my_Test_Type_ID=818&available_Test_Type_ID=818
&orig_available_Test_Type_ID=819&Question 1
When a manager assigns responsibility and accountability for a task to an employee, the manager is:
directing
coaching
delegating
motivating
delegating
Explanation:
Correct answer:
delegating
Delegating is defined as assigning responsibility and accountability for a task to an employee. Directing
is persuading employees to perform the tasks. Coaching is creating an atmosphere of trust and allowing
employees to take risks without fear of being reprimanded. Motivating is influencing a person to act in a
particular way.
Question 2
Which of the following external quality control measures is a graph used to assess precision and
accuracy of paired samples?
SDI
proficiency survey
proficiency samples
Youden plot
Youden plot
Explanation:
Correct answer:
Youden plot
The Youden plot is a graph used to evaluate external quality control. It was developed to assess
precision and accuracy using paired samples.
Question 3
POC instruments have a lower cost per test than large laboratory instruments.
Explanation:
Correct answer:
POC instruments have a lower cost per test than large laboratory instruments.
This is incorrect. POC instruments have a higher cost per test than large laboratory instruments.
Overall cost of POC instruments should be taken into consideration before setting up a POC program.
Question 4
Which of the following stages of erythrocyte maturation is characterized by a 1:1 N/C ratio, size of up to
16 μm, and begins to produce hemoglobin?
pronormoblast
basophilic normoblast
polychromatophilic normoblast
orthochromic normoblast
polychromatophilic normoblast
Explanation:
Correct answer:
polychromatophilic normoblast
A polychromatophilic normoblast is characterized by a 1:1 N/C ratio, size of up to 16 μm, and begins to
produce hemoglobin, resulting in grayish cytoplasm. The chromatin shows more clumping.
Question 5
Which of the following inherited intrinsic, extrinsic and common pathway disorders is from an autosomal
dominant trait?
VII deficiency
X (Stuart-Prower) deficiency
H (prothrombin) deficiency
von Willebrand’s disease
Explanation:
Correct answer:
von Willebrand’s disease
It is von Willebrand’s disease that is from an autosomal dominant trait. All of the others are from
autosomal recessive traits
Question 6
In which of the following organ-specific autoimmune diseases do the nerve muscles not function
normally?
Hashimoto’s disease
Graves’ disease
Myasthenia gravis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct. The answer is
Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:
Correct answer:
Myasthenia gravis
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disease where the nerve muscles do not function normally. Most
patients exhibit antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Other symptoms include thymic hyperplasia,
thymoma and smooth-muscle antibodies.
Question 7
Explanation:
Correct answer:
Kidd blood group system
The Kidd blood group system is abbreviated Jk. The Kell blood group system is abbreviated K. The
Duffy blood group system is abbreviated Fy. The Lutheran blood group system is abbreviated Lu.
Question 8
The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) requires the medical staff
to review blood usage quarterly for all but which of the following?
appropriateness of transfusions
evaluation of transfusion reactions
development and implementation of policies and procedures
employment records of staff
Explanation:
Correct answer:
employment records of staff
Reviewing the employment records of staff is not one of the requirements of JCAHO. All of the other
choices are requirements along with adequacy of transfusion services and blood product ordering
practices.
Question 9
Treponema pallidum
Explanation:
Correct answer:
Treponema pallidum
Treponema pallidum causes venereal syphilis, which cannot be cultured in the laboratory. It uses tissue
culture to grow. It is transmitted by sexual contact, direct blood transmission or transplacentally.
Which of the following renal diseases or conditions can be described as tubular necrosis caused by
nephrotoxic agents and other disease processes that result in total inability to filter blood?
renal failure
chronic pyelonephritis
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
acute interstitial nephritis
renal failure
Explanation:
Correct answer:
renal failure
Renal failure is described as tubular necrosis caused by nephrotoxic agents and other disease
processes that result in failure of the kidneys to filter blood. Chronic pyelonephritis is chronic
inflammation of the tubules and interstitial tissue. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is a more
serious form of acute glomerulonephritis that can result in renal failure. Acute interstitial nephritis is an
infection of the nephrons.
Question 1
affective domain
Explanation:
Correct answer:
affective domain
Explanation:
Correct answer:
many accessible veins
If there are a number of accessible veins and they are not fragile then venipuncture is indicated not
capillary puncture. The other choices would be indicators for capillary puncture along with blood to be
obtained for POCT procedures such as glucose monitoring.
Question 3
In the bone marrow the precursor of all cells is which of the following?
hematopoietic stem cell
pluripotent stem cell
myeloid stem cell
basophils
Explanation:
Correct answer:
pluripotent stem cell
The pluripotent stem cell (PPSC) is the origin of all blood cells. In the bone marrow, it is the precursor
of all cells and develops into hematopoietic stem cell
Question 4
Which of the following is a type of functional granule in platelets that contains von Willebrand’s factor?
dense core granule
alpha granule
cytoplasmic granule
submembrane granule
alpha granule
Explanation:
Correct answer:
alpha granule
There are two kinds of functional granules. The alpha granules contain figrinogen, von Willebrand’s
factor, platelet-derived growth factor, PF4, and other proteins. Dense core granules contain ADP, ATP,
5-HT and calcium.
Question 5
The agglutination reaction that is a naturally occurring process where a virus will agglutinate red blood
cells by binding to surface receptors is which of the following?
direct agglutination
column agglutination technology (CAT)
passive agglutination
viral hemagglutination
viral hemagglutination
Explanation:
Correct answer:
viral hemagglutination
The agglutination reaction that is a naturally occurring process where a virus will agglutinate red blood
cells by binding to surface receptors is viral hemagglutination. All of the other choices are also valid
agglutination reactions.
Question 6
Agglutination reactions are graded. The 4+ RBC button is best described as which of the following?
solid with a clear supernatant
several large clumps, clear supernatant
many medium-sized clumps, clear supernatant
many medium and small-sized clumps, background has many free RBCs
Explanation:
Correct answer:
solid with a clear supernatant
Agglutination reactions are graded from 4+ down to zero. 4+ RBC buttons are solid with a clear
supernatant. Zero (0) has no agglutinated RBCs.
Question 7
Explanation:
Correct answer:
The frozen plasma is thawed at 30 – 45 degrees C for 20 minutes before transfusion.
This is the incorrect statement. Frozen plasma is thawed at 30 – 37 degrees C for 30 to 45 minutes
before transfusion.
Question 8
Explanation:
Correct answer:
Serotype classification is based on the Kauffman-White system.
This is the true statement. Most Salmonella serotypes are pathogenic to humans and
animals. Salmonella will cause gastroenteritis (moderate to severe). Suspect Salmonella infections
from stool cultures show lactose negative colonies.
Question 9
Which of the following terms is used for the encysted form of an egg?
hydatid cyst
oocyst
entamoeba cyst
giradia lamblia cyst
oocyst
Explanation:
Correct answer:
oocyst
An oocyst is the encysted form of an egg. It is a thick-walled structure in which sporozoan zygotes
develop and that serves to transfer them to new hosts.
Question 10
creatinine clearance
Explanation:
Correct answer:
creatinine clearance
Creatinine clearance is considered a glomerular test; it is not a renal tubular reabsorption test. Renal
tubular absorptions tests are used to detect early renal disease. Glomerular tests are used to assess
renal waste removal.