psEl QksMZ lq/kkj
(d) Simon Commission Plan
(d) lkbeu deh'ku ;kstuk
41. In which year fundamental duties fo citizens were
Introduced by 42nd Amendment? 41. 42osa la'kks/ku }kjk ukxfjdksa dks ekSfyd dÙkZO; dks dc
ifjfpr djk;k x;k Fkk\
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(c) 1977 (d) 1980
(c) 1977 (d) 1980
42. In India, agriculture income is calculated by
42. Hkkjr esa] —f"kxr vk; dh x.kuk dh tkrh gS&
(a) Output method
(a) mRiknu fof/k
(b) Input method
(b) vk; fof/k
(c) Expenditure Method
(c) O;; fof/k
(d) Commodity flow method
(d) oLrq izokg fof/k
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43. NABARD was established in the 43. ukckMZ dh LFkkiuk dh x;h Fkh
(a) Fourth five year plan (a) prqFkZ iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(b) Fifth five year plan (b) ik¡poh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(c) Sixth five year plane (c) NBh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(d) Eigth five year plan (d) vkBoh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
44. Which place is called as 'Silicon Valley" of India? 44. Hkkjr esa dkSulk LFkku dks ^^lhfydkWu ?kkVh** dgrs gS\
(a) Delhi (b) Puna (a) fnYyh (b) iwuk
(c) Bengaluru (d) Hyderabad (c) caxykSj (d) gSnjkckn
45. TISCO plant is located near? 45. VhLdks dkj[kkuk vofLFkr gS\
(a) Patna (b) Darbhanga (a) iVuk (b) njHkaxk
(c) Dhanbad (d) Tatanagar (c) /kuckn (d) VkVkuxj
46. Match the List–I with List–II and select the 46. lgh dwV dk iz;ksx djrs gq, lwph&I dks lwph&II ds
correct answer using the codes given below lkFk lqEesfyr dhft,
List-I List-II lw p h -I lwp h -II
(Vitamine) (Chemical Compound) ¼foVkfeu½ ¼jklk;fud ?kVd½
A. Vitamin A 1. Thaimin A. foVkfeu A 1- Fkk;feu
B. Vitamin B1 2. Retinol B. foVkfeu B1 2- jsVhuky
C. Vitamin C 3. Ascorbic Acid C. foVkfeu C 3- ,LdkfcZd ,lhM+
D. Vitamin E 4. Tocopherol D. foVkfeu E 4- VsdksQsjksy
Codes: A B C D dwV % A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 (a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
47. ;fn firk dk jDr lewg 'A' vkSj ekrk dk jDr lewg 'O'
47. If father have blood group 'A' and mother have
blood group 'O' which one of following blood gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk jDr lewg buds iq= esa
group may present in their son? mifLFkr gksxk\
(a) B (b) AB (a) B (b) AB
(c) O (d) B, AB & O (c) O (d) B, AB & O
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 48. lgh dwV dk iz;ksx djrs gq, lwph&I dks lwph&II ds
answer using the code given below– lkFk lqEesfyr dhft,&
List-I List-II lw p h -I lwp h -II
(Deseases) (Organism) ¼chekjh½ ¼tho½
A. Malaria 1. Fungi A. eysfj;k 1- dod
B. Polimyclitis 2. Macteria B. iksfy;kse;syhVhl 2- thok.kq
C. Tuberculosis 3. Virus C. Vh-ch- 3- fo"kk.kq
D. Ring Worm 4. Protozoa D. nkn 4- izksVkstksvk
Codes: A B C D dwV % A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
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49. Virus of bird flue is also known as- 49. cMZ ¶yw ds ok;jl dks fdl uke ls tkuk tkrk gS&
(a) NH51 (b) NH15 (a) NH51 (b) NH15
(c) H 1 N 1 (d) H 5 N 1 (c) H 1 N 1 (d) H 5 N 1
50. Match the following 50. fuEufyf[kr dks lfEefyr dhft,
List-I List-II lw p h -I lwp h -II
(River) (Ocean/Sea)
¼unh½ ¼egklkxj@lkxj½
A. Murray River 1. Arabian Sea
A. ejsZ unh 1 - vjc lkxj
B. Congo River 2. Indian Ocean
B. dkaxks unh 2 - fgUn egklkdj
C. Nile River 3. Mediteranean Sea
C. uhy unh 3 - Hkwe/; lkxj
D. Indus River 4. Atlantic Ocean
D. flU/kq unh 4 - vVykafVd egklkxj
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 dwV % A B C D
(b) 2 4 3 1 (a) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 3 4 1
Direction : 51 & 52
funsZ’k : 51
o 52
Find the missing number from the given responses.
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls yqIr vad Kkr dhft,A
51. 8 9 7
51. 8 9 7
3 5 2
3 5 2
6 4 ?
6 4 ?
51 41 37
51 41 37
(a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7 (c) 6 (d) 7
52. 15 9 52.
20 15 9
20
25 7 25 7
? 29 29
12 ? 12

(a) 14 (b) 18 (a) 14 (b) 18


(c) 16 (d) 17 (c) 16 (d) 17
53. In a row of 20 students Sohan is third to the left 53. 20 fo|kfFkZ;kas dh iafDr esa lksgu] jke ds ck;sa rhljk gS
of Ram who is fourth from the right end after tks nk;sa vkSj ikap LFkku LFkkukUrfjr gksus ds ckn nk;sa
moving five place towards right. What is Ram’s Nksj ls pkSFkk gSA jke dh ck;sa Nksj izkjfEHkd fLFkfr
initial position from the left end ? D;k gS \
(a) 11th (b) 12th (a) 11 oka (b) 12 oka
(c) 9th (d) Cannot be determined (c) 9 oka (d) r; ugha dj ldrs gS
54. vyh dh vk;q 42 o"kZ rFkk mlds iq= dh vk;q 10 o"kZ gSA
54. Ali is 42 and his son’s age is 10. In how many
years will Ali’s age be twice the age of his son?
fdrus o"kksZ ds le; esa vyh dh vk;q mls iq= dh vk;q
dh nksxquh gksxh \
(a) 12 (b) 22 (a) 12 (b) 22
(c) 32 (d) 42 (c) 32 (d) 42
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55. From the given alternative words select the word 55. fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls og 'kCn pqfu, tks fn, x,
which can be formed using the letters of the 'kCn ds v{kjksa dk iz;ksx djds cuk;k tk ldrk gS&
given word
EXCRUCLATING
EXCRUCLATING
(a) CIRCLE (b) EXCLAIM
(a) CIRCLE (b) EXCLAIM
(c) EXCURSION (d) EXECUTE
(c) EXCURSION (d) EXECUTE
56. lqcg 9 cts ls 'kke 9 cts rd ?kM+h fdruh ckj ljy
56. How many times, are the hands of a clock are
in straight line between 9 am to 9 pm in a day? js[kk cukrh gS\
(a) 12 times (b) 11 times (a) 12 ckj (b) 11 ckj
(c) 24 times (d) 22 times (c) 24 ckj (d) 22 ckj
57. The calender for the year 2007 will be the same 57. dkSuls o"kZ dk iapkx 2007 ds iapkx ds leku gksxk\
for the year? (a) 2013 (b) 2012
(a) 2013 (b) 2012 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
(c) 2017 (d) 2018 58. ;fn A cka;h vksj ls 15th LFkku rFkk B nk;h vksj ls
58. If A is 15 from the left end and B is 13th from
th
13th LFkku gS rFkk ;fn mu nksuksa ds eè; 12 O;fDr gks
the right end if there are 12 persons in between
rks] ml ifDr esa dqy O;fDr;ksa fd la[;k D;k gksxh\
them then, what is the total number of person in
the row? (a) 14 (b) 40
(a) 14 (b) 40 (c) 12 (d) Kkr ugha dj ldrs
(c) 12 (d) Cannot be determine 59. ;fn × = –,  = +, + = , rFkk – = × fuEu esa ls dkSulk
59. If × = –,  = +, + = , and – = × which of the lehdj.k lgh gS \
following is the correct equation ? (a) 3 – 5  6 × 8 + 2 = 19
(a) 3 – 5  6 × 8 + 2 = 19 (b) 4 – 5  7 × 16 + 2 = 19
(b) 4 – 5  7 × 16 + 2 = 19 (c) 18 + 6  10 × 1 – 2 = 17
(c) 18 + 6  10 × 1 – 2 = 17 (d) 20 × 16 + 2 – 3  4 = 2
(d) 20 × 16 + 2 – 3  4 = 2 60. dkSuls fpUgksa dh vnyk&cnyh lehdj.k dks lgh
60. Which of the following interchange of signs cuk,xh \
would make the equation correct ?
8 × 6 + 2 = 22
8 × 6 + 2 = 22
(a) +, ×, 2 and 6 (b) +, ×, 6 and 8
(a) +, ×, 2 and 6 (b) +, ×, 6 and 8
(c) +, ×, 2 and 8 (d) +, ×, 2 and 22
(c) +, ×, 2 and 8 (d) +, ×, 2 and 22
Directions : 61 to 66
funsZ'k : 61 ls 66
In each of the following questions. Select the related fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lacfa /kr 'kCn
letter / word / number from the give alternatives. @ v{kjksa @ la[;ka dks pqfu;sA
61. 2764 : 3763 :: ? : 5443 61. 2764 : 3763 :: ? : 5443
(a) 2536 (b) 2356 (a) 2536 (b) 2356
(c) 2563 (d) 5236 (c) 2563 (d) 5236
62. BVSC : YEHX :: MRCP : ? 62. BVSC : YEHX :: MRCP : ?
(a) NJXK (b) LKXM (a) NJXK (b) LKXM
(c) NIXK (d) OIYM (c) NIXK (d) OIYM
63. EGIK : FILO :: FHJL : ? 63. EGIK : FILO :: FHJL : ?
(a) GJMP (b) GMJP (a) GJMP (b) GMJP
(c) JGMP (d) JGPM (c) JGMP (d) JGPM
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64. 7 : 56 :: 14 : ? 64. 7 : 56 :: 14 : ?
(a) 205 (b) 210 (a) 205 (b) 210
(c) 118 (d) 182 (c) 118 (d) 182
65. Peacock : India :: Bear : ? 65. eksj : Hkkjr :: Hkkyw : ?
(a) Australia (b) America (a) vkLVªsfy;k (b) vesfjdk
(c) Russia (d) England (c) :l (d) bXyS.M
66. Ornithologist : Birds : : Entomologist : ? 66. if{kfoKkuh : i{kh : : dhV foKkuh : ?
(a) Insects (b) Animals
(a) dhM+s (b) i'kq
(c) Plants (d) Viruses
(c) ikS/ks (d) fo"kk.kq
Directions : 67 to 72
In each of the following questions. Select the
funsZ'k : 67 ls 72
missing letter / word / number in the given series. fuEufyf[kr iz ' uks a es a fn, x, Üka ` [ kyk es a yq I r
67. ACE, GIK, ? , SUW, YAC 'kCn@v{kjksa@la[;ka dks pqf u;sA
(a) MPQ (b) MOQ 67. ACE, GIK, ? , SUW, YAC
(c) MOP (d) MPR (a) MPQ (b) MOQ
68. 10, 100, 200, 310, ? (c) MOP (d) MPR
(a) 400 (b) 410 68. 10, 100, 200, 310, ?
(c) 420 (d) 430 (a) 400 (b) 410
69. BE, IL, ?, WZ (c) 420 (d) 430
(a) PS (b) CE 69. BE, IL, ?, WZ
(a) PS (b) CE
(c) LN (d) SU
(c) LN (d) SU
70. 2, 0, 3, 1, ?, 2, 5, 3
70. 2, 0, 3, 1, ?, 2, 5, 3
(a) 4 (b) 3
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
(c) 2 (d) 1
71. DHK, GKN, JNQ, ?
71. DHK, GKN, JNQ, ?
(a) MRU (b) MQT
(a) MRU (b) MQT
(c) LPS (d) NRU
(c) LPS (d) NRU
72. 1, 5, 25, 125, ?, ?, ?
72. 1, 5, 25, 125, ?, ?, ?
(a) 245, 485, 965 (a) 245, 485, 965
(b) 25, 325, 425 (b) 25, 325, 425
(c) 625, 3225, 15605 (c) 625, 3225, 15605
(d) 625, 3125, 15625 (d) 625, 3125, 15625
73. Which letter represents teachers who are women? 73. dkSulk v{kj v/;kid dks n'kkZrk gS tks efgyk gS\

Teachers AK B Men v/;kid AK B iq:"k


L M L M
TU TU
Women efgyk
(a) B (b) AK (a) B (b) AK
(c) L (d) TU (c) L (d) TU
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74. A cube of 4 × 4 × 4 which all sides are coloured 74. 4 × 4 × 4 dk ?ku ftlds lHkh fdukjs yky jax ls jaxs
in red are cut into smaller cubes of size 1 × 1 gSA 1 × 1 × 1 fdukjs ls NksVs ?ku esa dkVk tkrk gSA nks
× 1. How many two sides red coloured cube
fdukjs yky jax ls jaxs gq, fdrus ?ku gksaxs\
will be there ?
(a) 8 (b) 48
(a) 8 (b) 48
(c) 24 (d) 16
(c) 24 (d) 16
75. A rFkk B Øe'k% 5 fdeh-@?kaVs vkSj 7 fdeh-@?kaVs dh
75. A and B start walking towards opposite end of
a 17 km long straight road at a speed of 5 km/ pky ls 17 fdeh- yEch lM+d ds foijhr Nksj dh vksj
hr and 7 km/hr respectively How far minimum pyuk izkjEHk djrs gSA ,d ?kaVs ckn os ,d nwljs ls de
apart can they be after one hour ? ls de fdruh nwjh ij gks ldrs gS\
(a) 18 (b) 11 (a) 18 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 10 (c) 12 (d) 10
76. Introducing a woman, A man said, “Her husband 76. ,d efgyk dk ifjp; djkrs gq,] ,d vkneh us dgk]
is the only son of my mother’. How is the man ^mldk ifr esjh ek¡ dk ,dykSrk iq= gSA* iq:"k] efgyk
related to the woman ?
ls dSls lacaf/kr gS \
(a) Husband
(a) ifr
(b) Sister
(b) cgu
(c) Mother-in-law
(c) enj&bu&ykW
(d) Maternal Aunt
77. From the given alternative words, select the word (d) ekeh
which cannot be formed using the letters of the 77. fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls og 'kCn pqfu,] tks fn,
given word x, 'kCn ds v{kjksa dk iz;ksx djds ugha cuk;k tk
REHABILITATION ldrk\
(a) ALIBI (b) BATTALION REHABILITATION
(c) BILLION (d) BLATANT (a) ALIBI (b) BATTALION
78. If in a certain code language ‘SUMIT’ is written (c) BILLION (d) BLATANT
as ‘IGOSH’. How would you code word
78. ;fn ,d dksM Hkk"kk esa 'SUMIT' dks 'IGOSH' fy[kk
‘MOHAN’?
tkrk gS] rks 'MOHAN' dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(a) AMJMO (b) AMJOM
(a) AMJMO (b) AMJOM
(c) OTMBN (d) OMTAN
(c) OTMBN (d) OMTAN
79. Four usual dice are thrown on the ground. The
total of number on the top faces of these four 79. pkj lkekU; ikls tehu ij Qsd a s tkrs gSAa bu pkjksa ikls
dice is 13 as the top face showed 4, 3, 1 and 5 ds Åijh la[;kvksa dk dqy ;ksx 13 gS tks fd 4, 3, 1
respectively. What is the total of the faces ,oa 5 dks n’kkZrs gS] rks tehu dks Nwus okyh Lrgksa dh
touching the ground ? la[;kvksa dk ;ksx D;k gksxk\
(a) 12 (a) 12
(b) 13 (b) 13
(c) 15 (c) 15
(d) Cannot be determine (d) fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk
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80. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 80. ,d ckyd vius firk dks <wa< jgk gSA og 90 ehVj iwoZ
metres in the east before turning to his right. He dks tkdj nk;sa ?kwerk gSA og 20 ehVj pydj fQj nk;sa
went 20 metres before turning to his right again
eqMd
+ j vius firk dks <w<a rk gqvk vius pkpk ds ?kj 30
to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30
metres from his point. His father was not there. ehVj pydj igqapkA mlds firk ogka ugha feysA ;gka
From here he went 100 metres to his north before ls 100 ehVj nwj mÙkj fn'kk esa pydj mls mlds firk
meeting his father in a street. How far did the ,d xyh esa feysA vkjfEHkd LFkku ls fdruh nwjh ij
son meet his father from the starting point ? mls mlds firk feys \
(a) 80 m (b) 100 m
(a) 80 ehVj (b) 100 ehVj
(c) 260 m (d) 140 m
(c) 260 ehVj (d) 140 ehVj
81. M, D, R, P and Q are all of different weight. R
is only lighter than M and P is lighter than Q and 81. M, D, R, P vkSj Q lHkh dk otu vyx&vyx gSA R
D. Which of them is the second lightest ? flQZ M ls gYdk gS rFkk P, Q vkSj D nksuksa ls gYdk
(a) Q (b) D gSA buesa ls dkSulk nwljk lcls gYdk gS \
(c) Either Q or D (d) P (a) Q (b) D
82. Which of the following diagrams indicates the (c) ;k rks Q ;k D (d) P
best relation between
82. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk vkjs[k ifr] iRuh] ifjokj ds
Husband, Wife, Family
e/; lac a/k dks Js"B rjhds ls n'kkZrk gS\

(a) (b)
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(c) (d)
83. Arrange the following words or per order in the
dictionary. 83. fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa dks 'kCndks"k esa fn, x, Øe ds
1. Grasp 2. Granite vuqlkj fy[ks
3. Grass 4. Graph 1. Grasp 2. Granite
5. Grape 3. Grass 4. Graph
(a) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 5. Grape
(c) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 (a) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
Direction : 84 to 89 (c) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
Select the one which is different from other three funsZ'k : 84 ls 89
alternatives.
mls pqfu, tks vU; rhuksa fodYiksa ls fHkUu gSA
84. (a) ONMP (b) TUSQ
84. (a) ONMP (b) TUSQ
(c) RQPS (d) KJIL
(c) RQPS (d) KJIL
85. (a) MIGE (b) XTQO
85. (a) MIGE (b) XTQO
(c) RNKI (d) HDAY
(c) RNKI (d) HDAY
86. (a) 15, 64 (b) 12, 72
86. (a) 15, 64 (b) 12, 72
(c) 14, 84 (d) 13, 78
(c) 14, 84 (d) 13, 78
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87. (a) India (b) Pakistan 87. (a) Hkkjr (b) ikfdLrku
(c) China (d) Asia (c) phu (d) ,f'k;k
88. (a) 1089 (b) 529 88. (a) 1089 (b) 529
(c) 961 (d) 1681 (c) 961 (d) 1681
89. (a) 2, 3, 5, 8 (b) 4, 5, 7, 10 89. (a) 2, 3, 5, 8 (b) 4, 5, 7, 10
(c) 7, 8, 9, 11 (d) 10, 11, 13, 16 (c) 7, 8, 9, 11 (d) 10, 11, 13, 16
90. In a certain code, TRIPLE is written as 90. ,d dwV Hkk"kk esa] TRIPLE dks SQHOKD fy[kk
SQHOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that tkrk gSA ml dwV Hkk"kk esa DISPOSE dks fdl izdkj
code ? fy[kk tk,xk \
(a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI (a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI
(c) ESJTPTF (d) ESOPSID (c) ESJTPTF (d) ESOPSID
91. Arrange the following words in meaningful order. 91. fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa dks lkFkZd Øe esa fyf[k,&
1. Bus 1. cl
2. Bullock Cart 2. cSyxkM+h
3. Aeroplane 3. gokbZtgkt
4. Horse
4. ?kksM+k
5. Rocket
5. jksdsV
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
92. Statement: All ties are shirts.
92. dFku : lHkh VkbZ 'kVZ gSA
Some pants are shirts.
dqN isaV 'kVZ gSA
Conclusions: I. Some pants are ties.
fu"d"kZ : I. dqN isaV VkbZ gSA
II. No ties are pants.
II. dksbZ VkbZ isUV ugha gSA
(a) If only I follows
(a) ;fn dsoy I vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(b) If only II follows
(b) ;fn dsoy II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows (c) ;fn I ;k II vuqlj.k djrs gSA

93. If ROAD = 152 and MAP = 90, (d) ;fn u rks I u gh II vuqlj.k djrs gSA
then RAIL = ? 93. ;fn ROAD = 152 ,oa MAP = 90 gks,
(a) 120 (b) 140 rks RAIL = ?
(c) 160 (d) 180 (a) 120 (b) 140
94. In a certain code, NUMERICAL is written as (c) 160 (d) 180
LMUIREACN. How is PUBLISHED written 94. ,d dwV Hkk"kk es]a NUMERICAL dks LMUIREACN
in that code ? fy[kk tkrk gSA ml dwV Hkk"kk esa PUBLISHED dks
(a) DUBLISHEP (b) DBULISEHP fdl izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(c) DBUSILHEP (d) DBUSILEHP (a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI
95. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which (c) ESJTPTF (d) ESOPSID
of the answer figures is the right image of the
95. ;fn ,d niZ.k dks MN js[kk ij j[kk tk;s rks nh xbZ
given figure?
mÙkj vkd`fr dh lgh izfrfcEc gksxh\
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Question figure: iz'Uk vkd`fr %
M M

N N
Answer figures: mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(a) (b) (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)

96. Select the answer figure in which the question 96. nh xbZ mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls ml mÙkj vkd`fr dks
figure is hidden/embedded. pqfu, ftlesa iz'u vkd`fr fufgr gSA
Question Figure : iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer Figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(a) (b) (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)

97. Which answer figure will complete the pattern 97. dkSu lh mÙkj vkd`fr iz'u vkd`fr ds izfr:i dks iwjk
in the question figure? djsxh \
Question figure :
iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(a) (b) (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)

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98. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown 98. uhps iz'u vkd`fr;ksas esa fn[kk, vuqlkj dkxt dks
below in the question figures. From the given eksMd
+ j dkVus rFkk [kksyus ds ckn og fdl mÙkj
answer figures, indicate how it will appear when
vkd`fr tSlk fn[kkbZ nsxk\
opened.
Questions figures:
iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ :
o
o

Answer Figures: mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ :


oo o o oo o o

(a) (b) (a) (b)


oo o o oo o o
oo o

oo
o

oo
o
oo

o
oo

o o
(c) o (d) (c) (d)
oo o

oo
o
oo

o o o
99. Find the number of triangles in the given figure? 99. fuEu vkd`fr esa f=Hkqtksa dh la[;k Kkr dhft,&

(a) 16 (b) 18 (a) 16 (b) 18


(c) 19 (d) 21 (c) 19 (d) 21

100. A word is represented by only one set of numbers 100. ,d 'kCn dsoy ,d la[;k&lewg }kjk n'kkZ;k x;k gS]
are given in any one of the alternatives. The tSlk fd fodYiksa esa ls fdlh ,d esa fn;k x;kgSA
sets of numbers given in the alternatives are fodYiksa esa fn, x, la[;k&lewg v{kjksa ds nks oxks± }kjk
represented by two classes of alphabets as in n'kkZ, x, gSa] tSlk fd uhps fn, x, nks vkO;wgksa esa gSA
two matrices given below. The columns and rows
vkO;wg-1 ds LrEHkksa vkSj iafDr dh la[;k 0 ls 4 esa nh
of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that
of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter
xbZ gS vkSj vkO;wg-2 dh 5 ls 9A bu vkO;wgksa ls ,d
from these matrices can be represented first by v{kj dks igys ml dh iafDr vksj ckn esa LrEHk la[;k }kjk
its row and next by its column, e.g., 'F' can be n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gSA mnkgj.k ds fy, 'F' dks 02, 33
represented by 02, 33 etc., and 'P' can be vkfn }kjk n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gS rFkk 'P' dks 56, 88
represented by 56, 88 etc. Similarly, you have to vkfn }kjk n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gSA blh rjg ls vkidks
identify the set for the word 'POSE'.
iz'u esa fn, 'kCn 'POSE' ds fy, lewg dks igpkuuk gSA
Matrix-I Matrix-II
Matrix-I Matrix-II
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 D E F I N 5 O P R S T
0 D E F I N 5 O P R S T
1 I N D E F 6 S T O P R
1 I N D E F 6 S T O P R
2 E F I N D 7 P R S T O
2 E F I N D 7 P R S T O
3 N D E F I 8 T O P R S
3 N D E F I 8 T O P R S
4 F I N D E 9 R S T O P
4 F I N D E 9 R S T O P
(a) 87, 55, 89, 43 (b) 68, 98, 58, 21
(a) 87, 55, 89, 43 (b) 68, 98, 58, 21
(c) 75, 86, 67, 14 (d) 56, 67, 77, 01 (c) 75, 86, 67, 14 (d) 56, 67, 77, 01
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16 | JEn : Mock Test Paper CE : Full Length
101. A material has identical properties in all directions, 106. The ratio of the flexural strengths of two square
it is said to be beams one placed with two sides horizontal and
(a) Homogeneous (b) Isotropic the other placed with one diagonal vertical and
other horizontal is
(c) Elastic (d) Orthotropic
102. In the case of pure bending, the beam will bend (a) 2 (b) 3
into an arc of a 1
(a) Circle (b) Parabola (c) 5 (d)
2
(c) Ellipse (d) Hyperbola 107. The radius of Mohr's circle of stress of a strained
103. Given that for an element in a body of element is 20 N/mm2 and minor principal tensile
homogeneous isotropic material subjected to plane stress is 10 N/mm2. The major principal stress is
stress; ex, ey and ez are normal strains in x, y (a) 30 N/mm2 (b) 50 N/mm2
and z directions respectively and  is the Poisson's
(c) 60 N/mm2 (d) 100 N/mm2
ratio, the magnitude of unit volume change of
the element is given by 108. The stepped cantilever is subjected to moments,
M as shown in the figure below. The vertical
(a) ex + ey + ez (b) ex – (ey + ez)
deflection at the free end (neglecting self weight)
1 1 is
1
(c) (ex + ey + ez) (d) + + M
e x e y ez
M
104. For the loaded beam shown in the figure, the 2EI
EI
correct shear force diagram is
P P L/2 L/2
B C ML2 ML2
A D (a) (b)
8EI 4EI
L 2L L
ML2
(c) (d) Zero
(a) (b) 2EI
109. A fixed beam AB is subjected to triangular load
(c) (d) varying from zero at end A to w per unit length
at end B. The ratio of fixed end moment at B
105. For the beam shown in the given figure, the to A will be
maximum positive bending moment is equal to
the maximum negative bending moment. The 1 1
(a) (b)
value of L1 is 2 3
w/m 2 3
(c) (d)
3 2
110. If a point load acting at the mid-span of a fixed
beam of uniform section produces fixed end
L1 L L1 moments of 60 kN-m, then the same load spread
L L uniformly over the entire span will produce fixed
(a) (b) end moments equal to
2 3
L L (a) 20 kN-m (b) 30 kN-m
(c) (d) (c) 40 kN-m (d) 45 kN-m
2 2 2
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CE : Full Length JEn : Mock Test Paper | 17
111. When a load is applied to a structure with rigid Which of the following assumptions are valid?
joints (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) There is no rotation or displacement of joint (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) There is no rotation of joint 115. Bentonite is a material obtained due to the
(c) There is no displacement of joint weathering of
(d) There can be rotation and displacement of (a) Limestone (b) Quartzite
joint but the angle between the members
(c) Volcanic ash (d) Shales
connected to the joint remains same even
after application of the load 116. A soil has bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water
content 10%. The dry density is
112. Consider the following methods:
(a) 20 kN/m3 (b) 15 kN/m3
1. Slope deflection method
(c) 18 kN/m3 (d) 19 kN/m3
2. Three moment method
117. The ratio of the shear strength of undisturbed
3. Column analogy method
soil to that of remolded soil is known as the
4. Kani's method
(a) Liquidity index
Which of the above method(s) is/are the force
method of structural analysis (b) Activity
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Relative consistency
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these (d) Sensitivity
113. A simply supported beam with an overhang is 118. Compaction of soil is measured in terms of
traversed by a unit concentrated moment from (a) Dry density
left to the right as shown below (b) Specific gravity
Direction of motion
M=1 (c) Compressibility
A B (d) Permeability
119. Clayey soils are best compacted by
L/2 L
(a) Sheep feet rollers
The influence line for reaction at B is given by
(b) Vibratory rollers
1
(c) Heavy drum rollers
L
(a) 1 (d) Ramming and pneumatic tampering

2L 120. Approximate ratios of the permeability's of two
clayey soils having D10 = 0.6 mm and D10 = 0.3
1
(b) mm respectively is
L
(a) 4.0 (b) 3.75
1
(c) (c) 4.25 (d) 3.5
L
121. Darcy's law for flow through soil is valid if
(d) Zero Reynold's number is less than
114. Consider the following (a) 4000 (b) 3000
Assumptions in the analysis of a plane truss: (c) 2000 (d) 1
1. The individual members are straight
122. The unit of the coefficient of consolidation is
2. The individual members are connected by
(a) cm2 /gm (b) cm2 /sec
frictionless hinges.
(c) gm/cm2 /sec (d) gm-cm/sec
3. The loads and reactions acts only at the joints.
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18 | JEn : Mock Test Paper CE : Full Length
123. In tri-axial compression test, the deviator stress Codes: A B C D
is given by (a) 4 3 1 5
(a) 1 + 3 (b) 1 – 3 (b) 2 5 4 3
1 1 (c) 4 5 1 3
(c) ( + 3) (d) ( – 3) (d) 2 3 4 5
2 1 2 1
130. What is the most common cause of acidity in
124. The unconfined compressive strength of a pure
water?
clay soil is 100 kN/m2. What is the value of
cohesion of the soil in kN/m2? (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Nitrogen
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) Hydrogen (d) Carbon dioxide
(c) 75 (d) 50 131. Which one of the following filters will produce
125. Multi-under -r eamed piles ar e gener ally water of higher bacteriological quality?
provided in (a) Slow sand filter
(a) Silty soil (b) Rapid sand filter
(b) Sandy soil (c) Pressure filter
(c) Expansive clayey soil (d) Dual media filter
(d) Gravelly sandy soil 132. At break point chlorination the residual chlorine
126. Mechanical stabilization of the soil is done with (a) zero (b) minimum
the help of
(c) maximum (d) reappears
(a) Cement
133. For a grit channel, if the recommended flow
(b) Lime velocity is 0.25 m/s and the detention period is
(c) Bitumen 1 minute, then length of the tank is
(d) Proper grading (a) 15 m (b) 25 m
127. The average domestic water consumption per (c) 32.5 m (d) 40 m
capita per day for an Indian city, as per IS 1172-
134. In a separate sewerage system, the most suitable
1963, may be taken as
sewer section is
(a) 135 l/c/d (b) 210 l/c/d
(a) Circular (b) Elliptical
(c) 240 l/c/d (d) 270 l/c/d
(c) Egg-shaped (d) Rectangular
128. The value, which allows the flow only in one
135. Pollution by depletion of ozone layer, in the
direction, is a
environment, is caused due to the reaction of
(a) Reflux valve (b) Sluice valve ozone with
(c) Gate valve (d) None of these
(a) Carbon monoxide
129. Match List -I (equipment) with List-II
(b) Chlorine
(Parameter) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists: (c) Sulphur dioxide
List-I List-II (d) Nitrous oxide
A. Tintometer 1. Temperature 136. Which one of the following pollutants or pairs of
pollutants is formed due to photochemical
B. Nephelometer 2. Colour
reactions?
C. Imhoff cone 3. Turbidity
(a) CO alone (b) O3 and PAN
D. Muffle furnace 4. Settleable solids
(c) PAN and NH3 (d) NH3 and CO
5. Volatile solids
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CE : Full Length JEn : Mock Test Paper | 19
137. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a beam 144. Which one of the following predicts the effective
with 'd' as the effective depth, in limit state modulus of elasticity of concrete?
method of design for Fe 415 steel is
EC EC
(a) 0.46d (b) 0.48d (a) (b)
1  1  2
(c) 0.50d (d) 0.53d
138. What is the modular ratio to be used in the EC EC
(c) (d)
analysis of RC beams using working stress 1  3 1  5
method if the grade of concrete is M20? 145. The difference between gross diameter and
(a) 18.6 (b) 13.3 nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm
(c) 9.9 (d) 6.5 diameter is

139. The side face reinforcement, if required, in a T- (a) 1.0 mm (b) 1.5 mm
beam will be (c) 2.0 mm (d) 2.5 mm
(a) 0.1% of the web area 146. In a diamond riveting, for a plate of width 'b' and
(b) 0.15% of the web area rivet diameter 'd', the efficiency of the joint is
given by
(c) 0.2% to 0.3% of the web area depending
upon the breadth of the web (b  d) (b  2d)
(a) (b)
(d) Half the longitudinal reinforcement b b
140. In a Pedestal, the factor by which the effective
(b  d) (b  2d)
length should not exceed the lateral dimension is (c) (d)
d d
(a) 2 (b) 3
147. In a tension member if one more than one rivet
(c) 4 (d) 5 hole are off the line, the failure of the member
141. An axially loaded column is of 300 mm × 300 depends upon
mm size. Effective length of column is 3 m. (a) Pitch
What is the minimum eccentricity of the axial
(b) Gauge
load for the column ?
(c) Diameter of the rivet holes
(a) 0 (b) 10 mm
(d) All of the above
(c) 16 mm (d) 20 mm
148. If 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars then the
142. Prestress loss due to friction occurs
minimum width of lacing bar should be
(a) Only in post-tensioned beams
(a) 40 mm (b) 60 mm
(b) Only in pre-tensioned beams
(c) 80 mm (d) 100 mm
(c) In both post-tensioned and pretensioned
149. What is the effective length of column shown
beams
below.
(d) None of these
143. Resultant stress in the cross-section of a
prestressed beam comprises of
L
(a) Prestress + dead load stress + live load stress
Hinge
(b) Prestress + live load stress
(c) Prestress + live load stress
(a) 0.8 L (b) L
(d) Prestress only
(c) 1.2 L (d) 2 L
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150. Lacings are subjected to 157. Flow through a venture flume is maximum when
(a) Transverse loading the depth at the throat is
(b) Axial loading plus bending (a) half
(c) Axial loading plus shear force (b) one third
(d) Axial loading only (c) two third
151. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to (d) equal to the total energy of flow
(a) Minimum weight 158. A point in a compressible flow where the velocity
of fluid is zero, is called
(b) Minimum depth
(a) Critical point (b) Vena-contract
(c) Maximum weight
(c) Stagnation point (d) None of these
(d) Minimum thickness of web
159. The dimensions of pressure gradient dp/dx in a
152. At the location of a plastic hinge,
fluid are
(a) Radius of curvature is infinite
(a) M1 L–1 T –2 (b) M–1 L–3 T –2
(b) Curvature is infinite
(c) M1 L–2 T –2 (d) M1 L–3 T –2
(c) Moment is infinite 160. The correct sequence, in the direction of the
(d) Flexible stress is infinite flow of water for installations in a hydro-power
153. An ideal fluid is one which is plant is
(a) Compressible (a) Reservoir, surge tank, turbine, pen stock
(b) Elastic and viscous (b) Reservoir, pen stock, surge tank, turbine
(c) Non-viscous and incompressible (c) Reservoir, pen stock, turbine, surge tank
(d) Of low density (d) Reservoir, surge tank, pen stock, turbine
154. Kinematic viscosity of gases on increase of 161. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular section,
temperature the ratio of width to normal depth is
(a) Decreases (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(b) Increases (c) 2.0 (d) 2 3
(c) Remains the same
162. The Chezy's and Manning's formulae are related by
(d) None of these
1 1/6
155. When the water surface coincides with the top (a) C = R (b) C = nR1/6
n
edge of a rectangular vertical gate 40 m (wide)
1 1/6
× 3 m (deep), then the depth of centre of (c) C = Rn1/6 n
(d) C =
R
pressure is
163. In case of semi-circular vanes, the theoretical
(a) 1 m (b) 1.5 m
maximum efficiency of the wheel can be
(c) 2 m (d) 2.5 m
(a) 50% (b) 67%
156. The increase in meta-centric height (c) 75% (d) 100%
1. Increases stability 164. The specific speed of a pump of discharge Q,
2. Decreases stability working under a head H at an RPM 'n' in
3. Increases comfort for passengers NSP =
4. Decreases comfort for passengers n Q n Q
The correct answer is (a) 3/4 (b)
H H5/4
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 n H n Q
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (c) (d)
Q3/2 H
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165. What is a 'Hydrological Cycle' ? 172. If a quantity A has a weight of 3, then the weight
(a) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture of A/3 will be
from sea again (a) 28 (b) 27
(b) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture (c) 24 (d) 9
from sea back to sea again 173. The correction for sag is
(c) Processes involved in the transfer of water (a) always additive
from snowmelt in mountains to sea (b) Always subtractive
(d) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture (c) Always zero
from sea to land and back to sea again
(d) Sometimes additive and sometimes
166. A plot between rainfall intensity versus time is subtractive
called as
174. The horizontal angle between the true meridian
(a) Hydrograph (b) Mass curve and magnetic meridian at a place is called
(c) Hyetograph (d) Isohyets (a) Azimuth (b) Declination
167. Coefficient of variation is given by (c) Local attraction (d) Magnetic bearing
Standard deviation 175. The multiplying constant of a Theodolite is
(a) × 100
Mean (a) f/i (b) (f + d)
Variance f f
(b) ×100 (c) +d (d) +i
Mean i d
Mean 176. Contour interval is
(c) Standard deviation ×100
(a) Inversely proportional to the scale of the map
Mean (b) Directly proportional to the scale of the map
(d) ×100
Variance (c) Large for accurate works
168. Wind speed is measured with (d) None of these
(a) A wind vane (b) A heliometers 177. The methods used for locating the plane table
(c) Stevinson box (d) Anemometer stations are
169. Given that the base period is 100 days and the 1. Radiation
duty of the canal is 1000 hectares per cumecs, 2. Traversing
the depth of water will be 3. Intersection
(a) 0.864 cm (b) 8.64 cm 4. Resection
(c) 86.4 cm (d) 864 cm The correct answer is
3
170. A regime channel has a discharge of 100 m /s. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
It will have a perimeter of
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(a) 4.8 m (b) 10.0 m 178. Mile stone chart is an improvement over
(c) 47.5 m (d) 22.0 m (a) Bar chart
171. For medium silt whose average grain size is 0.16 (b) CPM scheduling
mm, Lacey's silt factor is likely to be
(c) PERT scheduling
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.45
(d) All of the above
(c) 0.70 (d) 1.32

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22 | JEn : Mock Test Paper CE : Full Length
179. The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is Codes: A B C D
generally kept on (a) 3 5 1 2
(a) Bottom face (b) Top face (b) 2 5 1 4
(c) Shorter side (d) Longer side (c) 2 5 4 1
180. For testing compressive and tensile strength of (d) 5 3 4 1
cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing 185. For marine works, the best suited cement is
cement and standard sand in the proportions of
(a) Low heat Portland cement
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(b) Rapid hardening cement
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 6
(c) Ordinary Portland cement
181. Extenders are added to the paint body to
(d) Blast furnace slag cement
(a) Give colour
186. Consider the following statements
(b) Accelerate the process of drying 1. Setting and hardening of cement takes place
(c) Reduce the viscosity after the addition of water
(d) Increase the volume 2. Water causes hydration and hydrolysis of
182. The cost slope is defined as the constituent compounds of cement which
act as binders.
crash cost – normalcost
(a) Which of these statements is/are correct?
crash time
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Crash cost (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b)
normal time – crash time 187. Admixtures could be used to
Crash cost (a) Accelerate initial setting of concrete
(c)
normal time – crash time (b) Increase the strength of concrete
(c) Improve workability
crash cost–normalcost
(d) (d) All of the above
normal time-crash time
188. Addition of Pozzolana admixtures results in
183. If p is the standard consistency of cement, the
amount of water used in conducting the initial (a) Improved workability
setting time test on cement is (b) Reduction in heat of hydration
(a) 0.65p (b) 0.85p (c) increased resistance to sulphate attack
(c) 0.6p (d) 0.8p (d) all of the above
184. Match List -I (Property of cement) with List-II 189. A splitting tensile test is performed on cylinder
(Testing apparatus) and select the correct answer of diameter D and length L. If the ultimate load
using the codes give below the lists: is P, then splitting tensile strength of concrete is
given by
List-I List-II
A. Specific gravity 1. Blain's apparatus P 2P
(a) (b)
B. Setting time 2. Le chatelier's flask DL DL
C. Soundness 3. Compressometer 4PL 4PD
(c) 3 (d)
D. Fineness 4. Autoclave D L3
5. Vicat's apparatus
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CE : Full Length JEn : Mock Test Paper | 23
190. The lower water cement ratio in concrete 197. Traffic volume is equal to
introduces (a) traffic density × traffic speed
(a) Smaller creep and shrinkage trafficdensity
(b) Improved frost resistance (b) trafficspeed
(c) Greater density and smaller permeability
trafficspeed
(d) All of above (c) trafficdensity
191. Bricks are burnt at a temperature range of (d) None of the above
o o o o
(a) 500 to 700 C (b) 700 to 900 C 198. The cumulative speed distribution curve is usually
o o
(c) 900 to 1200 C (d) 1200o to 1500oC adopted for geometric design of highway. The
192. The minimum compressive strength of first class percentile speed adopted for geometric design is
bricks should be (a) 85th percentile speed
(a) 5 N/mm2 (b) 7.5 N/mm2 (b) 90th percentile speed
2 2
(c) 9 N/mm (d) 10 N/mm (c) 98th percentile speed
193. The optimum number of revolutions over which (d) 99.9th percentile speed
concrete is required to be mixed in a mixer 199. The standard plate size in a plate bearing test of
macine is finding modulus of sub-grade reaction (k) value
(a) 10 (b) 20 is
(c) 50 (d) 100 (a) 100 cm diameter (b) 50 cm diameter
194. Which of the following trees yields hard wood? (c) 75 cm diameter (d) 25 cm diameter
(a) Deodar (b) Chir 200. Group index method of design of flexible
(c) Sheesham (d) Pine pavement is
195. The maximum width of a vehicle as (a) A theoretical method
recommended by IRC is (b) An empirical method based on physical
(a) 1.85 m (b) 2.44 m properties of sub-grade soil
(c) 3.81 m (d) 4.72 m (c) An empirical method based on strength
characteristics of sub-grade soil
196. The design value of lateral friction coefficient on
highway is (d) A semi-empirical method
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.50
(c) 0.35 (d) 0.15 

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24 | JEn : Mock Test Paper CE : Full Length

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS


1. Ans. (a) 11. Ans. (b) 21. Ans. (a) 31. Ans. (b) 41. Ans. (b)
2. Ans. (a) 12. Ans. (c) 22. Ans. (d) 32. Ans. (b) 42. Ans. (a)
3. Ans. (b) 13. Ans. (d) 23. Ans. (d) 33. Ans. (d) 43. Ans. (c)
4. Ans. (b) 14. Ans. (c) 24. Ans. (a) 34. Ans. (a) 44. Ans. (c)
5. Ans. (c) 15. Ans. (a) 25. Ans. (a) 35. Ans. (c) 45. Ans. (d)
6. Ans. (a) 16. Ans. (d) 26. Ans. (c) 36. Ans. (d) 46. Ans. (d)
7. Ans. (d) 17. Ans. (c) 27. Ans. (a) 37. Ans. (b) 47. Ans. (d)
8. Ans. (b) 18. Ans. (c) 28. Ans. (b) 38. Ans. (a) 48. Ans. (a)
9. Ans. (c) 19. Ans. (c) 29. Ans. (b) 39. Ans. (c) 49. Ans. (d)
10. Ans. (b) 20. Ans. (a) 30. Ans. (d) 40. Ans. (c) 50. Ans. (b)

51. Ans. (b) 55. Ans. (a)


8 × 6 + 3 = 51 56. Ans. (d)
9 × 4 + 5= 41 57. Ans. (d)
Similarly, 58. Ans. (d)
7x + 2 = 37
59. Ans. (b)
7x = 35
60. Ans. (b)
x=5
61. Ans. (a)
52. Ans. (b)
45 62. Ans. (c)
25 + 20 = = 15
3 63. Ans. (a)
27 64. Ans. (b)
20 + 7 = =9
3
36 7 × 7 + 7 = 56
7 + 29 = = 12
3 Similarly
Similarly,
14 × 14 + 14
54
29 + 25 = = 18  196 + 14 = 210
3
53. Ans. (b) 65. Ans. (c)
Ram Sohan Ram Peacock is national bird of India.
th
Initial 7 4th Similary bear is the national animal of Russia.
9th 66. Ans. (a)
54. Ans. (b)
Ali = 42 67. Ans. (b)
Son = 10 68. Ans. (d)
So after 22 years 310
10 100 200 ? 430
Ali = 42 + 22 = 64
And his Son 90 100 110 120
= 10 + 22 = 32 So, 310 + 120 = 430
Which is twice the age of his son. 69. Ans. (a)
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70. Ans. (a) 89. Ans. (c)
2– 2 =0 Second number is one more than first. Third
0+3 =3 number is two more than second. And Fourth
number is three more than third.
3– 2 =1
90. Ans. (a)
1+3 =4
T R I P L E
71. Ans. (b) –1 –1 –1 –1 –1 –1
72. Ans. (d) S Q H O K D
1×5 =5 Similarly,
5 × 5 = 25 D I S P O S E
–1 –1 –1 –1 –1 –1 –1
25 × 5 = 125
C H R O N R D
625 × 5 = 3125 91. Ans. (c)
3125 × 5 = 15625 92. Ans. (c)
73. Ans. (c) Sh
irt
74. Ans. (c) Ties
Here N =4 Pant
Total No. of two side red colour cubes
Conclusion :
= 12 × (N – 2) = 24
Either I or II follows
75. Ans. (c)
I. (–) Uncertain
76. Ans. (a)
II. (–)Uncertain
77. Ans. (c)
93. Ans. (c)
78. Ans. (d)
ROAD = 18 + 15 + 1 + 4
79. Ans. (c)
= 38 × 4 = 152
80. Ans. (b)
and MAP = 13 + 1 + 16
81. Ans. (c)
= 30 × 3 = 90
M R Q/D D/Q P Similarly,
> > > >
So, second lightest among them is RAIL = 18 + 1 + 9 + 12
Either 'Q' or 'D' = 40 × 4 (No. of letters)
82. Ans. (d) = 160
83. Ans. (c) 94. Ans. (d)
Given, N U M E R I CAL
84. Ans. (b)
85. Ans. (a) LM UIREACN
86. Ans. (a) Similarly, PU BLI SHE D
87. Ans. (d)
DBU S ILE HP
88. Ans. (a)
95. Ans. (d)
Except all are the square of prime numbers.
96. Ans. (d)
(23)2 = 529 97. Ans. (b)
(29)2 = 961 98. Ans. (a)
(41)2 = 1681 99. Ans. (d)
2
(33) = 1089 100. Ans. (d)
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101. Ans.(b) Deflection at B, with respect to A
102. Ans.(a) M
= Moment of area of diagram
103. Ans.(a) EI
Unit volume change = Volumetric strain between A and B about B
= ex + ey + ez M L ML2
= ×L× =
104. Ans.(c) EI 2 2EI
The shear force in the span BC will be zero. 109. Ans.(d)
The shear force in the span AB and CD will be
of opposite sign.
w
105. Ans.(d)
wl 2
Maximum negative, bending moment, wl 2
20
30
wL21
M1 =
2 MB 3
Maximum positive, bending moment. MA = 2
110. Ans.(c)
wL2 wL21
M2 = – Fixed end moment due to central point load,
8 2
PL
For M1 = M2 M1 = =60 kN-m
8
L the fixed end moment due to uniformly distributed
L1 = PL
2 2
load is . thus it is equal to 40 kN-m.
12
106. Ans.(a)
111. Ans.(d)
107. Ans.(b)
112. Ans.(c)
Minor principal stress = C – r = 10
113. Ans.(c)
Centre of circle (C) = 10 +20 = 30 N/mm2
114. Ans.(d)
Major principal stress = C + r = 30 + 20
115. Ans.(c)
= 50 N/mm2
116. Ans.(a)
108. Ans.(c)
 22
Using moment area method. d = = = 20 kN/m3
1  w 1  0.1
M
117. Ans.(d)
M
A 2EI 118. Ans.(a)
EI B 119. Ans.(a)
L/2 L/2 120. Ans.(a)
Ratio of permeability of the two soils is given by
2M +
M k1 C(D10 )2 (0.6) 2
BMD k 2 = C(D10 )22 = (0.3) 2 = 4
M 121. Ans.(d)
2M +
EI Darcy’s law is valid if the flow through soil is
M diagram laminar and Reynolds number is less than 1.
EI
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122. Ans.(b) 130. Ans.(d)
Coefficient of consolidation, CO2 reacts with water to form carbonic acid.
Tv d 2 131. Ans.(a)
Cv =
t 132. Ans.(d)
Tv = Constant and unitless Any chlorine that is added to water beyond break
d = Drainage path, unit is centimeter point, breaks through the water and appears as
(cm) residual chlorine.
t = Time of consolidation, unit is sec 133. Ans.(a)
 unit of Cv = cm2/sec Length of tank= flow velocity × detention time
123. Ans.(b) = 0.25 × 60 = 15 m
124. Ans.(d) 134. Ans.(a)
qu Circular sections are preferred for a separate
Cohesion of soil C = sewerage system. It being of uniform curvature
2
all round, offers less opportunities for deposits.
100
 C = = 50 kN/m2 It also provides maximum area of a given
2 perimeter and thus provides maximum hydraulic
125. Ans.(c) mean depth when running full or half full.
126. Ans.(d) 135. Ans.(b)
Mechanical stabilisation is the process of Ozone reacts with chlorine atom and gets
improving the properties of the soil by changing breakdown into chlorine monoxide (CIO) and
its gradation. Two or more types of natural soil oxygen molecule
are mixed to obtain a composite material which
Cl + O3  ClO + O2
is superior to any of its components. To achieve
the desired grading, sometimes the soil with 136. Ans.(c)
coarse particles are added or the soils with fine Photochemical reactions form O 3 , PAN,
particles are removed. formaldehyde, etc.
127. Ans.(a) 137. Ans.(b)
128. Ans.(a) 138. Ans.(b)
Check valves or Reflux valves: Check valves As per IS ; 456-2000 modular ratio is
are sometimes called non-return valves because given by
they prevent water to flow back in the opposite 280
direction. They may be installed on the delivery m = 3
cbc
side of the pumping set, so as to prevent the
For M20 concrete
back flow of stored or pumped water, when the
pump is stopped. cbc = 7 N/mm2
129. Ans.(d) 280
 m= = 13.3
Nephelometer is based on scattering principle 3 7
for measurement of turbidity. It used formation, 139. Ans.(a)
a chemical compound, for standard. Formazin is For beams exceeding overall depth of 750 mm
more reproducible standard the SiO2. Tintometer side face reinforcement is provided. Such
is a color measuring instrument which compares reinforcement shall not be less than 0.1 percent
colour of water in Nessler tubes which contain of the web area and shall be distributed equally
solutions of platinum cobalt dissolved in water. on two faces at a spacing not exceeding 300
mm or web thickness whichever is less.
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140. Ans.(b) 157. Ans.(c)
141. Ans.(d) 158. Ans.(c)
Minimum eccentricity 159. Ans.(c)
L B 3000 300 160. Ans.(b)
= + = + = 16 mm
500 30 500 30 161. Ans.(c)
So eccentricity = 20 mm 162. Ans.(a)
142. Ans.(a) The Manning’s n, Chezy’s C and Darcy-
143. Ans.(a) Weisbach’s ‘f’ are related as
144. Ans.(a) 8g 1
C = = R1/16
145. Ans.(b) f n
Gross diameter = Nominal diameter + 1.5 mm, 163. Ans.(d)
  25 mm  1  cos  
Maximum Efficiency, max =  
Gross diameter = Nominal diameter + 2 mm,  2 
o
  25 mm For  = 0 , the curved vanes will become
 = Nominal diameter semicircular and max = 1 or 100%

146. Ans.(a) 164. Ans.(a)

147. Ans.(d) 165. Ans.(d)


148. Ans.(b) 166. Ans.(c)

Minimum width of lacing bars in riveted 167. Ans.(a)


connection should be as follows: 168. Ans.(d)
169. Ans.(c)
Nominal rivet 22 20 18 16
diameter (mm)  × D = 864 × B
Width of lacing bars 65 60 55 50 D = 1000 ha/cumec
(mm) B = 100 days
Nominal rivet 864  100
= = 86.4cm
diameter (mm) 22 20 18 16 1000
170. Ans.(c)
Width of lacing
bars (mm) 65 60 55 50 Perimeter, P = 4.75 Q
149. Ans.(d)
= 4.75 × 100
150. Ans.(d)
= 4.75 m
151. Ans.(a)
171. Ans.(c)
152. Ans.(b)
Lacy’s silt factor,
153. Ans.(c)
f = 1.76 dm
154. Ans.(b)
155. Ans.(c) = 1.76 × 0.16 = 0.704
Depth of centre of pressure, 172. Ans.(b)
2d 2  3 Weight of quantity A = 3
hp = = =2m
3 3 A
156. Ans.(b) Then weight of quantity = 3 × 32 = 27
3
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173. Ans.(b) 192. Ans.(d)
174. Ans.(b) The average compressive strength shall not be
175. Ans.(a) less than 75 kg/cm2 (7.5 N/mm2) for Class-II
and 100 kg/cm2 (10 N/mm2) for Class-1.
176. Ans.(a)
193. Ans.(b)
177. Ans.(c)
194. Ans.(c)
178. Ans.(a)
The deciduous or broad leaf trees have flat bread
179. Ans.(b)
leaves. These trees yield hard woods which are
180. Ans.(b)
generally close grained, strong, heavy dark
181. Ans.(d) coloured. The examples of such trees are teak,
182. Ans.(d) mahogany, sheesham, oak, etc.
183. Ans.(b) 195. Ans.(b)
184. Ans.(c) 196. Ans.(d)
185. Ans.(d) 197. Ans.(a)
186. Ans.(c) 198. Ans.(c)
187. Ans.(d) 199. Ans.(c)
188. Ans.(d) 200. Ans.(b)
189. Ans.(b) The GI method of pavement design is essentially
190. Ans.(d) an empirical method based on physical properties
of the sub-grade soil. The method does not
191. Ans.(c)
consider the strength characteristic of the sub-
grade soil.


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