COMPREHENSIVE EXAM – BASIC BIOLOGIC SCIENCES

COMMENTS AND
# QUESTION CHOICES RATIO
REFERENCES
1 At ovulation and until fertilization, the A. Prophase 1 In females, the total number of eggs ever to be produced are https://embryology.
oocyte is arrested in which phase? B. Prophase 2 present in the newborn female initially arrested at the diplotene med.unsw.edu.au/..
C. Metaphase 1 stage of the meiosis I from fetal life through childhood until ./Oocyte_Develop
D. Metaphase 2 puberty, when the lutenizing hormone (LH) surges stimulate the ment
resumption of meiosis.
All eggs are arrested at an early stage (prophase I) of the first
meiotic division as a primary oocyte (primordial follicle). Following
purberty, during each menstrual cycle, pituitary gonadotrophin
stimulates completion of meiosis 1 the day before ovulation.
2 Which will not undergo mitosis? A. Smooth muscle cells Now, RBCs in humans do not have a nucleus. That is, they have Quora
B. Erythrocytes no genetic material. They do not have the organelles and
C. Granulocytes machinery that is required for cell division.
D. Thrombocytes
3
4 Pseudostratified ciliated columnar A. The nucleus are located at Cells of pseudostratified epithelia appear to be in several layers, Junquiera page 87
epithelium is classified as simple different levels but their basal ends all rest on the basement membrane.
epithelium because: B. All cells are exposed to the The pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the upper respiratory
surface tract shown here contains many ciliated cells, as well as other
C. All cells have the same size cells with their nuclei at different levels.
D. All cells touch the basement
membrane
5 Specialization of epithelium in the A. basal lamina At the apical cell membrane of each enterocyte are located dense Junquiera 13th ed
small intestine that increases B. lamina propria microvilli, which serve to increase greatly the absorptive surface page 310
absorption. C. microvilli of the cell.
D. stereocilia
6 Microscopic images shows a thin cell A. Neuron
with an irregularly branched B. Fibroblast
cytoplasm, ovoid nucleus, and C. Purkinje cell
prominent nucleolus. this cell is most D. smooth muscle cell
likely:
7 Connective tissue proper of reticular A. Loose The underlying reticular layer is much thicker, consists of dense Junqueira's 13th ed
layer of dermis B. Reticular irregular connective tissue (mainly bundles of type I collagen), with pg 372
C. Dense regular more fibers and fewer cells than the papillary layer.
D. dense irregular
8 Which is properly matched? A. Kupffer cells – muscles
B. Microglia – kidneys
C. Langerhans - Spinal cord
D. Dendritic - Lymph nodes

9 Characteristic of RBC:
10 which of the blood cells undergo
endomitotic replication?
11 Arteries can be differentiated
histologically from veins by
12 Which of the following mucosal
A. Incorrect. Kupffer cells are found in liver
B. Incorrect. Microglia are found in CNS
C. Incorrect. Langerhans cells are found in the epidermis of the skin
D. Correct. Dendritic cells are found in lymph nodes or spleen.
Source: Junquiera
A. biconcave shape which #9 A The biconcave shape provides a large surface-to-volume --Junquiera Ch 12
facilitates gas exchange ratio and facilitates gas exchange.
B. leaves circulation in
inflammation
C. lipids are the components of
cell membrane
D. C...
A. monocytes thrombocytes originate in the red bone marrow by dissociating Junquiera 14th ed.
B. Erythrocytes from mature megakaryocytes (Gr. megas, big + karyon, nucleus, Page 263
C. Thrombocytes + kytos), which in turn differentiate from megakaryoblasts in a
D. Granulocytes process driven by thrombopoietin. The megakaryoblast is 25-50
µm in diameter and has a large ovoid or kidney-shaped nucleus
(Figure 13–13), often with several small nucleoli. Before
differentiating, these cells undergo endomitosis, with
repeated rounds of DNA replication not separated by cell
divisions, resulting in a nucleus that is highly polyploid (from 8N
to 64N). The cytoplasm of this cell is homogeneous and highly
basophilic.
A. Prominent tunica adventitia
B. Epithelium lining of tunica
C. Presence of external tunica
D. Presence of fenestrated
internal tunica
A. Hyaline cartilage The mucosa of the larger bronchi is structurally similar to the Notes
 structures differentiates bronchi from
the trachea?
B. Serous glands tracheal mucosa except for the organization of cartilage and
C. Smooth muscles smooth muscle. In the primary bronchi, most cartilage rings
D. Ciliated epithelium completely encircle the lumen, but as the bronchial diameter
decreases, cartilage rings are gradually replaced with isolated
plates of hyaline cartilage.

13 Which of the ff. is true of the basic
histologic features of the urinary
passages?
A. Transitional epithelium lines all
urinary passages
B. Helical arrangement of
ureteral muscular layer
C. All passages have 3-layered
muscularis
D. Abundant urethral glands
(a) in the neck of the bladder, near the urethra, the wall shows Page 409 junquiera
four layers: the mucosa with urothelium (U) and lamina propria
(LP); the thin submucosa (S); inner, middle, and outer layers of
smooth muscle (IL, ML, and OL); and the adventitia (A). (X15;
H&E)
(b) When the bladder is empty, the mucosa is highly folded and
the urothelium (U) has bulbous umbrella cells. (X250; PSH)

(c) When the bladder is full, the mucosa is pulled smooth, the
urothelium (U) is thinner, and the umbrella cells are flatter.
(X250; H&E)
14 Which portion of the esophagus are A. Upper 1/3 The middle portion of the esophagus has a combination of Page 307
composed of smooth and striated B. Distal 1/3 skeletal and smooth muscle fibers (Figure 15–13b), and in the
muscles? C. Middle 1/3 lower third the muscularis is exclusively smooth muscle.
D. Proximal 1/3

15 Which of the structural components of A. Rugae B. Reference: 1st yr

the small intestine is made up only of B. Intestinal villi notes
the mucosa? C. Taenia coli Mucosa of Small Intestine
D. Kerckring’s valves - Plicae Circularis
- Villi
- Enterocytes
- Intestinal glands of crypts of lieberkuhn

16 common epithelial lining of male A. Pseudostratified columnar The excretory duct includes vas deferens, epididymis and
excretory duct B. Stratified columnar ciliated urethra
C. Stratified squamous Junquiera 14th ed.
D. Transitional
17 Which of the following is the correct
arrangement of the structure of a
mature follicle from the outside to
inside?
18
Anterior part of lens is lined by what
type of epithelium
A. Zona pellucida - granulosa
cells - theca ext - theca int
B. theca externa- basal lamina-
granulosa cells- theca interna
C. Granulosa cells - theca
externa - zona pellucida –
antrum
D. Theca externa - theca
interna - granulosa cells -
antrum
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Simple squamous
C. Pseudostratified columnar
D. Transitional
Page 463
Junquiera 14th ed
LENS
The lens is a transparent biconvex structure suspended
immediately behind the iris, which focuses light on the retina (see
Figure 23–1). Derived from an invagination of the embryonic
surface ectoderm (see Figure 23–2), the lens is a unique
avascular tissue and is highly elastic, a property that normally
Chapter 3, pages
decreases with age. The lens has three principal components:
486-487,
■ A thick (10-20 µm), homogeneous lens capsule composed of
Junquieras Histo
proteoglycans and type IV collagen surrounds the lens and
provides the place of attachment for the fibers of the ciliary zonule.
This layer originates as the basement membrane of the embryonic
lens vesicle.
■ A subcapsular lens epithelium consists of a single layer of
cuboidal cells present only on the anterior surface of the lens. The
 epithelial cells attach basally to the surrounding lens capsule and
their apical surfaces bind to the internal lens fibers. At the
posterior edge of this epithelium, near the equator of the lens, the
epithelial cells divide to provide new cells that differentiate as lens
fibers. This process allows for growth of the
lens and continues at a slow, decreasing rate near the equator of
the lens throughout adult life.
■ Lens fibers are highly elongated, terminally differentiated cells
that appear as thin, flattened structures. Developing from cells in
the lens epithelium, lens fibers typically become 7 to 10 mm long,
with cross-section dimensions of only 2 by 8 µm. The cytoplasm
becomes filled with a group of proteins called crystallins, and the
organelles and nuclei undergo autophagy. Lens fibers are packed
tightly together and form a perfectly transparent tissue highly
specialized for light refraction.
19 A. Basilar membrane
Hair cells located in the organ of Corti transduce mechanical
Hair cells of the Organ of Corti are B. Tectorial membrane Britannica
sound vibrations into nerve impulses. They are stimulated when
attached to what structure? C. Vestibular membrane Encyclopedia
the basilar membrane, on which the organ of Corti rests, vibrates.
D. Spiral lamina
20 The spinocerebellar tracts occupy the periphery of the lateral
funiculus and carry proprioceptive and cutaneous information
Which of these tracts mediate A. Fasciculus cuneatus
from Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles to the cerebellum https://www.scienc
conscious proprioception from the B. Fasciculus gracilis
for the coordination of movements. There are two principal edirect.com/.../spin
lower limbs? C. Spinothalamic tract
spinocerebellar tracts which carry information from the lower ocerebellar-tract
D. Spinocerebellar tract
extremities, the dorsal (posterior) spinocerebellar and the ventral
(anterior) spinocerebellar tracts.
21 A. Memory The prefrontal cortex (PFC) is the cerebral cortex which covers
Function attributed to prefrontal lobe https://www.neurop
B. Judgement the front part of the frontal lobe. This brain region has been
lesion sychotherapist.com
C. Somatosensory implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality
/prefrontal-cortex/
D. Calculation expression, decision making, and moderating social behaviour.
22 Left optic nerve.
In the direct light reflex, the normal pupil reflexly contracts when a
light is shone into the patient’s eye. Consensual light reflex is
CASE: tested by shining the light in one eye and noting the contraction of
Right pupil - presence of direct and the pupil in the opposite eye. Direct response (pupil illuminated).
consensual reflexes A. Left, CN II The direct response is impaired in lesions of the ipsilateral optic Snell, p562
Left pupil - absence of both direct and B. Right, CN II nerve, the pretectal area, the ipsilateral parasympathetics http://www.neuroex
consensual reflexes C. Left, CN III traveling in CN III, or the pupillary constrictor muscle of the iris. am.com/neuroexa
D. Right, CN IIII Consensual response (contralateral pupil illuminated). The m/content19.html
Which of the following is impaired? consensual response is impaired in lesions of the contralateral
optic nerve, the pretectal area, the ipsilateral parasympathetics
travelling in CN III, or the pupillary constrictor muscle.
Cranial Nerve II – Optic Nerve
Cranial Nerve III – Oculomotor Nerve
23 A. interventricular foramina
The aqueduct of Sylvius is the channel which connects the third ventricle to the fourth
B. Cerebral aqueduct
Narrowest part of CSF Pathway ventricle and is the narrowest part of the CSF pathway with a mean cross-sectional area
C. foramen of Magendie
of 0.5 mm2 in children and 0.8 mm2 in adults.
D. foramina of Lushka
24 A. Precentral: for primary motor and motor association areas
A. Precentral
Which gyrus is associated with the B. Postcentral: the primary somatosensory area includes Manter Pages 182-
B. Postcentral
primary somatosensory area of the Brodmann's areas 3, 1 and 2 on the postcentral gyrus 184, 185, 193
C. Cingulate
brain. C. Cingulate: one of the 5 paralimbic areas
D. Lingual
D. Lingual: associated with the primary visual cortex
25 A powerful blow to this part of the skull A. Nasion
"Clinically, the pterion is an important area because
could result in the laceration of the B. Asterion Snell's Chapter 11
it overlies the anterior division of the middle meningeal
anterior branch of Middle Meningeal C. Pterion page 532
artery and vein."
Artery: D. Supraorbital ridge
26 The second vertebra of the spine is A. Atlas. Answer: Axis C2
also called as? B. Axis Atlas is C1
C. Dens
D. Apex
27 Which of the following carpal bones is A. Trapezium Trapezium
most lateral? B. Triquetreium Some lovers try position try position that they cannot handle
C. Hamate
D. pisiform
28 Veins that form the brachiocephalic A. subclavian vein and external The left and right brachiocephalic veins (or innominate veins) in
vein jugular vein the upper chest are formed by the union of each corresponding
B. subclavian vein and internal internal jugular vein and subclavian vein. This is at the level of
jugular vein the sternoclavicular joint. The left brachiocephalic vein is usually
C. Inf. Vena cava and subclavian longer than the right
vein
 D. Inf. Vena cava and subclavian
vein
29 29. Used to compute for the dosage A. Clark's Rule Fried's rule is a method of estimating the dose of http://www.austin
of a drug given to a 6 month old B. Fried's rule medication for a child by dividing the child's age in months cc.edu/rxsucces/p
infant? C. Young's rule by 150 and multiplying the result by the adult dose ed5.html
D. Body Surface Area
30 Triangle of auscultation is so named A. Between 4th and 7th rib
because breath sounds are clearly B. Between 6th and 7th rib
heard in this interspace C. Between 8th and 9th rib
D. Between 10th and 11th rib
31 Which of this is true of the right A. Longer The right principal (main) bronchus is wider, shorter, and more Snell page 65
bronchus compared to the left B. Narrower vertical than the left and is about 1 in. (2.5 cm) long.
bronchus? C. More vertically oriented
D. All of these
32 Largest lymphoid organ A. Thymus The blood is filtered by the spleen, another example of Internet
B. Liver encapsulated lymphoid tissue. This is the body's largest
C. Spleen lymphatic organ. It is important for antibody production,
D. Bone marrow facilitating immune responses to blood borne antigens, and it
also eliminates worn-out blood cells and platelets.

33 Midline fibrous band formed by A. Linea semilunaris The rectus sheath is separated from its fellow on the opposite Snell 9th ed page
aponeuroses of muscles of anterior B. Arcuate line side by a fibrous band called the linea alba. This extends from 123
abdominal wall C. Linea alba the xiphoid process down to the symphysis pubis and is formed
D. Midsaggital line by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the lateral muscles of the
two sides.
34 The main pancreatic duct is also A. Duct of Santorini The pancreatic duct, or duct of Wirsung (also, the major Wiki
known as B. Stensens duct pancreatic duct due to the existence of an accessory pancreatic
C. Duct of Wirsung duct), is a duct joining the pancreas to the common bile duct to
D. Whartons duct supply pancreatic juice provided from the exocrine pancreas
which aids in digestion.

35 A stab wound at the level of the A. Large intestines Google search

umbilicus will most likely injure this B. Small intestines
organ: C. Urinary bladder
D. Stomach
http://annahamilton
.me/9-abdominal-
regions.html/9-
abdominal-regions-
list-of-synonyms-
and-antonyms-the-
word

https://www.medico
stuff.com/abdomina
l-quadrants/
 In the umbilical region, part of the stomach, large intestines,
small intestines are found

At the level of the umbilicus - more likely to injure the small

intestines.

Organs of the umbilical region :

These are
1. Duodenum
2. Ileum
3. Jejunum
4. Umbilicus
36 The part of the urinary bladder that is A. superior surface A. The superior surface of the bladder is covered with Snell’s Clinical
pierced by the ureters is the: B. Inferolateral surface peritoneum and is related to coils of ileum or sigmoid Anatomy by
C. Base colon. Along the lateral margins of this surface, the Regions 9th ed
p.271-272
D. Apex peritoneum passes to the lateral pelvic walls.
B. The inferolateral surfaces are related in front to the
retropubic pad of fat and the pubic bones. More
posteriorly, they lie in contact with the obturator internus
muscle above and the levator ani muscle below.
C. The base, or posterior surface of the bladder, faces
posteriorly and is triangular. The superolateral angles
are joined by the ureters, and the inferior angle gives
rise to the urethra
D. The apex of the bladder points anteriorly and lies behind
the upper margin of the symphysis pubis. It is connected
to the umbilicus by the median umbilical ligament
(remains of urachus).
37 Also called Pouch of Douglas A. Retropubic The Pouch of Douglas is an area of the peritoneal cavity https://howshealth.
B. Rectouterine located between the rectum and the uterus' posterior wall. It com/what-is-pouch-
C. Retrovesical is a long and narrow structure located at the lower portion of-douglas-fluid-
D. Uterovesical of the peritoneal cavity. and-endometriosis/
38 Where does the left testicular vein A. Inferior Vena Cava ● The right testicular vein generally joins the inferior Anatomy Notes
drains into? B. Left Renal vein vena cava;
C. Left Internal iliac Vein ● the left testicular vein, unlike the right one, joins the
D. Left external Iliac Vein left renal vein instead of the inferior vena cava.

39 After 48 hrs from thyroidectomy, the A. Deficiency of calcitonin A.
patient developed numbness and B. Development of
tingling sensations of the wrist and hypothyroidism
carpal pedal spasms. What could be
C. Possibility of recurrent
the possible explanation for this B.
case? laryngeal nerve injury
D. Removal of all parathyroid
glands
Although it is located within the Snell p 650
thyroid, calcitonin’s major, if not sole, biological action Boron chap 49 and
relates to the regulation of mineral metabolism and 52
bone turnover.
Although hypothyroidism has several causes, the most
common
cause worldwide is iodine deficiency. In the United
 States,by far the most common cause is an
autoimmune disorder called Hashimoto thyroiditis.
C. Lesion with unilateral complete section of the recurrent
laryngeal nerve results in the vocal fold on the affected
side assuming the position midway between abduction
and adduction.
D. Hypoparathyroidism is due to inadvertent removal of
parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy.. In the case of
human beings, there will be hypocalcemic tetany.
40 The only endocrine organ accessible A. Parathyroid
during physical examination B. Thyroid
C. Adrenal glands
D. pancreas
41 In rigor mortis, the muscles remain in A. ADP release Skeletal Muscle Contraction. (a) The active site on actin is https://opentextbc.c
the attached state because release B. Release of Pi exposed as calcium binds to troponin. (b) The myosin head is a/anatomyandphysi
from the crossbridges from actin C. ATP binding attracted to actin, and myosin binds actin at its actin-binding site, ology/chapter/10-3-
requires forming the cross-bridge. (c) During the power stroke, the muscle-fiber-
D. ATP hydroxylation
phosphate generated in the previous contraction cycle is contraction-and-
released. This results in the myosin head pivoting toward the relaxation/
center of the sarcomere, after which the attached ADP and
phosphate group are released. (d) A new molecule of ATP
attaches to the myosin head, causing the cross-bridge to detach.
(e) The myosin head hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and phosphate,
which returns the myosin to the cocked position.
42
43
44 Peter filled two compartments with A. A to B A concentration difference for water can develop across a Guyton, p.54
0.45% NaCl. Compartment A with B. B to A membrane. When this concentration difference for water
90mL and Compartment B with C. Unpredictable develops, net movement of water does occur across the cell
20mL. If a semipermeable membrane D. Zero membrane, causing the cell to either swell or shrink, depending
is placed between 2 compartments, on the direction of the water movement. This process of net
what is the net movement of water movement of water caused by a concentration difference of
between the 2 compartments? water is called osmosis.

(Different volume but same concentration, so no net movement)

45 Characteristic of graded potential but
not an action potential?
46 In an experiment, Fiona and Kent
stimulated 2 nerve axons (X, Y),
simultaneously with the same
electrical current and action potentials
were conducted in the nerves.
However, the conduction was faster
in X than in Y. What is the most likely
possible explanation?
A. Its amplitude is related to
the magnitude of the
stimulus
B. It is a change in resting
membrane potential
C. It is conducted along the cell
membrane
D. It is inducted by a stimulus
A. X has a smaller diameter than
Y
B. X has a higher threshold than
Y
C. X is myelinated and Y is not
D. X has a longer length than Y
47
48 Which of the ff favors permeability of A. Inc capillary hydrostatic
water from capillary to interstitium? pressure
B. Inc capillary osmotic pressure
C. Inc interstitial hydrostatic
pressure
D. Dec interstitial osmotic
pressure
49 Which is correct regarding NMJ: A. The neurotransmitter is
exclusively acetylcholine
B. Release of neurotransmitter
is via a carrier protein
C. Synthesis of neurotransmitter
occurs in the mitochondria
D. Inactivation of neurotransmitter
is slow and long

50 Stimulation of these receptors lead to A. Alpha 1 and 2 Guyton(Ch61) and

increased heart contraction B. Beta 1 and 2 Boron (Ch23)
C. Alpha 1 and beta 1
D. Alpha 2 and beta 2

B2 - vasodilation

A1 - The vasoconstriction elicited by catecholamines is an

α effect, in particular, an α1 effect. Thus, norepinephrine
released from nerve terminals acts on the α1 adrenoceptor,
which is coupled to the G protein Gq . The resulting activation of
phospholipase C (see Chapter 3) and formation of inositol 1,4,5-
trisphosphate (IP3 ) lead to a rise in [Ca2+ ]i and smooth muscle
contraction

So possibly pwede pud ang A1

51 Which of these organs has both A. Kidney
sympathetic and parasympathetic B. Heart
control? C. Sweat glands
D. Andrenal glands
52 Most potentially dangerous case A. O mother with first A baby A major cause of HDN is an incompatibility of the Rh blood group https://www.ncbi.nl
B. O mother with 2nd B baby between the mother and fetus. Most commonly, hemolytic disease m.nih.gov/books/N
C. D negative mother with first D is triggered by the D antigen, although other Rh antigens, such as BK2266/
positive baby c, C, E, and e, can also cause problems.
 D. D negative mother with 2nd
D positive baby
HDN can also be caused by an incompatibility of the ABO blood
group. It arises when a mother with blood type O becomes
pregnant with a fetus with a different blood type (type A, B, or AB).
The mother's serum contains naturally occurring anti-A and anti-
B, which tend to be of the IgG class and can therefore cross the
placenta and hemolyse fetal RBCs.

HDN due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh

incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the
ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition,
in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are
expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the
chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the
fetal RBCs.

Sensitization occurs during the first pregnancy, HDN then occurs

in subsequent pregnancy.
53 Which blood component is primarily A. RBCs Primary hemostasis is defined as the formation of the primary www.eclinpath.com
involved in primary hemostasis? B. WBCs platelet plug. This serves to plug off small injuries especially in /hemostasis/physiol
C. Clotting factors microvessels (< 100 µm) in mucosal tissues (respiratory, ogy/primary-
D. Platelets gastrointestinal, genitorurinary tracts). Platelets are not only hemostasis/
involved in platelet plug formation but are also crucial for formation
of fibrin (secondary hemostasis)
54 Which of this is necessary in order for A. Release of serotonin Platelet adhesion occurs at the site of plaque rupture due to Medscape
platelet adhesion to occur? B. Collagen exposure exposure of collagen present in subendothelium at the site of
C. Platelet activation injury.
D. Vwf binding to GPIb/IX/5
55 Blood pressure of 130/70mmhg. A. 70 MAP = [ (2 x diastolic) + systolic ] divided by 3. Medscape
What is the MAP? B. 90
C. 100
D. 130
56 Diastole is the period from: A. first heart sound to the second Systolic murmurs occur between the first heart sound (S1) and https://www.easyau
heart sound the second heart sound (S2). Diastolic murmurs occur between scultation.com/hear
B. S1 to next S1 S2 and S1. t-murmur
C. S2 to next S2
D. S2 to next S1
57 What will take place if there is an A. oxhemoglobin dissociation The oxygen dissociation curve is a graph that plots the proportion https://www.medica
increase in partial pressure of curve to the right of haemoglobin in its oxygen-laden saturated form on the vertical lexamprep.co.uk/un
oxygen? Shift of: B. oxhemoglobin dissociation axis against the partial pressure of oxygen on the horizontal axis. derstanding-
curve to the left At high partial pressures of oxygen, haemoglobin binds to oxygen oxygen-
C. carbon dioxide dissociation to form oxyhaemoglobin.  At low partial pressures of oxygen (e.g. dissociation-curve/
curve to the right within tissues that are deprived of oxygen), oxyhaemoglobin
D. carbon dioxide dissociation releases the oxygen to form haemoglobin.
curve left The oxygen dissociation curve has a sigmoid shape because of
the co-operative binding of oxygen to the 4 polypeptide chains. 
Co-operative binding means that haemoglobin has a greater
ability to bind oxygen after a subunit has already bound oxygen. 
Haemoglobin is therefore most attracted to oxygen when 3 of the
4 polypeptide chains are bound to oxygen.
58 pH=7.36 pCO2=55 HCO3=27 A. Partially compensated
What is the ABG interpretation? respiratory acidosis
B. Partially compensated
metabolic alkalosis
C. Completely compensated
metabolic acidosis
D. Completely compensated
respiratory acidosis

59
60 Which of the following is most likely to
happen whenever there is an
increase blood pressure:
Source:Google,harrisons
A. Stimulation of chemoreceptors google
B. inhibition of ADH secretion
C. Increase facultative water
reabsorption
D. Osmotic dieresis

61 61. Enzymatic digestion of protein A. Mouth Source:

starts in the : B. Esophagus Answer: C http://pdb101.rcsb.
C. Stomach org/motm/46
D. Small intestine Ratio:
Digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, where hydrochloric
acid unfolds proteins and the enzyme pepsin begins a rough
disassembly.

A. Carbohydrate digestion

62 Which of the ff. statements is true A. Stimulates glucose absorption Digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, where hydrochloric http://pdb101.rcsb.
regarding distension of the stomach B. Stimulates gastrocolic reflex acid unfolds proteins and the enzyme pepsin begins a rough org/motm/46
C. Causes salivation disassembly.
D. Inhibit gastric emptying
A. Carbohydrate digestion
63 Which of the ff is directly involved in A. Calcium influx Erection is mediated predominantly through the parasympathetic Ganong Physiology
penile erection B. Nitrogen release nervous system by the pelvic splanchnic nerves (nervi erigentes)
C. Compression of subtunical arising from segments S2, S3, and S4. Activation of these

64 which phase of female sexual
response cycle is under the control of
parasympathetic nervous system
65 Which of the ff is true of reflexes?
venous plexus
D. Stimulation of nervi
erigentes
A. excitement, plateau
B. plateau, orgasmic
C. orgasmic, resolution
D. excitement, orgasmic
A. One or more interneurons
must connect afferent and
efferent neurons
B. Monosynaptic reflexes have
only one interneurons
C. Effectors of somatic reflexes
are skeletal muscles
D. Reflexes go hand in hand with
perception (sensation)
nerves causes vasodilatation and engorgement of the penile
musculature and sinuses.
64. answer: a. excitement, plateau EXCITEMENT PHASE. Much source:
of the response in the excitement phase is caused by stimulation Comprehensive
of the parasympathetic fibers of the autonomic nervous system Gynecology (book),
PLATEAU. Culmination of excitement and associated with Primary Care for
marked degree of congestion throughout the body. Women (book)
ORGASM- "Is an emotional and physiologic epiphany".
Controlled by sympathetic nervous system. Series of wave-like
muscular contractions (peristaltic contractions)
RESOLUTION. Begins with sense of "intense relaxation". Heart
rate, blood pressure, and blood flow return to prearousal levels.
Blood is collected from erectile tissue in both males and females.
Resolution time is variable, taking longer to arrive when no
orgasm occurred. Physical changes that took place during
arousal are reversed.
Page 228 - 229
The basic unit of integrated reflex activity is the reflex arc. This
arc consists of a sense organ, an afferent neuron, one or more
synapses within a central integrating station, an efferent neuron,
and an effector. The afferent neurons enter via the dorsal roots
or cranial nerves and have their cell bodies in the dorsal root
ganglia or in the homologous ganglia of the cranial nerves. The
efferent fibers leave via the ventral roots or corresponding motor
cranial nerves.
The simplest reflex arc is one with a single synapse between the
afferent and efferent neurons, and reflexes occurring in them are
called monosynaptic reflexes. Reflex arcs in which
interneurons are interposed between the afferent and efferent
neurons are called polysynaptic reflexes. There can be any-
where from two to hundreds of synapses in a polysynaptic reflex
arc.
66 Vibrations are produced in the A. Tympanic membrane - incus - http://intranet.tdmu.
following sequence malleus - stapes edu.ua/data/kafedr
B. Tympanic membrane - malleus a/internal/normal_p
- incus - stapes. hiz/classes_stud/en
C. Tympanic membrane - stapes /nurse/bacchaour%
- malleus – incus 20of%20sciences%
D. Tm - malleus - incus - stapes 20in%20nurses/ad
n/18_Physiology_of
_hearing.files/

67 Eau de cologne is sprayed in the A. Olfactory sense is acute 67 D The olfactory sense is insensitive to relative concentration Doc Panopio
body while eau de parfum is dabbed B. Olfactory sense easily of odorants & can’t detect differences between concentration that Lecture on Sensory
in the pulse points. This is because: fatigues, slowly recovers differ by less than 25% Physiology
C. Olfactory sensation changes • Perfume
when concentration increases • Eau de cologne
D. Olfactory sense cannot • Eau de toilette
distinguish variation of
concentration by less than
25%
68 A. partially compensated
metabolic alkalosis
Ph- 7.36 B. Partially compensated
Co2- 55.1 respiratory alkalosis
Hco3- 27.3 C. Completely compensated
BE- +5.5 metabolic acidosis
D. Completely compensated
respiratory acidosis
69 Culture is defined as "the customary beliefs, social norms, and
material traits of a racial, religious, or social group. Culturally-
specific attitudes and beliefs about the origin, role, and meaning
of pain not only influence the manner in which individuals view
and respond to their own pain, but can affect how they perceive
and respond to the pain of others.
A. Age and gender of the
https://www.nzma.o
Which of the following influences on individual
Cultural factors related to the pain experience include pain rg.nz/.../vol-126-
the reaction to pain is considered as B. Personality of the sufferer
expression, pain language, lay remedies for pain, social roles, no.../editorial-
the most significant? C. Duration of pain
and expectations and perceptions of the medical care shipton
D. Significance of pain
system.The extent to which culture can influence pain perception
and response depends in part on the degree to which individuals
identify with their ethnic or cultural group. Culture can in turn
influence the request for medications or treatments to assist in
ameliorating the pain.
 The perception and experience of physical pain and the meaning
pain has to one's existence will vary by culture. In the Chinese
culture, pain has been understood as a result of blocked Qi (life
energy or force). To resolve the pain, the blockage must be
removed and the patient must return to a state of harmony with
the universe.
70 The process by which the curvature of the lens is increased is
called accommodation. If the gaze is directed at a near object, the
ciliary muscle contracts. This decreases the distance between the
A. lens becomes more concave
edges of the ciliary body and relaxes the lens ligaments, so that
Most likely reaction during B. lateral rectus muscles contract Ganong 24th
the lens springs into a more convex shape. In addition to
accommodation of a nearby object. C. Pupils constrict Edition page 188
accommodation, the visual axes converge and the pupil constricts
D. eyes diverge
when an individual looks at a near object. This three-part
response—accommodation, convergence of the visual axes, and
pupillary constriction—is called the near response.
71 Which of the following compounds is A. NAD+ Cytochrome oxidase is the terminal component of the chain of
the final electron acceptor in the B. FADH+ respiratory carriers found in mitochondria and transfers electrons Jawetz 30th ed.,
cellular respiration in higher forms of C. O2 resulting from the oxidation of substrate molecules by Ch. 12, p120
animals (including humans)? D. H2O dehydrogenases to their final acceptor, oxy- gen.
72 The main functions is store and transfer genetic information. https://biology.tutor
A. Source of energy
vista.com/biomolec
B. Transport molecules
This is the primary function of nucleic The genetic information stored in the nucleotide sequence of ules/nucleic-
C. Restore hormone function
acid DNA serves two purposes. It is the source of information for the acids.html
D. Preservation or transfer of
synthesis of all protein molecules of the cell and organism, and it
genetic material
provides the information inherited by daughter cells or offspring. Harpers
73 1)Initiation
Four major steps are required to initiate translation: ribosome
dissociation, formation of a preinitiation complex, formation of the
40S initiation complex and formation of the 80S initiation complex.
Binding of mRNA to small subunit happens here.
Arrange in correct sequence:
chemistry.gravityw
1. Recognition of UGA A. 1-2-3-4
2) Elongation aves.com
2. Binding of mRNA to small unit B. 2-1-3-4
During elongation the protein is synthesized one amino acid at a
3. Peptide bond formation C. 2-3-4-1
time on the 80S ribosome. This process occurs in three major Harper's
4. Translocation D. 1-2-4-3
steps: binding of charged tRNA, peptide bond formation, Biochemistry
translocation of the growing peptide chain.

3) Termination
When a stop codon appears at the translation is terminated (UAA,
UAG, UGA).
74 A. In all living organisms, genetic code is the same (except for
mitochondrial codons)
The genetic code is affected by B. For any specific codon, only a single amino acid is
A. Universal
insertion or deletion of nucleotide in indicated; with rare exceptions, the genetic code is
B. Unambiguous Harper 29th ed. P.
DNA resulting mutation. Which unambiguous—that is, given a specific codon, only a single
C. Degenerate 396-397
characteristic of the genetic code is amino acid is indicated
D. Non-overlapping
affected by this event? C. Multiple codons decode the same amino acid.
D. The reading of the genetic code during the process of protein
synthesis does not involve any overlap of codons
75 A. Hydrogen
The bond that links the
B. Glycosidic
complementary base pairs in a DNA
C. Peptide
strand:
D. Phosphodiester
76 During interphase, if there is damage A. G0
in the DNA, which part of the cell B. G1
cycle should be inhibited to prevent C. G2
its replication? D. S0

77 This component in milk is low, thus A. Iron Breast milk contains highly bioavailable iron but in amounts that https://ods.od.nih.g
supplementation is required for 6 B. Folate are not sufficient to meet the needs of infants older than 4 to 6 ov/factsheets/Iron-
months C. Calcium months. HealthProfessional/
D. Lactose
78 Supraphysiologic levels of vitamins A. Folate Chronic administration of 1–6 g oral pyridoxine per day for 12–40 https://ods.od.nih.g
are considered harmless as they are B. Niacin months can cause severe and progressive sensory neuropathy ov/factsheets/Vitam
readily excreted in the urine. Present C. Biotin characterized by ataxia (loss of control of bodily movements). inB6-
studies have shown that, when in D. Pyridoxine HealthProfessional/
excess, this water-soluble vitamin can #h8
cause nerve damage
79 This lipid soluble vitamin is given in A. A
newborn to prevent hemorrhagic B. D
disease C. E
D. K
80 What metal toxicity closely mimicks A. Iron
the symptoms of porphyria? B. Lead
C. Manganese
D. Magnesium
81 Which of the ff is present in all amino A. Benzene ring The formula of an amino acid comprises, bound to a carbon
acids? B. Sulfur ions (alpha carbon) are: a carboxyl group, an amine group, hydrogen,
C. Carboxyl group and a variable radical -R or the functional group
D. Hydroxyl group
82 82. Edema in renal failure is due to: A. Lymph obstruction
B. Decreased osmotic pressure
C. Inc capillary permeability
D. Inc hydrostatic pressure
83
What is the most important reaction
of amino acids?
84 Absence of this essential aa cause
failure of formation of this amino acid
85 Which of these amino acids is
essential for heme and purine
metabolism?
A. hydroxylation The most important reactions are fair as amino acid
B. transamination chemistry is concerned are the reactions that are utilised in
C. formation of peptide bonds the formation of peptides and proteins.
D. D.
A. alanine Essential amino acids, which generally have a longer half-life
B. Glycine than the nonessential ones, are those that are required in the
C. Proline diet since the body cannot synthesize them in adequate amounts
D. Tyrosine to maintain protein biosynthesis (Table 3-1). If even one
essential (or nones-sential) amino acid is absent, the remaining
19 cannot be used, and they become catabolized thus leading to
a negative nitrogen balance. Essential amino acids vary
depending on species and age.
The branched-chain amino acids, (leucine, isoleucine and valine)
are routinely oxidized in muscle tissue, and phenylalanine is
needed for hepatic tyrosine biosynthesis {which is then used for
catecholamine biosynthesis (e.g., dopamine, norepinephrine and
epinephrine) in nerve tissue, as well as thyroid hormone
biosynthesis}. Methionine is needed for cysteine formation, and
tryptophan is used for serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) and
melatonin formation. Most nonessential amino acids can be
interconverted with carbohydrate metabolites through
aminotransferase (i.e., transamination) reactions (see Chapter
9). However, there are no in vivo aminotransferase reactions for
lysine and threonine, and, in addition, histidine, phenylalanine
and methionine are not metabolized to any significant extent by
these reactions. Hence, they are all “essential” dietary amino
acids
A. Lysine Ratio: Ref:
B. Glycine The important functions of Glycine can be summarized as http://usmle.bioche
C. Leucine follows: mistryformedics.co
D. Glutamine i) constituent of protein m/significance-of-
ii) One carbon donor glycine/
iii) Synthesis of Glutathione
iv) Synthesis of creatine
v) Synthesis of PURINE nucleotide.
vi) Synthesis of bile salts
vii) Synthesis of HEME
viii) Synthesis of Glucose
ix) Glycine as a neurotransmitter

86 Which of the following processes is A. Deamination “Transamination is the most common initial reaction of amino Harper’s 30th ed,
the most common initial reaction of B. Transamination acid catabolism. Subsequent reactions remove any additional Chapter 29, under
amino acid catabolism? C. Carboxylation nitrogen and restructure hydrocarbon skeletons for conversion “Summary,” p.312
to oxaloacetate, α-ketoglutarate, pyruvate, and acetyl-CoA.”
D. Hydroxylation

87 Which of the following amino acid is A. Alanine A. Serves as carrier of ammonia and of the carbons of Harper’s 29th
the major nitrogen vehicle B. Methionine pyruvate from skeletal muscle to liver via the Cori cycle. Edition, Chapter
transporter? C. Serine B. 3 carbons and a-amino group contribute to the 30, p. 298
D. Valined biosynthesis of the polyamines and spermine and
spermidine.
 C. Participates in the biosynthesis of sphingosine, and of
purines and pyrimidines, where it provides carbons 2 and
8 of purines and methyl group of thymine.
D. Isoleucine, leucine and valine are implied in branched-
chain ketonuria or Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD).

Free amino acids, particularly alanine and glutamine, are released

from muscle into the circulation. Alanine, which appears to be the
vehicle of nitrogen transport in the plasma, is extracted primarily
by the liver. Glutamine is extracted by the gut and the kidney, both
of which convert a significant portion to alanine. Glutamine also
serves as a source of ammonia for excretion by the kidney. The
kidney provides a major source of serine for uptake by peripheral
tissues, including liver and muscle. Branched-chain amino acids,
particularly valine, are released by muscle and taken up Harper’s 29th
predominantly by the brain. Edition, Chapter
28, p. 273
88 This is a product of lipooxygenase A. PGD2 A. COX Internet because
pathway B. TXA2 B. COX it’s basic
C. LTB4 C. LOX
Naa pud bitaw ni
D. PGI D. Post grad intern
sa harper
89 Which of the following is true of A. Rate limiting step is fatty acid C. Answer
lipogenesis? synthase
B. primary site of fatty acid
elongation in the ER
C. C.
D. Inhibited by insulin

90 Formation of ketone bodies in the
liver is directly caused by the
accelerated rate of which metabolic
process?
91 91. Long chain fatty acid is unable to
penetrate the inner mitochondria.
which of the ff enzymes enables
modification of acyl coa in order to
permit entry to mitochondrial
enzymes
A. Fatty acid synthesis A. INCORRECT Harper 29th Ed
B. Fatty acid oxidation B. CORRECT Increased fatty acid oxidation is a page 207
C. Gluconeogenesis characteristic of starvation and of diabetes mellitus, and
D. Gluconeolysis leads to ketone body production by the liver which is
also known as ketosis. Ketone bodies are acidic and
when produced in excess over long periods cause
ketoacidosis.
C. INCORRECT Gluconeogenesis is dependent upon fatty
acid oxidation, any impairment in fatty acid oxidation
leads to hypoglycemia.
D. INCORRECT
A. acyl coa synthase Long-chain acyl-CoA (or FFA) cannot penetrate the inner Harper p. 224 30th
B. carnitine-acylcarnitine membrane of mitochondria. In the presence of carnitine, ed
translocase however, carnitine palmitoyltransferase-I, located in the outer
C. carnitine mitochondrial membrane, transfers long-chain acyl group from
palmitoyltransferase 1 CoA to carnitine, forming acylcarnitine and releasing CoA.
D. carnitine palmitoyltransferase 2 Acylcarnitine is able to penetrate the inner membrane and gain
access to the -oxidation system of enzymes via the inner
membrane exchange transporter carnitine-acylcarnitine
translocase. The transporter binds acylcarnitine and transports
 it across the membrane in exchange for carnitine. The acyl group
is then transferred to CoA so that acyl-CoA is reformed and
carnitine is liberated. This reaction is catalyzed by carnitine
palmitoyltransferase-II, which is located on the inside of the
inner membrane

92
93 Which lipoprotein delivers cholesterol A. LDL 95% of chylomicron cholesterol is delivered to liver by Harper, p. 255
to the extrahepatic tissues? B. IDL chylomicron remnants and most of choles secreted by liver in
C. HDL VLDL is retained during formation of IDL and ultimately LDL,
D. Chylomicron remnants which is taken up by LDL receptor in liver and extrahepatic
tissues.
94 the rate limiting step of the A. hmg coa reductase
biosynthesis of bile salts is catalyzed B. hmg coa synthase
by C. cholesterol 7a hydroxylase
D. farnesyl pp synthase
95 What is the net yield of pyruvate for A. 3
every mole of glucose that goes B. 2 The net reaction in the transformation of glucose into pyruvate is:
through the EMP? C. 1
D. 0

96
97
98
99 What is major role of beta oxidation in A. Supplies reducing In β-oxidation ( Figure 22–2 ), two carbons at a time are harper p. 208
promoting gluconeogenesis? equivalent cleaved from acyl-CoA molecules, starting at the carboxyl
B. Provides energy end. The chain is broken between the α(2)- and β(3)-carbon
C. Reversal of glycolysis atoms—hence the name β-oxidation. Th e two-carbon units
 D. Provide glycerol as substrate formed are acetyl-CoA; thus, palmitoyl-CoA forms eight acetyl-
CoA molecules.

100 Insulin increases what process in A. Protein synthesis In both liver and skeletal muscle, insulin Harper Ch 14
hepatocytes and adipocytes B. Glycogen synthesis acts to stimulate glycogen synthetase and inhibit glycogen
C. Lipogenesis phosphorylase. Some of the additional glucose entering the liver
D. Gluconeogenesis may also be used for lipogenesis and hence triacylglycerol
synthesis. In adipose tissue, insulin stimulates glucose uptake,
its conversion to fatty acids, and their esterification to
triacylglycerol.
It inhibits intracellular lipolysis and the release of nonesterified
fatty acids.