19. Identify the incorrect pair middle tier of 19. iapk;rh jkt laLFkkvksa ds e/;orhZ Lrj ,oa lacaf/kr
panchayati Raj institution and the concerned state? jkT; ds =qfViw.kZ ;qXe dks igpkfu,\
(a) Khsetra samite – Uttar Pradesh (a) {ks= lfefr & mÙkj izns'k
(b) Panchayat Union councial – Tamil Nadu (b) iapk;r la?k ifj"kn & rfeyukMq
(c) Taluka Panchayat – Gujrat (c) rkyqdk iapk;r & xqtjkr
(d) Panchayat Samite – Madhya Pradesh (d) iapk;r lfefr & e/; izns'k
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20. After the enactment by parliament of india, the Date 20. Hkkjr dh laln }kjk vf/kfu;e fd, tkus ds ckn
of commencement of "Right to Information Act"? ^^lwpuk dk vf/kdkj vf/kfu;e** dk 'kqHkkjEHk gqvk\
(a) 15 June, 2005 (a) 15 twu] 2005 dks
(b) 22 June, 2005 (b) 22 twu] 2005 dks
(c) 2 October, 2005 (c) 2 vDVwcj] 2005 dks
(d) 12 October, 2005 (d) 12 vDVwcj] 2005 dks
21. According to Human Development Report 2016, 21. ekuo fodkl fjiksVZ 2016 ds vuqlkj] ekuo fodkl
India's rank in human development India is?
lwpdkad esa Hkkjr dk Øe gS\
(a) 130 (b) 134
(a) 130 (b) 134
(c) 136 (d) 139
(c) 136 (d) 139
22. Match the following and select the correct answer
22. fuEufyf[kr dks lqEesfyr dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, dwV
using the code given below
dk mi;ksx djrs gq, mÙkj nhft,&
List-I List-II
lw p h -I lwp h -II
(Iron-Deposit) (State)
¼ykSg &v;Ld teko½ ¼jkT;½
A. Mayurbhani 1. Karnataka
A. e;wjHkat 1 - dukZVd
B. Kundermukh Deposits 2. Orissa
B. dqUnszeq[k teko 2 - mM+hlk
C. Bailadila 3. Jharkhand
C. cSykfMyk 3 - >kj[k.M+
D. Bonai Range 4. Chhattisgarh
D. cksukbZ Js.kh 4 - NÙkhlx<+
Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 dwV : A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
23. Where Kajiranga National Park is located? 23. dkthjaxk jk"Vªh; m|ku dgk¡ fLFkr gS\
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Orissa (a) rfeyukMq (b) mM+hlk
(c) Rajasthan (d) Assam (c) jktLFkku (d) vle
24. Mudumalai Sanctuary is famous for? 24. eqnqeykbZ vHk;kj.; izfl) gS\
(a) Tigers (b) Bisons (a) ck?k (b) taxyh HkSlk
(c) Elephants (d) Birds (c) gkFkh (d) i{kh
25. Based on the new appointment of governor match 25. u;s jkT;iky in ij fu;qDr fd;s x;s gS\ lgh mÙkj dks
the correct answer- lqEesfyr dhft,\
A. Manipur 1. Najma Heptulla A - ef.kiqj 1. utek gsirqYyk
B. Punjab 2. V.P. Singh
B - iatkc 2. oh- ih- flag
C. Assam 3. Jagdish Mukhi
C - vle 3. txnh'k eq[kh
D. Andman Nicobar 4. Banwari lal Purohit
D - v.Meku fudksckj 4. cuokjh yky iqjksfgr
Island
vkblySa.M
Codes: A B C D
dwV % A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 4 2 (c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
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26. Who had propounded the dynamical theory of 26. TokjHkkVk dh mRifÙk lEcU/kh xfrd fl)kUr fdlus
origin of ocean tides? izfrikfnr fd;k\
(a) Harris (b) Airy (a) gSfjl (b) ,;jh
(c) Whewell (d) Laplace (c) ososy (d) ykIykl
27. The short radio waves are reflected from which
27. vk;ue.My dh fdl ijr ls jsfM+;ksa dh y?kq rjaxs
of the Ionospheric layer?
ijkofrZr gksrh gS\
(a) D–Layer (b) E–Layer
(a) Mh&ijr (b) bZ&ijr
(c) F–Layer (d) G–Layer
(c) ,Q&ijr (d) th&ijr
28. The portion of solar radiation energy reflected
back from the surface of object is called? 28. fdlh oLrq dh lrg ij igq¡pus okys fofdj.k ÅtkZ dk
(a) Absorption (b) Scattering ftruk Hkkx ijkorZu gksrk gS] dgykrk gS\
(c) Diffusion (d) Albedo (a) vo'kks"k.k (b) izdh.kZu
29. Which country was the first to launch artificial (c) folj.k (d) /koyrk
satellite? 29. Øf=e mixzg iz{ksi.k djus okyk izFke ns'k dkSu Fkk\
(a) USA (b) Russia (a) ;w-,l-,- (b) :l
(c) China (d) Germany (c) phu (d) teZuh
30. Nanotechnology is related to- 30. uSuksVsDuksykWth ¼vfrlw{e rjuhdh½ lEcfU/kr gS&
(a) Atomic Engineering
(a) ijek.kq ¼,Vksfed½ vfHk;kaf=dh
(b) Carbon Engineering
(b) dkcZu vfHk;kaf=dh ls
(c) Microbiology
(c) lw{ethofoKku ls
(d) Microphysics
(d) lw{e&HkkSfrdh ls
31. What is the theme of the 2016 world
Humanitarian Day? 31. 2016 fo'o ekuoh; fnol dk fo"k; D;k gS\
(a) Share Humanity (a) ekuork ds lk>k
(b) One Humanity (b) ,d ekuork
(c) People Helping People (c) yksxksa dks yksxksa dh enn djus
(d) Insprie the World's Humanity (d) fo'o ekuork ls izsfjr
32. Swez canal joins- 32. Qkjl dh [kkM+h vkSj vjc lkxj
(a) Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea (a) Qkjl dh [kkM+h vkSj vjc lkxj
(b) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea (b) yky lkxj vkSj Hkwe/; lkxj
(c) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea (c) Hkwe/;lkxj vkSj dkyk lkxj
(d) Red Sea and Arabian Sea (d) yky lkxj vkSj vjc lkxj
33. The longest river of Europe is– 33. ;wjksi dh lcls yEch unh gS&
(a) Rhine (b) Rhone
(a) jkbu (b) jksu
(c) Danube (d) Volga
(c) MsU;wc (d) oksYxk
34. The first women president of India National
34. Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dk¡xzsl dh igyh efgyk v/;{k Fkh\
Congress was-
(a) deyk nsoh pV~Vksi/;k;
(a) Kamla Devi Chattopdhyaya
(b) Sarojini Naidu (b) ljkstuh uk;Mw
(c) Annie Besant (c) ,uh fclsUV
(d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (d) jktdqekjh ve`r dkSj
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35. Who betrayed Siraj-Ud-Daula in the Battle of 35. 1757bZ- esa Iyklh dh yM+kbZ esa fljkt&mn&nkSyk dks
plassey in 1757? fdlus /kks[kk fn;k Fkk\
(a) Hyder Ali (b) Mir Qasim (a) gSnjvyh (b) ehjdkfle
(c) Mir Jaffar (d) Nawab of Awadh (c) ehjtkQj (d) vo/k dk uokc
36. Who among the following has written the famous 36. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls izfl) ys[kd us ^^ekyxqM+h
book 'malgudi Days' ? Mst** iqLrd fy[kh gS\
(a) V. S. Naipaul (a) oh- ,l- uk;iky
(b) Deepak Chopra (b) nhid pkSiM+k
(c) Rabindranath Tagore (c) jfoUnzukFk VSxksj
(d) R. K. Narayan (d) vkj- ds- ukjk;.k
37. Jaziya was reimaposed during the reign of – 37. ^^tkft;k** fdl 'kkld ds nkSjku iqu% ykxw fd;k x;k Fkk&
(a) Akbar (b) Aurangzeb (a) vdcj (b) vkSajxtsc
(c) Jahagir (d) Humayan (c) tgk¡xhj (d) áwek;w¡
38. The upanishads were translated into persian Dara 38. mifu"kn~ dk Qkjlh esa vuqokn fd;k x;k ftlds 'kh"kZd
Shikhoh were the title? nkjkf'kdksg Fks\
(a) Al–Fihrist (a) vy&fQgjhLr
(b) Kitab–Ul–Bayan (b) fdrkc&my&c;ku
(c) Majm–Ul–Bahrain (c) ete&my&cgjhu
(d) Sirr–I–Akbar (d) flj&bZ&vdcj
39. Gandhiji Launched the Non–Co–Operation 39. xk¡/khth }kjk vlg;ksx vkUnksyu izkjEHk fd;k x;k
Movement in– FkkA
(a) 1920 (b) 1919 (a) 1920 (b) 1919
(c) 1921 (d) 1922 (c) 1921 (d) 1922
40. Dyarchy was first introduced in India under– 40. }S/k 'kklu Hkkjr esa igyh ckj fdlds vUrxZr is'k fd;k
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 x;k Fkk\
(a) Hkkjr 'kklu vf/kfu;e 1935
(b) Morley – Minto Reforms
(b) ekysZ & feUVks lq/kkj
(c) Mont – Ford Reforms
(c) ekUVsD;w & psEl QksMZ lq/kkj
(d) Simon Commission Plan
(d) lkbeu deh'ku ;kstuk
41. In which year fundamental duties fo citizens were
Introduced by 42nd Amendment? 41. 42osa la'kks/ku }kjk ukxfjdksa dks ekSfyd dÙkZO; dks dc
ifjfpr djk;k x;k Fkk\
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(c) 1977 (d) 1980
(c) 1977 (d) 1980
42. In India, agriculture income is calculated by
42. Hkkjr esa] —f"kxr vk; dh x.kuk dh tkrh gS&
(a) Output method
(a) mRiknu fof/k
(b) Input method
(b) vk; fof/k
(c) Expenditure Method
(c) O;; fof/k
(d) Commodity flow method
(d) oLrq izokg fof/k
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43. NABARD was established in the 43. ukckMZ dh LFkkiuk dh x;h Fkh
(a) Fourth five year plan (a) prqFkZ iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(b) Fifth five year plan (b) ik¡poh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(c) Sixth five year plane (c) NBh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
(d) Eigth five year plan (d) vkBoh iapo"khZ; ;kstuk
44. Which place is called as 'Silicon Valley" of India? 44. Hkkjr esa dkSulk LFkku dks ^^lhfydkWu ?kkVh** dgrs gS\
(a) Delhi (b) Puna (a) fnYyh (b) iwuk
(c) Bengaluru (d) Hyderabad (c) caxykSj (d) gSnjkckn
45. TISCO plant is located near? 45. VhLdks dkj[kkuk vofLFkr gS\
(a) Patna (b) Darbhanga (a) iVuk (b) njHkaxk
(c) Dhanbad (d) Tatanagar (c) /kuckn (d) VkVkuxj
46. Match the List–I with List–II and select the 46. lgh dwV dk iz;ksx djrs gq, lwph&I dks lwph&II ds
correct answer using the codes given below lkFk lqEesfyr dhft,
List-I List-II lw p h -I lwp h -II
(Vitamine) (Chemical Compound) ¼foVkfeu½ ¼jklk;fud ?kVd½
A. Vitamin A 1. Thaimin A. foVkfeu A 1- Fkk;feu
B. Vitamin B1 2. Retinol B. foVkfeu B1 2- jsVhuky
C. Vitamin C 3. Ascorbic Acid C. foVkfeu C 3- ,LdkfcZd ,lhM+
D. Vitamin E 4. Tocopherol D. foVkfeu E 4- VsdksQsjksy
Codes: A B C D dwV % A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 (a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
47. ;fn firk dk jDr lewg 'A' vkSj ekrk dk jDr lewg 'O'
47. If father have blood group 'A' and mother have
blood group 'O' which one of following blood gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk jDr lewg buds iq= esa
group may present in their son? mifLFkr gksxk\
(a) B (b) AB (a) B (b) AB
(c) O (d) B, AB & O (c) O (d) B, AB & O
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 48. lgh dwV dk iz;ksx djrs gq, lwph&I dks lwph&II ds
answer using the code given below– lkFk lqEesfyr dhft,&
List-I List-II lw p h -I lwp h -II
(Deseases) (Organism) ¼chekjh½ ¼tho½
A. Malaria 1. Fungi A. eysfj;k 1- dod
B. Polimyclitis 2. Macteria B. iksfy;kse;syhVhl 2- thok.kq
C. Tuberculosis 3. Virus C. Vh-ch- 3- fo"kk.kq
D. Ring Worm 4. Protozoa D. nkn 4- izksVkstksvk
Codes: A B C D dwV % A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
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49. Virus of bird flue is also known as- 49. cMZ ¶yw ds ok;jl dks fdl uke ls tkuk tkrk gS&
(a) NH51 (b) NH15 (a) NH51 (b) NH15
(c) H 1 N 1 (d) H 5 N 1 (c) H 1 N 1 (d) H 5 N 1
50. Match the following 50. fuEufyf[kr dks lfEefyr dhft,
List-I List-II lw p h -I lwp h -II
(River) (Ocean/Sea)
¼unh½ ¼egklkxj@lkxj½
A. Murray River 1. Arabian Sea
A. ejsZ unh 1 - vjc lkxj
B. Congo River 2. Indian Ocean
B. dkaxks unh 2 - fgUn egklkdj
C. Nile River 3. Mediteranean Sea
C. uhy unh 3 - Hkwe/; lkxj
D. Indus River 4. Atlantic Ocean
D. flU/kq unh 4 - vVykafVd egklkxj
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 dwV % A B C D
(b) 2 4 3 1 (a) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 3 4 1
Direction : 51 & 52
funsZ’k : 51
o 52
Find the missing number from the given responses.
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls yqIr vad Kkr dhft,A
51. 8 9 7
51. 8 9 7
3 5 2
3 5 2
6 4 ?
6 4 ?
51 41 37
51 41 37
(a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7 (c) 6 (d) 7
52. 15 9 52.
20 15 9
20
25 7 25 7
? 29 29
12 ? 12
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
83. Arrange the following words or per order in the
dictionary. 83. fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa dks 'kCndks"k esa fn, x, Øe ds
1. Grasp 2. Granite vuqlkj fy[ks
3. Grass 4. Graph 1. Grasp 2. Granite
5. Grape 3. Grass 4. Graph
(a) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 5. Grape
(c) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 (a) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
Direction : 84 to 89 (c) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
Select the one which is different from other three funsZ'k : 84 ls 89
alternatives.
mls pqfu, tks vU; rhuksa fodYiksa ls fHkUu gSA
84. (a) ONMP (b) TUSQ
84. (a) ONMP (b) TUSQ
(c) RQPS (d) KJIL
(c) RQPS (d) KJIL
85. (a) MIGE (b) XTQO
85. (a) MIGE (b) XTQO
(c) RNKI (d) HDAY
(c) RNKI (d) HDAY
86. (a) 15, 64 (b) 12, 72
86. (a) 15, 64 (b) 12, 72
(c) 14, 84 (d) 13, 78
(c) 14, 84 (d) 13, 78
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87. (a) India (b) Pakistan 87. (a) Hkkjr (b) ikfdLrku
(c) China (d) Asia (c) phu (d) ,f'k;k
88. (a) 1089 (b) 529 88. (a) 1089 (b) 529
(c) 961 (d) 1681 (c) 961 (d) 1681
89. (a) 2, 3, 5, 8 (b) 4, 5, 7, 10 89. (a) 2, 3, 5, 8 (b) 4, 5, 7, 10
(c) 7, 8, 9, 11 (d) 10, 11, 13, 16 (c) 7, 8, 9, 11 (d) 10, 11, 13, 16
90. In a certain code, TRIPLE is written as 90. ,d dwV Hkk"kk esa] TRIPLE dks SQHOKD fy[kk
SQHOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that tkrk gSA ml dwV Hkk"kk esa DISPOSE dks fdl izdkj
code ? fy[kk tk,xk \
(a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI (a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI
(c) ESJTPTF (d) ESOPSID (c) ESJTPTF (d) ESOPSID
91. Arrange the following words in meaningful order. 91. fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa dks lkFkZd Øe esa fyf[k,&
1. Bus 1. cl
2. Bullock Cart 2. cSyxkM+h
3. Aeroplane 3. gokbZtgkt
4. Horse
4. ?kksM+k
5. Rocket
5. jksdsV
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
92. Statement: All ties are shirts.
92. dFku : lHkh VkbZ 'kVZ gSA
Some pants are shirts.
dqN isaV 'kVZ gSA
Conclusions: I. Some pants are ties.
fu"d"kZ : I. dqN isaV VkbZ gSA
II. No ties are pants.
II. dksbZ VkbZ isUV ugha gSA
(a) If only I follows
(a) ;fn dsoy I vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(b) If only II follows
(b) ;fn dsoy II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows (c) ;fn I ;k II vuqlj.k djrs gSA
93. If ROAD = 152 and MAP = 90, (d) ;fn u rks I u gh II vuqlj.k djrs gSA
then RAIL = ? 93. ;fn ROAD = 152 ,oa MAP = 90 gks,
(a) 120 (b) 140 rks RAIL = ?
(c) 160 (d) 180 (a) 120 (b) 140
94. In a certain code, NUMERICAL is written as (c) 160 (d) 180
LMUIREACN. How is PUBLISHED written 94. ,d dwV Hkk"kk es]a NUMERICAL dks LMUIREACN
in that code ? fy[kk tkrk gSA ml dwV Hkk"kk esa PUBLISHED dks
(a) DUBLISHEP (b) DBULISEHP fdl izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(c) DBUSILHEP (d) DBUSILEHP (a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI
95. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which (c) ESJTPTF (d) ESOPSID
of the answer figures is the right image of the
95. ;fn ,d niZ.k dks MN js[kk ij j[kk tk;s rks nh xbZ
given figure?
mÙkj vkd`fr dh lgh izfrfcEc gksxh\
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Question figure: iz'Uk vkd`fr %
M M
N N
Answer figures: mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %
96. Select the answer figure in which the question 96. nh xbZ mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls ml mÙkj vkd`fr dks
figure is hidden/embedded. pqfu, ftlesa iz'u vkd`fr fufgr gSA
Question Figure : iz'u vkd`fr %
97. Which answer figure will complete the pattern 97. dkSu lh mÙkj vkd`fr iz'u vkd`fr ds izfr:i dks iwjk
in the question figure? djsxh \
Question figure :
iz'u vkd`fr %
oo
o
oo
o
oo
o
oo
o o
(c) o (d) (c) (d)
oo o
oo
o
oo
o o o
99. Find the number of triangles in the given figure? 99. fuEu vkd`fr esa f=Hkqtksa dh la[;k Kkr dhft,&
100. A word is represented by only one set of numbers 100. ,d 'kCn dsoy ,d la[;k&lewg }kjk n'kkZ;k x;k gS]
are given in any one of the alternatives. The tSlk fd fodYiksa esa ls fdlh ,d esa fn;k x;kgSA
sets of numbers given in the alternatives are fodYiksa esa fn, x, la[;k&lewg v{kjksa ds nks oxks± }kjk
represented by two classes of alphabets as in n'kkZ, x, gSa] tSlk fd uhps fn, x, nks vkO;wgksa esa gSA
two matrices given below. The columns and rows
vkO;wg-1 ds LrEHkksa vkSj iafDr dh la[;k 0 ls 4 esa nh
of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that
of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter
xbZ gS vkSj vkO;wg-2 dh 5 ls 9A bu vkO;wgksa ls ,d
from these matrices can be represented first by v{kj dks igys ml dh iafDr vksj ckn esa LrEHk la[;k }kjk
its row and next by its column, e.g., 'F' can be n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gSA mnkgj.k ds fy, 'F' dks 02, 33
represented by 02, 33 etc., and 'P' can be vkfn }kjk n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gS rFkk 'P' dks 56, 88
represented by 56, 88 etc. Similarly, you have to vkfn }kjk n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gSA blh rjg ls vkidks
identify the set for the word 'POSE'.
iz'u esa fn, 'kCn 'POSE' ds fy, lewg dks igpkuuk gSA
Matrix-I Matrix-II
Matrix-I Matrix-II
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 D E F I N 5 O P R S T
0 D E F I N 5 O P R S T
1 I N D E F 6 S T O P R
1 I N D E F 6 S T O P R
2 E F I N D 7 P R S T O
2 E F I N D 7 P R S T O
3 N D E F I 8 T O P R S
3 N D E F I 8 T O P R S
4 F I N D E 9 R S T O P
4 F I N D E 9 R S T O P
(a) 87, 55, 89, 43 (b) 68, 98, 58, 21
(a) 87, 55, 89, 43 (b) 68, 98, 58, 21
(c) 75, 86, 67, 14 (d) 56, 67, 77, 01 (c) 75, 86, 67, 14 (d) 56, 67, 77, 01
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101. A material has identical properties in all directions, 106. The ratio of the flexural strengths of two square
it is said to be beams one placed with two sides horizontal and
(a) Homogeneous (b) Isotropic the other placed with one diagonal vertical and
other horizontal is
(c) Elastic (d) Orthotropic
102. In the case of pure bending, the beam will bend (a) 2 (b) 3
into an arc of a 1
(a) Circle (b) Parabola (c) 5 (d)
2
(c) Ellipse (d) Hyperbola 107. The radius of Mohr's circle of stress of a strained
103. Given that for an element in a body of element is 20 N/mm2 and minor principal tensile
homogeneous isotropic material subjected to plane stress is 10 N/mm2. The major principal stress is
stress; ex, ey and ez are normal strains in x, y (a) 30 N/mm2 (b) 50 N/mm2
and z directions respectively and is the Poisson's
(c) 60 N/mm2 (d) 100 N/mm2
ratio, the magnitude of unit volume change of
the element is given by 108. The stepped cantilever is subjected to moments,
M as shown in the figure below. The vertical
(a) ex + ey + ez (b) ex – (ey + ez)
deflection at the free end (neglecting self weight)
1 1 is
1
(c) (ex + ey + ez) (d) + + M
e x e y ez
M
104. For the loaded beam shown in the figure, the 2EI
EI
correct shear force diagram is
P P L/2 L/2
B C ML2 ML2
A D (a) (b)
8EI 4EI
L 2L L
ML2
(c) (d) Zero
(a) (b) 2EI
109. A fixed beam AB is subjected to triangular load
(c) (d) varying from zero at end A to w per unit length
at end B. The ratio of fixed end moment at B
105. For the beam shown in the given figure, the to A will be
maximum positive bending moment is equal to
the maximum negative bending moment. The 1 1
(a) (b)
value of L1 is 2 3
w/m 2 3
(c) (d)
3 2
110. If a point load acting at the mid-span of a fixed
beam of uniform section produces fixed end
L1 L L1 moments of 60 kN-m, then the same load spread
L L uniformly over the entire span will produce fixed
(a) (b) end moments equal to
2 3
L L (a) 20 kN-m (b) 30 kN-m
(c) (d) (c) 40 kN-m (d) 45 kN-m
2 2 2
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111. When a load is applied to a structure with rigid Which of the following assumptions are valid?
joints (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) There is no rotation or displacement of joint (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) There is no rotation of joint 115. Bentonite is a material obtained due to the
(c) There is no displacement of joint weathering of
(d) There can be rotation and displacement of (a) Limestone (b) Quartzite
joint but the angle between the members
(c) Volcanic ash (d) Shales
connected to the joint remains same even
after application of the load 116. A soil has bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water
content 10%. The dry density is
112. Consider the following methods:
(a) 20 kN/m3 (b) 15 kN/m3
1. Slope deflection method
(c) 18 kN/m3 (d) 19 kN/m3
2. Three moment method
117. The ratio of the shear strength of undisturbed
3. Column analogy method
soil to that of remolded soil is known as the
4. Kani's method
(a) Liquidity index
Which of the above method(s) is/are the force
method of structural analysis (b) Activity
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Relative consistency
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these (d) Sensitivity
113. A simply supported beam with an overhang is 118. Compaction of soil is measured in terms of
traversed by a unit concentrated moment from (a) Dry density
left to the right as shown below (b) Specific gravity
Direction of motion
M=1 (c) Compressibility
A B (d) Permeability
119. Clayey soils are best compacted by
L/2 L
(a) Sheep feet rollers
The influence line for reaction at B is given by
(b) Vibratory rollers
1
(c) Heavy drum rollers
L
(a) 1 (d) Ramming and pneumatic tampering
2L 120. Approximate ratios of the permeability's of two
clayey soils having D10 = 0.6 mm and D10 = 0.3
1
(b) mm respectively is
L
(a) 4.0 (b) 3.75
1
(c) (c) 4.25 (d) 3.5
L
121. Darcy's law for flow through soil is valid if
(d) Zero Reynold's number is less than
114. Consider the following (a) 4000 (b) 3000
Assumptions in the analysis of a plane truss: (c) 2000 (d) 1
1. The individual members are straight
122. The unit of the coefficient of consolidation is
2. The individual members are connected by
(a) cm2 /gm (b) cm2 /sec
frictionless hinges.
(c) gm/cm2 /sec (d) gm-cm/sec
3. The loads and reactions acts only at the joints.
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123. In tri-axial compression test, the deviator stress Codes: A B C D
is given by (a) 4 3 1 5
(a) 1 + 3 (b) 1 – 3 (b) 2 5 4 3
1 1 (c) 4 5 1 3
(c) ( + 3) (d) ( – 3) (d) 2 3 4 5
2 1 2 1
130. What is the most common cause of acidity in
124. The unconfined compressive strength of a pure
water?
clay soil is 100 kN/m2. What is the value of
cohesion of the soil in kN/m2? (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Nitrogen
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) Hydrogen (d) Carbon dioxide
(c) 75 (d) 50 131. Which one of the following filters will produce
125. Multi-under -r eamed piles ar e gener ally water of higher bacteriological quality?
provided in (a) Slow sand filter
(a) Silty soil (b) Rapid sand filter
(b) Sandy soil (c) Pressure filter
(c) Expansive clayey soil (d) Dual media filter
(d) Gravelly sandy soil 132. At break point chlorination the residual chlorine
126. Mechanical stabilization of the soil is done with (a) zero (b) minimum
the help of
(c) maximum (d) reappears
(a) Cement
133. For a grit channel, if the recommended flow
(b) Lime velocity is 0.25 m/s and the detention period is
(c) Bitumen 1 minute, then length of the tank is
(d) Proper grading (a) 15 m (b) 25 m
127. The average domestic water consumption per (c) 32.5 m (d) 40 m
capita per day for an Indian city, as per IS 1172-
134. In a separate sewerage system, the most suitable
1963, may be taken as
sewer section is
(a) 135 l/c/d (b) 210 l/c/d
(a) Circular (b) Elliptical
(c) 240 l/c/d (d) 270 l/c/d
(c) Egg-shaped (d) Rectangular
128. The value, which allows the flow only in one
135. Pollution by depletion of ozone layer, in the
direction, is a
environment, is caused due to the reaction of
(a) Reflux valve (b) Sluice valve ozone with
(c) Gate valve (d) None of these
(a) Carbon monoxide
129. Match List -I (equipment) with List-II
(b) Chlorine
(Parameter) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists: (c) Sulphur dioxide
List-I List-II (d) Nitrous oxide
A. Tintometer 1. Temperature 136. Which one of the following pollutants or pairs of
pollutants is formed due to photochemical
B. Nephelometer 2. Colour
reactions?
C. Imhoff cone 3. Turbidity
(a) CO alone (b) O3 and PAN
D. Muffle furnace 4. Settleable solids
(c) PAN and NH3 (d) NH3 and CO
5. Volatile solids
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137. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a beam 144. Which one of the following predicts the effective
with 'd' as the effective depth, in limit state modulus of elasticity of concrete?
method of design for Fe 415 steel is
EC EC
(a) 0.46d (b) 0.48d (a) (b)
1 1 2
(c) 0.50d (d) 0.53d
138. What is the modular ratio to be used in the EC EC
(c) (d)
analysis of RC beams using working stress 1 3 1 5
method if the grade of concrete is M20? 145. The difference between gross diameter and
(a) 18.6 (b) 13.3 nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm
(c) 9.9 (d) 6.5 diameter is
139. The side face reinforcement, if required, in a T- (a) 1.0 mm (b) 1.5 mm
beam will be (c) 2.0 mm (d) 2.5 mm
(a) 0.1% of the web area 146. In a diamond riveting, for a plate of width 'b' and
(b) 0.15% of the web area rivet diameter 'd', the efficiency of the joint is
given by
(c) 0.2% to 0.3% of the web area depending
upon the breadth of the web (b d) (b 2d)
(a) (b)
(d) Half the longitudinal reinforcement b b
140. In a Pedestal, the factor by which the effective
(b d) (b 2d)
length should not exceed the lateral dimension is (c) (d)
d d
(a) 2 (b) 3
147. In a tension member if one more than one rivet
(c) 4 (d) 5 hole are off the line, the failure of the member
141. An axially loaded column is of 300 mm × 300 depends upon
mm size. Effective length of column is 3 m. (a) Pitch
What is the minimum eccentricity of the axial
(b) Gauge
load for the column ?
(c) Diameter of the rivet holes
(a) 0 (b) 10 mm
(d) All of the above
(c) 16 mm (d) 20 mm
148. If 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars then the
142. Prestress loss due to friction occurs
minimum width of lacing bar should be
(a) Only in post-tensioned beams
(a) 40 mm (b) 60 mm
(b) Only in pre-tensioned beams
(c) 80 mm (d) 100 mm
(c) In both post-tensioned and pretensioned
149. What is the effective length of column shown
beams
below.
(d) None of these
143. Resultant stress in the cross-section of a
prestressed beam comprises of
L
(a) Prestress + dead load stress + live load stress
Hinge
(b) Prestress + live load stress
(c) Prestress + live load stress
(a) 0.8 L (b) L
(d) Prestress only
(c) 1.2 L (d) 2 L
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150. Lacings are subjected to 157. Flow through a venture flume is maximum when
(a) Transverse loading the depth at the throat is
(b) Axial loading plus bending (a) half
(c) Axial loading plus shear force (b) one third
(d) Axial loading only (c) two third
151. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to (d) equal to the total energy of flow
(a) Minimum weight 158. A point in a compressible flow where the velocity
of fluid is zero, is called
(b) Minimum depth
(a) Critical point (b) Vena-contract
(c) Maximum weight
(c) Stagnation point (d) None of these
(d) Minimum thickness of web
159. The dimensions of pressure gradient dp/dx in a
152. At the location of a plastic hinge,
fluid are
(a) Radius of curvature is infinite
(a) M1 L–1 T –2 (b) M–1 L–3 T –2
(b) Curvature is infinite
(c) M1 L–2 T –2 (d) M1 L–3 T –2
(c) Moment is infinite 160. The correct sequence, in the direction of the
(d) Flexible stress is infinite flow of water for installations in a hydro-power
153. An ideal fluid is one which is plant is
(a) Compressible (a) Reservoir, surge tank, turbine, pen stock
(b) Elastic and viscous (b) Reservoir, pen stock, surge tank, turbine
(c) Non-viscous and incompressible (c) Reservoir, pen stock, turbine, surge tank
(d) Of low density (d) Reservoir, surge tank, pen stock, turbine
154. Kinematic viscosity of gases on increase of 161. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular section,
temperature the ratio of width to normal depth is
(a) Decreases (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(b) Increases (c) 2.0 (d) 2 3
(c) Remains the same
162. The Chezy's and Manning's formulae are related by
(d) None of these
1 1/6
155. When the water surface coincides with the top (a) C = R (b) C = nR1/6
n
edge of a rectangular vertical gate 40 m (wide)
1 1/6
× 3 m (deep), then the depth of centre of (c) C = Rn1/6 n
(d) C =
R
pressure is
163. In case of semi-circular vanes, the theoretical
(a) 1 m (b) 1.5 m
maximum efficiency of the wheel can be
(c) 2 m (d) 2.5 m
(a) 50% (b) 67%
156. The increase in meta-centric height (c) 75% (d) 100%
1. Increases stability 164. The specific speed of a pump of discharge Q,
2. Decreases stability working under a head H at an RPM 'n' in
3. Increases comfort for passengers NSP =
4. Decreases comfort for passengers n Q n Q
The correct answer is (a) 3/4 (b)
H H5/4
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 n H n Q
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (c) (d)
Q3/2 H
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165. What is a 'Hydrological Cycle' ? 172. If a quantity A has a weight of 3, then the weight
(a) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture of A/3 will be
from sea again (a) 28 (b) 27
(b) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture (c) 24 (d) 9
from sea back to sea again 173. The correction for sag is
(c) Processes involved in the transfer of water (a) always additive
from snowmelt in mountains to sea (b) Always subtractive
(d) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture (c) Always zero
from sea to land and back to sea again
(d) Sometimes additive and sometimes
166. A plot between rainfall intensity versus time is subtractive
called as
174. The horizontal angle between the true meridian
(a) Hydrograph (b) Mass curve and magnetic meridian at a place is called
(c) Hyetograph (d) Isohyets (a) Azimuth (b) Declination
167. Coefficient of variation is given by (c) Local attraction (d) Magnetic bearing
Standard deviation 175. The multiplying constant of a Theodolite is
(a) × 100
Mean (a) f/i (b) (f + d)
Variance f f
(b) ×100 (c) +d (d) +i
Mean i d
Mean 176. Contour interval is
(c) Standard deviation ×100
(a) Inversely proportional to the scale of the map
Mean (b) Directly proportional to the scale of the map
(d) ×100
Variance (c) Large for accurate works
168. Wind speed is measured with (d) None of these
(a) A wind vane (b) A heliometers 177. The methods used for locating the plane table
(c) Stevinson box (d) Anemometer stations are
169. Given that the base period is 100 days and the 1. Radiation
duty of the canal is 1000 hectares per cumecs, 2. Traversing
the depth of water will be 3. Intersection
(a) 0.864 cm (b) 8.64 cm 4. Resection
(c) 86.4 cm (d) 864 cm The correct answer is
3
170. A regime channel has a discharge of 100 m /s. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
It will have a perimeter of
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(a) 4.8 m (b) 10.0 m 178. Mile stone chart is an improvement over
(c) 47.5 m (d) 22.0 m (a) Bar chart
171. For medium silt whose average grain size is 0.16 (b) CPM scheduling
mm, Lacey's silt factor is likely to be
(c) PERT scheduling
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.45
(d) All of the above
(c) 0.70 (d) 1.32