MCAT Prac - Test5

01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 1
Physical Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes
Questions 1–77
DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

PHYSICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Physical
Sciences test are organized into groups, with a
descriptive passage preceding each group of ques-
tions. Study the passage, then select the single best
answer to each question in the group. Some of the
questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you
must also select the best answer to these questions. If
you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the
choices that you know are incorrect, then select an
answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your
selection by blackening the corresponding circle on
your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below
for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
1 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La * Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac † Rf Ha Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) 226.0 227.0 (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2
Passage I (Questions 1–6) The average distance a particle travels between colli-
sions is known as the mean free path l. Intuitively, the
The equation of state of an ideal gas is given by the mean free path (mfp) could be expected to be larger for
ideal gas law: gases at low pressure, since there is a lot of space between
particles. Similarly, the mfp should be larger when the gas
PV = nRT particles are small. The following expression for the mfp
shows this to be correct.
where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number
of moles of gas, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is the kT
l=
temperature of the gas. The gas particles in a container are 2πs2P
constantly moving at various speeds. These speeds are
characterized by the Maxwell shown in the figure below. Equation 4
In this equation, s is the atomic diameter (typically on

the order of 10–8), k is the Boltzmann constant, and P is the
pressure.
fraction of molecules
In addition to colliding with one another, gas particles

also collide with the walls of their container. If the con-
tainer wall has a pinhole that is small compared to the mfp
of the gas, and a pressure differential exists across the wall,
the particles will effuse (or escape) through this pinhole
without disturbing the Maxwellian distribution of the par-
ticles. The rate of effusion can be described by:
speed u
neff A(P – P1)
=
If two particles collide, their velocities change. However, t MR
2T
if the gas is in thermal equilibrium, the velocity distribution
of the gas as a whole will remain unchanged by the collision. Equation 5
The average kinetic energy (E) of a gas particle is where neff is the number of moles of effusing particles, A
given by: is the area of the pinhole, P and P1 are the pressures on the
E = (1/2) mu2 inside and outside of the container wall respectively, and
P > P 1.
Equation 1
where m is the mass of one particle and u is the root mean

square speed (rms speed) of the gas particles: (i.e., u =
[(v12 + v22 + ... + vn2)/N]1/2, where N is the number of gas
particles; this is different from the average speed). For an
ideal gas, the kinetic energy of all the particles is:
Etotal = (3/2)nRT
Equation 2 1. Which of the following gives values for both stan-

dard temperature and pressure?
where n is the number of moles of gas. Combining these
equations gives: A. 273 K and 760 Torr
B. 273 K and 1 atm
u = (3RT/M)1/2
C. 0°C and 760 mm Hg
Equation 3 D. All of the above
where M is the molar mass of the gas particles.

3
2. If a pinhole were made in a container containing a 5. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas can be
mixture of equal amounts of H2, O2, N2 and CO2, directly related to the:
which gas would have the fastest effusion rate?
A. rms speed.
A. H2 B. temperature.
B. O2 C. Boltzmann constant.
C. N2 D. universal gas constant.
D. CO2
6. Which of the following will have the smallest root

3. The mean free path of a gas will be longer if the : mean square speed at 298K?
A. pressure of the gas is increased. A. Cl2(g)
B. number of gas particles per unit volume is B. O2(g)
increased. C. CO2(g)
C. distance between collisions is decreased. D. N2(g)
D. pressure of the gas is decreased.
4. What is the relative rate of effusion for a mixture of

two noble gases, GA and GB, which escape through
the same pinhole?
A. 1
PA
MB
B.
PB
MA

MB
C.
MA
PB
MB
D.
PA
MA

4
Passage II (Questions 7–11) 7. If the defibrillator has a capacitance of 10 µF, how

much charge will build up on the two plates?
The periodic beating of the heart is controlled by electri-
A. 0.08 C
cal impulses that originate within the cardiac muscle itself.
These pulses travel to the sinoatrial node and from there to B. 1.6 × 10–3 C
the atria and the ventricles, causing the cardiac muscles to C. 6.25 × 10–8 C
contract. If a current of a few hundred milliamperes passes D. 1.25 × 10–9 C
through the heart, it will interfere with this natural system,
and may cause the heart to beat erratically. This condition is
known as ventricular fibrillation, and is life-threatening. If, 8. The resistance between the two electrodes when
however, a larger current of about 5 to 6 amps is passed placed apart on the patient’s chest is 1,000 Ω when
through the heart, a sustained ventricular contraction will wetting gel is used. What is the initial current through
occur. The cardiac muscle cannot relax, and the heart stops the patient’s heart, assuming that all the current takes
beating. If at this point the muscle is allowed to relax, a reg- this path?
ular heartbeat will usually resume.
A. 0.16 A
The large current required to stop the heart is supplied B. 4A
by a device known as a defibrillator. A schematic diagram C. 6.25 A
of a defibrillator is shown below. This device is essentially D. 8A
a “heavy-duty” capacitor capable of storing large amounts
of energy. To charge the capacitor quickly (in 1 to 3 sec-
onds), a large DC voltage must be applied to the plates of 9. The plates of the capacitor are originally separated by
the capacitor. This is achieved using a step-up transformer, a vacuum. If a dielectric κ > 1 is introduced between
which creates an output voltage that is much larger than the plates of the capacitor, and the capacitor is
the input voltage. The transformer used in this defibrillator allowed to charge up, which of the following state-
has a step-up ratio of 1:50. ments is/are true?
I. The capacitance of the capacitor will
increase.
II. The voltage across the capacitor plates will
increase.
III. The charge stored on the capacitor will
increase.
A. I only
The AC voltage that is obtained from the transformer B. I and II only
must then be converted to DC voltage in order to charge C. II and III only
the capacitor. This is accomplished using a diode, which D. I and III only
allows current flow in one direction only. Once the capac-
itor is fully charged, the charge remains stored until the
switch is moved to position B and the plates are placed on
the patient’s chest. To cut down the resistance between the
patient’s body and the defibrillator, the electrodes are cov-
ered with a wetting gel before use. Care must be taken to
insure that the patient is not in electrical contact with the
ground while the defibrillator is in use.

5
10. Why is it important to insure that the patient is not in

electrical contact with the ground while the defibril-
lator is in use?
A. Contact with the ground will decrease the resis-
tance across the patient’s body.
B. The doctor administering the treatment will be
in greater danger of receiving an electric shock
if the patient is in electrical contact with the
ground.
C. Contact with the ground will cause a smaller
current to pass through the patient’s heart.
D. The patient receiving the treatment will be in
greater danger of receiving burns due to the high
current density if he is in electrical contact with
the ground.
11. If a dielectric was inserted between the plates of the

capacitor in the defibrillator when the switch is in
position A:
A. the energy stored in the capacitor would
increase.
B. the energy stored in the capacitor would
decrease.
C. the electric field between the plates would
increase.
D. the electric field between the plates would
decrease.

6
Passage III (Questions 12–18) Due to the buffering effect of the soil’s cation-
exchange capacity, just measuring the soil solution’s pH
Many nutrients required by plants exist in soil as basic will not indicate how much base is needed to change the
cations: Mg2+, Mn2+, and Ca2+. A soil’s cation-exchange soil pH. In another experiment, measured amounts of acid
capacity is a measure of its ability to adsorb these basic and base were added to 10-gram samples of well-mixed
cations as well as exchangeable hydrogen and aluminum soil that had been collected from various locations in a
ions. The cation-exchange capacity of soil is derived from field. The volumes of the samples were equalized by
two sources: small clay particles called micelles consisting adding water. The results were recorded in Figure 2.
of alternating layers of alumina and silica crystals, and
organic colloids.
8
Replacement of A13+ and Si4+ by other cations of lower
valence creates a net negative charge within the inner layers
of the micelles. This is called the soil’s permanent charge. pH 6
For example, replacement of an atom of aluminum by cal-
cium within a section where the net charge was previously 4
zero, as shown below, produces a net charge of –1, to which
other cations can become adsorbed.
0.8 0.4 0 0.4 0.8
meq acid meq base
O2–Al3+OH– → O2–CA2+OH–
Figure 2
Figure 1
A pH-dependent charge develops when hydrogen dis-

sociates from hydroxyl moieties on the outer surfaces of
the clay micelles. This leaves negatively-charged oxygen
atoms to which basic cations may adsorb. Likewise, a large 12. Which column(s) in Table 1 represent(s) the perma-
pH-dependent charge develops when hydrogen dissociates nent charge of the soil micelles?
from carboxylic acids and phenols in organic matter. A. Al3+
In most clays, permanent charges brought about by B. H+
substitution account for anywhere from half to nearly all of C. Al3+ and Basic Cations
the total cation-exchange capacity. Soils very high in D. Al3+ and H+
organic matter contain primarily pH-dependent charges.
In a research study, three samples of soil were leached 13. What percentage of the cation exchange capacity of
with a 1 N solution of neutral KCl, and the displaced A13+ Sample I is base-saturated?
and basic cations measured. The sample was then leached
again with a buffered solution of BaCl2 and triethanolamine A. 4%
at pH 8.2, and the displaced H+ measured. Table 1 gives B. 6%
results for three soils tested by this method. C. 29%
D. 40%
Table 1
14. Which soil from Table 1 most likely has the highest
(meq/100 g) Total
percentage of organic matter?
Cation
pH Al3+ Basic H+ Exchange A. I
Cations Capacity B. II
C. III
Sample I 4.5 11.7 1.9 34.0 47.6
D. Cannot be determined
Sample II 5.3 1.6 16.3 19.5 37.4
Sample III 6.0 0.5 9.8 7.8 18.1
7
15. What would be the effect of leaching the three soil 18. Anaerobic organisms are able to denitrify wet soils
samples in Table 1 with a buffered BaCl2 solution at by the following metabolic pathway.
pH 9.5 instead of 8.3?
A. The measured permanent charge would be HNO3 → HNO2 → H2N2O2 → N2O(g) → N2(g)
greater.
B. The measured pH-dependent charge would be If all the oxygen in the nitric acid is converted to water,
greater. how many additional equivalents of acid will be con-
C. The measured permanent charge would be sumed during the production of 5 M of nitrogen?
smaller.
A. 20
D. The measured pH-dependent charge would be
smaller. B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
16. The amount of soil on a particular one-acre field
down to a depth of one furrow slice weighs 9 × 105
kilograms. Based on Figure 2, how many kilograms
of CaCO3 would have to be added to this field to Questions 19 through 24 are NOT based on
raise the pH from 5 to 6? a descriptive passage.
A. 900 kg
19. Solution X boils at 100.26°C and solution Y boils at
B. 1800 kg
101.04°C. Both solutions are at atmospheric pressure
C. 9 × 105 kg and contain the same solute concentration. Which of
D. 1.8 × 106 kg the following conclusions can be drawn?
A. The freezing point of solution X is lower than
17. Which of the following would probably NOT dis- that of solution Y.
place Al3+ in soil micelles? B. The vapor pressure of solution X is higher than
that of solution Y at 100.26°C.
A. Na+
C. Solution X and solution Y are immiscible.
B. Mg2+
D. The vapor pressure of solution X is lower than
C. Si4+ that of solution Y at 100.26°C.
D. Cr2+
20. A converging lens has a focal length of 8 cm. If the

object is 10 cm to the left of the lens, what are the
position of the image formed and the magnification
of the lens?
A. 0.025 cm to the right of the lens and 0.0025×
B. 4.4 cm to the right of the lens and 0.4×
C. 40 cm to the right of the lens and 4×
D. 40 cm to the left of the lens and 4×

8
21. If 29 g of maleic acid (C4O4H4) is dissolved in 500 g 24. A body is dropped from a height of 30 m on Earth
of ammonia (NH3), what is the molality of the result- and hits the ground with a velocity ve. The body is
ing solution? then taken to the Moon, which has a gravitational
acceleration 1/6 that of Earth. It is again dropped
A. 0.05 m
from a height of 30 m, hitting the Moon with a veloc-
B. 0.10 m ity of vm. What is the ratio of vm/ve?
C. 0.25 m
A. 1/6
D. 0.50 m
B. 1/6

C. 6
22. An electron travels in the plane of the page from left D. 36
to right, perpendicular to a magnetic field that points
into the page. The direction of the resulting magnetic
force on the electron will be in the plane of the page
and:
A. upwards.
B. downwards.
C. to the left.
D. to the right.
23. How much solid NaOH is required to neutralize 700

mL of 2 N HNO3?
A. 40 g
B. 48 g
C. 56 g
D. 64 g

9
Passage IV (Questions 25–30) 25. The photons emitted by the mercury vapor have ener-
gies:
When light in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum is
A. equal to the energies of the electric current.
shone on a type of material known as a phosphor, it fluo-
resces and emits light in the visible region of the spectrum. B. equal to the voltage across the tube.
Lamps that utilize this property, known as fluorescent C. equal to the energy differences between electron
lamps, are very efficient light sources. The arrangement of orbitals in the mercury atom.
a typical fluorescent lamp is shown below. The lamp is a D. less than or equal to the energy differences
glass tube whose inside walls are covered with a phosphor. between the electron orbitals of the mercury
The tube has an appreciable length-to-diameter ratio so as atom.
to reduce the power losses at each end, and it is filled with
argon gas mixed with mercury vapor. Inside each end of
the tube are tungsten electrodes covered with an emission 26. If the fluorescent light is left on for 4 hours, how
material. much useful energy is emitted as light?
A. 144 kJ
Electrons are liberated at the cathode and accelerated
by an applied electric field. These free electrons encounter B. 432 kJ
the gas mixture, ionizing some mercury atoms and excit- C. 576 kJ
ing others. Since it requires more energy to ionize the D. 900 kJ
atoms than to excite the electrons, more excitation than
ionization occurs. When the excited electrons revert to
their ground state, they radiate ultraviolet photons with a 27. As the excited electrons in the coating drop back to
wavelength of 253.7 nm. These photons impinge on the their ground states in more than one step, they will
phosphor coating of the tube and excite electrons in the emit light of:
phosphor to higher energy states. The excited electrons in
A. higher frequency than the light absorbed.
the phosphor return to their ground state in two or more
steps, producing radiation in the visible region of the spec- B. longer wavelength than the light absorbed.
trum. Not every fluorescent lamp emits the same color of C. the same wavelength as the light absorbed.
radiation; the color is dependent on the relative percent- D. greater energy than the light absorbed.
ages of different heavy metal compounds in the phosphor.
The fluorescent lamp shown operates at 100 volts and

draws 400 milliamps of current during normal operation.
Of the total power that the lamp consumes, only 25% is
converted to light, while the remaining 75% is dissipated as
heat. This energy keeps the lamp at its optimum working
temperature of 40°C. In the lamp shown, the phosphor
coating is calcium metasilicate, which emits orange to yel-
low light.

10
28. In the phosphor coating, an electron falls from an 30. The lamp also emits a small proportion of ultraviolet
excited state to a lower energy state, emitting a pho- light in addition to the light emitted in the visible
ton with an energy of 2.07 eV. What is the wave- spectrum. This ultraviolet light is incident on a metal
length of the light emitted by the fluorescent tube? that has a work function, which is the minimum
(Note: Planck’s constant h = 4.14 10–15 eV•s, and energy necessary to free an electron, of 2.00 eV.
c = 3 108 m/s.) What will be the kinetic energy of an electron that is
ejected from the metal if the frequency of the inci-
A. 300 nm
dent light is 1.2 1015 Hz? (Note: h = 4.14 10-15
B. 600 nm eV•s.)?
C. 900 nm
A. 9.936 eV
D. 1242 nm
B. 6.948 eV
C. 4.968 eV
29. Some fluorescent light bulbs are observed to glow for D. 2.968 eV
a short period after their power supply has been
turned off. This glow is generated mainly by:
A. the incandescence of the hot ionic gas within the
bulb surface.
B. emission of light stored as vibrational kinetic
energy in the phosphor coating.
C. the dissipation of electric charge built up on the
bulb’s surface.
D. electrons returning to the ground state from
excited states after the power was shut off.

11
Passage V (Questions 31–36) 31. Which of the following four depictions of molecular
π orbitals represents the highest energy state for a 6-
Every atomic orbital contains plus and minus regions, carbon polyene molecule? (The signs given are the
defined by the value of the quantum mechanical function signs for the mathematical functions defining the p
for electron density. When orbitals from different atoms orbitals on one side of the molecule.)
overlap to form bonds, an equal number of new molecular
A. ––––––
orbitals results. These are of two types: σ or π bonding
orbitals, formed by overlap between orbital regions with B. +++–––
the same sign, and antibonding σ* or π* orbitals, formed C. ++––++
by overlap between regions with opposite signs. Bonding D. +–+–+–
orbitals have lower energy than their component atomic
orbitals, and antibonding orbitals have higher energy. The
electron pairs reside in the lower-energy bonding orbitals; 32. Among conjugated polyenes (molecules with alter-
the higher-energy, less stable orbitals remain empty when nating carbon-carbon double and single bonds) why
the molecule is in its ground state. are those that are longer able to absorb longer wave-
lengths of light?
A benzene ring has six unhybridized pz orbitals (one
A. Larger molecular orbitals have a lower ground
from each carbon atom), which together from six molecu-
state.
lar π orbitals, each one delocalized over the entire ring. Of
the possible π orbital structures for benzene, the one with B. A longer wavelength is better able to interact
the lowest energy has the plus region of all six p orbital with a longer molecular orbital.
functions on one side of the ring. The six electrons occu- C. The larger number of molecular orbitals allows
pying the orbitals fill the three most stable molecular for smaller energy transitions.
orbitals, leaving the other three empty. D. Larger molecular orbitals can absorb more
energy.
Molecular orbitals are filled from the lowest to the
highest energy level. The number of bonds between atoms
is determined by the number of filled bonding orbitals 33. Given the order in which orbitals are filled, which
minus the number of filled antibonding orbitals; each anti- molecule is a triplet in its ground state?
bonding orbital cancels out a filled bonding orbital. For a A. H2
diatomic molecule, orbitals in the n = 2 energy level are B. O2
filled as follows: σ2s, σ*2s, σ2p , π2px and π2py (equal in C. N2
z
energy), π*2px and π*2py (equal in energy), σ*2pz. (The D. F2
designation of the three p orbitals as px, py, and pz are inter-
changeable.)
Absorption of a photon can raise an electron to a higher-

energy molecular orbital. The excited electron does not
immediately change its spin, which is opposite to that of the
electron with which it was previously paired. This singlet
state is relatively unstable: the molecule may interact with
another molecule, or fluoresce and return to its ground state.
Alternatively, there may be a change in spin direction some-
where in the system; the molecule then enters the so-called
triplet state, which generally has lower energy. The
molecule now cannot return quickly to its ground state,
since the excited electron no longer has a partner of opposite
spin with which to pair. It also cannot return to the singlet
state, because the singlet has greater energy. Consequently,
the triplet state, which has two unpaired electrons in sepa-
rate orbitals, is long-lived by atomic standards, with a life-
time that may be ten seconds or more. During this period,
the molecule is highly reactive.
12
34. Molecular orbitals in hydrocarbons are formed 36. The quantum number that distinguishes the px orbital
between the 1s atomic orbital of hydrogen and the sp, from the py orbital is called the:
sp2, or sp3 hybrid atomic orbitals of carbon. Which
A. azimuthal quantum number.
choice correctly lists the energy level of the C-H
bonds, from lowest to highest? B. magnetic quantum number.
C. principal quantum number.
A. C6H6, HC≡CH, CH4
D. spin quantum number.
B. H2C=CH2, CH4, C6H6
C. C6H6, CH4, H2C=CH2
D. HC≡CH, C6H6, CH4
35. Which of the following figures describes the shape of

σ*2pz molecular orbital?
A.
B.
C.
D.

13
Passage VI (Questions 37–42) 37. How would the speed of a skier leaving the jump
ramp change if the vertical height of the jump ramp
A ski jump is an inclined track from which a ski jumper were increased from its original height of 10 meters?
takes off through the air. After traveling down the track,
A. increase
the skier takes off from a ramp at the bottom of the track.
The skier lands farther down on the slope. B. decrease
C. remain the same
Figure 1 shows a ski jump, in which the ramp at the D. The answer depends on the incline angle of the
lower end of the track makes an angle of 30° to the horizon- jump ramp.
tal. The track is inclined at an angle of to the horizontal
and the slope is inclined at an angle of 45° to the horizontal.
A ski jumper is stationary at the top of the track. Once the 38. Another ski jumper sets off from a point farther down
skier pushes off, she accelerates down the track, and then the jump track, and leaves the ramp at a speed of 16
takes off from the ramp. The vertical height difference m/s. If the time in flight is 4 s, what is the total hori-
between the top of the track and its lowest point is 50 m, zontal distance traveled by the ski jumper after leav-
and the vertical height difference between the top of the ing the ramp?
ramp and its lowest point is 10 m.
A. 4m
B. 83 m
C. 323 m
D. 48 m
39. Which of the following would increase the jump

distance?
I. Increasing the vertical height h of the jump
track
II. Increasing the angle of incline of the
jump track
III. Carrying extra weight to increase the total
Figure 1
mass of the ski jumper
The distance traveled by the skier between leaving the
A. I only
ski jump ramp and making contact with the slope is called
the jump distance. In some cases, in order to increase the B. I and II only
jump distance a skier will jump slightly upon leaving the C. II and III only
ramp, thereby increasing the vertical velocity. D. I and III only
Unless otherwise stated, assume that friction between

the skis and the slope is negligible, and ignore the effects
of air resistance.

14
40. How would the work done by gravity on the skier 42. If a skier uses skis of greater surface area, which of
when she skis down the track compare with the work the following would occur?
done by gravity on the skier if she fell the same ver-
A. The normal force of the slope on the skier would
tical height?
increase.
A. Less work would be done on the skier when she B. The normal force of the slope on the skier would
skis down the track. decrease.
B. More work would be done on the skier when she C. The pressure exerted on the slope by the skis
skis down the track. would increase.
C. Equal amounts of work would be done. D. The pressure exerted on the slope by the skis
D. The answer depends on the angle of the track. would decrease.
41. What is the acceleration of an 80-kg skier going

down the track if θ = 45°?
A. 6.9 m/s2
B. 9.8 m/s2
C. 13.9 m/s2
D. 80 m/s2

15
46. Which titration curve would be produced by titrating

Questions 43 through 47 are NOT based on 25 mL of a 0.1 N weak base with a 0.1 N strong acid?
a descriptive passage. A.
43. Suppose an α-particle starting from rest is acceler-

ated through a 5 megavolt potential difference. What
is the final kinetic energy of the α-particle? (Note:
Assume that e = 1.6 10–19 C.)
A. 1.6 10–12 J
B. 8.0 10–13 J
C. 6.4 10–26 J B.
D. 3.2 10–26 J
44. Based on the table below, what is the cell voltage for
the following reaction?
Fe2O3 + 2 Al → 2 Fe + Al2O3
C.
Half-Reaction Standard Potential (V)
Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe –0.44
Fe3+ + 3e– → Fe –0.037
2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH– –0.83
Al3+ + 3e– → Al –1.66
A. –1.33 V D.
B. 1.99 V
C. 1.33 V
D. 1.62 V
45. A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius r at

a uniform speed and makes 1 revolution per second.
What is the energy of the particle?
A. m2r2/4π2
B. 2π2mr2
C. 4π2mr2
D. mr2/2

16
47. Four charges of equal magnitude but different sign

are arranged in the four corners of a square, as shown
below. What is the direction of the electric field in the
center of the square?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

17
Passage VII (Questions 48–54) 48. An enzyme, R, catalyzes the oxidation of A to B.

Reacting various concentrations of A and B with a
Several techniques have been developed to determine the large excess of R produced the following results dur-
order of a reaction. The rate of a reaction cannot be predicted ing the first few minutes of the reaction.
on the basis of the overall equation, but can be predicted on
the basis of the rate-determining step. For instance, the fol-
M
lowing reaction can be broken down into three steps.
M
0.2
0.1
0.2
A+D→F+G
]=
]=
]=
; [B
; [B
; [B
rate
1M
2M
A→B+C
2M
Step 1 (slow)
B + D → E + F (fast)
]=
]=
]=
Step 2
[A
[A
[A
Step 3 E+C→G (fast)
Reaction 1 time
In this case, the first step in the reaction pathway is the Which of the following is the best tentative rate
rate-determining step. Therefore, the overall rate of the reac- equation?
tion must equal the rate of the first step, k1[A] where k1 is the
rate constant for the first step. (Rate constants of the different A. Rate = k'[A]x
steps are denoted by kx, where x is the step number.) B. Rate = k'[B]y
C. Rate = k'[A]x[B]y
In some cases, it is desirable to measure the rate of a
reaction in relation to only one species. In a second-order D. Rate = k[A]x[[B]y[R]z
reaction, for instance, a large excess of one species is
included in the reaction vessel. Since a relatively small
amount of this large concentration is reacted, we assume 49. In a test of the rate of Step 3 of Reaction 1, a solution
that the concentration essentially remains unchanged. is prepared containing a 0.1 M concentration of E and
Such a reaction is called a pseudo first-order reaction. A a 50 M concentration of C. The rate is calculated after
new rate constant, k', is established, equal to the product of the reaction has gone 50% to completion. By what
the rate constant of the original reaction, k, and the con- percent will the calculated rate differ from the true
centration of the species in excess. This approach is often rate if we treat the reaction as pseudo first-order?
used to analyze enzyme activity. A. 0.02%
B. 0.05%
In some cases, the reaction rate may be dependent on the
concentration of a short-lived intermediate. This can happen C. 0.1%
if the rate-determining step is not the first step. In this case, D. 0.2%
the concentration of the intermediate must be derived from
the equilibrium constant of the preceding step.
50. If Step 2 above were the rate-determining step of
For redox reactions, the equilibrium can be correlated Reaction 1, which of the following equations would
with the voltage produced by two half-cells by means of the correctly define the rate?
Nernst equation. This equation states that at any given
moment: A. Rate = k1k2[D]/k–1[C]
B. Rate = k1k2[D]/k–1k–2[C]
E = E° – (RT/nF)ln([C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b) C. Rate = k1k2[A][D]/k–1[C]
Equation 1 D. Rate = k1k2[A][D]/k–1k–2[C]
when
aA+bB→cC+dD
Reaction 2
Note: R = 8.314 J/K•mol; F = 9.6485 × 104 C/mol.)

18
51. Which of the following is true of a reaction at equi- 54. Catalysts are effective in increasing the rate of a reac-
librium? tion because they:
I. k1/k–1 = 1 A. increase the energy of the activated complex.
II. E = E° B. increase the value of the equilibrium constant.
III. ln([C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b) = nFE°/RT C. decrease the number of collisions between reac-
A. I only tant molecules.
B. III only D. lower the activation energy.
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
52. What is the effect of increasing the concentration of

reactants in a voltaic cell?
A. The voltage increases, while the spontaneity of
the reaction remains the same.
B. The spontaneity of the reaction increases, but
the voltage remains the same.
C. Both the voltage and the spontaneity of the reac-
tion increase.
D. The reaction rate increases, but the voltage and
spontaneity of the reaction are unchanged.
53. What would be the cell emf of the following system

at 298K?
Zn(s)|Zn2+(0.2 M)||Cu2+(0.02 M|Cu(s)

E°cell = +1.10 V
A. 1.07 V
B. 1.10 V
C. 1.13 V
D. 1.20 V

19
Passage VIII (Questions 55–61) 55. An electron is accelerated through a distance of 0.1 m
by a potential difference of 10,000 volts. What is the
X-rays are produced by a device which beams elec- electron’s energy as it strikes the anode?
trons with an energy between 103 and 106 eV at a metal
A. 100 eV
plate. The electrons interact with the metal plate and are
stopped by it. Much of the energy of the incoming elec- B. 1,000 eV
trons is released in the form of X-rays, which are high- C. 10,000 eV
energy photons of electromagnetic radiation. D. 1J
An example of such a device is shown below. Elec-

trons are accelerated from the cathode towards the anode 56. What is the direction of the electric field that accel-
by an electric field. erates the electrons?
A. From the anode toward the cathode
B. From the cathode toward the anode
C. Into the page
D. Out of the page
57. How does the wavelength of an X-ray produced from

a K-alpha transition in molybdenum compare to that
produced from a lower energy K-alpha transition in
copper?
A. It is shorter.
There are two mechanisms by which the X-rays are
produced within the metal. The first mechanism is called B. It is the same.
bremsstrahlung, which is German for “breaking radia- C. It is longer.
tion.” X-rays are emitted by the electrons as they are D. It depends on the energy of the incoming electron.
brought to rest by interactions with the positive nuclei of
the anode.
The second mechanism occurs when an incoming elec-

tron knocks an inner electron out of one of the metal atoms
of the anode. This electron is replaced by an electron from
a higher energy level of the atom, and a photon making up
the energy difference is emitted.
X-rays are absorbed by a material when they pass

through it. The amount of X-rays absorbed increases
with the density of the material. In addition, lower
energy X-rays are more likely to be absorbed than higher
energy X-rays. (Note: 1 eV = 1.6 10–19 J; Planck’s con-
stant h = 4.1 10–15 eV•s; speed of light c = 3 108 m/s.)

20
58. What is the minimum potential difference required to 61. Which of the following graphs best represents the
produce a 0.06 nm X-ray from an electron transition relationship between the amount of X-rays absorbed
in a metal? per unit length of material and the energy of the X-rays,
for lead, bone, and air?
A. 15,000 V
B. 20,000 V A. C.
C. 20,500 V
D. 21,500 V
59. An X-ray source produces X-rays with a maximum

frequency of 6 1018 Hz. If the cathode current is
doubled so that twice as many electrons are emitted
per unit time, what is the new maximum frequency of
the X-rays produced? B. D.
A. 3 1018 Hz
B. 6 1018 Hz
C. 12 1018 Hz
D. 24 1018 Hz
60. In an X-ray tube, electrons of charge e are acceler-

ated through a potential difference of V. The anode is
cooled by water of mass m with specific heat c. If n
electrons per second strike the anode, what is the
maximum possible rise in the temperature of the
water after 100 s?
A. nVe/100mc
B. 100Ve/mc
C. 100n(Ve + mc)
D. 100nVe/mc

21
Passage IX (Questions 62–67) Table 1

Compound Formula MW Stock
A researcher in a molecular biology lab planned to carry
out an extraction procedure known as an alkaline plasmid Tris (CH2OH)3CNH2 121 1M (pH 8)
prep, which is designed to purify plasmids, small pieces of EDTA (HOOCCH2)4(CNH2)2 292 0.5 M (pH 8)
the hereditary material DNA, from bacterial cells. The bacte-
ria are first placed into a test tube containing liquid nutrient Sodium
medium and allowed to grow until they reach a high popula- hydroxide NaOH 40 5 N
tion density. The culture, which consists of solid cells sus- SDS C11H23CH2OSO3–Na+ 288 10%
pended in the medium, is then centrifuged; a solid pellet is
formed. The supernatant is poured out, leaving the pellet Sodium
behind, and the cells are resuspended in a mL of lysis buffer acetate CH3COO–Na+ 82 3 M (pH 5.2)
solution (50 mM glucose, 25 mM Tris buffer and 10 mM Ethanol CH3CH2OH 46 95%
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), with 5 mg of the
enzyme lysozyme added). They are then incubated for 30
minutes at 0°C, during which time the bacterial cell walls
break down and the cell contents are released into the solu-
tion. After incubation, 1 mL of 0.4 N sodium hydroxide and
1 mL of 2% sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) are added, and the 62. EDTA is available commercially in the form of a
solution is again incubated on ice for 10 minutes. 2 mL of 3 hydrated sodium salt, Na2EDTA • 2H2O. How much
M sodium acetate are added and the mixture is incubated for of this salt must be used to produce 1 L of a 0.5 M
30 minutes at 0°C. The test tube is centrifuged once more and stock solution?
the supernatant is decanted into a clean tube, leaving behind
the protein and most other cell components in the pellet. A. 145 g
B. 146 g
Finally, 10 mL of pure ethanol are added to the super- C. 186 g
natant from the previous step to precipitate out the DNA, D. 187 g
and the test tube is incubated at –20°C for 60 minutes, dur-
ing which the mixture remains liquid. The mixture is cen-
trifuged a final time and the supernatant removed. The 63. Tris (Tris(hydroxymethyl)aminomethane) is gener-
translucent precipitate that results is washed with 70% ally used as a buffer. If pH 8.0 is a good buffering
ethanol (70% ethanol and 30% water by volume), allowed region for Tris, then:
to dry, and resuspended in 1 mL of TE buffer (10 mM Tris,
1 mM EDTA). I. the pKa of Tris must be near pH 8.0
II. if Tris is titrated with acid, the titration curve
In preparation for this experiment, the researcher pre- will possess a steep region near pH 8.0.
pared stock solutions of the various chemicals that she will III. a great deal of NaOH would have to be
need in the experiment. Stock solutions are highly concen- added to pH 8.0 Tris in order to signifi-
trated solutions of commonly used chemicals in water from cantly affect the pH.
which dilute solutions are prepared for daily use. Table 1
A. I only
shows the chemicals, their molecular formulas and weights,
and the composition of commonly used stock solutions. B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
64. What is the molality of a stock solution that is 10%

SDS by mass?
A. 0.028 m
B. 0.100 m
C. 0.347 m
D. 0.385 m

22
65. Pure ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is difficult to prepare and 67. What would be the pH of 100 mL of the sodium
therefore expensive; 95% ethanol is much cheaper. acetate stock solution after the addition of 3.6 g of
Consequently, 95% ethanol is generally used in the HCl? (pKa of acetic acid = 4.74)
preparation of dilute ethanol solutions. How much
A. 1.0
95% ethanol would be needed to produce a 500 mL
solution of 70% ethanol by volume in water? B. 4.74
C. 5.2
A. 333 mL
D. 6.0
B. 350 mL
C. 368 mL
D. 475 mL
66. Which of the following conclusions can be reached

based on the fact that DNA precipitates in the last
step of the plasmid prep procedure?
A. DNA dissolves better in water at lower temper-
atures.
B. DNA is polar and therefore dissolves better in
water than in a mixture of water and ethanol.
C. DNA is nonpolar and therefore dissolves better
in ethanol than in water.
D. DNA dissolves well in ethanol and precipitates
only because the solution is centrifuged.

23
Passage X (Questions 68–73) 69. The mass in the first experiment is pulled down a dis-
tance A from its equilibrium position and then
The simple harmonic motion of a mass suspended released from rest. The mass will then oscillate with
from vertical springs is investigated in two experiments. simple harmonic motion. As the mass moves up and
The springs used in both experiments have a spring con- down, energy is dissipated due to factors such as air
stant k and a natural length L0. The material used to make resistance and internal heating of the spring. The
the springs has a Young’s modulus of 2 1011 Pa. mass will no longer oscillate when the total energy
dissipated equals:
In the first experiment a mass m is suspended from a
A. kL2/2
spring. The mass stretches the spring to a new length L,
called the equilibrium length. B. kA2/2
C. k(L + A)2/2
In the second experiment the mass m is suspended D. kL02/2
from two identical springs as shown in Figure 2 below.
When the mass m is in equilibrium, each spring is
stretched from its natural length by the same amount xe. 70. In the first experiment the mass is pulled down and
set into motion. The position of greatest speed is:
In both experiments the masses of the springs are neg-
A. at the equilibrium position.
ligible, and the elastic limits of the springs are never
exceeded. B. at the position where the spring’s length is its
natural length.
C. at the lowest point in its motion.
D. at the highest point in its motion.
71. In the first experiment, when a 5-kg mass is oscillat-

ing, the frequency of oscillation is 2 Hz. What is the
value of the spring constant?
A. 5/π2 N/m
B. 20 N/m
C. 40π2 N/m
D. 80π2 N/m
68. In the first experiment, what is the mass of the object

hanging from the spring?
A. kL/g
B. kL0/g
C. k(L – L0)/g
D. k/g

24
72. The two springs in Experiment 2 are replaced by a

single spring having a spring constant k’ such that the
equilibrium length xe does not change. What is the
ratio of k’ to k?
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 2
73. If the spring in Experiment 1 was suspended from the

ceiling of an elevator accelerating with acceleration
a, how would the equilibrium length of the spring
compare to the equilibrium length of the spring when
the elevator is stationary?
A. The equilibrium length of the spring would be
greater when the elevator is accelerating
upward.
B. The equilibrium length of the spring would be
greater when the elevator is stationary.
C. The equilibrium length of the spring would be
greater when the elevator is accelerating down-
ward with acceleration smaller than the acceler-
ation due to gravity.
D. The equilibrium length of the spring doesn’t
depend on the acceleration of the elevator.

25
77. Which of the following is NOT an intermolecular

Questions 74 through 77 are NOT based on force?
a descriptive passage. A. Dispersion forces
B. Resonance
74. If the noise level is increased by 30 decibels, what is
C. Hydrogen bonding
the ratio of the new intensity to the original intensity?
D. Dipole interactions
A. 10
B. 30
C. 100
D. 1000 STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY
QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
75. A given volume of a diprotic acid is completely neu-
tralized by twice that volume of a 0.3 N NaOH solu-
tion. What is the molarity of the acid?
A. 0.15 M
B. 0.30 M
C. 0.60 M
D. 1.20 M
76. A fireman of mass m slides down a vertical pole with

an average acceleration a. If the acceleration due to
gravity is g, what is the average frictional force
exerted by the fireman?
A. mg
B. m(g + a)
C. m(g – a)
D. ma
26
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 Minutes
Questions 78–137

VERBAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS: There are nine passages in this Verbal
Reasoning Section. Each passage is followed by sev-
eral questions. After reading a passage, select the one
best answer to each question. If you are not certain of
an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to
be incorrect and then select an answer from the
remaining alternatives. Indicate your selection by
blackening the corresponding oval on your answer
document.
Passage I (Questions 78–84) Doubtless the most successful communalists were the
40 Shakers, so called for the early propensity to tremble
In the early nineteenth century a large number of com- ecstatically during religious worship. Their guiding light,
munal experiments, both secular and religious, sprang up Mother Ann, espoused four key principles: Virgin Purity,
in the northeastern United States. Perhaps the most famous Christian Communism, Confession, and Separation from
secular commune was Brook Farm, founded by transcen- the World. Though the Shakers were less adamant on the
5 dentalists George Ripley and William H. Channing to pro- 45 last point—maintaining social relations and some com-
mote the pursuit of leisure and culture through the proper merce with their neighbors—they insisted on the other
application of time and labor. Its members (among the three, and renounced both personal property and sex. Men
more notable were Nathaniel Hawthorne and Margaret and women lived in a single large “Unitary Dwelling” and
Fuller) pursued field labor by day, art and philosophy by were considered complete equals, but they occupied sepa-
10 night. For a time the system worked so well that two after- 50 rate wings and could speak together only if a third person
noons a week were set aside for leisure and Brook Farm were present. Despite their religious strictness, Shakers
began outcompeting local farmers at the produce market. were known as simple, sincere, intelligent people, healthy
But by nature the Farm’s members were thinkers, not and long-lived, producers of lovely books and hymns, and
workers; despite their success they remained mainly inter- of furniture still prized for its quality and durability. In
15 ested in the theoretical and philosophical implications of 55 their heyday, six thousand Shakers lived in fifty-eight sep-
the experiment. Thus, when a devastating fire brought the arate “families” throughout the Northeast. Later their
community considerable financial burdens in its fifth year, celibacy, combined with their strict discipline, led to a
the members felt little compunction about closing shop decline in numbers, but even today a small number of
and returning to their comfortable Boston homes. elderly Shakers in two communities in Maine and New
60 Hampshire continue to keep the faith.
20 One of the most notable religious utopias was the
Oneida community. Its founder, John Humphrey Noyes,
believed that Christ’s second coming had already occurred
and that everyone alive was favored by Divine grace,
which Noyes saw as an imperative to live a better life. Per-
25 haps surprisingly, the Oneidans embraced industry and
commerce, achieving success in fruit packing, trap mak-
ing, and silk thread winding. They owned everything com-
munally, and this principle extended to each other. The
Oneidans saw monogamy as a selfish act and asserted that
30 the men and women of the community were united in one 78. The passage implies that the end of the Brook Farm
“complex” marriage; sex between any two consenting experiment was probably brought on by:
members was perfectly acceptable. The Oneidans main-
A. faltering commitment in the face of hardship.
tained order solely through “criticism”—anyone acting out
of line was made to stand before the other members and B. a failure to attract members of sufficient intel-
35 hear his or her faults recounted. Oneida remained viable lect or ability.
for some thirty years, until the leadership devolved on C. the completion of the community’s aims.
Noyes’ son, an agnostic. The old religious fervor died out, D. the incompetence of philosophers at field labor.
and the dream degenerated into a joint stock company.
28
79. According to the passage, the Oneidans believed 82. The Shakers resembled the Oneidans in their attitude
that: toward:
A. men and women were equal in the eyes of God. A. sexual practices.
B. monogamy was wrong in principle. B. equality of men and women.
C. rules and standards of behavior were unnecessary. C. personal property.
D. they were destined to witness Christ’s second D. contact with the outside world.
coming.
83. It can be inferred from the passage that the cohesion

80. The passage implies that Brook Farm’s economic of a secular workers’ cooperative, based on the prin-
system: ciples of collective ownership and the sharing of
profits, would probably be weakened by:
A. did not include the selling of produce outside
the farm. I. diminished contact with the outside world.
B. was based on the hiring of farm hands. II. increasing agnosticism.
C. efficiently utilized time and labor. III. considerable economic losses.
D. was primarily intended to maximize collective A. I only
profit. B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
81. According to the passage, all of the following were
characteristic of the Oneida community EXCEPT:
A. complex marriage. 84. If the passage were to continue, the next topic the
B. maintenance of order through social pressure. author would discuss would probably be:
C. belief in present grace. A. a comparison between nineteenth and twentieth
D. shared living quarters. century communal living experiments.
B. a theory explaining why communal living might
become popular again.
C. an analysis of why early communes attracted
intellectuals and artists.
D. an investigation into why the three communes
discussed were successful to varying degrees.

29
Passage II (Questions 85–90) not be simplified down to a single theoretical position, it

50 does spring from certain fundamental propositions.
The time has come to acknowledge the ascendancy of Humanistic psychologists believe that conscious experi-
the humanistic psychology movement. The so-called ence, rather than outward behavior, is the proper subject of
“Third Stream” emerged at mid-century, asserting itself psychology. We recognize that each human being is
against the opposition of a pair of mighty, long-established unique, capable of change and personal growth. We see
5 currents, psychoanalysis and behaviorism. The hostility 55 maturity as a process dependent on the establishment of a
between these two older schools, as well as divisiveness set of values and the development of self. And we believe
within each of them, probably helped enable humanistic that the more aspects of self which are satisfactorily devel-
psychology to survive its early years. But the movement oped, the more positive the individual’s self-image.
flourished because of its wealth of insights into the nature
10 of this most inexact science. Abraham Maslow, a pioneer of the Third Stream, artic-
60 ulated a hierarchy of basic human needs, starting with
Of the three major movements in the course of 20th- food, water and air, progressing upward through shelter
century psychology, psychoanalysis is the oldest and most and security, social acceptance and belonging, to love,
introspective. Conceived by Sigmund Freud as a means of esteem and self-expression. Progress toward the higher
treating mental and emotional disorders, psychoanalysis is stages cannot occur until all of the more basic needs have
15 based on the theory that people experience unresolved 65 been satisfied. Individuals atop the pyramid, having devel-
emotional conflicts in infancy and early childhood. Years oped their potential to the highest possible extent, are said
later, although these experiences have largely disappeared to be “self-actualized.”
from conscious awareness, they may continue to impair a
person’s ability to function in daily life. The patient expe- If this humanist theoretical perspective is aimed at
20 riences improvement when the psychoanalyst eventually empowering the individual, so too are the movement’s
unlocks these long-repressed memories of conflict and 70 efforts in the practical realm of clinical psychology.
brings them to the patient’s conscious awareness. Believing that traditional psychotherapists tend to lead
patients toward predetermined resolutions of their prob-
In the heyday of behaviorism, which occurred between lems, Carl Rogers pressed for objective evaluations of both
the two world wars, the psychoanalytic movement was the process and outcome of psychotherapeutic treatment.
25 heavily criticized for being too concerned with inner sub- 75 Not content to function simply as a reformer, Rogers also
jective experience. Behavioral psychologists, dismissing pioneered the development of “client-centered” or nondi-
ideas and feelings as unscientific, tried to deal only with rective therapy, which emphasizes the autonomy of the
observable and quantifiable facts. They perceived the client (i.e., patient). In client-centered therapy, clients
human being merely as an organism which generated choose the subjects for discussion, and are encouraged to
30 responses to stimuli produced by its body and the environ- 80 create their own solutions to their problems.
ment around it. Patients’ neuroses no longer needed analy-
sis; they could instead by modified by behavioral
conditioning. Not even babies were safe: B.F. Skinner
devised a container in which infants could be raised under
35 “ideal” conditions—if a sound-proof box can be consid-
ered the ideal environment for child-rearing.
By mid-century, a number of psychologists had grown

dissatisfied with both the deterministic Freudian perspec-
tive and the mechanistic approach of behaviorism. They 85. If the author of this passage met a Freudian psycho-
40 questioned the idea that human personality becomes per- analyst who felt that it was important for patients to
manently fixed in the first few years of life. They won- consider themselves capable of fundamental change,
dered if the purpose of psychology was really to reduce he would most likely conclude that the psychoanalyst
people to laboratory specimens. Was it not instead possible was:
that human beings are greater than the sum of their parts?
A. opposed to the Third Stream.
45 That psychology should speak to their search for fulfill-
ment and meaning in life? B. concerned only with conscious experience.
C. influenced by humanist theory.
It is questions like these that members of the Third D. rejecting Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs.
Stream have sought to address. While the movement can-
30
86. The author states that “not even babies were safe” 89. According to the passage, the ultimate goal of Carl
(line 35) most probably in order to: Rogers’s client-centered therapy is:
A. emphasize that the use of even very young sub- A. simplification of the Third Stream’s theoretical
jects is considered valid among most psycholo- perspective.
gists. B. self-directed personal growth for the client.
B. indicate the pervasive influence of behaviorists C. rejection of Maslow’s scheme of self-actual-
on the field of psychology. ization.
C. show that behaviorists were anxious to apply D. increased autonomy of psychotherapists.
their theories to a wide range of subjects.
D. warn of the dangers of psychoanalysis for chil-
dren. 90. Psychoanalysts and humanistic psychologists would
be most likely to disagree about:
A. the effects of internal conflicts on childhood
87. The author most probably believes that, in its early
behavior.
days, the humanistic psychology movement:
B. the necessity of proper training for psycholo-
I. benefited from dissension among psychol- gists.
ogists. C. the relevance and utility of clinical psychology.
II. acknowledged Maslow and Rogers as its D. the significance of conscious experience.
only leaders.
III. was an offshoot of behaviorism.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
88. B.F. Skinner is mentioned in the passage to support

the point that:
A. the ultimate goal of behaviorism is technologi-
cal innovation.
B. raising babies in isolation prevents childhood
conflicts.
C. stimulus-response conditioning was attempted
on all sorts of individuals.
D. behaviorists reject the scientific validity of sub-
jective experience.

31
Passage III (Questions 91–97) mitigate globulation; however this procedure also seri-
ously curtails the PFCs’ oxygen capacity.
Due to ever-increasing paranoia about the transmission
of hepatitis and AIDS via blood transfusions and the fre- The final and perhaps most ambitious attempt to form
quent difficulty of procuring matching blood donors for a blood substitute involves the synthesis of a modified ver-
patients, researchers have been working at a feverish pace 55 sion of human hemoglobin by genetically-altered bacteria.
5 to produce disease-free and easy-to-use blood substitutes. Fortunately, this synthetic hemoglobin seems to closely
The difficulty most synthetic blood researches have had is mimic the qualities of sterility, and durability outside the
in formulating a substance that combines qualities of cellular environment, and the oxygen-carrying efficiency
sterility, high capacity for carrying oxygen to body tissues, of blood. Furthermore, researchers have found that if mod-
and versatility within the human body. Three major substi- 60 ified hemoglobin genes are added to bacterial DNA, the
10 tute technologies have been developed to date; each has bacteria will produce the desired product in copious quan-
certain advantages and shortcomings. tities. This procedure is extremely challenging, however,
because it requires the isolation of the human gene for the
“Red blood,” the first of the blood substitute technolo- production of hemoglobin, and the modification of the
gies, is derived from hemoglobin which has been recycled 65 gene to express a molecule that works without support
from old, dead, or worn-out red blood cells and modified from a living cell.
15 so that it can carry oxygen outside the red blood cell.
Hemoglobin, a complex protein, is the blood’s natural oxy- While all the above technologies have serious draw-
gen carrier and is attractive to scientists for use in synthetic backs and difficulties, work to perfect an ideal blood sub-
blood because of its oxygen-carrying capacity. However, stitute continues. Scientists hope that in the near future
hemoglobin can sometimes constitute a two-fold threat to 70 safe synthetic blood transfusions may ease blood shortages
20 humans when it is extracted from the red blood cell and and resolve the unavailability of various blood types.
introduced to the body in its naked form. First, hemoglobin
molecules are rarely sterile and often remain contaminated
by viruses to which they were exposed in the cell. Second,
naked hemoglobin is extremely dangerous to the kidneys,
25 causing blood flow at these organs to shut down and lead-
ing, ultimately, to renal failure. Additional problems arise
from the fact that hemoglobin is adapted to operate opti-
mally within the intricate environment of the red blood 91. The author mentions all of the following as weak-
cell. Stripped of the protection of the cell, the hemoglobin nesses of synthetic bloods EXCEPT:
30 molecule tends to suffer breakdown within several hours.
A. naked hemoglobin can cause renal failure in
Although modification has produced more durable
humans.
hemoglobin molecules which do not cause renal failure,
undesired side effects continue to plague patients and B. “red blood” can transmit viruses to a recipient.
hinder the development of hemoglobin-based blood sub- C. genetic engineering can be extremely difficult.
35 stitutes. D. “white blood” has a low oxygen-carrying
potential.
Another synthetic blood alternative, “white blood,” is
dependent on laboratory-synthesized chemicals called per-
fluorocarbons (PFCs). Unlike blood, PFCs are clear oil- 92. According to the passage, PFCs are helpful in the
like liquids, yet they are capable of absorbing quantities of synthesis of blood substitutes because they:
40 oxygen up to 50% of their volume, enough of an oxygen-
I. mimic the oxygen-carrying capacity of
carrying potential for oxygen-dependent organisms to sur-
blood.
vive submerged in the liquid for hours by “breathing” it.
Although PFCs imitate real blood by effectively absorbing II. do not react with other body chemicals.
oxygen, scientists are primarily interested in them as con- III. break down in the blood within several
45 stituents of blood substitutes because they are inherently hours.
safer to use than hemoglobin-based substitutes. PFCs do A. I only
not interact with any chemicals in the body and can be B. II only
manufactured in near-perfect sterility. The primary pitfall C. I and II only
of PFCs is in their tendency to form globules in plasma
D. II and III only
50 that can block circulation. Dissolving PFCs in solution can

32
93. According to the passage, all of the following are 96. According to the passage, how much oxygen can be
reasons for research into the development of syn- absorbed by a 300 cc sample of PFC?
thetic bloods EXCEPT:
A. 50 cc
A. dangerous diseases can be transmitted by con- B. 100 cc
ventional blood transfusions. C. 150 cc
B. synthetic bloods have greater oxygen-carrying D. 300 cc
capacities than naturally-produced human
blood.
C. donor blood is sometimes in short supply. 97. It can be inferred from the passage that the difficulty
D. certain blood types are not readily available. of producing an ideal blood substitute is com-
pounded by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. there is no known way to isolate the DNA
94. We can infer that all of the synthetic blood technolo-
responsible for hemoglobin.
gies discussed in this passage:
B. naked hemoglobin tends to break down in the
A. sustain submerged oxygen-dependent organisms. bloodstream.
B. possess high oxygen-carrying capacities. C. non-globulating PFCs have significantly abbre-
C. maintain high standards of sterility. viated oxygen-carrying capacities.
D. exhibit versatility in the human body. D. the use of PFCs may lead to blood clotting.
95. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage

as a problem specific to “red blood”?
A. “Red blood” cannot be produced in large
enough quantities.
B. “Red blood” tends to form globules that block
circulation.
C. Hemoglobin does not carry oxygen effectively.
D. “Red blood” exhibits poor durability in the
bloodstream.

33
Passage IV (Questions 98–103) 50 What makes Muzak unique is a formula by which

familiar tunes are modified and programmed. Careful
Muzak, the intentionally unobtrusive music that most instrumentation adds to an overall sound that is neither
people associate with elevators and dentists’ waiting monotonous nor rousing. But it is the precisely timed pro-
rooms, represents the paradoxical success story of a prod- gramming that separates Muzak from other “easy listen-
uct designed to be ignored. Although few people admit to 55 ing” formats. At the core of the programming is the
5 enjoying its blandly melodic sounds, Muzak reaches over concept of the “Stimulus Progression.” Muzak programs
100 million listeners in 14 countries and has played in the are divided into quarter-hour groupings of songs, and are
White House, the Apollo lunar spacecraft, and countless specifically planned for the time of day at which they will
supermarkets, offices, and factories. This odd combination be heard. Each composition is assigned a mood rating
of criticism and widespread acceptance is not surprising, 60 between 1 and 6 called a stimulus value; a song with a rat-
10 however, when one considers that Muzak is not created for ing of 2, for example, is slower and less invigorating than
the enjoyment of its listeners: rather, its purpose is to modify one with a value of 5. Approximately six compositions
physiological and psychological aspects of an environment. with ascending stimulus values play during any given
quarter hour; each 15 minute segment ends in silence.
In the workplace, Muzak is credited with increasing 65 Each segment of a 24-hour program is carefully planned.
both productivity and profitability. Research into the rela- Segments that are considered more stimulating air at 11
15 tionship between music and productivity can be traced to a.m. and 3 p.m. (the times when workers typically tire),
the earliest days of the Muzak Corporation. Developed by while more soothing segments play just after lunchtime
a military officer in 1922 as a way of transmitting music and towards the end of the day, when workers are likely to
through electrical wires, Muzak blossomed in the 1930’s 70 be restless.
following a study which reported that people work harder
20 when they listen to certain kinds of music. Impressed by From the point of view of management, then, Muzak is
these findings, the BBC began to broadcast music in a useful tool in the effort to maximize both productivity
English munitions factories during World War II in an and profits. However, some people object to its presence,
effort to combat fatigue. When workers assembling labeling it as a type of unregulated air pollution. Still oth-
weapons increased their output by 6 percent, the U.S. War 75 ers see it as an Orwellian nightmare, a manipulation of the
25 Production Board contracted the Muzak Corporation to subconscious. But Muzak’s effectiveness seems to lie in
provide uplifting music to American factories. Today, the the fact that most people never really listen to it. While it
corporation broadcasts its “Environmental Music” to may be true that no one actually likes this carefully crafted
countless businesses and institutions throughout the world. aural atmosphere, many simply ignore it, allowing its for-
And while most people claim to dislike Muzak’s discreet 80 gettable sounds to soften the contours of the day.
30 cadences, it seems to positively influence both productiv-
ity and job satisfaction.
Researchers speculate that listening to Muzak and

other soft music improves morale and reduces stress by
modifying our physiology. Physiological changes such as
35 lowered heart rate and decreased blood pressure have been
documented in hospital studies testing the effect of calm-
ing music on cardiac patients. In addition, certain kinds of
music seem to effect one’s sense of emotional, as well as
physical, well being. It is just this sort of satisfaction which
40 is thought to result in increased performance in the work-
place. In a study of people performing repetitive clerical 98. According to the passage, a 15-minute segment of
tasks, those who listened to music performed more accu- Muzak with an average stimulus value of 5 would
rately and quickly than those who worked in silence; those most likely be broadcast at:
who listened to Muzak did better still. Moreover, while
A. 4:30 p.m.
45 Muzak was conceived as a tool for productivity, it also
seems to influence a business’ profitability. In an experi- B. 8:15 a.m.
ment in which supermarket shoppers shopped to the mel- C. 3:00 p.m.
low sounds of Muzak, sales were increased by as much as D. 1:15 p.m.
12 percent.

34
99. Of the following, the author is most interested in dis- 102. According to the passage, Muzak differs from other
cussing: “easy listening” formats in that Muzak:
A. the origins of the Muzak Corporation. I. produces measurable health benefits.
B. how Muzak modifies physical states and psy- II. improves workers’ job performances.
chological atmospheres. III. is programmed in order to effect behavioral
C. how Muzak increases productivity in the work- changes.
place. A. I only
D. the ways in which Muzak differs from other B. II only
“easy listening” formats. C. III only
D. II and III only
100. According to the passage, Muzak may provide all of
the following benefits EXCEPT:
103. It can be inferred from the statements in the passage
A. increased work productivity. that the author regards Muzak as:
B. decreased blood pressure. A. a paradoxical phenomenon.
C. increased business profitability. B. an unnecessary evil.
D. decreased job absenteeism. C. a violation of privacy.
D. a pleasurable diversion.
101. It can be inferred from the passage that some critics
of Muzak believe that Muzak:
A. is not significantly different from other “easy
listening” programs.
B. subtly manipulates the subconscious mind.
C. is actually distracting to many workers.
D. caters to the whims of supermarket consumers.

35
Passage V (Questions 104–110) may substantially curb the destructiveness of the Russian
50 aphid in the future. For the time being, however, American
The Russian wheat aphid, Diuraphis noxia, is a small farmers are left to their own devices when it comes to pro-
green insect discovered in southern Russia around the turn tecting their wheat crops.
of the century. Agricultural researchers are not quite sure,
but they believe the Russian aphid adapted itself to wheat
5 about ten thousand years ago, when the crop was first
domesticated by man. What is not in doubt is the insect’s
destructiveness. Spread by both wind and human transport,
the Russian aphid has destroyed wheat fields throughout
Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
10 Until a few years ago, the United States had been free
of this pest. But in the spring of 1986, a swarm of Russian
aphids crossed the Mexican border and settled a few hun-
dred miles north, in central Texas. From there, it quickly
spread to other Western states, destroying wheat fields all
15 along its path. In fact, the level of destruction has been so
great over the past five years that entomologists are calling
the Russian aphid the greatest threat to American agricul- 104. Which of the following statements would be most in
ture since the Hessian fly, Phytophaga destructor, was agreement with the statements in the passage?
inadvertently brought to the colonies on ships by German
A. It is no longer economical to grow crops with
20 mercenary troops during the Revolutionary War.
low profit margins.
A combination of several factors have made it particu- B. Humans are powerless against the forces of
larly difficult to deal with the threat posed by this aphid. nature.
First, Russian aphids reproduce asexually at a phenomenal C. Regional ecosystems are often severely dam-
rate. This process, known as parthenogenesis, often results aged when new organisms are introduced.
25 in as many as twenty generations of insects in a single D. It is more difficult to stop the spread of an insect
year. Although most generations remain in a limited geo- that reproduces asexually than one that repro-
graphic area because they have no wings, a few genera- duces sexually.
tions are born with wings, allowing the insect to spread to
new areas. Second, because wheat is a crop with a very
30 low profit margin, most American farmers do not spray it 105. According to the passage, which of the following
with pesticides; it simply is not economical to do so. And statements is/are true of Russian wheat aphids?
since the Russian aphid has only recently entered the
I. Most are capable of flight.
United States, it has no natural enemies among North
American insects or animals. As a result, there have been II. They are resistant to pesticides.
35 no man-made or natural obstacles to the spread of the Rus- III. They are capable of spreading rapidly.
sian aphid in the United States. A. II only
B. III only
Agricultural researchers seeking to control the Russian C. I and II only
aphid have looked to its place of origin for answers. In the
D. II and III only
Soviet Union, the Russian aphid has been kept in check by
40 predators which have evolved alongside it over many thou-
sands of years. One species of wasp seems to be particu-
106. It can reasonably be inferred that the author of the
larly efficient at destroying the aphid. The pregnant females
passage is:
of the species search the Russian aphid’s home, the interior
of a wheat stalk, sting the aphid into paralysis, and then A. a botanist with an interest in wheat production.
45 inject an egg into its body. When the egg hatches the wasp B. an agriculturist with an interest in pest control.
larva feeds off of the aphid, killing it in the process. C. a pest exterminator with an interest in agriculture.
D. an entomologist with an interest in asexual
The introduction of predators like the wasp, coupled
reproduction.
with the breeding of new strains of insect-resistant wheat,
36
107. The passage supplies information for answering all 109. According to the passage, the Russian wheat aphid
of the following questions EXCEPT: and the Hessian fly are comparable with respect to:
A. What measures were taken to combat the Hes- I. the amount of destruction they have
sian fly during the 18th century? caused.
B. Why does the Russian wheat aphid cause less II. the means by which they reproduce.
damage in the Soviet Union than in other III. the ways in which they entered the United
countries? States.
C. Is it logical for American farmers to use pesti- A. I only
cides in order to attempt to protect their wheat B. II only
crops from the Russian aphid?
C. I and II only
D. What sorts of solutions have agricultural
D. I and III only
researchers investigated in their efforts to curb
the destructiveness of the Russian wheat aphid?
110. The author most likely believes American farmers will:
108. The author suggests the best way to control the Rus- A. develop new types of aphid-resistant wheat.
sian aphid population in the United States is to: B. develop their own effective methods for dealing
with the Russian aphid.
A. devote less acreage to the production of wheat.
C. stop producing wheat until the Russian aphid is
B. spray wheat fields with large quantities of pes-
brought under control.
ticides.
D. continue to lose a portion of their wheat crops
C. transplant its natural enemies from the Soviet
for the foreseeable future.
Union.
D. disrupt its reproductive process by sterilizing
females.

37
Passage VI (Questions 111–117) 50 disintegration during the previous twenty years, the Ghost
Dance movement spread rapidly this time, catching on
Millenialism is, generally speaking, the religious belief among tribes from the Canadian border to Texas, and from
that salvation and material benefits will be conferred upon the Missouri River to the Sierra Nevadas—an area approx-
a society in the near future as the result of some apocalyp- imately one-third the size of the continental United States.
tic event. The term derives from the Latin word for 1,000;
5 in early Christian theology, believers held that Christ 55 Wovoka’s Ghost Dance doctrine forbade Indian vio-
would return and establish his kingdom on earth for a lence against whites or other Indians; it also involved the
period of a thousand years. wearing of “ghost shirts,” which supposedly rendered the
wearers invulnerable to the white man’s bullets. In 1890,
Millenialist movements, Christian and non-Christian, when the Ghost Dance spread to the Sioux Indians, both
have arisen at various points throughout history, usually in 60 the ghost shirts and the movement itself were put to the
10 times of great crisis or social upheaval. In “nativistic” mil- test. Violent resistance to white domination had all but
lenialist movements, a people threatened with cultural dis- ended among the Sioux by the late 1880s, when govern-
integration attempts to earn its salvation by rejecting ment-ordered reductions in the size of their reservations
foreign customs and values and returning to the “old infuriated the Sioux, and made them particularly respon-
ways.” One such movement involving the Ghost Dance 65 sive to the millenialist message of the Ghost Dance. As the
15 cults, named after the ceremonial dance which cult mem- Sioux organized themselves in the cult of the dance, an
bers performed in hope of salvation, flourished in the late alarmed federal government resorted to armed intervention
19th century among Indians of the western United States. which ultimately led to the massacre of some 200 Sioux
men, women and children at Wounded Knee, South
By the middle of the 19th century, western expansion 70 Dakota in December of 1890. The ghost shirts had been
and settlement by whites was seriously threatening Native worn to no avail, and Wounded Knee marked the end of
20 American cultures. Mining, agriculture and ranching the second Ghost Dance cult.
encroached on and destroyed many Indian land and food
sources. Indian resistance led to a series of wars and mas-
sacres, culminating in the U.S. Government’s policy of
resettlement of Indians onto reservations which constituted
25 a fraction of their former territorial base. Under these dire
circumstances, a series of millenialist movements began
among western tribes.
111. The passage implies that the second Ghost Dance
The first Ghost Dance cult arose in western Nevada cult gained widespread popularity quickly because:
around 1870. A Native American prophet named Wodzi-
A. the U.S. government no longer attempted to
30 wob, a member of a Northern Paiute tribe, received the
suppress Native American religious practices.
revelation of an imminent apocalypse which would
destroy the white man, restore all dead Indians to life, and B. many Native Americans felt particularly threat-
return to the Indians their lands, food supplies (such as the ened by white civilization.
vanishing buffalo), and old way of life. The apocalypse C. Wovoka was a more charismatic religious leader
35 was to be brought about with the help of a ceremonial than Wodziwob had been.
dance and songs, and by strict adherence to a moral code D. it was founded on the basis of a spiritual reve-
which, oddly enough, strongly resembled Christian teach- lation.
ing. In the early 1870s, Wodziwob’s Ghost Dance cult
spread to several tribes in California and Oregon, but soon
40 died out or was absorbed into other cults. 112. The passage implies that a paradoxical element of the
Ghost Dance cults was their:
A second Ghost Dance cult, founded in January 1889,
A. organized resistance to cultural change.
evolved as the result of a similar revelation. This time
Wovoka—another Northern Paiute Indian, whose father B. mixture of anti-white sentiment and Christian
had been a disciple of Wodziwob—received a vision dur- morality.
45 ing a solar eclipse in which he died, spoke to God, and was C. belief in the ability of “ghost shirts” to protect
assigned the task of teaching the dance and them in combat.
the millennial message. With white civilization having D. combination of millenialist message and desire
pushed western tribes ever closer to the brink of cultural to revive the “old ways.”
38
113. All of the following characteristics are described in 116. Which of the following tribes would probably NOT
the passage as common to all millenialist movements have taken part in the Ghost Dance cults?
EXCEPT:
A. The Potawatomi of Illinois
A. the desire for salvation. B. The Eastern Shoshoni of Wyoming
B. the belief in imminent apocalypse. C. The Pawnee of Nebraska
C. attempts to preserve cultural integrity. D. The Southern Arapaho of Oklahoma
D. adherence to Christian doctrines.
117. The author answers all of the following questions

114. According to the passage, white encroachment on EXCEPT:
Native American tribes involved all of the following
A. What was the magical property attributed to the
EXCEPT:
“ghost shirts”?
A. forced resettlement of Indians. B. Was there any connection between the prophets
B. Western migration by whites. of the two Ghost Dance cults?
C. justifications based on spiritual revelations. C. What distinguishes “nativistic” millenialist
D. depletion of Indian food sources. movements from other millenialist movements?
D. What caused the first Ghost Dance cult to die out?
115. Which of the following was NOT part of the spiritual

revelation described in the fourth paragraph of the
passage?
A. Unity among all Indian tribes
B. Restoration of traditional Indian ways
C. Resurrection of the dead
D. Return of the buffalo

39
Passage VII (Questions 118–124) influenced by pheromones, which are odors that induce
50 psychological or behavioral changes and often provide a
Our sense of smell is arguably the most powerful of means of communicating within a species. These chemical
our five senses, but it also the most elusive. It plays a vital messages, often a complex blend of compounds, are of
yet mysterious role in our lives. Olfaction is rooted in the vital importance to the insect world. Honeybees, for exam-
same part of the brain that regulates such essential func- ple, organize their societies through odor: the queen bee
5 tions as body metabolism, reaction to stress, and appetite. 55 exudes an odor that both inhibits worker bees from laying
But smell relates to more than physiological function: its eggs and draws drones to her when she is ready to mate.
sensations are intimately tied to memory, emotion, and Mammals are also guided by their sense of smell. Through
sexual desire. Smell seems to lie somewhere beyond the odors emitted by urine and scent glands, many animals
realm of conscious thought, where, intertwined with emo- maintain their territories, identify one another, signal
10 tion and experience, it shapes both our conscious and 60 alarm, and attract mates.
unconscious lives.
Although our olfactory acuity can’t rival that of other
The peculiar intimacy of this sense may be related to animal species, human beings are also guided by smell.
certain anatomical features. Smell reaches the brain more Before the advent of sophisticated laboratory techniques,
directly than do sensations of touch, sight, or sound. When physicians depended on their noses to help diagnose ill-
15 we inhale a particular odor, air containing volatile odifer- 65 ness. A century ago, it was common medical knowledge
ous molecules is warmed and humidified as it flows over that certain bacterial infections carry the musty odor of
specialized bones in the nose called turbinates. As odor wine, that typhoid smells like baking bread, and that yel-
molecules land on the olfactory nerves, these nerves fire a low fever smells like meat. While medical science has
message to the brain. Thus olfactory neurons render a moved away from such subjective diagnostic methods, in
20 direct path between the stimulus provided by the outside 70 everyday life we continue to rely on our sense of small,
environment and the brain, allowing us to rapidly perceive knowingly or not, to guide us.
odors ranging from alluring fragrances to noisome fumes.
Certain scents, such as jasmine, are almost universally

appealing, while others, like hydrogen sulfide (which emits
25 a stench reminiscent of rotten eggs), are usually considered
repellent, but most odors evoke different reactions from per-
son to person, sometimes triggering strong emotional states
or resurrecting seemingly forgotten memories. Scientists
surmise that the reason why we have highly personal asso- 118. According to the passage, the location of the olfac-
30 ciations with smells is related to the proximity of the olfactory and emotional centers of the brain helps explain
tory and emotional centers of our brain. Although the all of the following EXCEPT:
precise connection between emotion and olfaction remains A. why smells can evoke distant memories.
a mystery, it is clear that emotion, memory, and smell are all B. why odors elicit different reactions from person
rooted in a part of the brain called the limbic lobe. to person.
C. why a substantial part of the brain is devoted to
35 Even though we are not always conscious of the pres-
smell.
ence of odors, and are often unable to either articulate or
remember their unique characteristics, our brains always D. which functions are rooted in the limbic lobe.
register their existence. In fact, such a large amount of
human brain tissue is devoted to smell that scientists sur-
40 mise the role of this sense must be profound. Moreover, 119. The author’s central concern in this passage is to:
neurobiological research suggests that smell must have an A. discuss both the physiological and emotional
important function because olfactory neurons can regener- aspects of olfaction.
ate themselves, unlike most other nerve cells. The impor- B. explain why the sense of smell is more impor-
tance of this sense is further supported by the fact that tant than other senses.
45 animals experimentally denied the olfactory sense do not
C. detail the biological mechanisms by which
develop full and normal brain function.
smells trigger long-forgotten memories.
The significance of olfaction is much clearer in ani- D. defend the view that human emotion is rooted in
mals than in human beings. Animal behavior is strongly anatomical processes.
40
120. The passage implies that physicians no longer make 123. It can be inferred from the passage that the emotional
diagnoses based on odors because: element of human olfaction would be better under-
stood through investigation into:
A. the human sense of smell has considerably
diminished over time. A. the components and functions of the limbic
B. the association of odors with disease proved lobe.
largely fictitious. B. how pheromones regulate social behavior and
C. such subjective diagnostic methods were shown organization.
to be useless. C. the composition of certain highly evocative
D. the medical profession today favors more objec- odors.
tive techniques. D. the pathway between outside environment and
olfactory nerves.
121. The sense of smell in animals is different from olfac-

tion in humans in that animals: 124. Which of the following evidence does NOT support
the author’s statement that smell has an important
A. are unable to make associations between smells
physiological function?
and past experience.
B. only use smell to communicate outside their A. Olfaction and metabolic function are located in
own species. the same area of the brain.
C. rely on olfaction only for mating purposes. B. Animals with impaired olfaction frequently
D. more clearly exhibit behavioral changes in exhibit abnormal brain function.
response to odors. C. A considerable amount of human brain tissue is
devoted to olfaction.
D. Human beings with impaired olfaction are usu-
122. The author describes the sense of smell as elusive ally able to behave and function normally.
because:
A. odiferous molecules are extremely volatile.
B. the functions of smell are emotional rather than
physiological.
C. the function and effects of smell are not fully
understood.
D. olfactory sensations are more fleeting than those
of other senses.

41
Passage VIII (Questions 125–131) Played mainly by small combos rather than big bands,
50 bebop was not danceable; it demanded intellectual con-
Bebop lives! cries the newest generation of jazz play- centration. Soon, jazz began to lose its hold on the popular
ers. During the 1980s, musicians like Wynton Marsalis audience, which found the new music disconcerting. Com-
revived public interest in bebop, the speedy, angular music pounding public alienation was the fact that bebop seemed
that first bubbled up out of Harlem in the early 1940s, to have arrived on the scene in a completely mature state
5 changing the face of jazz. That Marsalis and others thought 55 of development, without that early phase of experimenta-
of themselves as celebrating and preserving a noble tradition that typifies so many movements in the course of
tion is, in one sense, inevitable. After the excesses of Western music. This was as much the result of an accident
experimental or “free” jazz in the 1960s and the electronic of history as anything else. The early development of
jazz-rock “fusion” of the 70s, it is hardly surprising that bebop occurred during a three-year ban on recording in
10 people should hearken back to a time when jazz was 60 this country made necessary by the petrol and vinyl short-
“purer,” perhaps even at the apex of its development. But ages of World War II. By the time the ban was lifted, and
the recent enthusiasm for bebop is also ironic in light of the the first bebop records were made, the new music seemed
music’s initial public reception. to have sprung fully-formed like Athena from the forehead
of Zeus. And though a small core of enthusiasts would
In its infancy, during the first two decades of the 20th 65 continue to worship bebop pioneers like Charlie Parker
15 century, jazz was played by small groups of musicians and Dizzy Gillespie, many bebop musicians were never
improvising variations on blues tunes and popular songs. able to gain acceptance with any audience and went on to
Most of the musicians were unable to read music, and their lead lives of obscurity and deprivation.
improvisations were fairly rudimentary. Nevertheless, jazz
attained international recognition in the 1920s. Two of the
20 people most responsible for its rise in popularity were
Louis Armstrong, the first great jazz soloist, and Fletcher
Henderson, leader of the first great jazz band. Armstrong,
with his buoyant personality and virtuosic technical skills,
greatly expanded the creative range and importance of the
25 soloist in jazz. Henderson, a pianist with extensive training
in music theory, foresaw the orchestral possibilities of jazz
played by a larger band. He wrote out arrangements of
songs for his band members that preserved the spirit of
jazz, while at the same time giving soloists a more struc-
30 tured musical background upon which to shape their solo 125. According to the passage, which of the following is
improvisations. In the 1930s, jazz moved further into the true about the bebop music of the 1940s?
mainstream with the advent of the Swing Era. Big bands in
A. It followed the tradition of jazz from the 1920s.
the Henderson mold, led by musicians like Benny Good-
man, Count Basie and Duke Ellington, achieved unprece- B. It differed markedly from the music of the
35 dented popularity with jazz-oriented “swing” music that
Swing Era.
was eminently danceable. C. It celebrated the songs of Tin-Pan Alley.
D. It did not require great improvisational skill.
Against this musical backdrop, bebop arrived on the
scene. Like other modernist movements in art and litera-
ture, bebop music represented a departure from tradition in 126. According to the passage, which of the following is
40 both form and content, and was met with initial hostility. true about the jazz of the 1920s?
Bebop tempos were unusually fast, with the soloist often
A. It resembled the jazz played during the first two
playing at double time to the backing musicians. The
decades of the century.
rhythms were tricky and complex, the melodies intricate
and frequently dissonant, involving chord changes and B. It placed greater demands on the improvisatory
45 notes not previously heard in jazz. Before bebop, jazz
skills of its soloists.
players had improvised on popular songs such as those C. Its fast tempos foreshadowed those of bebop in
produced by Tin-Pan Alley, but bebop tunes were often the 1940s.
originals with which jazz audiences were unfamiliar. D. It was primarily dance music.

42
127. Based on the information in the passage comparing 130. The author suggests that bebop seemed to represent a
bebop to other movements in the history of Western radical departure from earlier jazz in that it:
music, it is reasonable to conclude that:
A. grew to maturity before reaching a wide audience.
I. most movements in music history passed B. attracted primarily a youthful audience.
through a stage of experimentation before C. dispensed with written arrangements of songs.
reaching mature expression.
D. expressed the alienation of the musicians who
II. World War II prevented bebop from reach- played it.
ing a more appreciative audience.
III. bebop did not go through a developmental
stage before reaching mature expression 131. The author mentions Wynton Marsalis and Charlie
A. I only Parker as:
B. III only A. pioneers of jazz-rock “fusion.”
C. I and II only B. architects of the bebop movement.
D. II and III only C. Swing Era musicians hostile to bebop.
D. bebop musicians of different eras.
128. It can be inferred from the passage that the innova-
tions of Fletcher Henderson (lines 27-34) were
inspired primarily by:
A. his admiration for Louis Armstrong.
B. a hunger for international recognition.
C. the realization that the public favored large
bands over small combos.
D. a desire to go beyond the structural limitations
of early jazz music.
129. According to the passage, all of the following are

characteristic of bebop music EXCEPT:
A. eminently danceable tunes.
B. dissonant melodies.
C. complex rhythms.
D. intellectual complexity.

43
Passage IX (Questions 132–137)
Studies of photosynthesis began in the late eighteenth

century. One scientist found that green plants produce a
substance (later shown to be oxygen) that supports the
5 flame of a candle in a closed container. Several years later
it was discovered that a plant must be exposed to light in
order to replenish this flame-sustaining “substance.” Soon
another discovery showed that the oxygen is formed at the
expense of another gas, carbon dioxide.
10 In 1804, de Saussure conducted experiments revealing

that equal volumes of carbon dioxide and oxygen are
exchanged between a plant and the air surrounding it. De
Saussure determined that the weight gained by a plant grown
in a pot equals the sum of the weights of carbon derived from
15 absorbed carbon dioxide and water absorbed through plant
roots. Using this information, de Saussure was able to postu-
late that in photosynthesis carbon dioxide and water combine
using energy in the form of light to produce carbohydrates,
water, and free oxygen. Much later, in 1845, scientists’
20 increased understanding of concepts of chemical energy led
them to perceive that, through photosynthesis, light energy is
transformed and stored as chemical energy.
In the twentieth century, studies comparing photosyn-

thesis in green plants and in certain sulfur bacteria yielded
25 important information about the photosynthetic process.
Because water is both a reactant and a product in the cen-
tral reaction, it had long been assumed that the oxygen
released by photosynthesis comes from splitting the car- 132. Which of the following can be inferred about the sci-
bon dioxide molecule. In the 1930s, however, this popular entists discussed in the passage?
30 view was decisively altered by the studies of C. B. Van
A. They relied on abstract reasoning in the absence
Niel. Van Niel studied sulfur bacteria, which use hydrogen
of physical data.
sulfide for photosynthesis in the same way that green
plants use water, and produce sulfur instead of oxygen. B. They never came to understand the role of light
Van Niel saw that the use of carbon dioxide to form car- in photosynthesis.
35 bohydrates was similar in the two types of organisms. He C. Each contributed to our understanding of the
reasoned that the oxygen produced by green plants must production of oxygen by plants.
derive from water—rather than carbon dioxide, as previ- D. They tended to undervalue previous scientific
ously assumed—in the same way that the sulfur produced findings.
by the bacteria derives from hydrogen sulfide. Van Niel’s
40 finding was important because the earlier belief had been
that oxygen was split off from carbon dioxide, and that 133. According to the passage, C. B. Van Niel’s experi-
carbon then combined with water to form carbohydrates. ments:
The new postulate was that, with green plants, hydrogen is
A. provided the first model of photosynthesis.
removed from water and then combines with carbon diox-
45 ide to form the carbohydrates needed by the organism. B. showed that the carbon dioxide molecule is split
during photosynthesis.
Later, Van Niel’s assertions were strongly backed by C. proved that some organisms combine hydrogen
scientists who used water marked with a radioactive sulfide with carbon dioxide in photosynthesis.
isotope of oxygen in order to follow photosynthetic reac- D. provided evidence that weakened the accepted
tions. When the photosynthetically-produced free oxygen model of photosynthesis.
50 was analyzed, the isotope was found to be present.
44
134. According to the passage, the study of organisms that 137. It can be inferred from the passage that, in evaluating
require hydrogen sulfide for photosynthesis: Van Niel’s hypothesis about the role of water in pho-
tosynthesis, scientists were:
A. proved that oxygen is not produced in photo-
synthesis. A. willing to overlook minor inconsistencies in Van
B. contradicted the notion that oxygen is needed to Niel’s account.
support a candle’s flame. B. biased in favor of an older, more established
C. disproved assumptions about the role of light explanation.
energy in photosynthesis. C. brought to reluctant agreement after repeated
D. clarified the role of water in photosynthesis tests.
among green plants. D. thoroughly convinced after conducting an inde-
pendent experiment.
135. Which of the following statements about photosyn-

thesis would most probably NOT have been made by
de Saussure? STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
A. It involves an exchange of equal quantities of
gases.
B. It results in the conversion of light energy to
chemical energy.
C. It produces oxygen.
D. It requires light.
136. The passage supplies information for answering all

of the following questions EXCEPT:
A. Why is oxygen necessary for a candle to burn?
B. What was de Saussure’s explanation of the
function of water in photosynthesis?
C. What is the function of light in photosynthesis?
D. Is water required for all photosynthetic reac-
tions?
45
Writing Sample
Time: 60 Minutes
2 Items, Separately Timed:
30 Minutes Each

WRITING SAMPLE
DIRECTIONS: This section is a test of your writing skills. The

section contains two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete
each part.
Your responses to the prompts given in the Writing Sample will

be written in the ANSWER DOCUMENT. Your response to Part 1
must be written only on the answer sheets marked “1,” and your
response to Part 2 must be written only on the answer sheets
marked “2.” You may work only on Part 1 during the first 30 min-
utes of the test and only on Part 2 during the second 30 minutes.
If you finish writing on Part 1 before the time is up, you may
review your work on that part, but do not begin writing on Part 2.
If you finish writing on Part 2 before the time is up, you may
review your work only on Part 2.
Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing a response,

read the assignment carefully and make sure you understand
exactly what you are being asked to do. You may use the space
below each writing assignment to make notes in planning your
responses.
Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to each

part should be an essay composed of complete sentences and
paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you can
make it in the allotted time. You may make corrections or addi-
tions neatly between the lines of your responses, but do not write
in the margins of the answer booklet.
There are six pages in your answer booklet to write your

responses, three pages for each part of the test. You are not
required to use all of the pages, but to be sure that you have
enough space for each essay, do not skip lines.
Essays that are illegible cannot be scored. In addition, essays

that are not written in English will not be scored.

48
Part 1
Consider the following statement:
It is each citizen's duty to obey the laws of the nation.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a citizen might not have a duty to obey a law.
Discuss what you think determines when citizens have a duty to obey the laws of the nation and when
they do not.

49
Part 2
Consider the following statement:
Heroes are ordinary people made heroic by circumstance.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which someone might be heroic because of something
other than circumstance. Discuss what you think determines when heroism is dependent on circumstance
and when it is not.

50
Biological Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes
Questions 138–214

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the following
test are organized into groups, with a descriptive pas-
sage preceding each group of questions. Study the
passage, then select the single best answer to each
question in the group. Some of the questions are not
based on a descriptive passage; you must also select
the best answer to these questions. If you are unsure
of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you
know are incorrect, then select an answer from the
choices that remain. Indicate your selection by black-
ening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet.
A periodic table is provided below for your use with the
questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
1 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La * Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac † Rf Ha Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) 226.0 227.0 (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)

52
Passage I (Questions 138–144) 138. The llama is a warm-blooded mammal that lives in
regions of unusually high altitudes, and has evolved
Hemoglobin (Hb) and myoglobin (Mb) are the O2- car- a type of Hb that adapts it to such an existence. If
rying proteins in vertebrates. Hb, which is contained Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for
within red blood cells, serves as the O2 carrier in blood and horse Hb, which curve would most closely resemble
also plays a vital role in the transport of CO2 and H+. Ver- the curve for llama Hb?
tebrate Hb consists of four polypeptides (subunits) each
A. Curve A
with a heme group. The four chains are held together by
noncovalent attractions. The affinity of Hb for O2 varies B. Curve B
between species and within species depending on such fac- C. Curve C
tors as blood pH, stage of development, and body size. For D. Curve D
example, small mammals give up O2 more readily than
large mammals because small mammals have a higher
metabolic rate and require more O2 per gram of tissue. 139. If Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for
elephant Hb, which curve most closely resembles the
The binding of O2 to Hb is also dependent on the coop- curve for mouse Hb?
erativity of the Hb subunits. That is, binding at one heme
A. Curve A
facilitates the binding of O2 at the other hemes within the
Hb molecule by altering the conformation of the entire B. Curve B
molecule. This conformational change makes subsequent C. Curve C
binding of O2 more energetically favorable. Conversely, D. Curve D
the unloading of O2 at one heme facilitates the unloading
of O2 at the others by a similar mechanism.
140. If Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for
Figure 1 depicts the O2-dissociation curves of Hb human adult Hb, which of the following best
(Curves A, B, and C) and myoglobin (Curve D), where sat- explains why Curve A most closely resembles the
uration, Y, is the fractional occupancy of the O2-binding curve for fetal Hb?
sites.
A. Fetal tissue has a higher metabolic rate than
adult tissue.
The fraction of O2 that is transferred from Hb as the
blood passes through the tissue capillaries is called the uti- B. Fetal tissue has a lower metabolic rate than adult
lization coefficient. A normal value is approximately 0.25. tissue.
C. Fetal Hb has a higher affinity for O2 than adult
Hb.
D. Fetal Hb has a lower affinity for O2 than adult
Hb.
Figure 1
Myoglobin facilitates O2 transport in muscle and
serves as a reserve store of O2. Mb is a single polypeptide
chain containing a heme group, with a molecular weight of
18 kd. As can be seen in Figure 1, Mb (Curve D) has a
greater affinity for O2 than Hb.

53
141. The sigmoidal shape of the O2-dissociation curve of 144. In sperm whales, the Mb content of muscle is about
Hb is due to: 0.004 moles/kg of muscle. If a sperm whale has 1000
kg of muscle, approximately how much O2 is bound
A. the effects of oxidation and reduction on the
to Mb, assuming that the Mb is saturated with O2?
heme groups within the Hb molecule.
B. the concentration of carbon dioxide in the A. 4 moles
blood. B. 8 moles
C. the fact that Hb has a lower affinity for O2 than C. 12 moles
Mb. D. 16 moles
D. the cooperativity in binding among the subunits
of the Hb molecule.
142. A sample of human adult Hb is placed in an 8 M urea

solution, resulting in the disruption of noncovalent
interactions. After this procedure, the α chains of Hb
are isolated. Which of the four curves most closely
resembles the O2-dissociation curve for the isolated
α chains? [Note: Assume that Curve B represents the
O2-dissociation curve for human adult Hb in vivo.]
A. Curve A
B. Curve B
C. Curve C
D. Curve D
143. The utilization coefficient is continually being

adjusted in response to physiological changes. Which
of the following values most likely represents the
utilization coefficient for human adult Hb during
strenuous exercise?
A. 0.0
B. 0.125
C. 0.25
D. 0.75

54
Passage II (Questions 145–151) 145. An elevated and potentially toxic level of ammonia
in the blood (hyperammonemia) would most likely
Just as the ingestion of nutrients is mandatory for result from a defect in an enzyme involved in:
human life, so is the excretion of metabolic waste prod-
A. glycolysis.
ucts. One of these nutrients, protein, is used for building
muscle, nucleic acids, and countless compounds integral to B. fatty acid catabolism.
homeostasis. However, the catabolism of the amino acids C. the urea cycle.
generated from protein digestion produces ammonia, D. nucleic acid degradation.
which, if not further degraded, can become toxic. Simi-
larly, if the same salts that provide energy and chemical
balance to cells are in excess, fluid retention will occur, 146. According to the passage, the catabolism of amino
damaging the circulatory, cardiac, and pulmonary systems. acids produces ammonia. Therefore, after a protein-
rich meal, would you expect a build-up of ammonia
One of the most important homeostatic organs is the in the lumen of the small intestine?
kidney, which closely regulates the excretion and reab-
A. Yes, because the ammonia will not be able to
sorption of many essential ions and molecules. One mech-
diffuse into the intestinal epithelium.
anism of renal function involves the secretion of
antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B. Yes, because the rate at which digestive
enzymes degrade ammonia is slower than the
Diabetes insipidus (DI), is the condition that occurs rate at which ammonia is produced.
when ADH is ineffective. As a result, the kidneys are C. No, because the ammonia will diffuse into the
unable to concentrate urine, leading to excessive water intestinal epithelium and will be excreted by the
loss. There are two types of DI—central and nephrogenic. kidneys.
Central DI occurs when there is a deficiency in the quan- D. No, because the ammonia is produced inside
tity or quality of ADH produced. Nephrogenic DI occurs individual cells, not within the lumen of the
when the kidney tubules are unresponsive to ADH. To dif- small intestine.
ferentiate between these two conditions, a patient’s urine
osmolarity is measured both prior to therapy and after a
24-hour restriction on fluid intake. Exogenous ADH is 147. Which of the following substances would NOT be
then administered and urine osmolarity is measured again. found in appreciable quantity in the urine of a healthy
The table below gives the results of testing on four individual?
patients. Assume that a urine osmolarity of 285 mOsm/L of
A. Albumin
H2O is normal.
B. Sodium
C. Urea
Table 1 Urine Osmolarity (mOsm/L of H2O)
D. Potassium
Patient Before Therapy After fluid After ADH
restriction
A 285 765 765
B 180 765 765
C 180 180 400
D 180 180 180

55
148. Which of the following would you most likely expect 151. What is the most likely cause of Patient B’s dilute
to find in a patient with diabetes insipidus? urine before therapy?
A. Decreased plasma osmolarity A. Excessive water intake
B. Increased urine osmolarity B. Dehydration
C. Increased urine glucose C. Nephrogenic DI
D. Increased urine output D. Central DI
149. Based on the data in Table 1, which of the four

patients most likely has central diabetes insipidus?
A. Patient A
B. Patient B
C. Patient C
D. Patient D
150. Based on the data in Table 1, which of the four

patients most likely has nephrogenic diabetes
insipidus?
A. Patient A
B. Patient B
C. Patient C
D. Patient D

56
Passage III (Questions 152–158) 152. The electrons that give color to a carotene molecule
are found in:
Electromagnetic radiation from space constantly bom-
A. s orbitals.
bards the earth. Most wavelengths are absorbed by the
atmosphere; however, there are two “windows” of nonab- B. π orbitals.
sorption through which significant amounts of radiation C. d orbitals.
reach the ground. The first transmits ultraviolet and visible D. f orbitals.
light, as well as infrared light or heat; the second transmits
radio waves. As a result, terrestrial organisms have
evolved a number of pigments that interact with light in 153. Two pigments are identical except for the lengths of
various ways: some capture light energy, some provide their conjugated polyene chains. The first transmits
protection from light-induced damage, and some serve yellow light and the second red. What can be said
camouflage or signaling purposes. about the sizes of the chromophores?
A. The first is longer.
Among these compounds are many conjugated
polyenes, which play important roles as photoreceptors. B. The second is longer.
For every chemical compound, there are certain wave- C. One of the chromophores must be a dimer.
lengths of light whose quanta possess exactly the correct D. The comparative lengths cannot be determined.
amount of energy to raise electrons from their ground state
to higher-energy orbitals. For most organic compounds,
these wavelengths are in the UV range. However, conju- 154. Why is benzene colorless?
gated double bond systems stabilize the electrons, so that
A. The absorption energy is of too high a frequency
they can be excited by lower-frequency photons with
to be visible.
wavelengths in the visible spectrum. Such a pigment,
known as a chromophore, will then transmit the “subtrac- B. The absorption energy is of too low a frequency
tion color,” a color complementary to the one absorbed. to be visible.
For instance, carotene, a hydrocarbon compound with C. Benzene does not absorb light.
eleven conjugated double bonds, absorbs blue light and D. Benzene is not conjugated.
transmits orange. The wavelength that is absorbed gener-
ally increases with the number of conjugated bonds; rings
and side-chains also affect wavelength.
Wavelength Color Subtraction Color

480 nm blue orange
580 nm yellow violet
680 nm red green
Among the many biological molecules that are

affected by light is DNA, the genetic material of living
organisms. DNA absorbs ultraviolet light, and may be
damaged by UVC (< 280 nm) and UVB (280-315 nm).
UVA (315-400 nm) and visible light can actually repair
light-induced damage to DNA by a process called pho-
torepair. For this reason UVA, which also stimulates tan-
ning, was once considered beneficial. However, there is
now increasing evidence that UVA can damage skin.

57
155. Many crustaceans produce a blue or green carotene- 156. The four compounds represented by the electronic
protein complex. What is the most likely cause of the spectra below were evaluated as potential sun-
color change from green to orange when a lobster is screens. What is the correct sequence of sunscreen
boiled? strength, from strongest to weakest, among these
four?
A. Heat causes the prosthetic group to become par-
tially hydrated.
B. The increase in temperature permits the pros-
thetic group to absorb shorter wavelengths.
C. The protein is separated from the carotenoid
pigment.
D. Heat causes the prosthetic group to become
oxidized.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. IV, III, II, I
C. III, II, I, IV
D. IV, I, II, III

58
157. Which of the following compounds would be most

likely to produce color? Questions 159 through 163 are NOT based
on a descriptive passage.
159. An increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and blood

A. glucose concentration are all associated with stimula-
tion of the:
A. parasympathetic nervous system.
B. sympathetic nervous system.
C. somatic nervous system.
D. digestive system.
B. 160. Which of the following compounds share the same

absolute configuration?
NH2 I. III.
COOH COOH
O
H OH I C2H5
O
C. CH3 CH2CH3
Cl Cl
II. IV.
H OH
H3C COOH HOOC CH3
NH2 H
D. OH OH
A. I and III
158. The color-producing quality of conjugated polyenes B. II and IV
is attributable to: C. I and II
D. II, III, and IV
A. antibonding orbitals.
B. resonance.
C. polarity. 161. Which of the following structures plays a role in both
D. optical activity. the male excretory and male reproductive systems,
but in the female excretory system only?
A. Epididymis
B. Prostate
C. Urethra
D. Ureter

59
162. The reaction R—Br + Br*– → R—Br* + Br– is

always accompanied by inversion. If this reaction is
carried out on an optically pure sample of a chiral
compound, which of the following statements will be
true? [Note: Br* represents a radioactive isotope of
bromine.]
A. The rate of Br* incorporation is half the rate of
racemization.
B. The rate of Br* incorporation is equal to the rate
of racemization.
C. The rate of Br* incorporation is twice the rate of
racemization.
D. The relation between the rate of Br* incorpora-
tion and the rate of racemization cannot be
determined.
163. Which of the following cell types does NOT contain

the diploid number of chromosomes?
A. Spermatogonium
B. Spermatid
C. Zygote
D. Primary oocyte

60
Passage IV (Questions 164–168) 164. According to Figure 1, which of the following

assumptions about the P1 generation must be true?
Hemophilia is a genetically inherited disease that
A. Albert did not have the gene for hemophilia.
causes the synthesis of an abnormal clotting factor. As a
result, hemophiliacs bleed excessively from the slightest B. Queen Victoria had two X chromosomes, each
injury. The figure below is a partial pedigree for the with the gene for hemophilia.
hemophilia trait in Queen Victoria’s descendants. The C. Neither Albert nor Queen Victorian had the gene
pedigree indicates no history of hemophilia for either parent for hemophilia.
prior to the F1 generation. D. Albert was a carrier of the hemophilia gene.
165. Which of the following best explains why Louis IV

was NOT a hemophiliac?
A. His son Frederick was a hemophiliac.
B. He did not inherit the gene for hemophilia from
his mother.
C. His father-in-law, Albert, was not a hemophiliac.
D. Only females can be carriers of the gene for
hemophilia.
166. If Beatrice had married a hemophiliac and had a son,

what is the probability that the son would have been
a hemophiliac?
A. 0%
B. 25%
Figure 1 C. 50%
D. 100%

61
167. Theoretically, what percentage of Victoria Eugenia’s

sons should have been hemophiliacs?
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 75%
168. Based on the pedigree, what is the most reasonable

explanation for Rupert’s hemophilia?
A. A mutation occurred on the Y chromosome that
he inherited from his father.
B. His mother was a hemophiliac and transmitted
the gene to him.
C. His father was a carrier of the gene for
hemophilia.
D. His maternal grandfather was a hemophiliac.

62
Passage V (Questions 169–175) 169. In which of the following phases of the cell cycle
could mitochondrial DNA replicate?
Aerobic respiration is the major process used by oxy-
I. G1
gen-requiring organisms to generate energy. During respi-
ration, glucose is metabolized to generate chemical energy II. S
in the form of ATP: III. G2
IV. M
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + 36ATP A. IV only
B. I and III only
The biochemical machinery necessary for cellular res-
C. II and IV only
piration is found in the mitochondria, small organelles
scattered throughout the cytoplasm of most eukaryotic D. I, II, III, and IV
cells. The number of mitochondria per cell varies by tissue
type and cell function.
170. Scientists have demonstrated that human mitochon-
Mitochondria are unusual in that they have their own drial DNA mutates at a fairly slow rate. Because
genetic systems that are entirely separate from the cell’s mitochondria play such an important role in the cell,
genetic material. However, mitochondrial replication is these mutations are most likely to be:
still dependent upon the cell’s nuclear DNA to encode A. point mutations.
essential proteins required for replication. Despite this B. frameshift mutations.
fact, mitochondria seem to replicate randomly, out of
C. lethal mutations.
phase with both the cell cycle and other mitochondria.
D. nondisjunctions.
The nature of the mitochondrial genome and protein-
synthesizing machinery has led many researchers to postu-
late that mitochondria may have arisen as the result of the 171. Which of the following mitochondrial genome char-
ingestion of a bacterium by a primitive cell millions of acteristics differs most from the characteristics of the
years ago. It is postulated that the two may have entered nuclear genome?
into a symbiotic relationship and eventually became A. Mitochondrial DNA is a double-helix.
dependent on each another; the cell sustained the bac- B. Some mitochondrial genes code for tRNA.
terium, while the bacterium provided energy for the cell.
C. Specific mutations to mitochondrial DNA can
Gradually, the two evolved into the present-day eukaryotic
be lethal to the organism.
cell, with the mitochondrion retaining some of its own
DNA. This is known as the endosymbiotic hypothesis. D. Almost every base in mitochondrial DNA codes
Because mitochondrial DNA is inherited in a non- for a product.
Mendelian fashion (mitochondria are inherited from the
maternal parent, who supplies most of the cytoplasm to the
fertilized egg), it has been used to look at evolutionary
relationships among different organisms.

63
172. What is the net number of ATP molecules synthe- 175. Which of the following pieces of evidence would
sized by an obligate anaerobe per molecule of glu- NOT support the hypothesis that mitochondria were
cose? once independent bacteria that eventually formed a
symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic cells?
A. 2 ATP
B. 6 ATP A. Mitochondrial DNA is circular and not enclosed
C. 8 ATP by a nuclear membrane.
D. 36 ATP B. Mitochondrial ribosomes more closely resemble
eukaryotic ribosomes than prokaryotic ribo-
somes.
173. A mating type of a wild-type strain of the algae C. C. Many present-day bacteria live within eukary-
reinhardii is crossed with the opposite mating type of otic cells, digesting nutrients that their hosts
a mutant strain of the algae, which has lost all mito- cannot and sharing the energy thus derived.
chondrial functions due to deletions in their mito- D. Mitochondrial DNA codes for its own riboso-
chondrial genome. All of the offspring from this mal RNA.
cross also lack mitochondrial functions. Based on
information in the passage, this can best be explained
by the:
A. endosymbiotic hypothesis.
B. non-Mendelian inheritance of mitochondrial
DNA.
C. recombination of mitochondrial DNA during
organelle replication.
D. presence of genetic material in the mitochondria
that is distinct from nuclear DNA.
174. Four different human cell cultures—erythrocytes,

epidermal cells, skeletal muscle cells, and intestinal
cells—were grown in a medium containing radioac-
tive adenine. After 10 days, the mitochondria were
isolated via centrifugation, and their level of radioac-
tivity was measured using a liquid scintillation
counter. Which of the following cells would be
expected to have the greatest number of counts per
minute of radioactive decay?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Epidermal cells
C. Skeletal muscle cells
D. Intestinal cells

64
Passage VI (Questions 176–181) 176. Assuming that only the forward reaction occurs,
which of the following statements is correct?
The mechanism for the acid-catalyzed esterification of
A. The ester will contain labeled oxygen, while the
a carboxylic acid, carried out with R'OH, is shown below.
water fraction will not.
The tagged alcohol R'18OH is used to study the reaction
mechanism. The resulting ester is separated from the reac- B. The water fraction will contain labeled oxygen,
tion mixture; the water from the reaction mixture is then while the ester will not.
distilled off completely and collected as a separate fraction. C. Both the water fraction and the ester will con-
tain labeled oxygen.
O D. The location of the labeled oxygen cannot be
determined.
R OH
177. The rate of the reaction is negligible without the acid
H+ catalyst. The catalyst:
A. attacks the carbonyl oxygen, permitting the nucle-
O H ophilic group to attack the carbonyl carbon.
B. attacks the carbonyl carbon, permitting the nucle-
R OH ophilic group to attack the carbonyl oxygen.
C. attacks the carbonyl oxygen, permitting the elec-
R'OH trophilic group to attack the carbonyl carbon.
D. attacks the carbonyl carbon, permitting the elec-
OH trophilic group to attack the carbonyl oxygen.
R OH
178. Esterification may also occur between parts of the
R' O H same molecule. Which of the following compounds
would most easily undergo internal esterification to
form a cyclic ester?
A. COOHCH2CH2OH
OH B. COOHCH2CH2CH2OH
C. COOHCH2CH2CH2CH2OH
R OH2
D. COOHCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
R' O
− H2O
OH
R OR'
− H+
R OR'

65
179. Which of the following carboxylic acids will be most

acidic?
A. CH3CH2COOH
B. ClCH2CH2COOH
C. ClCH2CH2CH2COOH
D. Cl2CHCH2COOH
180. Another method for forming esters is:
RCOO– + RX → RCOOR’ + X–
Why does this reaction occur?

A. The halide is a poor leaving group.
B. The halide acts as a good nucleophile.
C. The halide is an electron-donating group.
D. The carboxylate anion is highly nucleophilic.
181. Which of the following alkyl halides would be most

likely to react with sodium butanoate
(CH3CH2CH2COO–Na+) to form an ester?
A. CH3CH2CH2Cl
B. CH3Cl
C. (CH3)2CHCl
D. CH3CH2Cl

66
Passage VII (Questions 182–189) 182. In a paternity case, the mother has type A+ blood and
her son has type O– blood. If the husband has type B+
Four major blood types exist in the human ABO blood blood, which of the following is true?
system: types A, B, AB, and O; and there are three alleles
that code for them. The A and B alleles are codominant, A. The husband could be the father.
and the O allele is recessive. Blood types are derived from B. The husband could not be the father.
the presence of specific polysaccharide antigens that lie on C. The husband could not be the father of an O–
the outer surface of the red blood cell membrane. The A son, but could be the father of an O– daughter.
allele codes for the production of the A antigen; the B D. The husband is definitely the father.
allele codes for the production of the B antigen; the O
allele does not code for any antigen.
183. A couple decide to have a child. If the father’s geno-
While there are many other antigens found on red type is AO and the mother has type B blood of
blood cell membranes, the second most important antigen unknown genotype, which of the following are pos-
is the Rh antigen. Rh is an autosomally dominant trait sible blood types for their child?
coded for by 2 alleles. If this antigen is present, an indi-
vidual is Rh+; if it is absent, an individual is Rh–. For I. A
example, a person with type AB blood with the Rh antigen II. B
is said to be AB+. III. AB
IV. O
These antigens become most important when an indi- A. I and II only
vidual comes into contact with foreign blood. Because of
B. I, II, and III only
the presence of naturally occurring substances that closely
mimic the A and B antigens, individuals who do not have C. I, II, and IV only
these antigens on their red blood cells will form antibodies D. I, II, III, and IV
against them. This is inconsequential until situations such
as blood transfusion, organ transplant, or pregnancy occur.
184. A new virus has been discovered that evades detec-
Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition in which the red tion by the immune system of only those individuals
blood cells of an Rh+ fetus are attached by antibodies pro- with type A or type AB blood. Which of the follow-
duced by its Rh– mother. Unlike ABO incompatibility, in ing best accounts for this observation?
which there are naturally occurring antibodies to foreign A. The viral antigens resemble the A antigen.
antigens, the Rh system requires prior sensitization to the
B. The viral antigens resemble the B antigen.
Rh antigen before antibodies are produced. This sensitiza-
tion usually occurs during the delivery of an Rh+ baby. So C. The viral antigens are Rh+.
while the first baby will not be harmed, any further Rh+ D. The viral antigens are too small to elicit an
fetuses are at risk. immune response.
The Coombs tests provide a method for determining

whether a mother has mounted an immune response again
her baby’s blood. The tests are based on whether or not
agglutination occurs when Coombs reagent is added to a
sample. Coombs reagent contains antibodies against the
anti-Rh antibodies produced by the mother. The indirect
Coombs test takes the mother’s serum, which contains her
antibodies but no red blood cells, and mixes it with Rh+
red blood cells. Coombs reagent is then added. If aggluti-
nation occurs, the test is positive, and the mother must be
producing anti-Rh antibodies. The direct Coombs test
mixes the baby’s red blood cells with Coombs reagent. If
agglutination occurs, the test is positive, and the baby’s red
blood cells must have been attacked by its mother’s anti-
Rh antibodies.

67
185. If a man with type AB blood needed a transfusion of 188. A woman who has never been pregnant has type B–
red blood cells, which of the following individuals blood. Which of the following antibodies would you
could safely donate blood? expect to find in her serum?
A. A man with type A blood A. Anti-B antibody
B. A man with the genotype BO B. Anti-A antibody
C. A woman with the genotype AB C. Anti-Rh antibody
D. All four blood types are equally safe D. Both anti-A and anti-Rh antibodies
186. How might one most practically assess the risk of 189. A medical student suggested giving Rh– mothers of
erythroblastosis fetalis in a pregnant woman? Rh+ fetuses a specific exogenous substance prior to
A. Test all women for the presence of anti-Rh anti- delivery to prevent an immune response. Which of
bodies. the following substances would likely be the safest
and most effective?
B. Test all fetuses for the presence of the Rh anti-
gen within the first trimester of pregnancy. A. Rh antigen
C. Test only Rh– mothers for the presence of anti- B. An immunosuppressive drug
Rh antibodies. C. Anti-Rh antibody
D. Test all mothers of Rh+ children for the presence D. Iron pills
of anti-Rh antibodies.
187. Based on information in the passage, what does the

reaction below represent?
A. Negative direct Coombs test

B. Positive direct Coombs test
C. Positive indirect Coombs test
D. Negative indirect Coombs test

68
193. Which of the following products may be formed in

Questions 190 through 194 are NOT based the reaction below?
O
190. A certain chemical is found to inhibit the synthesis of
all steroids. The synthesis of which of the following H2O
hormones would NOT be affected when a dose of O H3O+
this chemical is administered to a laboratory rat?
A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone
A. CH3CH=CHCHO
C. Epinephrine
B. HOOCCH2CH(CH3)2
D. Testosterone
C. CH3CH(CH3)2
D. HOCH2CH(CH3)2
191. A biochemist grows two cultures of yeast—one aer-
obically and the other anaerobically—and measures
the amount of ATP produced by each culture. He 194. Which of the following statements is supported by
finds that the aerobically-grown yeast produce about the table below?
18 times as much ATP as the anaerobically-grown Solubility per Melting point
yeast. These observations are consistent with the fact 100g H2O (°C)
that in the aerobically grown yeast:
para-nitrophenol 1.7 114
A. oxygen is converted into ATP. meta-nitrophenol 1.4 97
B. oxygen is necessary to convert glucose into ortho-nitrophenol 0.2 44
pyruvate.
C. oxygen is the final electron acceptor of the res-
piratory chain. A. Ortho-nitrophenol has the greatest intramolecu-
D. oxygen is necessary for the reduction of pyru- lar hydrogen bonding.
vate into lactate. B. Para-nitrophenol has the weakest intermolecu-
lar hydrogen bonding.
C. Meta- and para-nitrophenol form intramolecu-
192. Growth hormone decreases the sensitivity of cellular lar hydrogen bonds.
receptors to insulin. Therefore, a patient with D. Ortho-nitrophenol does not form intermolecular
acromegaly, which is caused by the oversecretion of hydrogen bonds.
growth hormone, would be expected to have:
A. a low blood glucose concentration.
B. a high blood glucose concentration.
C. a decreased urine volume.
D. a decreased cardiac output.

69
Passage VIII (Questions 195–198) 197. Assuming that all of the student’s deductions were
correct, which of the following could be the structure
A student was given a sample of an unknown liquid of the unknown compound?
and asked to determine as much as possible about its struc-
ture. He was told that the compound contained only car- COOH CH2OH
bon, hydrogen, and oxygen, and had only one type of
functional group. The student found its boiling point to be
206°C. Using mass spectroscopy, he determined its molec-
ular weight to be 138 g/mol. Finally, he took the infrared
spectrum of the compound, which is shown below.
A. CH2CH3 C. CH2OH
COOH
OCH3
OCH3
B. D.
198. The student decides to carry out some simple tests on

the compound in order to confirm his identification.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
From this spectrum, the student quickly reached a con-
clusion about the functional group. He then turned his A. He could distinguish between a phenol and a
attention to the fingerprint region of the compound, which benzoic acid by seeing if the unknown can be
generally has a complicated pattern of peaks that are deter- extracted with a weak base.
mined by the structure of the hydrocarbon portion of a B. He could distinguish between a benzyl aldehyde
molecule. The student decided that the large peak at 750 and a benzyl ketone by seeing if the unknown
cm–1 must indicate that this was a disubstituted aromatic will react with cold KMnO4.
compound. C. He could distinguish between a benzyl alcohol
and a phenol by attempting to dissolve the
unknown in an aqueous solution of HCl.
D. He could distinguish between a benzyl alcohol
and a benzoic ester by attempting to dissolve the
195. The correct formula for this compound could be: unknown in an aqueous solution of NaOH.
A. C7H10O3.
B. C8H10O2.
C. C9H13O.
D. C7H21O2.
196. The overlapping set of peaks near 3000 cm–1

includes one peak at 2850 cm–1. What type of func-
tional group could this indicate?
A. Methyl
B. Phenol
C. Carboxyl
D. Aldehyde carbonyl

70
Passage IX (Questions 199–203) 201. Based on the experimental results, what is the geno-
type of the female in Cross 5?
Although individual organisms have only two alleles
A. Bb
for any given trait, it is possible for a trait to have more
than two alleles coding for it. This phenomenon is known B. BB or Bb
as multiple alleles. Multiple alleles are created when a sin- C. BB or Bw
gle gene undergoes several distinct mutations. These alle- D. BB, Bb, or Bw
les may have different dominance relationships with one
another; for example, there are three alleles coding for the
human blood groups, the IA, IB, and i alleles. Both the IA 202. A white male is crossed with the heterozygous red
and IB alleles are dominant to the i allele, but IA and IB are female from Cross 9. What is the expected ratio of
codominant to each other. red to white offspring?
A. 3:1
A multiple-allele system has recently been discovered
in the determination of hair coloring in a species of wild B. 1:3
rat. The rats are found to have one of three colors: brown, C. 1:1
red, or white. Let B = the gene for brown hair; b = the gene D. 2:1
for red hair; and w = the gene for white hair. The results
from nine experimental crosses are shown below. The
males and females in Crosses 1, 2, and 3 are all homozy- 203. If it were discovered that the alleles for red and white
gous for hair color. hair were actually incompletely dominant and pro-
duced a pink hair color in rats with one copy of each
Cross Male Female Offspring allele, what would be the expected phenotypic ratio
1 brown red all brown in a cross between a Bb male and a pink female?
2 brown white all brown A. 2 brown : 1 red : 1 white
3 red white all red B. 2 brown : 1 red : 1 pink
4 brown brown 3 brown : 1 red C. 1 brown : 2 white : 1 pink
5 brown brown all brown D. 1 brown : 1 white
6 red red all red
7 red red 3 red : 1 white
8 brown red 2 brown : 1 red : 1 white
9 brown red 1 brown : 1 red
199. Based on the experimental results, what is the geno-

type of the male in Cross 6?
A. bw
B. bb
C. bw or bb
D. Bb or bw
200. If a large number of brown offspring from Cross 8

are mated with each other, what is the expected per-
centage of white offspring?
A. 6.25%
B. 8.33%
C. 12.5%
D. 25%

71
Passage X (Questions 204–209) 204. Reaction A is an example of:

A. a free radical substitution.
Compounds containing a hydroxyl group attached to a
benzene ring are called phenols. Derivatives of phenols, B. an electrophilic aromatic substitution.
such as naphthols and phenanthrols, have chemical prop- C. an electrophilic addition.
erties similar to those of phenols, as do most of the many D. a nucleophilic aromatic substitution.
naturally-occurring substituted phenols. Like other alco-
hols, phenols have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons
of similar molecular weight. Like carboxylic acids, phe- 205. Comparing the Ka values for cyclohexanol (Ka
nols are more acidic than their alcohol counterparts. Phe- =10–18) and phenol (Ka = 1.3 x 10–10) reveals that
nols undergo a number of different reactions; both their phenol is more acidic than cyclohexanol. Which of
hydroxyl groups and their benzene rings are highly reac- the following explain(s) the acidity of phenol?
tive. A number of chemical tests can be used to distinguish
I. The exceptionally strong hydrogen bond-
phenols from alcohols and carboxylic acids.
ing possible with phenol facilitates the loss
of a proton, making it more acidic than
CH3
OH
cyclohexanol.
II. Phenol’s conjugate base, phenoxide, is sta-
bilized by resonance to a greater extent
OH
than phenol itself.
OH III. The negative charge of the oxygen atom on
CH(CH3)2
the phenoxide ion is delocalized over the
benzene ring.
naphthol phenanthrol thymol A. I only
B. II only
Thymol, a naturally occurring phenol, is an effective C. II and III only
disinfectant that is obtained from thyme oil. Thymol can D. I, II, and III
also be synthesized from m-cresol, as shown in Reaction A
below. Thymol can then be converted to menthol, another
naturally-occurring organic compound; this conversion is 206. Which of the following shows the order of decreas-
shown in Reaction B. ing acidity among the four compounds below?
CH3 OH OH OH OH
H3PO4 NO2 O 2N NO2

+
OH OH
CH(CH3)2 NO2 NO2 CH3 NO2
I II III IV
m-cresol thymol
Reaction A A. I, III, IV, II

B. IV, I, II, III
C. IV, III, II, I
D. IV, II, I, III
H2/Ni
thymol
high
pressure OH
menthol
Reaction B
72
207. The reaction of phenol with dilute nitric acid pro- 208. What simple chemical test could be used to distin-
duces which of the following compounds? guish between the following two compounds?
I II
OH OH OH CH2OH
NO2
+
A. NO2
CH3
OH
A. Compound II’s solubility in NaHCO3
B. Compound I’s solubility in NaOH
C. Compound I’s ability to decolorize a bromine
solution
D. Compound I’s solubility in NaHCO3
B. NO2
OH
NO2
C.
OH OH
O2N
+
D. NO2

73
209. Compound X (C10H14O) dissolves in aqueous

sodium hydroxide but is insoluble in aqueous sodium
bicarbonate. The proton NMR spectrum of com-
pound X is as follows:
δ 1.3 (9H) singlet
δ 4.8 (1H) singlet
δ 7.1 (4H) multiplet
Which of the following is the structure of Compound
X?
COOH
A.
OH
B.
Br
OH
C. Br
D.

74
212. Exocrine secretions of the pancreas:

Questions 210 through 214 are NOT based
A. raise blood glucose levels.
B. lower blood glucose levels.
C. regulate metabolic rate.
210. Which of the following compounds readily undergoes
E1, SN1, and E2 reactions, but not SN2 reactions? D. aid in protein and fat digestion.
A. CH3CH2CH2Cl
B. (CH3)3COH 213. Destroying the cerebellum of a cat would cause sig-
C. CH3CH2CH3 nificant impairment of normal:
D. (CH3CH2)3CBr A. urine formation.
B. sense of smell.
C. coordinated movement.
211. A certain drug inhibits ribosomal RNA synthesis.
Which of the following eukaryotic organelles would D. thermoregulation.
be most affected by the administration of this drug?
214. A cell with a high intracellular K+ concentration,

whose plasma membrane is impermeable to K+, is
placed in an ATP-rich medium with a low K+ con-
centration. After several minutes, it is determined
that the extracellular concentrations of both K+ and
ATP have decreased, while the intracellular K+ con-
centration has increased. What is the most likely
explanation for this phenomenon?
A. The K+ passively diffused from the medium into
the cell.
B. The K+ entered the cell by way of facilitated
transport.
C. The ATP formed a temporary lipid-soluble com-
plex with the K+, thus enabling the potassium to
A. 1 enter the cell.
B. 2 D. The K+ entered the cell by way of active transport.
C. 3
D. 4
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

75

MCAT Prac - Test5

Diunggah oleh

Informasi Dokumen

Judul Asli

Hak Cipta

Format Tersedia

Bagikan dokumen Ini

Bagikan atau Tanam Dokumen

Opsi Berbagi

Apakah menurut Anda dokumen ini bermanfaat?

Apakah konten ini tidak pantas?

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

MCAT Prac - Test5

Diunggah oleh

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 1

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

In this equation, s is the atomic diameter (typically on

In addition to colliding with one another, gas particles

where m is the mass of one particle and u is the root mean

Equation 2 1. Which of the following gives values for both stan-

where M is the molar mass of the gas particles.

6. Which of the following will have the smallest root

4. What is the relative rate of effusion for a mixture of

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Passage II (Questions 7–11) 7. If the defibrillator has a capacitance of 10 µF, how

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

10. Why is it important to insure that the patient is not in

11. If a dielectric was inserted between the plates of the

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

A pH-dependent charge develops when hydrogen dis-

20. A converging lens has a focal length of 8 cm. If the

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

23. How much solid NaOH is required to neutralize 700

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

The fluorescent lamp shown operates at 100 volts and

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Absorption of a photon can raise an electron to a higher-

35. Which of the following figures describes the shape of

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

39. Which of the following would increase the jump

Unless otherwise stated, assume that friction between

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

41. What is the acceleration of an 80-kg skier going

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

46. Which titration curve would be produced by titrating

43. Suppose an α-particle starting from rest is acceler-

45. A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius r at

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

47. Four charges of equal magnitude but different sign

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Passage VII (Questions 48–54) 48. An enzyme, R, catalyzes the oxidation of A to B.

Note: R = 8.314 J/K•mol; F = 9.6485 × 104 C/mol.)

52. What is the effect of increasing the concentration of

53. What would be the cell emf of the following system

Zn(s)|Zn2+(0.2 M)||Cu2+(0.02 M|Cu(s)

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

An example of such a device is shown below. Elec-

57. How does the wavelength of an X-ray produced from

The second mechanism occurs when an incoming elec-

X-rays are absorbed by a material when they pass

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

59. An X-ray source produces X-rays with a maximum

60. In an X-ray tube, electrons of charge e are acceler-

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Passage IX (Questions 62–67) Table 1

64. What is the molality of a stock solution that is 10%

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

66. Which of the following conclusions can be reached

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

71. In the first experiment, when a 5-kg mass is oscillat-

68. In the first experiment, what is the mass of the object

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

72. The two springs in Experiment 2 are replaced by a

73. If the spring in Experiment 1 was suspended from the

162. The reaction R—Br + Br– → R—Br + Br– is