Roll No.

: Test Date: 15/12/2013

Centre Code: Test Booklet Code A

TEST No. 3
PAPER - I

AK A S H TE
A ST
IA for
D

SE
IN

RI
JEE (Main) 2014
ALL

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
ES
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,
the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section – I : Straight Objective Questions
Section – II : Assertion – Reason Type Questions
 Test No. 3
Paper I

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of

Physics Fluids, Oscillations

The Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface

Chemistry Chemistry

Trigonometric Functions (Transformation Formulae, Trigonometric

Mathematics Equations, Properties of Triangle), Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360

TEST - 3 (Paper-1)

PART - A (PHYSICS)

3. A block of mass m is attached to one end of a light

SECTION - I inextensible string passing over a smooth light
Straight Objective Type Questions pulley and two springs of spring constant k and 5k
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions as shown in the figure. The time period of
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), oscillations of the block is
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
3m
Choose the correct answer : (1) 4
2k
1. A particle of mass m is released from a distance 4R k
from the centre of a planet of radius R and mass M.
3m
The particle travels, through a tunnel leading to its (2) 2
centre of the sphere. The ratio of its speed at B and k
C is
3 5m m
(1) (3) 2
5 6k 5k
2 4R
(2) 6m
7 (4) 4
C A 5k
2 B
(3) R
3 4. A truncated rod of length 3.0 m and radii 3 cm and
5 6 cm is stretched by two forces of 30 kN applied
(4)
7 parallel to length in opposite directions and normal
2. A water drop falls in air with constant velocity. The to end faces. If Y = 6 × 10 11 N/m 2 , then the
difference in curvature of radii r2 – r1 of the drop's elongation of rod is
surface at upper and lower point separated by the
distance h is proportional to (assume that r2 – r1 << h) 6 cm
3 cm
30 kN 30 kN
r1
3.0 m
h
r2 5 2
(1)  10 4 m (2)  104 m
6 3
(1) h (2) h2
3 6
(3)  104 m (4)  104 m
(3) h3 (4) h3/2 2 5
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 3 (Paper-I)

5. An air bubble is at a depth h below the free surface
of water. If pressure inside the bubble is three time
that of atmospheric pressure (P0). The radius of the
bubble is given by
[ = density of water, T = surface tension]
8. A small hole is made at depth 3h on a side wall of
a cylindrical vessel, filled with an ideal liquid. The
hole is at a height h from the base of the vessel.
The speed by which it strikes the floor is

3T 2T 3h
(1) P  gh (2) P  2gh
0 0
h
3T 2T
(3) 3P  2gh (4) 2P  gh
0 0
(1) 2 gh (2) 2 2gh
6. A hemispherical water drop drips from a capillary.
When the drop breaks from the capillary its mass is (3) 4 gh (4) 2 3gh
m. If the radius of capillary is R1 then surface tension
of water is 9. A tank is filled with a liquid moving with an
acceleration as shown in the figure. The free surface
mg 2 mg makes an angle  with the horizontal, the  is
(1) (2)
R R
a=g
mg mg
(3) (4)
2R 2R 37°

7. A uniform rod of length  and density  is rotated with 

an angular velocity  about one of its ends O as
3
shown in the figure. The stress at a distance
4
from O is
3 –1 4
 (1) tan
–1
(2) tan
4 3

–1 1 –1 2
O (3) tan (4) tan
2 3

10. The speed v of a particle moving along x-axis is given

2 2 2 2
5  7 
(1) (2) by v  16 x  x 2  48 (cm/s) . The amplitude of
16 16
oscillation is

722 522 (1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm

(3) (4)
32 32 (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
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Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

11. A block of mass m is connected to three springs as 13. A body is projected from between two planets
shown in the figure. The block is displaced down A and B of masses M and 2M respectively as shown
slightly, from its mean position. The time period of in the figure, such that it escapes from their field. Its
oscillation is escape velocity is

GM
(1) ve
2k d B
2k A
30º 30º 3GM
(2) d 2d
d 2M M
m
5GM
(3)
d
k
7GM
(4)
d
14. Two bodies of mass m and 4m are placed at a
distance r apart. The gravitational potential at a point
m m where gravitational field is zero.
(1) 2 (2) 
k k m 4m

r
m m A B
(3) 2 (4) 4
2k k
3GM 6GM
(1) (2)
12. The point of suspension of a simple pendulum of r r
length  is accelerated at an angle 60º with the
9GM 12GM
vertical with an acceleration a = g (m/s2) as shown (3) (4)
in the figure. The time period of oscillation of the r r
pendulum is given by 15. A solid sphere of radius R is floating at the interface
of two immiscible liquids of densities  and  0
60°
a=g (0 > ) such that half of volume lying in each. If
atmospheric pressure is P 0 , then the force
experiented by the upper half of the sphere is
7
(1) R 3g
3

2 7 3R
  (2) P0 R  R 3 g
(1) 2 (2) 2 3
2g 3g
2 7 0
(3) P0 R  R 3 g
3
 
(3) 2 (4) 4 2
3g 3g (4) P0 R
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 3 (Paper-I)

16. A block of mass 1 kg is suspended from a spring of 19. At a distance 320 km above the surface of earth, the
spring constant 2. The spring is now cut into two value of acceleration due to gravity will be lower than
identical halves and same block is suspended from its value on the surface of earth by nearly
one of the two pieces such that one of the piece (Re = 6400 km)
touch the other below in its equilibrium position. The (1) 2% (2) 6%
frequency of small oscillation of mass will be
(3) 10% (4) 14%
20. A solid of density D is floating in a liquid of density
d(> D). If v1 be the volume of solid submerged in the
liquid and v2 be the volume of solid NOT submerged
v1
1 kg in the liquid, then v is equal to
2

D d
(1) (2)
d D
D D
(1) 2 (2) 2 2 (3) (4)
d D d D
21. Two masses m and 2m at an infinite distance from
(3) 2 2  1 (4) 2( 2  1) each other initially at rest, start interacting
gravitationally. Their velocity of approach when they
17. A ball of density  = 3 is released from rest from
are at a distance r apart
the centre of an accelerated sealed trough
completely filled with liquid of density . If the trough 2Gm 3Gm
moves horizontal with an acceleration a 0 , the (1) (2)
r r
acceleration of the ball with respect to the trough is
given by 6Gm 3Gm
(3) (4) 2
r r
a02  g 2 22. In the figure shown, a spring fixed to wall is initially
(1) a02  g 2 (2)
2 undeformed. Now it is compressed by 2A .
Consider the collision of block with wall to be
a02  g 2 a02  4g 2 perfectly elastic. The time period of oscillation is
(3) (4)
3 3
k
th m
⎛ 1⎞
18. If the radius of earth's orbit be made ⎜ ⎟ , then the
⎝ 4⎠
A
duration of an year will become
m m
(1) 8 times (2) 4 times (1) 2 (2) 4
k k
1 1 3 m 5 m
(3) times (4) times (3) (4)
8 4 2 k 2 k
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Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

23. Two spherical balls of radii 2r and r and of density SECTION - II

 are tied up with a light string and released in a
viscous liquid of density  > , with the string just
taut. The tension in the string, when spheres attain
terminal velocity is
2r
Assertion – Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.

26. Statement-1 : The word weightlessness means zero

contact force but not zero weight of the object.
and
r Statement-2 : Weight = Mass × acceleration due to
gravity.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
3 3 10 3 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(1) r ( – )g (2) r (  )g Statement-1
5 3
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
8 3 5 3
(3) r ( – )g (4) r ( – )g Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
3 3
Statement-1
24. A planet of mass m moves around the sun of mass
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
M along an elliptical orbit such that its minimum and
maximum distance from sun are r and 3r (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
respectively. Its period of revolution will be 27. Statement-1 : Pressure at different points at same
depth or height will not be equal for a horizontally
2r 3 r3 accelerating liquid.
(1) 4 (2) 2
GM GM and
Statement-2 : Pressure decreases with horizontal
distance measured in the direction of acceleration in
2r 3  r3
(3)  (4) a fluid moving with horizontal acceleration.
GM 2 2 GM
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
t Statement-1
25. A particle moves according to the law, x  r cos .
2
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
The distance covered by it in the time interval Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
between t = 0 to t = 2 s is Statement-1
(1) r (2) 2r (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(3) 3r (4) 4r (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
28. Statement-1 : The angular speed of a planet is
minimum when it is farthest from the sun.
and
Statement-2 : Angular momentum of a planet
revolving around the sun is conserved.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
29. Statement-1 : Poisson's ratio cannot be greater than
0.5.
and
Statement-2 : Poisson's ratio is a characteristic
property of a body.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. Statement-1 : In case of simple harmonic motion,
average total energy of oscillations per cycle is equal
to its maximum kinetic energy.
and
Statement-2 : Average kinetic energy per cycle is
equal to half of its maximum kinetic energy for a
particle executing S.H.M. Further, total energy of
oscillation is equally distributed among kinetic
energy and potential energy at instants.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
K1K 2K 3
SECTION - I (1) [A]3[B]
Straight Objective Type Questions K –1K –2

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions K1K –2K 3

(2) [A][B]3
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), K –1K 2
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
K –1K –2K 3
31. The overall rate law of the following complex reaction (3) [A][B]2
K1K 2
is
K K1K 2K 3

2A 1

 A 2 (fast equilibrium) (4) [A][B]
K –1
K –1K –2


A + B 
2 K
 C (fast equilibrium) 32. Co-ordination no. of Fe+3 in Fe3O4 is
K –2
(1) 4 only (2) 6 only
K3
A 2 + C  P + 2A (slow) (3) 4, 6 (4) 8
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Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

33. In one kg solvent (NH3), addition of which decrease 38. Correct sequence of molecular weight of
melting point up to least extent non-electrolytic solute in following graph
(1) 1 mole of AgCl
C
(2) 1 mole of CH3COOH
 osmotic B
(3) 1 mole of HCl Pressure A
(4) 1 mole of AgI
34. A chemical reaction is carried out at 600 K. If the
same reaction is carried out in the presence of a Weight of solute
catalyst at same rate, temperature required is 500 K.
(1) MC > MB > MA (2) MA = MB = MC
Calculate activation energy if catalyst lowers it by
50 kJ/mol MB M
(3) MA > MB > MC (4) MA = = C
(1) 100 kJ/mol 2 4
(2) 300 kJ/mol 39. Rate of evaporation of a liquid is always faster at a
(3) 400 kJ/mol higher temperature because
(4) 600 kJ/mol (1) Enthalpy of vaporisation is zero
35. On dilution conductance of strong electrolyte (2) Enthalpy of vaporisation is always endothermic
increases because (3) Enthalpy of vaporisation is always exothermic
(1) Solute - solute interaction decreases (4) Internal pressure of the liquid is less than that of
(2) Solute - solvent interaction decreases gas
(3) Solvent - solvent interaction decreases 40. Which one of the following is an example of a
maximum boiling azeotropic?
(4) Degree of dissociation increase
(1) H2O – HCl (2) H2O – C2H5OH
36. Which of the following have maximum flocculation
value of a As2S3 solution? (3) CHCl3 – CH3OH (4) CCl4 – CH3OH
(1) AlCl3 41. Out of following which is an example of ionic solid?
(2) BaSO4 (1) PF5 (2) PCl5
(3) NaCl (3) CO2 (4) H2SO4
(4) Na3PO4 42. Correct regarding process of adsorption of H2 on a
37. Which of the following half cell have highest platinum surface is (overall process)
reduction potential? H S G
(1) Ag+ + e– Ag (1) +ve +ve –ve
(2) AgCl + e– Ag + Cl– (2) –ve +ve –ve
(3) AgBr + e– Ag + Br – (3) –ve –ve –ve
(4) AgI + e– Ag + I– (4) +ve –ve +ve
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 3 (Paper-I)

43. Lattice parameter for monoclinic crystal system 48. The graph between t1/2 versus concentration for a 2nd
order chemical kinetics is
(1) a  b  c  =  
(2) a = b c  =  
t1 t1
(3) a  b  c     2 2

(4) a = b = c  =  
(1) (2)
44. Identify incorrect match
concentration concentration
Electrolyte Electrode Anode Cathode
(1) aq. CuSO4 Inert O2 Cu
(2) aq. CuSO4 Cu O2 Cu t1 t1
2 2

(3) Molten NaCl Inert Cl2 Na

(3) (4)
(4) aq. NaCl Inert Cl2 H2
45. When FeCl3 solution is added to NaOH a negatively concentration concentration
charged solution is obtained it is due to the 49. Silicon crystallizes in a structure similar to diamond.
(1) Pressure of basic group Find the density of silicon if Si – Si bond length is
1.88 Å.
(2) Preferential adsorption
(1) 2.23 g/cm3 (2) 4.51 g/cm3
(3) Electron capture by solution particles
(3) 6.23 g/cm3 (4) 8.46 g/cm3
(4) Self dissociation
50. Which of the following graph represent chemical
46. Number of formula unit present in one unit cell of
adsorption?
CsCl is
(1) 4
x x
(2) 2
m m
(3) 6
(1) (2)
(4) 1
47. Ratio of osmotic pressure of two solutions of equal T P
weight of glucose and urea at 300 K and 600 K
respectively
(1) 1 : 1
x T2 x T1
m T1 m
(2) 1 : 2
(3) (4)
(3) 1 : 6
(4) 1 : 4 P (T2 > T1) T
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Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

51. Which of the following have highest osmotic 54. Choose the correct regarding catalyst
pressure if 1 mole of each is added in one litre (1) It changes the G of the reaction
solution?
(2) It catalyses spontaneous as well as
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] non-spontaneous reaction
(2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (3) It changes activation energy of reaction
(3) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (4) All of these
(4) AlCl3 55. Catalyst used in following reaction is x
52. Choose correct regarding points A and B in following CO(g) + 2H2 (g) 
X
 CH3 OH(g)
graph
x is
Solvent Solution (1) Ni (2) Cu
V.P. Solid (3) Pt (4) Cu/ZnO – Cr2O3
A
SECTION - II
B Assertion – Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-
T
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
(1) Vapour pressure at both points is same
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
(2) Equilibrium constant at both points is same Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
(3) Mole fraction of solvent is same
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
(4) At A equilibrium exist between H2O(ice) and
56. Statement-1 : Activity of an enzyme depend on
H2O(l) while at B exist H2O (ice) + solute and
temperature and pH of the medium.
H2O(l)
and
53. Following equation give relation between conductance
and concentration Statement-2 : Activity of catatyst is highest at
pH = 0.
1

m  m  AC 2 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
value of A depend on Statement-1

(1) Solvent only (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2) Type of electrolyte only Statement-1
(3) Solvent and type of electrolyte (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Charge on cation electrolyte only (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
57. Statement-1 : Fe3O4 retain its ferrimagnetism in
solid state and in solution.
and
Statement-2 : In Fe3O4, magnetic moment of the
domains in the substance are aligned in parallel and
unparallel direction in unequal number.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
58. Statement-1 : Frenkel defect have no effect on
density of the crystal.
and
Statement-2 : Frenkel defect is stochiometric defect
and in stochiometric defect Z does not change.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 3 (Paper-I)
59. Statement-1 : On mixing of two component resulting
the formation of ideal solution H mixing = 0,
G mixing of the process is negative.
and
Statement-2 : Driving force responsible for mixing is
increase in entropy of the system.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : Rate of reaction increases with rise in
temperature.
and
Statement-2 : With rise in temperature threshold
energy decreases.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
61. The number of all possible triplet (a1, a2, a3) such
that a1 + a2sinx + a3cosx = 0 holds for all x is
(1) Zero (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) Infinite
Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

2  3 5
62. The value of cos  cos2  cos2  .....  ⎛ 1 ⎞
16 16 16 68. If cos 2  ( 2  1) ⎜ cos   ⎟ , then the most
⎝ 2⎠
⎛ 15 ⎞
cos2 ⎜ ⎟ is equal to
⎝ 16 ⎠ general values of  is
(1) 2 (2) 3
   
(1) 2n  , 2n  (2) 2n  , 2n 
(3) 4 (4) 2  2 3 4 3 4 3

63. The least value of 36cosec2 + sec2 is given by

   
(1) 37 (2) 49 (3) 2n  , 2n  (4) n  , n 
4 3 4 3
(3) 142 (4) 7
69. Least positive integral value of x satisfying
64. The number of ordered pairs (a, x) satisfying the
equation cosec2(a + 2)x + a2 – 1 = 0, – < x <  ⎛ 1 ⎞
(ex – 2) (sinx – cosx) (x – log2) ⎜ cos x  ⎟  0 is
and a is real, is ⎝ 2⎠
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) Infinite (3) 4 (4) 2
65. The equation sin4x – (k + 1)sin2x – (k + 2) = 0
possesses a solution if 1
 
1
70. The value of cos cos 2cot ( 2  1)  is equal to
(1) k > –2 (2) k < –1
(3) –2  k  – 1 (4) kR (1) 2 1 (2) 1  2

66. The most general values of  for which sin – cos

 3
= min (1, a2 – 4a + 6) are given by (3) (4)
aR 4 4

n   71. The value of sec2(tan–14) + cosec2(cot–15) is equal

(1) n  ( 1)  , n Z to
4 4
n   (1) 43 (2) 39
(2) n  ( 1)  , n Z
4 4 (3) 41 (4) 37
 72. If [tan–1x]2 – 4[tan–1x] + 4  0, where [.] denotes greatest
(3) 2n  , n Z
4 integer  x, then x belongs to
(4) 2n, n Z (1) [tan2, tan3)
67. The number of solutions of the equation sin5x.cos3x = (2) (tan2, )
⎡ ⎤
sin9x.cos7x lying in the interval ⎢0, ⎥ is
⎣ 2⎦ ⎡  ⎞
(3) ⎢ , ⎟
(1) 6 (2) 7 ⎣4 2 ⎠
(3) 8 (4) 9 (4) No values of x is possible
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 3 (Paper-I)

73. In a PQR, the length of sides opposite to the 78. The value of tan610º – 9tan410º + 11tan210º is equal to
vertices P, Q, R are p, q, r respectively. Then (1) 1
P P
q – r    q  r  sin2
2 2 2
cos is equal to 2
2 2 (2)
3
(1) p 2 (2) q 2
(3) r 2 (4) qr 1
(3) 
3
74. Number of real roots of the equation sec + cosec =
15 lying between 0 and  is (4)
1
3
(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 8 79. The number of real solutions of the equation

75. The number of solutions of the equation tan1 x 2  3 x  2  cos1 4 x  x 2  3   is

⎛ x ⎞ 2
(1) One
sin ⎜ ⎟  x  2( 2014 ) x  2015
⎝ 2 2014 ⎠ (2) Two

(1) Forms an empty set (2) Is only one (3) Zero

(3) Is only two (4) Is more than 2 (4) Infinite

76. If 32tan8 = 2cos2 – 3cos and 3cos2 = 1, then 80. Sum of the infinite terms of the series
the general value of  is ⎛ 3⎞ ⎛ 3⎞ ⎛ 3⎞
cot 1 ⎜ 12  ⎟  cot 1 ⎜ 22  ⎟  cot 1 ⎜ 32  ⎟  ...
⎝ 4⎠ ⎝ 4⎠ ⎝ 4⎠
 2
(1) 2n   (2) 2n  is
3 3

2 (1)
(3) 2n  (4) 2n 3
3

77. The equation sin4x + cos 4x + 3sin2x + 4 = 0 is (2)
4
solvable for
(3) tan–12
1 1
(1)   (4) tan–13
2 2
81. If 2s be the perimeter of the triangle ABC, then the
1 1
(2)   2⎛B⎞ 2⎛ A⎞
8 8 value of a cos ⎜ ⎟  b cos ⎜ ⎟ is equal to
⎝2⎠ ⎝2⎠
7 5 (1) s (2) 2s
(3)  
8 8
s 3s
(3) (4)
(4)  R 2 2
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Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

82. Two sides of a triangle are given by the roots of the SECTION - II
2
equation x  2 3 x  2  0 . The angle between the Assertion – Reason Type Questions
 Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-
sides is . The perimeter of the triangle is
3 Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
(1) 6  3
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
(2) 2 3  6 four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
(3) 2 3  10
86. Statement-1 : The equation sin2x – 5sinx + 6 = 0
(4) has no real solution.
3 6
and
83. In a triangle ABC, the sides a, b and c are the roots
of x 3 – 8x 2 + 17x – 10 = 0. Then the value of Statement-2 : |sinx|  1  x R.
cos A cos B cos C
  equals (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
a b c Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
3 3 Statement-1
(1) (2)
4 2 (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
9 Statement-1
(3) 1 (4)
16
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
84. If in a triangle ABC, the line joining incentre and
circumcenter is parallel to the side AB, then the (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
value of cosA + cosB is equal to 87. Statement-1 : The maximum value of
(1) 0 sin2014 + cos2014 is 1.

(2) 1 and

(3) Statement-2 : sin2014  sin2 and cos2014  cos2.

2
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(4) –1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
85. If the area of a triangle ABC is c2 – (a – b)2, then Statement-1
the value of tanC is equal to
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
4 1 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) (2)
3 4 Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
8
(3) (4) 4 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
15
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 3 (Paper-I)

88. Statement-1 : tan + 2tan2 + 4tan4 + 8tan8 + (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
..... + 32tan32 + 64cot64 = cot. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
and Statement-1

Statement-2 : cot – tan = 2cot2. (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 90. Statement-1 : If in the triangle ABC, the incentre is
Statement-1
1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False the middle point of the median AD, then cos A  .
4
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
and
89. Statement-1 : If x > 1, then
Statement-2 : If in a triangle ABC, the incentre is
1 ⎛ 3 x
 x3 ⎞ ⎛ 2x ⎞ the middle point of the median AD, then ABC is an
tan ⎜  tan1 ⎜  5 tan1 x .
⎜ 1  3 x 2 ⎟⎟ 2 ⎟
⎝1– x ⎠ isosceles triangle.
⎝ ⎠
and (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-2 : For x  1,
Statement-1
⎛ 2x ⎞ (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
tan1 ⎜ 1
⎟  2 tan x   and
⎝ 1 – x2 ⎠ Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
⎛ 3x  x3 ⎞ (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
tan1 ⎜  3 tan1 x   .
⎜ 1  3 x 2 ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠ (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

  

Space for Rough Work

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 Test Booklet Code A

Test No. 2
Paper I

AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN

for
RI
ALL

JEE (Main) 2014

ES
Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 2 (Paper-I)

ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (3) 31. (1) 61. (4)
2. (1) 32. (4) 62. (4)
3. (2) 33. (3) 63. (2)
4. (1) 34. (1) 64. (3)
5. (3) 35. (2) 65. (2)
6. (4) 36. (1) 66. (1)
7. (3) 37. (2) 67. (4)
8. (3) 38. (2) 68. (2)
9. (3) 39. (1) 69. (4)
10. (2) 40. (1) 70. (2)
11. (3) 41. (2) 71. (3)
12. (1) 42. (2) 72. (2)
13. (3) 43. (3) 73. (2)
14. (4) 44. (4) 74. (1)
15. (1) 45. (2) 75. (2)
16. (4) 46. (4) 76. (4)
17. (3) 47. (3) 77. (4)
18. (4) 48. (1) 78. (3)
19. (1) 49. (1) 79. (2)
20. (3) 50. (2) 80. (1)
21. (4) 51. (3) 81. (2)
22. (3) 52. (1) 82. (3)
23. (4) 53. (3) 83. (3)
24. (3) 54. (4) 84. (2)
25. (2) 55. (2) 85. (2)
26. (2) 56. (1) 86. (1)
27. (2) 57. (3) 87. (4)
28. (1) 58. (4) 88. (1)
29. (3) 59. (1) 89. (1)
30. (2) 60. (4) 90. (1)

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