Home Page Exam Question Downloads Download TesTTaker Software Free Sample Downloads Maritime Links Member Comments

omments Contact SeaSources Boat Jobs Available

Click Here to Enter SeaSources Online USCG License Prep Site

This page is just a preview of the Coast Guard question database. To test yourself on these questions click on the big blue link above.

Click here to see detailed video instructions on using SeaSources.net online license preparation.

All of the latest questions and illustrations on "Engineering General Subjects II" are in the Online Study.

This page is currently being updated

1. (1.2.7.1-10) The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to _.

(a) maintain steady pressure in a system
(b) eliminate hot air from the condenser
(c) heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
(d) reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates

2. (1.2.7.1-7) If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a
condensing medium, what statement is true?
(a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat; the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
(b) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
(c) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
(d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.

3. (1.2.7.1-8) What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such
as a air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?
(a) Counter flow
(b) Series flow
(c) Parallel flow
(d) Cross flow

4. (1.2.7.1-1) If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine
are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?
(a) Sea water flows through the shells of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
(b) Sea water flows through the tubes of the lube oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket water cooler.
(c) Sea water flows through the tubes of the jacket water cooler and through the shell of the lube oil cooler.
(d) Sea water flows through the tubes of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.

5. (1.2.7.1-9) If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet
connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?
(a) The number of fluid passes cannot be determined.
(b) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass.
(c) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
(d) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass.

6. (1.2.8.1-1) Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed .

(a) solely by the charge applied by the accumulators
(b) by resistance to the fluid flow through the system
(c) only by the pump as its primary function
(d) by the thermal input to the system's fluid

7. (1.2.8.1-2) In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if
the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)?
Illustration GS-0062
(a) 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2)
(b) 800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2)
(c) 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm2)
(d) 80,000 psi (5631 kg/cm2)

8. (1.2.8.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing an hydraulic oil's
viscosity?
(a) Pressure
(b) Pour point
(c) Cloud point
(d) Vacuum

9. (1.2.8.1-4) The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally .

(a) harmless and have no effect on system components

(b) always neutralized by oil additives
(c) gums, varnishes, and acids
(d) removed by cellulose type filters
10. (1.2.8.1-5) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the

(a) reservoir expansion chamber

(b) hydraulic piping flexibility
(c) atmosphere as heat
(d) fluid as friction

11. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a _ . Illustration GS-0098
(a) two-stage, pump unit
(b) combined, pump unit
(c) duplex, pump unit
(d) parallel, pump unit

12. (1.2.8.2-3) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated
figures A, B, and C, indicates the component . Illustration GS-0068
(a) is pilot controlled
(b) allows flow in one direction only
(c) can be adjusted or varied
(d) is pressure compensated

13. (1.2.8.2-5) Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are _. Illustration GS-0103

(a) motor operated with one pump located in
way
(b) manually operated with one pump located
(c) motor operated with one pump located on
watertight door
(d) manually operated with one pump located
the engine room at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage
at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage way
the engine room side and the other on the shaft alley side of the
in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley of the watertight door

14. (1.2.8.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an _ . Illustration GS-0097
(a) combined pump unit
(b) series-flow pump unit
(c) two-stage pump unit
(d) double pump unit

15. (1.2.8.2-4) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __. Illustration GS- 0103
(a) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed
(b) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
(c) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
(d) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed

16. (1.2.8.3-1) Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the
(a) ram
(b) actuator
(c) reservoir
(d) accumulator

17. (1.2.8.3-4) The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination
from hydraulic fluid is a/an _ _.
(a) accumulator
(b) separator
(c) strainer
(d) filter

18. (1.2.8.3-5) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented
by figure . Illustration GS-0100
(a) A or B
(b) A or C
(c) B or C
(d) C or D

19. (1.2.8.3-6) The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the .
(a) inner tube
(b) outer cover
(c) outer armor
(d) braided inner layer(s)

20. (1.2.8.3-7) The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is
. Illustration GS-0058
(a) increased by adding a shorter cylinder block
(b) fixed by the pump housing angle
(c) decreased by adding a longer cylinder block
(d) increased by adding a longer cylinder block
21. (1.2.8.3-8) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be
done?
(a) Provide one additional slot and vane.
(b) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
(c) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
(d) Double the casing thickness.

22. (1.2.8.3-3) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by
. Illustration GS-0118
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

23. (1.2.8.3-2) Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the
fluid surface level to _.
(a) prevent moisture accumulation
(b) prevent vacuum formation
(c) prevent foaming
(d) accommodate thermal expansion

24. (1.2.9.1-1) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both
positive and negative pressures?
(a) Simplex gauge
(b) Differential pressure gauge
(c) Duplex gauge
(d) Compound gauge

25. (1.2.9.1-4) Which of the following direct reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump
suction pressure gauge?
(a) Differential pressure gauge
(b) Vacuum gauge
(c) Compound gauge
(d) Standard pressure gauge

26. (1.2.9.1-3) Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and
displaying the difference between the two?
(a) Simplex gauge
(b) Compound gauge
(c) Differential pressure gauge
(d) Duplex gauge

27. (1.2.9.1-7) Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent
gauge damage?
(a) Hydraulic oil pressure
(b) Heavy fuel oil
(c) Compressed air pressure
(d) Steam pressure

28. (1.2.9.1-8) When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct reading pressure gauge, what should be
done?
(a) Attempt to determine the midpoint between the maximum and minimum pressures and use this as an estimate of the
average pressure.
(b) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be throttled down (without closing) until the fluctuation ceases.

(c) The maximum and minimum pressures should be noted and added together and divided by two to obtain the average
pressure.
(d) The pulsation dampening needle valve should be opened wider until the fluctuation ceases.

29. (1.2.9.1-10) If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure
reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?
(a) 29.1 psia
(b) 43.8 psia
(c) 58.5 psia
(d) 61.2 psia

30. (1.2.9.3-5) When determining the level of a potable water hydro-pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight
glass, what must be taken into consideration?
(a) The sight glass must be drained, blown down, and re-filled before each reading is taken.
(b) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat higher than the level shown in the sight
glass.
(c) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat lower than the level shown in the sight
glass.
(d) The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is identical to the level shown in the sight glass.
31. (1.2.9.3-4) What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?
(a) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank, and ullage is the distance
between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank.
(b) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and bottom of the tank, and ullage is the distance between
the oil/water interface and the top of the tank.
(c) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and top of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the
oil/water interface and the bottom of the tank.
(d) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank, and ullage is the distance
between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank.

32. (1.2.9.3-9) What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank
level?
(a) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is proportional to the
liquid level in the tank.
(b) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is inversely related to
the liquid level in the tank.
(c) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is proportional to the
liquid level in the tank.
(d) The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is inversely related to
the liquid level in the tank.

33. (1.2.9.3-1) What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?

(a) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube attach to an end at an opening at the top of the tank.
(b) The vent pipe attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the sounding tube passes through the
tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
(c) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube pass through the tank top and extend almost to the tank bottom.
(d) The sounding tube attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the vent pipe passes through the
tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.

34. (1.2.9.3-6) In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?
(a) Indicating a fresh water level, where the water is clear.
(b) Indicating a lubricating oil level, where the oil is honey colored.
(c) Indicating a heavy fuel oil level, where the fuel is dark.
(d) Indicating a chemically treated water level, where the water is brightly colored.

35. (1.2.9.3-2) What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of
taking a vented tank sounding?
(a) The bob has a cupped end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(b) The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(c) The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
(d) The bob has a pointed end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.

36. (1.2.9.4-4) What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?
(a) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force
up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
(b) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force
down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(c) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force
down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
(d) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force
up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.

37. (1.2.9.2-7) If a thermometer reads 80oC, what is the equivalent temperature in oF?
(a) 12oF
(b) 76oF
(c) 112oF
(d) 176oF

38. (1.2.9.2-10) If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct
this situation?
(a) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the lower end and try to recombine the mercury by several
full arm swings.
(b) Repeatedly tap the side of the thermometer until the mercury recombines.
(c) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the upper end and try to recombine the mercury by several
full arm swings.
(d) It is not possible to correct this situation.

39. (1.2.9.2-2) What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar
metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?
(a) Bimetallic thermometer
(b) Liquid-in-glass thermometer
(c) Bourdon tube thermometer
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer

40. (1.2.9.2-8) If a thermometer reads 850oF, what is the equivalent temperature in oC?
(a) 454oC o (b) 490oC o (c) 1,472oC o (d) 1,585oC

41. (1.2.10-4) What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?
(a) Lime-based grease
(b) Lithium-based grease
(c) Calcium-based grease
(d) Aluminum-based grease

42. (1.2.10-6) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the
significant difference between the two lubricating oils?
(a) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is
primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
(b) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily
intended for high ambient temperature service.
(c) The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is
primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
(d) The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily
intended for low ambient temperature service.

43. (1.2.10-3) What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
(a) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the pressure
changes.
(b) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the temperature
changes.
(c) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the pressure
changes.
(d) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the temperature
changes.

44. (1.2.10-7) If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?
(a) The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100oC (high) temperature
requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(b) The oil is formulated to meet the 100oC (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the low temperature
requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(c) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
(d) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a year- round oil.

45. (1.2.10-2) For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?
(a) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may increase or decrease,
depending upon the lubricant.
(b) As the temperature of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating oil remains
constant.
(c) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil also increases.
(d) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases.

46. (1.2.4.7-1) The control of exhaust temperature on a
temperature normally controlled?
(a) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating
chamber.
(b) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating
(c) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating
(d) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating
stream.
solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this
by the admission of combustion air into the combustion
the admission of auxiliary fuel to the burner.
the exhaust gas flow.
the admission of relatively cool ambient air into the exhaust

47. (1.2.1.1-11) One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
. Illustration GS-0119
(a) act solely as a heat exchanger
(b) act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator
(c) provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases
(d) act as a lube oil sump

48. (1.2.1.1-4) The unloading system on an air compressor will .

(a) increase compressor operating speed as necessary
(b) reduce the compressor frictional load when starting
(c) increase compressor discharge pressure on demand
(d) allow the motor to turn the compressor opposed only by friction

49. (1.2.1.1-7) Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?

(a) The actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas the actuator closing spring on a
safety valve acts in tension.
(b) Relief valves are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not.
(c) A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a safety valve fully opens
at the set point pressure.
(d) The blow down of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve.
50. (1.2.1.1-12) The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as _.
Illustration GS-0119
(a) a diesel engine air start unit only
(b) a constant pressure unit while operating under all load conditions
(c) an on-off cycle unit
(d) a constant capacity unit

51. (1.2.1.1-6) The primary function of the device illustrated is to . Illustration GS-0029
(a) remove all but the frictional load of an air compressor at start-up
(b) intensify the pressure developed by an air compressor during its normal running operation
(c) pre-charge the cylinders of an air compressor prior to the start-up of the unit
(d) open the discharge valves during the compressor s operation to supply compressed air

52. (1.2.1.1-8) The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to _ . Illustration GS- 0120
(a) pump refrigerant
(b) generate electricity
(c) compress air
(d) pump heavy liquids

53. (1.2.1.2-6) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-
0175
(a) oily bilge water outlet
(b) oily bilge water inlet
(c) processed oil outlet
(d) clean water flushing line

54. (1.2.1.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to . Illustration GS-0153
(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
(d) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid

55. (1.2.1.2-5) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-0175

(a) oil discharge line

(b) clean water flushing line
(c) oily bilge water inlet
(d) tank drain line

56. (1.2.1.2-8) Which of the valves listed for the device shown in illustration will be open while the unit is
operating in the back flush mode? Illustration GS-0153
(a) valve "4"
(b) valves "4" and "5"
(c) valves "4" and "14"
(d) valves "4", "5", and "14"

57. (1.2.1.3-2) In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be

(a) non-existent
(b) maintained by the number of disks in the disk stack
(c) maintained by the diaphragm-type, weir control valve
(d) maintained by the ring dam

58. (1.2.1.3-4) A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?
(a) Gasoline
(b) Diesel fuel
(c) Carbon particles
(d) Fuel oil

59. (1.2.1.3-7) Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be
removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?
(a) Diesel fuel oil
(b) Metal particles
(c) Water
(d) Carbon particles

60. (1.2.1.3-6) When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will _.

(a) force the diameter of the oil column within the bowl to be narrowed
(b) be retained in the bowl
(c) displace water from the heavy phase discharge port, but of an amount less than that removed from the oil
(d) displace an equal amount of water from the bowl seal

61. (1.2.4.6-9) Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming
loads on an auxiliary boiler, are .
(a) automatically supplied with warmer air on demand
(b) automatically supplied with more fuel on demand
(c) equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers
(d) cycled on and off in response to steam demand

62. (1.2.4.6-5) Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?
(a) Combustion gases flow through the tubes.
(b) Flames impinge on the tubes.
(c) Combustion occurs in the tubes.
(d) Water flows through the tubes.

63. (1.2.4.6-11) A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system _.

(a) opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure

(b) detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing refractory
(c) requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply
(d) must be bypassed at low firing rates

64. (1.2.4.6-10) The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler,
is to prevent _.
(a) accidental dry firing and overpressure
(b) uncontrolled fires in the furnace
(c) explosions in the boiler furnace
(d) overheating of the pressure parts

65. (1.2.4.6-8) Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to .

(a) provide a means of draining the boiler
(b) warn the engineer of low water level
(c) cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
(d) open the burners' electrical firing circuits

66. (1.2.4.6-2) In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, .

(a) steam demand response is comparatively rapid
(b) steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
(c) unevaporated feed water is discharged through the skim tube
(d) steam demand response is slow

67. (1.2.4.6-7) The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by

(a) girder stays

(b) fire-tubes and stay-tubes
(c) external boiler plating
(d) separate crown sheets

68. (1.2.4.6-6) The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as . Illustration MO- 0064
(a) forced circulation, coil-type
(b) single-pass, fire-tube, scotch marine
(c) two-pass, scotch marine
(d) two-pass, water-tube

69. (1.2.4.6-3) Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _ .
(a) completely drain the boiler in an emergency
(b) prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum
(c) remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface
(d) remove settled solids from the water drum

70. (1.2.1.4-1) Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?

(a) Sludge
(b) Gasoline
(c) Fuel oil
(d) Lube oil

71. (1.2.1.4-3) For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel
at the lowest practicable .
(a) throughput
(b) additive percent
(c) Cetane number
(d) TBN number

72. (1.2.4.5-1) Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?

(a) Biological treatment plant

(b) Chemical treatment plant
(c) Sewage holding tank
(d) Direct overboard sewage discharge
73. (1.2.4.5-3) By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?

(a) Disinfection is not required on biological sewage treatment plants.

(b) Ultraviolet light irradiation is the only approved means of disinfection.
(c) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of disinfection.

(d) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution is the only approved means of disinfection.

74. (1.2.4.5-4) If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of
treatment chambers within the plant?
(a) Sedimentation, disinfection, aeration
(b) Disinfection, aeration, sedimentation
(c) Aeration, sedimentation, disinfection
(d) Sedimentation, aeration, disinfection

75. (1.2.4.5-5) Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the
purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?
(a) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote settling
in the aeration chamber.
(b) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote
settling in the aeration chamber.
(c) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent
settling in the aeration chamber.
(d) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling
in the aeration chamber.

76. (1.2.2-8) What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory
hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its
use?
(a) Emergency escape breathing apparatus
(b) Powered air-purifying respirator
(c) Reusable full-mask respirator
(d) Self-contained breathing apparatus

77. (1.2.2-10) What statement is true concerning portable power tools?

(a) A power tool fitted with a three conductor cable and three-prong plug may be safely used with an ungrounded outlet
as long as a three prong receptacle to two prong plug adapter is used.
(b) Power tools other than those as approved as double-insulated require the use of two conductor cables, two-prong
plugs, and ungrounded receptacles.
(c) Unless the power tool is an approved double-insulated type, an ungrounded power tool has the potential to cause a
fatal accident due to electrical shock.
(d) Double-insulated power tools require the use of three conductor cables, three-prong plugs, and grounded
receptacles.

78. (1.2.2-1) Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper
technique for lifting an object?
(a) Bend over and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the back.
Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(b) Bend the knees and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the
legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
(c) Bend over and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the
back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
(d) Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the
legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.

79. (1.2.2-9) What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded
fasteners?
(a) When extra leverage is needed for wrenches and drive tools, the use of a cheater bar is recommended.
(b) Push wrenches and drive tool handles rather than pull them for greater control and balance and to avoid injury.

(c) Six point sockets are less prone to slippage than twelve point sockets.
(d) For initial breaking loose and final tightening of fasteners, the use of open end wrenches is recommended.

80. (1.2.2-6) What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?

(a) Full-face shield

(b) Side-shielded safety glasses
(c) Eyecup or cover-type safety goggles
(d) Full-face shield and safety goggles

81. (1.2.3.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __.
(a) rolling member size
(b) inner race cone width
(c) manufacturer's numerical code
(d) outer ring width
82. (1.2.3.1-2) Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller
bearings?
(a) They have a relatively high power loss due to friction.
(b) They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.
(c) Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention.
(d) They are well adapted to variable speed operation.

83. (1.2.3.1-3) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
(a) Thrust bearing
(b) Piston pin bushing
(c) Spring bearing
(d) All of the above.

84. (1.2.3.1-4) An example of an antifriction bearing is a _.

(a) line shaft or spring bearing
(b) Kingsbury thrust bearing
(c) rubber cutlass strut bearing
(d) ball bearing

85. (1.2.3.1-5) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?
(a) Ball
(b) Roller
(c) Tapered roller
(d) Needle

86. (1.2.3.1-6) Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?
(a) They have a greater tolerance for high-speed applications.
(b) They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue.
(c) They have a greater contact area.
(d) They are installed with tighter clearances.

87. (1.2.3.2-3) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by

(a) spring force

(b) a pressure gun
(c) a Zerk fitting
(d) gravity flow

88. (1.2.3.2-6) To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of
grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately .
(a) 10-25% of the original void space in the bearing
(b) 25-50% of the original void space in the bearing
(c) 50-75% of the original void space in the bearing
(d) 75-95% of the original void space in the bearing

89. (1.2.3.2-1) Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily
removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and
sufficiently warmed up to ensure that .
(a) all air pockets are vented from the grease
(b) dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing
(c) the grease is properly distributed within the bearing
(d) a path of expansion is provided for the grease

90. (1.2.3.2-2) When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should _.
(a) apply even pressure to the outer race
(b) apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races
(c) apply even force to the inner race
(d) tap the outer race with a mallet

91. (1.2.3.2-5) Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?
(a) An acetylene torch and hammer
(b) A tapered 'come-a-long'
(c) A steel drift pin and hammer
(d) An arbor press

92. (1.2.3.2-4) Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?

(a) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.

(b) The outer race should be free to turn in its housing.
(c) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(d) They are usually pressed onto their shafts.

93. (1.2.3.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause .
(a) excessive channeling of the grease
(b) high temperatures to develop as result of churning
(c) emulsification of the thickener additive
(d) gelling of the base oil

94. (1.2.3.3-2) A ball bearing will overheat if .

(a) filled with grease to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing
(b) operated at designed high-speed
(c) completely packed full of grease
(d) in use for a long time

95. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?
(a) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint should be
applied in parallel strokes only.
(b) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in
cross strokes only.
(c) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint should be
applied in cross strokes only.
(d) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in
parallel strokes only.

96. (1.2.4-3) When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize
bimetallic corrosion?
(a) The plates should be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets and non-conductive
ferrule sleeves with the bolts.
(b) The plates should be bonded together electrically by joining the plates by a bonding strap in addition to bolting
together.
(c) Steel and aluminum are so close together on the Noble series that no particular provision need be made for bolting
steel and aluminum plates together.
(d) The plates should be bolted together in such a way as to ensure good electrical contact between the plates.

97. (1.2.4-2) What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic
corrosion of steel and cast iron?
(a) Bronze
(b) Platinum
(c) Zinc
(d) Brass

98. (1.2.4-4) Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly
prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?
(a) Dirt, oil and grease must be removed. Rust and mill scale may remain.
(b) All dirt, rust and mill scale must be removed. Oil and grease can remain.
(c) All dirt, oil, grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed.
(d) All previous paint must be removed.

99. (1.2.4-7) In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed
hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?
(a) Chipping hammer
(b) Sandpaper
(c) Wire brush
(d) Hand scraper

100. (1.2.4-8) What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?

(a) Thoroughly mixing paint by pouring paint back and forth between two cans.
(b) Thoroughly mixing paint by using a mechanical stirrer.
(c) Removing the "skin" that has formed on the surface of the paint in the can.
(d) Stacking paint cans within a suitable box.

101. (1.2.12-6) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?
(a) Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
(b) Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.
(c) Only when the tags have been removed by an authorized person.
(d) Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.

102. (1.2.12-2) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?
(a) Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.
(b) Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.
(c) Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
(d) Under NO circumstances should the equipment be operated when tagged.

103. (1.2.12-5) Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for
performing maintenance or repairs?
(a) When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY.
(b) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY.
(c) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment.
(d) When operation of the equipment requires temporary special instructions to be provided.
104. (1.2.12-1) When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for
accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?
(a) Orange
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Green

105. (1.2.14.1-4) What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water separator?

(a) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that sink to the
bottom of the filter housing.
(b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil of the oily-
water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.

(c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained water of the
oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to the top of the filter housing.

(d) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil of the oily-
water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of the filter housing.

106. (1.2.14.1-5) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line
"E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve
"D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unit? Illustration GS-0175

(a) The oily-water separator is in the
water holding tank with an oil content
(b) The oily-water separator is in the
oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the
water holding tank with an oil content
(d) The oily-water separator is in the
oil content greater than 15 ppm.
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge
less than 15 ppm.
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge
greater than 15 ppm.
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an

107. (1.2.14.1-3) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily- water mixture
associated with an oily-water separator?
(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.

108. (1.2.14.2-1) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by _.
(a) pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container
(b) holding all sewage onboard
(c) treating sewage in an approved system
(d) all of the above

109. (1.2.14.2-2) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush
water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV

110. (1.2.15-3) Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the
fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?
(a) Flash point
(b) Viscosity
(c) Pour point
(d) Specific gravity

111. (1.2.15-2) Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring,
pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?
(a) Viscosity
(b) Fire point
(c) Specific gravity
(d) Flash point

112. (1.2.15-7) When heated, fuel oil will .

(a) have a higher specific heat
(b) increase in specific gravity
(c) increase in viscosity
(d) expand in volume

113. (1.2.15-9) The main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to .

(a) prevent loss of suction during rough weather

(b) facilitate water removal
(c) decrease suction head on the pump
(d) increase the amount of fuel available for use

114. (1.2.15-4) The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an _ .

(a) viscosimeter
(b) calorimeter
(c) open cup test
(d) hydrometer

115. (1.2.17-6) What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the
valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?
(a) A small valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.
(b) A large valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.
(c) A large valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.
(d) A small valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.

116. (1.2.17-2) Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is
associated with an endless chain for operation?
(a) The valve is located too far directly above the deck where it is operated from.
(b) The valve is located too far directly across from the location where it is operated.
(c) The valve is located too far directly below the deck where it is operated from.
(d) A chain-operated valve can be used in any of the applications listed above.

117. (1.2.17-8) What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem
gate valve?
(a) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully
opening.
(b) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully
opening.
(c) The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully
closing.
(d) The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully
closing.

118. (1.2.17-3) In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space
when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?
(a) A valve located in a compressed air line.
(b) A valve located in a potable water transfer line.
(c) A valve located in a sea water cooling line.
(d) A valve located in a fuel oil transfer line.

119. (1.2.17-9) Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a hand wheel for local operation if the motor fails.
If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?
(a) First move the lever to disengage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(b) Just rotate the hand wheel in the appropriate direction for valve operation.
(c) First move the lever to engage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
(d) Motor operated valves are generally not fitted with local hand wheels.

120. (1.2.18-2) On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For
engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?
(a) Fifteen minutes before the hour
(b) Thirty minutes before the hour
(c) On the hour
(d) Fifteen minutes after the hour

121. (1.2.18-5) In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be
the most immediately critical?
(a) M/E low lube oil pressure alarm
(b) M/E high coolant temperature alarm
(c) E/R fixed CO2 impending release alarm
(d) General emergency alarm

122. (1.2.18-4) On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the
manning of the engine room?
(a) Chief mate
(b) Chief engineer
(c) Officer in charge of the engineering watch
(d) First assistant engineer
123. (1.2.19.1-6) The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V” indicates _. Illustration GS-0076
(a) the first pass of the weld is to be back gouged
(b) the arrow side of the weld is to be surface finished
(c) the opposite side of the weld is to be surface finished
(d) a "V" groove weld is to be made

124. (1.2.19.1-10) When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to _ .
(a) control penetration
(b) reduce metal fatigue and warpage
(c) increase heat transfer
(d) reduce oxidation

125. (1.2.19.1-13) A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to each other,
and is called a .
(a) seam weld
(b) tack weld
(c) plug weld
(d) fillet weld

126. (1.2.19.1-2) In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a . Illustration GS-0078

(a) double fillet weld only

(b) U-weld over a backing ring
(c) plug and slot weld
(d) V-weld over a backing ring

127. (1.2.19.1-3) Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the negative pole
for the arc, is known as a/an _.
(a) inert-arc welding circuit
(b) reverse polarity welding circuit
(c) straight polarity welding circuit
(d) shielded-arc welding circuit

128. (1.2.19.1-9) Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weld? Illustration GS-0077
(a) 4A
(b) 3B
(c) 4B
(d) 6B

129. (1.2.19.2-11) Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxyacetylene torch?

(a) Open the acetylene valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the oxygen valve.
(b) Open the oxygen valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the acetylene valve.
(c) Open the acetylene valve very slightly and the oxygen valve the same amount to light-off.
(d) Open the oxygen valve wide open and the acetylene valve slightly to light-off.

130. (1.2.19.2-10) Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxyacetylene
regulators and torches?
(a) The torch oxygen inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
(b) The acetylene regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed".
(c) The oxygen regulator hose outlet thread connection is "left handed".
(d) The torch acetylene inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".

131. (1.2.19.2-3) When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the .
(a) cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero
(b) cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses
(c) cylinder valves only
(d) hand valves on the torch only

132. (1.2.19.2-4) When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, _.

(a) open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG
(b) a flashback of flame into the hose is normal
(c) a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape
(d) open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem

133. (1.2.19.2-1) With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of
non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an .
(a) nitriding fusion
(b) neutral flame
(c) carburizing flame
(d) oxidizing flame

134. (1.2.19.3-4) Solder is an alloy of .

(a) copper and lead
(b) beryllium and antimony
(c) tin and lead
(d) silicon and selenium

135. (1.2.19.3-2) Tinning a soldering iron will _ _.

(a) add extra weight to the tip
(b) prevent the tip from overheating
(c) prevent tip oxidation when heated
(d) protect the tip from scratches

136. (1.2.19.3-3) Flux is used when soldering, in order to _ .

(a) ensure proper tinning
(b) make the solder "flow"
(c) decrease the melting point of the solder
(d) clean the joint area

137. (1.2.11.6-4) The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal _ _.
(a) tougher
(b) harder
(c) smoother
(d) softer

138. (1.2.11.6-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its _ _ _.
(a) ductibility
(b) elasticity
(c) malleability
(d) fusibility

139. (1.2.11.6-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties
are achieved?
(a) increase in brittleness
(b) increase in corrosion resistance
(c) increase in hardening
(d) decrease in brittleness

140. (1.2.11.6-5) Ferrous metals are metals containing _ .

(a) a large percentage of copper
(b) no iron
(c) a large percentage of aluminum
(d) a large percentage of iron

141. (1.2.11.6-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then
cooling it is known as .
(a) case hardening
(b) low temperature hardening
(c) annealing
(d) tempering

142. (1.2.11.8.2-13) The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) curling tool
(b) hurling tool
(c) furling tool
(d) knurling tool

143. (1.2.11.8.2-15) The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the
. Illustration GS-0164
(a) nose angle
(b) working relief angle
(c) side rake angle
(d) side relief angle

144. (1.2.11.8.2-7) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool? Illustration
GS-0090
(a) Figure P
(b) Figure S
(c) Figure T
(d) Figure V

145. (1.2.11.8.2-9) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure I?
Illustration GS-0009
(a) A
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D

146. (1.2.11.8.2-6) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter .
(a) allows for misaligned center holes
(b) has a spring loaded catch
(c) has a headless set screw
(d) is more easily centered

147. (1.2.11.8.2-12) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) universal turning tools
(b) parting tools
(c) form tools
(d) curvature cutting tools

148. (1.2.11.8.2-8) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) left cut side-facing tool
(b) right side end facing tool
(c) cutting-off tool
(d) universal turning tool

149. (1.2.11.8.1-22) Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Soft brass
(c) Aluminum
(d) Mild steel

150. (1.2.11.8.1-9) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the lathe must be
set over _ .
(a) 3/8 inch
(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 3/4 inch
(d) 7/8 inch

151. (1.2.11.8.1-18) The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the .

(a) taper attachment

(b) tailstock set over method
(c) headstock set over method
(d) compound rest

152. (1.2.11.8.1-5) For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a
_ .
(a) compound rest
(b) draw-in collet chuck
(c) steady rest
(d) faceplate

153. (1.2.11.8.1-26) To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the
illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on _ _. Illustration GS- 0084
(a) any line on the dial
(b) any unnumbered half line
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) even numbered lines only

154. (1.2.11.8.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck
and a three-jaw universal chuck?
(a) The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
(b) Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate than the four-jaw
independent chuck.
(c) The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
(d) The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an eccentric position.

155. (1.2.11.8.1-30) Two separate work pieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset
tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in
the .
(a) diameter of the work piece
(b) angle of the cutting tool
(c) length of the work piece
(d) none of the above

156. (1.2.11.8.1-3) If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessively increased, the tool
will _ . Illustration GS-0085
(a) take a deeper cut in the work
(b) slip in the tool post
(c) chatter
(d) take a shallow cut
157. (1.2.11.8.1-12) A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check
alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end,
the tailstock must be moved _.
(a) closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
(b) toward you to correct alignment
(c) away from you to correct alignment
(d) away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

158. (1.2.11.8.1-29) When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by
the speed relationship between the _ .
(a) lead screw and headstock spindle
(b) drive motor and spindle
(c) spindle and feed rod
(d) lead screw and feed rod

159. (1.2.11.8.1-17) To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the

(a) feed-change lever

(b) back gear lever
(c) thread-chasing dial
(d) split or half-nut

160. (1.2.11.8.1-7) Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a

(a) spindle
(b) lathe dog
(c) crotch center
(d) chuck

161. (1.2.11.8.1-2) A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it _ .
(a) is dead centered on the tailstock spindle
(b) must be removed by clamping in the chuck
(c) fits into the dead center of the work piece
(d) does not revolve

162. (1.2.11.8.1-28) To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated,
you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on _ _. Illustration GS-0084
(a) any numbered line on the dial
(b) even numbered lines only
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) any line on the dial

163. (1.2.11.8.1-24) If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top
of the cutoff tool, you should .
(a) stop the lathe and tighten the chuck
(b) increase the lathe spindle speed
(c) increase the height of the tool cutting edge
(d) stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center

164. (1.2.11.9-3) To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you
should use a _ .
(a) machinist's rule
(b) feeler gage
(c) micrometer
(d) depth gage

165. (1.2.11.9-11) Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to

(a) click at each increment of measure

(b) prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
(c) stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
(d) eliminate ratchet movement

166. (1.2.11.9-14) What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0083
(a) 0.2280 inch
(b) 0.2340 inch
(c) 0.2470 inch
(d) 0.2520 inch

167. (1.2.11.9-7) A micrometer screw has a pitch of .

(a) 40 threads per inch
(b) 50 threads per inch
(c) 75 threads per inch
(d) 100 threads per inch
168. (1.2.11.9-9) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an

(a) outside micrometer

(b) dial indicator
(c) engineer's scale
(d) thread micrometer

169. (1.2.11.9-16) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to

(a) 2 5/8 inches

(b) 2 7/16 inches
(c) 3 1/8 inches
(d) 3 9/16 inches

170. (1.2.11.9-13) The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is
. Illustration GS-0082
(a) 2.308 inches
(b) 2.368 inches
(c) 2.380 inches
(d) 2.965 inches

171. (1.2.11.9-4) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when

(a) a dial lights on the handle

(b) the scale is read on the handle
(c) the dial is read on the handle
(d) an audible click is heard and the handle releases

172. (1.2.11.9-10) For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible to read in
increments of .
(a) five thousands of an inch
(b) ten thousands of an inch
(c) twenty five thousands of an inch
(d) one fortieth of an inch

173. (1.2.11.9-12) The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is
. Illustration GS-0081
(a) 0.4710 inch o (b) 0.4715 inch o (c) 0.4810 inch
(d) 0.4815 inch

174. (1.2.11.1.6-5) Ball peen hammers are sized according to their _ _.

(a) overall length
(b) face diameter
(c) head weight
(d) peen head size

175. (1.2.11.1.6-1) A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a _.

(a) main turbine bearing
(b) condensate pump ball bearing
(c) diesel engine wrist pin bearing
(d) generator crosshead bearing

176. (1.2.11.1.6-2) The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is

(a) a gasket cutter

(b) a pair of tin snips
(c) a jack knife
(d) a ball peen hammer

177. (1.2.11.1.6-4) The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for
renewing the gasket, is a _.
(a) gasket cutter
(b) scraper
(c) flange spreader
(d) spud wrench

178. (1.2.11.1.2-5) When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should .
(a) reduce cutting speed and pressure
(b) increase cutting speed and pressure
(c) change to a finer cut blade
(d) stop applying the cutting fluid

179. (1.2.11.1.2-9) Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters or flush to a
surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?
(a) Coping saw
(b) Stab saw
(c) Hole saw
(d) Back saw

180. (1.2.11.1.2-1) To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of
teeth per inch?
(a) 14
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 32

181. (1.2.11.1.2-4) A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you _ .
(a) file a nick where the cut is to be started
(b) turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
(c) coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
(d) apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut

182. (1.2.11.1.2-3) Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the

(a) front of the hacksaw frame

(b) backward stroke
(c) forward stroke
(d) top of the hacksaw frame

183. (1.2.11.1.2-2) To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the _ .
(a) teeth should point toward the handle
(b) blade can be installed in any position for normal use
(c) blade should be kept loose in the frame
(d) teeth should point away from the handle

184. (1.2.11.1.2-11) A hacksaw blade will break if .

(a) too much pressure is applied to the blade
(b) the blade becomes loose in the frame
(c) the rate of cutting is too great
(d) all the above

185. (1.2.11.1.2-7) When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting should be .
(a) 10 to 20 strokes per minute
(b) 80 to 100 strokes per minute
(c) 40 to 50 strokes per minute
(d) 70 to 80 strokes per minute

186. (1.2.11.1.2-6) The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the _ _.

(a) set
(b) pitch
(c) rake
(d) thread gauge

187. (1.2.11.1.5-4) Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridges resembling the
ridges of a splined socket wrench?
(a) Standard
(b) Reed and Prince
(c) Phillips
(d) Torx

188. (1.2.11.1.5-5) Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross- sectional tip?

(a) Torx
(b) Standard
(c) Phillips
(d) Allen

189. (1.2.11.1.5-8) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly
coiled steel?
(a) Square shank
(b) Jeweler's
(c) Flexible shaft
(d) Ratchet

190. (1.2.11.1.5-2) An offset screwdriver is best used for _.

(a) tightening Allen head screws only
(b) tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws
(c) screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver
(d) driving self-tapping screws only
191. (1.2.11.1.5-6) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small parts?
(a) Square shanked
(b) Allen head
(c) Ratchet
(d) Jeweler's

192. (1.2.11.1.5-3) Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?
(a) Standard screwdriver
(b) Phillips screwdriver
(c) Reed and Prince screwdriver
(d) Both B and C are correct

193. (1.2.11.1.5-9) Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have .

(a) insulated handles
(b) larger than normal shanks
(c) shorter than normal shanks
(d) longer than normal shanks

194. (1.2.11.1.5-1) Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _.
(a) prevent the shank from bending
(b) allow turning with a wrench
(c) permit striking with a hammer
(d) allow it to be used as a pry bar

195. (1.2.11.1.1-14) It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is _ _ .
(a) aluminum
(b) monel
(c) mild steel
(d) stainless steel

196. (1.2.11.1.1-3) Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?
(a) Float
(b) Second cut
(c) Mill
(d) Warding

197. (1.2.11.1.1-7) A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of _ .

(a) monel stock using heavy pressure
(b) brass stock using heavy pressure
(c) stainless steel stock using light pressure
(d) bronze stock using light pressure

198. (1.2.11.1.1-2) Double cut files are most effective when used for _.
(a) finish work
(b) rough work
(c) draw filing
(d) sharpening tools

199. (1.2.11.1.1-6) Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become

(a) smooth
(b) rough
(c) rounded
(d) tapered

200. (1.2.11.1.1-13) Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called _ .

(a) standard form filing

(b) cross filing
(c) draw filing
(d) stroke filing

201. (1.2.11.1.1-4) A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file

(a) scraper
(b) card
(c) dressing tool
(d) oilstone

202. (1.2.11.1.1-1) Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?
(a) A double cut file
(b) A single cut file
(c) Any bastard cut file
(d) Only a double bastard cut file
203. (1.2.11.1.1-8) Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular- shaped holes
and slots?
(a) Square
(b) Round
(c) Half round
(d) None of the above

204. (1.2.11.1.1-9) The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the _ _.
(a) distance between the parallel cuts of a file
(b) size of the file
(c) coarseness of file teeth
(d) both A and C are correct

205. (1.2.11.1.4-3) A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because _.
(a) pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes
(b) it must be held firmly by the head to strike it
(c) the chisel cannot be struck squarely
(d) the hammer head may be chipped

206. (1.2.11.1.4-5) What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?
(a) Remove the ragged edges by grinding.
(b) Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer.
(c) Use only light hammer blows with the chisel.
(d) Do not strike the mushroomed portion.

207. (1.2.11.1.4-7) Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting .
(a) V-grooves and inside sharp angles
(b) oil grooves in bearings
(c) keyways having square corners
(d) holes through metal plate

208. (1.2.11.1.4-4) The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you .
(a) soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods
(b) hold it next to a wet grinding wheel
(c) grind the cutting angle too small
(d) grind it for long periods of time with excessive pressure

209. (1.2.11.1.4-6) Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?
(a) Square nose
(b) Diamond point
(c) Round nose
(d) Flat cold

210. (1.2.11.1.4-8) Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?

(a) Prick punch

(b) Drift punch
(c) Center punch
(d) Aligning punch

211. (1.2.11.1.4-2) The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _ .
(a) round nose chisel
(b) cape chisel
(c) flat cold chisel
(d) diamond point chisel

212. (1.2.11.1.4-1) When using a chisel, you should _ _.

(a) wear gloves
(b) be certain it is a non-sparking type
(c) hold the tool lightly
(d) wear safety glasses

213. (1.2.11.1.4-9) An aligning punch is commonly used to .

(a) line up corresponding holes in adjacent symmetrical parts
(b) tighten tapered pins
(c) loosen jammed bolts
(d) remove snap rings

214. (1.2.11.1.3-5) In order to tighten the bolts of a crank pin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine
manufacturer, you should use a/an _ .
(a) offset box end
(b) torque wrench
(c) dial wrench
(d) hook spanner

215. (1.2.11.1.3-4) Open end wrenches are .

(a) intended for gripping round objects
(b) used with a speeder handle
(c) nonadjustable solid wrenches
(d) not suitable for tubing fittings

216. (1.2.11.1.3-3) Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off while
tightening a nut or bolt?
(a) Open end wrench
(b) Box end wrench
(c) Crescent wrench
(d) Monkey wrench

217. (1.2.11.1.3-8) Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _ _.

(a) strong back
(b) chain pipe wrench
(c) basin wrench
(d) monkey wrench

218. (1.2.11.1.3-2) Needle nosed pliers are best used to _.

(a) tighten electrical wire clamps
(b) grasp items positioned in tight places
(c) cut recessed cotter pins
(d) strip insulation from electric wire or cable

219. (1.2.11.1.3-1) The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American National Standard hex head machine bolt is _ _.

(a) 3/4 inch

(b) 7/8 inch
(c) 1 1/4 inches
(d) 1 1/2 inches

220. (1.2.11.1.3-7) A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when .

(a) the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting
(b) the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth
(c) a maximum pull is exerted with one hand
(d) an extension is placed on the wrench handle

221. (1.2.11.2-4) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should _.
(a) start tapping with a plug tap
(b) chamfer the edges of the holes
(c) flood the tap with mineral oil
(d) tap the holes without cutting oil

222. (1.2.11.2-7) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through you can
begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a _ _.
(a) taper tap
(b) bottoming tap
(c) plug tap
(d) finishing tap

223. (1.2.11.2-2) If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will _ _.

(a) straighten out after the third revolution

(b) be out of round on the work
(c) be cut crooked on the work
(d) be rough, weak, and easily broken

224. (1.2.11.2-6) The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread .
(a) die
(b) chaser
(c) tap
(d) broach

225. (1.2.11.2-1) The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to .

(a) pipe fittings
(b) machinist's hand taps
(c) measuring instruments
(d) drill press parts

226. (1.2.11.2-3) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies"; a plug tap is correctly used for

(a) reversing the threads in a hole

(b) the second cut when threading a blind hole
(c) chasing the threads on a circular rod
(d) starting the threads on a circular rod
227. (1.2.11.2-5) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably
be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?
(a) Use a tapered screw extractor only.
(b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
(c) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.
(d) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.

228. (1.2.11.3-16) The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to . Illustration GS- 0080
(a) secure tapered pins in position
(b) fasten pump casing flanges together
(c) assist in securing a coupling half to its shaft
(d) bolt motor frames to bedplates

229. (1.2.11.3-12) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw? Illustration GS-
0080
(a) figure G
(b) figure L
(c) figure C
(d) figure D

230. (1.2.11.3-4) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is _ _.
(a) threaded with national coarse threads
(b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
(c) made of non-corrosive metal
(d) not clad with any coating

231. (1.2.11.3-8) What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustration? Illustration GS- 0156

(a) The transit washers transmit the rotary motion of the cap screw to the actuating assembly.
(b) The locking plates are used to prevent the fastening devices from vibrating loose.
(c) The grounding straps help prevent electrolysis by improving the conductivity between the components.
(d) These abrasion resistors prevent damage to the surface around the bolt holes when tightening the bolts.

232. (1.2.11.3-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure
indicates the improper method for using these devices? Illustration GS-0156
(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C"
(d) "D"

233. (1.2.11.3-1) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the

(a) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
(b) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(c) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads

234. (1.2.11.3-11) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw? Illustration GS-
0080
(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure G
(d) figure L

235. (1.2.11.3-6) Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not
work itself loose due to vibration?
(a) Cap nut
(b) Castellated nut
(c) Wing nut
(d) Square nut

236. (1.2.11.4-8) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurements?
Illustration GS-0073
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

237. (1.2.11.4-6) To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a _.
(a) caliper
(b) steel rule
(c) micrometer
(d) scribing circle

238. (1.2.11.4-4) The center head of a combination square set is used to _.

(a) check the angle of thread cutting tools
(b) locate the center on round stock
(c) find right angles
(d) check degrees of angle

239. (1.2.11.4-10) Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?
(a) Inside micrometer
(b) Circular mil
(c) Wire gauge
(d) Gauge calibrator

240. (1.2.11.4-9) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a _ .
(a) hook rule
(b) flexible steel rule
(c) folding rule
(d) machinist's steel rule

241. (1.2.11.4-2) The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to _ . Illustration GS-0079

(a) gage resistors
(b) strip insulation from wire
(c) measure wire diameter
(d) measure insulation thickness

242. (1.2.11.4-1) A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should only be used to .

(a) clean file teeth

(b) punch gasket holes
(c) remove packing
(d) mark on metal

243. (1.2.11.4-7) A dial indicator is used to measure _.

(a) shaft eccentricity
(b) torque of a shaft
(c) scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces
(d) positive readings only

244. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure .
(a) on the unmarked edge of the rule
(b) from the one inch graduation mark
(c) on the narrow edge of the rule
(d) from the zero end on the scale

245. (1.2.11.4-3) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage? Illustration GS-
0073
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

246. (1.2.11.5-5) All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent _.
(a) electric shock if the tool is shorted
(b) grounding the plastic case through a short
(c) burning out the motor from an overload
(d) overloading the motor from a short

247. (1.2.11.5-1) A grinding wheel is trued with a .

(a) dressing tool
(b) round file
(c) lathe tool
(d) garnet stone

248. (1.2.11.5-3) A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the

(a) heat of friction

(b) blade from overheating
(c) cut from clogging
(d) blade from bending

249. (1.2.11.5-2) Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?
(a) Wear goggles or face shield.
(b) Be certain that the frame is properly grounded.
(c) Be properly trained in the use of this tool.
(d) Each of the above practices.

250. (1.2.11.5-4) The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth _ .
(a) pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade
(b) pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
(c) pointing away from the motor end of the machine
(d) pointing toward the motor end of the machine

251. (1.2.16.1.1-2) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the .
(a) discharge head
(b) total head
(c) suction head
(d) net positive suction head

252. (1.2.16.1.1-6) The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is
to .
(a) lubricate the packing
(b) distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box
(c) seal air from entering along the shaft
(d) cool the shaft

253. (1.2.16.1.1-1) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal
pump?
(a) Suction head
(b) Pump head
(c) Discharge head
(d) Total head

254. (1.2.16.1.1-11) The shaft sleeve for the pump illustrated is identified by the item numbered as
. Illustration GS-0143
(a) 14
(b) 17
(c) 27
(d) 68

255. (1.2.16.1.1-8) Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is
usually prevented by .
(a) wearing rings
(b) internally flooded lantern rings
(c) renewable sleeves
(d) a hardened sprayed metal coating

256. (1.2.16.1.1-17) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed is to .

(a) closely observe the pump discharge temperature

(b) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(c) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(d) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure

257. (1.2.16.1.1-4) A pump is defined as a device that .

(a) produces pressure
(b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
(c) is to develop a pressure differential
(d) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"

258. (1.2.16.1.1-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?
(a) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
(b) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
(c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
(d) They are started with the discharge valve opened.

259. (1.2.16.1.1-14) A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming _ .

(a) to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure
(b) in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
(c) primarily to lubricate the shaft seals
(d) due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller

260. (1.2.16.1.1-5) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to _ _ .

(a) separate air from the liquid being pumped
(b) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
(c) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
(d) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy

261. (1.2.16.1.1-7) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by _ _.

(a) lantern rings between the packing rings

(b) a compressed packing gland
(c) a liquid seal
(d) the stuffing box gland
262. (1.2.16.1.2-2) To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the
following procedures should be carried out?
(a) Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until the packing is properly seated.
(b) Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
(c) Lubricate the lantern ring with cylinder oil before installing new turns of packing.
(d) Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is operating.

263. (1.2.16.1.2-6) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be .

(a) reconditioned by metalizing and machining
(b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
(c) replaced with a satisfactory spare
(d) repaired by a suitable welding process

264. (1.2.16.1.2-7) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or
brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
(a) Scoring may result.
(b) Bonnet corrosion may result.
(c) Heat transfer is restricted.
(d) Valve seat will be damaged.

265. (1.2.16.1.2-5) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly
seated, the packing gland nuts should be _ .
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing

266. (1.2.16.1.2-1) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine
maintenance inspection?
(a) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(b) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.

267. (1.2.16.1.2-4) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions
should be observed?
(a) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
(c) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(d) Block off the sealing water connection.

268. (1.2.16.1.2-3) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is
required?
(a) Throttle in on the discharge valve.
(b) Replace the wearing rings.
(c) Replace the lantern rings.
(d) Throttle in on the suction valve.

269. (1.2.16.4.1-1) One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a .

(a) reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump

(b) volute in the propeller type pump
(c) velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump
(d) volute in the centrifugal type pump

270. (1.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type
pump?
(a) Fuel oil service booster system
(b) Fluid power transmission system
(c) Steering gear system
(d) Main circulating system

271. (1.2.16.4.1-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at
relatively low pressures?
(a) gear type
(b) reciprocating type
(c) screw type
(d) propeller type

272. (1.2.16.5.2-3) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to

(a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke

(b) place the steam pistons in the mid-stroke position
(c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
(d) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
273. (1.2.16.5.2-1) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
(a) Vegetable oil.
(b) Graphite and oil.
(c) Engine oil.
(d) Oil mixed with kerosene.

274. (1.2.16.5.2-4) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut
square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends .
(a) 45° apart
(b) 90° apart
(c) 120° apart
(d) 180° apart

275. (1.2.16.5.2-5) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should _ .

(a) use a packing hook

(b) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
(c) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
(d) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing

276. (1.2.16.5.2-2) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating
pump?
(a) Reinforced rubber packing
(b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
(c) High-pressure graphite packing
(d) Low-pressure braided asbestos packing

277. (1.2.16.6.3-1) An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will _.

(a) decrease pump capacity
(b) decrease pump cavitation
(c) increase discharge pressure
(d) decrease reaction ring clearance

278. (1.2.16.5.3-1) An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by

(a) clogged suction strainers

(b) clogged drain valves
(c) scarred cylinder walls
(d) defective intake valves

279. (1.2.16.5.3-5) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the .

(a) pump to operate sluggishly

(b) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
(c) cushioning valves to wear
(d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke

280. (1.2.16.5.3-2) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its
rated capacity?
(a) Excessive suction lift
(b) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
(c) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
(d) All of the above

281. (1.2.16.5.3-4) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be
caused by _ .
(a) lower than normal supply steam pressure
(b) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
(c) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
(d) lower than normal supply steam temperature

282. (1.2.16.6.1-6) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves _ .
(a) slightly opened
(b) throttled
(c) halfway opened
(d) fully opened

283. (1.2.16.6.1-2) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?

(a) Spur gear adjusters

(b) Replaceable liner plates
(c) Casing gear thrust bearings
(d) Replaceable gib inserts

284. (1.2.16.6.1-4) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
(a) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
(b) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
(c) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
(d) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps

285. (1.2.16.6.1-10) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0144
(a) Double screw rotary pump
(b) Deep well centrifugal pump
(c) Simplex reciprocating pump
(d) Triple screw rotary pump

286. (1.2.16.6.1-3) Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by

(a) the use of shaft end caps

(b) a stuffing box
(c) overlapping spaces between gear teeth
(d) a roller bearing

287. (1.2.16.6.1-7) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?
(a) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
(b) The pump can only be used for light oils.
(c) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
(d) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.

288. (1.2.16.6.1-1) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by

(a) changing the angle of the tilting plate

(b) moving the shaft trunnion block
(c) changing the speed of the pump
(d) moving the slide block and rotor

289. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the

(a) stuffing box diameter

(b) pitch of the screws
(c) direction of rotation of the screws
(d) type of driving gears

290. (1.2.16.6.1-11) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
. Illustration GS-0075
(a) area for pump packing
(b) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump
(c) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
(d) passage for gas to be discharged

291. (1.2.16.6.1-8) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a
simple spur gear pump?
(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(c) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
(d) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.

292. (1.2.16.6.1-5) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an
increase in the pump _.
(a) suction pressure
(b) discharge volume
(c) torque rating
(d) rotor clearances

293. (1.2.16.1.3-6) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of
the following operational problems?
(a) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low flow.
(b) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
(c) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.

294. (1.2.16.1.3-1) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the
discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the .
(a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(b) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(c) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

295. (1.2.16.1.3-4) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _.

(a) cavitations
(b) corrosion
(c) electrolysis
(d) abrasion

296. (1.2.16.1.3-2) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the .
(a) seal ring is improperly located
(b) pump is not primed
(c) water seal pipe is plugged
(d) impeller is flooded

297. (1.2.16.1.3-5) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is
caused by _ .
(a) under-tightening the packing
(b) insufficient lubrication of the packing
(c) failure to seat the packing rings
(d) packing ring rotation

298. (1.2.16.1.3-3) Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results
from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of _.
(a) vapor pockets
(b) steam knock
(c) fluid friction
(d) water hammer action

299. (1.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take
suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down
strokes?
(a) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
(b) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.
(c) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
(d) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.

300. (1.2.16.5.1-3) The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of .

(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) jet pumps
(c) reciprocating pumps
(d) propeller pumps

301. (1.2.16.5.1-9) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should
be _ .
(a) cycled at least once a day
(b) cycled once every 4 days
(c) cycled once every week
(d) watched carefully while idled

302. (1.2.16.5.1-8) When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?
(a) Water cylinder drain valve
(b) Steam cylinder drain valve
(c) Steam supply valve
(d) Steam exhaust valve

303. (1.2.16.5.1-7) When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be .

(a) wide opened

(b) 3/4 opened
(c) half opened
(d) almost completely closed

304. (1.2.16.5.1-5) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?

(a) Moving tappets

(b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
(c) Adjusting of the tappet collars
(d) Stay rods

305. (1.2.16.5.1-1) Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?

(a) Direct-acting
(b) Vertical
(c) Diffuser
(d) High-pressure

306. (1.2.16.5.1-6) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by

(a) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction

(b) variations in the throttle adjustment
(c) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod
(d) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod

307. (1.2.16.3.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal facing .
Illustration GS-0152
(a) away from the oil pressure being sealed
(b) away from the bearing housing recess
(c) toward the bearing preload washer
(d) toward the oil pressure being sealed

308. (1.2.16.3.1-3) Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?
(a) They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than salt water.
(b) Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the
spring compression.
(c) They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
(d) They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.

309. (1.2.16.3.1-6) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and
stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071
(a) notch and keyway
(b) bellows
(c) spring
(d) seal retaining ring

310. (1.2.16.3.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and
a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?
(a) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails
it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
(b) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
(c) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a packed gland is
perpendicular to the shaft.
(d) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling.

311. (1.2.16.3.1-8) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that .
(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(c) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications

312. (1.2.16.3.1-5) Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to
minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?

(a) Water under negative pressure.

(b) Water under positive pressure.
(c) Oil under positive pressure.
(d) Oil under negative pressure.

313. (1.2.16.3.1-4) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly
flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
(a) Conventional stuffing box
(b) Double mechanical seal
(c) Rubber bellows mechanical seal
(d) External mechanical seal

314. (1.2.16.3.1-2) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed
on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
(a) Copper and carbon.
(b) Copper.
(c) Carbon.
(d) Bronze.

315. (1.2.16.3.1-9) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to _.

(a) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
(c) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
(d) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces

316. (1.2.16.2.1-3) A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the

(a) small size of impeller

(b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
(c) lack of moving parts
(d) discharge end being smaller than the suction end

317. (1.2.16.2.1-2) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
(a) compressor
(b) injector
(c) siphon
(d) diffuser

318. (1.2.13.1.2-1) Tubing is sized by _ _.

(a) nominal inside diameter
(b) allowed working pressure
(c) cross-section area
(d) nominal outside diameter

319. (1.2.13.1.2-2) Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the
greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?
(a) Type K
(b) Type L
(c) Type M
(d) Type K, L and M have identical wall thicknesses

320. (1.2.13.1.3-6) The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of _ .
(a) admiralty metal
(b) Monel
(c) stellite
(d) a resilient material

321. (1.2.13.1.3-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustration?
Illustration GS-0047
(a) The valve only requires one turn of the hand wheel to fully open.
(b) The valve seats cannot be replaced or repaired.
(c) The valve is normally used to throttle the flow of liquid.
(d) The valve is a non-rising stem design.

322. (1.2.13.1.3-5) The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring

(a) no back flow

(b) high-pressure drops
(c) close regulation of flow
(d) no pressure drops

323. (1.2.13.1.3-4) The illustrated valve is known as a _ . Illustration GS-0056

(a) lift gate valve
(b) butterfly lift valve
(c) swing check valve
(d) swing globe valve

324. (1.2.13.1.3-2) What type of valve is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0047
(a) Check valve
(b) Butterfly valve
(c) Globe valve
(d) Gate valve

325. (1.2.13.1.1-12) Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints
or .
(a) union bulkhead fittings
(b) retractable flanges
(c) bends or loops in the line
(d) unions

326. (1.2.13.1.1-5) When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?

(a) Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6).
(b) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the counter-clockwise direction.
(c) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the clockwise direction.
(d) Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order.

327. (1.2.13.1.1-3) To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should _ .
(a) cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact
(b) place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet
(c) make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for proper alignment

(d) remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips

328. (1.2.13.1.1-17) A pipe coupling is a fitting having _ .

(a) outside threads on both ends
(b) inside threads on both ends
(c) a left-hand twist
(d) outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end

329. (1.2.13.1.1-9) Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?
(a) 3/8 inch
(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 5/8 inch
(d) 3/4 inch

330. (1.2.13.1.1-6) If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should .

(a) make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief
(b) check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions
(c) turn the old gasket over and install it again
(d) leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex

331. (1.2.13.1.1-11) The designation 'schedule 80 extra strong' refers to _ .

(a) piping wall thickness
(b) tubing bursting strength
(c) tensile strength of bolts
(d) weight of steel plate

332. (1.2.13.1.1-15) Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called 'pipe _ '.
(a) tees
(b) closures
(c) caps
(d) ells

333. (1.2.13.1.1-7) To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket _.
(a) and let cool slowly in the air
(b) and quench it in oil
(c) and carbonize it
(d) cherry red and quench in water

334. (1.2.13.1.1-14) Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe
nipples?
(a) Standard, extra-strong, double extra-strong, and schedule 80
(b) Close, short, long, and tank
(c) Cast, wrought, stainless, and brass
(d) Fully threaded, half threaded, long, and short

335. (1.2.13.1.1-10) Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the _.
(a) outside diameter
(b) wall thickness
(c) threaded diameter
(d) inside diameter

336. (1.2.13.1.1-8) Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?
(a) A 3/4" pipe with a standard wall thickness.
(b) A 3/4" pipe with an extra strong wall thickness.
(c) A 3/4" pipe with a double extra strong wall thickness.
(d) All have the same outside diameter.

337. (1.2.13.2.1-1) To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a
hole, you should .
(a) work the reamer side to side to dislodge it
(b) tap the reamer out with a soft faced hammer
(c) turn the tap wrench counter-clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
(d) turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer

338. (1.2.13.2.1-4) Before making up a flanged joint, you should .

(a) cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel
(b) be certain that the flanges line up squarely
(c) heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes
(d) have a second spare gasket on hand

339. (1.2.13.2.1-9) A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for .
(a) enlarging existing threads
(b) straightening tapered threads
(c) restoring damaged threads
(d) cutting original threads

340. (1.2.13.2.1-3) The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe .
(a) cutter
(b) ratchet cutter
(c) threader
(d) stock and die
341. (1.2.13.2.1-2) Taps and dies used for threading pipe are .
(a) not hardened
(b) not fluted
(c) straight
(d) tapered

342. (1.2.13.2.1-7) When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should _.
(a) tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips
(b) continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die face
(c) never use a lubricant
(d) start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads

343. (1.2.13.2.1-8) A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly

(a) center drilled

(b) peened
(c) reamed
(d) chamfered

344. (1.2.13.2.1-6) Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dope? Illustration GS-
0046
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

345. (1.2.13.2.1-5) Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should _ .

(a) have a first aid kit on hand
(b) determine the size of the gasket
(c) hang a bucket under the joint
(d) be sure no pressure exists in the line

346. (1.2.13.2.2-1) Copper coil tubing is best cut with a .

(a) flare cutter
(b) tubing cutter
(c) pipe cutter
(d) hand hacksaw

347. (1.2.13.2.2-2) The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a

(a) flaring tool

(b) spreader
(c) stretcher
(d) swaging tool

348. (1.2.13.2.2-3) After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should _ .

(a) crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting
(b) flare the tube before removing the burrs
(c) rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file
(d) remove inside burrs with a reamer

349. (1.2.13.2.2-4) Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed .

(a) swaging
(b) flaring
(c) stretching
(d) belling

350. (1.2.5.1.2-5) A shot of anchor chain is equal to _ .

(a) 90 fathoms
(b) one - 15 foot segment
(c) one chain link
(d) one - 90 foot segment

351. (1.2.5.1.2-7) All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted _.
(a) red
(b) orange
(c) white
(d) yellow

352. (1.2.5.1.2-3) What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?
(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) White
353. (1.2.5.1.2-8) All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __.
(a) white
(b) orange
(c) yellow
(d) red

354. (1.2.5.1.2-9) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is
provided by _. Illustration GS-0160
(a) D
(b) E
(c) L
(d) M

355. (1.2.5.1.3-1) A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding

(a) half the breaking strength of the mooring line

(b) 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
(c) the full breaking strength of the mooring line
(d) the maximum expected tension of the mooring line

356. (1.2.5.1.3-2) When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the
spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is .
(a) opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured
(b) engaged by spring action plus hydraulic pressure
(c) engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
(d) released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating

357. (1.2.5.1.3-3) The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the
winch drum and should slip only when __ _.
(a) automatic operation of the winch is desired
(b) minimum pull is being exerted by the winch
(c) excessive loads are placed on the winch
(d) wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate

358. (1.2.5.2-2) If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not certain as to the
type of fluid to use, you should _ _.
(a) add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid
(b) add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir
(c) add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute
(d) check the winch manufacturer's instruction book

359. (1.2.5.2-3) Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent _.

(a) wear on the braking system
(b) damage to the teeth
(c) over speeding of the motor
(d) overheating of the lube oil

360. (1.2.5.2-4) The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to
cavitate if . Illustration GS-0118
(a) "A" is allowed to remain open
(b) "B" is over-tightened
(c) "H" were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it being replaced
(d) "D" is not kept clean

361. (1.2.5.2-5) If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should .

(a) adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism

(b) engage the motor friction clutch bands
(c) adjust the davit mounted limit switches
(d) remove unnecessary weight from the boat

362. (1.2.5.2-1) The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to _ .

(a) apply a light oil to the bearing housing

(b) replace the bearing with a new one
(c) allow the winch to run at slower speeds only
(d) add grease through the Zerk fitting

363. (1.2.5.3-4) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but
the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on
the high side of the system, the probable cause is the __ _. Illustration GS-0160
(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) relief valve "L" is not closing
(c) replenishing pump coupling is broken
(d) pressure from "E" has failed to bleed off when "J" is placed in the operating position
364. (1.2.5.3-5) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but
the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal
operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is
the _. Illustration GS-0160

(a) replenishing pump coupling is broken

(b) relief valve is not opening
(c) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(d) spring set point for "I" is too high

365. (1.2.5.3-6) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load
increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the _ . Illustration GS-0160
(a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
(b) replenishing pump discharge check valves are continuously open
(c) spring set point "I" is set too high for normal loads
(d) relief valve control shuttle has shifted to the wrong position during windlass operation

366. (1.2.5.3-2) The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An
erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate .
(a) the fluid level in the reservoir is too high
(b) clogged suction line fluid filters
(c) air trapped in the system
(d) abrasive matter circulating in the oil

367. (1.2.5.3-1) Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?

(a) The anchor will immediately drop.

(b) The clutch will overheat.
(c) The brake's effectiveness will be reduced.
(d) The driving engine will over speed.

368. (1.2.5.3-3) Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an _.

(a) low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal

(b) low fluid level in the reservoir
(c) high oil level in the sump
(d) overload on the pump motor

1. (2.2.1.1-1) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve
closed, is that the _ _.
(a) motor overload will open
(b) relief valve will open
(c) motor will overheat
(d) pump will overheat

2. (2.2.1.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the
illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

3. (2.2.1.1-3) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used .

(a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
(b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation
(c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means

4. (2.2.1.1-4) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by

(a) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds

(b) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
(c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
(d) installing a swing check before each bilge valve

5. (2.2.1.1-5) Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly overboard without
processing by an oily-water separator?
(a) When the bilge water holding tank is full.
(b) When presented with a flooding emergency.
(c) When operating in international waters beyond the 200 mile limit.
(d) When, by visual inspection, the bilges appear to be free of oil.

6. (2.2.1.1-6) What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?

(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump but using
either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump but independent
of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(c) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump but independent of any
bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which a cargo-hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump but using either
bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.

7. (2.2.1.1-7) What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?

(a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump and drawing
a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump and drawing
a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.

(c) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a
suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
(d) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a
suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.

8. (2.2.1.1-8) Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal
pump under manual supervision?
(a) Shaft alley bilges
(b) Machinery space bilges
(c) Engine room bilges
(d) Dry cargo-hold bilges

9. (2.2.1.2-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the No.6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination
of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration GS-0139
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.
(b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
(c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
(d) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.

10. (2.2.1.2-2) Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading cargo could be
accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
(a) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(c) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(d) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

11. (2.2.1.2-3) Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could be
accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?
(a) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(b) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
(c) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
(d) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

12. (2.2.1.2-4) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the
fore peak and after peak tanks?
(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel.
(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
(c) Correcting a list condition on the vessel.
(d) Correcting a condition of hogging or sagging of the vessel.

13. (2.2.1.2-5) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the
double bottom ballast tanks?
(a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list.
(b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
(c) Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel.
(d) Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel.

14. (2.2.1.2-6) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term
"ballasting"?
(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading cargo.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of list.

(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of hogging or
sagging.

15. (2.2.1.2-7) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term
"deballasting"?
(a) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of hogging or
sagging.
(b) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading cargo.
(c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading cargo.
(d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of list.
16. (2.2.1.2-8) With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term "segregated"
ballast?
(a) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from engine
room bilge systems.
(b) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from cargo
or fuel oil systems.
(c) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from sea
water circulating or fire main systems.
(d) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from clean
bilge systems.

17. (2.2.1.2-9) Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment
equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management
regulations?
(a) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any shore prior to
discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(b) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any shore prior to
discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(c) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any shore prior to
discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
(d) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shore prior to
discharging ballast in U.S. waters.

18. (2.2.1.2-10) What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as applicable to
vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?
(a) Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters.
(b) Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters.
(c) Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters.
(d) Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters.

19. (2.2.2.1-1) After coolers are used with air compressors to .

(a) dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air
(b) ensure complete expansion of the compressed air
(c) decrease the density of compressed air
(d) reduce the temperature of compressed air

20. (2.2.2.1-2) The device shown in the illustration is used to _ . Illustration GS-0029
(a) reduce the pressure in the ship's service air system
(b) maintain correct tension on the drive belts while the compressor is in operation
(c) grind sewage prior to entering the sewage treatment plant
(d) unload the cylinders of an air compressor

21. (2.2.2.1-3) If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical
unloading system will _ .
(a) still function normally at start-up
(b) still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor
(c) fail to function as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no difficulty
(d) fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be overloaded

22. (2.2.2.1-4) Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the .

(a) first-stage unloader
(b) intercooler relief valve
(c) last-stage unloader
(d) after cooler relief valve

23. (2.2.2.1-5) The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be _ _.

(a) at or below the dew point

(b) superheated
(c) super cooled
(d) all of the above

24. (2.2.2.1-6) Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on modern low-
pressure air compressors?
(a) Sliding
(b) Rotary
(c) Reed
(d) Poppet

25. (2.2.2.1-7) In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners, which of
the listed types of pistons are used in modern low-pressure air compressors?
(a) Barrel
(b) Valve-in-head
(c) Trunk
(d) Differential

26. (2.2.2.1-8) Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's service diesel-
generator on a motor ship?
(a) Ship's service air compressor
(b) Starting air compressor
(c) Topping air compressor
(d) Emergency air compressor

27. (2.2.2.1-9) Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100
psig?
(a) Starting air compressor
(b) Topping air compressor
(c) Emergency air compressor
(d) Ship's service air compressor

28. (2.2.2.1-10) If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement
concerning operation is true?
(a) In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(b) In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
(c) In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
(d) In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.

29. (2.2.2.2-1) If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should

(a) check for a defective high-pressure cut-out switch

(b) check the air filter
(c) check the operation of the unloaders
(d) check for a receiver outlet valve which may be partially closed

30. (2.2.2.2-2) If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should _ .
(a) replace that belt only
(b) adjust belt tension
(c) dress the worn belt
(d) replace all of the belts

31. (2.2.2.2-3) The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When mounted, these
bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to _ .
(a) allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up
(b) reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft
(c) prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft
(d) allow for crank web deflection

32. (2.2.2.2-4) After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge
valves is to use .
(a) gasoline
(b) diesel oil
(c) naphtha
(d) ammonia

33. (2.2.2.2-5) How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and emulsions?

(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Monthly
(d) Quarterly

34. (2.2.2.2-6) When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under what
conditions should the oil level be checked?
(a) With the compressor running at speed and unloaded.
(b) With the compressor running at speed and loaded.
(c) With the compressor in the auto mode and currently not running.
(d) With the compressor in the off mode incapable of starting.

35. (2.2.2.2-7) As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned, what
statement is true?
(a) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured
between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter.
(b) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured
between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter.
(c) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured
between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter.
(d) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured
between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter.
36. (2.2.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering
rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? Assume that the pressure regulator
has been properly set.
(a) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate or further close
needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
(b) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate or further close
needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
(c) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate or further
close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air flow.
(d) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate or further
close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air flow.

37. (2.2.2.2-9) Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a
filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?
(a) The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level.
(b) The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl.
(c) The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle.
(d) The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture.

38. (2.2.2.2-10) In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is the
procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated with moisture?
(a) The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated.
(b) Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating.
(c) The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling.
(d) The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower.

39. (2.2.2.3-3) Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused
by .
(a) leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder
(b) leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder
(c) low ambient air pressure
(d) insufficient intercooler cooling

40. (2.2.2.3-1) A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low-pressure reciprocating air
compressor will _ _.
(a) prevent the valve from wire drawing
(b) provide quieter valve operation
(c) retard the opening and closing of the valve
(d) have no effect on compressor operation

41. (2.2.2.3-2) Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause .
(a) a clogged air intake
(b) carbon deposits on valves and pistons
(c) excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners
(d) excessive compressor discharge pressure

42. (2.2.2.3-4) Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a
reciprocating air compressor suction valve?
(a) Carbon build-up in the piston ring belt.
(b) Lifting of intercooler relief valve.
(c) Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity.
(d) Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader.

43. (2.2.2.3-5) In a low-pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from

(a) heating of the air leaving the cylinders

(b) constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume
(c) adiabatic compression in the intercooler
(d) inaccurate valve timing

44. (2.2.2.3-6) Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven reciprocating
air compressor drive motor running current draw?
(a) Excessive drive belt tension.
(b) Insufficient drive belt tension.
(c) Excessive internal running clearances.
(d) Clogged air intake filter.

45. (2.2.2.3-7) If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design
parameters, what would be the effect?
(a) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
(b) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(c) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
(d) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.

46. (2.2.2.3-8) If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design displacement
capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?
(a) Insufficiently tensioned drive belts.
(b) Misalignment between the compressor and its driver.
(c) Improperly lubricated bearings.
(d) Excessively tensioned drive belts.

47. (2.2.2.3-9) If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to properly seat,
what statement is true concerning the result?
(a) The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between operating cycles.

(b) The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between operating cycles.

(c) The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between operating cycles.

(d) The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between operating cycles.

48. (2.2.2.3-10) What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating compressor cylinder
valves?
(a) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and directly
proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(b) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and inversely
proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(c) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and inversely
proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
(d) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and directly
proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.

49. (2.2.3.2-12) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for
direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095

(a) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these as digital signals for transmission to digital
actuators.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to analog
actuators.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to digital
actuators.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these as analog signals for transmission to analog
actuators.

50. (2.2.3.2-9) Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?
(a) Optical tachometer
(b) Brush-type DC tachometer
(c) Brushless DC tachometer
(d) AC tachometer

51. (2.2.3.2-2) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing
temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?
(a) Thermistor probe
(b) Radiation pyrometer
(c) Resistance temperature detector
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer

52. (2.2.3.2-4) What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses two-point
control?
(a) Integral control
(b) Derivative control
(c) Proportional control
(d) On-off control

53. (2.2.3.2-10) Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level in
a pressure vessel, such as a water-tube boiler steam drum?
(a) Capacitance probe
(b) Differential pressure sensor
(c) Static pressure sensor
(d) Displacement float level sensor

54. (2.2.3.2-11) Which of the following illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for a low
level analog signal cable? Illustration EL-0124
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

55. (2.2.3.2-8) What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for measuring oil-fired
boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?
(a) Bellows pressure sensor
(b) Diaphragm pressure sensor
(c) Bourdon tube pressure sensor
(d) Strain gage pressure sensor

56. (2.2.3.2-13) As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage sensing
unit? Illustration EL-0066
(a) The voltage sensor delivers an AC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output voltage to the
comparator.
(b) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of DC signal voltage proportional to the alternator output
voltage to the comparator.
(c) The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of single phase AC signal voltage proportional to the
alternator output voltage to the comparator.
(d) The voltage sensor delivers a DC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output voltage to the
comparator.

57. (2.2.3.2-7) In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function of the error
detector within the controller?
(a) The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set
point).
(b) The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value
(set point).
(c) The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired
value (set point).
(d) The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value
(set point).

58. (2.2.3.2-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the
difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result
toward the desired result?
(a) Gain
(b) Feedback
(c) Instability
(d) Dead band

59. (2.2.3.2-3) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine exhaust and
boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?
(a) Thermistor probe
(b) Resistance temperature detector
(c) Radiation pyrometer
(d) Thermocouple pyrometer

60. (2.2.3.2-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it relates to
stability and the direction of error displacement?
(a) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction as the error
displacement.
(b) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction as the error
displacement.
(c) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction as the error
displacement.
(d) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction as the error
displacement.

61. (2.2.3.1-13) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true
concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system workstations? Illustration EL-0096

(a) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending on system configuration and
need.
(b) The ROS located in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS.
(c) The ROS located in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS.
(d) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical.

62. (2.2.3.1-1) Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous analog signals
from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be understood by the system
computer for the purposes of processing and control?
(a) Pneumatic
(b) Digital
(c) Electric/electronic
(d) Direct connected

63. (2.2.3.1-4) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system configured for
supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog signals for a measured
variable? Illustration EL-0094
(a) 1 volt to 5 volts
(b) -10 volts to +10 volts
(c) 4 milliamps to 20 milliamps
(d) 10 milliamps to 50 milliamps
64. (2.2.3.1-3) As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for
supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"? Illustration EL-0094

(a) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number of analog
sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to digital values for processing by the CPU.

(b) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number of analog sensors
in a long period of time and converting these to signals to digital values for processing by the CPU.

(c) A low-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number of digital
sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to analog values for processing by the CPU.

(d) A high-speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number of digital
sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to analog values for processing by the CPU.

65. (2.2.3.1-8) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for
direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT" represent? Illustration EL-0095

(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals for CPU
processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals for CPU
processing.
(c) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals for CPU
processing.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals for CPU
processing.

66. (2.2.3.1-9) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true
concerning the area networks? Illustration EL-0096
(a) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network, with no
interconnectivity between the two networks.
(b) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network, with both networks
being interconnected.
(c) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network, with both networks
being interconnected.
(d) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network, with no
interconnectivity between the two networks.

67. (2.2.3.1-11) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true
concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"? Illustration EL- 0096
(a) These are control area networks providing supply and return pathways for communication.
(b) These are control area networks providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite a bus failure.

(c) These are communication access nodes providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite a node failure.

(d) These are communication access nodes providing supply and return pathways for communication.

68. (2.2.3.1-7) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for
direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG A/D" represent? Illustration EL-0095

(a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals for CPU
processing.
(b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals for CPU
processing.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals for CPU
processing.
(d) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals for CPU
processing.

69. (2.2.3.1-2) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for
supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with respect to closed-loop control
processes? Illustration EL-0094
(a) The computer normally has no role in the various closed-loop control processes. It is only used for backup control
purposes.
(b) The computer has no role in the various closed-loop control processes regardless of the control mode.
(c) The computer provides the set point input data to the analog controllers, but the analog controllers actually
control the closed-loop processes.
(d) The computer provides the set point input data to the process control loop, as well as the measured variable data.
The analog controllers are only used for manual backup control.

70. (2.2.3.1-5) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for
direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095

(a) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to the digital
actuators.
(b) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission to the analog
actuators.
(c) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to the analog
actuators.
(d) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission to the digital
actuators.

71. (2.2.4.2-5) A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __.

(a) water in the bearing
(b) dirt in the bearing
(c) vibration while the bearing is not in operation
(d) abrasives in the lubricant

72. (2.2.4.2-8) A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What thermal
method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?
(a) Heating the bearing in an oil-bath bearing heater.
(b) Cooling the bearing with dry ice.
(c) Cooling the shaft with liquid refrigerant.
(d) Heating the bearing with an oxyacetylene torch.

73. (2.2.4.2-1) After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should

(a) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in the bearing

(b) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while
(c) save the used grease for chemical analysis
(d) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape

74. (2.2.4.2-4) A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?
(a) Less than 1/4
(b) 1/3 to 1/2
(c) 1/2 to 3/4
(d) More than 3/4

75. (2.2.4.2-10) What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms of the
quantity of grease in the housing?
(a) The bearing temperature would tend to produce unusual vibrations.
(b) The bearing temperature would tend to run cooler than normal for the load.
(c) The bearing would tend to produce a noticeable change in sound.
(d) The bearing temperature would tend to run hotter than normal for the load.

76. (2.2.4.2-9) Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is the first
evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?
(a) Discoloration of the races or rolling elements.
(b) The presence of metallic particles in the lubricant.
(c) The presence of small cracks in the rolling elements.
(d) The presence of small cracks in the races.

77. (2.2.4.2-11) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true?

(a) The outer race should be free to turn its housing.

(b) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(c) They are usually pressed on to their shafts.
(d) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.

78. (2.2.4.2-6) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed with
a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
(a) the shaft
(b) the inner race
(c) the outer race
(d) the housing

79. (2.2.4.2-7) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed with
a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?
(a) the shaft
(b) the housing
(c) the inner race
(d) the outer race

80. (2.2.4.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by

(a) a pressure gun

(b) a Zerk fitting
(c) spring force
(d) gravity flow
81. (2.2.4.1-3) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?
(a) Roller
(b) Tapered roller
(c) Needle
(d) Ball

82. (2.2.4.1-5) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by a
radial load?
(a) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.
(b) A radial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(c) A radial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) A radial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.

83. (2.2.4.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __.
(a) inner race cone width
(b) outer ring width
(c) manufacturer's numerical code
(d) rolling member size

84. (2.2.4.1-8) Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which
substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?
(a) a sleeve bearing
(b) a plain bearing
(c) a ball bearing
(d) a journal bearing

85. (2.2.4.1-7) Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic lubrication, what
is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational speed?
(a) First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(b) First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
(c) First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
(d) First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.

86. (2.2.4.1-6) With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by an
axial load?
(a) An axial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(b) An axial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft.
(c) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft.
(d) An axial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.

87. (2.2.5.4.1-9) In order for a reverse osmosis fresh water generator to be able to overcome the osmotic pressure
without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled. What is the location of the
pressure regulator?
(a) Suction side of the high-pressure pump.
(b) Discharge side of the high-pressure pump.
(c) Fresh water outlet from the membrane modules.
(d) Brine outlet from the membrane modules.

88. (2.2.5.4.1-3) Regarding
what statement is true?
(a) Modules may be piped in
(b) Modules may be piped in
(c) Modules may be piped in
(d) Modules may be piped in
a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules,
series to increase the fresh water throughput.
series to increase the fresh water purity.
parallel to increase the fresh water purity.
series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.

89. (2.2.5.4.1-10) To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse osmosis
fresh water generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?
(a) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water inlet to the unit to
prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
(b) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the fresh water leaving the unit prior
to distribution to the various fresh water storage tanks.
(c) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from becoming resident in
the reverse osmosis unit filters and membrane modules.
(d) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the fresh water leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various fresh
water storage tanks.

90. (2.2.5.3.3-4) If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the second stage
absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to .
(a) priming in the second stage
(b) an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage
(c) loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages
(d) failure of the brine pump

91. (2.2.5.3.3-1) A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of _ _. Illustration GS-0053
(a) a tube leak in item 'IV', which contributes to a surging absolute pressure in "III"
(b) carryover from "III"
(c) a faulty cell at location "6" and a tube leak in item "I"
(d) erosion of item "3" or the valve opened too wide if used

92. (2.2.5.3.3-2) Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the _ .

(a) flash chamber walls
(b) tubes of the distiller condenser
(c) tubes of the salt water feed heater
(d) tubes of the air ejector condenser

93. (2.2.5.3.3-7) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator,
you should suspect .
(a) improper vacuum
(b) a clogged desuperheater water strainer
(c) a malfunctioning brine pump
(d) a leak in the feed water heater

94. (2.2.5.3.3-8) While standing watch in the engine room, you notice a high reading at a salinity cell located in the
loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator. This would indicate

(a) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump

(b) chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
(c) leakage at the second-stage condenser
(d) carryover in the first-stage

95. (2.2.5.3.3-6) Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be a
result of _.
(a) carrying the brine level below normal
(b) reduced feed water heater temperatures
(c) leaks in the demister baffles
(d) operating at reduced vacuum conditions

96. (2.2.5.3.1-3) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator are
removed by the _.
(a) condensers
(b) demisters
(c) splash baffles
(d) spray pipes

97. (2.2.5.3.1-1) A vacuum is initially created in a flash-type distilling plant by .

(a) the flashing of the feed water
(b) air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump
(c) the condensation of the salt water feed
(d) condensation of the distillate

98. (2.2.5.3.1-8) The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash
evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is .
(a) slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet
(b) slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction
(c) slightly lower than the first stage vacuum
(d) slightly higher than the second stage vacuum

99. (2.2.5.3.1-11) In the unit illustrated, the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165°F or greater
and must exist at this temperature when leaving _ _. Illustration GS-0053
(a) I
(b) III
(c) IV
(d) V

100. (2.2.5.3.1-5) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed
rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the .
(a) throughput of the brine overboard pump
(b) steam flow rate to the air ejectors
(c) float controlled level of the feed heater
(d) capacity of the distillate pump

101. (2.2.5.3.1-4) In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of the
second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction?
(a) Feed water heater drain pump
(b) Distillate pump
(c) Air ejector condenser drain pump
(d) Condenser circulating water pump

102. (2.2.5.2.2.2-3) In a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines
the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle?
(a) The chemical composition of the jacket water coolant additive package.
(b) The sea water inlet temperature to the evaporator section.
(c) The salt content of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section.
(d) The jacket water inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle.

103. (2.2.5.2.2.2-9) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration,
which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
(b) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
(c) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.
(d) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.

104. (2.2.5.2.2.2-8) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in
operation? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects.
(b) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low-pressure contacts.
(c) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output.
(d) Jacket water would be automatically bypassed around the distiller.

105. (2.2.5.2.2.2-1) When securing a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of time, you
should .
(a) fill the unit with salt water
(b) fill the unit with descaling compound
(c) completely drain the unit
(d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air

106. (2.2.5.2.1.1-7) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It provides a conduit for incoming feed water.
(b) It aids in removing condenser tube bundles.
(c) It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell.
(d) It is only used as a lifting beam during installation.

107. (2.2.5.2.1.1-17) The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is . Illustration MO-0110

(a) directly connected to the feed water supply line

(b) attached to the outlet of the brine ejector
(c) directly connected to the jacket water supply line
(d) attached to the air ejector

108. (2.2.5.2.1.1-5) What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-
0110
(a) Jacket water is heated in the boiling chamber.
(b) The feed water enters the device and vaporizes under vacuum conditions.
(c) The feed water is cooled prior to being pumped into section "F".
(d) Scale accumulates at position "E".

109. (2.2.5.2.1.1-4) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the
illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.
(b) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
(c) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
(d) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are removed.

110. (2.2.5.2.1.1-2) What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It serves to boil off incoming feed water.
(b) It condenses the vapors formed in section "G".
(c) It removes sensible heat from the jacket water.
(d) It serves to cool incoming feed water.

111. (2.2.5.2.1.1-8) For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection
labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Main engine jacket water.
(b) The salt water feed.
(c) The sea water used for condensing the water vapor.
(d) The distillate discharge.

112. (2.2.5.2.1.1-19) The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are produced from which
of the listed materials? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Titanium
(b) Copper
(c) Anodized aluminum
(d) Phosphor bronze

113. (2.2.5.2.1.1-13) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the
illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It supplies feed water to evaporator.
(b) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine.
(c) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate.
(d) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases.

114. (2.2.5.4.2-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator
must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?
(a) A lower than normal feed pressure.
(b) An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(c) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
(d) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.

115. (2.2.5.2.1.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in
the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Torque wrench
(b) Pneumatic impact wrench
(c) Steel ruler or tape measure
(d) Cantilever wrench

116. (2.2.5.2.1.2-5) Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may be
the result of . Illustration MO-0110
(a) improper operation of the brine pump
(b) neglecting to close the vent shell
(c) improper operation of the distillate pump
(d) neglecting to latch the dump valve

117. (2.2.5.2.1.2-4) Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water
leakage in the illustrated device? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Improper venting during start-up.
(b) Improper venting during operation.
(c) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger.
(d) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger.

118. (2.2.5.2.1.2-3) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of
the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110
(a) The vacuum of the device will increase.
(b) Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output.
(c) The temperature of the device will decrease.
(d) There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell.

119. (2.2.5.1-2) The primary reason low-pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale
formation, than high-pressure evaporators is _.
(a) due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed
(b) due to the latent heat of evaporation principle
(c) evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate
(d) evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum

120. (2.2.5.1-10) In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?
(a) Reverse osmosis unit
(b) Submerged tube unit
(c) Titanium plate unit
(d) Flash type unit

121. (2.2.5.1-9) With regard to fresh water generators, what statement concerning brine is true?
(a) Brine is the cooling medium used for chill-shocking as a means for scale removal.
(b) Brine is the unevaporated sea water of a fresh water generator as the result of distillation.
(c) Brine is the cooling medium used for cooling the distillate before distribution.
(d) Brine is the incoming sea water feed to the fresh water generator and destined for distillation.

122. (2.2.5.1-3) In the production of fresh water from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling
phase of production is usually called _ .
(a) dehydration
(b) condensation
(c) distillation
(d) evaporation

123. (2.2.5.1-5) Which of the following fresh water generators has an operating principle that evaporates pre-heated
sea water by causing it to undergo a pressure drop into a vacuum?
(a) Submerged tube unit
(b) Flash type unit
(c) Titanium plate unit
(d) Reverse osmosis unit

124. (2.2.5.3.2-2) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur
in the _ _ _.
(a) salt water feed heater
(b) second stage vapor separator
(c) distillate cooler
(d) second stage feed heater

125. (2.2.5.3.2-9) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the
purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued presence of scale?
(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.

126. (2.2.5.3.2-4) When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should

(a) completely drain the unit

(b) fill the unit with descaling compound
(c) fill the unit with salt water
(d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air

127. (2.2.5.3.2-10) When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?
(a) Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity.
(b) Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain distillate production
capacity.
(c) During regularly scheduled maintenance.
(d) Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal.

128. (2.2.5.3.2-7) What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating surfaces of a flash
evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?
(a) Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
(b) Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
(c) Chemically treating the incoming feed water.
(d) Chemically treating the outgoing brine.

129. (2.2.5.3.2-8) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the
purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of the scale?
(a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas.
(d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas.

130. (2.2.5.2.2.1-19) Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to . Illustration MO-0111
(a) direct the flow from the distillate pump
(b) regulate flow from the drain pump
(c) prevent damage to device "9" by reducing turbulence
(d) cancel the effects of improper regulation developed by device "11"

131. (2.2.5.2.2.1-10) Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller? Illustration
MO-0111
(a) "12"
(b) "13"
(c) "19"
(d) "26"

132. (2.2.5.2.2.1-11) Where is the latent heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the illustrated
distiller? Illustration MO-0111
(a) During its contact period with heat exchanger "3".
(b) Only as it passes through device "20".
(c) From having passed through "23".
(d) While it is in contact with device "24".

133. (2.2.5.2.2.1-12) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal
operation by . Illustration MO-0111
(a) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing excess brine
accumulation
(b) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"
(c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
(d) the continuous action of ejector "22"

134. (2.2.5.2.2.1-7) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed water
entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111
(a) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
(b) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
(c) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7", while the amount of
brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".
(d) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of flooding.
135. (2.2.5.2.2.1-18) Which of the following statements describes what will occur to the volume of water vapor as it
is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-
0111
(a) The latent heat of condensation is removed causing the volume to increase.
(b) The volume is increased as condensation occurs at the tube surfaces.
(c) The volume is greatly reduced, contributing to condensation within the condenser.
(d) The volume will increase if the valve labeled "J" is opened excessively, resulting in an increase of the distiller
absolute pressure.

136. (2.2.5.2.2.1-1) What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111

(a) It provides a low-pressure point for combustion air filtration.

(b) It relieves the excessive pressure developed in the jacket water cooler.
(c) It aids in the removal of combustible gases formed in the crankcase.
(d) It provides a low-pressure point for adding chemicals into the jacket water system.

137. (2.2.6-8) Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such as an electric
heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose of such an arrangement?

(a) Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated primary heat source,
whether in port or underway.
(b) Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway.
(c) Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port or underway.

(d) Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway.

138. (2.2.6-1) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a
galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?
(a) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
(c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
(d) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.

139. (2.2.6-2) What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual
disinfectant in the potable water?
(a) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
(b) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
(c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
(d) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.

140. (2.2.6-3) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a
potable water system?
(a) Titanium plate type unit
(b) Multi-stage flash type unit
(c) Submerged tube type unit
(d) Reverse osmosis type unit

141. (2.2.6-4) Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true?

(a) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the
potable water storage tanks.
(b) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the potable
water storage tanks.
(c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the
potable water storage tanks.
(d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the potable
water storage tanks.

142. (2.2.6-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water
system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?
(a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level switches in response
to system demand changes.
(b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero demand for potable
water.
(c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of zero demand for
potable water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro-pneumatic tank pressure switch
in response to system demand changes.

143. (2.2.6-6) What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water pumps supporting a
typical potable water system?
(a) Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lag pump to assist the
lead pump only when the demand is high.
(b) Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low demand and the lag pump to
recirculate when the demand is high.
(c) Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead pump to assist the
lag pump only when the demand is high.
(d) Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system demand changes.

144. (2.2.6-7) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution
piping for a potable water system?
(a) Use of hot water recirculation loops.
(b) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.
(c) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.
(d) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.

145. (2.2.6-9) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro- pneumatic header
tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?
(a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
(b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.

146. (2.2.6-10) Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45 psig cut-in for
pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump?

(a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
(d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.

147. (2.2.7-10) What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?
(a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing temporary
speed droop.
(b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing permanent
speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing temporary
speed droop.
(d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing permanent
speed droop.

148. (2.2.7-5) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without
hunting?
(a) Dead band
(b) Stability
(c) Promptness
(d) Sensitivity

149. (2.2.7-9) What is meant by the term "dead band" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
(a) Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under-control by the governor and a lack of governor power.

(b) Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as the result of a
load change.
(c) Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over-control by the governor.
(d) Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds to load changes.

150. (2.2.7-4) Concerning governor speed droop, what statement is true?

(a) If speed droop is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of loading.
(b) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of loading.
(c) If speed droop is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load changes.
(d) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the load.

151. (2.2.7-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?

(a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving through a fixed-pitch
propeller.
(b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a constant pump discharge
pressure.
(c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct reversible propulsion drive driving through a fixed-
pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with maintaining a
constant system frequency.

152. (2.2.7-7) Which term represents how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective action as the
result of a load change?
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Power
(c) Promptness
(d) Dead band
153. (2.2.7-2) Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and rotates at a steady
speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to the governor speed control setting, what
is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in percent?
(a) 10.0%
(b) 11.1%
(c) 88.9%
(d) 90.0%

154. (2.2.7-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover
damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
(a) Over speed governor
(b) Speed-limiting governor
(c) Over speed trip
(d) Under speed trip

155. (2.2.7-6) Which term represents the change in speed required before a speed control governor will initiate
corrective action as the load changes?
(a) Promptness
(b) Power
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Dead band

156. (2.2.9.11-2) If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger,
the fan should .
(a) be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation
(b) come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
(c) be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190°F (87.8°C)
(d) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32.2°C)

157. (2.2.9.11-3) In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary?

(a) Hatch cover system

(b) Watertight door system
(c) Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
(d) Constant tension mooring winch system

158. (2.2.9.11-1) In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic
fluid to the cooling water depends upon .
(a) the temperature of the hydraulic fluid
(b) the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
(c) the temperature of the cooling water
(d) all of the above

159. (2.2.9.13-3) Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by _ _ _.

(a) insufficient external pump slippage
(b) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers
(c) fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(d) continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve

160. (2.2.9.13-7) While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in
spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to
restore pressure?
(a) Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation.
(b) Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor.
(c) Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact.
(d) Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level.

161. (2.2.9.13-6) You press start button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the motor does not
start. The first thing you should check is the _ _. Illustration GS-0161
(a) controller circuit breaker
(b) controller contactor operating coil
(c) pump discharge relief valve setting is too low
(d) suction strainer condition

162. (2.2.9.13-2) Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of _.

(a) a high oil level
(b) changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(c) continued slow recirculation of the oil
(d) incorrect fluid viscosity

163. (2.2.9.13-5) If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be

(a) an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir
(b) due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor
(c) low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid
(d) an oil leak across the pump shaft packing

164. (2.2.9.6-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with
the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a .
(a) bleed-off circuit
(b) metered-in circuit
(c) bleed-in circuit
(d) metered-out circuit

165. (2.2.9.6-1) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the
pump operating at system pressure, is known as a .
(a) metered-out circuit
(b) metered-in circuit
(c) bleed-in circuit
(d) bleed-off circuit

166. (2.2.9.1-4) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the

(a) reservoir expansion chamber

(b) atmosphere as heat
(c) hydraulic piping flexibility
(d) fluid as friction

167. (2.2.9.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's
viscosity?
(a) Vacuum
(b) Pressure
(c) Cloud point
(d) Pour point

168. (2.2.9.1-2) With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid _ .

(a) increases
(b) contracts
(c) remains constant if pressure decreases
(d) remains the same

169. (2.2.9.1-1) The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result of the
fluid flow overcoming _.
(a) the load applied to the system
(b) resistance of the internal components
(c) internal resistance to flow
(d) all of the above

170. (2.2.9.9-2) For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
(a) To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting without lifting the
relief valve.
(b) To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects.
(c) To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
(d) All of the above.

171. (2.2.9.9-3) Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic ram is
correct?
(a) Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports.
(b) The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(c) The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force.
(d) Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion.

172. (2.2.9.4-5) In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?
(a) V-ring
(b) U-ring
(c) Quad ring
(d) Cup seal

173. (2.2.9.4-6) Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS- 0041
(a) Filter
(b) Variable displacement pump
(c) Heat exchanger
(d) All of the above

174. (2.2.9.4-1) An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the
possibility of _.
(a) spongy actuator movements
(b) aeration of the oil
(c) pump cavitation
(d) contamination of the oil
175. (2.2.9.4-2) An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can .
(a) rupture the pump discharge piping
(b) reduce or stop the output action of the actuator
(c) cause leaking of the flexible line connections
(d) all of the above

176. (2.2.9.4-3) Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to .

(a) prevent solid particles from entering the filter
(b) protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants
(c) protect the directional control valves
(d) prevent solid particles from entering the pump

177. (2.2.9.4-4) The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an _ . Illustration GS-0071
(a) soft-packing seal
(b) quad seal
(c) mechanical seal
(d) spring seal

178. (2.2.9.10-1) The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid
under pressure, is the .
(a) ram
(b) pump
(c) accumulator
(d) piping

179. (2.2.9.10-2) Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be temporarily
shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?
(a) Accumulator
(b) Modulator
(c) Pressure compensator valve
(d) Sump actuator

180. (2.2.9.10-5) A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil. Another
function is to _ .
(a) eliminate pressure surges in the system
(b) maintain the stored oil under pressure
(c) act as a shock absorber
(d) act as a base or foundation for the power unit

181. (2.2.9.10-3) Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system?

(a) Separate air from the oil

(b) Trap foreign matter
(c) Dissipate heat
(d) All of the above

182. (2.2.9.10-7) A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be potentially dangerous if .

(a) the bladder contacts the top of the poppet

(b) the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil
(c) it is precharged with dry nitrogen
(d) the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure

183. (2.2.9.10-6) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by _ _.
Illustration GS-0118
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

184. (2.2.9.10-4) The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to .
(a) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system
(b) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
(c) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
(d) all of the above

185. (2.2.9.7-4) One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic systems is to supply
fluid flow to _.
(a) the main system accumulators under all operating conditions
(b) a servo control circuit
(c) position a manually controlled valve
(d) the reservoir

186. (2.2.9.7-3) A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will be
reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration GS-0040
(a) When part "D" rotates counter-clockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing part "G" to slide towards the set
point spring “F”.
(b) Part "H" will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G" as flow across hydraulic motor
decreases.
(c) The increase in high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the variable displacement
pump.
(d) As high side pressure increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work together to re-establish the original tilting box
angle.

187. (2.2.9.7-1) If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial piston pump,
when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" . Illustration GS-0039
(a) will move to the right, and "C" will move to the left, but lagging behind "B"
(b) will move to the left, and "C" will move to the right, but will lag behind the movement of "A"
(c) will move to the right, as will "C"
(d) will move to the left, as will "C"

188. (2.2.9.7-2) Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control lever, shown in
the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke? Illustration GS-0039
(a) Although oil will leak past part 'B', the amount of pump stroke will be maintained until the control handle
position is changed.
(b) Although the control handle position was set, the pump displacement will fluctuate from zero to maximum flow rate
until the handle is placed in its neutral position.
(c) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually move to full stroke.
(d) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually return to neutral stroke.

189. (2.2.9.8-3) Compensated flow control or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to

(a) assure constant fluid temperature

(b) allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system
(c) compensate for major leaks in the system
(d) maintain the original fluid viscosity

190. (2.2.9.8-7) Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional
control valve is centered? Illustration GS-0105
(a) Oil pressure to both sides of the actuator will be equal as the pump discharge flow is directed across the relief
valve.
(b) A pressure differential will exist between the two ends of the actuator, with pump discharge lower than normal due
to flow across the unloading valve.
(c) The oil pressure will equalize at both ends of the actuator and the pump will discharge through the reducing valve
to the sump.
(d) The load on the actuator may cause a difference in pressure to exist between the rod and cap end, and oil
discharging to the sump across the relief valve with the pump operating.

191. (2.2.9.8-5) Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a
hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?
(a) Unloading valve
(b) Sequence valve
(c) Counterbalance valve
(d) Pressure-reducing valve

192. (2.2.9.8-2) The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system is to

(a) prevent oil backflow to the actuators

(b) prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating
(c) restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use
(d) control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing

193. (2.2.9.8-6) Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert
some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?
(a) compound, pressure-relief valve
(b) unloading valve
(c) counterbalance valve
(d) sequence valve

194. (2.2.9.8-1) Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as .
(a) two position flow control valves
(b) main supply line throttle valves
(c) variable flow control valves
(d) check and choke valves

195. (2.2.9.5-4) If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the device
illustrated the _ _ _. Illustration GS-0058
(a) speed would decrease, horsepower and torque would increase
(b) horsepower, torque, and speed would increase proportionally
(c) horsepower, torque, and speed would decrease proportionally
(d) speed would increase, horsepower and torque would decrease
196. (2.2.9.5-2) The device illustrated would be best used as a _. Illustration GS-0058
(a) power take-off driven lube oil pump
(b) variable capacity pump
(c) hydraulic hatch supply pump
(d) variable or constant speed motor

197. (2.2.9.5-3) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be
done?
(a) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
(b) Provide one additional slot and vane.
(c) Double the casing thickness.
(d) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.

198. (2.2.9.5-1) A two-stage hydraulic pump unit is used to .

(a) produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used
(b) supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements were to fail
(c) develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the second pump element being
substantially higher than that of the first stage
(d) establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system

199. (2.2.9.5-5) Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump are
determined by the relative positions of the _ .
(a) pump shaft and central valve
(b) floating ring and cylinder body
(c) floating ring and pump shaft
(d) pump shaft and horizontal ports

200. (2.2.9.3-4) The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably leak when in
operation because the tubing _ _. Illustration GS-0065
(a) will contract in diameter and expand in length under pressure
(b) will stretch and overstress the male threads on the fitting
(c) and its fittings cannot be properly installed and tightened
(d) cannot flex at right angles to the pressure applied by the fluid because it is not properly twisted

201. (2.2.9.3-5) A flare-type tubing
leak. To stop the leak you should __
(a) shut down the power unit and use
(b) replace both the tubing sections
(c) keep the system in operation and
(d) stop the system and use only one
connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has developed a slight
_.
two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when tightening
and the fitting
tighten the flare nut
wrench to tighten the flare nut

202. (2.2.9.3-1) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented
by figure . Illustration GS-0100
(a) A or C
(b) A or B
(c) B or C
(d) C or D

203. (2.2.9.3-3) The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the

(a) Teflon sleeve

(b) braided layer
(c) synthetic rubber inner tube
(d) external cover

204. (2.2.9.3-2) For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the inside diameter
can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less .
(a) the wall thickness
(b) 1.5 times the wall thickness
(c) 2 times the wall thickness
(d) 2.5 times the wall thickness

205. (2.2.9.12-4) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil .

(a) viscosity will increase

(b) viscosity will decrease
(c) volume will increase
(d) floc point will increase

206. (2.2.9.12-2) To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator .

(a) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's design pressure
(b) increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure
(c) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator preload pressure
(d) allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the air chamber, and
add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached
207. (2.2.9.12-7) When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the piping always
indicates the .
(a) actual inside diameter
(b) actual outside diameter
(c) wall thickness
(d) size for threaded connections

208. (2.2.9.12-5) Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when .

(a) the system has been idle for a long period of time
(b) adding small amounts of oil to the system
(c) the system has been overheated
(d) the system has been drained and then filled with new oil

209. (2.2.9.12-6) New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using .

(a) alcohol
(b) carbon tetrachloride
(c) a water-based detergent
(d) a special petroleum solvent

210. (2.2.9.2-3) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __. Illustration GS-0103
(a) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
(b) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed
(c) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
(d) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed

211. (2.2.9.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an _ . Illustration GS-0097

(a) combined pump unit

(b) series-flow pump unit
(c) double pump unit
(d) two-stage pump unit

212. (2.2.9.2-4) Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as . Illustration GS-0103

(a) one of two motor driven remotely operated pumps to open and close the watertight door
(b) the manually operated pump located in a common passage way to close the watertight door in an emergency
(c) the manually operated pump used to open or close the watertight door from the engine room side
(d) motor driven pump used to close the watertight door from the navigation bridge in an emergency

213. (2.2.9.2-2) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated
figures A, B, and C, indicates the component _ _. Illustration GS-0068
(a) is pilot controlled
(b) allows flow in one direction only
(c) is pressure compensated
(d) can be adjusted or varied

214. (2.2.11.1-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its _ _ _.
(a) elasticity
(b) ductility
(c) fusibility
(d) malleability

215. (2.2.11.1-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then
cooling it is known as .
(a) case hardening
(b) low temperature hardening
(c) annealing
(d) tempering

216. (2.2.11.1-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties
are achieved?
(a) decrease in brittleness
(b) increase in hardening
(c) increase in brittleness
(d) increase in corrosion resistance

217. (2.2.11.1-4) When metal is tempered, it becomes .

(a) less brittle
(b) more brittle
(c) less tough
(d) harder

218. (2.2.11.1-5) What is the purpose of heat treating steel?

(a) Develop ductility
(b) Improve machining qualities
(c) Relieve stresses
(d) All of the above

219. (2.2.11.1-6) Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of .

(a) nickel and copper
(b) zinc and copper
(c) bronze and tin
(d) copper and tin

220. (2.2.11.1-7) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated above its critical
temperature?
(a) The metal changes from the solid state to the molten state.
(b) The metal changes from a molten state to a vapor state.
(c) The metal undergoes a change in crystalline structure.
(d) The metal undergoes thermal contraction.

221. (2.2.11.1-8) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides refining the grain
structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?
(a) Change in chemical composition
(b) Softened condition
(c) High tensile strength
(d) Induction of toughness

222. (2.2.11.1-9) When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of casehardening, what is the
process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?
(a) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
(b) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in cold water.
(c) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is allowed to cool slowly in air.
(d) After the steel is heated above its melting temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.

223. (2.2.11.1-10) What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on welding a joint?
(a) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(b) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
(c) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
(d) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.

224. (2.2.11.1-11) What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?

(a) The ability to resist shearing stresses.
(b) The ability to resist bending stresses.
(c) The ability to resist compression stresses.
(d) The ability to resist stretching stresses.

225. (2.2.11.1-12) What is meant by the term toughness as it applies to a material?

(a) The ability to resist penetration.
(b) The ability to resist repeated application and release of force.
(c) The ability to resist continuous tension.
(d) The ability to resist continuous compression.

226. (2.2.12.3-10) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface detection
probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the separation
processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the recirculation mode while in the
separation processing mode.
(c) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to initiating the oil
discharge mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin processing bilge water.

227. (2.2.12.3-2) If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig and the water level in
the bilges is one foot high, the unit is _ . Illustration GS-0153
(a) in the oil discharge mode
(b) processing the bilge water
(c) damaged and should not be used
(d) not turned on

228. (2.2.12.3-9) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the upper oil/water interface detection
probe became faulty? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the separation
processing mode.
(b) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin processing bilge water.

(c) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the recirculation mode while in the
separation processing mode.
(d) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to initiating the oil
discharge mode.

229. (2.2.12.1-4) What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching
that of water?
(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.
(b) Marine diesel oil.
(c) Distillate/residual fuel oil blends.
(d) Light distillate oil.

230. (2.2.12.1-7) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily- water mixture
associated with an oily-water separator?
(a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.
(b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.
(c) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.
(d) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential
between the oil and water.

231. (2.2.12.1-9) A typical oily-water separator has three stages of separation. Which statement represents the
correct sequential order of the stages?
(a) First stage: polishing filter coalescer. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage: gravimetric.

(b) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage: inclined plate coalescer.

(c) First stage: inclined plate coalescer. Second stage: polishing filter coalescer. Third stage: gravimetric.

(d) First stage: gravimetric. Second stage: inclined plate coalescer. Third stage: polishing filter coalescer.

232. (2.2.12.1-1) What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?
(a) Remove small amounts of water from large amounts of oil.
(b) Remove small amounts of water from small amounts of oil.
(c) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
(d) Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.

233. (2.2.12.1-6) In order to facilitate separation of oil from an oily-water mixture in an oily-water separator, what
statement is true concerning the flow pattern of the oily-water?
(a) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(b) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and high in turbulence.
(c) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and low in turbulence.
(d) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and low in turbulence.

234. (2.2.12.1-5) What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to facilitate
separation in an oily-water separator?
(a) Heavy residual fuel oil.
(b) Diesel engine lubricating oil.
(c) Marine diesel oil.
(d) Steam turbine lubricating oil.

235. (2.2.12.1-2) What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity associated with an
oily-water separator?
(a) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will tend
to rise.
(b) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will
tend to sink.
(c) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will
tend to rise.
(d) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water mixture will tend
to sink.

236. (2.2.12.1-8) If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what statement
concerning the plate pack is true?
(a) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the outer edge of the
plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the inner edge of
the plate pack.
(b) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the outer edge of the
plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the inner edge of
the plate pack.
(c) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the outer edge of the
plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the inner edge of
the plate pack.
(d) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the outer edge of the
plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the inner edge of
the plate pack.

237. (2.2.12.2-9) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line
"E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is open. Valve
"D" is closed. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unit? Illustration GS-0175

(a) The oily-water separator is in the
water holding tank with an oil content
(b) The oily-water separator is in the
water holding tank with an oil content
(c) The oily-water separator is in the
oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the
oil content less than 15 ppm.
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge
less than 15 ppm.
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge
greater than 15 ppm.
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an
bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an

238. (2.2.12.2-8) The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-
0175
(a) waste oil outlet line
(b) processed water outlet line
(c) clean water inlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line

239. (2.2.12.2-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while operating in
the processing mode? Illustration GS-0153
(a) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the processed liquid through
valve "14".
(b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve "14".
(c) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as processed liquid.

(d) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through valve "4".

240. (2.2.12.1-5) The component labeled "A" as shown in the illustration would be identified as the
. Illustration GS-0175
(a) oil content monitor probe
(b) separator vessel pressure relief valve
(c) oil/water interface level sensing probe
(d) separator vessel vacuum breaker

241. (2.2.12.2-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the
. Illustration GS-0175
(a) processed water outlet line
(b) clean water inlet line
(c) waste oil outlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line

242. (2.2.12.2-10) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in
line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed.
Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unit? Illustration GS-0175

(a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge
water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
(b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge
water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
(c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an
oil content less than 15 ppm.
(d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an
oil content greater than 15 ppm.

243. (2.2.12.2-1) The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the _ _.
Illustration GS-0153
(a) first stage oil separator and drip pan
(b) inlet weir and inlet baffle
(c) second stage oil separator and drip pan
(d) outlet weir and outlet baffle

244. (2.2.12.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to _ . Illustration GS- 0153
(a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
(b) support the tank access panel
(c) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
(d) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water

245. (2.2.12.2-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-
0175
(a) processed water outlet line
(b) clean water inlet line
(c) oily bilge water inlet line
(d) waste oil discharge line

246. (2.2.12.2-2) When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge
water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153
(a) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
(b) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control valve "14".

(c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
(d) No water level is maintained in the tank.

247. (2.2.13.2-7) How would the pressure setting of the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston- operated
steam pressure-reducer be raised to a higher set point? Illustration GS-0044
(a) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the adjusting screw counter-
clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
(b) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the adjusting screw clockwise
further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(c) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the adjusting screw clockwise
further into the adjusting spring chamber.
(d) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the adjusting screw counter-
clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.

248. (2.2.13.2-11) How would the illustrated valve respond to a complete loss of charge from the remote bulb-to-
control diaphragm power element if the valve is used as a temperature control valve for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil
service heater? Illustration GS-0045
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm.
(b) The valve would fail in the fully open position, resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm.
(c) It is not possible to predict how the valve will respond to a complete loss of charge from the power element.

(d) The valve would fail in the exact position it was in before the power element lost its complete charge, resulting
in a fluctuation in fuel oil temperature as demand changes.

249. (2.2.13.2-1) In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure- reducing valve,
what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves? Illustration GS-0044
(a) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(b) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
(c) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
(d) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is upward seating.

250. (2.2.13.2-9) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve is
part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater for a steam boiler. If there
was a decrease in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially
respond? Illustration GS-0045
(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the
control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the
control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the
control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the
control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.

251. (2.2.13.2-10) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve
is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater for a steam boiler. If
there was an increase in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement correctly represents how the valve would
initially respond? Illustration GS-0045
(a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the
control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.
(b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the
control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.
(c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure to decrease and the
control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close the pilot valve.
(d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure to increase and the
control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the pilot valve.

252. (2.2.13.3-8) As it pertains to safety valves, what is the definition of blow down?
(a) Blow down is the feature of a valve that allows drainage of condensate away from the disc to prevent sticking.

(b) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve popping pressure.

(c) Blow down is the difference between the valve popping pressure and the valve reseating pressure.
(d) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve reseating pressure.
253. (2.2.13.3-10) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement concerning the blow down
adjusting ring (B) is true? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(c) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(d) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will increase.

254. (2.2.13.3-3) Concerning safety valves, what statement is true?

(a) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and only reseat when the pressure has
dropped significantly.
(b) Safety valves are always set to relieve at a pressure exceeding the maximum allowable working pressure of the
system.
(c) Safety valves are designed to throttle and adjust the flow rate to just keep up with the capacity of the pressure
source.
(d) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and immediately reseat when the pressure
has dropped by a very small amount.

255. (2.2.13.3-7) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the
adjustment of the popping pressure? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the release nut (A).
(b) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the adjusting ring (B).
(c) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the compression screw after first loosening the compression screw locking
nut (C).
(d) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the seat bushing (G).

256. (2.2.13.3-9) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement concerning the blow down
adjusting ring (B) is true? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(b) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
(c) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
(d) Raising the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after the valve pops and
as a result, the valve blow down will increase.

257. (2.2.13.3-6) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the
adjustment of blow down? Illustration SG-0018
(a) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the release nut (A).
(b) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the adjusting ring (B).
(c) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the compression screw after first loosening the compression screw locking nut
(C).
(d) Blow down is adjusted by rotating the seat bushing (G).

258. (2.2.13.3-5) Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper operation and
prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?
(a) Pressure-reducing valve
(b) Pressure-relief valve
(c) Safety valve
(d) Pressure-regulating relief valve

259. (2.2.13.3-4) In the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and
closing forces acting upon the disc? Illustration SG-0018
(a) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed pressure acting downward on
the disc is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting upward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed pressure acting downward on
the disc is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve opening force, and the sensed pressure acting upward on
the disc is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting downward on the disc is a valve closing force, and the sensed pressure acting upward on
the disc is a valve opening force.

260. (2.2.13.4-2) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement
is true? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The control valve has a single disc which is upward seating.
(b) The control valve has a single disc which is downward seating.
(c) The control valve has two discs which are both upward seating.
(d) The control valve has two discs which are both downward seating.

261. (2.2.13.4-10) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control
the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be
the result if the stem packing was over-tightened and the stem was unable to vertically move in either direction?
Illustration GS-0051
(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm
condition.
(b) The valve will lose control of the fuel oil temperature with the result that the fuel temperature will fluctuate
with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm
condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to over-tightened valve stem packing.

262. (2.2.13.4-7) Suppose the pilot controller for the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control
valve is supplied with 20 psig control air and is designed to operate the valve with a pilot pressure ranging from 3
to 15 psig. What would be the indication of a properly adjusted spring
(6) by means of the adjusting nut (12)? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The valve should indicate fully open at 3 psig and should indicate fully closed at 15 psig.
(b) The valve should indicate fully closed at 3 psig and should indicate fully open at 15 psig
(c) The valve should indicate fully open at 0 psig and should indicate fully closed at 20 psig.
(d) The valve should indicate fully closed at 0 psig and should indicate fully open at 20 psig.

263. (2.2.13.4-3) Assuming that the flow is from left to right on the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm
actuated control valve, what statement is true? Illustration GS-0051
(a) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom disc for the purpose
of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the valve position.
(b) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom disc for the purpose
of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the valve position.
(c) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom disc for the purpose
of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve closing.
(d) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom disc for the purpose
of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve opening.

264. (2.2.13.4-4) In the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true
concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragm? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot pressure acting on the
bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(b) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot pressure acting on the
top of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.
(c) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot pressure acting on the
top of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
(d) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot pressure acting on the
bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.

265. (2.2.13.4-1) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement
is true? Illustration GS-0051
(a) The control valve is direct-acting and normally open (NO).
(b) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally open (NO).
(c) The control valve is direct-acting and normally closed (NC).
(d) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally closed (NC).

266. (2.2.13.4-8) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control
the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be
the result if there was a complete loss of pilot air being delivered to the valve actuator? Illustration GS-0051

(a) The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm
condition.
(b) The valve would fail in the exact position just before the loss of pilot air. The fuel temperature will fluctuate
with changes in fuel demand.
(c) The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm
condition.
(d) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to a loss of pilot air.

267. (2.2.13.4-6) Suppose the pilot pressure is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated pneumatically operated,
diaphragm actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for a linear response and the travel position
indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would be the approximate pilot pressure if the position indicator showed
the valve to be 75% open? Illustration GS-0051
(a) 4.5 psig
(b) 6.0 psig
(c) 7.5 psig
(d) 9.0 psig

268. (2.2.13.1-2) What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?
(a) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to keep the steam
line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(b) By draining the high point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to keep the steam
line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(c) By draining the high point of a vertical run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to keep the steam
line dry and eliminate water hammer.
(d) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to insure good heat
transfer efficiency.

269. (2.2.13.1-9) What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into contact with
superheated steam?
(a) Mechanical traps relying on the principle of buoyancy.
(b) Thermodynamic traps relying on the principle of condensate undergoing a pressure drop and flashing.
(c) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of differing expansion rates for dissimilar metals.
(d) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of expansion/contraction of a volatile fluid.

270. (2.2.13.1-6) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading the control
cylinder "E" upward out of the trap body? Illustration GS-0002
(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.

(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.

(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.

(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.

271. (2.2.13.1-5) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading the control
cylinder "E" downward further into the trap body? Illustration GS-0002
(a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.

(b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.

(c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will increase.

(d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery of the valve disk
will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve disk will decrease.

272. (2.2.13.1-4) In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what statement is
true regarding its installation?
(a) The steam trap should never be painted, but should be covered with insulation.
(b) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion and should be covered with insulation.
(c) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion but should never be covered with insulation.
(d) The steam trap should never be painted and should never be covered with insulation.

273. (2.2.14.3-1) In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute
by _ . Illustration GS-0012
(a) good metal-to-metal contact
(b) sealant between the two parts
(c) an asbestos gasket
(d) compressing the packing rings

274. (2.2.14.3-5) In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the
bottom end of the motor shaft? Illustration GS-0011
(a) 45 1/4 inches
(b) 45 5/16 inches
(c) 53 5/8 inches
(d) 57 5/8 inches

275. (2.2.14.3-3) What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustration?
Illustration GS-0012
(a) 1 inch
(b) 1 1/4 inches
(c) 1 1/2 inches
(d) 2 1/2 inches

276. (2.2.14.3-6) The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by _ _ . Illustration GS-0111
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) I

277. (2.2.14.3-4) What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor
illustrated? Illustration GS-0011
(a) 34 5/8 inches
(b) 35 inches
(c) 35 5/8 inches
(d) 36 inches

278. (2.2.14.3-7) The term, whole depth of the gear, shown in the illustration, is equal to . Illustration GS-0111

(a) A + D
(b) B + D
(c) C + A
(d) C + D

279. (2.2.14.4-9) The illustration is drawn to a scale of 3/8 inch = 1 inch. What is the full size dimension of "X",
if the scale lengths for "E" = 5/8", "F" = 1 3/8", "G" = 2 1/8", and "H" = 5 3/4"? Illustration GS-0007

(a) 1.625 inches

(b) 4.333 inches
(c) 6.094 inches
(d) 15.333 inches

280. (2.2.14.4-2) The physical feature indicated for each of the smallest diameter ends of the device illustrated is
that they are _ . Illustration GS-0008
(a) threaded
(b) smooth surfaced with opposing machined flats
(c) smoothed surfaced only
(d) threaded with opposing machined flats

281. (2.2.14.4-3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the device shown in the illustration?
Illustration GS-0008
(a) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are flats on the shaft.
(b) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are steps in the shaft diameter.
(c) If the piece is symmetrical about the 3/16 hole, the threaded ends have longitudinal tolerance dimensions of 0.789
inch to 0.825 inch.
(d) All the 0.03 under cuts must be taken into account when adjusting lengths to meet the specified tolerances.

282. (2.2.14.4-4) Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an _ . Illustration GS-0019

(a) interference fit

(b) clearance of 0.005 inch
(c) running fit
(d) tolerance of 0.005 inch

283. (2.2.14.4-8) In the illustration shown, what is the distance indicated by dimension "I"? Illustration GS-0001

(a) 1 1/2 inches

(b) 1 3/4 inches
(c) 1 7/8 inches
(d) 2 inches

284. (2.2.14.4-5) The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal . Illustration GS- 0028
(a) rod with a conventional break
(b) tube with a broken out section
(c) pipe with a missing center section
(d) bar with a sawn out section

285. (2.2.14.4-1) The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the illustration
is . Illustration GS-0010
(a) 1/8 inch
(b) 1/4 inch
(c) 3/8 inch
(d) 1/2 inch

286. (2.2.14.4-10) The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall length of 42 inches in addition to the following
dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8 3/16". The tapered length "X" is
. Illustration GS-0133
(a) 6.375 inches
(b) 7.812 inches
(c) 8.185 inches
(d) 8.312 inches

287. (2.2.14.4-7) The letters 'NPT' used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration, indicates the _ _.
Illustration GS-0010
(a) thread series
(b) thread profile
(c) class of finish
(d) class of fit

288. (2.2.14.2-2) In the illustration, line "C" is a _ . Illustration GS-0006

(a) dimension line
(b) leader line
(c) cutting plane line
(d) phantom line

289. (2.2.14.2-7) In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the letters "A", "B",
and "C" indicate . Illustration GS-0036
(a) the use of internal threads
(b) hole tolerance
(c) finished diameter
(d) interference fit

290. (2.2.14.2-3) How many hidden lines are shown in the right side (end) view of the drawing illustrated?
Illustration GS-0021
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Six

291. (2.2.14.2-6) In the illustration, line "D" is a/an . Illustration GS-0006

(a) hidden line
(b) sectioning line
(c) outline
(d) phantom line

292. (2.2.14.2-9) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures shown in
the illustration? Illustration GS-0031
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

293. (2.2.14.2-1) In the illustration shown, what is the proper description of the hole represented by "C"?
Illustration GS-0015
(a) Counter bored
(b) Countersunk
(c) Counter drilled
(d) Spot faced

294. (2.2.14.2-10) In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a/an _. Illustration GS-0006
(a) hidden line
(b) cutting plane line
(c) outline
(d) centerline

295. (2.2.14.2-4) Which of the conditions listed does the blueprint symbol shown in the illustration represent?
Illustration GS-0028
(a) All surfaces are to be machine finished.
(b) A groove must be machined at the points designated.
(c) The thread form to be machined on the bolt.
(d) The surface should be finished with a welded overlay.

296. (2.2.14.2-5) In the illustration, line "C" is a _ . Illustration GS-0006

(a) dimension line
(b) leader line
(c) cutting plane line
(d) phantom line

297. (2.2.14.2-8) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures shown in
the illustration? Illustration GS-0031
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) D

298. (2.2.14.5-1) Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will
. Illustration GS-0030
(a) designate the type of weldment
(b) designate the welding specifications
(c) specify the size of weldment
(d) specify the direction of welding
299. (2.2.14.1-1) As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection,
and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"?
Illustration GS-0165
(a) Figure "2"
(b) Figure "8"
(c) Figure "10"
(d) Figure "15"

300. (2.2.14.1-5) The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the . Illustration GS-0025

(a) total number of parts in the assembled component

(b) parts aligned for the correct order of reassembly
(c) disassembled component in a one point perspective view
(d) parts without using hidden lines

301. (2.2.14.1-7) Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the right side
view of the unnumbered object in the illustration. Illustration GS-0003
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

302. (2.2.14.1-2) Which of the figures shown in the illustration depicts an orthographic projection? Illustration GS-
0142
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

303. (2.2.20.1-1) In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential condition must
exist?
(a) The two substances must be of different state of matter.
(b) The two substances must be of different specific gravity.
(c) The two substances must be of different pressure.
(d) The two substances must be of different temperature.

304. (2.2.20.1-2) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from one location to
another by fluid in motion?
(a) Sublimation
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Conduction

305. (2.2.20.1-3) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within a body or
between two bodies in direct contact?
(a) Radiation
(b) Conduction
(c) Sublimation
(d) Convection

306. (2.2.20.1-4) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy through a transparent
medium by means of electromagnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?
(a) Conduction
(b) Sublimation
(c) Radiation
(d) Convection

307. (2.2.20.1-7) Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer. Specifically, when
heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the opposite side, what mode of heat
transfer is associated with that particular part of the
overall process?
(a) Radiation
(b) Natural convection
(c) Forced convection
(d) Conduction

308. (2.2.20.1-8) What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger boundary wall by
conduction?
(a) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and directly
proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and the area of the
wall, and directly proportional to the wall thickness.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and inversely
proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
(d) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and the area of the
wall, and inversely proportional to the wall thickness.
309. (2.2.20.1-9) What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of natural
convection?
(a) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is directly
proportional to the temperature gradient.
(b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is directly
proportional to the temperature gradient.
(c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is inversely
proportional to the temperature gradient.
(d) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is inversely
proportional to the temperature gradient.

310. (2.2.20.2-1) What statement represents the first law of thermodynamics?

(a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first body must be greater
than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, there is no mathematical relationship between the internal
energy given up by the first body and the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first body must be less
than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first body must be equal to
the internal energy taken up by the second body.

311. (2.2.20.2-2) What statement represents the second law of thermodynamics?

(a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is unidirectional from the
relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.
(b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow between the two bodies is
unpredictable.
(c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is unidirectional from the
relatively hot body to the relatively cold body.
(d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is bidirectional from the relatively
hot body to the relatively cold body and from the relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.

312. (2.2.20.2-3) If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal gases, what
statement is true?
(a) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its pressure.

(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its temperature.

(d) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its temperature.

313. (2.2.20.2-4) If Charles' law describes the relationship between the temperature and volume of ideal gases, what
statement is true?
(a) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its temperature.

(b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

(c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its temperature.

(d) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its pressure.

314. (2.2.20.2-5) What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a
substance one degree?
(a) Specific volume
(b) Specific gravity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat

315. (2.2.20.2-6) What statement represents the ideal gas law?

(a) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and inversely proportional to its
temperature.
(b) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and directly proportional to its
temperature.
(c) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and directly proportional to its
temperature.
(d) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and inversely proportional to its
temperature.

316. (2.2.20.2-7) What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a substance from a
liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?
(a) Latent heat of fusion
(b) Specific heat of vaporization
(c) Sensible heat of vaporization
(d) Latent heat of vaporization

317. (2.2.20.2-8) What term is defined as the rate of doing work?

(a) Power
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Mechanical work
(d) Potential energy

318. (2.2.20.2-9) What statement is true concerning thermal energy in transition?

(a) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The resulting heat
flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance. Latent
heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance.
(b) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The resulting heat
flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance.
Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance.
(c) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The resulting heat flow
may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance. Latent
heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance.
(d) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The resulting heat flow
may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a change of state of the substance. Latent heat
transfer results in a change of temperature of the substance.

319. (2.2.20.2-10) What statement is true concerning the internal energy of a substance?
(a) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of the state of matter of the
substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance are in no way related to the
temperature of a substance.
(b) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of
the temperature of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance are in
no way related to the state of matter of a substance.
(c) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of the substance,
whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the substance.

(d) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the substance, whereas
the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of the substance.

320. (2.2.15.1-8) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion
where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?
(a) Jet drive
(b) Azimuthing propulsor
(c) Azipod propulsor
(d) Cycloidal propeller

321. (2.2.15.1-7) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Z- drive?
(a) Azimuthing propulsor
(b) Jet drive
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Azipod propulsor

322. (2.2.15.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion shafting
rotation?
(a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Controllable-pitch propeller
(c) Tandem propellers
(d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller

323. (2.2.15.1-4) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor is
generally used for main propulsion?
(a) Tandem propellers
(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Controllable-pitch propeller
(d) Fixed-pitch propeller

324. (2.2.15.1-2) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith Schneider
drive?
(a) Ducted propeller
(b) Tandem propellers
(c) Vane wheel
(d) Cycloidal propeller

325. (2.2.15.1-3) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw propeller of
the conventional design?
(a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Cycloidal propeller
(c) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(d) Controllable-pitch propeller
326. (2.2.15.1-10) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?

(a) Cycloidal propellers.

(b) Contra-rotating propellers.
(c) Tandem propellers.
(d) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.

327. (2.2.15.1-6) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the vessel's hull
with a number of vertical, rudder like blades projecting from it?
(a) Contra-rotating propeller
(b) Tandem propeller
(c) Helicoidal propeller
(d) Cycloidal propeller

328. (2.2.15.1-9) Concerning the operating mechanism of a controllable-pitch propeller, what statement is true?

(a) If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller shaft. If the
hydraulic actuator is inboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
(b) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, the blade rotating mechanism is actuated by a mechanical pull-
push rod located within the propeller shaft.
(c) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft in
either case.
(d) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller shaft. If the
hydraulic actuator is outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.

329. (2.2.15.5-1) The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what type?
(a) Single spur gears
(b) Single helical gears
(c) Double helical gears
(d) Double bevel gears

330. (2.2.15.5-5) Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with one another?

(a) Parallel axis gearing

(b) Bevel gearing
(c) Worm gearing
(d) Epicyclic gearing

331. (2.2.15.5-9) What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?

(a) Main propulsion reduction gear.
(b) Turbo-generator reduction gear.
(c) Main engine turning gear.
(d) Auxiliary power take-off gear.

332. (2.2.15.5-4) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The driven gear is the
larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven gear is the
larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.
(c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The driven gear is the
smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.
(d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven gear is the
smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.

333. (2.2.15.5-10) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double
reduction?
(a) Slow-speed diesel
(b) Medium-speed diesel
(c) High-speed diesel
(d) Gas turbine

334. (2.2.15.5-3) What is an example of an epicyclic gear?

(a) Planetary gear
(b) Articulated gear
(c) Nested gear
(d) Locked train gear

335. (2.2.15.5-8) Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?
(a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and low torque and allows
the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and high torque.
(b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and high torque and
allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and low torque.
(c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and low torque and allows
the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and high torque.
(d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low-speed and high torque and allows
the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high-speed and low torque.

336. (2.2.15.5-11) An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter wheel via a pair of belts. The power input is
supplied by a 5 HP motor rotating the driving wheel at 300 RPM. If the efficiency of the transmission is 80%, what RPM
and torque is delivered to the driven wheel?
(a) 120 RPM at 4 HP
(b) 160 RPM at 4 HP
(c) 220 RPM at 4.5 HP
(d) 220 RPM at 4.8 HP

337. (2.2.15.5-2) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a single
reduction?
(a) Slow-speed diesel
(b) Medium-speed diesel
(c) Steam turbine
(d) Gas turbine

338. (2.2.15.5-7) Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of slip?

(a) Inflatable tire type clutch

(b) Flexible coupling
(c) Multiple disk friction clutch
(d) Electromagnetic clutch

339. (2.2.15.2-5) What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft misalignment
as the ship's hull flexes?
(a) Some line shaft bearings may have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection upwards only.
Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.

(b) All line shaft bearings have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection downwards only. As such no
provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(c) All line shaft bearings have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection upwards only. As such
no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
(d) Some line shaft bearings may have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection downwards only. Other
line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.

340. (2.2.15.2-9) Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?
(a) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the
bearing is by the action of an oil wick.
(b) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the
bearing is by wick action.
(c) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the
bearing is by the action of an oil scraper.
(d) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of the oil to the
bearing is similar to the action of oiling rings.

341. (2.2.15.2-7) Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing shells on merchant
ships?
(a) The intermediate line shaft bearing.
(b) The forward most line shaft bearing.
(c) All line shaft bearings have only a lower bearing shell.
(d) The aftermost line shaft bearing.

342. (2.2.15.2-3) What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?
(a) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by wick lubrication.
(b) Line shaft bearing are generally lubricated by force-feed lubrication.
(c) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by gravity feed lubrication.
(d) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by oiling rings or discs.

343. (2.2.15.2-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is required, what
is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that the propeller is attached
to?
(a) Line shaft
(b) Tail shaft
(c) Thrust shaft
(d) Head shaft

344. (2.2.15.2-6) What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?

(a) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and maintain the shaft in proper axial
alignment.
(b) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and to transmit the radial thrust developed
by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(c) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and to transmit the axial thrust developed
by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(d) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and maintain the shaft in proper radial
alignment.

345. (2.2.15.2-4) What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
(a) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings.
(b) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings.
(c) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings.
(d) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.

346. (2.2.15.2-10) What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on merchant ships?

(a) Pivoted-shoe thrust bearing.

(b) Split-half journal type bearing.
(c) Plain thrust bearing.
(d) Single piece bushing.

347. (2.2.15.4-8) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters
to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?
(a) Fixed-pitch propeller
(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Controllable-pitch propeller

348. (2.2.15.4-4) What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded
propulsor?
(a) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime
mover is located outside the hull.
(b) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime
mover is located inside the hull.
(c) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is steerable.

(d) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is not steerable.

349. (2.2.15.4-9) What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when installed on ships?

(a) They provide increased overall propulsive reverse thrust.

(b) They provide increased maneuverability at low ship speeds.
(c) They provide increased overall propulsive forward thrust.
(d) They provide increased maneuverability at high ship speeds.

350. (2.2.15.4-1) Concerning transverse fixed tunnel thrusters, what statement is true?
(a) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a vessel, and used for
docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
(b) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwart ships, usually located at the bow of a vessel, and used to
supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
(c) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwart ships, usually located at the bow of a vessel, and used for
docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
(d) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a vessel, and used to
supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.

351. (2.2.15.4-3) With respect
the operating principle of the
(a) The vectoring ring is used
(b) The vectoring ring is used
(c) The vectoring ring is used
(d) The vectoring ring is used
to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement represents
vectoring ring?
to control the orientation of the inlet guide vanes to the pump inlet.
to control the orientation of the deflector vanes of the pump discharge.
to control the speed and direction of rotation of the pump.
to control the orientation of the vanes on the pump impeller.

352. (2.2.15.4-10) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the
insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?
(a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.

353. (2.2.15.4-5) With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear unit, but the
gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
(b) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller.
(c) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's propeller, but the
azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
gear unit.
354. (2.2.15.4-2) Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?
(a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of rotation of the
pump.
(b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch angle of the
pump impeller.
(c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of the pump inlet
guide vanes.
(d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of the water
discharge vectoring ring.

355. (2.2.15.3-2) What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?
(a) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is the side
of the blade known as the pressure side.
(b) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and is the
side of the blade known as the pressure side.
(c) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and is the
side of the blade known as the suction side.
(d) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is the side
of the blade known as the suction side.

356. (2.2.15.3-5) What statement is true with respect to the pressure side of a propeller blade?
(a) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and
is also known as the back of the blade.
(b) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is
also known as the back of the blade.
(c) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead motion and is
also known as the face of the blade.
(d) The pressure side of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead motion and
is also known as the face of the blade.

357. (2.2.15.3-3) What is meant by the term "left-handed" propeller?

(a) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in either direction.

(b) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either direction.

(c) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when viewed from ahead.

(d) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when viewed from astern.

358. (2.2.16.4.3-1) An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will _.

(a) increase discharge pressure
(b) decrease pump cavitation
(c) decrease pump capacity
(d) decrease reaction ring clearance

359. (2.2.16.3.4-3) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to _ _ .

(a) separate air from the liquid being pumped
(b) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
(c) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
(d) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped

360. (2.2.16.3.4-2) The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __.

(a) develop a high velocity liquid
(b) limit hydraulic end thrust
(c) initiate flow
(d) convert velocity to pressure

361. (2.2.16.3.4-4) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?
(a) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
(b) They are started with the discharge valve opened.
(c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
(d) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.

362. (2.2.16.4.1-6) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the

(a) direction of rotation of the screws

(b) type of driving gears
(c) pitch of the screws
(d) stuffing box diameter

363. (2.2.16.4.1-8) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly
flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
(a) Rubber bellows mechanical seal
(b) Double mechanical seal
(c) External mechanical seal
(d) Conventional stuffing box

364. (2.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?

(a) Replaceable gib inserts

(b) Casing gear thrust bearings
(c) Spur gear adjusters
(d) Replaceable liner plates

365. (2.2.16.4.1-9) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that .
(a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
(b) it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
(c) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
(d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications

366. (2.2.16.4.1-10) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and
stationary seal members shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0071
(a) spring
(b) notch and keyway
(c) seal retaining ring
(d) bellows

367. (2.2.16.4.1-1) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
. Illustration GS-0075
(a) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump
(b) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
(c) area for pump packing
(d) passage for gas to be discharged

368. (2.2.16.4.1-4) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0144
(a) Deep well centrifugal pump
(b) Simplex reciprocating pump
(c) Triple screw rotary pump
(d) Double screw rotary pump

369. (2.2.16.4.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal facing .
Illustration GS-0152
(a) away from the bearing housing recess
(b) toward the bearing preload washer
(c) away from the oil pressure being sealed
(d) toward the oil pressure being sealed

370. (2.2.16.4.1-5) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by

(a) moving the slide block and rotor

(b) changing the angle of the tilting plate
(c) moving the shaft trunnion block
(d) changing the speed of the pump

371. (2.2.16.3.3-5) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or
brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
(a) Scoring may result.
(b) Valve seat will be damaged.
(c) Heat transfer is restricted.
(d) Bonnet corrosion may result.

372. (2.2.16.3.3-4) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine
maintenance inspection?
(a) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
(b) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
(c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
(d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.

373. (2.2.16.3.3-1) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions
should be observed?
(a) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
(b) Replace all of the packing rings.
(c) Block off the sealing water connection.
(d) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.

374. (2.2.16.3.3-8) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to _.

(a) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
(b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
(c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(d) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
375. (2.2.16.3.3-2) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is
required?
(a) Throttle in on the suction valve.
(b) Replace the lantern rings.
(c) Replace the wearing rings.
(d) Throttle in on the discharge valve.

376. (2.2.16.3.3-7) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be .

(a) replaced with a satisfactory spare
(b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
(c) repaired by a suitable welding process
(d) reconditioned by metalizing and machining

377. (2.2.16.3.3-3) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly
seated, the packing gland nuts should be _ .
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
(c) left in that position
(d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing

378. (2.2.16.4.4-2) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an
increase in the pump _.
(a) discharge volume
(b) suction pressure
(c) torque rating
(d) rotor clearances

379. (2.2.16.4.4-4) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a
simple spur gear pump?
(a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
(b) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
(c) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
(d) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.

380. (2.2.16.4.4-3) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?
(a) The pump can only be used for light oils.
(b) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
(c) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
(d) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.

381. (2.2.16.4.4-1) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because

(a) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
(b) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
(c) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
(d) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift

382. (2.2.16.1-6) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the
remainder is the .
(a) total suction head
(b) pump head
(c) apparent net positive suction head
(d) discharge head

383. (2.2.16.1-7) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal
pump?
(a) Total head
(b) Discharge head
(c) Pump head
(d) Suction head

384. (2.2.16.1-1) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the _ .
(a) suction head
(b) net positive suction head
(c) discharge head
(d) total head

385. (2.2.16.1-2) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the
remainder is the .
(a) apparent net positive suction head
(b) pump head
(c) discharge head
(d) total suction head

386. (2.2.16.1-4) A pump is defined as a device that _ _.

(a) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"
(b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
(c) produces pressure
(d) is to develop a pressure differential

387. (2.2.16.1-3) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal
pump?
(a) Discharge head
(b) Suction head
(c) Pump head
(d) Total head

388. (2.2.16.3.1-4) Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by the use of _.

(a) shaft sleeves

(b) water seals
(c) water flingers
(d) lantern rings

389. (2.2.16.3.1-12) Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?
(a) They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than salt water.
(b) They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.
(c) They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
(d) Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the
spring compression.

390. (2.2.16.3.1-8) A recirculating, or bleed-off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to

(a) equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc

(b) establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage
(c) prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head
(d) decrease the net positive suction head

391. (2.2.16.3.1-2) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by _ _.

(a) lantern rings between the packing rings

(b) a compressed packing gland
(c) a liquid seal
(d) the stuffing box gland

392. (2.2.16.3.1-9) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and
a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?
(a) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
(b) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling.

(c) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails
it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
(d) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a packed gland is
perpendicular to the shaft.

393. (2.2.16.3.1-10) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed
on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
(a) Bronze.
(b) Carbon.
(c) Copper and carbon.
(d) Copper.

394. (2.2.16.3.1-1) Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __ _. Illustration GS-0129
(a) wearing ring
(b) stuffing box
(c) shaft sleeve
(d) packing gland

395. (2.2.16.6-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at
relatively low pressures?
(a) reciprocating type
(b) screw type
(c) gear type
(d) propeller type

396. (2.2.16.6-1) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?

(a) Steering gear system

(b) Main circulating system
(c) Fuel oil service booster system
(d) Fluid power transmission system
397. (2.2.16.5.4-2) The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of .
(a) reciprocating pumps
(b) jet pumps
(c) centrifugal pumps
(d) propeller pumps

398. (2.2.16.5.4-1) If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute with a 3"
diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?
(a) 28 gpm
(b) 38 gpm
(c) 48 gpm
(d) 58 gpm

399. (2.2.16.5.3-2) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should _ .

(a) use a packing hook

(b) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
(c) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
(d) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing

400. (2.2.16.5.3-4) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
(a) Oil mixed with kerosene.
(b) Graphite and oil.
(c) Engine oil.
(d) Vegetable oil.

401. (2.2.16.5.3-5) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to

(a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke

(b) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
(c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
(d) place the steam pistons in the mid-stroke position

402. (2.2.16.5.3-1) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut
square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends .
(a) 45° apart
(b) 90° apart
(c) 120° apart
(d) 180° apart

403. (2.2.16.5.3-3) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating
pump?
(a) High-pressure graphite packing
(b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
(c) Low-pressure braided asbestos packing
(d) Reinforced rubber packing

404. (2.2.16.4.2-1) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves _ .
(a) slightly opened
(b) halfway opened
(c) throttled
(d) fully opened

405. (2.2.16.5.2-4) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the .

(a) cushioning valves to wear

(b) pump to operate sluggishly
(c) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
(d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke

406. (2.2.16.5.2-2) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should
be _ .
(a) cycled at least once a day
(b) cycled once every 4 days
(c) cycled once every week
(d) watched carefully while idled

407. (2.2.16.5.2-5) An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by

(a) scarred cylinder walls

(b) clogged suction strainers
(c) clogged drain valves
(d) defective intake valves
408. (2.2.16.5.2-8) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its
rated capacity?
(a) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
(b) Excessive suction lift
(c) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
(d) All of the above

409. (2.2.16.5.2-6) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be
caused by _ .
(a) lower than normal supply steam temperature
(b) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
(c) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
(d) lower than normal supply steam pressure

410. (2.2.16.5.2-7) When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be _ .

(a) a loose tappet collar

(b) an open snifter valve
(c) clogged suction strainers
(d) misalignment of the crosshead guide

411. (2.2.16.3.2-7) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the
discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the .
(a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(c) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

412. (2.2.16.3.2-2) A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming .

(a) primarily to lubricate the shaft seals
(b) due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller
(c) in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
(d) to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure

413. (2.2.16.3.2-6) Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results
from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of _.
(a) steam knock
(b) vapor pockets
(c) fluid friction
(d) water hammer action

414. (2.2.16.3.2-1) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed is to .

(a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(c) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
(d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure

415. (2.2.16.3.2-4) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of
the following operational problems?
(a) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
(b) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
(c) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low flow.
(d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.

416. (2.2.16.3.2-8) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the .
(a) seal ring is improperly located
(b) water seal pipe is plugged
(c) impeller is flooded
(d) pump is not primed

417. (2.2.16.3.2-9) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is
caused by _ .
(a) failure to seat the packing rings
(b) packing ring rotation
(c) under-tightening the packing
(d) insufficient lubrication of the packing

418. (2.2.16.3.2-3) If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the

(a) motor controller overload would open

(b) pump would eventually overheat
(c) relief valve would continuously cycle open
(d) motor would overheat

419. (2.2.16.3.2-5) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _.
(a) cavitation
(b) abrasion
(c) corrosion
(d) electrolysis

420. (2.2.16.5.1-5) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by

(a) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
(b) variations in the throttle adjustment
(c) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
(d) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod

421. (2.2.16.5.1-4) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?

(a) Adjusting of the tappet collars

(b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
(c) Moving tappets
(d) Stay rods

422. (2.2.16.5.1-3) Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam cylinder of a
reciprocating pump?
(a) Pump rod
(b) Valve operating differential
(c) Crosshead arm
(d) Pilot valve and operating rod

423. (2.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take
suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down
strokes?
(a) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
(b) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
(c) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinders.
(d) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.

424. (2.2.16.7-1) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the

(a) injector
(b) diffuser
(c) compressor
(d) siphon

425. (2.2.16.7-2) A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the

(a) discharge end being smaller than the suction end

(b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
(c) small size of impeller
(d) lack of moving parts

426. (2.2.16.7-3) Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or an eductor?

(a) A propeller drawing a fluid through a Venturi nozzle.

(b) A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid.
(c) A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle.
(d) Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.

427. (2.2.18-12) According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause pump "A" to
short cycle? Illustration GS-0173
(a) The hydro-pneumatic expansion tank is operating with an insufficient air charge.
(b) The hydro-pneumatic tank is operating with a low water level.
(c) A low water level exists in the potable water storage tank.
(d) Pump "A" wearing rings have excessive clearance.

428. (2.2.18-6) The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by

(a) allowing the escape of flammable vapors

(b) dissipating the heat of a flame
(c) absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity
(d) preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank

429. (2.2.18-8) If water continues to flow excessively from the device shown in the illustration, the problem is most
likely due to . Illustration GS-0155
(a) "E" being stuck or held in a position other than indicated in the illustration
(b) a hole developing in "B"
(c) a hole being formed in the outboard edge of "C"
(d) item "H" being fouled or plugged
430. (2.2.18-10) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water
at ambient air pressure and temperature?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV

431. (2.2.18-11) A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels by using .

(a) constant speed supply pumps

(b) variable speed supply pumps
(c) an air-cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank
(d) a pressure regulator in the pressure tank discharge piping

432. (2.2.18-7) If water continues to trickle into the toilet bowl after the device shown in the illustration has
apparently closed, the problem is likely due to _ . Illustration GS-0155
(a) "A" being cocked into a fully open position
(b) "E" being stuck or held in a position other than horizontal
(c) "C" having developed a warp or ripple at the seating surface
(d) a problem with "H" that allows continuous low flow across the device

433. (2.2.18-9) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by _.
(a) pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container
(b) holding all sewage onboard
(c) treating sewage in an approved system
(d) all of the above

434. (2.2.21.1-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or
closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water?
(a) 180°F to 200°F
(b) 220°F to 240°F o (c) 260°F to 280°F o (d) 320°F to 360°F

435. (2.2.21.1-2) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or
closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing, what would be
the normal temperature range of the water? Illustration GS- 0151
(a) 180oF to 200oF
(b) 220oF to 240oF
(c) 260oF to 280oF
(d) 320oF to 360oF

436. (2.2.21.1-3) Referring to the illustrated diagram for a central-station hookup for a hot water heating system,
what statement represents the configuration of the system? Illustration GS-0151
(a) The system is a single zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils.
(b) The system is a multi-zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils.
(c) The system is a single zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.
(d) The system is a multi-zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.

437. (2.2.21.1-4) What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?
(a) Diaphragm pump
(b) Reciprocating pump
(c) Centrifugal pump
(d) Rotary pump

438. (2.2.21.1-5) Referring to the illustrated drawing of the central-station hookup for a hot water heating system,
what statement is true concerning the air separator on the heated water outlet of the converter? Illustration GS-0151

(a) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced within the converter and ultimately released by the
expansion tank vent.
(b) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heating steam and ultimately released by the
condensate returns gravity draining to the atmospheric drains tank.
(c) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced with the makeup water at the expansion tank and ultimately
released by the heating process within the converter.
(d) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heated air via the zone return lines and ultimately
released by the heating process within the converter.

439. (2.2.21.1-6) What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?
(a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
(b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
(c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
440. (2.2.21.1-7) What statement is true concerning a two-pipe hydronic heating system?
(a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each series-connected heating coil has its own separate
supply teeing off a supply main.
(b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each parallel-connected heating coil has its own separate
supply teeing off a supply main.
(c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each series-connected heating coil has its own separate
supply teeing off a supply main.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each parallel-connected heating coil has its own separate
supply teeing off a supply main.

441. (2.2.21.1-8) It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air.
Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?

(a) The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.

(b) The introduction of air via the makeup water.
(c) The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
(d) The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.

442. (2.2.21.1-9) What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system?
(a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling
system.
(b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the amount of piping as compared to a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous heating and cooling of different zones, whereas a
2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
(d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the amount of piping as compared to a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.

443. (2.2.21.2-2) Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by .

(a) filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water
(b) steam admitted to a cold pipe
(c) filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water
(d) draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve

444. (2.2.21.2-1) Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam
heating systems?
(a) Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return.
(b) Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return.
(c) Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping.
(d) Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.

445. (2.2.21.2-3) What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air conditioning systems?
(a) Propeller fan
(b) Centrifugal fan
(c) Vane-axial fan
(d) Tube-axial fan

446. (2.2.21.2-4) What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?
(a) Forward-curved blade fans
(b) Backward-curved blade fans
(c) Flat blade fans
(d) Radial blade fans

447. (2.2.21.2-5) What pressure drop across an air conditioning filter is indicative of a need to replace or clean the
filter as appropriate?
(a) 0.1 inches of water column
(b) 0.5 inches of water column
(c) 1.0 inches of water column
(d) 5.0 inches of water column

448. (2.2.21.2-6) Concerning air conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?
(a) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, vertically installed.
(b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, vertically installed.

449. (2.2.21.2-7) Concerning air conditioning system hot water heating coils, what statement is true?
(a) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and vertically installed.
(b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and horizontally installed.
(c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and horizontally installed.
(d) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and vertically installed.

450. (2.2.21.2-8) What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic equipment?

(a) Hot water heating coil

(b) Steam heating coil
(c) Electric-resistance heating coil
(d) Thermal-oil heating coil

451. (2.2.21.2-9) What statement is true concerning steam-heated, hot water heated, or electric- heated convectors?

(a) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening
outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near
(b) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening
outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near
(c) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening
an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near
(d) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening
an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near
at the top and discharge relatively warm air through an
the deck.
at the top and discharge relatively warm air through an
the overhead.
at the bottom and discharge relatively warm air through
the deck.
at the bottom and discharge relatively warm air through
the overhead.

452. (2.2.21.2-10) Concerning air conditioning system dry expansion cooling coils, what statement is true?
(a) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and horizontally installed.
(b) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and vertically installed.
(c) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and horizontally installed.
(d) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and vertically installed.

453. (2.2.21.3-1) Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?

(a) Cargo-hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and exhausting relatively
humid air to the outside.
(b) Cargo-hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and exhausting
relatively dry air to the outside.
(c) Cargo-hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and exhausting
relatively humid air to the outside.
(d) Cargo-hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and exhausting
relatively dry air to the outside.

454. (2.2.21.3-2) Which statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?
(a) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid desiccant by means
of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
(b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid desiccant by means
of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is condensed and absorbed into the liquid desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(d) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo-hold is condensed and absorbed into the liquid desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.

455. (2.2.21.3-3) What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?
(a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means of a heating coil
located in the regeneration chamber.
(b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by means of a cooling coil
located in the regeneration chamber.
(c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by means of a heating coil
located in the regeneration chamber.
(d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means of a cooling coil
located in the regeneration chamber.

456. (2.2.21.3-4) With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a
liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?
(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the humidification
chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and is known as the regeneration
chamber.
(b) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the humidification chamber.
The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the regeneration chamber.

(c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the humidification
chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the regeneration
chamber.
(d) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber.

457. (2.2.21.3-5) To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo-hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a key
role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?
(a) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained 10oF above the surface temperature of the cargo
or ship structure.
(b) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained at a constant temperature regardless of the
surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained 10oF below the surface temperature of the cargo
or ship structure.
(d) The dew point temperature of the cargo-hold is normally maintained at the surface temperature of the cargo or ship
structure.
458. (2.2.21.3-6) To determine the average cargo-hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point be
measured?
(a) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo-hold.
(b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
(c) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
(d) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo-hold.

459. (2.2.21.3-7) What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo- hold
dehumidification systems?
(a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
(b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
(d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.

460. (2.2.21.4-1) What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?
(a) A single zone system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system

461. (2.2.21.4-2) What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system
heat loads?
(a) A variable air volume system
(b) A single zone system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A terminal reheat system

462. (2.2.21.4-3) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GS- RA-09
(a) A dual duct system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A single zone system

463. (2.2.21.4-4) Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GS-RA-42

(a) A single zone system

(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system

464. (2.2.21.4-5) Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GS-RA-43

(a) A dual duct system

(b) A variable air volume system
(c) A single zone system
(d) A terminal reheat system

465. (2.2.21.4-6) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having a split supply air stream, with one for cold air
and the other for hot air?
(a) A dual duct system
(b) A single zone system
(c) A terminal reheat system
(d) A variable air volume system

466. (2.2.21.4-7) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations other than the
outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?
(a) A terminal reheat system
(b) A single zone system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A variable air volume system

467. (2.2.21.5-1) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of steam through the
preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA- 09
(a) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(b) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil temperature
associated with the cooling coil.
(c) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(d) Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil is permitted for the
purposes of space humidity control.

468. (2.2.21.5-2) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the functioning of the
diverting relay as it controls the cooling coil flow and the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers?
Illustration GS-RA-09
(a) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space humidity is below the humidistat
set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal if the space humidity exceeds the
humidistat set point.
(b) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the space humidity is below the
humidistat set point. The diverting relay processes the room humidistat control signal if the space humidity exceeds
the humidistat set point.
(c) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the
space temperature is below the thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room humidistat control signal
if the space temperature exceeds the thermostat set point.
(d) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space temperature is below the
thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal if the space temperature
exceeds the thermostat set point.

469. (2.2.21.5-3) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the relationship between the
exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RA-09
(a) The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is closed, and vice
versa.
(b) The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is closed, and vice
versa.
(c) The exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree for all operating
conditions.
(d) The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is closed, and vice
versa.

470. (2.2.21.5-4) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning
of the winter outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42
(a) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and closes the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly lower than typical indoor air temperatures.

(b) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than typical indoor air temperatures.

(c) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and opens the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly lower than typical indoor air temperatures.

(d) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than typical indoor air temperatures.

471. (2.2.21.5-5) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning
of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42
(a) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and closes the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

(b) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and opens the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

(c) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

(d) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

472. (2.2.21.5-6) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning
of the supply air duct thermostats controlling the preheater steam flow and the cooling coil chilled water flow?
Illustration GS-RA-42
(a) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees lower than the design cooling coil off-
coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
(b) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees higher than the design cooling coil
off-coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
(c) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to
allow simultaneous flows.
(d) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to
prevent simultaneous flows.

473. (2.2.21.5-7) Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true concerning the
damper controls? Illustration GS-RA-09
(a) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is normally closed and all
three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(b) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is normally open and each
damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
(c) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is normally open and all
three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(d) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is normally closed and each
damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
474. (2.2.21.5-8) Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space temperature
directly controlled? Illustration GS-RA-43
(a) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically proportioning the cold and hot air streams at the mixing
unit.
(b) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the chilled water flow through the cooling
coil.
(c) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the reheat coil.

(d) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the preheat coil.

475. (2.2.21.6-1) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by an ordinary
thermometer?
(a) The saturation temperature
(b) The dry bulb temperature
(c) The dew point temperature
(d) The wet bulb temperature

476. (2.2.21.6-2) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured with a sling
psychrometer?
(a) The wet bulb temperature
(b) The dew point temperature
(c) The saturation temperature
(d) The dry air temperature

477. (2.2.21.6-3) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70oF and the
relative humidity is 50%, what is the absolute humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
(a) 38 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(b) 45 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(c) 51 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(d) 58 grains of moisture per pound of dry air

478. (2.2.21.6-4) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the measured dry bulb temperature is 80oF and
the measured wet bulb temperature is 70oF, what is the determined relative humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22

(a) 45%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 95%

479. (2.2.21.6-5) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry bulb temperature of 60oF and
a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain, and the off-coil temperature
is now 80oF. What is off-coil relative humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
(a) 19%
(b) 27%
(c) 55%
(d) 70%

that air passes over a heating coil, and this results in sensible heat gain with no change in moisture content. What
statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS- RA-22
(a) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil outlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.

481. (2.2.21.6-7) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes
over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat
loss with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line?
Illustration GS-RA-22

(a) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.

482. (2.2.21.6-8) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes
over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature below the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat
loss and dehumidification. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration
GS-RA-22
(a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil inlet.

483. (2.2.21.6-9) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry bulb, wet bulb,
and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value? Illustration GS-RA-22
(a) When the relative humidity is 0%.
(b) When the air is completely saturated with moisture and the relative humidity is 100%.
(c) When the grains of moisture per pound of dry air is zero.
(d) It is impossible for the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures to be the same value.

where steam is injected into the air stream, this results in sensible heat gain and humidification. What statement
represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? Illustration GS-RA-22
(a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil inlet.

485. (2.2.23-3) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance management program for
shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the rate of change
of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?

(a) Vibration frequency

(b) Vibration displacement
(c) Vibration acceleration
(d) Vibration velocity

486. (2.2.23-8) In examining a baseline vibration signature and the historical record of periodic vibration analyses,
what must be considered for the evaluation of rotating machinery?
(a) Minimum vibration limits and the change in vibration levels over time.
(b) Maximum vibration limits and the change in vibration levels over time.
(c) Change in vibration levels over time, with no regard to maximum vibration limits.
(d) Maximum vibration limits only, with no regard for the change in vibration levels over time.

487. (2.2.23-7) When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?
(a) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, but no historical record of periodic analyses
need be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are compared.
(b) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of periodic analyses
should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are compared.
(c) A historical record of periodic analyses should be maintained, but no baseline vibration signature need be
established as a reference. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are compared.
(d) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of periodic analyses
should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes are compared with no need to examine frequencies.

488. (2.2.23-6) What is the most useful measurement that represents the severity of vibration associated with periodic
or oscillatory motion?
(a) Vibration frequency
(b) Vibration acceleration
(c) Vibration displacement
(d) Vibration velocity

489. (2.2.23-5) What is the standard unit of measure for vibration displacement?
(a) Ten thousandths of an inch (0.0001), peak to peak
(b) Thousandths of an inch (0.001), peak to peak.
(c) Hundredths of an inch (0.01), peak to peak
(d) Tenths of an inch (0.1), peak to peak

490. (2.2.23-4) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance management program for
shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the number of
vibration cycles per unit time as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?

(a) Vibration acceleration

(b) Vibration frequency
(c) Vibration velocity
(d) Vibration displacement

491. (2.2.25.2-15) The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is
. Illustration GS-0081
(a) 0.4710 inch o (b) 0.4715 inch o (c) 0.4810 inch
(d) 0.4815 inch

492. (2.2.25.2-1) If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading is _.
(a) one millionth of an inch
(b) ten millionths of an inch
(c) one ten thousandth of an inch
(d) ten one thousandths of an inch

493. (2.2.25.2-12) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when

(a) a dial lights on the handle

(b) the dial is read on the handle
(c) the scale is read on the handle
(d) an audible click is heard and the handle releases

494. (2.2.25.2-3) One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle _.
(a) 0.025 inch o (b) 0.110 inch o (c) 0.205 inch o (d) 0.250 inch

495. (2.2.25.2-10) To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used with inside
calipers to get an accurate reading?
(a) Wire gage
(b) Center gage
(c) Micrometer
(d) None of the above

496. (2.2.25.2-6) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an

(a) thread micrometer

(b) engineer's scale
(c) dial indicator
(d) outside micrometer

497. (2.2.25.2-16) What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the
illustration? Illustration GS-0083
(a) 0.2280 inch
(b) 0.2340 inch
(c) 0.2470 inch
(d) 0.2520 inch

498. (2.2.25.2-14) The rotating part of a micrometer is known as the .

(a) thimble
(b) anvil
(c) sleeve
(d) frame

499. (2.2.25.2-4) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to

(a) 2 5/8 inches

(b) 2 7/16 inches
(c) 3 1/8 inches
(d) 3 9/16 inches

500. (2.2.25.3-7) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably
be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?
(a) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.
(b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
(c) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.
(d) Use a tapered screw extractor only.

501. (2.2.25.3-1) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should _.
(a) start tapping with a plug tap
(b) chamfer the edges of the holes
(c) tap the holes without cutting oil
(d) flood the tap with mineral oil

502. (2.2.25.3-2) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through you can
begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a _ _.
(a) taper tap
(b) finishing tap
(c) plug tap
(d) bottoming tap

503. (2.2.25.3-6) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies"; a plug tap is correctly used for

(a) chasing the threads on a circular rod

(b) reversing the threads in a hole
(c) starting the threads on a circular rod
(d) the second cut when threading a blind hole

504. (2.2.25.1-10) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage? Illustration GS-
0073
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

505. (2.2.25.1-6) The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to _ . Illustration GS-0079

(a) strip insulation from wire
(b) gage resistors
(c) measure wire diameter
(d) measure insulation thickness

506. (2.2.25.1-13) The ruler indicated in the illustration is commonly referred to as a/an _. Illustration GS-0023

(a) Metric Scale

(b) Engineers Scale
(c) Architects Scale
(d) Micrometer Scale

507. (2.2.25.1-1) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurements?
Illustration GS-0073
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

508. (2.2.25.1-5) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a _ .
(a) folding rule
(b) hook rule
(c) flexible steel rule
(d) machinist's steel rule

509. (2.2.25.1-9) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure .
(a) on the unmarked edge of the rule
(b) on the narrow edge of the rule
(c) from the zero end on the scale
(d) from the one inch graduation mark

510. (2.2.25.4-9) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "B" of the
device shown in illustration GS-0124? Illustrations GS-0080 and GS-0124
(a) figure F
(b) figure B
(c) figure C
(d) figure G

511. (2.2.25.4-4) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw? Illustration GS-
0080
(a) figure G
(b) figure L
(c) figure C
(d) figure D

512. (2.2.25.4-6) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the

(a) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
(b) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
(c) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
(d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads

513. (2.2.25.4-11) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is .
(a) made of non-corrosive metal
(b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
(c) not clad with any coating
(d) threaded with national coarse threads

514. (2.2.25.4-16) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "C" in
illustration GS-0015? Illustrations GS-0015 and GS-0080
(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure K
(d) figure D

515. (2.2.25.4-17) What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw described as 1/2-13 NC-2?
(a) 1/2
(b) 13
(c) NC
(d) 2

516. (2.2.25.4-12) Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut
not work itself loose due to vibration?
(a) Square nut
(b) Castellated nut
(c) Cap nut
(d) Wing nut
517. (2.2.25.4-14) Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock improperly used? Illustration GS-0156

(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C" and "D"
(d) "C" and "E"

518. (2.2.25.4-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure
indicates the improper method for using these devices? Illustration GS-0156
(a) "A"
(b) "B"
(c) "C"
(d) "D"

519. (2.2.25.4-3) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw? Illustration GS-
0080
(a) figure A
(b) figure F
(c) figure G
(d) figure L

520. (2.2.25.4-2) Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for machine threads on
bolts and nuts?
(a) A class 1 fit always has fewer threads per inch.
(b) A class 1 fit is tighter than a class 2 fit.
(c) A class 4 fit always has more threads per inch.
(d) A class 2 fit is looser than a class 4 fit.

521. (2.2.28.1-1) As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass,
what statement is true?
(a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to
zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to
zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought
to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought
to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

522. (2.2.28.1-2) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass,
what statement is true?
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from
the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is
removed from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.

523. (2.2.28.1-3) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats,
two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever- operated pedestal-mounted controller.
What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?

(a) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no control over the
warping heads.
(b) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They have no control over the
wildcats.
(c) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the wildcats.
(d) The clutch control levers are used to either engage or disengage the warping heads or the wildcats, depending upon
the windlass design.

524. (2.2.28.1-4) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats,
two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever- operated pedestal-mounted controller.
What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the pedestal-mounted controller?

(a) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation, but the warping
heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(b) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in either direction of
rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(c) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in only one direction of
rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
(d) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either direction of rotation, but the
wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
525. (2.2.28.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats,
two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever- operated, pedestal-mounted
controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake hand wheels?
(a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats and the warping heads.

(b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
(d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the wildcats or the warping
heads, depending upon the windlass design.

526. (2.2.28.1-6) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats,
two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever- operated, pedestal-mounted
controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats?
(a) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by disengaging the
wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate.

(b) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by disengaging the
warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate.

(c) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by disengaging the
wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will rotate.

(d) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by disengaging the
warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will
rotate.

527. (2.2.28.1-7) In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor
windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?
(a) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control
being in other than the neutral position.
(b) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches being
disengaged.
(c) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel operated wildcat band
brakes being set.
(d) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control
being in the neutral position.

528. (2.2.28.1-8) As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-
mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?
(a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The
anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat
clutch engaged.
(b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch.
The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the
wildcat clutch engaged.
(c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The
anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The
anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat
clutch disengaged.

529. (2.2.28.2-1) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from
the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is
removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.

530. (2.2.28.2-2) Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear output shaft
and the capstan head input shaft?
(a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head are all located on the
weather deck.
(b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the underside of the
weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the deck below the
weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.

531. (2.2.28.2-3) Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?

(a) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons
of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
(b) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons
of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
(c) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is
required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.
(d) A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is
required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.

532. (2.2.28.2-4) As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?

(a) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the prime
mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain preset tension.
(b) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line using the prime
mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain preset tension.
(c) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the brake
when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset tension.
(d) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line using the prime mover
when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset adjustable tension limits.

533. (2.2.28.2-5) As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo- handling pedestal-
type deck crane, what statement is true?
(a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is
brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is
brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is
brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is
brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

534. (2.2.28.2-6) As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo- handling
pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?
(a) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the luffing pump shall be
placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake released.
(b) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the luffing pump shall be
stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
(c) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the luffing
pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
(d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the luffing
pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake released.

535. (2.2.28.2-7) As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo- handling
pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?
(a) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the hoist pump
shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
(b) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is raised to a maximum
permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released.

(c) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is raised to a maximum
permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set.

(d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the hoist pump
shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set.

536. (2.2.28.2-8) For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an
immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?
(a) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum outreach limit switches.
(b) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(c) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
(d) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire limit switch.

537. (2.2.28.2-9) What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or
traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?
(a) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only allow elevator
operation if the doors are proved closed.
(b) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only allow elevator
operation if the doors are proved open.
(c) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators are not to be used.

(d) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency when elevators are
required to be used.

538. (2.2.28.2-10) What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a winding drum or
traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?
(a) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency when elevators are
required to be used.
(b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators are not to be
used.
(c) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck level and only
allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level.
(d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level and only allow
door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level.

539. (2.2.27.3-9) Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for discrete-level
detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?
(a) Capacitance probes
(b) Float operated potentiometer
(c) Float actuated limit switches
(d) Differential pressure transmitter

540. (2.2.27.3-5) What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of compressed
air?
(a) Differential pressure transmitter
(b) Float type
(c) Diaphragm box
(d) Bubble tube system

541. (2.2.27.1-6) Which of the listed temperature sensors is made of heat-treated metallic oxides and generally has a
negative coefficient of resistance?
(a) Bimetallic device
(b) Resistance temperature detector
(c) Thermocouple
(d) Thermistor

542. (2.2.27.1-5) Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as platinum, where the
resistance varies directly with temperature?
(a) Thermistor
(b) Bimetallic device
(c) Resistance temperature detector
(d) Thermocouple

543. (2.2.27.1-8) A radiation pyrometer is sensitive to what form of radiation?

(a) Infraviolet radiation
(b) Ultrared radiation
(c) Ultraviolet radiation
(d) Infrared radiation

544. (2.2.27.1-9) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic temperature
indicator has a calibrated scale of -40 to +40oF, what would be the actual measured temperature if the transmitted
pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the
industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?
(a) -10oF
(b) 0oF
(c) +10oF
(d) +25oF

545. (2.2.27.1-7) What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a pyrometer?
(a) Moderate to high temperature applications such as engine cooling and lubrication.
(b) Extremely low temperature applications such as cryogenics.
(c) Low to moderate temperature applications such as refrigeration and air conditioning.
(d) Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures.

546. (2.2.27.1-2) In what electrical temperature transmitting system is the system voltage generated by the magnitude
of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?
(a) Bimetallic sensor
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Thermistor
(d) Resistance temperature detector

547. (2.2.27.1-11) Suppose that a standard remote reading bourdon tube thermometer has a scale of 40 to 240oF. If the
accuracy of the thermometer is plus or minus 1% of the span, what would the range of measured temperature be if the
thermometer indicates 180oF?
(a) 177.6 to 182.4oF
(b) 178 to 182oF
(c) 178.2 to 181.8oF
(d) 179 to 181oF

548. (2.2.27.1-4) If it is desired to determine the temperature difference between two locations using thermocouples,
what wiring technique can be used to accomplish this?
(a) The two thermocouples would be wired in series-opposing to measure the difference between the two temperatures.

(b) The two thermocouples would be wired in parallel to measure the differences between the two temperatures.
(c) The two thermocouples would be wired in series-aiding to measure the difference between the two temperatures.

(d) It is not possible to measure a temperature difference using two thermocouples.

549. (2.2.27.1-3) If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what thermocouple wiring
technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average temperature?
(a) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-aiding, where the sum of the individual voltages is
divided by the number of thermocouples.
(b) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired in parallel, where the sum of the individual voltages is
divided by the number of thermocouples.
(c) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-opposing, where the sum of the individual voltages is
divided by the number of thermocouples.
(d) Only one thermocouple can be used, and the hot junction must be strategically located to get an effective average
temperature.

550. (2.2.27.5-5) What is the operating principle upon which a salinometer is based?
(a) Conductance of water
(b) Specific gravity of water
(c) Optical transparency of water
(d) Capacitance of water

551. (2.2.27.5-1) Which of the following speed tachometers produces an analog signal proportional to the shaft speed?

(a) Toothed-rotor Hall-effect tachometer

(b) Direct current tachometer
(c) Optical tachometer
(d) Toothed-rotor variable-reluctance tachometer

552. (2.2.27.5-3) What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity sensor as used for
sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?
(a) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a
pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely proportional to the oil viscosity.
(b) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a
pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.
(c) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a
pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely proportional to the oil viscosity.
(d) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a
pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.

553. (2.2.27.2-15) What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from contact with steam?

(a) The installation of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge.
(b) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance to the gauge.
(c) The installation of thermal insulation on the gauge.
(d) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to the gauge.

554. (2.2.27.2-1) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for
measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft pressure?
(a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge
(b) Bellows type pressure gauge
(c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
(d) Bourdon tube pressure gauge

555. (2.2.27.2-12) Suppose that a standard bourdon tube pressure gauge has a scale of 0 to 1000 psig. If the accuracy
of the gauge is plus or minus .5% of the span, what would the range of measured pressure be if the gauge indicates 690
psig?
(a) 640 to 740 psig
(b) 680 to 700 psig
(c) 685 to 695 psig
(d) 686.55 to 693.45 psig

556. (2.2.27.2-2) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator
has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic
signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

(a) 300 psig

(b) 500 psig
(c) 600 psig
(d) 750 psig

557. (2.2.27.2-7) In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with a pressure
measuring instrument?
(a) Isolation of high-temperature products from the measuring element.
(b) Isolation of high-pressure products from the measuring element.
(c) Isolation of non-viscous products from the measuring element.
(d) Isolation of corrosive products from the measuring element.
558. (2.2.27.2-11) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for
measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type?
(a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge
(b) Bourdon tube pressure gauge
(c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
(d) Bellows type pressure gauge

559. (2.2.27.2-3) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an analog pressure
indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 30 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted analog
signal current to the indicator is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current?

(a) 8 psig
(b) 12 psig
(c) 15 psig
(d) 24 psig

560. (2.2.27.2-4) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator
has a calibrated scale of 0 to 5000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic
signal pressure to the indicator is 6 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

(a) 1000 psig

(b) 1250 psig
(c) 1500 psig
(d) 1800 psig

561. (2.2.27.4-5) Which of the following flow meter primary devices works on the constriction type, differential head
principle?
(a) Turbine
(b) Vortex
(c) Venturi tube
(d) Magnetic

562. (2.2.27.4-9) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a

pneumatic instantaneous flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the actual measured
instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry
standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?
(a) 375 gpm
(b) 500 gpm
(c) 625 gpm
(d) 750 gpm

563. (2.2.27.4-1) What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as opposed to an
instantaneous flow rate?
(a) Variable area type, such as a rotameter
(b) Constriction type, differential head such as a venturi tube
(c) Positive displacement meter, such as nutating disk
(d) Velocity flow meter such as a turbine type

564. (2.2.27.6-2) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a
common industry standard for electronic signal current range?
(a) 0 to 10 mA
(b) 1 to 10 A
(c) 4 to 20mA
(d) 4 to 20 A

565. (2.2.27.6-1) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a common
industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range?
(a) 0 to 10 psig
(b) 0 to 100 psig
(c) 3 to 15 psig
(d) 3 to 150 psig

566. (2.2.27.7-1) Vibration characteristics to establish a baseline signature or to check the mechanical condition of
machinery are measured under which of the following operative conditions?
(a) Low torque
(b) High torque
(c) Abnormal
(d) Normal

567. (2.2.27.7-3) A reading taken with a portable hand-held vibration meter is capable of indicating which of the
following conditions?
(a) The unit being tested has bad bearings.
(b) The unit being tested is operating normally.
(c) The unit being tested has a bad stator.
(d) The unit being tested has a bad rotor.
568. (2.2.27.7-2) Which of the following statements is NOT a function of an effective vibration analysis program?

(a) To verify that proper repairs have been accomplished.

(b) To check machinery condition.
(c) To verify equipment alignment.
(d) To troubleshoot suspected problems.

569. (2.2.31-11) Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the throttle control from the bridge
of an automated vessel?
(a) Only with the master's permission.
(b) Only after the throttle has been placed in stop.
(c) After a 10 minute delay to the input command.
(d) Any time it is deemed necessary.

570. (2.2.31-8) Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may affect the speed,
maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe operation of the ship?
(a) The bridge should be informed after any changes are made, as soon as practical.
(b) The bridge need not be informed of any changes being made, as it will soon be obvious.
(c) The bridge should be informed before any changes are made, if at all possible.
(d) The bridge should be informed simultaneously as any changes are made, if at all possible.

571. (2.2.31-2) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible for making
machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. How often should these machinery space rounds be performed
by the duty engineer?
(a) Every hour
(b) Every two hours
(c) Every four hours
(d) Every twelve hours

572. (2.2.31-6) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must the propulsion console
be continuously manned?
(a) Under standby conditions or while maneuvering
(b) Under standby conditions only
(c) While maneuvering only
(d) During the day work period

573. (2.2.31-3) When entering an unattended machinery space to conduct maintenance or a machinery space round, what
must be done?
(a) The master should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.
(b) The first assistant engineer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.
(c) The navigational watch officer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.
(d) The chief engineer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals.

574. (2.2.30.1-1) On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space
sea water cooling systems?
(a) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in
shallow water and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway.

(b) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow
water and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway.

(c) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a low sea
suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water.

(d) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a high sea
suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water.

575. (2.2.30.1-3) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea suction to a low
sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
(a) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.

576. (2.2.30.1-4) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea suction to a high
sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
(a) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.

577. (2.2.30.1-5) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry grating into
the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?
(a) The debris is continuously removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or steam by cracking
open the blow valve, as appropriate.
(b) The debris may be removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or steam, as appropriate.

(c) The debris may be removed by draining the sea chest clear by opening a drain valve located at the bottom of the
sea chest.
(d) The debris is continuously removed by draining the sea chest clear by cracking open a drain valve located at the
bottom of the sea chest.

578. (2.2.30.1-2) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery
space sea water cooling system?
(a) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea
chest and terminating in the bilges.
(b) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea
chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.
(c) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the
sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
(d) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the
sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.

579. (2.2.30.1-6) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of a machinery
space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?
(a) The ice may be removed by using the chemical de-icing antifreeze connection, if provided.
(b) The ice may be removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if provided.
(c) The ice may be removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection, if provided.
(d) The ice may be removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow connection, if provided.

580. (2.2.30.1-7) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump can be used to
pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration SP-SW-01
(a) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(c) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose.

581. (2.2.30.1-8) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump is considered
a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressure? Illustration SP-SW-01
(a) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(c) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps are considered high-head pumps.

582. (2.2.30.1-9) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true
concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capability? Illustration
SP-SW-01
(a) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be used to supply both
the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers.
(b) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be used to supply the sea
water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers.

(c) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump may be used to
supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers.
(d) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating pumps may be used to
supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers.

583. (2.2.30.1-10) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true
concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01

(a) It is possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s), and it is
possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump.
(b) In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating pumps may be used to
supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers.

(c) While it may be possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump, it is
not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s).
(d) While it may be possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s), it is
not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump.

584. (2.2.30.1-11) Classification society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be furnished with
redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump and
one standby pump available for other sea water services. Referring to the illustrated motor ship sea water cooling
system drawing, what statement is true concerning meeting these classification society requirements? Illustration MP-
CW-01
(a) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a fire pump.
(b) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a clean bilge pump.
(c) The standby main sea water cooling pump may also function as a ballast pump.
(d) Both main sea water cooling pumps are dedicated to main engine cooling only.

statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control system? Illustration MP-CW-06

(a) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used to control the main
engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
(b) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is used to control the
main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
(c) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used to control the main
engine jacket water outlet header temperature.
(d) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is used to control the
main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.

586. (2.2.30.2-2) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true
concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery capability as associated with generating fresh
water? Illustration MP-CW-06
(a) The main engine jacket water heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh
water at the evaporator.
(b) The main engine jacket water cooler is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh
water at the evaporator.
(c) The evaporator standby heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh water at
the evaporator.
(d) The evaporator itself is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh water at the
evaporator.

587. (2.2.30.2-3) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true
concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MP-CW-06
(a) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
(b) The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental heat for the evaporator.

(c) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating fresh water at the
evaporator.
(d) The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine heat.

statement is true concerning the standby heating coil? Illustration MP-CW-06

(a) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to supplement the jacket water cooler.
(b) The standby heating coil is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
(c) The standby heating coil is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental heat for the evaporator.

(d) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine heat.

589. (2.2.30.2-5) For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be generally used to
introduce water treatment chemicals?
(a) Jacket water expansion tank.
(b) Jacket water outlet header
(c) Jacket water inlet header.
(d) Jacket water pump vent.

590. (2.2.30.2-6) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true
concerning the evaporator? Illustration MP-CW-06
(a) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and
is piped in series with and after the jacket water cooler.
(b) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler sea water as a heat source to generate fresh water
and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
(c) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and
is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
(d) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and
is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler.

statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling system?
Illustration MP-CW-06
(a) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the
turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets.

(b) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with the deaerator to
remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet.
(c) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the
turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets.

(d) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the
turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main engine cooling water jackets.

592. (2.2.30.2-8) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set of cooling
water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the use of deep well pumps? Illustration MP-CW-
06
(a) The main engine jacket cooling fresh water pumps.
(b) The main engine piston cooling fresh water pumps.
(c) The main engine injector cooling fresh water pumps.
(d) The ship's service diesel-generator fresh water cooling pumps.

593. (2.2.30.2-9) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which cooling system has
cooling water passing through passages within components that are continuously undergoing motion? Illustration MP-CW-
06
(a) The main engine jacket water cooling system.
(b) The SSDG cooling water systems.
(c) The main engine piston cooling water system.
(d) The main engine injector cooling water system.

594. (2.2.30.2-10) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which cooling system
tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capability? Illustration MP-CW-06
(a) SSDG fresh water expansion tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
(b) Injector cooling water tank and piston cooling water drain tank.
(c) Piston cooling water drain tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
(d) Injector cooling water tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.

regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all required to carry an
oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of maximum oil content of the
overboard discharge?
(a) 3 parts per million
(b) 15 parts per million
(c) 100 parts per million
(d) 150 parts per million

596. (2.2.22.1.1-2) In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non- oceangoing ships,
what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?
(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank
and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but
it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be
equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND
it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when
the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

597. (2.2.22.1.1-3) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of less than
400 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

(a) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop
the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(b) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge
alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in
the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the
ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily- water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank,
and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.

regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross
tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

(a) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to retain onboard all
oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.

(b) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a
means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

(c) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER required to retain
onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-water separator.

(d) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a
means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
599. (2.2.22.1.1-5) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR
Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 10,000 gross tons and above, what is the required means for preventing pollution
by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?
(a) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per
million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil- content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(b) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops
tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(c) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either
in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR
the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily- water separator.
(d) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per
million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically
stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into
an Oil Record Book?
(a) 33 CFR Part 151.15
(b) 33 CFR Part 151.25
(c) 33 CFR Part 151.55
(d) 33 CFR Part 151.2070

601. (2.2.22.1.1-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33
CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker
must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge
water that has accumulated in machinery spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil
Record Book entry for the specific operation?

(a) The master of the vessel

(b) The officer in charge of the operation
(c) The chief engineer
(d) The first assistant engineer

602. (2.2.22.1.1-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33
CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker
must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil
Record Book?
(a) Discharge overboard of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo-holds.
(b) Taking on ballast water into double bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(c) Discharge of ballast from double bottom sea water ballast tanks.
(d) Discharge of waste oil or sludge to a reception facility.

603. (2.2.22.1.1-9) In accordance with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, continuing violations of The
Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL
regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Each hour of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.

(b) Each day of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
(c) Each week of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
(d) Each month of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.

discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?

(a) When the discharge is necessary for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life at sea.
(b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million.
(c) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.
(d) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.

605. (2.2.22.1.3-5) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR
Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery
applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?
(a) 3 nautical miles
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

606. (2.2.22.1.3-1) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR
Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters?
(a) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(b) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.

607. (2.2.22.1.3-3) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR
Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that float applies to a
vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?
(a) 3 nautical miles
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400 gross tons and above
engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a
detailed description of the contents of the garbage?
(a) Incineration on the ship.
(b) Discharge overboard to sea.
(c) Discharge to a reception facility.
(d) Discharge to another ship.

609. (2.2.22.1.3-4) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR
Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery
applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?
(a) 3 nautical miles
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

610. (2.2.22.1.3-6) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR
Subchapter O, the discharge of plastics into the sea or the navigable waters of the United States is strictly
prohibited. Which of the following statements is true concerning the legal disposal of plastics?
(a) The garbage containing plastics must be either discharged ashore to an approved reception facility or incinerated
onboard the ship.
(b) The garbage containing plastics must be incinerated onboard ship. Discharge ashore to an approved reception
facility is not permitted.
(c) The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved reception facility. Incineration onboard
the ship is not permitted.
(d) The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved plastics recycling facility.

611. (2.2.22.1.2-1) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the term "sewage"?

(a) Victual or food wastes collected from galley sinks.

(b) Various deck drains situated within the vessel's superstructure.
(c) Human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or retain body waste.

(d) Drains collected from sinks and showers from the various heads onboard ship.

"Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?

(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended
solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived
from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible
floating solids.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible
floating solids.

613. (2.2.22.1.2-3) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type II Marine
Sanitation Device"?
(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible
floating solids.
(b) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible
floating solids.
(c) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived
from sewage.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended
solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.

614. (2.2.22.1.2-4) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type III Marine
Sanitation Device"?
(a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible
floating solids.
(b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived
from sewage.
(c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended
solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
(d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible
floating solids.

Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which
of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE?

(a) Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position.

(b) Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle.
(c) Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge.
(d) Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position.

616. (2.2.22.1.2-6) Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine
Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of
the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to
close the seacock and prevent its opening?
(a) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the vessel is entering a "no
discharge zone".
(b) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned that the vessel is
entering a "no discharge zone".
(c) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to prevent entry when
the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
(d) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the vessel is entering
a "no discharge zone".

617. (2.2.22.1.2-7) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical
miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
(a) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is permitted.
(b) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.
(c) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is permitted.
(d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.

618. (2.2.22.1.2-8) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 3, but less
than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
(a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.
(b) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is permitted.
(c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is permitted.
(d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.

than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?
(a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is prohibited.
(b) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is permitted.
(c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is permitted.
(d) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is permitted.

620. (2.2.22.1.4-1) Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as
an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is
controlled as a result?
(a) CO2
(b) Halon 1301
(c) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
(d) Cartridge-operated dry powder

621. (2.2.22.1.4-2) Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-
depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled
as a result?
(a) R-12
(b) R-134a o (c) R-404A o (d) R-410A

622. (2.2.22.1.4-3) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx)
emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of
the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply?
(a) Diesel engines with a power output of more than 130kW.
(b) Diesel engines with a power output not greater than 130kW.
(c) Diesel engines powering emergency diesel-generator sets.
(d) Diesel engines powering lifeboats.

content of any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?
(a) 1.5%
(b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 6.0%

624. (2.2.22.1.4-5) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas
cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulfur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in
an emissions control area?
(a) 1.5%
(b) 3.0%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 6.0%

625. (2.2.22.1.4-6) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances
are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?
(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
(b) Oil residue sludges
(c) Unground garbage
(d) Sewage waste sludges

626. (2.2.22.1.4-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances
are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?
(a) Refined petroleum products containing detergent additives.
(b) Garbage containing trace amounts of heavy metals.
(c) Oil residue and sewage waste sludges.
(d) Refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds.

627. (2.2.22.1.4-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the minimum allowable
flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?
(a) 450oC
(b) 650oF
(c) 850oF
(d) 1050oF

permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?

(a) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned only in unrestricted waters
(other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
(b) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without restriction in terms of
vessel location.
(c) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted waters (other than in
port, in harbors, or estuaries).
(d) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction in terms of vessel
location.

629. (2.2.26.2.1-8) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter .

(a) is more easily centered

(b) has a headless set screw
(c) has a spring loaded catch
(d) allows for misaligned center holes

630. (2.2.26.2.1-13) The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) furling tool
(b) curling tool
(c) hurling tool
(d) knurling tool

631. (2.2.26.2.1-3) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure I?
Illustration GS-0009
(a) A
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D

. Illustration GS-0164
(a) side relief angle
(b) side rake angle
(c) working relief angle
(d) nose angle

633. (2.2.26.2.1-1) The tool shown in the illustration is called a _ _. Illustration GS-0072
(a) center gage
(b) crotch center
(c) drill gage
(d) thread gage

634. (2.2.26.2.1-12) Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a work piece to perform a right
hand facing operation? Illustration GS-0090
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) V

635. (2.2.26.2.1-16) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck
and a three-jaw universal chuck?
(a) The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
(b) The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an eccentric position.

(c) Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate than the four-jaw
independent chuck.
(d) The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
636. (2.2.26.2.1-5) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) form tools
(b) curvature cutting tools
(c) parting tools
(d) universal turning tools

Illustration GS-0090
(a) Figure P
(b) Figure S
(c) Figure T
(d) Figure V

638. (2.2.26.2.1-2) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
. Illustration GS-0090
(a) universal turning tool
(b) right side end facing tool
(c) left cut side-facing tool
(d) cutting-off tool

639. (2.2.26.2.1-6) Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure II?
Illustration GS-0009
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) G

640. (2.2.26.2.1-11) In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the angle of

(a) drill points

(b) screw threads
(c) 60° thread cutting tools
(d) screw thread pitch

641. (2.2.26.2.2-7) A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine .

(a) work mounted on the lathe carriage
(b) large diameter stock between centers
(c) threads on long slender shafts
(d) round stock to a finished dimension

end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the
headstock end, the tailstock must be moved _.
(a) toward you to correct alignment
(b) away from you to correct alignment
(c) closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
(d) away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

643. (2.2.26.2.2-3) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the lathe must be
set over _ .
(a) 3/8 inch
(b) 1/2 inch
(c) 3/4 inch
(d) 7/8 inch

644. (2.2.26.2.2-21) Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed the carriage
to ensure _ .
(a) the work piece is secure in the lathe
(b) the carriage is lubricated
(c) all locking devices have been released
(d) the lathe is level

645. (2.2.26.2.2-15) Which of the following statements best defines 'depth of cut' in lathe work?
(a) The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute.
(b) The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work.
(c) The distance the work piece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in 1 minute.
(d) The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece.

646. (2.2.26.2.2-5) If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you
should first _ .
(a) change the cutting bit
(b) run the lathe at a slower speed
(c) stop the lathe
(d) lubricate the centers

shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on _ _. Illustration GS- 0084
(a) even numbered lines only
(b) odd numbered lines only
(c) any line on the dial
(d) any unnumbered half line

648. (2.2.26.2.2-18) To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated,
you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on _ _. Illustration GS-0084
(a) any numbered line on the dial
(b) even numbered lines only
(c) odd numbered lines only
(d) any line on the dial

649. (2.2.26.1.2-11) All straight shank twist drills must be mounted or held in a _ .
(a) tapered sleeve
(b) morse sleeve
(c) drill chuck
(d) drill socket

650. (2.2.26.1.2-1) When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good practice. This
is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter .
(a) slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
(b) smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
(c) small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
(d) equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill

651. (2.2.26.1.2-8) Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?
(a) Tungsten
(b) Steel
(c) Brass
(d) Monel

(a) Copper
(b) High carbon steel
(c) Aluminum
(d) Medium cast iron

653. (2.2.26.1.2-6) A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a .
(a) vice grip
(b) drill drift
(c) leather mallet
(d) taper punch

654. (2.2.26.1.2-7) Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be

(a) marked with chalk

(b) blued
(c) scribed
(d) center punched

655. (2.2.26.1.2-13) Failing to decrease the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break through the bottom
of the work piece will cause the drill to _ .
(a) break cleanly through the bottom of the work piece
(b) form a tapered hole in the bottom of the work piece
(c) cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the work piece
(d) jam in the work piece and tend to whirl it around

656. (2.2.26.1.2-12) Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the metal, the
greater the drill's required _ _.
(a) included point angle
(b) cutting speed
(c) diameter
(d) lip clearance

(a) change the terminal connections of the drive motor

(b) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley
(c) change to a larger diameter spindle
(d) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley

658. (2.2.26.1.2-10) Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to

(a) drill to the large diameter of the taper

(b) use a tapered reamer
(c) bore a straight hole
(d) drill to the small diameter of the taper
659. (2.2.19.4-1) The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering
control from the wheelhouse to local control is to .
(a) align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position before engaging
(b) set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position
(c) open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
(d) always place the rudder in the amidships position to engage the trick wheel

660. (2.2.19.4-2) A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The
follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will _ . Illustration GS-0123
(a) be in motion with a null input
(b) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump at null stroke
(c) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump on maximum stroke
(d) not be in motion, thus a null input

661. (2.2.19.4-3) Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the _.

(a) rudder angle indicator
(b) follow-up gear
(c) telemotor position
(d) Rapson slide indicator

Assistant Engineer
662. (2.2.19.4-4) When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear
will include _ .
I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input
II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle input
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

663. (2.2.19.1-1) Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram hydraulic
steering gear, serve to _ .
(a) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus developing immediate full torque
(b) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling the flow of oil and pressure
leading to over pressurization of the system
(c) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross pressure flow
(d) all of the above

664. (2.2.19.1-2) The rudder torque capacity of the four ram steering gear illustrated is rated at 44,210,000 inch-
pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four ram system was able to be operated as a two ram system with both
power units on line, what would be the available torque? Illustration GS-0067
(a) 11,052,500 inch-pounds
(b) 22,105,000 inch-pounds o (c) 44,210,000 inch-pounds o (d) 88,420,000 inch-pounds

665. (2.2.19.1-3) When responding to a 'right rudder' command from the amidships position, which parts of the steering
gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressure? Illustration GS-0137
(a) "C" and "F"
(b) "E" and "B"
(c) "F" and "E"
(d) "B" and "C"

Assistant Engineer
666. (2.2.19.1-4) In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by

(a) buffer springs

(b) relief valves
(c) oil flowing through the pumps
(d) dashpots

667. (2.2.19.2-1) The device shown in the illustration is a/an _. Illustration GS-0116
(a) vane type steering gear
(b) oil scraper ring stuffing box for a crosshead engine
(c) diesel engine motor mount
(d) mechanical shaft seal

668. (2.2.19.2-2) If it is necessary to prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system
using the illustrated actuator _ _ . Illustration GS-0116
(a) secure the valves in the supply and return lines
(b) screw in the locking pin, item "J"
(c) tighten the locking pins, item "H" at each position of item "I" to keep the rudder from swinging
(d) tighten the locking screws in item "S"

669. (2.2.19.3.2-3) If oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustration _.
Illustration GS-0116
(a) "O" will be hydraulically locked in place even though oil is returned to the main pump from the area between "M"
and "I"
(b) "O" will rotate clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
(c) "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
(d) "Q" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"

670. (2.2.19.2-4) The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon .
Illustration GS-0116
(a) all items, similar to "I" move as the rudder stock rotates
(b) all items, similar to "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
(c) both "I" and "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
(d) neither "I" nor "N" move as the rudder stock rotates

1. (3.2.1.2-8) As a result of a load or set point change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of the error,
what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?
(a) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual error.
(b) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual error.
(c) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual error.
(d) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual error.

2. (3.2.1.1-4) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by error?

(a) The progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component.
(b) The criterion of good control that permits no overshoot when the set point is changed.
(c) The signal in a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled value from the set
point.
(d) The ratio of the amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of the input signal.

3. (3.2.1.1-9) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the
difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result
toward the desired result?
(a) Instability
(b) Gain
(c) Feedback
(d) Dead band

4. (3.2.1.1-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control?
(a) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
(b) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the error is
changing.
(c) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of error over time.

(d) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.

5. (3.2.1.1-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the integral mode of control?
(a) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the error is
changing.
(b) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.
(c) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
(d) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of error over time.

6. (3.2.1.1-10) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction or
suppression of oscillation in a component?
(a) Saturation
(b) Damping
(c) Hysteresis
(d) Dead band

7. (3.2.2.2-4) Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller
with a .
(a) jack screw
(b) ring gage
(c) split washer or backup ring
(d) split die

8. (3.2.2.2-3) When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing _.

(a) outer race

(b) retainer plate
(c) raceway
(d) inner race

9. (3.2.2.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by

(a) a zerk fitting

(b) spring force
(c) gravity flow
(d) a pressure gun

10. (3.2.2.1-2) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?
(a) Tapered roller
(b) Ball
(c) Needle
(d) Roller

11. (3.2.2.1-4) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
(a) Piston pin bushing
(b) Spring bearing
(c) Thrust bearing
(d) All of the above.

12. (3.2.2.1-5) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true?

(a) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.

(b) The outer race should be free to turn its housing.
(c) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
(d) They are usually pressed on to their shafts.

13. (3.2.2.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __.
(a) inner race cone width
(b) manufacturer's numerical code
(c) outer ring width
(d) rolling member size

14. (3.2.2.3-2) As the speed of an oil lubricated
heat. This condition may be avoided by _ .
(a) reducing the quantity of lubricant until only
(b) installing oil rings on the ball bearings
(c) adding more lubricant until the ball bearings
(d) maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on
ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates
a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings
are completely covered with a layer of oil
the bearings

15. (3.2.2.3-3) A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __.

(a) vibration while the bearing is not in operation
(b) abrasives in the lubricant
(c) dirt in the bearing
(d) water in the bearing

16. (3.2.2.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause .
(a) excessive channeling of the grease
(b) gelling of the base oil
(c) emulsification of the thickener additive
(d) high temperatures to develop as result of churning

17. (3.2.3.1-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the No.6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination
of valves illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration GS-0139
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.
(b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
(c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
(d) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.

18. (3.2.3.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the
illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

19. (3.2.3.1-3) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve
closed, is that the _ _.
(a) pump will overheat
(b) relief valve will open
(c) motor overload will open
(d) motor will overheat

20. (3.2.3.1-4) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used .

(a) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
(b) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
(c) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation
(d) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty

21. (3.2.3.1-5) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by

(a) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump

(b) installing a swing check before each bilge valve
(c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
(d) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds

22. (3.2.3.2-1) As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to re-
securing the valve bonnets, the valve _ _.
(a) disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary
(b) bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
(c) stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened
(d) all of the above

23. (3.2.3.3-1) The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The next practical
solution would be to _ _.
(a) place 20 gallons ( 75.7 L) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well to clear the blockage
(b) change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the voyage
(c) properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out
(d) all of the above

24. (3.2.3.3-2) The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge well suddenly
fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause?
(a) Open the bilge pump for inspection.
(b) Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected.
(c) Remove each of the manifold valves.
(d) Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge well.

25. (3.2.3.3-3) You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with one foot of
water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?
(a) Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
(b) Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.
(c) Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.
(d) It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well.

26. (3.2.3.3-4) If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the _ .
(a) bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied
(b) bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells
(c) bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out
(d) all of the above

27. (3.2.3.3-5) If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of
the following problems is the most probable cause?
(a) The discharge valve is clogged.
(b) The wearing rings are excessively worn.
(c) The suction strainer is clogged.
(d) The shaft is worn.

28. (3.2.3.3-6) If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you
would check for all of the following EXCEPT _.
(a) the circuit breaker
(b) for leaks in the suction piping
(c) the suction strainer
(d) relief valve is not properly seated

29. (3.2.4.4.3-4) Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse osmosis fresh water
generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided?
(a) Entering low temperature seas.
(b) Entering harbors.
(c) Entering high temperature seas.
(d) Entering open seas.

30. (3.2.4.4.3-2) If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what statement is true?

(a) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be higher than normal.

(b) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be lower than normal.

(c) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be higher than normal.

(d) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be lower than normal.

31. (3.2.4.4.3-1) What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse osmosis fresh
water generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?
(a) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.
(b) An excessive salinity of the fresh water output.
(c) An insufficient fresh water production by the unit.
(d) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
32. (3.2.4.4.3-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and
allowing the solute to pass through?
(a) Lower than normal fresh water production.
(b) Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure.
(c) High fresh water outlet salinity.
(d) Low fresh water outlet salinity.

33. (3.2.4.2.1-6) Item "M" shown in the illustration is the _. Illustration MO-0110
(a) salt water inlet
(b) brine water outlet
(c) feed water inlet
(d) jacket water inlet

34. (3.2.4.2.1-7) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the
illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It supplies feed water to evaporator.
(b) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate.
(c) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine.
(d) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases.

35. (3.2.4.2.1-2) What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It heats the entering feed water.
(b) It condenses the distillate.
(c) It heats the jacket water entering the device.
(d) It causes the jacket water to evaporate.

36. (3.2.4.2.1-4) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) It aids in removing condenser tube bundles.
(b) It provides a conduit for incoming feed water.
(c) It is only used as a lifting beam during installation.
(d) It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell.

37. (3.2.4.2.1-3) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the
illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are removed.
(b) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
(c) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
(d) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.

38. (3.2.4.1.1-12) Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to
_ .
(a) temperature being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feed water
(b) heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path of the entering feed water
(c) orifices finely atomizing the heated feed water entering the flash chamber
(d) flash chamber pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to the feed water temperature

39. (3.2.4.1.1-9) The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash-type evaporator is generally
accomplished by .
(a) the fixed orifice provided in the steam supply line
(b) a direct unimpeded connection between second stage and salt water feed heater
(c) by an external line from the first stage via a fixed orifice
(d) a separate air ejector unit

40. (3.2.4.1.1-14) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator are
removed by the _.
(a) spray pipes
(b) condensers
(c) splash baffles
(d) demisters

41. (3.2.4.1.1-6) Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the live steam supply line, the steam
at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as

(a) poor quality steam

(b) desuperheated steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam

42. (3.2.4.1.1-11) Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and pressure conditions existing for
flash-type evaporators will occur in the .
(a) second stage
(b) first stage
(c) brine pump discharge
(d) salt water feed heater
43. (3.2.4.1.1-2) Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air
ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector

(a) takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator

(b) takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well
(c) takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge
(d) is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit

44. (3.2.4.1.1-4) The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type evaporator can be
manipulated by a/an _ .
(a) sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve
(b) pressure regulator within the supply orifice
(c) attemporator in the steam supply piping
(d) thermally actuated bypass valve

45. (3.2.4.1.1-13) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed
rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the _ .
(a) steam flow rate to the air ejectors
(b) throughput of the brine overboard pump
(c) capacity of the distillate pump
(d) float controlled level of the feed heater

46. (3.2.4.1.1-3) Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained directly from the _ .

(a) turbine extraction line

(b) turbo-generator steam supply line
(c) main steam line
(d) air ejector exhaust line

47. (3.2.4.2.1.1-1) In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the
_ .
(a) saltwater heater shell
(b) atmosphere
(c) second-stage condenser
(d) second-stage flash chamber

48. (3.2.4.3.2-2) Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating
surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?
(a) Concentrated sulfuric acid
(b) Concentrated hydrochloric acid
(c) Muriatic acid
(d) Citric or sulfamic acid

49. (3.2.4.3.2-1) When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of time, you
should .
(a) fill the unit with descaling compound
(b) tightly seal the unit to exclude air
(c) completely drain the unit
(d) fill the unit with saltwater

50. (3.2.4.3.1-6) What is the function of the item "7" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
(a) This jacket water pump circulates salt water through the jacket water cooling system to provide engine cooling.

(b) This jacket water pump circulates fresh water throughout the engine cooling and distiller heating systems.

(c) This jacket water pump supplies the distiller with sea water feed while also powering the eductors.
(d) This circulating salt water pump will supply feed water for the operation of the distiller.

51. (3.2.4.3.1-5) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal
operation by _. Illustration MO-0111
(a) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing excess brine
accumulation
(b) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"
(c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
(d) the continuous action of ejector "22"

52. (3.2.4.3.1-10) During operation which device listed removes air and non-condensable gases from the unit shown in
the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
(a) "21"
(b) "22"
(c) "25"
(d) "27"

53. (3.2.4.3.1-7) Which of the following statements represents the two major functions provided by the item labeled
"20" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The pump supplies the motive force to the ejectors and removes the excess distillate.
(b) The pump is used to drain the shell when the unit is secured, in addition to powering the ejectors.
(c) The pump provides for venting of associated equipment while also powering the ejectors.
(d) The pump supplies the motive fluid to the ejectors in addition to supplying the feed water to the distiller.

54. (3.2.4.3.1-4) Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller? Illustration MO-
0111
(a) "12"
(b) "13"
(c) "19"
(d) "26"

55. (3.2.4.3.1-9) Which of the following
Illustration MO-0111
(a) The jacket water primarily loses its
(b) The feed water gains heat in section
(c) The jacket water absorbs heat in the
statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is correct?
heat at the cooler and is further heated in the evaporator section.
"23", while the vapor gives up heat in section "24".
evaporator section, while giving up its heat in the distiller section.

(d) The feed water acquires heat passing through devices "2"and "23".

56. (3.2.4.3.1-2) Which of the valve arrangements listed would be correct for operating the distillation plant shown
in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111
(a) Valves "C", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "A", "B", "D", and "H" closed.
(b) Valves "D", "H", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "I", "G", "F", and "E" closed.
(c) Valves "H", "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valve "D" closed.
(d) Valves "J", "K", "L", "M" open, valves "D" and "H" closed.

57. (3.2.4.3.1-3) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed water entering
the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of flooding.

(b) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
(c) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
(d) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7", while the amount of
brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".

58. (3.2.4.1.3-16) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the .

(a) salt water feed heater

(b) distillate cooler
(c) first-stage condenser
(d) flash chamber

59. (3.2.4.1.3-11) The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if the last
effect shell .
(a) brine density is too low
(b) pressure does not fluctuate rapidly
(c) pressure remains steady and unchanged
(d) brine density does not exceed 1.5/32nd

60. (3.2.4.1.3-17) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur
in the _ _ _.
(a) second-stage vapor separator
(b) second-stage feed heater
(c) distillate cooler
(d) salt water feed heater

61. (3.2.4.1.3-13) Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator?

(a) seawater feed temperature below 165°F

(b) a cracked distillate pump vent line
(c) production of high salinity distillate
(d) a leak in the first stage demister

62. (3.2.4.1.3-5) The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type evaporator should
be kept at a constant value so as to _.
(a) ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency
(b) maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature
(c) prevent scale accumulation in the first effect heat exchanger surfaces
(d) prevent any salinity in the distillate produced

63. (3.2.4.1.3-9) While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer in line "4"
becomes fouled, this will result in . Illustration GS-0053
(a) pump "K" becoming vapor bound
(b) a reduction in distillate production
(c) the temperature regulated by "L" difficult to maintain
(d) nothing unusual for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the installation

64. (3.2.4.1.3-8) The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if the last
effect shell __.
(a) pressure remains steady and unchanged
(b) brine density is too low
(c) brine density does not exceed 1.5/32nd
(d) pressure does not fluctuate rapidly

65. (3.2.4.1.3-12) Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through .
(a) valve stems
(b) gage glass packing
(c) gasketed joints
(d) all of the above

66. (3.2.4.1.3-4) A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "Y", "Q", and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of _ _. Illustration GS-0053
(a) carryover from "III"
(b) faulty cells at each location
(c) a leak in item "I"
(d) erosion of item "2"

67. (3.2.4.1.3-15) Irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to _.

(a) a clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser

(b) a dirty strainer in the salt water feed pump suction line
(c) excessive pressure in the sea water feed heater
(d) erratic water flow through the air eductor

68. (3.2.4.1.3-3) A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type
evaporator would indicate _ _.
(a) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
(b) chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
(c) leakage at the second-stage condenser
(d) carryover in the first-stage

69. (3.2.4.1.3-2) Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __.
(a) low distillate conductivity
(b) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
(c) high distillate conductivity
(d) a pressure drop through the loop seal

70. (3.2.4.1.3-6) While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer in line "4"
becomes fouled, this will result in . Illustration GS-0053
(a) a reduction in distillate production
(b) the temperature regulated by "L" difficult to maintain
(c) nothing unusual for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the installation
(d) pump "K" becoming vapor bound

71. (3.2.4.1.3-1) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator,
you should suspect .
(a) a leak in the feed water heater
(b) a clogged desuperheater water strainer
(c) a malfunctioning brine pump
(d) improper vacuum

72. (3.2.4.3.3-5) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operation?
Illustration MO-0111
(a) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output.
(b) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts.
(c) Jacket water would be automatically by-passed around the distiller.
(d) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects.

73. (3.2.4.3.3-4) If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the evaporation
rate in "23" be affected? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The rate of evaporation will decrease.
(b) Device "7" does not use wearing rings, as these are normally positive displacement pumps.
(c) The rate of evaporation is dependent on the level of vacuum maintained within the unit, and not the flow of water
to the unit.
(d) The rate of evaporation will not be affected as the standby pump; labeled "8" will be used instead.

74. (3.2.4.3.3-6) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration, which
of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111
(a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
(b) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.
(c) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
(d) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.

75. (3.2.4.3.3-2) Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the distiller shown
in the illustration? See Illustration MO-0111
(a) A slow continuous rise in the lube oil cooler outlet temperature indicated at device "4".
(b) The activation of the salinity monitoring equipment's annunciator circuit.
(c) A decrease in the level of the main engine expansion tank as indicated by a low level alarm.
(d) An increase in distiller output resulting from the combination of jacket water and the distillate produced.

76. (3.2.4.3.3-3) If valve "H" shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation,
. Illustration MO-0111
(a) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated decrease in shell temperature
(b) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase due to the increased affect of the air ejector
(c) the absolute pressure of the unit will not be affected, but the rate of condensation will be decreased
(d) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated increase in shell temperature

77. (3.2.4.3.3-1) What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"? Illustration MO-0111

(a) The level in area "1" would decrease.

(b) The level in area "1" would increase.
(c) The level in area "3" would decrease.
(d) The level in area "3" would increase.

78. (3.2.4.4.1-3) For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high pressure
pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?
(a) To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters).
(b) To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device.
(c) To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane.
(d) To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations.

79. (3.2.4.4.1-2) Regarding
what statement is true?
(a) Modules may be piped in
(b) Modules may be piped in
(c) Modules may be piped in
(d) Modules may be piped in
a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules,
series to increase the freshwater throughput.
series to increase the freshwater purity.
parallel to increase the freshwater purity.
series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.

80. (3.2.4.4.1-1) Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?
(a) The solute is salt and the solvent is fresh water.
(b) The solute is fresh water and the solvent is salt.
(c) The solute is salt and the solvent is salt water.
(d) The solute is salt water and the solvent is salt.

81. (3.2.4.1.2-4) When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should

(a) completely drain the unit

(b) tightly seal the unit to exclude air
(c) fill the unit with saltwater
(d) fill the unit with descaling compound

82. (3.2.4.1.2-7) Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces .

(a) increases brine density
(b) increases distillate salinity
(c) reduces metal corrosion
(d) reduces heat transfer

83. (3.2.4.1.2-6) When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected
air leaks you should use _ .
(a) fresh water at or above the ambient temperature
(b) air and a soap solution to test all joints
(c) phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source
(d) circulated cold fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit operating pressures

84. (3.2.4.1.2-10) Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat exchangers to

(a) reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals

(b) keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean
(c) prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth
(d) provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces

85. (3.2.4.1.2-11) The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to _ _.
(a) prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet
(b) modify to a mixer type cooler
(c) dissipate heat
(d) baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass

86. (3.2.4.1.2-1) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the _ _.

(a) distillate cooler

(b) saltwater feed heater
(c) flash chamber
(d) first stage condenser

87. (3.2.4.1.2-8) On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely to
find soft scale formation?
(a) Feed water heater internal tube surfaces.
(b) Internal distillate cooler tubes.
(c) Flash chamber vertical surfaces.
(d) Distilling condenser tubes.

88. (3.2.4.1.2-2) In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly
reduced by .
(a) maintaining a relatively high feed water temperature
(b) the fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure
(c) operating the unit at its rated capacity
(d) the fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit

89. (3.2.4.4.2-2) What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and replaced with the
unit remaining in service?
(a) The primary pre-treatment filter.
(b) A parallel-connected membrane module.
(c) The secondary pre-treatment filter.
(d) A series-connected membrane module.

90. (3.2.4.4.2-1) When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished?
(a) The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
(b) The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
(c) The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable.
(d) The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with freshwater.

91. (3.2.4.2.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in the
device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110
(a) Steel ruler or tape measure
(b) Pneumatic impact wrench
(c) Cantilever wrench
(d) Torque wrench

92. (3.2.4.5.1-5) Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical
salinity indicator?
(a) Measures the hydrogen ion concentration.
(b) Measures the voltage of the chloride ions.
(c) Measures the electrical resistance of the water.
(d) Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen.

93. (3.2.4.5.1-2) A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the

(a) hydrogen ion concentration of water

(b) specific gravity of water
(c) electrical inductance of water
(d) electrical conductivity of water

94. (3.2.4.5.1-3) The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __ _.

(a) thermometer
(b) pyrometer
(c) hygrometer
(d) hydrometer

95. (3.2.4.5.1-1) A salinity indicator is used to determine the .

(a) level of alkalinity in condensate
(b) chemical makeup of feed water
(c) cause of salt contamination
(d) location of salt water contamination

96. (3.2.4.2.3-1) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of the
following will occur? Illustration MO-0110
(a) The temperature of the device will decrease.
(b) Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output.
(c) The vacuum of the device will increase.
(d) There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell.
97. (3.2.5-3) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a
galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?
(a) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
(b) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
(c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
(d) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.

98. (3.2.5-4) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a
potable water system?
(a) Reverse osmosis type unit
(b) Titanium plate type unit
(c) Submerged tube type unit
(d) Multi-stage flash type unit

99. (3.2.5-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water
system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?
(a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic tank pressure switch
in response to system demand changes.
(b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of zero demand for
potable water.
(c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero demand for potable
water.
(d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level switches in response
to system demand changes.

100. (3.2.5-6) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution
piping for a potable water system?
(a) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.
(b) Use of hot water recirculation loops.
(c) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.
(d) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.

101. (3.2.5-7) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro- pneumatic header
tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?
(a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
(b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
(d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.

102. (3.2.6-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover
damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
(a) Over speed trip
(b) Speed-limiting governor
(c) Under speed trip
(d) Over speed governor

103. (3.2.6-2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?

(a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving through a fixed-pitch
propeller.
(b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a constant pump discharge
pressure.
(c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct reversible propulsion drive driving through a fixed-
pitch propeller.
(d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with maintaining a
constant system frequency.

104. (3.2.6-3) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without
hunting?
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Stability
(c) Dead band
(d) Promptness

105. (3.2.6-4) What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
(a) Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under-control by the governor and a lack of governor power.

(b) Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds to load changes.

(c) Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over-control by the governor.
(d) Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as the result of a
load change.

106. (3.2.6-5) What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?
(a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing permanent
speed droop.
(b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing permanent
speed droop.
(c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing temporary
speed droop.
(d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing temporary
speed droop.

107. (3.2.7.1-8) For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be generally used to
introduce water treatment chemicals?
(a) Jacket water outlet header.
(b) Jacket water inlet header.
(c) Jacket water pump vent.
(d) Jacket water expansion tank.

108. (3.2.7.1-4) Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump can be used to
pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration SP- SW-01
(a) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(b) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(c) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
(d) Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose.

109. (3.2.7.1-2) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea suction to a high
sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?
(a) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(b) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
(c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
(d) Entering port or shallow water.

110. (3.2.7.1-9) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true
concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling system? Illustration MP-CW-06

(a) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the
turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets.

(b) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the
turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main engine cooling water jackets.

(c) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the
turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets.

(d) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with the deaerator to
remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet.

111. (3.2.8.1-2) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass,
what statement is true?
(a) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from
the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is
removed from the electric drive motor.

112. (3.2.8.1-6) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two
manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever- operated, pedestal-mounted controller.
What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats?
(a) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by disengaging the
warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate.

(b) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by disengaging the
wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will rotate.

(c) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by disengaging the
warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will
rotate.
(d) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by disengaging the
wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate.

113. (3.2.8.1-1) As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass,
what statement is true?
(a) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought
to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(b) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought
to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to
zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
(d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to
zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

114. (3.2.8.1-8) As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-
mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?
(a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The
anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat
clutch engaged.
(b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The
anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
(c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch.
The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the
wildcat clutch engaged.
(d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The
anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat
clutch disengaged.

115. (3.2.8.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two
manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever- operated, pedestal-mounted controller.
What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake hand wheels?
(a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats and the warping heads.

(b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping heads only.
(c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
(d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the wildcats or the warping
heads, depending upon the windlass design.

116. (3.2.8.2-1) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?
(a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from
the electric drive motor.
(b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is
removed from the electric drive motor.
(c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.
(d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed
from the electric drive motor.

117. (3.2.8.2-4) As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?

(a) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the prime
mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain preset tension.
(b) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the brake
when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset tension.
(c) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line using the prime mover
when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset adjustable tension limits.
(d) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line using the prime
mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain preset tension.

118. (3.2.8.2-2) Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear output shaft
and the capstan head input shaft?
(a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the underside of the
weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the deck below the
weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
(c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head are all located on the
weather deck.
(d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.

119. (3.2.8.2-10) What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a winding drum or
traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?
(a) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level and only allow
door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level.
(b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck level and only
allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level.
(c) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency when elevators are
required to be used.
(d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators are not to be
used.

120. (3.2.8.2-8) For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an
immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?
(a) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
(b) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
(c) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire limit switch.

(d) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum outreach limit switches.

121. (3.2.9.3-7) If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be _ .

(a) operation of the pump at 100% efficiency
(b) excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir
(c) low discharge pressure and fluid flow
(d) excessive internal slippage in the pump

122. (3.2.9.3-4) If a hydraulic pump sounds like it is pumping rocks when in operation, the problem is most likely _ .

(a) cavitation
(b) slippage
(c) galvanic action
(d) None of the above

123. (3.2.9.3-14) If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be

(a) an oil leak across the pump shaft packing

(b) due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor
(c) an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir
(d) low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid

124. (3.2.9.3-6) Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by _ .

(a) insufficient external pump slippage
(b) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers
(c) continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve
(d) fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations

125. (3.2.9.3-8) Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment of the system components and by _.

(a) turbulent fluid flow

(b) excessive fluid friction
(c) fluid pressure surges
(d) hydraulic fluid contamination

126. (3.2.9.3-2) Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of _.

(a) a high oil level
(b) incorrect fluid viscosity
(c) changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations
(d) continued slow recirculation of the oil

127. (3.2.9.2-1) If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will

(a) cause the system to vibrate

(b) be successful every time
(c) find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened
(d) dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system

128. (3.2.9.2-7) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil .

(a) viscosity will increase

(b) floc point will increase
(c) viscosity will decrease
(d) volume will increase

129. (3.2.9.2-10) When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to
installation the piping should be _ _.
(a) cleaned using a water-based detergent
(b) descaled by using a pickling solution
(c) hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure
(d) all of the above

130. (3.2.9.2-2) Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should

(a) completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss

(b) bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators
(c) drain the accumulators and purge with oxygen
(d) pump the hydraulic fluid into the accumulators to prevent fluid loss

131. (3.2.9.1.3-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with
the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a _ .
(a) metered-out circuit
(b) bleed-in circuit
(c) bleed-off circuit
(d) metered-in circuit

132. (3.2.9.1.2-1) In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow, the
pump suction should _.
(a) be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers
(b) be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump starvation should the
strainer become fouled
(c) be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury
(d) be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum

133. (3.2.10.1-8) Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or filter?
(a) Pressure-feed
(b) Static-feed
(c) Gravity-feed
(d) Force-feed

134. (3.2.10.1-10) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump
residence time?
(a) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

(b) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

(c) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

(d) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

135. (3.2.10.1-9) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump
residence time?
(a) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

(b) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

(c) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

(d) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

136. (3.2.10.1-7) On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would
indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?
(a) Weekly
(b) Monthly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Annually

137. (3.2.10.1-4) If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system, what
statement is true?
(a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube oil gravity tank. The
oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
(b) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the bearings. The return
oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
(c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to the bearings. The
return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
(d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to the bearings. The
return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the lube oil reservoir/sump.

138. (3.2.10.1-1) A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by
removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?
(a) Draining the bottom of the strainer housing.
(b) Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer.
(c) Changing the filter element.
(d) Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump.

139. (3.2.10.1-3) On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the
bearing sump be drained of impurities?
(a) Every round
(b) Daily
(c) Bimonthly
(d) Annually

140. (3.2.10.2-3) Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil
strainer?
(a) A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size particles, but each allows
a different number of particles to pass through.
(b) A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 200 wire mesh screen.
(c) A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen.
(d) A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh screen.

141. (3.2.10.2-5) Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system
on the line?
(a) Bypass
(b) Canister
(c) Duplex
(d) Simplex

142. (3.2.11.2-1) Referring to the illustration, an oil/water separator is in the recirculation mode due to high oil
content of the processed water outlet. What action may be required before the unit is capable of discharging overboard
once again? Illustration GS-0175
(a) Flushing the oil content detector with clean water.
(b) Flushing the bilges with an emulsifying agent.
(c) Flushing the bilges with a detergent.
(d) Cleaning the bilge suction strainer.

143. (3.2.11.3-2) Referring to the illustration, suppose the oily-water separator vessel compound gauge is showing an
unusually deep vacuum for operating in the separation processing mode with the separator service pump running. The oil
content is 8.3 ppm. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The oily-water separator bilge suction strainer is clogged.
(b) The oily-water separator vessel relief valve is leaking.
(c) The oily-water separator service pump is worn.
(d) The bilge water holding tank level is unusually high resulting in a high level alarm.

144. (3.2.11.3-3) Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily- water
separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve
reveals the presence of water exiting under a positive pressure. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

(a) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges.
(b) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.
(c) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.
(d) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.

145. (3.2.11.3-5) Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the oil content
detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back to the bilge water holding
tank for recirculation. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175
(a) The bilge water holding tank contents is excessively contaminated with oil.
(b) The oily-water separator bilge suction strainer is excessively clogged.
(c) The oily-water separator service pump is excessively worn.
(d) The bilge water holding tank level is excessively high resulting in a high level alarm.

146. (3.2.11.3-1) If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of
the following conditions is the most probable cause? Illustration GS-0153
(a) Coalescer beds are severely fouled.
(b) Process water inlet valve, item "5", is open.
(c) Suction line inlet strainer is obstructed.
(d) No problem exists as a high vacuum should be maintained in the chamber whose vacuum is to be measured.

147. (3.2.11.3-4) Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily- water
separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve
reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

(a) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.
(b) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges.
(c) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.
(d) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.

148. (3.2.11.1-2) When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge
water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153
(a) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control valve "14".

(b) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
(c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
(d) No water level is maintained in the tank.

149. (3.2.11.1-5) The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the
. Illustration GS-0175
(a) oil content monitor probe
(b) separator vessel pressure relief valve
(c) separator vessel vacuum breaker
(d) oil/water interface level sensing probe
150. (3.2.11.1-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-
0175
(a) oily bilge water inlet line
(b) processed water outlet line
(c) clean water inlet line
(d) waste oil discharge line

151. (3.2.11.1-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to _ . Illustration GS- 0153
(a) support the tank access panel
(b) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
(c) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
(d) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed

152. (3.2.11.1-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the _ . Illustration GS-
0175
(a) clean water inlet line
(b) waste oil outlet line
(c) processed water outlet line
(d) oily bilge water inlet line

153. (3.2.11.1-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while operating in
the processing mode? Illustration GS-0153
(a) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve "14".
(b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as processed liquid.

(c) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the processed liquid through
valve "14".
(d) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through valve "4".

154. (3.2.13.1-1) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith- Schneider
drive?
(a) Tandem propellers
(b) Ducted propeller
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Vane wheel

155. (3.2.13.1-2) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor is
generally used for main propulsion?
(a) Controllable-pitch propeller
(b) Tandem propellers
(c) Fixed-pitch propeller
(d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller

156. (3.2.13.1-3) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the vessel's hull
with a number of vertical, rudder-like blades projecting from it?
(a) Helicoidal propeller
(b) Cycloidal propeller
(c) Contra-rotating propeller
(d) Tandem propeller

157. (3.2.13.1-4) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion
where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?
(a) Jet drive
(b) Azipod propulsor
(c) Cycloidal propeller
(d) Azimuthing propulsor

158. (3.2.13.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?

(a) Contra-rotating propellers.

(b) Cycloidal propellers.
(c) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.
(d) Tandem propellers.

159. (3.2.13.2-1) Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?
(a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of the pump inlet
guide vanes.
(b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch angle of the
pump impeller.
(c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of the water
discharge vectoring ring.
(d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of rotation of the
pump.

160. (3.2.13.2-2) What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded
propulsor?
(a) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is steerable.

(b) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the propulsor is not steerable.

(c) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime
mover is located inside the hull.
(d) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded propulsor the prime
mover is located outside the hull.

161. (3.2.13.2-3) With respect to a "tractor" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?
(a) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's propeller, but the
azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
(b) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller.
(c) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear unit, but the
gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
(d) With an azimuthing angle of 0o, the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.

162. (3.2.13.2-4) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters
to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?
(a) Cycloidal propeller
(b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
(c) Controllable-pitch propeller
(d) Fixed-pitch propeller

163. (3.2.13.2-5) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the
insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?
(a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.
(b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
(c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.
(d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.

164. (3.2.13.3-1) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a single
reduction?
(a) Slow speed diesel
(b) Medium speed diesel
(c) Steam turbine
(d) Gas turbine

165. (3.2.13.3-2) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
(a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The driven gear is the
larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
(b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The driven gear is the
larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
(c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The driven gear is the
smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
(d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The driven gear is the
smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.

166. (3.2.13.3-3) Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the transmission of torsional
vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?
(a) Inflatable tire-type pneumatic clutch
(b) Hydraulic fluid-type clutch
(c) Multiple disk friction clutch
(d) Solid coupling

167. (3.2.13.3-4) Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?
(a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque and allows
the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque.
(b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque and
allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low torque.
(c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low torque and allows
the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque.
(d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque and allows
the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque.

168. (3.2.13.3-5) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double
reduction?
(a) Slow speed diesel
(b) Medium speed diesel
(c) High speed diesel
(d) Gas turbine

169. (3.2.13.4-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that a strut and strut bearing is required, what
is the name of the section of shafting that passes through the hull penetration to the closest watertight bulkhead?
(a) Tail or propeller shaft
(b) Line shaft
(c) Thrust shaft
(d) Stern tube shaft

170. (3.2.13.4-2) What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
(a) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings.
(b) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.
(c) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings.
(d) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings.

171. (3.2.13.4-3) What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?

(a) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and to transmit the axial thrust developed
by the propeller to the ship's hull.
(b) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb axial thrust and maintain the shaft in proper axial
alignment.
(c) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and maintain the shaft in proper radial
alignment.
(d) The main purpose of the main thrust bearing is to absorb radial thrust and to transmit the radial thrust developed
by the propeller to the ship's hull.

172. (3.2.13.4-4) Concerning the proper lubrication of a ring-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?

(a) The oil level should be maintained high enough so that some oil is seen exiting the bearing along the shaft.

(b) The oil level should be high enough so that the oiling rings dip into the oil, but the rings must not be allowed
to freely rotate with the shaft.
(c) The oil level should be high enough so that the oiling rings dip into the oil, and the rings must freely rotate
with the shaft.
(d) The oil level should be maintained high enough so that the entire bearing is continuously flooded.

173. (3.2.13.4-5) What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on merchant ships?

(a) Split-half journal type bearing.

(b) Plain thrust bearing.
(c) Single piece bushing.
(d) Pivoted-shoe thrust bearing.

174. (3.2.14.1.2-2) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly
seated, the packing gland nuts should be _ .
(a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
(b) left in that position
(c) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
(d) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box

175. (3.2.14.1.2-5) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to _.

(a) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
(b) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
(c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
(d) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly

176. (3.2.14.1.1-4) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the
discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the .
(a) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
(b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
(c) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
(d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

177. (3.2.14.1.1-1) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed is to .

(a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
(b) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
(c) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
(d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure

178. (3.2.14.1.1-8) After a disassembly of a single stage centrifugal pump, one finds the outer circumference of the
impeller badly pitted and worn. Not having a spare impeller on board, it is decided to turn down the impeller to
eliminate the wear/pitting. What will be the pump capacity, in GPM, after the reduction of impeller diameter by 0.5
inches? GIVEN: Original pump capacity = 30 GPM Original impeller diameter = 8 in.
(a) 24.78 GPM
(b) 26.37 GPM
(c) 28.12 GPM
(d) Capacity would not change.
179. (3.2.14.1.1-2) If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the

(a) motor controller overload would open

(b) pump would eventually overheat
(c) relief valve would continuously cycle open
(d) motor would overheat

180. (3.2.14.1.1-13) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?
(a) They operate more efficiently when mounted in a horizontal position.
(b) A flow is developed by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the rotation of an impeller.
(c) They operate best under negative suction pressure conditions.
(d) They are particularly well suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.

181. (3.2.14.1.1-3) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by _.

(a) corrosion
(b) abrasion
(c) electrolysis
(d) cavitation

182. (3.2.14.1.1-6) When ordering a new centrifugal pump for installation, what is the advantage of a pump with a
double suction impeller over a single suction impeller?
(a) Pump capacity will be doubled.
(b) The pump can be used with a reversible drive.
(c) The pump will experience less axial thrust.
(d) The pump will experience less water turbulence.

183. (3.2.14.1.1-9) One is informed by the owner that two of the vessel's electrically driven centrifugal cooling
water pumps will be replaced with two of higher capacity pumps. No modification of existing piping will be involved.
What should be your concerns from an operational perspective?
(a) Upgrading of circuit breakers and controllers and possible increased erosion of discharge piping due to increased
system velocities.
(b) Piping should be of no concern since it is designed with a safety factor. Electrical power should be of concern.

(c) Electrical power should be of no concern due to safety margins designed into power systems. Increased erosion may
be a long term consideration.
(d) One should not be concerned operationally since all systems are designed with future modifications/upgrades in
mind.

184. (3.2.14.1.1-11) On disassembling a centrifugal pump for overhaul, the third engineer reports holes drilled
axially in the back side of a single suction closed impeller. The reason for the these holes is which of the
following?
(a) To reduce the axial thrust forces on the impeller
(b) To allow for water to recirculate for impeller cooling
(c) To reduce the power required for the pump
(d) To fit a puller for removing the impeller

185. (3.2.14.1.3-4) While making a round in the lower engine room you discover a leak in the suction pipe to the main
salt water pump. How would proceed to correct this problem?
(a) Use a type of banded patch (from a simple gasket with hose clamps to forge clamp style) on the pipe to seal the
hole in the pipe until a permanent repair can be made.
(b) Wrap the leaky section of pipe with duct tape to slow the leak down.
(c) Let the pipe leak until a permanent repair can be made at your next port call.
(d) Monitor the leak to see if it worsens.

186. (3.2.14.1.3-5) When reviewing log books, the main salt water cooling pump discharge pressure has decreased in the
three years since overhaul. Which of the following would most likely be the cause of the problem?

(a) Bus frequency lower than normal.

(b) Worn pump shaft bearings.
(c) Increased impeller and wear ring clearance.
(d) Fouled suction strainer.

187. (3.3.4.1-48) What would cause a pump casing distortion that may lead to casing crack(s), leaks and eventual
mechanical pump problems?
(a) Misaligned/stressed piping connections, deteriorated foundation, 'Loose Foot'.
(b) Excessive prime mover and pump vibrations.
(c) Loose prime mover and pump foundation bolts.
(d) Misalignment between the prime mover and the pump.

188. (3.2.14.1.3-6) When opening a ballast pump for inspection, the wear ring clearance is found to be approaching
maximum. Which of the following would be expected?
(a) Pump capacity would be decreased.
(b) Pump vibration would be decreased.
(c) Pump discharge pressure would be increased.
(d) Pump lift would be increased.
189. (3.2.14.1.3-1) Your centrifugal ballast pump is producing a pressure less than the designed discharge pressure.
What could be the cause?
(a) Excessive high suction head.
(b) Excessive pump speed.
(c) Worn wearing rings.
(d) Pump misalignment.

190. (3.2.14.1.3-2) The shipyard has just reassembled an overhauled centrifugal pump. On testing, water is coming from
the mechanical seal area. Which of the following are likely reasons for the leakage?
(a) The shaft o-ring was not installed.
(b) The pump was started with the discharge valve closed.
(c) The pump was started with the suction valve closed.
(d) The pump was air bound.

191. (3.2.14.2.1-1) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves _ .
(a) slightly opened
(b) throttled
(c) halfway opened
(d) fully opened

192. (3.2.15-5) According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to
short cycle? Illustration GS-0173
(a) The hydro-pneumatic expansion tank is operating with an insufficient air charge.
(b) The hydro-pneumatic tank is operating with a low water level.
(c) A low water level exists in the potable water storage tank.
(d) Pump "A" wearing rings have excessive clearance.

193. (3.2.15-6) A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to .

(a) reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump
(b) prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction
(c) provide a higher pressure in the system than the pump can deliver
(d) increase water flow through the system

194. (3.2.15-4) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water
at ambient air pressure and temperature?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV

195. (3.2.15-2) Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in

(a) 33 CFR Section 159

(b) 33 CFR Section 153
(c) 33 CFR Section 155
(d) 33 CFR Section 156

196. (3.2.15-1) Marine sanitation devices installed on vessels must be certified by the _ .
(a) U.S. Coast Guard
(b) American Bureau of Shipping
(c) Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers
(d) Environmental Protection Agency

197. (3.2.17.3-5) What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system?
(a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the amount of piping as compared to a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
(b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous heating and cooling of different zones, whereas a
2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
(c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling
system.
(d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the amount of piping as compared to a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.

198. (3.2.17.3-3) What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?
(a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
(b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
(c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
(d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil
progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.
199. (3.2.17.3-4) It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air.
Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?
(a) The introduction of air via the makeup water.
(b) The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
(c) The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.
(d) The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.

200. (3.2.17.3-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or
closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing, what would be
the normal temperature range of the water? Illustration GS- 0151
(a) 180oF to 200oF
(b) 220oF to 240oF
(c) 260oF to 280oF
(d) 320oF to 360oF

201. (3.2.17.3-2) What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?
(a) Reciprocating pump
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Rotary pump
(d) Diaphragm pump

202. (3.2.17.1-6) What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream, with one for cold
air and the other for hot air?
(a) A variable air volume system
(b) A dual duct system
(c) A terminal reheat system
(d) A single zone system

203. (3.2.17.1-2) What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system
heat loads?
(a) A terminal reheat system
(b) A single zone system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A dual duct system

204. (3.2.17.1-5) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GS- RA-43
(a) A single zone system
(b) A variable air volume system
(c) A dual duct system
(d) A terminal reheat system

205. (3.2.17.1-7) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations other than the
outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?
(a) A terminal reheat system
(b) A dual duct system
(c) A single zone system
(d) A variable air volume system

206. (3.2.17.1-1) What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?
(a) A dual duct system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A single zone system

207. (3.2.17.1-3) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GS- RA-09
(a) A dual duct system
(b) A terminal reheat system
(c) A variable air volume system
(d) A single zone system

208. (3.2.17.4-6) To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point be
measured?
(a) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
(b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
(c) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo hold.
(d) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo hold.

209. (3.2.17.4-2) What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?
(a) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the liquid desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
(b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid desiccant by means
of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the liquid desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
(d) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid desiccant by means
of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
210. (3.2.17.4-1) Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?
(a) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and exhausting
relatively dry air to the outside.
(b) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and exhausting
relatively dry air to the outside.
(c) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and exhausting
relatively humid air to the outside.
(d) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and exhausting relatively
humid air to the outside.

211. (3.2.17.4-3) What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?
(a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means of a heating coil
located in the regeneration chamber.
(b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means of a cooling coil
located in the regeneration chamber.
(c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by means of a cooling coil
located in the regeneration chamber.
(d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed in to the desiccant by means of a heating coil
located in the regeneration chamber.

212. (3.2.17.4-7) What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo- hold
dehumidification systems?
(a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
(b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
(c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
(d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the desiccant.

213. (3.2.17.4-5) To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a key
role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?
(a) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the surface temperature of the cargo or ship
structure.
(b) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10oF above the surface temperature of the cargo
or ship structure.
(c) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10oF below the surface temperature of the cargo
or ship structure.
(d) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a constant temperature regardless of the
surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.

214. (3.2.17.4-4) With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a
liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, what statement is true?
(a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber.
(b) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the humidification
chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the regeneration
chamber.
(c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the humidification
chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and is known as the regeneration
chamber.
(d) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the humidification chamber.
The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the regeneration chamber.

215. (3.2.17.2-3) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning
of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42
(a) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and opens the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

(b) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

(c) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and closes the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

(d) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes the exhaust and
outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

216. (3.2.17.2-5) Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space temperature
directly controlled? Illustration GS-RA-43
(a) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically proportioning the cold and hot air streams at the mixing
unit.
(b) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the preheat coil.
(c) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the chilled water flow through the cooling
coil.
(d) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the reheat coil.

217. (3.2.17.2-4) Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true concerning the
damper controls? Illustration GS-RA-09
(a) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is normally closed and all
three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(b) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is normally open and all
three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
(c) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is normally open and each
damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
(d) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is normally closed and each
damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.

218. (3.2.17.2-2) In the
exhaust, outside air and
(a) The more the exhaust
versa.
(b) The more the outside
versa.
(c) The more the exhaust
versa.
(d) The exhaust, outside
conditions.
illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the relationship between the
recirculation dampers? Illustration GS-RS-09
and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is closed, and vice
air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is closed, and vice
and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is closed, and vice
air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree for all operating

219. (3.2.17.2-1) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of steam through the
preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA- 09
(a) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.
(b) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil temperature
associated with the cooling coil.
(c) Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil is permitted for the
purposes of space humidity control.
(d) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.

220. (3.2.17.5-5) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry bulb, wet bulb,
and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value? Illustration GS-RA-22
(a) When the relative humidity is 0%.
(b) It is impossible for the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures to be the same value.
(c) When the air is completely saturated with moisture and the relative humidity is 100%.
(d) When the grains of moisture per pound of dry air is zero.

221. (3.2.17.5-4) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes
over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat
loss with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line?
Illustration GS-RA-22

(a) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
(b) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
(c) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
(d) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.

222. (3.2.17.5-2) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70oF and the
relative humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
(a) 38 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(b) 45 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(c) 51 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
(d) 58 grains of moisture per pound of dry air

223. (3.2.17.5-1) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by an ordinary
thermometer?
(a) The dry bulb temperature
(b) The wet bulb temperature
(c) The dew point temperature
(d) The saturation temperature

224. (3.2.17.5-3) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry-bulb temperature of 60oF and
a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain, and the off-coil temperature
is now 80oF. What is off-coil relative humidity? Illustration GS-RA-22
(a) 19%
(b) 27%
(c) 55%
(d) 70%
225. (3.2.18.3-3) The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can be determined by
checking the _ _.
(a) Master's crew list
(b) Muster List ("Station Bill")
(c) A. B. S. Certificate
(d) Certificate of Inspection

226. (3.2.18.3-4) The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the same year you
need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would be appropriate?
(a) Defer informing the Coast Guard of the pump's replacement until the mid-period inspection.
(b) Replace the pump, as the Coast Guard need not be informed of the pump replacement.
(c) Inform the Coast Guard if the replacement will involve welding or burning.
(d) Inform the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection of the pump replacement.

227. (3.2.18.3-5) The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be determined from
the _ _.
(a) U.S.C.G. Firefighting Manual for Tank Vessels
(b) U.S.C.G. Equipment List
(c) vessel's current articles
(d) vessel's Certificate of Inspection

228. (3.2.18.3-2) The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as follows: 3
firemen/watertenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and has in the crew: 3
firemen/watertenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's document is endorsed QMED, any rating. You
should _.

(a) call the port captain and request another oiler

(b) request a waiver from the Coast Guard
(c) check if any of the firemen have enough time for an oiler's endorsement
(d) sail because your crew requirements are filled

229. (3.2.18.3-1) An international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued to a vessel by
the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), for a period of _.

(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years

230. (3.2.18.3-6) The assessment of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted

(a) within the normal routine of vessel's operation

(b) at any time of the day, particularly outside normal operations
(c) within the last six hours that the trainee will be onboard the vessel
(d) only when the trainee first arrives onboard, and preferably within the first few days

231. (3.2.18.1-1) Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?
(a) Muster List ("Station Bill")
(b) Certificate of Inspection
(c) Official logbook
(d) In the captain's desk

232. (3.2.18.1-3) A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for _ .
(a) having your wages garnished
(b) being responsible for an oil spill ashore
(c) failure to attend safety meetings
(d) conviction of any misdemeanor ashore

233. (3.2.18.1-2) The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include

(a) determining if any vital engine room equipment is inoperative

(b) preparing a list of engine department personnel for the master's signature
(c) taking a complete personal inventory of all engine room spare parts
(d) obtaining a valid Certification of Inspection from the Coast Guard

234. (3.2.18.2-3) In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), it is the duty of the chief engineer to acquire
and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until _ _.

(a) that particular supply of oil is exhausted

(b) return to the first U.S. port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and the findings submitted
to the nearest officer in charge, Marine Inspection
(c) it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered in the Oil Record
Book, CG-480
(d) the voyage is completed

235. (3.2.18.2-1) Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an
emergency?
(a) Coast Guard
(b) Chief engineer
(c) Master of the vessel
(d) Chief mate

236. (3.2.18.2-4) Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an
emergency?
(a) Coast Guard
(b) Chief Mate
(c) Master of the vessel
(d) Chief Engineer

237. (3.2.18.4-1) A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $(USA) 30,000 damage to the
machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __.
(a) insurance underwriter
(b) engine manufacturer
(c) owner or his agent
(d) U.S. Coast Guard

238. (3.2.18.4-5) When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more practical
demonstrations, they are attesting to the trainee's .
(a) ability to perform the practical demonstration only at the time the skill was assessed
(b) overall competency
(c) knowledge of how to perform the task and nothing more
(d) ability to perform the specific task not only at the time of demonstration, but also for the future

239. (3.2.18.4-4) In order to assess each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the assessor
should .
(a) sign off the remaining half of all skills to be demonstrated based upon the success of the first half of the skill
demonstration
(b) create a unique set of subjective questions for each trainee
(c) evaluate according to their discretion, simply by their ability to "tell" when a candidate is performing well

(d) refer to a checklist that represents the skill process as required on board the vessel

240. (3.2.18.4-2) A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical
skills. Ideally you should assess their skill _ .
(a) after they have received training and personally practiced the skill
(b) immediately after they have received training
(c) after they have observed the skill demonstrated once
(d) before they have received training

241. (3.2.18.4-6) A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical demonstration should
sign off when _.
(a) another licensed officer has witnessed the performance of the demonstration
(b) the pre-brief with the trainee has been completed
(c) the entire practical demonstration has been successfully completed and personally observed by the licensed officer

(d) the majority of any portion of the skill has been demonstrated

242. (3.2.18.4-3) One important objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is to

(a) institute busy work for both the trainee and assessor
(b) establish if the trainee can perform certain tasks at a later time
(c) determine the degree of competence of the trainee during the assessment
(d) subjectively prevent trainee's from being licensed or certified

243. (3.2.21.1-1) When tuning a Proportional-Integral-Derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the
influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct?

(a) Integral - component in which the input is proportional to the output.

(b) Proportional - component in which there is a linear relationship between set point and input.
(c) Derivative - component in which the input is proportional to the rate of change of the output.
(d) Proportional - component in which there is a linear relationship between output and input.

244. (3.2.21.1-2) Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the
system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic
and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustration. See Illustration GS-0180

(a) High Select Signal Processor.

(b) Integral Processor.
(c) Low Select Signal Processor.
(d) Difference Signal Processor.

245. (3.2.21.2-3) While calibrating an electronic 4-20 mA or 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the value of 'Live
Zero'?
(a) '0' for input span and another value for output range.
(b) 4 mA or 3 PSI for process output range.
(c) '0' for span and range.
(d) 4 mA or 3 PSI.

246. (3.2.21.2-2) While calibrating a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, with a process output of
50-250 PSI, what is the controller span/range you are dealing with?
(a) Output process range is 0-250 PSI.
(b) Output process span is 200 PSI.
(c) Controller input ranges are 0-40 mA and 0-15 PSI.
(d) Controller process output span is 0-250 PSI.

247. (3.2.21.2-1) As the engineer, it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control loop. If
the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are dominant in the controller's performance?

(a) Proportional.
(b) Derivative and Proportional.
(c) Integral and Derivative.
(d) All are equally important.

248. (3.2.21.3-1) A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below
the set point. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would
you expect upon process changes vs. set point?
(a) By decreasing reset, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset.
(b) By decreasing gain, the process should return to a straight line response vs. set point after an upset.
(c) By decreasing gain gradually, the process should stabilize in a 'quarter wave' response to system's upsets vs. the
set point.
(d) By increasing gain, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset.

249. (3.3.12.2.2-5) Prior to getting underway on the navigable waters of the United States, within 12 hours, according
to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety, certain tests are required. Which of the following are
included in the tests that must be performed?
(1) Operation of the main propulsion machinery, ahead and astern.
(2) Operation of the low lube oil pressure trip on the main engine.
(3) Operation of the reverse power relay on the emergency generator.
(4) Operation of the over speed trip on the ship's service diesel generator.
(5) Operation of the emergency generator.
(a) Tests 1,2
(b) Tests 1,5
(c) Tests 2,4
(d) Tests 3,5

250. (3.3.12.2.2-3) Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage, your
vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test steering system
functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular basis at least
once every three months. Within how many hours of arrival must these drills be performed?

(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 48 hours

251. (3.3.12.2.2-4) Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage, your
vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test steering system
functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular basis at least
once every three months. Which of the following functions must be tested for?

(a) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment utilizing the means of communication
between the navigating bridge and the steering gear compartment.
(b) Operation of the main steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the normal means of communication
on the bridge wings.
(c) Operation of the auxiliary steering gear from the main navigating bridge utilizing the normal means of
communication in the wheelhouse.
(d) Operation of the auxiliary steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the normal means of
communication on the bridge wings.

252. (3.3.12.2.2-1) Prior to arrival in Charleston, SC your vessel must conduct drills within 48 hours prior to entry
and log that in the vessel logbook. Alternatively, you can log regularly
scheduled quarterly drills according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety. Which of the
following are included in the drills that must be performed?
(1) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment.
(2) Operation of the means of communications between the navigating bridge and the steering compartment.
(3) Operation of the alternative power supply for the steering gear, if the vessel is so equipped.
(4) Operation of the low lube pressure trip on the main engine.
(5) Operation of the reverse power relay on the ship's diesel generator.
(a) Drills 2,3,5
(b) Drills 1,2,3
(c) Drills 1,4,3
(d) Drills 1,3,5

253. (3.3.12.1.1-6) Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance
with U.S. regulations. Machinery control room noise must not exceed which noise level?
(a) 75 dB(A)
(b) 85 dB(A)
(c) 90 dB(A)
(d) 110 dB(A)

254. (3.3.14.3-9) Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate proper
centrifugation. What test provides the key data for selecting the correct purifier gravity disk for fuel oil
centrifugal purifiers?
(a) Calorific heat content
(b) Ignition quality
(c) Water content
(d) Density

255. (3.3.14.3-10) Compatibility of fuel is easily checked
What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true?
(a) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency
(b) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency
vigorously blended.
(c) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency
onboard ship to insure that serious problems do not result.
to form sludge, and therefore must not be blended.
to separate out from one another, and therefore must be
to form sludge, and therefore must be vigorously blended.

(d) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and therefore must not be
blended.

256. (3.3.14.3-5) Which of the following fuel sampling methods would present the most reliable, accurate, and cost-
effective option for shipboard use?
(a) Proportional extraction sample
(b) Single grab sample
(c) Drip method sample
(d) Mixture of several grab samples

257. (3.3.14.3-8) Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate proper
fuel storage, handling, and treatment. What tests are most important for determining what temperatures to maintain
throughout the fuel forwarding and service systems?
(a) Pour point and viscosity.
(b) Density and compatibility.
(c) Water content and density.
(d) Ignition quality and caloric heat content.

258. (3.3.2.3-3) In response to a fire on the main deck or in the accommodation spaces, who would ordinarily report
immediately to the scene of the fire and act as second in command of the fire team led by the chief mate?

(a) Chief Engineer

(b) First Assistant Engineer
(c) Second Assistant Engineer
(d) Third Assistant Engineer

259. (3.3.2.3-5) Automatic fire, smoke, and heat detectors are crucial in sizing-up a fire. Which of the following
statements about the number of zones reporting is true?
(a) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the size of the fire or the extent to which it has spread.

(b) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the rate of development of the fire.
(c) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the intensity of the fire.
(d) The number of zones reporting gives an indication of the stage of development of the fire.

260. (3.3.2.3-2) In response to a fire in the engine room, who would ordinarily report immediately to the engine
control room and assume command of the engine room?
(a) Second Assistant Engineer
(b) First Assistant Engineer
(c) Chief Engineer
(d) Chief Mate

261. (3.3.2.3-7) Which of the following represents the visual factors that an officer in charge of a fire scene would
use to size-up a fire?
(a) Observing smoke, flame, and visibly hot bulkheads.
(b) Evaluating information from initial reports of the fire.
(c) Consulting the pre-fire plan and related sources.
(d) Determining the location, type, and number of alarms reporting.

262. (3.3.2.1-6) Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information
about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?
(a) Pre-fire plan
(b) Station bill
(c) Fire control plan
(d) Muster list

263. (3.3.2.1-5) Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information
pertaining to general instructions, fire and emergency instructions and signals, abandon ship instructions and
signals, and assigns individual emergency response duties and responsibilities for each crew member by position?

(a) Pre-fire plan

(b) Fire control plan
(c) Station bill
(d) Muster list

264. (3.3.2.1-1) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. Which statement
is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?
(a) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information on vessel
arrangements and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment.
(b) The fire control plan is a set of written descriptions for each deck of the vessel and contains information on
vessel arrangement and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment.
(c) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information for how to
extinguish a fire in a particular space.
(d) The fire control plan is a set of written instructions and contains information for how to extinguish a fire in a
particular space.

265. (3.3.2.1-3) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the general arrangement drawing. What
type of drawing is the general arrangement drawing?
(a) Side elevation view
(b) Top plan view
(c) Perspective view
(d) End elevation view

266. (3.3.2.1-2) An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. What types of
drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan?
(a) End elevation views (from bow and stern)
(b) Perspective view (overall)
(c) Top plan views (for each deck)
(d) Side elevation views (from port and starboard)

267. (3.3.13.2.3-2) When looking for IMO regulations on a vessel's oil water separator, the information will be found
in which of the following documents?
(a) SOLAS
(b) ISM manuals
(c) MARPOL
(d) CFRs

268. (3.3.7.2.1-7) What statement is true concerning the checks to be undertaken in the "checks prior to transfer"
section of the bunkering safety checklist where the transfer is from barge-to-ship?
(a) These are checks to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the barge's role of the bunkering
operation.
(b) These are checks to be performed jointly by the persons in charge (PICs) of both the barge's and ship's roles of
the bunkering operation.
(c) These are checks to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role of the bunkering
operation.
(d) These are checks to be performed jointly by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role of the bunkering
operation and the USCG marine inspector.

269. (3.3.7.2.1-4) What statement
(a) Generally, topping-off begins
(b) Generally, topping-off begins
(c) Generally, topping-off begins
(d) Generally, topping-off begins
is true when considering bunkering tank volume?
at 60% of tank volume, and filling stops at 90% of tank volume.
at 80% of tank volume, and filling stops at 90% of tank volume.
at 90% of tank volume, and filling stops at 95% of tank volume.
at 95% of tank volume, and filling stops at 100% of tank volume.

270. (3.3.7.2.1-3) Fuel tank tables are given in volumes whereas fuel is delivered by weight in tons. How is volume
change represented by beginning and ending ullages converted into weight?
(a) By multiplying the volume by the specific gravity of the fuel.
(b) By dividing the volume by the specific gravity of the fuel.
(c) By multiplying the volume by the density of the fuel.
(d) By dividing the volume by the density of the fuel.

271. (3.3.9.4-4) In setting up a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a means of measuring
performance against that standard must be established. What statement is true concerning the comparison between
performance and the standard?
(a) Any deviation must be determined and documented for record-keeping purposes. No further action is necessary.
(b) Any deviation must be determined. No further action is necessary.
(c) Any deviation must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation. Corrective action is taken
as necessary.
(d) Any deviation must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation. No further action is
necessary.

272. (3.3.9.4-1) What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already occurred and
implement corrective action if needed?
(a) Concurrent controls
(b) Feedforward controls
(c) Feedback controls
(d) Screening controls

273. (3.3.4.1.3-1) A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on a main steam line between the boiler drum and the
throttle valve which has a maximum allowable working pressure of 960 psig. In accordance with 46 CFR regulations
pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to piping systems, what is the required hydrostatic test
pressure for this procedure?

(a) 1056 psig

(b) 1200 psig
(c) 1440 psig
(d) 1920 psig

274. (3.3.4.1.3-5) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to piping
systems, under what circumstances is an internal inspection of a non-metallic expansion joint performed by the marine
inspector?
(a) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 5 years regardless of the frequency
of periodic vessel inspections.
(b) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 2.5 years regardless of the
frequency of periodic vessel inspections.
(c) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed at every periodic ship inspection.

(d) An internal inspection of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed whenever an external inspection reveals
excessive wear or other signs of deterioration or damage.

275. (3.3.4.1.5-3) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to fired
thermal fluid heaters, regarding hydrostatic tests, what statement is true?
(a) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must be completely drained
and re-pressurized with compressed air.
(b) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must be completely drained
and refilled with water as only water can be used as a hydrostatic test medium.
(c) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must be completely drained,
cleaned with an appropriate solvent, and refilled with water as only water can be used as a hydrostatic test medium.

(d) When the marine inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the fired thermal fluid heater heating
medium fluid can be used as a hydrostatic test medium.

276. (3.3.1.2.-5) The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the
characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the extent to which a job requires a worker to use a broad
range of skills and talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about skill variety?
(a) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level of intrinsic motivation.

(b) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level of extrinsic
motivation.
(c) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level of extrinsic motivation.

(d) Generally, the greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level of intrinsic
motivation.

277. (3.3.1.2-4) Which of the following actions would motivate employees by making their job intrinsically more
rewarding?
(a) Providing clear performance objectives and setting of concrete, specific, challenging goals.
(b) Providing timely performance feedback and acknowledging progress on a daily, regular basis.
(c) Changing the job routine to instill a feeling being challenged or achieving an accomplishment.
(d) Rewarding employee performance through the reward system available to you as a manager.

278. (3.3.1.2.-6) The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the
characteristics of a job design is task significance, which is the extent to which the job substantially impacts the
work or lives of others. What is true about task significance?
(a) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level of intrinsic
motivation.
(b) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level of extrinsic
motivation.
(c) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level of intrinsic motivation.

(d) Generally, the greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level of extrinsic motivation.
279. (3.3.12.6-2) According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for offshore supply
vessel operations, for an OSV that is expected to be away from shore for at least 48 hours, what is the requirement
for when testing communications between the pilot house and the engine room must be accomplished prior to departure?

(a) 6 or fewer hours before departure.

(b) 12 or fewer hours before departure.
(c) 24 or fewer hours before departure.
(d) 48 or fewer hours before departure.

280. (3.3.3.3-3) During the Special Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel. Which of the
following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to refitting?
(a) The tapered section must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(b) The entire shaft must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(c) The propeller flange must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.
(d) The shaft weight must be checked prior to refitting.

281. (3.3.9.5-3) Which of the following diagrams or charts is particularly useful for understanding and identifying
the causes of problems?
(a) Run chart
(b) Histogram
(c) Fishbone diagram
(d) Control chart

282. (3.3.9.5-2) Which of the following would represent an attempt to reduce the frequency of required overhauls for
machinery?
(a) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of warranty policy.
(b) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of reputation for quality.
(c) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of cost.
(d) Selecting spare parts suppliers on the basis of promised delivery time.

283. (3.3.12.1.3-3) You are the relieving the Chief Engineer of a general cargo vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on
an international voyage. You have just signed on the vessel and after reviewing the machinery running hours you notice
the Emergency Generator has not been run in over sixty days. How would you proceed?
(a) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under load for at least two
hours.
(b) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under a full electrical load
for only one hour.
(c) During your next port stay arrange with the Captain to test run the Emergency Generator for two hours at 75% of
full load.
(d) No action is required; the emergency generator only needs to run during loss of ship's power or during ship yard
periods.

284. (3.3.12.1.3-6) According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Tank Vessels, what is the minimum
allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler?
(a) 100oF
(b) 120oF
(c) 140oF
(d) 160oF

285. (3.3.12.1.3-1) The firefighting equipment on your general cargo vessel was last inspected by a shore side
contractor 12 months ago. To remain in compliance with the Federal Code of Regulations (46 CFR), as chief engineer,
what should your appropriate action be?
(a) You should notify the master or the person in charge of the firefighting equipment to arrange for an annual
inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified shore side contractor, as soon as possible.

(b) You should arrange an inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified shore side contractor
eighteen months after the date of the last inspection.
(c) You should arrange an inspection of the firefighting equipment by the third mate.
(d) Nothing needs to be done at this time.

286. (3.3.12.1.3-5) According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Passenger Vessels, for how long do the
drawn and sealed half-pint fuel samples need to be maintained and preserved on board?
(a) The samples need to be preserved for the length of the voyage.
(b) The samples need to be preserved until that fuel supply is exhausted.
(c) The samples need to be preserved for a period of one year.
(d) There is no requirement for preserving fuel samples.

287. (3.3.3.2-4) What responsibilities does a Senior Officer have while on Builder's Sea Trials of a new vessel to
which one will be assigned?
(a) Be involved operationally with shipyard operators/crew, and report any possible deficiencies to the owner's
representatives.
(b) Be involved operationally with the shipyard operating personnel, and assist in operations.
(c) Witness/observe operations and tests, report any perceived discrepancies to regulatory bodies on board.
(d) None operationally, observe/witness tests and document any possible discrepancies to owners' representatives.
288. (3.3.15.2-8) Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of planned maintenance?
(a) Engine mounted sensor data
(b) Lubricating oil analysis
(c) Vibration analysis
(d) Equipment running hours

289. (3.3.15.2-7) Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of condition-based maintenance?

(a) Vibration analysis

(b) Equipment breakdown
(c) Equipment running hours
(d) Calendar based interval of time

290. (3.3.15.2-2) What type of maintenance system would be associated with a comprehensive lubricating oil analysis
program?
(a) Scheduled maintenance system
(b) Planned maintenance system
(c) Corrective maintenance system
(d) Predictive maintenance system

291. (3.3.15.2-5) Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a reactive approach to maintenance
as opposed to proactive?
(a) Planned maintenance
(b) Corrective maintenance
(c) Predictive maintenance
(d) Condition-based maintenance

292. (3.3.15.2-6) Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a proactive approach to maintenance
as opposed to reactive?
(a) Condition-based maintenance
(b) Unscheduled maintenance
(c) Failure-based maintenance
(d) Corrective maintenance

293. (3.3.15.2-4) What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery
breakdown?
(a) Planned maintenance system
(b) Condition-based maintenance system
(c) Corrective maintenance system
(d) Predictive maintenance system

294. (3.3.8.1-9) In preparing for the assessment of a mariner for competency, the assessor must establish that the
appropriate conditions will be present for the assessment. What should the assessor do if the required conditions
would adversely affect the normal operation of the ship?
(a) The assessment should be postponed until such time that the assessment conditions required would not affect the
normal operation of the ship.
(b) Under these circumstances, the particular assessment competence should be signed off without a performance
demonstration.
(c) For functional realism, the assessment should be carried out as originally planned even though it may affect the
normal operation of the ship.
(d) Under these circumstances, the normal performance criteria can be substituted with a verbal explanation of
required actions.

295. (3.3.8.1-1) What statement is true concerning assessment validity and assessment reliability?
(a) Assessment reliability is a pre-condition for assessment validity, but not vice versa.
(b) Assessment reliability is not a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity is not a pre-
condition for assessment reliability.
(c) Assessment reliability is a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity is a pre-condition for
assessment reliability.
(d) Assessment validity is a pre-condition for assessment reliability, but not vice versa.

296. (3.3.8.1-3) Which of the following statements defines reliability as it pertains to assessing mariner proficiency
or competency?
(a) An assessment is reliable when it accurately measures the job-critical knowledge, skills, and abilities required
for proficient job performance.
(b) An assessment is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results across mariners with comparable skills.

(c) An assessment is reliable when it accurately measures the critical knowledge, skills, and abilities required of
the assessment platform.
(d) An assessment is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results when repeated for the same mariner.

297. (3.3.6.1-4) As you manage the engine room familiarization training program for new engine department employees,
what should you explain to these new employees?
(a) There is really insufficient time for familiarization training that is mandated, and the new employee should not
worry about it.
(b) The familiarization training that is mandated is excessive overkill, and the new employee should not worry about
it.
(c) The employee should do his or her best and the appropriate entries shall be made in the training record book
regardless of familiarity achieved.
(d) The employee has the obligation to notify his or her supervisor if they don't feel sufficiently familiar to be
competent.

298. (3.3.6.1-3) If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar
with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her
duties, what should be done?
(a) The employee should be allowed to perform his or her duties without supervision in the hopes that he or she will
eventually become familiar enough to be competent.
(b) The employee should be demoted and required to function at the lowest level for the entire duration of his or her
assignment.
(c) The employee should be immediately terminated and arrangements made for a relief to be sent out whenever
practical.
(d) The employee should be provided a period of close supervision until there is no longer any doubt that he or she is
familiar enough to be competent.

299. (3.3.6.1-5) Who onboard is responsible for identifying all new crew members and insuring that the safety training
and shipboard familiarization training program is implemented according to written policy and procedures?

(a) Chief mate

(b) Designated ship's training officer
(c) Chief engineer
(d) Ship's master

300. (3.3.4.1.8-2) You are requested by Port State Authority to present records pertaining to Flag State inspections.
Which of the following records would you present?
(a) U.S. Coast Guard and American Bureau of Shipping inspection records.
(b) American Bureau of Shipping inspection records.
(c) U.S. Coast Guard inspection records.
(d) Last Port State Control inspection records.

301. (3.3.12.2.1-3) In accordance with the federal regulation in 33CFR Subchapter O, which discharge of oil or oily
mixture to sea is permissible?
(a) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.
(b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million.
(c) When the discharge is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life at sea.

(d) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.

302. (3.3.12.2.1-1) In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space
operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record
Book?
(a) 33CFR Part 151.15
(b) 33CFR Part 151.25
(c) 33CFR Part 151.55
(d) 33CFR Part 151.2070

303. (3.3.12.2.1-2) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non- oceangoing ships,
what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?
(a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank
and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND
it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when
the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
(c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be
equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
(d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but
it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

304. (3.3.12.2.1-4) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine
Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of
the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to
close the seacock and prevent its opening?
(a) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned that the vessel is
entering a "no discharge zone".
(b) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the vessel is entering
a "no discharge zone".
(c) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the vessel is entering a "no
discharge zone".
(d) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to prevent entry when
the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".

305. (3.3.7.1.3-4) When transitioning from full sea speed to maneuvering speed on a slow-speed diesel powered vessel
that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how should this be accomplished?

(a) The engine should be decelerated from full sea
through any critical speeds without any lingering.
(b) The engine should be decelerated from full sea
lingering for extended periods of time at critical
(c) The engine should be decelerated from full sea
critical speeds as they will not be encountered.
(d) The engine should be decelerated from full sea
through any critical speeds without any lingering.
speed to maneuvering speed very gradually, but should transition
speed to maneuvering speed very gradually, even if it means
speeds.
speed to maneuvering speed very gradually, without any concern for
speed to maneuvering speed very quickly and should transition

306. (3.3.7.1.3-2) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines capable of
burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels,
on approaching arrival to a US port, when would you plan for the fuel changeover to be accomplished?
(a) When entering the SOx emission control area set by local authorities.
(b) When entering US territorial boundaries 12 miles from the coastline.
(c) When entering the US economic exclusion zone 200 miles from the coastline.
(d) When entering US navigable waters 3 miles from the coastline.

307. (3.3.7.1.3-3) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines capable of
burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on approaching arrival to a
US port, for planning purposes, what must be done?
(a) The fuel changeover is commenced precisely as the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area.
(b) The fuel changeover is commenced BEFORE the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area to allow time for the
high sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines.
(c) The fuel changeover is commenced approximately 1 nautical mile either side of the SOx emissions control area.

(d) The fuel changeover is commenced AFTER the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area to allow time for the high
sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines.

308. (3.3.16.2-1) As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating
the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the necessary data for the root cause analysis,
what should be your FIRST priority?
(a) Consulting with other technical experts, suppliers, and manufacturers.
(b) Collecting and preserving the physical evidence of the failure.
(c) Interviewing any directly involved watch standing or maintenance personnel.
(d) Reviewing the historical watch keeping and maintenance records.

309. (3.3.11.1-1) As a chief engineer you are reviewing the engine room logbook. You must insure that all entries are
made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer makes a correction to an incorrect log entry?

(a) The incorrect entry should be completely obliterated and the new correct entry made just below the obliterated
incorrect entry.
(b) The new correct entry should be written directly on top of the old incorrect entry making every effort to cleverly
disguise the incorrect entry.
(c) The incorrect entry is to be completely erased and the new correct entry written on top of the erasure so no
evidence remains of the incorrect entry.
(d) The incorrect entry should have a thin line drawn through the error and be initialed by the person making the
correction so that the incorrect entry is still visible.

310. (3.3.14.4-5) If it is desired to perform a thermo graphic analysis of a piece of equipment with a suspected
possible fault and compare the thermal signature with similar fault-free equipment, what is the name of the
thermography performed?
(a) Spectral thermography.
(b) Comparative thermography.
(c) Baseline thermography.
(d) Thermal trending.

311. (3.3.14.4-1) When using a thermal imager for the purpose of conducting a thermo graphic analysis of equipment,
what form of energy produces the thermal signature radiating from the object surface?
(a) Visible light energy.
(b) Infrared energy.
(c) X-ray energy.
(d) Ultraviolet energy.

312. (3.3.14.4-3) If it is desired to perform a thermo graphic analysis of new equipment to gain a thermal signature
for purposes of comparison to the thermal signature for the same equipment at a later date, what is the name of the
thermography performed on the equipment when new?
(a) Thermal trending.
(b) Spectral thermography.
(c) Comparative thermography.
(d) Baseline thermography.
313. (3.3.7.1.1-3) As a management level engineering officer planning for the departure of a vessel, what would be the
preferred document to use to make sure that you did not miss any important steps?
(a) Vessel-specific pre-departure check off list.
(b) Various machinery technical manuals.
(c) Shipping company policy manual.
(d) International safety management code.

314. (3.3.7.1.1-6) When transitioning from maneuvering speed to full sea speed on a slow-speed diesel-powered vessel
that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how should this be accomplished?

(a) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually, without any concern for
critical speeds as they will not be encountered.
(b) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually, but should transition
through any critical speeds without any lingering.
(c) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually, even if it means lingering
for extended periods of time at critical speeds.
(d) The engine should be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very quickly and should transition through
any critical speeds without any lingering.

315. (3.3.7.1.1-1) A containership is scheduled to depart the Port of Houston, TX at 0600 on April 7th on a voyage to
exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the steering gear could be tested prior to getting underway and be in
compliance with the cargo and miscellaneous vessel regulations of 46 CFR?
(a) 0600 April 6th
(b) 1200 April 6th
(c) 1800 April 6th
(d) 0000 April 7th

316. (3.3.7.1.1-5) As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines capable of
burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on departure from a US port,
when would you plan for the fuel changeover be accomplished?
(a) When leaving US navigable waters 3 miles from the coastline.
(b) When leaving the SOx emission control area set by local authorities.
(c) When leaving US territorial boundaries 12 miles from the coastline.
(d) When leaving the US economic exclusion zone 200 miles from the coastline.

317. (3.3.7.1.1-7) You are a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel. For departure planning purposes,
when is the "standby" order typically rung?
(a) 12 hours prior to departure.
(b) 6 hours prior to departure.
(c) 1 hour prior to departure.
(d) 15 minutes prior to departure.

318. (3.3.7.1.1-2) A very large crude carrier is scheduled to depart of the Port of Long Beach, CA at 0800 on June
28th on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the communication means between the wheelhouse and
the engine control room could be tested prior to getting underway and be in compliance with the tank vessel
regulations of 46 CFR?
(a) 0800 June 27th
(b) 1400 June 27th
(c) 2000 June 27th
(d) 0200 June 28th

319. (3.3.1.3-5) Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the
following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a structuring and telling leadership
style?
(a) Where the employees are able but unwilling or insecure.
(b) Where the employees are unable and unwilling or insecure.
(c) Where the employees are unable but willing or confident.
(d) Where the employees are able and willing or confident.

320. (3.3.1.3-3) Some managers think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility, and is
trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?
(a) Transactional leadership style.
(b) Structured, autocratic leadership style.
(c) Hierarchical, dictatorial leadership style.
(d) Supportive, participative leadership style.

321. (3.3.15.1-8) Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be used
to generate a maintenance due report?
(a) Planned maintenance management module
(b) Inventory management module
(c) Requisitions management module
(d) Equipment management module

322. (3.3.15.1-5) Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain
data such as work and safety procedures?
(a) Equipment management module
(b) Requisitions management module
(c) Planned maintenance management module
(d) Inventory management module

323. (3.3.15.1-10) Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be used
to generate a report tracking consumable supplies consumption?
(a) Requisitions management module
(b) Planned maintenance management module
(c) Inventory management module
(d) Equipment management module

324. (3.3.9.7-2) What is usually the last step in trying to resolve a grievance filed by a crew member as established
by the collective bargaining agreement between the company and the crew member's union?
(a) Filing a formal grievance with port committee made up of both company and union representatives in port before
terminating articles.
(b) Filing a formal grievance with a company and union agreed-upon arbitrator for binding arbitration.
(c) Filing a formal grievance with the union's designated representative (or committee) onboard before terminating
articles.
(d) Attempting to resolve the conflict by the crew member and the affected supervisor as immediately as practical.

325. (3.3.9.7-4) What federal agency enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on race, color,
religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment onboard US flag vessels?
(a) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
(b) U.S. Coast Guard (USCG)
(c) Maritime Administration (MARAD)
(d) International Transport Workers' Federation (ITWF)

326. (3.3.1.6-2) As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the most appropriate
for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative approach?
(a) Collaborating
(b) Forcing
(c) Avoiding
(d) Accommodating

327. (3.3.1.6-3) As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential to conflict
resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in resolving a conflict?

(a) Passive listening

(b) Defensive listening
(c) Reactive listening
(d) Active listening

328. (3.3.5-5) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from
ashore, what statement is true as it relates to preparing a refrigeration system for lay-up?
(a) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a deep-vacuum pump so that the entire refrigerant charge is
transferred to the atmosphere.
(b) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a recovery unit so that the entire refrigerant charge is
transferred to a recovery cylinder.
(c) The refrigeration system should be left in an idle condition with the refrigerant charge dispersed throughout the
system.
(d) The refrigeration system should be pumped down so that the entire refrigerant charge is stored and isolated in the
receiver tank.

329. (3.3.5-7) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from
ashore, what statement is true as it relates to keeping gearboxes, turbine casings, and engine crankcases dry and free
of moisture?
(a) A combination of mechanical circulation of air and dehumidification should be used.
(b) A combination of an absence of air circulation and dehumidification should be used.
(c) A combination of an absence of air circulation and humidification should be used.
(d) A combination of mechanical circulation of air and humidification should be used.

330. (3.3.5-4) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from
ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement is true as it relates to protecting boiler firesides?
(a) A cap may be installed on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow cooled air
into the furnace.
(b) A cap may be installed on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow heated air
into the furnace.
(c) A cap may be installed on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow cooled air into the
furnace.
(d) A cap may be installed on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow heated air into the
furnace.

331. (3.3.5-2) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided where
freezing is not a concern; boilers may be laid up wet. What statement concerning wet boiler lay-up is true?
(a) The boiler should be completely filled with ordinary fresh water (such as potable water) until water issues from
the atmospheric vent.
(b) The boiler should be filled with dearated and chemically treated water until the water level is brought to the top
of the sight glass.
(c) The boiler should be completely filled with dearated and chemically treated water until water issues from the
atmospheric vent.
(d) The boiler should be filled with ordinary water (such as potable water) until the water level is brought to the
top of the sight glass.

332. (3.3.5-3) If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from
ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement concerning dry boiler lay-up is true as it relates to protecting
boiler watersides?
(a) The steam and water drums should be opened up to permit air circulation. Under no circumstances should desiccant
be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums.
(b) Desiccant should be placed inside the steam and water drums and the drums should be opened to permit air
circulation.
(c) Desiccant should be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums. Under no circumstances should the steam and
water drums be opened up to permit air circulation.
(d) The steam and water drums can be opened up to permit air circulation, or as an alternative desiccant can be placed
inside the closed-up steam and water drums.

333. (3.3.9.3-5) It has been demonstrated that delegation can enhance employee development. To avoid a fear of
failure, what must a manager avoid when delegating decision-making power to an employee?
(a) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too easy.
(b) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too easy.
(c) Over-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too difficult.
(d) Under-estimating the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too difficult.

334. (3.3.9.3-4) What would be a legitimate reason why some managers don't delegate authority to subordinates?

(a) They fail to delegate authority to subordinates due to a general lack of trust in others.
(b) They fail to delegate authority to subordinates due to an irrational fear of employees making mistakes.
(c) They assess that the subordinates require more training, coaching, and experience in certain assignments.
(d) They feel that when they delegate authority to subordinates they lose power and control.

335. (3.3.9.3-1) As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?
(a) Coercive power and control-of-information power.
(b) Legitimate power and expert power.
(c) Reward power and referent power.
(d) Absolute power and control-of-information power.

336. (3.3.2.2-1) Fire and emergency training has three major components: knowledge sessions, skills sessions, and
drills. What is the essential difference between skills sessions and drills if applicable?
(a) Skills sessions and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in a
realistic setting.
(b) Skills sessions provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a convenient training location, whereas
drills provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in a realistic setting.
(c) Skills sessions and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a convenient training
location.
(d) Skills sessions provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in a realistic setting,
whereas drills provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a convenient training location.

337. (3.3.2.2-7) In planning for a fire and emergency drill, to insure drill success within the context of a
comprehensive fire and emergency training program, what should be planned for?
(a) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should
remain the same.
(b) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should
be changed.
(c) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should
be changed.
(d) The fire drill should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire drill the location should
remain the same.

338. (3.3.2.2-5) What are the necessary components of a fire and emergency training program onboard ship?
(a) Classroom knowledge sessions and specific practical skills make up the fire and emergency training program. Fire
and emergency drill exercises are not considered training.
(b) Fire and emergency drill exercises and specific practical skills sessions make up the fire and emergency training
program. Classroom knowledge sessions are not considered training.
(c) Classroom knowledge sessions, specific practical skills sessions, and fire and emergency drill exercises all
makeup the fire and emergency training program.
(d) Fire and emergency drill exercises only make up the fire and emergency training program. Classroom knowledge
sessions and specific practical skills sessions are not considered training.
339. (3.3.2.2-8) According to the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), how often are fire
and emergency drills to be conducted at sea and in port?
(a) Weekly
(b) Monthly
(c) Quarterly
(d) As needed

340. (3.3.2.2-4) Once a fire and emergency drill is conducted, the drill ideally should be critiqued. What of the
following statements best describes the essential characteristics of an effective critique?
(a) Determining what went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and improvements are necessary
to the fire control plan or to the general arrangement plan.
(b) Determining what went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and improvements are necessary
to the pre-fire plan or to the emergency skills training plan.
(c) Determining what went right only and focusing only on the positive to reinforce effective and productive behavior
that promoted team functionality.
(d) Determining what went wrong only and focusing only on the negative in an attempt to extinguish ineffective or
counter-productive behavior that worked against team functionality.

341. (3.3.1.5-2) What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group consensus as a
process?
(a) Problem-solving meeting
(b) Information-giving meeting
(c) Fact-finding meeting
(d) Information exchange meeting

342. (3.3.1.5-3) In conducting a group-centered meeting, it is important to encourage participation and two-way
communication. In addition to being an alert listener, what specific technique is particularly helpful in getting non-
contributors to participate?
(a) Aggressively coerce participation so that all contribute.
(b) Demand participation from all participants.
(c) Encourage participation by focusing only on the contributors.
(d) Utilize questioning techniques to encourage participation.

343. (3.3.1.5-1) As a manager considering which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting is most likely to
be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as opposed to a group-centered approach?

(a) Problem-solving meeting

(b) Information exchange meeting
(c) Fact-finding meeting
(d) Information-giving meeting

344. (3.3.1.5-6) As a manager conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive
or inappropriate behavior?
(a) With respect, respond in a way appropriate to the behavior.
(b) Immediately expel the offending attendee from the meeting.
(c) Ignore the disruptive or inappropriate behavior.
(d) Aggressively confront the offending trainee.

345. (3.3.9.1-4) Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next step in the
decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the problem. What statement best reflects how many
alternatives should be considered?
(a) The number of alternatives is not an important consideration.
(b) Develop only one alternative.
(c) Develop as few alternatives as is feasible.
(d) Develop as many alternatives as humanly possible.

346. (3.3.4.1.2-4) In accordance with 46 CFR 61, which of the following pressure vessels listed on the ship's
Certificate of Inspection would be exempt from hydrostatic testing?
(a) Dearating feed tank.
(b) Potable water pressure tank.
(c) Starting air receiver tank.
(d) Refrigeration system receiver tank.

347. (3.3.13.1.3-3) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR
Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery
applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?
(a) 3 nautical miles
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

348. (3.3.13.1.3-1) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR
Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters?
(a) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
(b) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.
(c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
(d) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.

349. (3.3.13.1.3-2) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR
Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that float applies to a
vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?
(a) 3 nautical miles
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 25 nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

350. (3.3.4.2-2) During a vessel dry-docking survey which of the following items are typically required by Class to be
surveyed?
(a) Sea chests and tail shaft wear down readings only.
(b) Tail shaft wear down readings and rudder assembly only.
(c) Sea chests, tail shaft wear down readings and rudder assembly.
(d) Rudder assembly and sea chests only.

351. (3.3.4.2-9) As Chief Engineer you join a vessel enrolled in Continuous Machinery Survey. Approximately what
percent of the machinery should be surveyed per year throughout the Special Survey cycle?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%

352. (3.3.4.2-5) You are putting together a list of Class required work for a vessel's next special survey. Which of
the following items would be required by Class?
(a) Bow thruster overhaul.
(b) Scavenging air box inspection.
(c) Hull thickness measurements.
(d) Replacement of sea valves.

353. (3.3.4.2-8) The intermediate survey for a vessel is typically carried out at what point in the survey cycle?

(a) Between the second and third special classification surveys.

(b) After the third annual classification survey.
(c) Before the second annual classification survey.
(d) At or between the second and third annual classification surveys.

354. (3.3.4.2-3) During a dry-docking survey it is necessary to check the freeboard marking of a vessel. Which of the
following certificates addresses vessel freeboard markings?
(a) Tonnage Certificate
(b) International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
(c) International Load Line Certificate
(d) MARPOL Certificate

355. (3.3.4.2-4) You have recently joined a vessel and are reviewing the classification society survey due dates. The
last special periodic survey of the vessel was ten months previous. Within what time frame can the annual machinery
surveys be completed?
(a) 3 months plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey.
(b) 2 months plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey
(c) 1 month plus or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey
(d) On the anniversary month of the last special survey

356. (3.3.11.3-3) According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, how long must the Oil Record
Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?
(a) 1 year at a minimum.
(b) 2 years at a minimum.
(c) 3 years at a minimum.
(d) 4 years at a minimum.

357. (3.3.11.3-4) According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to signatures required in the Oil Record Book, what
statement is true?
(a) The officer in charge of the engineering watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and the chief engineer
signs each page.
(b) The officer in charge of the navigational watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and the master signs each
page.
(c) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the master signs each page.
(d) The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the chief engineer signs each page.

358. (3.3.12.1.2-7) One of your ship's indirect-drive steering gear drive motors needs to be replaced. What minimum
short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?
(a) 1/4 hour
(b) 1/2 hour
(c) 1 hour
(d) Continuous operation at 15 percent load followed by 1 hour at full load.
359. (3.3.12.1.2-9) According to the electrical engineering regulations of the CFR, which of the following electrical
repairs is permitted?
(a) Splice a damaged conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly secured to prevent loosening
due to vibration.
(b) Splice a flexible cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG.
(c) Connect a flexible cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints or terminal
screws.
(d) Extend the length of a circuit with twist-on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely with insulating
tape.

360. (3.3.12.1.2-8) The operating motor on one of your ship's watertight doors needs to be replaced. What minimum
short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?
(a) 1/12
(b) 1/4 hour
(c) 1/2 hour
(d) 1 hour

361. (3.3.12.1.2-2) Coast Guard electrical engineering regulations specify capacity ratings for electrical equipment.
Based on the inspection of the cables on one of your ship's service generators, you've decided that the cables need to
be replaced. The current-carrying capacity of the replacement generator cables should be what percent of the
continuous generator rating?

(a) Less than 15 percent

(b) Less than 100 percent
(c) Less than 115 percent
(d) Less than 220 percent

362. (3.3.4.1.1-5) Assuming the inspection interval for a boiler as specified by 46 CFR 61 is 2.5 years, which
statement is true?
(a) Two tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between any test or inspection
and its immediate predecessor.
(b) Three tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 1 year can elapse between any test or inspection
and its immediate predecessor.
(c) Three tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between any test or inspection
and its immediate predecessor.
(d) Two tests are required over a 5 year period, and no more than 3 years can elapse between any test or inspection
and its immediate predecessor.

363. (3.3.4.1.1-2) A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on an oil-fired auxiliary water-tube boiler with a
maximum allowable working pressure of 150 psig. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, what is the required hydrostatic test
pressure for this procedure?
(a) 165.0 psig
(b) 187.5 psig o (c) 225.0 psig o (d) 300.0 psig

364. (3.3.9.2-3) Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying out its
intent?
(a) Policies
(b) Regulations
(c) Rules
(d) Standing orders

365. (3.3.9.2-2) Before a plan can be effectively executed, the objective of the plan must be defined. What statement
concerning the definition of a plan objective best represents the proper writing of an objective as an engineering
department management level officer?
(a) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees for the upcoming deployment
as compared to the last trip.
(b) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees 10% for the upcoming
deployment as compared to the last trip.
(c) Reduce overtime expenditures 10% for the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip.
(d) Reduce overtime expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees 10%.

366. (3.3.9.2-4) For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for a visual
progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the scheduled completion dates on
the horizontal axis?
(a) PERT chart
(b) Pie chart
(c) Scatter plot
(d) Gantt chart

367. (3.3.4.1.6-6) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers, the draft limit control must be checked for proper operation. What statement is true?

(a) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs when there is insufficient
draft to support combustion. There is no requirement to test the draft loss interlock switch at boiler startup.
(b) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that boiler startup is prevented when there is
insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement to test the draft loss interlock switch for boiler
safety shutdown.
(c) The draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs and a boiler startup is
prevented when there is insufficient draft to support combustion.
(d) Either the draft loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs or boiler startup is
prevented when there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement to perform both tests.

368. (3.3.4.1.6-3) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers, the fuel supply control solenoids must be checked for proper shutdown operation. What must be
checked for?
(a) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test physically moves to the
closed position.
(b) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is removed from the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test.

(c) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is applied to the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test.

(d) Upon a normal cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test closes with no visible
leakage into the burner(s).

369. (3.3.4.1.6-4) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers, the fuel pressure limit control must be checked for proper shutdown operation. What statement is
true?
(a) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal
pressure.
(b) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before boiler restart.
(c) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before boiler restart.
(d) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal
pressure.

370. (3.3.4.1.6-5) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers burning heavy fuel oil, the fuel temperature limit control must be checked for proper shutdown
operation. What statement is true?
(a) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before boiler restart.
(b) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal
temperature.
(c) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before boiler restart.
(d) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what is required for safe
combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal
temperature.

371. (3.3.4.1.6-2) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to
automatic auxiliary boilers, flame safeguard controls must be checked for proper shutdown operation. Which of the
following must be checked? 1) Flame failure. 2) Ignition failure. 3) Audible alarm of shutdown. 4) Visual indication
of shutdown. 5) Shutdown times.
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,2,3,4,5
(c) 1,2,3,5
(d) 1,2,5

372. (3.3.4.1.6-1) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to
automatic auxiliary boilers, safety programming controls must be checked for proper operation, sequencing, and timing.
What functions must be checked?
(a) Prepurge, ignition, and postpurge
(b) Prepurge, ignition, postpurge, and modulation
(c) Prepurge, ignition, and modulation
(d) Ignition, postpurge, and modulation

373. (3.3.7.1.4-3) What statement is true concerning the engineering watch in port being handed over while an
important operation, such as transferring fuel, is being performed?
(a) The important operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise ordered by the chief
mate.
(b) The important operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise ordered by the chief
engineer.
(c) The important operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when otherwise ordered by the
chief engineer.
(d) The important operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when otherwise ordered by the
chief mate.
374. (3.3.7.1.4-2) While in port, ships of what propulsive power and over are required to have an officer in charge of
the engineering watch at all times?
(a) 750 kW/1000 HP
(b) 3000 kW/4000 HP o (c) 6000 kW/8000 HP o (d) 7500 kW/10000 HP

375. (3.3.13.1.4-5) In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the minimum allowable
flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?
(a) 450oC
(b) 650oF
(c) 850oF
(d) 1050oF

376. (3.3.13.1.4-2) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx)
emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of
the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply?
(a) Diesel engines with a power output of more than 130kW.
(b) Diesel engines with a power output not greater than 130kW.
(c) Diesel engines powering emergency diesel-generator sets.
(d) Diesel engines powering lifeboats.

377. (3.3.13.1.4-1) Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as
an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is
controlled as a result?
(a) Halon 1301
(b) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
(c) CO2
(d) Cartridge-operated dry powder

378. (3.3.14.2-7) With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What
would be indicated by elevated copper levels associated with a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase
lubricating oil?
(a) Wear of various aluminum-alloy bearings.
(b) Wear of piston rings.
(c) Wear of various lead-bronze alloy bearings.
(d) Wear of various white metal alloy bearings.

379. (3.3.14.2-6) With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What
would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase
lubricating oil?
(a) Sudden contamination of the lubricating oil with coolant.
(b) Sudden dilution of the lubricating oil with fuel.
(c) Increased wear rates of engine parts.
(d) Depletion of lubricating oil additives.

380. (3.3.14.2-10) Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is
indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate?
(a) Camshaft bearing wear.
(b) Piston ring or cylinder liner wear.
(c) Rocker arm or piston pin bushing wear.
(d) Main bearing or crank pin bearing wear.

381. (3.3.7.1.2-6) On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below listed events will
trigger the annunciation of the engineer's assistance needed alarm?
(a) Failure of the duty engineer to conduct a machinery space round every four hours.
(b) Failure of the duty engineer to acknowledge an ECC alarm in a reasonable period of time.
(c) Failure of the duty engineer to contact the bridge watch in the agreed-upon time.
(d) Loss of the backup power supply to the ECC alarm system.

382. (3.3.7.1.2-5) On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below listed items are a
mandatory part of the maintenance program check-off list for transitioning to unmanned status at the end of the work
day according to the 46 CFR regulations for automated self- propelled vessel manning?
I) Routine daily maintenance has been performed.
II) Fire and flooding hazards have been minimized.
III) Plant status is suitable for unattended operation.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

383. (3.3.7.1.2-1) As a management level engineering officer planning for underway operations onboard a tanker, you
must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in accordance with the certificate of inspection (COI)
and the navigation safety regulations for underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements
is true?
(a) Tankers are authorized for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as manual control measures
can be implemented in a reasonable period of time when necessary.
(b) Tankers are required to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be capable of implementing
manual control measures in a reasonable period of time when necessary.
(c) Tankers are required to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be capable of implementing
manual control measures immediately when necessary.
(d) Tankers are authorized for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as manual control measures
can be implemented immediately when necessary.

384. (3.3.7.1.2-2) As a management level engineering officer planning for underway operations onboard a tanker, you
must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in accordance with the certificate of inspection (COI)
and the navigation safety regulations for underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements
is true?

(a) The engineering watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main control space but be
on call and must consist of at least one appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed officer.
(b) The engineering watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main control space and must
consist of at least two appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed officers.
(c) The engineering watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main control space but be
on call and must consist of at least two appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed officers.
(d) The engineering watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main control space and must
consist of at least one appropriately endorsed licensed or credentialed officer.

385. (3.3.7.1.2-3) As a management level engineering officer planning for transitioning from the maneuvering watch
posted when departing a US port to at sea manning on a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, in
consultation with the ship's master, when would the transition take place?
(a) When leaving the navigable waters of the US which is 3 nautical miles from the coast line.
(b) When leaving the applicable emission control area which varies with the port area.
(c) When leaving the US exclusive economic zone which is 200 miles from the coast line.
(d) When leaving the US territorial limit which is 12 miles from the coast line.

386. (3.3.6.2-5) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how
to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated
bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an
engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room
bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention
regulations."

What role does the phrase "where a bilge pocket requires pumping out" serve in the objective statement?
(a) It states one of the standards of performance to be achieved.
(b) It specifies the single outcome to be achieved.
(c) It states a performance by using action words.
(d) It specifies a performance input condition.

387. (3.3.6.2-6) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how
to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated
bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an
engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room
bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention
regulations."

What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank" serve in the
objective statement?
(a) It specifies a performance input condition.
(b) It specifies the single outcome to be achieved.
(c) It states a performance by using action words.
(d) It states one of the standards of performance to be achieved.

388. (3.3.6.2-1) Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What
would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency skills training?
(a) Direct observation and reviewing critiques of the execution of shipboard fire and emergency drills performed by
the existing crew.
(b) Reviewing marine casualty and damage reports attributed to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.

(c) Analyzing insurance premium costs relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.
(d) Analyzing statistical data collected relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.

389. (3.3.6.2-7) You are conducting a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What delivery
technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the desired outcome that the officers under
training actually are able to successfully parallel manually in the future?
(a) After preliminary discussion, demonstrations, and active practice, ask the officer trainees to parallel
alternators at the actual switchboard.
(b) After preliminary discussion and practice recitals, ask the officer trainees to recite the procedure in a
classroom setting.
(c) After preliminary discussion, show a video demonstrating the procedure to the officer trainees in a classroom
setting.
(d) After preliminary discussion, demonstrate the procedure at the actual switchboard to the officer trainees.
390. (3.3.6.2-3) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how
to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated
bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an
engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room
bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention
regulations."

What is the "action" verb associated with the above objective?

(a) shall be
(b) will be able to pump
(c) have been disabled
(d) using

391. (3.3.6.2-4) Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how
to pump bilges:
"Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated
bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an
engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room
bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention
regulations."

What role does the phrase "in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist" serve in
the objective statement?
(a) It specifies a performance input condition.
(b) It states a performance by using action words.
(c) It states one of the standards of performance to be achieved.
(d) It specifies the single outcome to be achieved.

392. (3.3.10-2) One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute
is mediation. What is meant by mediation?
(a) Settlement reached as the result of litigation as part of a judicial proceeding in court.
(b) Negotiated settlement between company and union representatives facilitated by an impartial person.
(c) Direct, in-house negotiated settlement between company and union representatives to avoid litigation.
(d) Agreement to abide by a binding decision rendered by a company and union agreed-upon impartial person.

393. (3.3.10-3) One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement is
arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?
(a) The arbitrator conducts independent fact-finding and renders a decision based on the results of that
investigation.
(b) The arbitrator makes a binding decision based on the evidence and the arguments presented by both sides.
(c) The arbitrator facilitates settlement by negotiation by working with both sides to reach common ground.
(d) The arbitrator appoints a fact-finder from each side to investigate the dispute and report back to the principals.

394. (3.3.3.4-8) What project management scheduling chart is a bar chart with the activity or task descriptions
displayed on the left and listed vertically from top to bottom, and the calendar displayed on the top and laid out
horizontally from left to right?
(a) PERT chart
(b) Gantt chart
(c) Pie chart
(d) CPM chart

395. (3.3.3.4-3) As it pertains to graphical tools used to visualize task scheduling in project management, what
statement best represents the difference between a Gantt chart and a PERT chart?
(a) The Gantt chart makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the PERT chart makes it easy
to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. Both are bar charts.
(b) The PERT chart (which is a line diagram) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
Gantt chart (which is a bar chart) makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar.

(c) The PERT chart (which is a bar chart) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
Gantt chart (which is a line diagram) makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar.

(d) The Gantt chart makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the PERT chart makes it easy
to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. Both are line diagrams.

396. (3.3.3.4-5) Overhaul of a ship at a shipyard represents an example of a large-scale project executed under
contract. What characteristics best describe the terms of the project deliverables?
(a) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined, and is very
general in terms of repairs contracted for.
(b) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined, and is very
specific in terms of repairs contracted for.
(c) The shipyard repairs contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is of undetermined cost, and is
very specific in terms of repairs contracted for.
(d) The shipyard repairs contract is open-ended in terms of time, is cost-defined, and is very specific in terms of
repairs contracted for.
397. (3.3.1.1-3) Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions, and sexes)
can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is judged by group association rather
than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual differences. What is the tendency called?
(a) Stereotyping
(b) Stereo graphing
(c) Individualizing
(d) Monotyping

398. (3.3.1.1-5) In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to establish mutual trust
between the employee and the manager. Which of the following facilitates the trust of employees in managers?

(a) Disciplining fairly and consistently, showing contempt for your employee's abilities, and advocating on their
behalf.
(b) Disciplining unfairly and inconsistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating on their behalf.

(c) Disciplining fairly and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and requiring them to advocating on
their own behalf.
(d) Disciplining fairly and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating on their behalf.

399. (3.3.1.1-4) What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal
and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?
(a) Large-group meeting
(b) One-on-one, face-to-face
(c) Small-group meeting
(d) Telephone conversation

400. (3.3.1.1-6) In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers.
Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face
conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?
(a) Conversing with the employee in your office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of the desk from you.

(b) Conversing with the employee in the ship's office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of the desk from
you.
(c) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area without regard to being interrupted.
(d) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area with privacy assured.

401. (3.3.1.1-8) An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better insure
that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active listening?
(a) Active listening is when you allow the employee to finish what they are saying before speaking.
(b) Active listening is when you maintain eye contact with the employee the whole time they are speaking.
(c) Active listening is when you make a response that states what you have heard from the employee.
(d) Active listening is when you listen to an employee with undivided attention and not be distracted.

402. (3.3.12.5-4) You are relieving the chief engineer on a self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit. What
machinery and equipment are you required to inspect prior to assuming your duties?
(a) Any boilers, auxiliary machinery, and industrial machinery.
(b) Any boilers, propulsion machinery, and industrial machinery.
(c) Any boilers, propulsion machinery, and auxiliary machinery.
(d) Any propulsion machinery, auxiliary machinery, and industrial machinery.

403. (3.3.9.6-1) A performance appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what extent an
employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done. Properly done and in the interest of employee
development, what should be the focus of the appraisal?
(a) The appraisal should be conducted without the benefit of an interview as this process often causes discomfort for
the employee and the supervisory manager.
(b) It should focus only on past performance with an emphasis on shortcomings so that the employee fears for the
future.
(c) Although it should examine all aspects of past performance, it should be constructive and future oriented with an
eye towards the path to improvement.
(d) It should focus on the positive and totally ignore any past shortcomings so that the employee can maintain
positive self-esteem.

404. (3.3.9.6-2) Even though conducting an employee appraisal interview may be one of the least liked aspects of the
job of a manager, why are they important?
(a) The interview will provide the opportunity to provide feedback and motivate employees.
(b) The interview will provide the basis for establishing command authority.
(c) The interview will provide the opportunity to instill fear in the employee.
(d) The interview will provide the opportunity to communicate repercussions for poor performance.

405. (3.3.9.6-5) The "hot stove" rule is sometimes used to illustrate the principles of fair, effective discipline.
Which of the following principles illustrates the principle of discipline carrying a clear warning?

(a) A hot stove doesn't care whom it burns.

(b) If you touch a hot stove, it burns you right away.
(c) A hot stove always burns you when you touch it.
(d) You know what will happen if you touch a hot stove.

406. (3.3.16.1-5) When analyzing trend analysis data in reference to a given limit value for the purposes of
scheduling corrective maintenance, what statement is true?
(a) The current data should be compared to the limit value without any concern for the historical trend or for the
rate of change over time.
(b) The current data should be analyzed for the historical trend and for the rate of change over time, but without any
concern for the limit value.
(c) The current data should be compared to the limit value and analyzed for the historical trend and for the rate of
change over time.
(d) The current data should be compared to the limit value and the historical trend, but without any concern for the
rate of change over time.

407. (3.3.11.4-1) While a vessel is underway in periodically unmanned engine room status, the oily- water separator is
undergoing extensive maintenance and repairs and will not be available for service for another 24 hours. With bilge
holding tanks nearing capacity, as chief engineer you wish to be informed of when the oily-water separator is
available for service. How would you best insure that you will be so informed?

(a) The request would be written as a note posted in the vicinity of the engineering department coffee mess.
(b) The request would be written as a special instruction in the chief engineer's night order book.
(c) The request would be written as a note inserted into the chief engineer's standing order book.
(d) The request would be made of the duty engineer orally assuming that the word shall be passed on to his or her
relief.

408. (3.3.11.4-2) As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would be most appropriately entered into
the Chief Engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the instruction?
(a) All discharges, transfers, or disposal of bilge water must be logged in the oil record book by the officer in
charge of the operation.
(b) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay when No.2 SSDG
repairs are complete and the generator has been prepared for testing.
(c) When the engine room is in the periodic unmanned condition, the duty engineer shall be immediately available and
on call to attend the machinery spaces.
(d) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay when a malfunction
occurs which may be such as to endanger the safe operation of the ship.

409. (3.3.11.4-3) As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would most appropriately be written into
the chief engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the special instruction?
(a) The OICEW shall notify the chief engineer without delay when the No.1 main feed pump repairs are complete and it
is ready to be put back into service.
(b) When the engine room is in the manned condition, the OICEW shall at all times be readily capable of operating the
propulsion equipment in response to needs for changes in direction or speed.
(c) The OICEW shall notify the chief engineer without delay when a malfunction occurs which may be such as to endanger
the safe operation of the ship.
(d) When the ship enters congested waters, upon notification from the bridge, the OICEW shall ensure that all
machinery involved with maneuvering can be placed in the manual mode of operation.

410. (3.3.4.1.4-4) According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to
machinery and equipment, what functional test must be performed on boiler draft fans, fuel oil transfer and service
pumps, and machinery space ventilation fans during periodic inspections?
(a) Remote shutdown capability.
(b) Remote run status indication capability.
(c) Remote speed change capability.
(d) Remote startup capability.

411. (3.3.4.1.4-10) Planned maintenance procedures are important to maintaining the operating condition of equipment.
Your vessel is a single screw vessel. How often should you exam your vessel's tail shaft in order to be in compliance
with Coast Guard periodic testing and inspection regulations?
(a) At least three times within any 5 year period.
(b) At least once every 5 years.
(c) Annually.
(d) At least twice within any 5 year period.

412. (3.3.4.1.4-8) Suppose a water-lubricated stern tube bearing is being evaluated for wear where the propulsion
machinery is located amidship. If the tailshaft diameter is 10.5 inches, according to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to
periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what would be the maximum clearance diameter
permissible before the bearing must be re-bushed?

(a) 0.125 inches

(b) 0.25 inches
(c) 0.3125 inches
(d) 0.375 inches

413. (3.3.7.2.2-3) If two centrifuges are to be simultaneously used in series to treat residual fuel contaminated with
both water and solids, how should the centrifuges be configured?
(a) The first centrifuge should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should be set up as a purifier.

(b) The first centrifuge should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should be set up as a clarifier.
(c) The first centrifuge should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should also be set up as a purifier.

(d) The first centrifuge should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should also be set up as a
clarifier.

414. (3.3.7.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil settling tank
heating?
(a) When filled, the heat source to the settling tank should be cut in and maintained at all times regardless of the
actual temperature of the tank contents.
(b) When filled, the heat source to a settling tank should be cut in and out often enough to maintain the ideal
settling temperature and not allow the temperature to gradually fall.
(c) When filled, no heat should be applied to the settling tank as gravity alone is sufficient to provide for proper
settling as long as the fuel is not allowed to drop below the pour point temperature.
(d) When filled, the heat source to the settling tank should be cut in until the ideal settling temperature is
reached, then secured allowing the fuel to remain undisturbed for as long as possible.

415. (3.3.7.2.2-7) Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil storage tank
heating?
(a) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be maintained 5-10oC
below the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred.
(b) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be maintained 5-10oC
above the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred.
(c) The heavy fuel oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should be maintained 5-10oC
below the fuel flash point until the fuel is transferred.
(d) All the heavy fuel oil storage tanks should be maintained 5-10oC above the fuel pour point for the entire voyage.

416. (3.3.7.2.2-2) For the most efficient centrifuging of residual fuels on motor vessels, the lower the viscosity of
the fuel as achieved by preheating, the more efficiently solids and moisture can be removed. For planning purposes,
what is the typically the recommended upper limit of preheating for residual fuel oil centrifugation on motor ships?

(a) 85oC
(b) 90oC
(c) 98oC
(d) 112oC

417. (3.3.3.1-3) In new construction or during significant steel plate replacements, what is the procedure of 'line
heating'?
(a) Pre-heating steel plate edges prior to welding.
(b) Re-heating steel plating welds to eliminate welding stresses.
(c) Pre-stressing steel plates prior to welding.
(d) Heating and cooling of steel plating to remove distortions.

418. (3.3.14.1-13) Vibration analysis can provide comparative data of operating condition of rotating machinery. At
what positions should such readings be taken at bearing housings and foundations?
(a) Vertical and horizontal.
(b) Vertical, horizontal and axial.
(c) Axial and horizontal.
(d) Vertical and axial.

419. (3.3.14.1-14) While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you find find very
high amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point. What would that indicate?

(a) Looseness of equipment components at the measuring point.

(b) Degradation of a ball or a roller bearing.
(c) Misalignment between the prime mover and driven equipment.
(d) Imbalance between the prime mover and driven equipment.

420. (3.3.14.1-6) When reviewing results of vibration analysis, vibration at a bearing occurs at the same frequency as
the motor rpm, with a displacement in the radial direction that is twice that of the axial direction. Which of the
following could this indicate?
(a) Loose foundation bolts.
(b) Mechanical unbalance.
(c) Bent motor shaft.
(d) Rubbing.

421. (3.3.14.1-11) When measuring vibration, an engineer should be concerned with recording the velocity or
displacement of the measurement. Which other factor should also be of concern?
(a) kW
(b) Frequency
(c) Amplitude
(d) Amps

422. (3.3.14.1-15) While examining vibration analysis of a particular piece of rotating machinery, one of the
measurement location readings exhibits high amplitude/displacement in vertical and horizontal direction at 2 X RPM
frequency. What would this indicate?
(a) Bearing problem.
(b) Imbalance.
(c) Bad belt drive.
(d) Misalignment.