A. Pa C.

joule/watt
PHYSICS
B. N-m D. watt/joule
1. What is the standard unit of mass?
C. C.N-m/s
A. Kilogram
D. Unitless 14. One election volt is equivalent to
B. Pound _______ joules.

C. Gram A. 1.6 x 10^-17

8. What is the SI unit of pressure?
D. Newton B. 1.6 x 10^-18
A. Pa
C. 1.6 x 10 ^-19
B. N-m
2. What is defined as the distance the light D. 1.6 x 10^-20
C. N/m
travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458
second? D. N-m/s
15. What is the unit of capacitance?
A. Yard
A. Farad
B. Feet 9. Which one is equivalent of the unit
“Pascal’? B. Weber
C. Meter
A. N/nm2 C. Coulomb
D. Inch
B. N/m2 D. Gauss

C. N/m
3. What is the SI unit of work?
D. D.N/nm 16. Which of the following is equivalent to
A. Newton
the unit “farad”?
B. Watt
A. coulomb/volt
10. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to
C. Newton-Second
how many pascals? B. joule/volt
D. Joule
A. 1,000,000 C. joule/coulomb

B. 100,000 D. coulomb/joule
4. What is the SI unit of power?
C. 10,000
A. Newton
D. D.1000 17. What is the unit of electric current?
B. Watt
A. Volt
C. Newton-Second
11. What is the SI unit of intensity? B. Watt
D. Joule
A. Joule/m2 C. Ampere

B. kg/m2 D. Coulomb
5. What is the SI unit of temperature?
C. N/m2
A. Fahrenheit
D. watt/m2 18. Which of the following is equivalent to
B. Kelvin the unit “ampere”?

C. Celsius A. joule/second
12. What is the unit of potential
D. Rankine difference? B. volt/second

A. Watt C. coulomb/second

6. What is the SI unit of luminous B. Coulomb D. watt/second

intensity?
C. Volt
A. Candela
D. Weber 19. What is the unit of resistance?
B. Lumens
A. Ohm
C. Lux
13. Which of the following is equivalent to B. Watt
D. Candlepower a volt?
C. Volt
A. watt/coulomb
D. Ampere
7. What is the unit of relative intensity? B. joule/coulomb
 A. lumen/cm2 A. centimeter

20. Ohm is equivalent to which of the B. lumen/ft2 B. millimeter

following?
C. lumen/m2 C. nanometer
A. coulomb/ampere
D. lumen/in2 D. micrometer
B. watt/ampere

C. volt/ampere
27. Footcandle is equivalent to which 33. The mass of a grain of salt is in the
D. joule/ampere combination of units? order of _______.

A. lumen/cm2 A. milligram

21. What is the unit of luminous intensity? B. lumen/ft2 B. gram

A. Footcandle C. lumen/m2 C. microgram

B. Lumen D. lumen/in2 D. nanogram

C. Candela 34. Which one is equivalent to the unit

‘joule’?
D. Lux 28. How many dynes are there in one
newton? A. Newton-second

A. 10,000 B. Newton-meter
22. What is the unit of luminous flux?
B. 100,000 C. Newton-meter per second
A. Candela
C. 1,000,000 D. Newton-meter per second squared
B. Lumen
D. D.1000
C. Lux
35. Which one is equivalent to the unit
D. Footcandle “watt”?
29. What is an elemental unit of energy?
A. Newton-second
A. Quartz
23. Which of the following is equivalent to B. Newton-meter
the unit “candela”? B. Quark
C. Newton-meter per second
A. lumen/m2 C. Photon
D. Newton-meter per second squared
B. footcandle/steradian D. Quantum

C. lux/steradian
36. One horsepower is equivalent to how
D. lumen/steradian 30. What refers to the mass which is many watts?
accelerated at the rate of one foot per
second when acted on by a force of one A. 550
pound?
24. What is the unit of luminous B. 746
efficiency? A. Slug
C. 33,000
A. lumen/watt B. Erg
D. 250
B. lumen/volt C. Dyne
C. lumen/ampere D. BTU
37. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of
D. lumen/coulomb _______.

31. The size of some bacteria and living A. work

cells is in the order of _______.
25. What is the unit of illumination? B. energy
A. centimetre
A. Lux C. power
B. millimetre
B. Lumen D. work or energy
C. nanometer
C. Candela
D. micrometer
D. Lumen/watt 38. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of
_______.

32. The size of the largest atom is in the A. work

26. Lux is equivalent to which combination
order of ________.
of units? B. energy
C. power B. Vector product

D. work or energy C. Dot product 50. What refers to physical quantities that
have a magnitude and a direction?
D. Plus product

39. The English unit “slug” is a unit of

_______. A. Scalar quantities
45. What is another term for vector
A. mass product of two vectors? B. Vector quantities

B. weight A. Cross product C. Dot product

C. force B. Vector product D. Vector quantities

D. energy C. Dot product

D. Plus product 51. Which is NOT a vector quantity?

40. How is sound intensity measured?

A. In beats 46. The scalar product of two A. Displacement

perpendicular vectors is always _______.
B. In decibels B. Velocity
A. equal to 1
C. In phons C. Acceleration
B. greater than 1
D. In sones D. Time
C. less than 1

41. An electron volt is the energy required
by an electron that has been accelerated
by a potential difference of how many
volts?
A. 1 volt
D. equal to 0
52. Which is NOT a fundamental physical
quantity of mechanics?
47. The vector product of two parallel or
antiparallel vectors is always ______.
A. Length

B. 0.1 volts B. Mass

A. equal 1
C. 10 volts C. Volume
B. greater than 1
D. 0.01 volts D. Time
C. less than 1

D. equal to 0
42. What is a vector with a magnitude of 53. What is an arrowed line whose length
one and with no unit? is proportional to the magnitude of some
vector quantity and whose direction is
A. Single vector 48. The vector product of any vector with that of the quantity?
itself is ______.
B. Unit vector

C. Dot vector A. Vector diagram

A. equal to 1
D. Scalar vector B. Vector
B. greater than 1
C. Component
C. less than 1
43. What is the purpose of a unit vector? D. Resultant
D. equal to 0
A. To describe the direction in space

B. To indicate a magnitude without 54. What is scaled drawing of the various

reference to direction 49. What refers to physical quantities that forces, velocities or other vector
are completely specified by just a number quantities involved in the motion of a
C. To serve as comparison with other and a unit or physical quantities that have body?
vectors magnitudes only?

D. To set a standard among vectors

A. Vector diagram
A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector
44. What is another term for a scalar B. Vector product
product of two vectors? C. Component
C. Dot product
A. Cross product D. Resultant
D. Vector quantities
 65. “The net force acting on an object
equals the product of the mass and the
55. The _______ of a moving object is the 60. What is defined as the time rate at acceleration of the object. The direction of
distance it covers in a time interval divided which work is done? the force is the same as that of the
by the time interval. acceleration”. This statement is the
_______.
A. impulse
A. acceleration
B. Momentum
A. first law of motion
B. instantaneous speed
C. Power
B. second law of motion
C. average speed
D. Energy
C. third law of motion
D. instantaneous velocity
D. d’ Alembert’s principle
61. What is defined as any influence that
56. The rate at which velocity changes can change the velocity of an object?
with time is known as ________. 66. “When an object exerts a force on
another object, the second object exerts
A. Impulse on the first a force of the same magnitude
A. acceleration but in the opposite direction”. This
B. Force statement is the _____.
B. instantaneous speed
C. Energy A. first law of motion
C. average speed
D. Work B. second law of motion
D. instantaneous velocity
C. third law of motion

62. What is a measure of the inertia of an D. d’Alembert’s principle

57. “The work done by the net force on a object?
particle equals the change in the particle’s
kinetic energy.” This statement is known A. Density
67. What refers to the force with which
as _________.
B. Weight the earth attracts an object?

C. Mass
A. Law of conservation of energy
D. Force A. Gravitational pull
B. Work-energy theorem
B. Mass
C. Law of conservation of work
63. What is the property of matter which C. Weight
D. Total work theorem is the reluctance to change its state of rest
or of uniform motion? D. All of the above

68. How many kilograms are there in 1

58. The ________ of a particle is equal to slug?
the total work that particle can do in the A. Impulse
process of being brought to rest.
B. Momentum
A. 11.9
C. Inertia
B. 12.5
A. kinetic energy
D. Equilibrium
C. 13.2
B. potential energy
D. D.14.6
C. total energy
64. “If no net force acts on it, an object at
D. mechanical energy rest will remain at rest and an object in
motion will remain in motion at constant
69. What refers to an actual force that
velocity”. This statement is the _______.
arises to oppose relative motion between
59. Work is defined as the product of: contracting surfaces?

A. first law of motion

A. Force and displacement B. second law of motion A. Action force

B. Force and time C. third law of motion B. Reaction force

C. Displacement and time D. d’Alembert’s principle C. Friction

D. Power and time D. Drag


70. What refers to the force between two
stationary surfaces in contact that
prevents motion between them?
A. kinetic friction
C. Coefficient of static friction is always C. changes abruptly
greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction. D. remains constant
D. Coefficient of static friction may be
greater than or less than the coefficient of
80. What is conserved in an elastic
kinetic friction.
collision?

B. sliding friction 75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:

A. Kinetic energy
C. starting friction
B. Potential energy
D. static friction A. power output to power input
C. Rest energy
B. power input to power output
D. Mechanical energy
71. What is the maximum value of the C. total work done to total energy
static friction?
D. total energy to total power
81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is
conserved. This statement is:
A. Starting friction
76. What is the energy something
B. Sliding friction possesses by virtue of its motion?
A. true
C. Kinetic friction
B. false
D. Dynamic friction A. Kinetic energy
C. is either true or false, depending upon
B. Potential energy the colliding bodies

72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction C. Rest energy D. is either true or false, depending on the
and static friction? impact of two colliding bodies
D. Mechanical energy

A. Kinetic friction is always to static friction 82. When can we say that a collision is a
77. What is the energy something completely inelastic collision?
B. Kinetic friction is always less than static possesses by virtue of its mass?
friction

C. Kinetic friction is always greater than A. When the kinetic energy lost is
static friction A. Kinetic energy minimum.

D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater B. Potential energy B. When the kinetic energy is conserved.
than static friction
C. Rest energy C. When the two colliding objects stick
together after impact.
D. Mechanical energy
73. What is another term for kinetic D. When the two colliding objects will
friction? 78. What is the energy something separate after impact.
possesses by virtue of its position?
A. Dynamic friction

B. Starting friction 83. What will happen to the kinetic energy

C. Sliding friction
D. All of the above
For the same materials in contact, what is
TRUE between coefficient of static friction
and coefficient of kinetic friction?
A. Coefficient of static friction is always
less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
B. Coefficient of static friction is always
equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
A. Kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy A. It is conserved.
D. Mechanical energy B. It is lost to maximum value.
C. It is gained from the loss of potential
energy.
79. When the vector sum of the external
forces acting on the system of particles D. It is lost to minimum value.
equals zero, the total linear momentum of
the system __________.
84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:
A. becomes zero

B. maximizes A. relative speed after collision to relative

speed before collision
B. relative speed before collision to
relative speed after collision
C. relative speed to absolute speed
D. absolute speed to relative speed
85. What is the coefficient of restitution
for a perfectly elastic collision?
A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1
86. What is the coefficient of restitution
for a perfectly inelastic collision?
A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1
87. The coefficient of restitution always
applies _______.
A. to only one of the colliding objects
B. to neither of the colliding objects
C. jointly to the colliding objects
D. to the bigger colliding object
88. “When the vector sum of the external
forces acting on a system of particles
equals zero, the total linear momentum of
the system remaining constant.” This
statement is known as:
A. Law of universal gravitation
B. Law of conservation of impulse
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of energy
89. What refers to the product of the force
and the time during which a force acts?
A. Impulse
B. Momentum D. period
C. Power
D. Energy 95. The centripetal acceleration of a
particle in uniform motion is _______ to
the radius of its path.
90. Momentum is the product of:
A. directly proportional
A. mass and time B. inversely proportional
B. velocity and mass C. equal
C. force and time D. not related in any way
D. force and mass
91. The coefficient of restitution always 96. Gravitation occurs between all objects
applies _________. in the universe by virtue of their
________.
A. to only one of the colliding objects
A. mass
B. to neither of the colliding
B. density
C. jointly to the colliding objects
C. weight
D. to the bigger colliding object
D. volume
92. What refers to the force perpendicular
to the velocity of an object moving along a
curve path?
97. “Every object in the universe attracts
every other object with a force directly
proportional to the product of their
A. Centrifugal force
masses and inversely proportional to the
B. Centripetal force square of the distance separating them”.
This statement is known as:
C. Reverse-effective force
D. Gravitational force
A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Law of universal gravitation
93. The centripetal force is:
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of impulse
A. directed away from the center of the
curvature of the path
B. directed toward the center of curvature 98. The gravitational force of the earth on
of the path an object varies of the ______ the
distance of the object from the center of
C. tangent to the curvature of the path the earth.
D. either directed away or toward the
center of curvature of the path
A. inversely as
B. inversely as the square of
94. What refers to the time needed by an
object in uniform circular motion to C. directly as
complete an orbit?
D. directly as the square of
A. path time
99. A rotating body has kinetic energy.
B. orbit time This statement is ________.
C. revolution
A. sometimes true
B. sometimes false
C. always true
D. always false
100. What type of energy is usually
transmitted by rotary motion?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Mechanical energy
D. Rest energy
101. Angular momentum is the product of
________.
A. moment of inertia and linear speed
B. moment of area and angular speed
C. moment of inertia and angular speed
D. moment of area and angular speed
102. “When the sum of the external
torques acting on a system of particles is
zero, the total angular momentum of the
system remains constant “. This statement
is known as:
A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of impulse
C. Conservation of linear momentum
D. Conservation of angular momentum
103. What particles will experience
tangential acceleration?
A. Those particles whose angular speed
changes
B. Those particles whose angular speed
remains constant
C. All particles
D. Those particles whose angular speed is
zero.
104. The _________ of a body about a
given axis is the rotational analog of mass
of the body is distributed about the axis.
109. A device that transmits force or
torque is called _______.
A. moment of mass
B. moment of area
A. mechanical tool
C. moment of inertia
B. machine
D. torque
C. axle
D. wedge
105. The _______ of a force about a
particular axis is the product of the
magnitude of the force and the
perpendicular distance from the line of 110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it
action of the force to the axis. illustrates what type of equilibrium?
A. inertia A. stable equilibrium
B. mass moment B. neutral equilibrium
C. torque C. unstable equilibrium
D. moment D. translational equilibrium
106. When the forces that act on an object 111. When the net torque acting on an
have a vector sum of zero, the object is object is zero, the object is in _______.
said to be in _______.
A. unstable equilibrium
A. unstable equilibrium
B. stable equilibrium
B. stable equilibrium
C. rotational equilibrium
C. rotational equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium
112. Which of the following is NOT a basic
107. Which of the following is an example machine?
of a neutral equilibrium?
A. lever
A. A cone balanced on its apex.
B. incline plane
B. A cone balanced on its base.
C. hydraulic press
C. A cone on its side.
D. wedge
D. A cone balanced on the circumference
of its base.
113. Where is the center of gravity of an
object located?
108. Which of the following is an example
of a stable equilibrium?
A. It is always inside the object.
B. It is always outside the object.
A. A cone balanced on its apex.
C. It is always at its geometric center.
B. A cone balanced on its base.
D. It may sometimes be inside the object
C. A cone on its side.
and sometimes outside the object.
D. A cone balanced on the circumference
of its base.
114. What is defined as the mass per unit
volume?
 B. 1.021 bar B. oscillation

A. Density C. 1.013 bar C. period

B. Weight density D. 1.037 bar D. amplitude

C. Relative density

D. Specific density 120. “An external pressure exerted on a 125. What quantity is often used in
fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout describing harmonic motion?
the volume of the fluid”. This statement is
known as ________.
115. What is defined as the weight per
unit volume? A. Amplitude

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. Frequency

A. Density B. Pascal’s principle C. Period

B. Weight density C. Archimedes principle D. Oscillation

C. Relative density D. Torricelli’s theorem

D. Specific density 121. The hydraulic press is an instrument 126. The period of the simple harmonic
which uses one of the following theorems. motion is _______ its amplitude.
Which one?
116. All are values of the density of water
except one. Which one? A. directly proportional to
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
B. inversely proportional to
B. Pascal’s principle
A. 1000 kg/m3 C. equal to
C. Archimedes principle
B. 62.4 lb/ft3 D. independent of
D. Reynold’s principle
C. 10 g/cm3

D. 9.81 kN/m3 127. What refers to an oscillatory motion

122. The hydrometer is an instrument that occurs whenever a restoring force
which uses one of the following theorems. acts on a body in the opposite direction to
Which one? its displacement from its equilibrium
117. The __________ of a substance is its
position, with the magnitude of the
density relative to that of water?
restoring force proportional to the
magnitude of the displacement?
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
A. density
B. Pascal’s principle
B. weight density A. Damped harmonic motion
C. Archimedes principle
C. viscosity B. Pendulum
D. Reynold’s principle
D. specific gravity C. Simple harmonic motion

D. Damped harmonic oscillation

123. The hydrometer is an instrument
118. What is another term for specific used to measure __________.
gravity?
128. In a damped harmonic oscillator,
what reduces the amplitude of the
A. pressure of a liquid vibrations?
A. Density
B. density of a liquid
B. Weight density
C. Reynold’s number A. Force
C. Relative density
D. viscosity of liquid B. Period
D. Viscosity
C. Frequency
124. The maximum displacement of an D. Friction
119. What is the average pressure of the object undergoing harmonic motion on
earth’s atmosphere at sea level? either side of its equilibrium position is
called the _________ of the motion.
129. The _________ of a pivotal object is
that point at which it can be struck
A. 1.042 bar
A. frequency
without producing a reaction force on its D. Wave motion C. Principle of superposition
pivot.
D. Wave motion principle

134. What occur when the individual

A. center of gravity particles of a medium vibrate back and
forth in the direction in which the waves 139. What occurs when the resulting
B. center of oscillation travel? composite wave has amplitude greater
than that of either of the original waves?
C. axis of oscillation

D. center of mass A. Longitudinal waves

A. Local interference
B. Transverse waves
B. Ordinary interference
130. What is a longitudinal wave C. Wave motions
phenomenon that results in periodic C. Constructive interference
pressure variations? D. Shock waves
D. Destructive interference

A. Sound 135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose

frequencies are below _________. 140. What occurs when the resulting
B. Resonance composite wave has amplitude less than
A. 20 Hz that of either of the original waves?
C. Wave
B. 30 Hz
D. Beat
C. 40 Hz A. Local interference

131. What occurs when periodic impulses
are applied to a system and frequency
equal to one of its natural frequencies of
oscillation?
D. 50 Hz B. Ordinary interference
136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose C. Constructive interference
frequencies are above __________.
D. Destructive interference

141. The rate at which a wave of any kind

A. 10,000 Hz carries energy per unit cross-sectional
A. Beat area is called ________.
B. 20,000 Hz
B. Resonance
C. 30,000 Hz
C. Doppler effect A. beats
D. 40,000 Hz
D. Shock wave B. frequency

C. gain
137. What occur when the individual
132. What refers to a shell of high particles of a medium vibrate from side to D. intensity
pressure produced by the motion of an side perpendicular to the direction in
object whose speed exceeds that of which the waves travel?
sound?
142. At what intensity will sound wave
starts to damage the ear of humans.
A. Longitudinal waves
A. Shock wave
B. Transverse waves
B. Mach wave A. 10 W/m2
C. Wave motions
C. Beat wave B. 0.1 W/m2
D. Shock waves
D. Sonic wave C. 1 W/m2

133. What refers to the change in
frequency of a wave when there is relative
motion between its source and an
observer?
D. 0.01 W/m2
138. “When two or more waves of the
same mature travel just a given point at
the same time, the amplitude at the point
143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible,
is the sum of the amplitude of the
it must have a minimum intensity of
individual waves”. This statement is known
______ W/m2?
as ________.

A. Superposition principle
A. 10^-10
A. Mach principle
B. Shock effect
B. 10^-11
B. Doppler principle
C. Doppler effect
C. 10^-12
D. 10^-13 D. Force field

144. How many decibels should a sound to 154. What refers to the brightness of a
be barely audible? light source?
149. The _________ of an electric field is
A. 0 the electric potential energy per unit A. Luminous intensity
volume associated with it.
B. 1 B. Illumination

C. 0.1 C. Luminous flux

A. capacitance
D. 1.5 D. Luminous efficiency
B. polar energy

C. energy density
145. The ratio of a speed of an object and 155. What is the approximate luminous
the speed of sound is called the D. dielectric distance intensity of a candle?
_________.

150. What is the ratio between the charge A. 1 candela

A. Wave factor on either plates of a capacitor and the
potential difference between the plates? B. 1 flux
B. Supersonic number
A. Resistance C. 1 lumen
C. Sonic number
B. Inductance D. All of the above
D. Mach number
C. Capacitance

D. Potential difference 156. What unit is defined in terms of the

146. “The net electric charge in an isolated light emitted by a small pool of platinum
system remains constant”. This statement at its melting point?
is known as ________.
151. What refers to the measure of how
effective a material is in reducing an
electric field set up across a sample of it? A. Footcandle
A. Principle of conservation of attraction
A. Electronegativity B. Candela
B. Principle of conservation of charge
B. Potential difference C. Lux
C. Coulomb’s law
C. Dielectric constant D. Lumen
D. Principle of superconductivity
D. Energy density
157. What refers to the total amount of
147. “The force one charge exerts on visible light given off by a light source?
another is directly proportional to the 152. The potential difference across a
magnitudes of the charges and inversely battery, a generator or other source of
proportional to the square of the distance electric energy when it is not connected to
A. Luminous intensity
between them”. This statement is known any external circuit is called its ________.
as ________. B. Luminous flux

C. Luminous efficiency
A. electromechanical force
A. Coulomb’s law D. Illumination
B. electrostatic force
B. Kirchhoff’s law
C. electromotive force
C. Lenz’s law 158. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux
D. internal resistance
that falls on each square meter of a sphere
D. Faraday’s law
1 meter in radius at whose center is a
________ light source that radiates
153. What is defined as the luminous flux equally well in all directions.
148. What refers to a region of space at per unit area?
every point of which an appropriate test A. 0.1 candela
object would experience a force?
B. 1.0 candela
A. Luminous intensity
C. 10 candela
A. Energy field B. Luminous efficiency
D. 100 candela
B. Electric field C. Illumination

C. magnetic field D. Lumen

159. What is the total luminous flux A. Dispersion C. 1.003
radiated by a 1 candela source?
B. Reflection D. 1.0003
A. 2π lm
C. Refraction 170. What is the index of refraction of
B. 4π lm water?
D. Incidence
C. 8π lm A. 1.33

D. π lm B. 1.63
165. “Every point on the wavefront can be
considered as a source of secondary C. 1.43
wavelets that spread out in all directions
160. What refers to the luminous flux with the wave speed of the medium. The D. 1.53
emitted by a light source per watt of wavefront at any time is the envelope of
power input? these wavelets”. This statement is known
as ________. 171. What type of lens deviates parallel
A. Luminous factor
light outward as though it originated at a
A. Huygen’s principle
B. Luminous efficiency single virtual focal point?
B. Snell’s law
C. Luminous intensity
C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
D. Illumination A. Magnifying lens
D. Doppler’s effect
161. What coating material is used in the B. Convergent lens
inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits
visible light when it is excited by an C. Divergent lens
ultraviolet radiation? 166. What is an imaginary surface the
D. Microscopic lens
joins points where all the waves from a
source are in the same phase of
oscillation?
A. Mercury
172. What type of lens bring parallel light
A. Gamma ray to a single real focal point?
B. Inert gas
B. Wavefront
C. Phosphor
C. Electromagnetic wave A. Magnifying lens
D. Argon
D. Microwave B. Convergent lens

162. What refers to the ratio between the C. Divergent lens

speed of light in free space and its speed 167. What refers to the effect when a D. Microscopic lens
in a particular medium? beam containing more than one frequency
is split into a corresponding number of
A. Index of refection
different beams when it is refracted?
173. Which one best describes the
B. Total internal reflection
A. Flux meniscus lens?
C. Index of dispersion
B. Refraction
D. Index of refraction
C. Reflection A. It has only concave surfaces.

D. Dispersion B. It has only convex surfaces.

163. “The ratio of the sines of the angles of
incidence and refraction is equal to the
ratio of the speeds of light in the two
media”. This statement is known as
________.
168. What refers to the band of colors that
emerges from the prism?
C. it has no concave surface and no convex
surface.
D. It has one concave surface and one
convex surface

A. Huygen’s principle
A. Spectrum
B. Snell’s law 174. What is the distance from a lens to its
B. Luminance focal point called?
C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
C. Facet
D. Doppler’s effect
D. Reflection A. Focal index

169. What is the index of refraction of air? B. Focal factor

164. Light ray that passes at an angle from
one medium to another is deflected at the A. 1.3 C. Focal length
surface between the two media. What is
this phenomenon called? B. 1.03 D. All of the above
 C. myopia 185. What type of mirror that curves
outward toward its center and diverges
175. In optical system, what refers to the D. Minorpia parallel light as though the reflected light
ratio of the image height to the object came from a single virtual focal point
height? behind the mirror?
180. What lens is commonly used to
correct nearsightedness?
A. Linear magnification A. Convex mirror
B. Object magnification B. Concave mirror
A. Magnifying lens
C. Image magnification C. Spherical mirror
B. Convergent lens
D. Height magnification D. Chromatic mirror
C. Divergent lens
186. What refers to an artificially made
D. Microscopic len
polarizing material that transmits light
176. If the linear magnification of an
s with only a single plane of polarization?
optical system is less than one, it means
that:
181. What lens is commonly used to
correct farsightedness?
A. Quartz
A. the image and the object are of the B. Fiber optic
same size
A. Magnifying lens
C. Polaroid
B. the image is larger than the object
B. Convergent lens
D. Tounnaline
C. the image is smaller than the object
C. Divergent lens
187. In optical system, what refers to its
D. the image may be larger or smaller than ability to produce separate images of
D. Microscopic lens
the object nearby objects?
182. What is a defect of vision caused by
the cornea having different curvatures in
177. A camera usually uses what type of different planes?
A. Coherent power
lens to form an image on a light-sensitive
photographic film? B. Brewster’s power
A. Astigmatism
C. Polarization power
B. Myopia
A. Magnifying lens D. Resolving power
C. Hyperopia
B. Convergent lens
D. Presbyopia
C. Divergent lens 188. The resolving power of an equal
183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio system is _________ the objective lens of
D. Microscopic lens the optical system?
between the angles subtended at the eye
by the image and the angle subtended at
the eye by the object seen directly?
178. One of the common defects of vision A. directly proportional
is _______ commonly known as
nearsightedness. B. inversely proportional
A. Magnifying power
C. equal
B. Linear magnification
A. hyporopia D. not related to
C. Angular magnification
B. hyperopia 189. What refers to the ability of waves to
D. Object magnification
bend around the edges of obstacles in
C. myopia their paths?
D. Minorpia
184. What type of mirror that curves
inward its center and converges parallel
A. Coherence
light to a single real focal point?
179. One of the common defects of vision B. Reflection
is ______ commonly known as
farsightedness. C. Refraction
A. Convex mirror
D. Diffraction
B. Concave mirror
A. hyporopia 190. What refers to a series of parallel slits
C. Spherical mirror
that produces a spectrum through the
B. hyperopia interference of light that is diffracted?
D. Chromatic mirror
 C. Absorption spectrum to fall at a constant velocity. What is thus
constant velocity called?
A. Diffraction grating D. Emission spectrum

B. Polarization 196. What consists of various wavelengths

of light absorbed by a substance when A. Instantaneous velocity
C. Coherent waves white light is passed through it?
B. Free-falling body
D. Reflection
C. Gravitational velocity
191. The emission of electrons from a A. Excited spectrum
metal surface when light shines on it is D. Terminal velocity
called _______. B. Light spectrum
202. The first law of motion is also known
C. Absorption spectrum as ___________.

A. Absorption effect D. Emission spectrum

B. Spectrum emission 197. Every electron has a certain amount A. Law of acceleration
of angular momentum called its
C. Quantum effect _________. B. Law of inertia

D. Photoelectric effect C. Law of interaction

A. spin D. Law of momentum

192. What are high-frequency B. shell 203. The second law of motion is also
electromagnetic waves emitted when fast known as _________.
electrons impinge on matter? C. state

D. quantum number
A. Law of acceleration
A. Beta rays 198. What is the distance from a lens to its
focal point called? B. Law of inertia
B. Alpha rays
C. Law of interaction
C. X-rays
A. Focal index D. Law of momentum
D. De Broglie waves
B. Focal factor
193. What refers to the increase in the
measured mass of an object when it is C. Focal length 204. The third law of motion is also known
moving relative to an observer? as __________.
D. All of the above
A. Law of acceleration
199. What does LASER stands for?
A. Exclusion principle B. Law of inertia

B. Quantum theory of mass C. Law of interaction

A. Light amplification by spectral emission
C. State of mass of radiation D. Law of momentum

D. Relativity of mass B. Light amplification by state emission of 205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the
radiation car’s motion. What is this force called?

C. Light amplification by stimulated

194. What device is used for producing a emission of radiation
narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam A. Reverse effective force
of light? D. Light amplification by saturated
B. Terminal force
emission of radiation
C. Drag force
200. A free falling object is acted upon by
A. Spectral device which of the following? D. Aerodynamic force
B. Prism
206. What instrument is used to measure
C. Fiber optic blood pressure of human beings?
A. Weight of the body
D. Laser B. Air resistance and gravitational pull
195. What consists of various wavelengths A. Stropomanometer
C. Gravitational pull
of light emitted by an excited substance?
B. Pumpmanometer
D. Air resistance
C. Electromanometer
A. Excited spectrum
D. Sphygmomanometer
201. If the forces acting on a falling body
B. Light spectrum balance one another, the body continues
207. What do light, radiowaves, D. 10^-6 B. the number of sound waves you are
microwaves and X-rays have in common? sending out per second
213. What refers to a measure of the
energy of sound? C. the loudness of your voice

A. These waves were predicted by only D. the equality of your voice

one person, James Maxwell.
A. Intensity 219. At what intensity level will a noise be
B. These do not need a medium to travel considered pollutant in the environment?
in. B. Loudness

C. These waves are all mechanical waves. C. Pitch

A. Above 50 dB
D. These waves are all serendipitous D. Sone
discoveries. B. Above 100 dB
214. What refers to the sensation in the
208. Who predicted the existence of ear which depends on the energy in the C. Above 120 dB
electromagnetic waves in 1865? sound wave?
D. Above 150 dB

220. The velocity of sound in air increases

A. Roentgen A. Pitch by how many m/s for every 1ºC increase in
temperature?
B. Maxwell B. Intensity

C. Tesla C. Loudness
A. 0.2
D. Doppler D. Timbre
B. 0.4
209. What is the velocity of light in meters 215. How can loudness of sound be
per second? increased? C. 0.6

D. 0.8

A. 3 x 10^6 A. By increasing the energy of sound 221. Why is sound wave travel faster in
water than in air?
B. 3 x 10^9 B. By preventing sound waves to spread in
different directions.
C. 3 x 10^7
C. By collecting and focusing sound waves A. Because water has greater density than
D. 3 x 10^8 at the receiving end. air.

210. What is the sound level of the D. All of the choices. B. Because water has greater bulk
threshold of pain? modulus than air.
216. Which of the following is dependent
upon the frequency of sound vibrations? C. Because water has more in terms of
number of molecules than air.
A. 100 dB
D. Because water has more in volume than
B. 110 dB A. Timbre air.
C. 120 dB B. Loudness 222. What will happen to the wavelength
if the velocity and frequency of a wave are
D. 130 dB C. Intensity
both reduced to one-half?
211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the D. Pitch
threshold of pain?
217. The “Doppler effect” is named after
A. It will double.
which scientist?
B. It will reduce in half.
A. 1
C. It will quadruple.
B. 10 A. Christopher Jacques Doppler
D. It will remain the same.
C. 0.1 B. Christian Jacques Doppler
223. Which of the following statements is
D. 0.01 C. Christopher Jason Doppler
TRUE?
212. What is the intensity of the threshold D. Christian Johann Doppler
A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch.
of hearing in W/m2?
218. When a person tells you that the
B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch.
pitch of your voice is high, he is referring
to _________. C. A high-frequency sound has low energy.
A. 10^-12
D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch
B. 10^-10
and low energy.
A. the intensity of your voice
C. 10^-8
224. What part of the human ear where C. Blue into different colors. Which of these colors
sound energy is converted into electrical bends the least?
energy? D. Green

230. What is the wavelength band of

orange? A. Violet
A. Ear drum
B. Red
B. Cochlea
A. 550 nm – 600 nm C. Orange
C. Tympanum
B. 600 nm – 650 nm D. Green
D. Ear canal
C. 650 nm – 700 nm 236. The formation of rainbow in the sky is
225. In which medium do sound waves due to _______.
travel the faster? D. 500 nm – 550 nm

231. What is the wavelength band in

nanometer of visible light? A. diffraction
A. Liquids
B. reflection
B. Solids
A. 350 – 700 C. refraction
C. Gases
B. 350 – 800 D. diffusion
D. Vacuum
C. 300 – 700 237. What refers to the defect in lenses
226. Who provide evidence that light and which causes unequal refraction of the
electromagnetic waves have the same D. 300 – 800 different colors?
nature and that they travel at the same
232. What terms is used to describe the
speed and exhibit the same properties
angular opening of a sphere that encloses
such as refraction, reflection and
the mirror? A. Chromatic diffraction
interference?
B. Chromatic polarization

A. Angle of curvature C. Chromatic aberration

A. Townes
B. Focal point D. Chromatic dispersion
B. Maxwell
C. Aperture 238. What property of a light wave is
C. Hertz
determined by its wavelength?
D. Vertex
D. Huygens
233. What makes the sun visible even
227. Which of the following has the
before it is in the line with the horizon? A. Color
smallest wavelength band?
B. Shape

A. Diffraction C. Size
A. Blue
B. Reflection D. Density
B. Indigo
C. Refraction 239. What is diffraction?
C. Green
D. Diffusion
D. Yellow
234. When the white light is passed A. It is the scattering of white light behind
228. What color has the longest
through a prism, the different lights are an obstruction.
wavelength?
bent to varying degrees and are dispersed
into different colors. Which of these colors B. It is the separation of white light into its
bends the most? component colors.
A. Orange
C. It is the merging of component colors
B. Red into white light.
A. Violet
C. Yellow D. It is the absorption of white light in the
B. Red atmosphere.
D. Green
C. Orange 240. What is dispersion?
229. What color has the shortest
wavelength? D. Green

235. When the white light is passed
through a prism, the different lights are
A. Indigo bent to varying degrees and are dispersed
B. Violet
A. It is the scattering of white light behind
an obstruction.
B. It is the separation of white light into its
component colors.
C. It is the merging of component colors 246. What refers to the invisible b. Boyle’s Law
into white light. electromagnetic waves shorter than the
visible violet wave but longer than the c. Gay-Lussac’s Law
D. It is the absorption of white light in the Roentgen ray?
atmosphere d. Dalton’s Law

241. What are primary colors? 252. It refers to matter that do not have
A. Beta ray definite form or structure.

B. Ultraviolet light
A. Blue, Red and White
C. Alpha ray a. Amorphous
B. Light colors
D. X-ray b. Morphous
C. Colors which when combined produce
white light 247. What refers to the part of the c. Transient
shadow from which all light is excluded?
D. Blue, Red and Green d. Extrinsic

242. What device used to measure
atmospheric pressure and is consists of a
glass tube sealed at one end filled with
mercury and a slide with a vernier scale?
253. Three grams of sulphur dissolved in
A. Footprint 200 g of naphthalene C10H8, was found
decreasing the freezing point of the
B. Lumbra solvent to 0.72 ⁰C. Find the molecular
weight of the solute. (Kf C10H8 = 6.9
C. Umbra ⁰C/molar)

A. Bourdon gage D. Sunspot

B. Aneroid barometer 248. The range of the projectile is: a. 351.16 g/mole

C. Mercury barometer b. 115.32 g/mole

D. Manometer A. directly proportional to the c. 135.61 g/mole

gravitational acceleration
243. A wave that needs a material medium d. 151.23 g/mole
through which it can travel as it transfers B. directly proportional to the square of
energy? the velocity 254. Substance having a pH level less than
7
C. directly proportional to the velocity
a. acid
A. Electromagnetic wave D. inversely proportional to the velocity
b. base
B. Radiowave 249. What instrument is used to measure
humidity of air? c. salt
C. Microwave
d. hydrate
D. Mechanical wave
A. Hydrometer 255. It is the enthalpy change associated
244. What refers to the band of colors with the condensation of gaseous positive
produced when sunlight passes through a B. Hygrometer and negative ion into a crystal.
prism?
C. Lactometer

D. Radiometer a Raoult’s Law

A. Light spectrum
250. It explains combustion as a result of b. Lattice Energy
B. Solar spectrum loss of a substance.
c. Enthalpy Of Solution
C. White spectrum
d. Partition Coefficient
D. Visible spectrum a. Phlogiston
256. It is a product of the weathering of
245. What refers to the property of some b. Roasting complex silicates, particularly of feldspars
media to transmit light wave in a diffused which are abundant minerals.
c. Reduction
matter to make objects behind them
undistinguishable? d. Fission
a. clay

A. Lucidity b. chalk
251. The volume of a definite quantity of
dry gas is inversely proportional to the c. pyrite
B. Limpidity
pressure provided the temperature
C. Transparent remains constant. d.diamond

D. Translucent 257. Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a

given subshell singly before pairing begins.
a. Charles’ Law
These unpaired electrons have parallel d. carbon
spins. This is known as:
263. At what temperature reading do the
Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit scale
have the same temperature?
a. Building Up Principle
C. light is partially absorbed
D. the refracted energy is absorbed within
a thick layer and converted to heat
269. In translucent material,

b. Aufbau Principle
c. Hund’s rule
d.David’s rule
258. This law states that at constant
temperature the volume of a sample of
gas varies inversely with the pressure.
A. – 40
A. light is able to pass through
B. – 30
B. the refracted energy is absorbed within
C. – 20 a very thin layer and converted to heat
D. – 25 C. light is partially absorbed
264. The _______ of the source is the D. the reflected energy is absorbed within
luminous flux per unit area of the source. a thick layer and converted to heat

a. Avogadro’s Law 270. In transparent material,

b. Boyle’s Law A. luminous emittance

c. Charle’s Law B. luminous efficiency A. light is able to pass through

d. Gay-Lussac’s Law C. luminous intensity B. the refracted energy is absorbed within

a very thin layer and converted to heat
259. It is the scattering of light by colloidal D. illumination
particles C. light is partially absorbed
265. Brightness is the same as
__________. D. the refracted energy is absorbed within
a thick layer and converted to heat
a. Mott Scaterring
271. The ratio of the speeds of light in two
b. Tyndall Effect A. luminous emittance different media is known as ________.
c. Rayleigh Scattering B. luminous efficiency

d. Wolf Effect C. luminous intensity A. index of refraction

260. Consider H3AsO3, Arsenic acid D. illumination B. index of diffraction
(H=1.01,As=74.9,O=16.0).How many mole
is 1kg of H3AsO3? 266. What is a monochromatic light? C. relative index of refraction

D. index of diffusion

a. 7.94 moles A. Light with only one color 272. What occurs when two waves
combine so that one subtracts from the
b. 6.94 moles B. Light with only one wavelength
other?
c. 5.94 moles C. Light with only one color and one
wavelength
d. 8.94 moles A. Interference
D. Light with many colors
261. It is customary to indicate accuracy B. Superposition
by using a certain numbers of figures or 267. What is a three-dimensional image of
digits. an object illuminated by a broad band of C. Reinforcement
coherent light?
D. Polarization

a. atomic mass unit 273. What type of waves is produced in

A. Hologram the stem when tuning fork?
b. International system
B. Polygram
c. significant figures
C. Opaque image A. Transverse wave
d. supplementary units
D. Translucent image B. Longitudinal wave
262. It is required for organic compounds.
268. In opaque material, C. Neither transverse wave nor
longitudinal wave
a. hydrogen D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal
A. light is able to pass through
wave
b. oxygen
B. the reflected energy is absorbed within
274. The moment of inertia of an object is
c. boron a very thin layer and converted to heat
dependent on which of the following?
 280. What refers to the emission of 285. What refers to the length of time
electrons from a heated metal in a during which half of a given number of
A. The object’s size and shape vacuum? radioactive nuclei will disintegrate?
B. The object’s mass

C. The location of the axis of rotation A. Geiger effect A. active life

D. All of the above B. Edison effect B. half cycle

C. Eddy current C. half life

275. Which of the following statements
about center of gravity is TRUE?
A. It may be outside the object
D. Fraunhofer effect D. half period
281. The six colors of which sunlight is 286. What refers to the lowest pitch
composed are called __________. produced by a musical tone source?

B. It is always at its geometrical center A. secondary colors A. Treble

C. It is always in the interior of the object B. primary colors B. Bass
D. It is sometimes arbitrary C. complementary colors C. Octave
276. A diatomic scale is a musical scale D. elementary colors D. Fundamental
build up of how many major chords?
287. What is an electromagnetic radiation
of very short wavelength emitted from the
282. A spectrum formed by the dispersion nucleus of a radioactive atom?
A. 2 of light from an incandescent solid, liquid
and gas is
B. 3
A. Beta ray
C. 4
called ________. B. Alpha ray
D. 5
C. Gamma ray
277. A chromatic scale is a diatomic scale
with how many added half tones? A. visible spectrum D. X-ray

B. continuous spectrum
A. 2 C. emission spectrum 288. What is an instrumental used to
detect and measure radioactivity?
B. 3 D. discontinuous spectrum
A. Edison counter
C. 4 283. What is the type of force which binds
the protons and neutrons together in the B. Radioactive counter
D. 5
nucleus of an atom?
C. Fraunhofer counter
278. What refers to two colors which
combine to form white light? D. Geiger effect
A. Drag force
289. What refers to the fundamentals and
B. Bind force the tones whose frequencies are whole
A. Complementary colors
number multiples of the fundamentals?
C. Exchange force
B. Secondary colors
D. Intact force
C. Primary colors
A. Harmony
284. The “f” number of the lens is the
D. Elementary colors
ration of the: B. Beats
279. A spectrum consisting of a wide range
C. Treble and bass
of unseparated wavelength is called
________. A. focal length of the lens to the effective D. Harmonics
aperture
A. visible spectrum 290. A spectrum consisting of
B. effective aperture to the focal length of monochromatic slit images having
B. continuous spectrum
the lens wavelengths characteristic of the atoms
C. emission spectrum parent is called __________.
C. magnifying power of lens to effective
D. discontinuous spectrum aperture

D. effective aperture to magnifying power A. line spectrum

of the lens
B. continuous spectrum
C. slit spectrum B. Retinal fatigue

D. image spectrum C. Pupil imperfection A. 342 m/s

291. What is an instrument used to D. Astigmatism B. 400 m/s

determine the mass of atomic particles?
A. Mass indicator
B. Mass spectrograph
C. Mass counter
D. Mass technograph
292. What is a nucleon?
A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom.
B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom.
C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom.
D. A proton or a neutron of an atom.
293. What is a glass bottle used to
determine the specific gravity of liquids?
297. The theory that the retina of the eye C. 542 m/s
is provided with three sets of receptors,
each of which is sensitive to one of the D. 300 m/s
three primary colors is known as
302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass
___________.
of 2.5 grams. What must be the tension in
the cord if the wavelength of a 120 Hz
wave on it is to be 50 cm?
A. True color vision theory
B. Young – Helmholtz color vision theory
A. 1.50 N
C. Primary vision theory
B. 1.80 N
D. Young – Huygen primary vision theory
C. 2.50 N
298. What is a probable explanation for
D. 4.30 N
observe phenomena which is supported
by abundant data?
303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz
vibrator at its end. Determine the speed of
transverse waves on the string if it
A. Theory resonates four segments?
B. Hypothesis

C. Axiom A. 340 m/s

A. Beaker
D. Conclusion B. 360 m/s
B. Flask
299. A tempered scale is a musical scale C. 430 m/s
C. Pyonometer with _______ equal frequency ratio
intervals between the successive notes of D. 420 m/s
D. Graduated cylinder an octave.
304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates
294. What is an instrument used to in its fundamental to a frequency of 250
determine the angle of rotation of the Hz. What is the tension in the string if 80
plane of polarized light? A. 9 cm of the string “weighs” 0.80 grams?

B. 10

A. Polariscope C. 11 A. 20 N

B. Polarimeter D. 1 B. 30 N

C. Polargraph C. 10 N

D. Polagraph 300. What is unifying theory applicable to D. 40 N

295. What refers to the property of sound
waves which depends on the number of
harmonics present and on their
prominence?
the divergent phenomena of light which
assumes that the transfer of energy
between light and matter occurs only in
305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m
discrete quantities proportional to the
and a mass of 21.0 g in under tension of
frequency of the energy transferred?
6.4 x 103 N, what is the fundamental
frequency?

A. Pitch A. Quantum theory A. 225 Hz

B. Quality B. Radioactive theory B. 187 Hz

C. Harmonic C. Nuclear energy C. 255 Hz

D. Fundamental D. Quark energy D. 290 Hz

296. What refers to the failure of one set
of color receptors in the eye to be
stimulated?
A. Retinal failure
301. The wavelength of a source wave in a
certain material as measured is 18 cm. The
frequency of the wave is 1900 Hz.
Compute the speed of sound wave?
306. A rope 4 ft long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow
on the rope produces a transverse wave.
Determine the velocity of the wave
considering that the tension is 40 lb.
A. 75.8 ft/s pressure) is 332 m/s and changes by 0.6 A. 1.46
m/s for every 1 °C change in temperature.
B. 95.7 ft/s B. 1.33

C. 78.5 ft/s C. 1.26

A. 14.58 s
D. 85.8 ft/s D. 1.67
B. 12.45 s
307. What is the relative intensity level of 317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a
sound in decibels it its intensity is 3 x 10-7 C. 11.87 s refractive index of 1.55. Compute how
W/cm2? long will it take for a pulse of light to pass
D. 17.54 s through the plate?
312. What is the speed of sound in neon
A. 94.8 gas at temperature of 25°C considering
that the molecular mass if this gas is 20.18 A. 4.41 x 10-12 s
B. 78.7 kg/mol? Neon is monoatomic. Use k = 1.67
B. 3.11 x 10-11 s
C. 80.5
C. 1.34 x 10-12 s
D. 75.4 A. 543.7 m/s
D. 2.34 x 10-11 s
308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 B. 478.6 m/s
dynes/cm^2 and a velocity of 35.7 m/s, 318. A light passes from glass to water. If
what is the absolute intensity considering C. 321.7 m/s the index of refraction for glass is 1.54 and
that 0.001293gm/cm? for water is 1.33, compute the critical
D. 447.5 m/s angle for this light to pass the glass.
313. What is the wavelength of yellow
A. 1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2 light whose frequency is 5 x 1014 Hz?
A. 59.7°
B. 1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm2 A. 800 mm
B. 45.8°
C. 3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2 B. 200 mm
C. 67.4°
D. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm2 C. 600 mm
D. 50.9°
309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz D. 700 mm
approaches a station at the rate of 35mph. 319. A light source emits a total luminous
What frequency is heard by a man 314. What is the angle of refraction of flux of 1000 lumens and distributed
standing at the station considering the light as a beam of parallel light enters a uniformly over 25% of a sphere. What is
velocity of sound in air 1100 ft/s? block of ice at angle of incidence of 30°? the luminous intensity at 2.5-meter
The index of refraction of ice is 1.31 and distance?
that of air is 1.0.

A. 739.7 Hz A. 45°
A. 413 cd
B. 857.4 Hz B. 30°
B. 243 cd
C. 716.4 Hz C. 22°
C. 134 cd
D. 786.7 Hz D. 26°
D. 318 cd
310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward 315. A light ray is incident at an angle of
each other at speeds of 45km/hr and 70 45° on one side of a glass plate of index of 320. A light bulb emits a total luminous
km/hr respectively. If A blowing its horn, refraction 1.6. Find the angle at which the flux of 1700 lumens, distributed uniformly
what is the relative pitch heard by a ray emerges from the other side of the over a hemisphere. What is the
passenger in B, considering that the plate. illuminance at a distance of 2 meters?
velocity of sound is 344 m/s

A. 67.65 lm/m2
A. 1.043
A. 26° B. 35.70 lm/m2
B. 1.021
B. 20° C. 59.87 lm/m2
C. 1.096
C. 22° D. 23.56 lm/m2
D. 1.078
D. 28° 321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker
311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 10 ft below. A chair sits on the floor of the
km from the observer. How long after the 316. It was found out that the speed of bunker 3 feet from a spot directly below
explosion does a person hear if the light in water is 75% of its speed in the bulb. What is the illumination on the
temperature is 18°C? Note: the speed of vacuum. What is the index of refraction of floor around the chair if the luminous
sound at STP (standard temperature and water? intensity is 150 candles?
A. 2.38 footcandles A. 9.76 ft

B. 2.43 footcandles A. 11 cm B. 8.5 ft

C. 3.87 footcandles B. 10 cm C. 12.7 ft

D. 1.38 footcandles C. 12 cm D. 10.41 ft

322. A light ray passing through air and
strikes a glass surface at an angle of 55°
from the normal surface. What is the
angle between the reflected light and the
surface?
A. 55°
B. 25°
C. 35°
D. 45°
323. A converging lens of focal length 20
cm is placed 37 cm in front of a screen. At
what distance that the object be placed so
that its image appears on the screen?
A. 43.5 cm
D. 14 cm
327. A double convex lens has faces of
radii 22 and 24 cm. When an object is 30
cm from the lens, a real image is formed
45 cm from the lens. Compute the
refractive index of the lens material
A. 1.64
B. 1.32
C. 1.21
D. 1.76
328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a
mean spherical luminous intensity of 66.5
candelas. Compute the total luminous flux
radiated by the lamp?
332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal
length of 35 cm and an index of refraction
1.53. Find the radius of the convex
surface.
A. 18.55 cm
B. 15.78 cm
C. 20.78 cm
D. 17.55 cm
333. If a beam of polarized light has
one-twelfth of its initial intensity after
passing through an analyzer, what is the
angle between the axis of the analyzer and
the initial amplitude of the beam?
A. 65.73°

B. 35.7 cm A. 842 lm B. 76.27°

C. 27.6 cm B. 457 lm C. 73.22°

D. 50.7 cm C. 786 lm D. 67.54°

324. In what positions will a converging
lens of focal length 10 cm from an image
of luminous object on a screen located 50
cm from the object?
A. 11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object
D. 987 lm
329. A 250 W light source has a mean
spherical luminous intensity of 87.5
candelas. Compute the luminous intensity
of the lamp?
334. An observer sees a spaceship,
measured 100 m long when at rest. He
passed by in uniform motion with the
speed of 0.5 c. While the observer is
watching the spaceship, a time of 2 s
elapses on a clock on board the ship, what
is the length of the moving spaceship?

B. 10 cm and 40 cm from the object A. 4.7 lm/s

A. 82 m
C. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the object B. 4.4 lm/s
B. 85 m
D. 12.56 cm and 37.44 cm from the object C. 2.0 lm/s
C. 83 m
325. A lens has a convex surface of radius D. 1.7 lm/s
17 cm and a concave surface of radius 38 D. 87 m
cm and is made of glass of refractive index 330. Compute the illumination on a
1.55. Calculate the focal length of the lens surface 5 ft distance from a 100-cd source 335. The captain of a spacecraft send a
and classify the type of lens whether if the surface makes an angle of 18° with pulse of light towards earth and then
diverging or converging? the rays? exactly 1 min. later (as measured by the
clock on the spacecraft), sends a second
pulse. An observer on earth sees the
A. 1.67 lm/ft2 second pulse arrive 4 minutes after the
A. 55.93 cm converging lens
first. What is the velocity of the spacecraft
B. 57.45 cm diverging lens B. 1.50 lm/ft2 relative to the earth?

C. 55.93 cm diverging lens C. 1.24 lm/ft2

D. 57.45 cm converging lens D. 2.13 lm/ft2 A. 0.987c

326. A double convex lens has faces of 331. Estimate the distance for which a B. 0.968c
radii 16 and 18 cm. When an object is 20 30-cd lamp provide the same illumination
as a standard lamp of 80-cd placed 17 ft C. 0.954c
cm from the lens, a real image is formed
30 cm from the lens. What is the focal from the screen?
D. 0.953c
length of the lens?
336. What is the rest energy of electron
equivalent to its rest mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x
10^-13 J and mass of electron is 9.11 x
10^-31 kg.
approximately 5900 m/s? Note: the 346. What is the mass of electron traveling
density of steel is 7900 kg/m3 at half the speed of light?
A. 2.75 x 1011 Pa A. 1.05 x 10-30 kg

A. 0.512 MeV B. 1.25 x 1011 Pa B. 2.31 x 10-30 kg

B. 0.987 MeV C. 1.15 x 1011 Pa C. 1.56 x 10-31 kg

C. 0.345 MeV D. 2.45 x 1011 Pa D. 1.61 x 10-31 kg

D. 0.675 MeV 342. A certain loud speaker has a circular 347. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m
opening with a diameter of 15 cm. Assume directly above the table. To what distance
that the sound it emits is uniform and should it be lowered to increase the
outward through this entire opening. How illumination to 4.45 times its former
337. What is the frequency of photon much power is being radiated by the value?
having energy of 2 eV? loudspeaker if the sound intensity at
opening is 150µW/m^2?
A. 560 THz
A. 4.02 m
B. 300 THz
A. 1.77 µW B. 3.86 m
C. 250 THz
B. 1.87 µW C. 3.79 m
D. 480 THz
C. 2.65 µW D. 4.21 m
338. A red light passes an empty space.
What is the momentum of a single photon D. 3.41 µW 348. A floodlight emitting 25,000 candelas
of red light whose frequency is 400 x 1012 in the center of its beam is aimed at 50° to
HZ? 343. Sound intensity that reaches 1.2 a point on the ground 20 meters away.
W/m2 is painful to human ear. How many The illumination of the point in flux is:
decibels is 1.2 W/m2?
A. 8.8 x 10 -28 kg m/s
A. 54.12
B. 7.6 x 10 -28 kg m/s A. 240.5 dB
B. 62.5
C. 5.4 x 10 -28 kg m/s B. 170.4 dB
C. 31.25
D. 6.5 x 10 -28 kg m/s C. 120.8 dB
D. 625
339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x D. 134.5 dB
10^-18 J of electromagnetic energy. How 349. Compute the speed of sound in neon
many photons of orange light whose 344. Compute the ratio of the intensities gas at 27°C of molecular mass 20.18
wavelength is 600 nm present in the of sounds if one is 12 times louder than kg/kmol and k of 1.67.
energy? the other?

A. 454 m/s
A. 5 A. 13.47 dB
B. 564 m/s
B. 4 B. 15.85 dB
C. 356 m/s
C. 3 C. 18.76 dB
D. 434 m/s
D. 1 D. 14.54 dB
350. A magnifying glass has a lens with an
340. What is the speed of sound through 345. An automobile moving at 30 m/s is index of refraction 5.4 and radii of
compressed water (100 kPa) if its volume approaching a building whistle with a curvature of 2.95 feet and 4.27 feet for
decreased by 0.005% of its original frequency of 500 Hz. If the speed of sound the two faces. What is the magnification
volume? in air is 340 m/s what is the apparent of the lens when it is held 2.36 inches from
frequency of the whistle heard by the an object being viewed?
driver?
A. 1414 m/s
A. 1.6
B. 1250 m/s A. 459 Hz
B. 2.78
C. 1130 m/s B. 458 Hz
C. 2.16
D. 1200 m/s C. 457 Hz
D. 1.98
341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if D. 456 Hz
the sound waves traveled at 351. “At any point along a streamline in an
ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the
pressure, the potential energy per unit A. Pascal’s Principle D. Q = miv
volume and the kinetic energy per unit
volume have the same value.” The concept B. Bernoulli’s Theorem 362. Which of the following is true? The
is known as density of water
C. Ideal Fluid Principle

D. Archimedes Principle
A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles A. Is maximum at 4oC
357. The amount of heat needed to
B. Fluid theorem change solid to liquid is B. Decreases as the temperature is
increased
C. Pascal’s theorem
C. Is minimum at 4oC
D. Hydraulic theorem A. condensation
D. Increases with temperature
352. The work done by all forces except B. cold fusion
the gravitational force is always equal to 363. When the pitch of a note is raised
C. latent heat of fusion then, its
the one of the system.
D. solid fusion

358. At the boiling point of liquid, the A. frequency decreases

A. Total mechanical energy
vapor pressure
B. Total potential energy B. wavelength is increased

C. Total kinetic energy C. frequency increases

A. is equal to external pressure on the
D. Total momentum surface of the liquid D. None of the above is true

353. When the two waves of the same B. is greater than the atmospheric 364. Cohesion is the attraction between
frequency, speed and amplitude traveling pressure like
in opposite directions are superimposed,
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure

D. can have any value A. atom

A. the phase difference is always zero
359. Which of the following thermometers B. element
B. distractive waves are produced is best suited for measuring a temperature
of nearly 1500oC? C. compound
C. standing waves are produced
D. molecule
D. constructive interference always results
A. Gas thermometer 365. The quality known as specific heat is
to zero
based on:
354. According to this law, “The force B. Platinum resistance thermometer
between two charges varies directly as the
C. Thermo couple thermometer
magnitude of each charge and inversely as A. the increase in temperature due to
the square of the distance between them.” D. Mercury thermometer induction

360. The energy stored in a starched B. the heat needed for one pound of water
elastic material such as spring is to boil
A. Law of Universal Gravitation
C. the heat needed to increase the
B. Newton’s Law
temperature to one gram of a substance
A. Mechanical energy one degree Celsius
C. Inverse Square Law
B. Elastic potential energy D. the amount of heat required to melt
D. Coulomb’s Law
one kg of lead
C. Internal energy
355. It describes the luminous flux
incidence per unit area and is expressed in 366. On decreasing the pressure, the
D. Kinetic energy
lumens per square meter. boiling point of water will
361. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent
heat of fusion and vaporization,
respectively, which of the following A. increase
A. Illuminance
equations apply in determining the
B. Luminance amount of energy needed to freeze a B. remain unaffected
liquid?
C. Luminous Intensity C. decrease

D. Radiance D. may increase/decrease depending on

A. Q = -mif the pressure
356. The fluid pressure is the same in all
directions. This is known as B. Q = -miv 367. When sugar is added to water, its
boiling point
C. Q = mif
 373. Normal range of the frequency of A. It will weigh less than one pound of
sound, which the human beings can hear, water at 0oC
A. increases is
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water
B. remains unaffected at 0oC
C. decreases A. Less than 20 Hz C. Its volume will decrease when its
temperature is lowered
D. Any of the above is possible B. More than 25,000 Hz
D. Its volume will increase when its
368. Which one of the following processes C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz temperature is lowered or raised
of heat transfer requires the presence of a
fluid? D. All of these 379. Heat will flow from one body to
another in thermal contact with it, when
374. The loudness of sound depends upon
they differ in
its
A. conduction

B. convection
A. mass
C. radiation
B. specific mass
D. none of the above
C. density
A. Wavelength
369. When salt is added to water, its
D. temperature
boiling point B. Frequency
380. The amount of heat which is
C. Amplitude
absorbed during the change of state of a
A. increases D. All of the above substance without rise in its temperature
is called its
B. decreases 375. Sound above the frequency of 20,000
Hz is called
C. remains unaffected
A. Specific heat
D. may increase/decrease depending on
the pressure A. Supersonic sound B. Latent heat

370. Which one of the following B. Intrasonic sound C. Thermal conductivity

propagates with the same speed as speed
C. Hypersonic sound D. Water equivalent
of light?
D. Ultrasonic sound 381. The scientist who systematically
demonstrated the equivalence of
A. The sound waves 376. The surface of the thermos flask is mechanical energy and heat was
silvered for minimizing heat transfer by
B. The heat waves what process?

C. The shock waves A. Joule

D. The Beta rays A. conduction B. Boltzmann

371. Which of the following is not true B. radiation C. Faraday

about sound waves?
C. convection D. Kelvin

D. vaporization 382. On a sunny day at the beach, the

A. They transmit the energy sand gets so hot and the water stays
377. Water starts boiling when relatively cool is due to the difference in of
B. They are propagated as a series of water and sand.
compressions and the rare fractions

C. They travel faster in air than in solids
D. They produce interference
372. Sound waves in air are
A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse
C. transverse
D. stationary
A. Its temperature reaches 100oC
A. density
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of
mercury B. specific heat
C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the C. depth
external pressure on its surface
D. thermal conductivity
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than
the atmospheric pressure 383. The instrument, which measures
temperature by radiation, is called
378. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a
certain volume V. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. thermopile
B. thermometer D. May be any of the above B. Transverse wave

C. pyrometer 389. It is hotter over the top of a fire than C. Standing wave
at the same distance on the sides because
D. hydrometer of: D. None of these

384. When the temperature of an ideal

gas is increased at constant pressure,
A. convection of heat 395. When waves go from one place to
another they transport
B. conduction of heat
A. the potential energy of molecules
increases C. radiation of heat
A. Energy and matter
B. the potential energy of molecules D. convection, conduction and radiation of
decreases heat B. Wavelength and matter

C. the kinetic energy of molecules 390. The density of water is C. Frequency only
increases
D. Energy only
D. the kinetic energy of molecules
A. same at all temperature 396. The phenomenon of damping results
decreases
in decrease in
385. The root mean square speed of the B. maximum at 4oC
molecules of a gas is
C. minimum at 4oC
A. frequency
D. maximum at 0oC
B. velocity
A. independent of its pressure P
391. When a substance is heated, its
C. wavelength
B. directly proportional to square root of P
D. amplitude
C. directly proportional to the square of its
A. molecules move more slowly
temperature T 397. Echo is formed as a result of
B. molecules move more rapidly
D. proportional to T
C. there is no change in the speed of its
386. At what temperature do both the A. refraction of sound
molecules
centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers
show the same reading? D. its temperature always increases B. diffraction of sound

392. When common salt is sprinkled on ice C. interference of sound

the temperature of ice
A. -38oC D. reflection of sound

B. -40oC 398. The characteristic of sound which

A. increases enables us to distinguish two musical
C. -42oC notes having the same frequency and
B. decreases loudness is called
D. -50oC
C. remains unchanged
387. A mercury thermometer is
constructed at D. none of these A. pitch

393. The minimum temperature which can B. intensity

be measured with a mercury thermometer
A. room temperature C. timber
is
B. a temperature higher than the D. decibel
maximum range of the thermometer
A. 0oC 399. Which of the following could be a
C. a temperature lower than the minimum longitudinal wave?
range of the thermometer B. -273oC

D. atmospheric pressure C. -39oC

A. electromagnetic waves
388. The boiling point of water on plains is D. -143oC
100oC. At hills it will be B. a sound wave in air

C. a water wave
394. A wave in which the particles of the
A. 100oC material move up and down as the waves D. waves on vibrating string
goes from left is called a
B. Less than 100oC

C. More than 100oC 400. A Decibel is a

A. Longitudinal wave
A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning
fork
C. a measure of intensity level
D. a measure of clarity of sound
401. A ball is thrown vertically upward
with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from a
window of a tall bldg. The ball strikes the
ground level 4 seconds later. Determine
the height of window above the ground.
a) 66.331 m.
b) 66.450 m.
c) 67.239 m.
d) 67.492 m.
402. A stone was dropped freely from a
balloon at a height of 190 m. above the
ground. The balloon is moving upward at a
speed of 30 m/s. Determine the velocity of
the stone as it hits the ground.
a) 69.03 m/s
b) 68.03 m/s
c) 67.30 m/s
d) 69.23 m/s
403. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed
of 20 m/s from a bldg. 100 m. above the
ground. Find the velocity and position of
the stone above the ground after 5
seconds.
a) 4.67 m, 48.30 m/s
b) 4.54 m, 47.68 m/s
c) 5, 43 m, 47.69 m/s
d) 5.68 m, 48.20 m/s
404. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed
of 30 m/s from the top of a tower 200 m.
Determine the velocity of the stone and
the time that it strikes the ground.
a) 1 1.50 sec, 65.80 m/s
b) 1 1.45 sec, 66.59 m/s
c) 10.30 sec, 67.21 m/s
d) 10.14 sec, 69.45 m/s
405. A ball is thrown vertically with a
velocity of 20 m/s. from the top of a bldg.
100 m. high. Find the velocity of the stone
at a height of 40 m. above the ground.
a) 39.71 m/s
b) 40.23 m/s
c) 39.88 m/s
d) 39.68 m/s
406. A projectile is fired from the top of a
cliff 92 m. high with a velocity of 430 m/s
directed 45º to the horizontal. Find the
range on the horizontal plane through the
base of the cliff.
a) 18.959 km.
b) 23.408 km.
c) 15.273 km.
d) .20.365 km.
407. A stone is thrown outward, at an
angle of 30º with the horizontal as shown
in the drawing, into the river from a cliff
that is 120 meters above the water level at
a velocity of 36 kilometers per hour . At
what height above the water level will the
stone start to fall?
a) 121.27 m.
b) 189.29m.
c) 1 1 1.38 m.
d) 152.22 m.
408. A stone was thrown upward at an
angle of 60º with the horizontal and a
resultant vertical speed of 100.0 meters
per second. If gravity decelerates the
speed at 9.8 meters/sec², what is the
actual speed of the stone, in meters per
second, 10.0 seconds later, in the
direction it was thrown?
a) 57.77 m/s
b) 64.22 m/s
c) 60.35 m/s
d) 67.23 m/s
409. A projectile is launched at 45º to the
horizontal on a level ground at a speed of
60 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, what is
the range of the projectile?
a) 366.86 m.
b) 355.29 m.
c) 663.24 m.
d) 386.66 m.
410. A ball thrown at an angle of 30º with
the horizontal from a point60 m. from the
edge of a vertical cliff 48 m. high. The ball
just misses the edge of the cliff. Determine
the initial velocity of the ball and the
distance beyond the cliff where the ball
strikes the ground.
a) 28.4 m/sec; 32.6 m.
b) 26.1 m/sec; 46.9 m.
c) 27.5 m/sec; 56.5m
d) 31.1m/sec; 43.2m
411. A block passes a point 4 m from the
edge of a table with a velocity of 5 m/sec.
It slides off the edge of the table which is 5
m. high and strikes the floor 3 m from the
edge of the table. What was the
coefficient of friction between the block
and the table?
a) 0.65
b) 1.04.
c) 0.21.
d) 0.1 1
412. A ball is shot at a ground level at an
angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal
with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec. Which
of the following most nearly gives the
maximum height (h) attained by the ball?
a) 2.47 m
b) 3.29 m
c) 4.61 m
d) 3.82 m
413. A stone is thrown upward at an angle
of 30º with the horizontal. It lands 60 m.
measured horizontally and 2 m. below
measured vertically from its point of
release. Determine the initial velocity of d) 198.37 m/s a) 890 m.
the stone in m/s.
b) 884 m.

418. A projectile has a velocity of 200m/s c) 883 m.

a) 27.35 acting at an angle of 20º with the
horizontal. How long will it take for the d) 875 m.
b) 28.35 projectile to hit the ground surface?
c) 25.35 a) 13.95 sec.
423. A shot is fired at an angle of 45º with
d) 26.35 b) 15.75 sec. the horizontal and a velocity of 300 fps.
Calculate, to the nearest, the range of the
414. A projectile is fired with a muzzle c) 10.1 1 sec projectile.
velocity of 300 m/s from a gun aimed
upward at an angle of 20º with the d) 24.23sec.
horizontal, from the top of a building 30m.
high above a level ground. With what a) 3500 ft.
velocity will it hit the ground in m/s?
419. A stone is thrown upward at an angle b) 1200 ft.
of 20º with the horizontal from the top of
a tower 30 m. high and hits the ground at c) 4000 ft.
a) 300.98 a distance of 5976.4 m. horizontally from
d) 934 yds.
the base of the tower. Find the time of
b) 310.96 flight of the stone until it hits the ground.
c) 320.96 a) 21.20 sec. 424. Three crates with masses A = 45.2 kg,
d) 330.96 B = 22.8 kg and C = 34.3 kg and are placed
b) 22.20 sec
with B along a horizontal frictionless
415. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 c) 19.39 sec. surface. Find the force exerted by B and C
m/s at an angle of 30 with the horizontal. by pushing the crates to the right with an
Find the maximum height that it could d) 24.15 sec. acceleration of 1.32 m/sec².
reach?

420. A projectile is fired upward at an a) 45.3 kN

a) 31.86 angle of 20ºwith the horizontal from the
top of a tower 30 m. high above a level b) 54.2 KN
b) 41.26 ground. Find the range on the horizontal
c) 43.2kN
plane will the ball hit the ground after
c) 28.46
20.20 seconds. d) 38.7kN
d) 51.26
a) 5386.30 m.

b) 5642.22 m. 425. Three blocks A, Band Care placed on

416. A ball is shot at a ground level at a horizontal frictionless surface and are
c) 5415.37 m.
angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal connected by chords between A, Band C.
with an initial velocity of 100 m/s. d) 6329.33 m. determine the tension between block B
Determine the height of the ball after 2 and C when a horizontal tensile force is
sec. applied at C equal to 6.5 N. Masses of the
blocks are A = 1.2 kg, B = 2.4 kg and C = 3.1
421. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 kg.
m/s at an angle of 30º with the horizontal.
a) 162.46 m. Find the time it would take for the
projectile to reach the maximum height.
b) 153.59 m. a) 3.50 N
c) 175.48 m. b) 4.21 N
a) 2.55 sec.
d) 186.42 m. c) 3.89 N
b) 2.60 sec.
d) 4.65 N
c) 3.10 sec.
417. A ball is shot at an average speed of 426. A constant force P = 750 N acts on
200 m/sat an angle of 20º with the d) 2.89 sec. the body shown during only the first 6 m.
horizontal. What would be the velocity of of its motion starting from rest. If u = 0.20,
the ball after 8 sec.? 422. A baseball is thrown from a find the velocity of the body after it has
horizontal plane following a parabolic path moved a total distance of 9m.
with an initial velocity of 100 m/s at an
angle of 30º above the horizontal. How far
a) 188.21m/s
from the throwing point will the ball attain
its original level? a) 3.93 m/sec²
b) 154.34m/s
b) 4.73 m/sec²
c) 215.53 m/s
c) 2.32 m/sec²
d) 3.1 1 m/sec²
427. A weight of 9 kN is initially suspended
on a 150 m. long cable. The cable weighs
0.002 kN/m. If the weight is then raised
100 m. How much work is done in Joules?
a) 915000
b) 938700
c) 951000
d) 905100
428. What is the kinetic energy of a 4000
lb. automobile which is moving at 44 fps.
a.) 1.21 x 105 ft-lb.
b.) 2.1 x 105 ft-lb.
c) 1.8 x 105 ft-lb
d) 1.12 x 105 ft-lb.
429. A box slides from rest from point
Adown a plane inclined 30º, to the
horizontal. After reaching the bottom of
the plane, the box moves on horizontal
floor at a distance 2 m before coming to
rest. If the coefficient of friction between
the box and plane and between the box
and floor is k = 0.40, what is the distance
of point “A” from the intersection of plane
and the floor?
a) 7.24 m
b) 5.21 m
c) 4.75 m
d) 9.52 m
430. A 400 N block slides on a horizontal
plane by applying a horizontal force of 200
N and reaches a velocity of 20 m/s in a
distance of 30 m. from rest. Compute the
coefficient of friction between the floor
and the block.
a) 0.18
b) 0.24
c) 0.31
d) 0.40
431. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to b) 2.55 m
a 2 percent upgrade with a velocity of 30
mph. If the train resistance is 10 lb/ton, c) 5.22 m
how far up the grade will it go?
d) 3.25 m
a) 1124 ft. on slope
435. A 500 N block on a n incline plane
b) 2014 ft. on slope with an angle of 30º has move 3 m up the
incline plane due to 600 N force applied.
c) 1203 ft. on slope Find the velocity of the block when it
returns to its initial position.
d) 1402 ft on slope
a) 8.6 m/s
432. A car weighing 10 KN is towed along a
horizontal road surface at a uniform b) 5.6 m/s
velocity of 80kph. The towing cable is
parallel with the road surface. The road is c) 6.4 m/s
straight and smooth. When the car is at
d) 7.1 m/s
the foot of an incline as shown having an
elevation of 30 m, the towing cable was
suddenly cut. At what elevation in the
inclined road will the car stop in its 436. A 10 Kg block is raised vertically 3
upward motion? meters. What is the change in potential
energy? Answer in SI units closest to:
a) 55.16 m
a) 350 kg-m2/sec
b) 60.24 m
b) 320 J
c) 51.43 m
c) 350 N-m
d) 49.62 m
d) 294 J
433. A wooden block starting from rest,
slides 6 m down a 45º slope, then 3 m 437. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to
along a level surface and then up a 30º a 2% upgrade with a velocity of 30 mph. if
incline until it comes to rest again. If the the car is then allowed to run back, what
coefficient of friction is 0.15 for all velocity will it have at the foot of the
surfaces of contact, compute the total grade?
distance traveled.
a) 37fps
a) 20m
b) 31fps
b) 1 1m
c) 43 fps
c) 14 m
d) 34 fps
d) 18m
438. A 200 ton train is accelerated from
rest to a velocity of 30 mph on a level
track. How much useful work was done?
434. A 1000 N block on a leveled surface is
attached to250 N block hanging on the
pulley. The pulley is 3 m away from the
a) 12024845 ft-lbs
first block. If the first block started at rest
and moves towards the right. What is the b) 13827217 ft-lbs
velocity of block B as it touches the ground?
How far will the block A travel along the c) 11038738 ft-lbs
horizontal surface if the coefficient of
friction between block A and the surface d) 10287846 ft-lbs
is .20? Assume pulley to be frictionless.
439. A drop hammer weighing 40 KN is
dropped freely and drives a concrete pile
a) 1.44 m
150 mm into the ground. The velocity of
the drop hammer at impact is6m/sec. Determine the horse power developed by b) 2700m/s
what is the average resistance of the soil the train.
in KN? c) 1600 m/s

d) 1700m/s
a) 5.394 kW
a) 542.4 448. The speed of a compressional wave in
b) 5.120 kW silver, specific gravity 10.5, is 2610 m/s.
b) 489.3 compute y for silver.
c) 4.486 kW
c) 384.6
d) 4.591 kW
d) 248.7 a) 71.6 G N/m2

440. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at
an angle of 28º with respect to the
horizontal. The block is pushed 2 feet
horizontally. What is the work done by this
force?
a) 320 J
b) 480 J
c) 540 J
d) 215 J
441. A 50 Kg object strikes the
unscratched spring attached to a vertical
wall having a spring constant of 20 KN/m.
Find the maximum deflection of the spring.
The velocity of the object before it strikes
the spring is 40 m/s.
b) 76G N/m2
444. An elevator has an empty weight of
5160 N. It is design to carry a maximum c) 7.16 G N/m2
load of 20 passengers from the ground
floor to the 25th floor of the building in a d) 716 GN/m2
time of 18 seconds. Assuming the average
weight of a passenger to be 710 N and the
distance between floors to be 3.5 m, what 449. Two waves whose frequencies are
is the minimum constant power needed 500 and 511 per second travel out from a
for the elevator motor? common point. Find their difference in
phase after 1.40 s.
a) 94.3 kW
a) 143°
b) 85.5 kW
b) 144°
c) 97.4 kW
c) 145°
d) 77.6 kW
d) 146°
445. A piano string is 80 cm long and
weighs 5 N. if the string is stretched by a
force of 500 N. what is the speed of the
wave set up when the hammer strikes the 450. A copper has a density of 9 g/cm3
string? and a bulk modulus of 120 G N/m2. What
is the speed of a wave through it?

a) 1 m a) 26m/s
a) 3600 m/s
b) 2 m b) 27m/s
b) 6300 m/s
c) 3 m c) 28 m/s
c) 6030 m/s
d) 4 m d) 30m/s
d) 1460 m/s
446. A 16-16 wire cable 100 ft. long is
stretched between two poles under
442. To push a 25 Kg crate up a 27º incline
tension of 500 lb. If the cable is struck at
plane, a worker exerts a force of 120 N, 451. The time rate of change of velocity.
one end, how long will it take for the wave
parallel to the incline. As the crates slides Since velocity is a directed or vector
to travel to the far end and return?
3.6m, how much is the work done on the quantity involving both magnitude and
crate by the worker and by the force of direction, a velocity may change by a
gravity. change of magnitude (speed) or by a
a) 0.63 s change of direction or both.

b) 0.64 s
a) 400 J
c) 0.65 s a. Gravitation
b) 420 J
d) 0.66 s b. invariant mass
c) 380 J
447. Assume that young modulus for silver c. Acceleration
d) 350 J is 77.5 G N/m2. If it has density 10.5×103
kg/m3, how fast does sound travel d. none of the above
through the silver?
452. The closeness of an indication or
443. A train weighing 12,000 KN is
reading of a measurement device to the
accelerated at a constant rate up a 2%
actual value of the quantity being
grade with a velocity increasing from 30 a) 2600m/s measured. Usually expressed as ± percent
kph to 50 kph in a distance of 500 meters.
of full scale output or reading.
 side squeezes together in compression, c. Brace
and the other side stretches apart in
a. Accuracy tension. d. Compression

b. Compression 464. A projecting structure supported only

at one end, like a shelf bracket or a diving
c. Chemical Equilibrium a. Tension board.
d. Distance b. Brace
453. The rate of change of angular velocity c. Buckle a. Cantilever
with respect to time.
d. none of the above b. Equilibrium

459. Is mechanics applied to biology c. Cable

a. Angular Velocity (Fung). This includes research and analysis
of the mechanics of living organisms and d. Irreversible
b. Acceleration
the application of engineering principles to
465. A condition in which a chemical
c. Angular Acceleration and from biological systems.
reaction is occurring at equal rates in its
forward and reverse directions, so that the
d. none of the above
concentrations of the reacting substances
454. What is a physical quantity expressing a. Biomechanics do not change with time.
the size of a part of a surface?
b. engineering mechanics

c. mechanics a. Chemical Equilibrium

a. Lever
d. none of the above b. Equilibrium
b. Area
460. A structural support; c. force
c. Measurement
d. Pile
d. Bend
a. Brittle 466. A pressing force that squeezes a
455. The rate of change of angular material together.
b. Cable
displacement with respect to time.
c. Brace
a. force
d. Cantilever
a. Angular Velocity
b. Compression
461. Characteristic of a material that fails
b. Load
without warning; brittle materials do not c. steel
c. Instantaneous stretch or shorten before failing.
d. modulus
d. Brittle
467. Central region of a skyscraper; usually
456. A rigid, usually horizontal, structural a. Beam houses elevator and stairwell.
element
b. Brace

c. Beam Bridge a. Core

a. Beam Bridge
d. Brittle b. physical constant
b. Force
462. To bend under compression. c. gravitational attraction
c. Core
d. dimension
d. Beam
a. Brittle 468. To change shape
457. A simple type of bridge, composed of
b. compression
horizontal beams supported by vertical
posts c. bend a. dimension

d. Buckle b. deform
a. Beam 463. A structural element formed from c. deformation
steel wire bound in strands; the
b. Brace d. instantaneous
suspending element in abridge; the
c. Beam Bridge supporting element in some dome roofs.
469. Is a numerical description of how far
apart objects are at any given moment in
d. Buckle
time. In physics or everyday discussion,
458. To curve; bending occurs when a a. Beam distance may refer to a physical length, a
straight material becomes curved; one period of time, or estimation based on
b. Cable
other criteria. In mathematics, distance commonly thought of as the agency that 479. Occurring or completed without
must meet more rigorous criteria. gives objects weight. perceptible delay

a. Force a. gravitational attraction a. volume

b. Distance b. universal gravitation b. Shear

c. mass c. Gravitation c. Instantaneous

d. deformation d. mass d. none of the above

470. Is the mathematical description of an
object or substance’s tendency to be
deformed elastically (i.e. non-permanently)
when a force is applied to it.
a. modulus of elasticity
b. fluid power
c. Hydraulics
d. Gravitation
471. A profession in which acknowledge of
math and natural science is applied to
develop ways to utilize the materials and
forces of nature for the benefit of all
human beings.
475. Is a physical constant involved in the 480. Is the same for all frames of
calculation of the gravitational attraction reference? A mass for a particle is m in the
between objects with mass? It appears in equation
Newton’s law of universal gravitation and
in Einstein’s theory of general relativity.
a. mass
a. gravitational attraction b. invariant mass
b. universal gravitation c. force
c. Gravitation d. all of the above
d. gravitational constant 481. That cannot be revoked or undone.
476. Is the measurement of vertical
distance, but has two meanings in
a. measurement
common use. It can either indicate how
"tall" something is, or how "high up" it is. b. Irreversible

c. base unit

a. Mechanics a. magnitude d. none of the above

b. Engineering Mechanics b. Height 482. A device connecting two or more

c. Engineering
d. None of the above
472. A condition in which all acting
influences are canceled by others,
resulting in a stable, balanced, or
unchanging system.
c. distance
d. none of the above
477. Is a topic of science and engineering
dealing with the mechanical properties of
liquids. Hydraulics is part of the more
general discipline of fluid power.
adjacent parts of a structure; a roller joint
allows adjacent parts to move controllably
past one another; a rigid joint prevents
adjacent parts from moving or rotating
past one another.
a. energy

b. velocity
a. Chemical Equilibrium a. Hydraulics
c. force-field
b. Equilibrium b. physical body
d. joint
c. invariant mass c. fluid power
483. Is the base unit of mass in the
d. Gravitation d. momentum International System of Units (known also
by its French-language initials “SI”).
473. The capacity to do work or cause 478. The tendency of a body to resist
physical change; energy, strength, or acceleration; the tendency of a body at
active power: the force of an explosion. rest to remain at rest or of a body in
a. mass
straight line motion to stay in motion in a
straight line unless acted on by an outside b. measurement
force.
a. Inertia
c. weight
b. Quantity
d. kilogram
a. Inertia
c. Lever
484. Is the long dimension of any object?
b. energy The length of a thing is the distance
d. Force
between its ends, its linear extent as
c. force
474. Is a natural phenomenon by which all measured from end to end.
objects with mass attract each other? In d. none of the above
everyday life, gravitation is most
a. distance of various energy or force-fields, which are a. Chemical Equilibrium
not usually considered to be matter per
b. rigid se. b. Equilibrium

c. free body c. force

d. length a. mass d. Pile

485. A simple machine consisting of a rigid
bar pivoted on a fixed point and used to
transmit force, as in raising or moving a
weight at one end by pushing down on the
other.
b. magnitude 495. Is a collection of masses, taken to be
one. For example, a cricket ball can be
c. matter considered an object but the ball also
consists of many particles.
d. none of the above

490. Science of the action of forces on

material bodies. It forms a central part of a. Hydraulics
a. Inertia all physical science and engineering.
b. physical body
b. Quantity
c. fluid power
c. Lever a. engineering mechanics
d. momentum
d. Force b. mechanics
496. Is a kind of property which exists as
486. Weight distribution throughout a c. mechanism magnitude or multitude?
structure; loads caused by wind,
earthquakes, and gravity, for example, d. none of the above
affect how weight is distributed
491. Is the estimation of the magnitude of a. magnitude
throughout a structure.
some attribute of an object, such as its
length or weight, relative to a unit of b. fluid power
measurement?
c. quantity
a. Angular Velocity
d. none of the above
b. Load
a. mass
497. Ability to resist deformation when
c. Instantaneous
b. measurement subjected to a load; the measure of a
d. Brittle structure’s ability not to change shape
c. weight when subjected to a load.
487. A property by which it can be large or
smaller than other objects of the same d. kilogram
kind; in technical terms, an ordering of the
492. Is the product of the mass and a. distance
class of objects.
velocity of an object? Motion – The act or
process of changing position or place. b. rigid

c. free body
a. magnitude
a. Hydraulics d. length
b. Height
b. physical body 498. Is the effort to understand, or to
c. distance
understand better, how nature works,
d. none of the above c. fluid power with observable physical evidence as the
basis of that understanding.
488. Is a fundamental concept in physics, d. momentum
roughly corresponding to the intuitive idea
493. The three laws proposed by Sir Isaac
of "how much matter there is in an object".
Newton to define the concept of a force a. physics
Mass is a central concept of classical
and describe motion, used as the basis of
mechanics and related subjects, and there b. science
classical mechanics.
are several definitions of mass within the
framework of relativistic kinematics. c. physical evidence

a. law of inertia d. load

a. mass b. Newton’s Law of Motion 499. A force that causes parts of a material
to slide past one another in opposite
b. measurement c. Newton’s Law directions.

c. weight d. none of the above

d. kilogram 494. A long, round pole of wood, concrete, a. force

or steel driven into the soil by pile drivers
489. Is commonly defined as the b. stress
substance of which physical objects are
composed, not counting the contribution c. shear
d. momentum

500. Is a stress state where the stress is

parallel or tangential to a face of the
material, as opposed to normal stress
when the stress is perpendicular to the
face.

a. shear stress

b. tensile stress

c. shear

d. none of the above

ENGINEERING
MECHANICS
1.What is the magnitude of the resultant
force of the two forces which are
perpendicular to each other? The two
forces are 20 units and 30 units
respectively.

A. 36

B. 42

C. 25

D. 40

2. A rope is stretched between two rigid

walls 40 feet apart. At the midpoint, a load
of 100 lbs was placed that caused it to sag
5 feet. Compute the approximate tension
in the rope.
A. 206 lbs
B. 150 lbs
C. 280 lbs
D. 240 lbs
3. What is the effective component
applied on the box that is being pulled by
a 30 N force inclined at 30 degrees with
horizontal?
A. 36.21 N
B. 25.98 N
C. 15.32 N
D. 20.62 N
4. A post is supported by a guy wire which
exerts a pull of 100 N on the top of the
post. If the angle between the wire and
the ground is 60 degrees, what is the
horizontal component of the force
supporting the pole?
A. 86.6 N
B. 50.0 N
C. 76.6 N
D. 98.5 N
5. The resultant of two forces in a plane is
400 N at 120 degrees. If one of the forces
is 200 lbs at 20 degrees what is the other
force?
A. 347.77 N at 114.85 degrees
B. 435.77 N at 104.37 degrees
C. 357.56 N at 114.24 degrees
D. 477.27 N at 144.38 degrees
6. Determine the resultant of the following
forces: A = 600 N at 40 degrees, B = 800 N
at 160 degrees and C = 200 N at 300
degrees.
A. 532.78 N, 55.32 degrees
B. 435.94 N, 235.12 degrees
C. 522.68 N, 111.57 degrees
D. 627.89 N, 225.81 degrees
7. A collar, which may slide on a vertical A. 198.1
rod is subjected three forces. Force A is
1200 N vertically upward, Force B is 800 N B. 237.7
at an angle of 60 degrees from the vertical
C. 285.2
and a force F which is vertically downward
to the right. Find the direction of F if its D. 165.1
magnitude is 2400 N and the resultant is
horizontal. 12. What is the angle between two vectors
A and B if A = 4i – 12j + 6k and B = 24i – 8j
+ 6k?
A. 41.61 degrees
B. 43.52 degrees A. 168.45 degrees
C. 40.13 degrees B. 84.32 degrees
D. 45.52 degrees C. 86.32 degrees
8. Given the 3-dimensional vectors: A = D. -84.64 degrees
i(xy) + j(2yz) + k(3zx) and B = i(yz) + j(2zx) +
k(3xy). Determine the scalar product at 13. Given the 3-dimensional vectors : A = i
the point (1,2,3). (xy) + j (2yz) + k (3zx), B = i (yz) + j (2zx) + k
(3xy). Determine the magnitude of the
vector sum |A + B| at coordinates (3,2,1).
A. 144
B. 138 A. 32.92
C. 132 B. 29.88
D. 126 C. 27.20
9. Determine the divergence of the vector: D. 24.73
V = i(x2) + j(-xy) + k(xyz) at the point
(3,2,1). 14. What is the cross product A x B of the
vectors, A = I + 4j + 6k and B = 2i + 3j + 5k ?
A. 9.00
A. i – j – k
B. 11.00
B. –i + j+ k
C. 13.00
C. 2i + 7j – 5k
D. 7.00
D. 2i + 7j + 5k
10.The three vectors described by 10 cm/
at 120k degrees, k = 0, 1, 2 encompass the 15. A simply supported beam is five
sides of an equilateral triangle. Determine meters in length. It carries a uniformly
the magnitude of the vector cross product: distributed load including its own weight
0.5 [ (10/ at 0 deg) x (10/ at 120 deg) ]. of 300 N/m and a concentrated load of
100 N, 2 meters from the left end. Find the
reactions if reaction A at the left end and
reaction B at the right end.
A. 86.6
A. RA = 810 N, RB = 700 N
B. 25.0
B. RA = 820 N, RB = 690 N
C. 50.0
C. RA = 830 N, RB = 680 N
D. 43.3
D. RA = 840 N, RB = 670 N
16. A man can exert a maximum pull of
1,000 N but wishes to lift a new stone
11. The 5 vectors: 10 cm/ at 72k degrees, k door for his cave weighing 20,000 N. If he
= 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 encompass the sides of a uses a lever how much closer must the
regular pentagon. Determine the fulcrum be to the stone than to his hand?
magnitude of the vector cross product: 2.5
[ (10/ at 144 deg) x (10/ at 216 deg) ].
A. 10 times nearer
B. 20 times farther
C. 10 times farther
D. 20 times nearer
17. A certain cable is suspended between
two supports at the same elevation and
500 ft apart. The load is 500 lbs per
horizontal foot including the weight of the
cable. The sag of the cable is 30 ft.
Calculate the total length of the cable.
A. 503.21 ft
B. 504.76 ft
C. 505.12 ft
D. 506.03 ft
18. The weight of a transmission cable is
1.5 kg/m distributed horizontally. If the
maximum safe tension of the cable is
60000 kg and the allowable sag is 30 m,
determine the horizontal distance
between the electric posts supporting the
transmission cable.
A. 897 m
B. 926 m
C. 967 m
D. 976 m
19. A cable 45.5 m long is carrying a
uniformly distributed load along its span.
If the cable is strung between two posts at
the same level, 40 m apart, compute the
smallest value that the cable may sag.
A. 12.14 m
B. 10.12 m
C. 9.71 m
D. 8.62 m
20.A pipeline crossing a river is suspended
from a steel cable stretched between two
posts 100 m apart. The weight of the pipe
is 14 kg/m while the cable weighs 1 kg/m
assumed to be uniformly distributed
horizontally. If the allowed sag is 2 m,
determine the tension of the cable at the
post.
A. 9047.28 kg
B. 9404.95 kg
C. 9545.88 kg
D. 9245.37 kg B. 58.10 kg
21. The distance between supports of a C. 219.71 kg
transmission cable is 20 m apart. The cable
is loaded with a uniformly distributed load D. 265.29 kg
of 20 kN/m throughout its span. The
26. Compute the number of turns of the
maximum sag of the cable is 4 m. What is
rope to be wound around a pole in order
the maximum tension of the cable if one
to support a man weighing 600 N with an
of the supports is 2 meters above the
input force of 10 N. Note: coefficient of
other?
friction is 0.30.
A. 415.53 N
A. 2.172
B. 413.43 N
B. 3.123
C. 427.33 N
C. 1.234
D. 414.13 N
D. 4.234
22. A cable weighing 0.4 pound per foot
27. A block weighing 500 N is held by a
and 800 feet long is to be suspended with
rope that passes over a horizontal drum.
sag of 80 feet. Determine the maximum
The coefficient of friction between the
tension of the cable.
rope and the drum is 0.15. If the angle of
contact is 150 degrees, compute the force
that will raise the object.
A. 403 kg
B. 456 kg
A. 740.7 N
C. 416 kg
B. 760.6 N
D. 425 kg
C. 770.5 N
23. A cable 200 m long weighs 50 N/m and
is supported from two points at the same D. 780.8 N
elevation. Determine the required sag if
28. A cirlce has a diameter of 20 cm.
the maximum tension that the cable can
Determine the moment of inertia of the
carry shall not exceed 8000 N.
circular area relative to the axis
perpendicular to the area though the
center of the circle in cm4.
A. 35.1 m
B. 28.2 m
A. 14,280
C. 40.3 m
B. 15,708
D. 31.3 m
C. 17,279
24. A transmission cable 300 m long,
weighs 600 kg. The tensions at the ends of D. 19,007
the cable are 400 kg and 450 kg. Find the
29. What is the branch of engineering
distance of its lowest point to the ground.
mechanics which refers to the study of
stationary rigid body?
A. 145 m A. Statics
B. 148 m B. Kinetics
C. 150 m C. Kinematics
D. 153 m D. Dynamics
30. What is the branch of engineering
25. A 250 kg block rests on a 30 degrees
mechanics which refers to the study of
plane. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is
rigid body in motion under the action of
0.20, determine the horizontal force P
applied on the block to start the block forces?
moving up the plane.
A. Statics
A. 59.30 kg
B. Strenght of materials
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics
31. What is the branch of engineering
mechanics which refers to the study of
rigid body in motion without reference to
the force that causes the motion?
A. Statics
B. Kinetics
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics
32. What refers to the force that holds
part of the rigid body together?
A. Natural force
B. External force
C. Internal force
D. Concentrated force
33. What refers to a pair of equal,
opposite and parallel forces?
A. Couple
B. Moment
C. Torque
D. All of the above
34. What is a concurrent force system?
A. All forces act at the same point.
B. All forces have the same line of action.
C. All forces are parallel with one another.
D. All forces are in the same plane.
35. When will a three-force member be
considered in equilibrium?
A. When the sum of the two forces is
equal to the third force.
B. When they are concurrent or parallel.
C. When they are coplanar.
D. All of the above
36. A roller support has how many
reactions?
A. None
B. 1 A. the center of the beam subjected to the
distributed load
C. 2
B. the centroid of the area of the loading
D. 3 curve
37. A link or cable support has how many C. the 1/3 point from the higher intensity
reactions? side of the loading curve
D. the 2/3 point from the higher intensity
side of the loading curve
A. None
43. The resultant force of a distributed
B. 1
load is always equal to:
C. 2
D. 3
A. twice the area under the loading curve
38. A build-in, fixed support has how many
B. half the area under the loading curve
reactions and moment?
C. the area under the loading curve
D. one-fourth the area under the loading
A. 1 reaction and 1 moment
curve
B. 2 reactions and 1 moment
44. When a body has more supports than
C. 1 reaction and 2 moments are necessary to maintain equilibrium, the
body is said to be _____.
D. 2 reactions and no moment
39. Which support has one moment?
A. in static equilibrium
B. in dynamic equilibrium
A. Frictionless guide
C. statically determine
B. Pin connection
D. statically indeterminate
C. Fixed support
45. When does an equation be considered
D. Roller “dimensionally homogeneous”?
40. What is the science that describes and
predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in
motion by forces acting on it? A. When it is unitless
B. When the dimensions of the various
terms on the left side of the equation is
A. Engineering Mechanics not the same as the dimensions of the
various terms on the right side.
B. Theory of Structures
C. When the degree of the left side of the
C. Mechanics of Materials
equation is the same as the right side.
D. Strength of Materials
D. When the dimensions of various terms
41. What refers to a negligible body when on the left side of the equation is the same
compared to the distances involved as the dimensions of the various terms on
regarding its motion? the right side.
46. What refers to the branch of
mathematics which deals with the
A. Particle dimensions of quantities?
B. Atomic substance
C. Element A. Unit analysis
D. Quarks B. Dimensional analysis
42. The resulting force of a distributed C. System analysis
load is always acting at:
D. Homogeneity analysis
47. What is a “simple beam”?
A. A beam supported only at its ends.
B. A beam supported with a fixed support
at one end and non on the other end.
C. A beam with more than two supports.
D. A beam with only one support at the
midspan.
48. What assumption is used in the
analysis of uniform flexible cable?
A. Cable is flexible.
B. Cable is inextensible.
C. The weight of the cable is very small
when compared to the loads supported by
the cable.
D. All of the above
49. “The sum of individual moments about
a point caused by multiple concurrent
forces is equal to the moment of the
resultant force about the same point”. This
statement is known as ____.
A. Pappus proposition
B. D’ Alembert’s principle
C. Varignon’s theorem
D. Newton’s method
50. “Two forces acting on a particle may
be replaced by a single force called
resultant which can be obtained by
drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which
has the sides equal to the given forces”.
This statement is known as _____.
A. Pappus Propositions
B. Principle of Transmissibility
C. Parallelogram Law
D. Varignon’s Theorem
51. “The condition of equilibrium or
motion of a rigid body remains unchanged
if a force acting at a given point of the
rigid body is replaced by a force of same
magnitude and direction, but acting at a
different point provided that the two
forces have the same line of action”. This
statement is known as ______.
A. Pappus Propositions
B. Principle of Transmissibility
C. Parallelogram Law
D. Varignon’s Theorem
52. “If two forces acting simultaneously on
a particle can be represented by the two
sides of a triangle taken in order that the
third side represents the resultant in the
opposite order”. This statement is known
as ______.
A. Principle of Transmissibility
B. Parallelogram Law
C. Varignon’s Theorem
D. Triangle Law of Forces
53. “If a number of concurrent forces
acting simultaneously on a particle, are
represented in magnitude and direction by
the sides of polygon taken in order, then
the resultant of this system of forces is
represented by the closing side of the
polygon in the opposite in the opposite
order”. This statement is known as _____.
A. Principle of Transmissibility
B. Parallelogram Law
C. Polygon Law
D. Triangle Law of Forces
54. A beam with more than one supports
is called ______.
A. cantilever beam
B. simple beam
C. complex beam
D. continuous beam
55. A truss consisting of coplanar
members is called _____.
A. plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss
56. A truss consisting of non-coplanar
members is called ______.
A. plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss
57. What method of determining the bar
force of a truss if only few members are
required?
A. Methods of joints
B. Method of section
C. Maxwell’s diagram
D. Method of superposition
58. Which of the following statements
about friction is FALSE?
A. The direction of frictional force on a
surface is such as to oppose the tendency
of one surface to slide relative to the
other.
B. The total frictional force is dependent
on the area of contact between the two
surfaces.
C. The magnitude of the frictional force is
equal to the force which tends to move
the body till the limiting value is reached.
D. Friction force is always less than the
force required to prevent motion.
59. In the analysis of friction, the angle
between the normal force and the
resultant force _____ the angle of friction.
A. may be greater than or less than
B. is greater than
C. is less than
D. is equal to
60. When a block is place on an inclined
plane, its steepest inclination to which the
block will be in equilibrium is called _____.
A. angle of friction
B. angle of reaction
C. angle of normal
D. angle of repose
61. What is usually used to move heavy
loads by applying a force which is usually
smaller that the weight of the load?
A. Axle
B. Incline plane
C. Wedge
D. Belt
62. The angle of inclined plane of a jack
screw is also known as ______.
A. angle of thread
B. angle of lead
C. angle of friction
D. angle of pitch
63. Center of gravity for a two dimensional
body is the point at which the entire
_____ acts regardless of the orientation of
the body.
A. mass
B. weight
C. mass or weight
D. volume
64. Second moment of area is the product
of:
A. area and square of the distance from
the reference axis
B. area and distance from the reference
axis
C. square of the area and distance from
the reference axis
D. square of the area and square of the
distance from the reference axis
65. Moment of inertia of an area about an
axis is equal to the sum of moment of
inertia about an axis passing through the
centroid parallel to the given axis and
____.
A. area and square of the distance
between two parallel axes
B. area and distance between two parallel
axes
C. square of the area and distance
between two parallel axes
D. square of the area and square of the
distance between two parallel axes
66. What is the unit of mass moment of
inertia?
A. kg-m4
B. kg-m3
C. kg-m
D. kg-m2
67. The number of independent degrees
of freedom is:
A. Square root of the square of the
difference of total degrees of freedom –
number of constrain equations
B. Square root of the total degrees of
freedom – number of constrain equations
C. Total degrees of freedom – number of
constrain equations
D. Total degrees of freedom – half the
number of constrain equations
68. What velocity is normally referred to
as the derivative of position vector with
respect to time?
A. Decreasing velocity
B. Average velocity
C. Instantaneous velocity
D. Increasing velocity
69. What refers to a force by which work
done on a particle as it moves around any
closed path is zero?
A. Natural force
B. Virtual force
C. Conservative force
D. Non-conservative force
70. When a force causes a change in
mechanical energy when it moves around
a closed path, it is said to be ______ force.
A. natural
B. virtual
C. conservative
D. non-conservative
71. The following are quantities that
describe motion and uses Newton’s law of
motion and d’Alembert’s principle except
one. Which one?
A. Time
B. Mass
C. Acceleration
D. Force
72. Which of the following set of
quantities that describe motion and uses
the principle of work and energy?
A. Force, mass, velocity, time
B. Force, mass, acceleration
C. Force, mass, distance, velocity
D. Force, weight, distance, time
73. Which of the following set of
quantities that describe motion and uses
the principle of impulse and momentum?
A. Force, mass, velocity, time
B. Force, mass, distance, velocity
C. Force, mass, distance, velocity
D. Force, weight, distance, time
74. The principles of kinetics of particles
are derived from which law?
A. Newton’s first law
B. Newton’s second law
C. Newton’s third law
D. d’Alembert’s principle
75. What type of impact is when the
motion of one or both of the colliding
bodies is not directed along the line
impact?
A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact
76. What type of impact is when the
centers of mass of colliding bodies are not
located on the line of impact?
A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact
77. If the coefficient of restitution is zero,
the impact is ______.
A. partially plastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. perfectly elastic
D. partially elastic
78. A uniform circular motion can be
considered as a combination of ______.
A. linear velocity and impulse
B. simple harmonic motion and
momentum
C. two simple harmonic motions
D. rectilinear translation and curvilinear
translation
79. The motion of a particle is defined by
the relation x = (1/3)t3 – 3t2 + 8t + 2
where x is the distance in meters and is
the time in seconds. What is the time
when the velocity is zero?
A. 2 seconds
B. 3 seconds
C. 5 seconds
D. 7 seconds
80. A particle moves along a straight line
with the equation x = 16t + 4t2 – 3t3
where x is the distance in ft and t is the
time in second. Compute the acceleration
of the particle after 2 seconds.
A. – 28 ft/s2
B. – 30 ft/s2
C. – 17 ft/s2
D. – 24 ft/s2
81. Two cars A and B traveling in the same
direction and stopped at a highway traffic
sign. As the signal turns green car A
accelerates at constant rate of 1 m/s2.
Two seconds later the second car B
accelerates at constant rate of 1.3 m/s2.
When will the second car B overtakes the
first car A?
A. 16.27 s
B. 30.45 s
C. 20.32 s
D. 10.45 s
82. Two buses start at the same time
towards each other from terminals A and
B, 8 km apart. The time needed for the
first bus to travel from A to B is 8 minutes,
and of the second bus from B to A is 10
minutes. How much is the time needed by
each bus to meet each if they traveled at
their respective uniform speeds?
A. 5.45 min
B. 10.7 min
C. 4.44 min
D. 2.45 min
83. A train changes its speed uniformly
from 60 mph to 30 mph in a distance of
1500 ft. What is its acceleration?
A. – 1.94d ft/s2
B. 2.04 ft/s2
C. – 2.04 ft/s2
D. 1.94 ft/s2
84. A car starts from rest and has a
constant acceleration of 3 ft/s2. Find the
average velocity during the first 10
seconds of motion.
A. 13 ft/s
B. 15 ft/s
C. 14 ft/s
D. 20 ft/s
85. A man aimed his rifle at the bull’s eye
of a target 50 m away. If the speed of the
bullet is 500 m/s, how far below the bull’s
eye does the bullet strikes the target?
A. 5.0 cm
B. 6.8 cm
C. 5.7 cm
D. 6.0 cm
86. A man driving his car at a constant rate
of 40 mph suddenly sees a sheep crossing
the road 60 feet ahead. Compute the
constant deceleration (in feet/second2)
required to avoid hitting the sheep?
Assume a reaction time of 0.5 second
before the man applies the brake.
A. 34.65
B. 44.54
C. 55.65
D. 67.87
87. A ball is thrown vertically into the air
at 120 m/s. After 3 seconds, another ball is
thrown vertically. What is the velocity
must the second ball have to pass the first
ball at 100 m from the ground?
A. 105.89 m/s
B. 107.72 m/s
C. 108.12 m/s
D. 110.72 m/s
88. A ball is dropped from a height of 60
meters above ground. How long does it
take to hit the ground?
A. 2.1 s
B. 3.5 s
C. 5.5 s
D. 1.3 s
89. A ball is thrown vertically upward from
the ground and a student gazing out of the
window sees it moving upward pass him at
5 m/s. The window is 10 m above the
ground. How high does the ball go above
the ground?
A. 15.25 m
B. 14.87 m
C. 9.97 m
D. 11.28 m
90. A ball thrown vertically upward with
an initial velocity of 3 m/s from the
window of a tall building. The ball strikes
the sidewalk at the ground level 4 seconds
later. Determine the velocity with which
the ball strikes the ground.
A. 39.25 m/s
B. 38.50 m/s
C. 37.75 m/s
D. 36.24 m/s
91. A player throws a baseball upward
with an initial velocity of 30 ft/sec and
catches it with a baseball glove. When will
the ball strike the glove? Assume the glove
is position in the same elevation when the
ball left his hand.
A. 0.48 s
B. 0.60 s
C. 1.20 s D. 10.45o

D. 1.86 s A. 14,543.2 N 101. An airplane acquires a take-off

92. A highway curve has a super elevation
of 7 degrees. What is the radius of the
curve such that there will be no lateral
pressure between the tires and the
roadway at a speed of 40 mph?
A. 265.71 m
B. 438.34 m
C. 345.34 m
velocity of 150 mph on a 2-mile runway. If
B. 11,342.2 N the plane started from rest and the
acceleration remains constant, what is the
C. 10,543.3 N
time required to reach take-off speed?
D. 15,312.5 N
97. A girl tied 80 gram toy plane of a string
A. 40 s
which he rotated to form a vertical circular
motion with a diameter a 1000 mm. B. 45 s
Compute for the maximum pull exerted on
the string by the toy plane if got loose C. 58 s
leaving at the bottom of the circle at 25
m/s. D. 96 s

D. 330.78 m 102. Water drops from a faucet at the rate

of 4 drops per second. What is the
93. A baseball is thrown a horizontal plane A. 0.002 kN distance between two successive drops 1
following a parabolic path with an initial second after the first drop has fallen.
velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 30o B. 0.05 kN
above the horizontal. Solve the distance
from the throwing point that the ball C. 0.2 kN
attains its original level. A. 5.32 ft
D. 0.1 kN
B. 8.24 ft

A. 890 m C. 7.04 ft
98. A gun is shot into a 0.50 kN block
B. 883 m which is hanging from a rope of 1.8 m long. D. 9.43 ft
The weight of the bullet is equal to 5 N
C. 858 m with a muzzle velocity of 320 m/s. How 103. A body which is 16.1 lb rests on a
high will the block swing after it was hit by horizontal plane and acted upon by a 10-lb
D. 820 m the bullet? force. Find the acceleration of the body if
the coefficient of friction between the
plane and the body is 0.2. Note: 1 lbf =
32.2 lbm-ft/s2.
94. Compute the minimum distance that a A. 0.51 m
truck slides on a horizontal asphalt road if
it is traveling at 20 m/s? The coefficient to B. 0.53 m
sliding friction between asphalt and A. 12.34 ft/s2
rubber tire is at 0.50. The weight of the C. 0.32 m
truck is 8000 kg. B. 11.57 ft/s2
D. 0.12 m
C. 15.57 ft/s2
99. A train weighing 1000 KN is being
A. 40.8 pulled up a 2% grade. The train’s D. 13.56 ft/s2
resistance is 5N/kN. The train’s velocity
B. 48.5 was increased from 6 to 12 m/s in a
distance of 300 m. Compute the maximum
C. 35.3 power developed by the locomotive.
D. 31.4 104. A man on an elevator weighs 180 lbf.
Compute the force exerted by the man on
95. A projectile is fired from a cliff 300 m A. 600 kW the floor of the elevator if it is accelerating
high with an initial velocity of 400 m/s. If upward at 5 ft/s2.
the firing angle is 30o from the horizontal, B. 450 kW
compute the horizontal range of the
projectile. C. 520 kW
A. 207.95 lbf
D. 320 kW
B. 210.45 lbf
A. 15.74 km 100. Determine the angle of super
elevation for a highway curve of 600 ft C. 190.56 lbf
B. 14.54 km radius so that there will be no side thrust
D. 205.54 lbf
for a speed of 45 mph.
C. 12.31 km
105. A 10-lb stone is fastened to a 2-ft
D. 20.43 km cord and is whirled in a vertical circle.
A. 1d3.45o Determine the tension in the cord when it
96. A 25 g mass bullet was fired at the wall. is rotated at 100 rpm.
The bullet’s speed upon hitting the wall is B. 12.71o
350 m/s. What is the average force (in
Newton) if the bullet penetrates 10 cm? C. 11.23o
A. 47.95 lbf
B. 58.08 lbf did it lose in the process of striking the 115. A 1.62-ounce marble attains a
floor? velocity of 170 mph (249.3 ft/s) in a
C. 19.56 lbf hunting slingshot. The contract with the
sling is 1/15th second. What is the average
D. 20.54 lbf
force on the marble during contact?
A. One-tenth
106. An archer must split the apple atop
his partner’s head from a distance of 30 m. B. One-fourth
The arrow is horizontal when aimed A. 12.54 lbf
directly to the apple. At what angle must C. One-third
he aim in order to hit the apple with the B. 14.56 lbf
D. One-seventh
arrow traveling at a speed of 35 m/s.
C. 11.75 lbf
111. A car is a rest on a sloping driveway.
By experiment the driver releases the D. 10.67 lbf
A. 8.35o brake of the car and let the car move at
constant acceleration. How fast will the 116. A man weighs 128 lb on the surface
B. 10.55o car be moving when it reaches the street? of the earth (radius = 3960 miles). At what
Note: The street is 4 m below the original distance above the surface of the earth
C. 3.25o position of the car. would he weight 80 lb?
D. 6.95o

107. A hollow spherical shell has a radius A. 8.86 m/s A. 3000 miles
of 5 units and mass of 10. What is its mass
moment of inertia? B. 50.45 m/s B. 2345 miles

C. 6.65 m/s C. 7546 miles

A. 108.45 D. 9.65 m/s D. 1049 miles

B. 123.34
C. 187.54
D. 165.67
108. A coin 20mg is place on the smooth
edge of a 25 cm-radius phonograph record
as the record is brought up to its normal
rational speed of 45 rmp. What must be
the coefficient of friction between the coin
and the record if the coin is not to slip off?
A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.64
D. 0.78
109. The acceleration due to gravity on
the moon is 1.67m/s2. If an astronaut can
throw a ball 10 m straight upward on
earth, how high should this man be able to
throw the ball on the moon? Assume that
the throwing speeds are the same in the
two cases.
A. 58.67
B. 50.84
112. A solid sphere is placed at the top of
a 45o incline. When released, it freely rolls
down. What will be its linear speed at the
foot of the incline which is 2.0 m below
the initial position of the cylinder?
A. 4.86 m/s
B. 5.29 m/s
C. 6.43 m/s
D. 3.55 m/s
113. A ball is dropped from a height y
above a smooth floor. How high will
rebound if the coefficient of restitution
between the ball and the floor is 0.60?
A. 0.45y
B. 0.40y
C. 0.60y
D. 0.36y
114. A ball is thrown at an angle of 32.5o
from the horizontal towards a smooth
floor. At what angle will it rebound if the
coefficient of between the ball and the
floor is 0.30?
117. A steel wheel 800 mm in diameter
rolls on a horizontal steel rail. It carries a
load of 700 N. The coefficient of rolling
resistance is 0.250 mm. What is the force
P necessary to roll the wheel along the
rail?
A. 0.34 N
B. 0.54 N
C. 0.44 N
D. 0.14 N
118. An electron strikes the screen of the
cathode ray tube with a velocity of 10 to
the 9th power cm/s. Compute its kinetic
energy in erg. The mass of an electron is 9
x 10^-31 kg?
A. 4.5 x 10^-10 erg
B. 3.0 x 10^-10 erg
C. 2.5 x 10^-10 erg
D. 1.5 x 10^-10 erg
119. One calculates the work of a force on
a rigid body exactly the same as one would
calculate the work for a particle.

C. 65.67

D. 45.67 A. 11.33o A. power of a couple

110. A tennis ball is dropped into a cement B. 8.67o B. work of a force

floor from a height of 2 m. It rebounds to a
height of 1.8 m. What fraction of energy C. 9.12o C. work of a couple

D. 10.82o D. work-energy relation

 D. vector sum

101. A physical quantity that is completely 107. It is sometimes called the vector A. internal force
described by a real number is called product.
___________. B. external force

C. body force
A. dot product
A. scalar D. surface force
B. cross product
B. vector 113. If each point on the object has the
C. tensor product same constant velocity, this is referred to
C. tensor as __________.
D. unit vector
D. none of the above
108. Which of the following statements is
102. A convenient means of representing false? A. continuum translation
physical quantities that have magnitude
and direction. B. discrete translation

A. The cross product is commutative. C. finite translation

A. scalars B. The cross product is associative with D. steady translation

respect to scalar multiplication.
B. vectors 114. The moment of a force about a point
C. The cross product is distributive with P is equal to the sum of the moments of
C. tensors respect to vector addition. its components about P.

D. none of the above D. The angle between two identical

vectors placed tail to tail is zero.
103. The product of a scalar and a vector is A. Cavalieri’s Theorem
109. When a force is represented by a
A. scalar vector, the straight line collinear with the B. Pascal’s Theorem
vector is called the ________.
B. vector C. Varignon’s Theorem

C. tensor D. Torricelli’s Theorem

A. line of apsides
D. none of the above 115. It is the measure of the tendency of a
B. line of reaction force to cause rotation about a line or axis.
104. It is simply a vector whose magnitude
is 1 C. line of vector

D. line of action A. moment

A. moment vector 110. A system of forces is __________ if B. momentum

the lines of action of the forces intersect
B. tensor C. impulse
at a point.
C. unit vector D. torsion

D. vector unity 116. A couple is composed of two forces

A. parallel
that are
105. It is sometimes called the scalar
B. coplanar
product.
C. concurrent
A. equal
D. two-dimensional
A. dot product B. equal and opposite
111. A system of two forces is
B. vector product C. equal and different lines of action
___________ if the lines of action of the
C. cross product forces lie in a plane. D. equal, opposite and different lines of
action
D. unit scalar
117. Which of the following statements is
106. To calculate for the force exerted on A. coplanar
true about a couple?
a charged particle by a magnetic field,
B. two-dimensional
_________ is used.
C. A or B
A. A couple does not tend to cause a
D. none of the above rotation of an object.
A. vector product
112. Force acting on an object is called a B. The vector sum of the force couple
B. scalar product always has a value.
___________ if its acts on the volume of
C. dot product the object.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an
object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same
about any point.
118. If an object is on an inclined plane
having an angle θ, the component of
weight (w) parallel to incline is
__________.
A. w sinθ
C. 3.6 m/s2 A. resolution of forces
D. 0.6 m/s2 B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
124. The ground reaction force on a body D. quantization of forces
can be represented by a single force acting
on a point called 130. He is the father of the modern
engineering mechanics
A. center of force

B. w cosθ B. center of reaction

A. Gilbert Lewis
C. w tanθ C. center of reflection
B. Stephen Timoshenko
D. w cotθ D. center of pressure
C. J. Gordon
119. A type of force acting on a body due 125. The tuning effect on a body is
dependent on which of the following? D. A. Cotrell
to the acceleration of gravity.
131. It is a method of applying mechanics
that assumes all objects are continuous.
A. load A. mass of the load

B. shear B. acceleration of gravity

A. Discrete Mechanics
C. bear C. moment arm
B. Finite Element Method
D. mass D. all of the above
C. Continuum Mechanics
120. A type of force acting on a body 126. The perpendicular distance of the
force from the point about which the body D. Contact Mechanics
caused by the friction between the body
and the ground. will turn is called
132. Which of the following is an example
of contact force?

A. load A. moment arm

B. moment distance A. gravitational force

B. shear
C. lever arm B. magnetic force
C. bear
D. A or C C. air resistance force
D. mass
127. If the force is moved in the direction D. electric force
121. The unit of force, Newton, is
equivalent to parallel to the direction of the force, the
133. It occurs when an object is moving
moment exerted by the force
across a surface.
___________.
A. dynamic friction
A. lbm-ft/s2
B. static friction
B. g-cm/s2 A. increases
C. kinetic friction
C. kg-m/s2 B. decreases
D. sliding friction
D. kgf C. is unchanged
134. Given µ = 0.35 between the object of
122. When a body is in contact with the D. becomes zero
mass 400 g and the floor, the object will
ground, the force that is reflected back to
128. The moment of force is zero when __________ if pulled with a force of 3 N.
the body is called

A. the applied force is zero. A. remain at rest

A. ground reflected force
B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force
123. The gravity in the moon is about
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
B. the force is applied at the moment axis. B. move
C. the line of action of the force is parallel C. accelerate
to the axis.
D. B and C
D. all of the above
135. Which of the following statements is
129. __________ is finding a single force correct?
which shall be equal to two or more given
forces when acting in given directions.
A. The coefficient of static friction is
always less than 1.
B. The coefficient of static friction is
typically greater than the coefficient of
kinetic friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is
typically greater than the coefficient of
static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic
friction are always equal.
136. The equations that apply to bodies
moving linearly (that is, one dimension)
with uniform accelerations are often
referred to as
D. Discrete Mechanics
A. Brayton Number 146. It is an experimental method for
visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
A. Particle Image Velocimetry
D. Prandtl Number
B. Particle Image Accelerometry
141. It is the time rate of change of any
property of a continuum for a specified C. Particle Image Flowmeter
group of particles of the moving
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry
continuum body.
147. A fluid at rest has no
A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative A. longitudinal stress

C. Particle Derivative B. shear stress

A. UVATS
D. Quantum Derivative C. tensile stress
B. SUVAT
142. Material derivative is also known as D. compressive stress
C. UVATS __________.
148. A property of fluids which is the force
D. Either of the above generated by a fluid in response to a
velocity gradient.
137. “Observed from an internal reference A. substantial derivative
frame, the net force on a particle is
proportional to the time rate of change of B. commoving derivative
A. compressibility
its linear momentum”. This is known as
C. convective derivative
Newton’s ___________ of motion. B. plasticity
D. all of the above
C. elasticity
143. The vector connecting the positions
A. Zeroth Law D. viscosity
of a particle in the undeformed and
B. First Law deformed configuration is called the
149. These equations state that changes in
________.
momentum of fluid particles depend only
C. Second Law
on the external pressure and internal
D. Third Law viscous forces acting on the fluid.
A. displacement vector

B. position vector
138. It is also known as quantity of A. Navier – Stokes Equations
motion. C. displacement field
B. Torricelli Equations
A. momentum D. position field
C. Reynolds Equations
B. force 144. A __________ is a vector field of all
displacement vectors for all particles in D. Lagrangian Equations
C. mass the body.
150. It is defined as, regardless of the
D. acceleration forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues
to flow
139. This concept assumes that the A. position field
substance of the body is distributed
throughout and completely fills the space B. action field
A. Newtonian fluid
it occupies.
C. displacement field
B. non-Newtonian fluid
D. path field
C. Lagrangian fluid
A. Finite Element
145. _________ is the study of the physics
of continuous solids with a defined rest D. non-Lagrangian fluid
B. Contact
shape.
C. Discrete
151. Which of the following is an example
D. Continuum
A. Continuum Mechanics of Newtonian fluid?
140. In fluids, _________ is used to assess
to what extent the approximation of B. Solid Mechanics
continuity can be made. A. oobleck
C. Fluid Mechanics
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint
152. If an object is stationary or moving at
a constant velocity, then
A. no forces are acting on the object.
B. the forces acting the object are
balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above
153. It is an additional force that exactly
balances a resultant force.
A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force
154. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at
10° and 15 N at 100° is
A.18 N at 246°
B. 18 N at 66°
C. 25 N at -114°
D. 25 N at 66°
155. It is a point within an object from
which the force of gravity appears to act
A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct
156. If an area has one line of symmetry
the centroid will
A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry
B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of
symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry
157. The second moment of area is an
important value which is used to
__________. It can also be called moment
of inertia.
D. fourth moment of area
A. determine the state of stress in a 163. It is the material’s ability to resist
section twisting
B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a A. mass moment of inertia
beam
B. moment of area
D. all of the above
C. second moment of area
158. The __________ transfers the
moment of inertia of a section or area D. polar moment of area
from its own centroidal axis to another
164. “Any object, wholly or partly
parallel axis.
immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a
force equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the object”. This is known as
A. moment of axis theorem the ____________.
B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem A. Bernoulli’s Principle
D. B or C B. Torricelli’s Principle
C. Archimedes’ Principle
159. The moment of force is zero when D. Pascal’s Principle
165. It is the upward force on an object
produced by the surrounding fluid in
A. the applied force is zero which it is fully or partially immersed.
B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel A. Archimedes’ force
to the moment axis
B. fluid pressure
D. all of the above
C. buoyancy
160. The mass moment of inertia of a solid
sphere about its diameter is D. weight reaction
A. 1/5 mr2 166. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a
string is lowered into water, displacing
B. 2/5 mr2 water of weight 3 N. Determine the
tension in the string.
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2
A. 13 N
161. The mass moment of inertia of a thin
spherical shell about its diameter is B. 7 N
C. 10 N
A. 1/6 mr2 D. 3 N
B. 1/3 mr2 167. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds
its weight, the object __________.
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2
A. tends to rise
162. It is a mathematical property of a
section concerned with a surface area and B. tends to sink
how that area is distributed about the
reference axis. C. A or B
D. none of the above
A. moment of area 168. It is the rate of change of velocity
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area A. displacement
B. acceleration A. degrees per second 180. It is an equation used to find the final
velocity of an object moving with a
C. momentum B. revolutions per second constant acceleration without having a
known time interval.
D. impulse C. mils per second

169. Impulse is equal to ________. D. radians per second

A. Bernoulli’s equation
175. The angular momentum of a rotating
object can be calculated by the formula B. Torricelli’s equation
A. force x time
C. Newton’s equation
B. change in momentum
A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity D. Cavendish’s equation
C. A or B
B. mass x linear velocity 181. Torricelli’s equation of motion is
D. none of the above
C. mass moment of inertia x angular
170. Collisions in which objects rebound velocity
with the same speed as they had prior to A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as
the collision are known as __________. D. mass x angular velocity
B. Vf = Vi + at
176. The time derivative of angular
momentum is called C. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at
A. elastic collisions
D. Vf = Vi + 2as
B. inelastic collisions
A. angular velocity 182. Which of the following is true about
C. static collisions centripetal force?
B. angular acceleration
D. plastic collisions
C. work
171. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N A. It is directed toward the center of the
force for a duration of 0.05-second, then D. torque circular path.
what is the momentum change of the
object? 177. It defines limits on how accurately B. It appears to act outward the body.
the momentum and position of a single
observable system can be known at once. C. It is directly proportional to the radius
of the circular path.
A. 1 N-s
D. It is inversely proportional to the square
B. 400 N-s A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle of the tangential velocity.
C. 0.5 N-s B. particle momentum principle 183. Centripetal acceleration
D. 200 N-s C. particle position principle

172. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg
baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s.
What is the magnitude of the impulse
delivered by the bat to the ball?
D. Bohr’s uncertainty principle
178. The SI unit for polar moment of
inertia is
A. changes the direction of the velocity.
B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular
velocity.

A. 1 N-s A. kg-m2 D. changes nothing about velocity.

B. 5 N-s B. kg-m4 184. Tangential acceleration

C. 10 N-s C. m4

D. 20 N-s D. m2 A. changes the direction of the velocity.

179. A structure is _________ when the B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
static equilibrium equations are not
173. It is defined as the integral of force sufficient for determining the internal C. changes the magnitude of the
with respect to time. forces and reactions on that structure. centripetal acceleration.

A. momentum D. changes nothing about velocity.

B. impulse A. statically determinate 185. The _________ is the primary force

from which gravity, electromagnetic and
C. velocity B. statically indeterminate electrostatic force manifest.
D. acceleration C. dynamically determinate

174. The SI unit for angular velocity is D. dynamically indeterminate A. Eforce

B. Tforce
C. Kforce B. rolling friction B. classical mechanics

D. Gforce C. rolling drag C. discrete mechanics

186. The value of Gforce is equal to D. either of the above D. continuum mechanics

192. Which of the following affects the 198. Determine the magnitude of the
magnitude of rolling resistance an object force vector F = 20i + 60j – 90k (N).
A. 1.211 x 1041 N generates?
B. 1.211 x 1042 N
A. 130 N
C. 1.211 x 1043 N A. type of material
B. 120 N
D. 1.211 x 1044 N B. dimensions
C. 100 N
187. The gravitational force constant has C. both A and B
the units D. 110 N
D. none of the above
199. Determine the dot product of the two
193. Rolling resistance coefficient is a vectors U = 8i – 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.
A. m3 kg-1 s-2 dimensionless quantity also known as
B. N kg-1 s-2
A. 18
C. m2 kg-1 s-2 A. coefficient of rolling friction
B. 16
D. N kg-1 m-1 B. coefficient of friction
C. 14
188. The gravitational force between an C. coefficient of resistance
electron and a proton 1 meter apart is D. 12
D. rolling friction constant
200. Two perpendicular vectors are given
194. The rolling resistance coefficient of in terms of their components by U = Uxi –
A. 1.02 x 1057 N rail road steel wheel on steel rail is 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j – 3k. Determine the
component Ux.
B. 1.02 x 10-57 N

C. 1.02 x 10-67 N A. 0.0002 – 0.0010

A. 5.67
D. 1.02 x 1067 N B. 0.005
B. 6.67
189. The value of the standard C. 0.02
gravitational parameter for Earth is C. 7.67
D. 0.3
D. 8.67
195. The rolling resistance coefficient of
A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2 ordinary car tires on concrete is
B. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2 201. It is the science which deals with
bodies in motion or at rest with specific
C. 4 x 108 m3 s-2 A. 0.0002 – 0.0010 attention being directed primarily to the
D. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2 external effects of a force or a system.
B. 0.1 – 0.2
190. Given that the radius of the moon is C. 0.01 – 0.015
1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022 kg,
a) statics
determine the acceleration due to gravity D. 0.05 – 0.06
on the moon. b) thermodynamics
196. It is the factor by which a mechanism
multiplies the force put into it. c) kinetics
A. 1.6 m/s2 d) mechanics
B. 2.6 m/s2 A. factor of safety 202. Deals with the conditions of
equilibrium of rigid bodies acted upon by a
C. 3.6 m/s2 B. mechanical factor
balanced systems of forces.
D. 0.6 m/s2 C. mechanical advantage

191. It is the resistance that occurs when a D. mechanical coefficient

a) statics
round object such as a ball or a tire rolls
on a flat surface. 197. It is the study that describes the
b) thermodynamics
motion of macroscopic objects.
c) kinetics
A. rolling resistance d) mechanics
A. quantum mechanics
203. Deals with bodies being acted upon d) static body b) equilibrium law
by an unbalanced system of forces the
resultant of which causes the body to be 209. The action of one body on another c) superposition law
accelerated. body which changes or tends to change
the motion of the body acted on. d) action and reaction

215. Quantities which possess magnitude.

a) statics
a) mass
b) kinematics
b) force a) tensors
c) dynamics
c) rigid body b) vector quantities
d) kinetics
d) static body c) system of forces
204. Deals with the geometry of motion.
210. It is the intensity of the force. d) scalar quantities

216. Quantities having both magnitude

a) statics and direction.
a) magnitude
b) kinematics
b) direction
c) dynamics a) tensors
c) mass
d) kinetics b) vector quantities
d) force
205. Deals with the forces required to c) system of forces
produced motion. 211. Sense and slope of angles with
respect to reference axes. d) scalar quantities

217. Quantities which posses magnitude

a) statics but require two or more directional
a) magnitude aspects.
b) kinematics
b) direction
c) dynamics
c) mass a) tensors
d) kinetics
d) force b) vector quantities
206. A specific amount of matter all
particles of which remain at fixed distance 212. The resultant of two forces which is c) system of forces
to each other. the diagonal formed on the vectors of this
force. d) scalar quantities ans.a

218. When several forces act in a given

a) mass situation.
a) parallelogram law
b) force
b) equilibrium law
c) rigid body a) tensors
c) superposition law
d) static body b) vector quantities
d) action and reaction
207. Results when a body is acted upon by c) system of forces
the force. 213. Any pressure on the support causes
an equal and opposite pressure from the d) scalar quantities
support.
219. All forces of the system are in a
a) bending common line action.

b) deformation a) parallelogram law

c) scattering b) equilibrium law a) concurrent,coplanar

d) compression c) superposition law b) collinear forces system

208. A fixed body property of a body d) action and reaction c) parallel,coplanar

which determines its resistance to change
214. Two forces on a rigid body will in no d) non concurrent,coplanar
in motion.
way to be changed if we added or subtract
220. The action lines of all the forces are in
from them another system of forces in
the same plane and intersect a common
equilibrium.
a) mass point.

b) force
a) parallelogram law
c) rigid body a) concurrent,coplanar
b) collinear forces system d) non concurrent,non coplanar,non c) cosine law
parallel
c) parallel,coplanar d) triangle law
226. The simplest force system that can
d) non concurrent,coplanar replace the original system without 232. Means that either one of two
changing its external effect. coplanar forces having the given force as
221. The action lines of all the forces of resultant.
the system are parallel and lie in the same
plane.
a) couple
a) components
b) resultant
a) concurrent,coplanar b) polygon method
c) composition
b) collinear forces system c) moment of force
d) graphical
c) parallel,coplanar d) couple
227. A pair of parallel forces having same
d) non concurrent,coplanar magnitude but opposite senses. 233. Is used to check the results obtained
from the resolution and composition
222. The action lines of all the forces of method.
the system are in the same plane,but they
are not parallel and don’t intersect in a a) couple
common point.
b) resultant a) components

c) composition b) polygon method

a) concurrent,coplanar
d) graphical c) moment of force
b) collinear forces system
228. The process of replacing a force d) couple
c) parallel,coplanar system by its resultant
234. Is a vector quantity that is
d) non concurrent,coplanar represented as a vector along the moment
axis.
223. The action lines of all the forces are a) couple
not in the same plane and intersect a
common point. b) resultant
a) components
c) composition
b) polygon method
a) concurrent,non coplanar d) graphical
c) moment of force
b) collinear forces system 229. A pictorial representation in solving a
system d) couple
c) parallel,non coplanar
235. The algebraic sum of the moment of
d) non concurrent,non coplanar,non its forces about any axis perpendicular to
parallel a) couple the plane of the couple.

224. The action lines of all the forces of b) resultant

the system are parallel and not all lie in
the same plane.
a) concurrent,non coplanar
b) collinear forces system
c) composition a) the magnitude of the couple
d) graphical b) the slope of the plane of the couple.
230. Is used to obtain the magnitude and c) the sense of rotation of the couple.
direction of the resultant of any two
concurrent forces. d) the moment of the couple.

c) parallel,non coplanar 236. The force of attraction of the earth

on a body.
d) non concurrent,non coplanar,non a) parallelogram law
parallel
b) resolution
225. The action lines of all the forces of a) mass
c) cosine law
the system are all not in the same plane,
b) density
but they are all not parallel and do not all d) triangle law
intersect in a common point. c) weight
231. An analytical method of finding the
resultant of concurrent forces. d) direction ans.c

a) concurrent,non coplanar 237. Theorem of pappus which state that

the surface area of any solid of revolution
b) collinear forces system a) parallelogram law is the product of the length multiplied by
c) parallel,non coplanar the distance travelled.
b) resolution
 243. Is a definite amount of matter the d) scalar and vector quantities
parts of which are fixed in position relative
a) 1st proposition to one another. 249. Is a convenient corollary of the
parallelogram law.
b) 2nd proposition

c) 3rd proposition a) mass

a) parallelogram law
d) 4th proposition b) force
b) resolution
238. The surface area of the square of c) rigid body
sphere is equal to the length of semi-circle c) cosine law
multiplied by the distance travelled by the d) static body
centroid of a semi circle. d) triangle law
244. Is the action exerted by one body
upon another. 250. The determination of the resultant of
3 or more concurrent forces that are not
a) 1st proposition collinear.

b) 2nd proposition a) mass

c) 3rd proposition b) force a) resultant of concurrent,coplanar

d) 4th proposition c) rigid body b) collinear forces system

239. The volume of any solid of revolution d) static body c) parallel,coplanar

is the product of the generating area .
245. A unit of force d) non concurrent,coplanar

a) 1st proposition
a) meter squared 251. Addition which is followed by the
b) 2nd proposition parallelogram law described by the figure.
b) pascal
c) 3rd proposition
c) pounds
d) 4th proposition a) resolution of the vector
d) newton
240. Theorem used in locating the b) addition of the vector
centroid of the semicircle arc. 246. The external effect of a force in a
rigid body is the same for all points along c) equilibrium equation for a particle
its line of action.
d) particle
a) pythagorean theorem
252. An object with inertia but of
b) newton’s theorem a) principle of transmissibility of a force negligible dimension.

c) pappus theorem b) axioms of mechanics

d) none of the above ans.c c) characteristics of force a) resolution of the vector

241. A system of forces acting on a body d) scalar and vector quantities b) addition of the vector
which has no resultant.
247. The resultant of two forces is the c) equilibrium equation for a particle
diagonal formed on two vectors of those
forces. d) particle
a) free body diagram
253. A particle is in equilibrium if the
b) equilibrium resultant of all forces acting on the
a) parallelogram law particle is equal to zero.
c) coplanar
b) resolution
d) force
c) cosine law a) resolution of the vector
242. Is a sketch of a body completely
isolated or free from all other bodies. d) triangle law b) addition of the vector

248. The forces are in equilibrium only c) equilibrium equation for a particle
when equal in magnitude ,opposite in
a) free body diagram direction and collinear in action. d) particle

b) equilibrium 254. In a rectangular coordinate system

the equilibrium equations can be
c) coplanar a) principle of transmissibility of a force represented by three scalar equations.
d) force b) axioms of mechanics

c) characteristics of force
a) equilibrium equation in component
form
b) free body diagram
c) string or cable
d) linear spring
255. A mechanical device that can only
transmit a tensile force along itself.
a) equilibrium equation in component
form
b) free body diagram
c) string or cable
d) linear spring
256. A mechanical device that can which
exerts a force along its line of its action
and proportional to its extension.
a) equilibrium equation in component
form
b) free body diagram
c) string or cable
d) linear spring
257. The tension in the cable is the same
on both sides of the pulley.
a) frictionless pulley
b) static equilibrium for a rigid body]
c) newton’s 3rd law
d) composite bodies and external source
258. Each action has a reaction equal in
magnitude and opposite in direction.
a) frictionless pulley
b) static equilibrium for a rigid body]
c) newton’s 3rd law
d) composite bodies and external source
259. Forces and couples which are a result
of interaction between one part of an
object and another part of it will not
appear in the free body diagram of the
whole object.
a) frictionless pulley
b) static equilibrium for a rigid body
c) newton’s 3rd law
d) composite bodies and external source
260. Each force or couple putted on a free b) the method of sections
diagram represents a model of how a body
is affected by its surroundings. c) zero force member
d) a redundant joint
a) a two force member 266. Some members in the truss which
cannot carry load.
b) a three force member
c) forces and couples of a free body
a) method of joints
d) truss
b) the method of sections
261. It is a structure made of two force
members all pin is connected to each c) zero force member
other.
d) a redundant joint
267. In the free diagram load is directly
a) a two force member transmitted from each member to the one
opposite without any interaction.
b) a three force member
c) forces and couples of a free body
a) method of joints
d) truss
b) the method of sections
262. A body which has forces applied onto
it at only two points and no couples c) zero force member
applied onto it at all.
d) a redundant joint
268. this members must be removed from
a) a two force member the truss,otherwise one will have a
insufficient number of equations.
b) a three force member
c) forces and couples of a free body
a) redundant members
d) truss
b) mechanism
263. A body which has forces applied onto
it at only three points and no couples c) curved members
applied onto it at all.
d) none of the above
269. Sometimes there is too much
a) a two force member freedom in a structure, the following
structure cannot carry load since it will
b) a three force member collapse under the load.
c) forces and couples of a free body
d) truss a) redundant members
264. This method uses the free body b) mechanism
diagram of joints in the structure to
determine the forces in each member. c) curved members
d) none of the above
a) method of joints 270. Two forces acting on a two force
member are along the line connecting the
b) the method of sections two points on which the loads are applied.
c) zero force member
d) a redundant joint a) redundant members
265. This method uses free body diagrams b) mechanism
of sections of the truss to obtain unknown
forces. c) curved members
d) none of the above
a) method of joints 271. A general triangular object which is
placed between two objects to either hold
them in place or is used to move one c) parallel axis theorem b) angular momentum of a particle
relative to the other.
d) none of the above c) angular velocity

277. The explicit form of the laws of d) angular acceleration

a) screw mechanics depend on this and is used to
reference the motions. 283. Is the rate of change of the angular
b) self locking screw velocity with respect to time.

c) frames
a) euler’s law
d) wedges a) angular momentum of a rigid body
b) linear momentum of particle
272. It is a combination of a two wedges b) angular momentum of a particle
obtain from the opening the helical c) linear momentum of a body
treads.. c) angular velocity
d) inertial frame
d) angular acceleration
278. Law which governs the motion for a
a) screw rigid body 284. When two surface come into contact
forces are applied by each other surface
b) self locking screw on the other.

c) frames a) euler’s law

d) wedges b) linear momentum of particle a) friction force

273. If the lead angle is selected such that c) linear momentum of a body b) kinetic friction
in the absence of a screwing moment.
d) inertial frame c) static friction

279. For a single particle of mass its linear d) pending motion

a) screw momentum by its mass times its velocity.
285. The frictional forces that can result
b) self locking screw between two surfaces slide relative to
each other.
c) frames a) euler’s law

d) wedges b) linear momentum of particle

a) friction force
c) linear momentum of a body
b) kinetic friction
274. Is the second moment of area around d) inertial frame
a given axis. c) static friction
280. Is assumed to be the sum of the
a) area moment of inertia linear momentum of its particles. d) pending motion

b) radius of gyration 286. The frictional forces that can result

when two surfaces are sliding to each
c) parallel axis theorem a) euler’s law other is proportional to the normal force
applied on the surface.
d) none of the above b) linear momentum of particle

275. Can be calculated if we have a c) linear momentum of a body

rectangular coordinate system,one can a) friction force
define the area moment of inertial around d) inertial frame
the axis. b) kinetic friction
281. For a particle of mass is defined as
the moment of linear momentum around c) static friction
the point.
a) area moment of inertia d) pending motion

b) radius of gyration 287. Refers to the state just before

c) parallel axis theorem
d) none of the above
276. It is the distance away from the axis
that all the area can be concentrated to
result in the same moment of inertia.
a) area moment of inertia
b) radius of gyration
a) angular momentum of a rigid body surfaces start to slip.
b) angular momentum of a particle
c) angular velocity a) friction force
d) angular acceleration b) kinetic friction
282. A vector itself which has a magnitude c) static friction
equal to the rate of rotation.
d) pending motion
288. Is a method for predicting failure of a
a) angular momentum of a rigid body structure containing a crack.
 294. If forces or vectors are in equilibrium d) none of the above
then it must satisfy the three static
a) fracture mechanics equations. 300. Is one which a unique point of
application is specified and therefore the
b) continuum mechanics vector occupies a particular position in
space.
c) deformation mechanics a) directional condition
d) fluid mechanics b) analytical condition
a) sliding vector
289. The study of deformations typically in c) hydraulics
the elastic range. b) free vector
d) graphical condition
c) fixed vector
295. It is the application of fluid mechanics
a) fracture mechanics in engineering. d) none of the above
b) continuum mechanics

c) deformation mechanics a) directional condition 301. It is defined as the science which

considers the effects of forces on rigid
d) fluid mechanics ans.c b) analytical condition bodies
290. It is the study on how fluids react to c) hydraulics
forces.
d) graphical condition a. Kinetics
296. When the loading is uniformly b. Engineering Mechanics
a) fracture mechanics distributed horizontally the cable is
analyzed as. c. Statics
b) continuum mechanics
d. Dynamics.
c) deformation mechanics
a) parabolic cable 302. It considers the effects is distribution
d) fluid mechanics
of forces on rigid bodies which are and
b) catenary remain at rest.
291. A method of applying mechanics that
assumes all objects are continuous. c) projectile

d) rotation a. Dynamics
a) fracture mechanics 297. When the loading is distributed along b. kinetics
the cable the cable is analyzed as
b) continuum mechanics
c. statics
c) deformation mechanics
d. kinematics
a) parabolic cable
d) fluid mechanics
303. It is define as a definite amount of
b) catenary matter the parts which are fixed in
292. Under this condition the forces or
vectors are transformed into a polygon. position relative to each other.
c) projectile

d) rotation ans.b
a) directional condition a. kinematics
298. Is one whose action is not confined to
or associated with a unique line in space. b. force system
b) analytical condition

c) hydraulics c. rigid body

a) sliding vector d. dynamics
d) graphical condition
b) free vector 304. It is the branch of mechanics which
293. If three or more non-parallel forces or
vectors are in equilibrium they must be deals with the study of bodies in motion
c) fixed vector
concurrent.
d) none of the above
a. statics
299. Is one for which a unique line in
a) directional condition space must be maintained along which the b. dynamics
quantity acts.
b) analytical condition
c. kinetics
c) hydraulics
d. none of the above.
a) sliding vector
d) graphical condition
305. It is defined as a condition in which
b) free vector the resultant of a system of force is equal
to zero.
c) fixed vector
 d. base d. kinetic.

a. resultant 311. The moment of inertia is sometimes 317. The ____ expresses the relation
called the _______________. between the external forces applied to a
b. axes system of particles and the effective force
on each particle of the system.
c. Equilibrium
a. parallel axis
d. displacement
b. second moment of area a. Newtons Law of Motion
306. The forces by which determine how
the loads applied to a structure are c. polar moment of inertia b. D’alemberts principle
distributed throughout the structure.
d. none of the above c. Inertia force of particle
312. The term ________ is used to d. none of the above.
a. force system describe another mathematical expression
appears and appears must frequently in 318. It is defined as the motion of a rigid
b. analysis of structure column formulas. body in which a straight live passing
through any two point of the body always
c. rigid body
remain parallel to its initial position.
d. none of the above a. radius of gyration
307. In _____ the members are subjected b. centroidal axis a. Translation
to bending action.
c. moments of inertia b. velocity
d. mohr’s circle c. acceleration
a. forces
313. The moment of inertia of an area is d. none of the above
b. trusses defined by the equation?
319. The motion of translating body
c. frames a. I =Ak2 moving in a straight line is called _______.
d. structure b. Ir+Iy
308. In _____ the internal force in a bar is c. Sp2dA a. rectilinear translation
directed along the axis of bars.
d. SxydA b. curve linear translation
314. The pendulum clock was developed c. parallel axis
a. frame by ________
d. kinematic equation of motion
b. structure
320. The path of the translating body is
c. forces a. Robert Hooke curved, the motion becomes _____.
d. trusses b. Hygens
309. It may be defined as the contact c. Galileo a. rectilinear translation
resistance exerted by one body upon a
second body when the second body d. Aristotle b. parallel axes
moves or tends to move past the first
body. 315. It is the geometry of motion. c. curve linear translation

d. none of the above.

a. resistance a. static 321. The area under a v-t curve represents

the change in ______
b. pressure b. kinematics

c. friction c. kinetic
a. displacement
d. motion d. dynamics
b. velocity
310. The term ______ is used when 316. It is the branch of mechanics that
rotating to the center of gravity of a relates the force acting on a body to its c. mass
weightless figure such as a line, an area or mass and acceleration.
a volumes. d. acceleration

322. The area under an a-t curve

a. Dynamics represents the change in _______
a. centroid
b. statics
b. axis
c. kinematic a. acceleration
c. area
b. displacement 334. The time required to complete one
oscillation backward and forward is called
c. velocity a. resultant work the _____ of the motion.
d. none of the above. b. kinetic energy

323. When the principle of the motion of c. acceleration a. cycle

the center of gravity is applied to
rectilinear translation we obtain _____. d. none of the above b. vibrations

a. ∑x = w?ga 329. The expression S8o∑X.ds define as c. period

_________
b. 10/ga d. none of the above.

c. ∑x =q/g 335. The condition existing when the

a. kinetic energy impressed frequency is equal to the
d. none of the above natural frequency is known as_______.
b. resultant work
324. The normal component of
acceleration is expressed by______. c. work energy equation
a. resonance
d. none of the above
b. displacement
a. αn =v2/r 330. It is a motion which repeats itself
after a define internal of time c. cycle
b. αt = dv/dt
d. amplitude
c. α= αn + αt
a. frequency 336. The speed of rotation at which
d. none of the above resonance occurs is called ________.
b. vibration
325. It is define as that motion of rigid
body in which the particles move in a c. precession
circular paths with their centers on a fixed a. cycle
d. none of the above
straight line.
b. vibrations
331. The maximum displacement of the
body from its equilibrium position is c. critical speed
a. translation known as the ____ of the vibration.
d. rotation
b. rotation
337. the α = w2s is the mathematical
c. acceleration a. frequency description for _________

d. none of the above. b. acceleration

326. ________ is measured in radians by c. amplitude a. simple harmonic motion

the angular distance swept through by any
d. force b. work energy method
radians of or line in the rotating body
332. Each repetition of the motion is c. plane motion
called a _______.
a. angular displacement d. none of the above

b. angular velocity 338. __________ is the time rate at which

a. period work is done on a body.
c. angular acceleration
b. vibrations
d. none of the above.
c. cycle a. motion
327. It is defined as the motion of rigid
d. none of the above. b. cycle
body in which all particles in the body
remain at a constant distance from a fixed 333. The ____ of the vibration is the c. power
reference plane. reciprocal of the period and is measured in
cycles per second. d. resultant

339. The __________ is a traditional unit

a. angular velocity
equivalent to 550 ft–lb of work per sec, or
a. amplitude 33,000 ft-lb of work per min.
b. plane motion
b. frequency
c. rotation
c. vibrations a. watt
d. translation
d. none of the above b. kilowatt
328. The expression w/2g v2 is defined as
_________.
c. horse power
d. none of the above c. volume

340. It is the ratio of power output to d. none of the above.

power input.
346. The line joining the center of gravity
and the center of rotation will be
called______.
a. amplitude

b. frequency
a. T axis
c. efficiency
b. N axis
d. none of the above.
c. Z axis
341. It is defined as that which changes, or
tends to change, the state of motion of a
body.
d. Y axis
STRENGTH OF
347. The line through the center of
rotation perpendicular to N will be called MATERIALS
_________.
a. acceleration 1. What is the ratio of the transverse
strain to the corresponding axial strain in a
b. force
body subjected to uniaxial stress?
a. Z axis
c. speed
b. N axis
d. velocity
A. Poisson’s ratio
c. T axis
342. An axis passing through the centroid
B. Euler’s ratio
of an area is known as a _________ d. none of the above.
C. Refractive index
348. The axis of rotation will be called the
______. D. Dielectric index
a. parallel axis
2. What are the four basic forms of
b. centroidal axis
deformation of solid bodies?
a. N axis
c. radius
b. Z axis
d. none of the above
A. Tension, compression, bending and
c. T axis
343. It is defined as the time rate of twisting
change of displacement. d. none of the above.
B. Tension, compression, elongation and
349. The _____________ are called the bending
normal and tangential axes since they are
a. speed C. Tension, compression, plastic and
respectively normal and tangent to the
elastic
path of the center of gravity.
b. velocity
D. Tension, compression, elongation and
c. distance torsion
a. rotating axes
d. none of the above 3. What is a structural member supported
b. center of percussion horizontally and carries transverse
344. It is defined as the time rate of loading?
change of velocity c. centroidal axis

d. none of the above

A. Beam
a. displacement 350. A _______________ is defined as a
particle at the end of a weightless cord B. Column
b. speed
that is allowed to vibrate in a vertical arc
C. Arch
c. acceleration of a circle under the influence of gravity
and the tension in the cord. D. Shaft
d. none of the above
4. What refers to a slender member which
345. The _______ is a force that results prevents parts of a structure moving
from the attraction between the mass of a. force vibrations
towards each other under compressive
the body and the mass of the earth. force?
b. simple pendulum

c. plane motion
a. weight A. Tie
d. none of the above
b. density B. Column
C. Panel C. Copper

D. Strut D. Aluminum A. The material has pass through plastic

5. What refers to a slender member which
prevents parts of a structure moving
towards each other under compressive
force?
11. Within elastic limit, the shear stress is
proportional to shear strain. What is the
constant of propotionality of this
statement called?
range and enter the elastic range
B. The material has pass through elastic
range and enter the plastic range
C. The material is in the elastic range only

D. The material is in the plastic range only

A. Tie A. Modulus of rigidity
17. What refers to the parallel axis
B. Column B. Modulus of elasticity theorem for second moment of area?

C. Strut C. Young’s modulus

D. Arch D. Bulk modulus A. Mohr’s theorem

6. What refers to the point in which the 12. What is the unit of the modulus of B. Steiner’s theorem
bending moment changes sign through a elasticity?
zero value? C. Maxwell’s theorem

A. Critical point
B. Point of inflection
C. Point of contraflexure
D. Point of zero stress
7. What is the unit of strain?
A. Pascal
B. Unitless
C. N-m
D. N-m/s
8. Volumetric stain is the:
A. change in volume per unit time
B. square root of difference of original
volume and change in volume
C. original volume minus change in volume
D. ratio of change in volume to original
volume
9. What refers to the stress in the material
at the elastic limit?
D. Young’s theorem
A. N-m
18. The elastic deformation of a material
B. Unitless is:
C. Pa
D. N-m/s A. directly proportional to cross-sectional
area of the material
13. Within elastic limit, the volumetric
strain is proportional to the hydrostatic B. inversely proportional to the modulus
stress. What is the constant that relates of elasticity of material
these two quantities called?
C. inversely proportional to the force
acting on the material
A. Modulus of rigidity D. inversely proportional to the initial
length of the material
B. Modulus of elasticity
19. The strain energy of a member is:
C. Young’s modulus
D. Bulk modulus
A. inversely proportional to the square of
the force acting on the member
14. What is another term for modulus of B. directly proportional to the modulus of
rigidity? elasticity
C. inversely proportional to the
cross-sectional area of the member
A. Shear modulus
D. inversely proportional to the initial
B. Young’s modulus
length of the member
C. Bulk modulus
20. Stiffness is:
D. Modulus of elasticity

A. Working stress 15. How many times greater is the plastic

A. ratio of force to deformation
range of strain as compared to the elastic
B. Yield stress range of strain? B. ratio of force to modulus of elasticity
C. Ultimate stress
C. ratio of product of cross-sectional area
D. Maximum stress and initial length to deformation
A. 100
10. Which of the following materials has D. ratio of initial length to cross-sectional
B. 200
the least modulus of elasticity? area
C. 300
21. Which of the following substances has
D. 400 the least average coefficient of linear
A. Steel thermal expansion?
16. What does it means when the material
B. Glass is said to be “yielding”?
A. Copper C. 20,550 lbs 32. An iron steam pipe is 200 ft long at
0oC. What will be its increase in length
B. Concrete D. 15,422 lbs when heated to 100oC? Coefficient of
linear expansion is 30 x 10^-6 per oC.
C. Steel 27. A simply supported beam, 10 m long
carries a uniform distributed load of 20
D. Tin kN/m. What is the value of the maximum
moment of the beam due to the load? A. 0.18 ft
22. Steel has a modulus of elasticity of
_____ MPa. B. 0.12 ft

A. 10,000 kN-m C. 0.20 ft

A. 200 B. 5,000 kN-m D. 0.28 ft
B. 2,000 C. 2,000 kN-m 33. A steel railroad rails 10 m long are laid
with clearance of 3 mm at a temperature
C. 20,000 D. 250 kN-m of 15oC. At what temperature will the rails
D. 200,000 just touch? If there were no initial
28. A cylindrical water tank is 8 m in
clearance Assume: alpha = 11.7 micro
diameter and 12 m high. If the tank is to
23. What is the maximum moment of a m/m deg.C and E = 200 GPa.
be completely filled, determine the
beam supported at both ends and carries
minimum thickness of the tank plating if
a uniform load of w throughout its entire
the stress is limited to 40 MPa.
length?
A. 46.90 deg

B. 56.06 deg
A. 11.77 mm
A. wL / 2
C. 50.36 deg
B. 13.18 mm
B. wL / 8
D. 40.64 deg
C. 10.25 mm
C. wL2 / 8
34. A cylinder of diameter 1.0 cm at 30oC
D. 12.60 mm is to be slide into a hole on a steel plate.
D. wL2 / 4
The hole has a diameter of 0.99970 cm at
29. The stress in a 90-cm diameter pipe
30oC. To what temperature the plate must
having a wall thickness of 9.5 cm and
be heated? Coefficient of linear expansion
24. ____ is the stress beyond which the under a static head of 70 m of water is
for steel is 1.2 x 10^-5 per oC.
material will not return to its original
shape when unloaded but will retain a
permanent deformation. A. 325 kPa
A. 62oC
A. Elastic limit B. 32.5 kPa
B. 55oC
B. Proportional limit C. 32.5 MPa
C. 48oC
C. Yield limit D. 3.25 MPa
D. 65oC
D. Yield strength 30. A 30-m long aluminum bar is subjected
35. A certain steel tape is known to be
to a tensile stress of 175 MPa. Determine
25. All are methods of determining the bar 100,000 ft long at a temperature of 70oF.
the elongation if E = 69116 MPa.
force of a truss member except one. When the tape is at a temperature of 10oF,
Which one? what tape reading corresponds to a
distance of 90,000 ft? Assume a
A. 78 mm coefficient of thermal expansion equal 65
A. Method of joints x 10^-7 per oF.
B. 76 mm
B. Method of section C. 74 mm
C. Method of virtual work A. 90,035 ft
D. 72 mm
D. Maxwell diagram B. 89,965 ft
31. Determine the load capacity in kN on a
25 mm diameter x 1200 mm long steel C. 90,225 ft
shaft if its maximum elongation shall not
26. Determine the force required to punch exceed 1 mm. Assume E = 200,000 MPa. D. 89,775 ft
a ½ inch hole on a 3/8 thick plate if the
36. A solid shaft 2.0 m long is transmitting
ultimate shearing strength of the plate is
27 kN-m torque. If the shear modulus of
50,000 psi. A. 88.2 kN the shaft material is 85 GPa and the
allowable shearing stress is 70 MPa,
B. 78.3 kN
determine the angle of twist between the
A. 23,562 lbs C. 83.2 kN two ends of the shaft.

B. 19,450 lbs D. 81.8 kN

A. 1.52o is 0.020 inch. What is the required area? D. 5440 lbf/ft
E(steel) = 3 x 10^7 psi
B. 1.02o 46. During the stress strain test, the unit
deformation at a stress of 35 MN/m2 it
C. 1.44o was 667 x 10^-6 mm. If the proportional
A. 30.5 mm2 limit was MN/m2, what is the modulus of
D. 1.32o
elasticity?
B. 47.1 in2
37. Determine the maximum shearing
stress in a helical steel spring composed of C. 55 mm2
20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on mean A. 10 x 10^8 N/cm2
radius of 80 mm when the spring is D. 10 in2
supporting a load of 20 kN? B. 5.8 x 10^6 N/in2
42. High strength steel band saw, 20 mm
wide and 0.8 mm thick runs over the C. 2.1 x 10^5 N/mm2
pulley 600 mm in diameter of pulleys can
A. d529 Gpa be used without exceeding the flexural D. 35 x 10^6 N/mm2
stress of 400 MPa? Note: E = 200 GPa.
B. 370 Pa 47. A 2.5 in. diameter shaft is 2 ft. long. Its
maximum shear stress is 10,000 psi. What
C. 25 kPa is the angular deflection in degrees?
A. 250 cm
D. 121 MPa
B. 325 mm
38. A 14-ft simple beam uniformly loaded A. 0.96o
with 200 pounds per foot over its entire C. 400 mm
length. If the beam is 3.625 in wide and B. 0.45o
7.625 in deep, what is the maximum D. 150 in.
bending stress/ C. 0.78o
43. What weight in pounds can be lifted by
a screw that has an efficiency of 80% if it is D. 0.56o
operated by a 50 lb force at the end of a
A. 7974 lbf/in2 30 inched lever and the pitch of the screw 48. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is
is ½ inch? supported by a 5/16 inch diameter cable,
B. 8205 lbf/in2 1500 feet long. When the elevator carries
a 1500 lb, the cable elongates 6 inches
C. 6332 lbf/in2 more. What is the modulus of elasticity of
A. 15,080 the cable?
D. 1674 lbf/in2
B. 15,500
39. A 19-foot beam 10 inches wide and 20
inches high supports 1500 lb/ft on two C. 10,000 A. 4.35 x 10^7 psi
supports 14 feet apart. The right end of
the beam extends 2 feet past the support. D. 12,000 B. 5.87 x 10^7 psi
What is the shearing stress midway
44. What is the stress in an 8-inch round x C. 3.42 x 10^7 psi
between supports?
16-inch high concrete cylinder (E = 2.5 x
10^6 psi) when the unit deformation is D. 2.34 x 10^7 psi
0.0012 inch/inch?
A. 1.0 psi 49. A hallow shaft has an inner diameter
of 0.035 m and an outer diameter of 0.06
B. 10 psi m. Compute the torque if the shear stress
A. 500 psi is not exceed 120 MPa.
C. 67 psi
B. 8100 psi
D. 2.0 psi
C. 210 psi A. 4,500 N-m
40. A long beam of length L has a formula
which is 48Ely = w (2x^4 – 5Lx^3 + D. 3000 psi B. 4,300 N-m
3(L^2 )(x^2)); where does the maximum
45. What uniform load will cause simple C. 5,500 N-m
deflection occur?
beam which is 10 ft long to deflect 0.3 in.
ft it supported (in addition to the supports) D. 3,450 N-m
by a spring at the beam mid-point. The
A. 0.675L spring constant of 30,000 lbf/in. Assume 50. A spherical tank with 10 inches inside
the beam is steel, 10 in. deep, rectangular, diameter contains oxygen gas at 2,500 psi.
B. 0.578L and with a centroidal moment of inertia of Calculate the required wall thickness in
100 in4 . (mm) under stress of 28,000 psi.
C. 0.987L

D. 0.876L
A. 3550 lbf/ft A. 6.12 mm
41. A steel support must connect to
30,000 pound tensile loads separated by B. 6445 lbf/ft B. 5.66 mm
200 inches. The maximum allowable stress
is 10,000 psi and the maximum elongation C. 2250 lbf/ft C. 4.88 mm
D. 7.21 mm 56. A ________ material is one having a A. rigid range
relatively large tensile strain up to the
point of rupture B. malleable range

51. Determine the maximum shearing C. elastic range

stress in a helical steel spring composed of
20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on mean A. malleable D. plastic range
radius of 80 mm when the spring is
B. brittle 62. The ordinate of the point at which
supporting a load of 2 kN?
there is an increase in strain with no
C. conductible increase in stress is known as

A. 121 MPa D. ductile

B. 130 MPa 57. A ________ material has a relatively A. elastic limit

small strain up to the point of rupture
C. 150 MPa B. proportional limit

D. 120 MPa C. yield point

A. brittle
52. A single bolt is used to lap joint two D. rupture point
steel bars together. Tensile force on the B. malleable
63. The maximum ordinate to the curve
bar is 20,000 N. Determine the diameter
C. ductile
of the bolt required if the allowable
shearing stress on it is 70 MPa. D. conductible
A. yield strength
58. The maximum stress that may be
developed during a simple tension that B. ultimate strength
A. 25 mm
the stress is a linear function of strain.
C. tensile strength
B. 19 mm
D. both B and C are correct
C. 15 mm
A. elastic limit
64. The ratio of the strain in the lateral
D. 12 mm direction to that in the axial direction
B. proportional limit
53. Strength of materials can most aptly
C. yield point
be described as “statics of deformable
_______ bodies”. D. rupture point A. Pascal’s Number

59. The maximum stress that may be B. Factor of Safety

developed during a simple tension test
A. elastic C. Young’s Modulus
such that there is no permanent or
B. rigid residual deformation when the load is D. Poisson’s ratio
entirely removed
C. compressible 65. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate
strength to the specific weight
D. thermal
A. elastic limit
54. It states that the elongation is
proportional to the force B. proportional limit A. Specific Strength

C. yield point B. Specific Rigidity

A. Pascal’s Law D. rupture point C. Specific Modulus

B. Hooke’s Law 60. The region of the stress-strain curve D. Specific Gravity
extending from the origin to the
C. Young’s Theorem proportional limit is called 66. Defined as the ratio of the Young’s
modulus to the specific weight
D. Farrell’s Law

55. The modulus of elasticity is also known A. rigid range

as A. Specific Strength
B. malleable range
B. Specific Rigidity
C. elastic range
A. Young’s modulus C. Specific Modulus
D. plastic range
B. Modulus of rigidity D. Specific Gravity
61. The region of the stress-strain curve
C. Hooke’s ratio extending from the proportional limit to 67. One of the same elastic properties at
the point of rupture is called all points in the body
D. Yield strength

A. heterogeneous material
B. multistate material A. Kelvin stress D. Simple stress

C. homogenous material B. Thermal stress 80. Tensile and compressive stress are
caused by forces _________ to the areas
D. monostate material C. Hydraulic stress on which they act
68. One of having the same elastic D. Humid stress
properties in all directions at any one
point of the body 74. The typical Young’s modulus of steel is A. perpendicular

B. parallel

A. Orthotropic A. 145 – 170 GPa C. angled

B. Isotropic B. 195 – 210 GPa D. skew

C. Anisotropic C. 225 – 240 GPa 81. Which of the following is/are known as
tangential stress?
D. Monotropic D. 275 – 310 GPa

69. Material that does not possess any

kind of elastic symmetry A. Circumferential stress
75. Poisson’s ratio of glass
B. Hoop stress
A. 0.16
A. Orthotropic C. Girth stress
B. 0.19
B. Isotropic D. All of the above
C. 0.23
C. Anisotropic 82. The maximum safe stress a material
D. 0.27
can carry
D. Monotropic
76. The yield strength of pure aluminum is
70. Material that has three mutually
perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry A. Optimum stress
A. 7 – 11 MPa
B. Working stress
B. 7 – 11 GPa
A. Orthotropic C. Differential stress
C. 2 – 5 MPa
B. Isotropic D. Partial stress
D. 2 – 5 GPa
C. Anisotropic 83. It is the change in shape and / or size
77. One Newton per square meter is one of a continuum body after it undergoes a
D. Monotropic displacement between an initial and a
deformed configuration
71. The change of volume per unit volume
is defined as the A. Joule

B. Watt A. Deformation
A. Convection C. Pascal B. Distortion
B. Dilatation D. Kelvin C. Deflection
C. Expansion 78. Stress on an object is _________ its D. Dilation
cross sectional area
D. Mutation 84. Expressed as the ration of total
deformation to the initial dimension of the
72. A measure of the resistance of a
material body in which forces are being
material to change of volume without A. directly proportional to
applied.
change of shape or form
B. inversely proportional to

C. less than
A. Elasticity
A. Young’s modulus
D. greater than
B. Dislocation
B. Modulus of rigidity
79. The condition under which the stress is
C. Stress
C. Bulk modulus constant or uniform is known as
D. Strain
D. Shear modulus

73. Stresses arising when a change in A. Shearing stress

temperature affects the original length of
a body B. Tangential stress
85. Engineering strain is also known as
C. Torsion
 91. The angle of twist is measured in 97. What is the minimum diameter of a
bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if
A. Hooke strain its ultimate stress is 140 MPa
B. Cauchy strain A. Mils

C. Couch strain B. Gradians A. 2.43 mm

D. Pascal strain C. Radians B. 4.24 mm
86. When a material is stretched in one D. Degrees C. 6.34 mm
direction and the other direction tends to
contract, the Poisson’s ratio is 92. It is the rotational force down a shaft D. 7.69 mm

98. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to

an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner
A. Positive A. Pressure
diameter is 3mm, what should the outer
B. Torque diameter be if it is not to exceed 125
B. Negative
MPa?
C. Zero C. Torsion

D. Cannot be determined D. Tangential load

A. 4.34 mm
87. When a material is stretched in one 93. It is made of elastic material formed
into the shape of a helix which returns to B. 8.53 mm
direction and the other direction tends to
expand, the Poisson’s ratio is its natural length when unloaded
C. 7.41 mm

D. 5.34 mm
A. Positive A. Autumn
99. Determine the outside of a hollow
B. Spring steel tube that will carry a tensile load of
B. Negative
500 kN at a stress of 140 MPa. Assume the
C. Zero C. Spiral wall thickness to be one tenth of the
outside diameter.
D. Cannot be determined D. Beam

88. Which of the following is known to 94. The form of deformation of a spring is
have no contractions or expansion when A. 104 mm
stretched in the other direction?
B. 113 mm
A. Twisting
C. 134 mm
B. Volume expansion
A. Cast iron
D. 153 mm
C. Elongation
B. Sand
D. None of the above
C. Auxetics
100. A 20 m bar with a square cross
95. A 6 mm bar is subjected to a tensile
D. Cork section of 9 mm2 is subjected to a tensile
force of 4000 N. Find the stress.
force without exceeding its ultimate stress.
89. Which of the following materials is If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical
known to expand instead of contracting one, what should the diameter be?
when stretched in the other direction? A. 333.33 MPa
A. 4.34 mm
B. 70.74 MPa
B. 8.32 mm
A. Cast iron C. 435.34 MPa
C. 3.39 mm
B. Sand D. 43.30 MPa
D. 1.24 mm
C. Auxetics 96. If the circumference of the cross
section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what
D. Cork
maximum axial load can it handle if the
101. Two plates are being pulled at
90. Is the twisting of an object due to an stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?
opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If
applied torque. the plates are secured by two bolts 75 mm
in diameter, what is the shearing stress
A. 4973.59 N applied to each bolt?
A. Torsion
B. 4932.43 N
B. Radial distortion
C. 4901.53 N A. 4.23 MPa
C. Circumferential shear
D. 4892.43 N B. 3.21 MPa
D. Centrifugal force
C. 2.26 MPa
D. 1.28 MPa
102. Three plates, secured by a 60 mm
bolt, are being pulled at opposite
directions alternately. What pulling force
is needed to shear off the bolt if it can
withstand a stress of up to 175 MPa?
D. 75 MPa
107. If the tensile stress of a spherical
vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the
minimum thickness allowed if its inner
radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20
N/mm2 of pressure?
112. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached
to the ceiling atone end. At what new
length could be expected if it has a unit
mass of 5000 kg/m3? Use E = 750 MPa.
A. 75.023 m

B. 75.104 m
A. 434 kN A. 2.06 mm
C. 75.184 m
B. 242 kN B. 4.12 mm
D. 75.245 m
C. 495 kN C. 6.24 mm
113. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to
D. 272 kN D. 8.75 mm the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN
is hung on its lower end, what is the total
103. What force is required to punch off a 108. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit
5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the force is applied to plates 9 mm thick mass of kg/m3.
ultimate punching stress is 200 MPa? secured by a bolt 8 mm in diameter?

A. 46.78 mm
A. 15.53 kN A. 453.32 MPa
B. 45.34 mm
B. 17.45 kN B. 321.43 MPa
C. 48.33 mm
C. 14.43 kN C. 431.43 MPa
D. 52.23 mm
D. 12.57 kN D. 208.33 MPa
114. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging
104. A hole is to be punched out of a plate 109. What is the elongation if a steel bar vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N.
having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 7m long is subjected to a temperature Neglecting the weight of the wire,
MPa. If the compressive stress in the change of 17oC? Use α = 11.7 x 10-6 / Co. determine the required diameter if the
punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine stress is not to exceed 140 MPa and the
the maximum thickness of plate from total elongation is not to exceed 5 mm.
which a hole, 100 mm in diameter can be Assume E = 200 GPa.
A. 1.34 mm
punched.
B. 13.44 mm

C. 134.44 mm A. 4.26 mm
A. 33.3 mm
D. 1.34 m B. 3.12 mm
B. 17.9 mm
110. By how much will a 15m steel rod C. 5.05 mm
C. 13.4 mm
with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is
D. 2.46 mm
D. 26.9 mm subjected to a tensile load of 26 kN. Use
E=200 GPa 115. A steel rod having a cross-sectional
105. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter area of 300mm2 and length of 150 m is
of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of suspended vertically from one end. It
30 MPa. If the thickness is 10% of the supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end.
A. 293.34 mm
inner diameter, what is the longitudinal If the unit mass of steel is 5120 kg/m3 and
stress? B. 67.34 mm E=200 GPa, find the total elongation of the
rod.
C. 275.87 mm

A. 150 MPa D. 69.34 mm

A. 33.45 mm
B. 125 MPa 111. At temperature of 25oC, a 17 m rod 8
mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile B. 54.33 mm
C. 100 MPa
load of 24 kN. At what temperature
without the load will the bar have the C. 53.44 mm
D. 75 MPa
same elongation? Use α = 13.8 x 10-6 / Co
D. 35.33 mm
106. What is the tangential stress in and E = 180 GPa.
question 51? 116. What is the torsion on a solid
cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm
A. 115 oC subjected to a rotational force of 27 N-m?
A. 150 MPa
B. 217 oC
B. 125 MPa
C. 245 oC A. 434.31 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 287 oC B. 542.46 MPa
C. 255.44 MPa D. 1658 mm 127. Determine the maximum shearing
stress in a helical steel spring composed of
D. 636.62 MPa 122. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed 20 turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a
to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4o. Using mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is
117. What is the maximum torque allowed G=83 GPa, compute the power that can be supporting a load of 2 kN. Use the exact
if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s. formula.
40 MPa only?

A. 1.21 MW A. 120.6 MPa

A. 13.57 N-m
B. 1.67 MW B. 117.9 MPa
B. 15.34 N-m
C. 3.21 MW C. 132.4 MPa
C. 18.34 N-m
D. 1.26 MW 126.9 MPa
D. 23.43 N-m
123. A helical spring with mean radius of 128. A force of 10 N is applied to one end
118. How many degrees of rotational 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. of a 10 inches diameter circular rod.
deformation would occur on an 8 m What is the shearing stress if there is a 22 Calculate the stress.
cylindrical bar 8 mm in radius if it N load? Use the approximate formula.
subjected to torque of 95 N-m?

A. 0.20 kPa
A. 325.32 MPa
A. 56.34o B. 0.05 kPa
B. 231.54 MPa
B. 35.62o C. 0.10 kPa
C. 432.43 MPa
C. 92.32o D. 0.15 kPa
D. 154.67 MPa
D. 43.53o 129. What force is required to punch a
20-mm diameter hole through a 10-mm
119. What is the torque if the power
thick plate? The ultimate strength of the
transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s 124. Solve question 123 using the exact
plate material is 450 MPa.
is 1 MW? formula.

A. 238.29 MPa
A. 241 kN
A. 8.342 kN-m B. 431.32 MPa
B. 283 kN
B. 3.532 kN-m C. 365.35 MPa
C. 386 kN
C. 7.453 kN-m D. 153.64 MPa
D. 252 kN
D. 5.305 kN-m 125. By how much will a spring with 9
turns elongate if it supports a weight of 130. A steel pipe 1.5m in diameter is
120. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in 400 N? The wire diameter is 6 mm and the required to carry an internal pressure of
diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa. 750 kPa. If the allowable tensile stress of
the maximum allowable power
steel is 140 MPa, determine the required
transmitted if the stress should not exceed
thickness of the pipe in mm.
380 MPa?
A. 64.35 mm

B. 42.43 mm
A. 4.56
A. 3.43 kW
C. 26.02 mm
B. 5.12
B. 5.23 kW
D. 16.65 mm
C. 4.25
C. 1.53 kW
126. A helical spring is made by wrapping
D. 4.01
D. 2.89 kW steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a
forming cylinder 150 mm in diameter. 131. A spherical pressure vessel 400-mm
121. Determine the length of the shortest Compute number of turns required to in diameter has a uniform thickness of 6
2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be permit an elongation of 132 mm without mm. The vessel contains gas under a
twisted through two complete turns exceeding a shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. pressure of 8,000 kPa. If the ultimate
without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 Use G = 83 GPa. stress of the material is 420 MPa, what is
MPa. Use G = 35 GPa.
the factor of safety with respect to tensile
failure?
A. 15.43 turns
A. 6280 mm
B. 13.83 turns
B. 3420 mm A. 3.15
C. 18.24 turns
C. 1280 mm B. 3.55
D. 12.36 turns
C. 2.15
D. 2.55
132. A metal specimen 36-mm in diameter
has a length of 360 mm and a force of 300
kN elongates the length bar to 1.20-mm.
What is the modulus of elasticity?
A. 88.419 GPa
B. 92.564 GPa
C. 92.658 GPa
D. 95.635 GPa
133. During a stress-strain test, the unit
deformation at a stress of 35 MPa was
observed to be 167 x 10-6 m/m and at a
stress of 140 MPa it was 667 x 10-6 m/m.
If the proportional limit was 200 MPa,
what is the modulus of elasticity? What is
the strain corresponding to stress of 80
MPa?
A. E = 210,000 MPa; ε = 381 x 10-4 m/m
B. E = 200,000 MPa; ε = 318 x 10-6 m/m
C. E = 211,000 MPa; ε = 318 x 10-4 m/m
D. E = 210,000 MPa; ε = 381 x 10-6 m/m
134. An axial load of 100 kN is applied to a
flat bar 20 mm thick, tapering in width
from 120 mm to 40 mm in a length of 10
m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, determine the
total elongation of the bar.
A. 3.43 mm
B. 2.125 mm
C. 4.33 mm
D. 1.985 mm
135. Steel bar having a rectangular
cross-section 15mm, 20mm and 150m
long is suspended vertically from one end.
The steel has a unit mass of 7850 kg/m3
and a modulus of elasticity E of 200 GPa. If
a loaf of 20 kN is suspended at the other
end of the rod, determine the total
elongation of the rod.
A. 43.5 mm
B. 54.3 mm
C. 35.4 mm
D. 45.3 mm
136. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2
m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron
5 mm thick. Compute the load that will
compress the bar a total of 1 mm in the
length of 2 m. Use Esteel = 200 GPa and
Ecast-iron = 100 GPa.
A. 200 kN
B. 240 kN
C. 280 kN
D. 320 kN
137. A 20-mm diameter steel rod, 250 mm
long is subjected to a tensile force of 75
kN. If the Poisson’s ratio µ is 0.30,
determine the lateral strain of the rod.
Use E = 200 GPa.
A. εy = 3.581 x 10-4 mm/mm
B. εy = -3.581 x 10-4 mm/mm
C. εy = -2.467 x 10-4 mm/mm
D. εy = 2.467 x 10-4 mm/mm
138. A solid aluminum shaft of 100-mm
diameter fits concentrically in a hollow
steel tube. Determine the minimum
internal diameter of the steel tube so that
no contact pressure exists when the
aluminum shaft carries an axial
compressive load of 600 kN. Assume
Poisson’s ratio µ = 1/3 and the modulus of
elasticity of aluminum E be 70 GPa.
A. 100.0364 mm
B. 100.0312 mm
C. 100.0303 mm
D. 100.0414 mm
139. The maximum allowable torque, in
kN-m, for a 50-mm diameter steel shaft
when the allowable shearing stress is 81.5
MPa is:
A. 3.0
B. 1.0
C. 4.0
D. 2.0
140. The rotation or twist in degrees of a
shaft, 800 mm long subjected to a torque
of 80 N-m, 20 mm in diameter and shear
modulus G of 80,000 MPa is:
A. 3.03
B. 4.04
C. 2.92
D. 1.81
141. Compute the value of the shear
modulus G of steel whose modulus of
elasticity E is 200 GPa and Poisson’s ratio
is µ is 0.30.
A. 72,456 MPa
B. 76,923 MPa
C. 79,698 MPa
D. 82,400 MPa
142. Determine the length of the shortest
2-mm diameter bronze wire, which can be
twisted through two complete turns
without exceeding a stress of 70 MPa. Use
G = 35 GPa.
A. 6.28 m
B. 5.23 m
C. 6.89 m
D. 8.56 m
143. A hollow steel shaft 2540 mm long
must transmit torque of 34 kN-m. The
total angle of twist must not exceed 3
degrees. The maximum shearing stress
must not exceed 110 MPa. Find the inside
diameter and the outside diameter of the
shaft the meets these conditions. Use G =
83 GPa.
A. D = 129 mm; d = 92 mm
B. D = 125 mm; d = 65 mm
C. D = 132 mm; d = 100 mm
D. D = 112 mm; d = 85 mm
144. Determine the maximum shearing
stress in a helical steel spring composed of
20 turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a
mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is
supporting a load of 2 kN.
A. 110.6 MPa
B. 101.1 MPa
C. 120.6 MPa
D. 136.5 MPa
145. A load P is supported by two springs
arranged in series. The upper spring has
20 turns of 29-mm diameter wire on a
mean diameter of 150 mm. The lower
spring consist of 15 turns of 10-mm
diameter wire on a mean diameter of 130
mm. Determine the value of P that will 150. What is the moment of inertia of a
cause a total deflection of 80 mm. Assume cylinder of radius 5 m and mass of 5 kg?
G = 80 GPa for both spring. A. Modulus of elasticity
A. 62.5 kg-m2
B. Poisson’s ratio
B. 80 kg-m2
A. 223.3 N C. Modulus of rupture
C. 72.5 kg-m2
B. 228.8 N D. None of the above
D. 120 kg-m2
C. 214.8 N 156. The moment of inertia of any plane
figure can be expressed in units of length
D. 278.4 N to the:
151. The section of a beam at which the
146. A 10-meter long simply supported bending moment changes from positive to
beam carries a uniform load of 8 kN/m for negative is called.
6 meters from the left support and a A. First power
concentrated load of 15 kN 2 meters from
B. Second power
the right support. Determine the
A. Critical point
maximum shear and moment. C. Third power
B. Deflection point
D. Fourth power
C. Point of inflection
A. Vmax = 33.2 kN; Mmax = 85.92 KN-m 157. The moment of inertia about the
D. None of the above principal x – x axis of a cross section is:
B. Vmax = 31.3 kN; Mmax = 81.74 KN-m
152. A circular steel plate must fit into an
C. Vmax = 36.6 kN; Mmax = 83.72 KN-m
opening whose area is fifty square inches.
Find the diameter of the plate to two A. The integral of y2Da
D. Vmax = 41.8 kN; Mmax = 92.23 KN-m
decimal places.
B. The integral of xda
147. A simple beam, 10 m long carries a
concentrated load of 500 kN at the C. The integral of x2Da
midspan. What is the maximum moment
A. 7.98 in.
of the beam? D. The integral of xyda
B. 8.65 in.
158. The stress in an elastic material is:
C. 6.45 in.
A. 1250 kN-m
D. 9.60 in.
B. 1050 kN-m A. Inversely proportional to the materials
153. Find the constant of 81 Hp in a 3 yield strength
C. 1520 kN-m
inches cold rolled line shafting which
B. Inversely proportional to the force
D. 1510 kN-m transmitted 210 rpm.
acting

148. A small square 5cm by 5cm is cut out C. Proportional to the displacement
of one corner of a rectangular cardboard
A. 900
20cm wide by 30cm long. How far, in cm D. Inversely proportional to the strain
from the uncut longer side, is the centroid B. 600
159. Principal stresses occur on those
of the remaining area?
C. 800 planes:

D. 500
A. 9.56
154. A steel wire 10 m. long , hanging A. Where the shearing stress is zero
B. 9.35 vertically supports a tensile Load of 1000
B. Which are 45° Apart
N. Neglecting the weight of the wire,
C. 9.48
determine The required diameter if the C. Where the shearing stress in minimum
D. 9.67 elongation is not to exceed 2.5 mm.
Assume e = 200 gpa. D. Which are subjected to pure tension
149. What is the inertia of a bowling ball
160. The deflection of a beam is:
(mass = 0.5 kg) of radius 15 cm rotating at
an angular speed of 10 rpm for 6 seconds?
A. 5.046 mm.

B. 3.596 mm. A. Directly proportional to the modulus of

elasticity and Moment of inertia
A. 0.0045 kg-m2
C. 4.297 mm.
B. Inversely proportional to the modulus
B. 0.001 kg-m2
D. 6.382 mm. of elasticity and moment of inertia
C. 0.005 kg-m2
155. The ratio of the lateral expansion to C. Directly proportional to the load
D. 0.002 kg-m2 the longitudinal shortening of a concrete imposed and inversely to the length
cylinder when subjected to compressive squared
load.
D. Inversely proportional to the weight
and length
161. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the:
166. The area of the shear diagram
between any two points on the beam is
equal to: A. Torsional strength
B. Modulus of elasticity

A. Change in shear between two points C. Twisting moment

A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit
longitudinal deformation B. Total shear between the two points D. Elasticity

B. Unit stress to unit strain
C. Elastic limit to proportional limit
D. Shear to compressive strain
162. The linear portion of the stress –
strain diagram of steel is known as the:
A. Modulus of elongation
B. Plastic range
C. Strain hardening
D. Elastic range
163. Stress concentration factor:
C. Average moment between the two 172. Determine the estimate weight of an
points A-36 steel plate size 3/16 x 6’ 20’.
D. Change in moment between the two
points
A. 919 lbs.
167. A thin walled cylindrical shell has an
B. 1012 lbs.
internal diameter of 2 m. And is fabricated
from plates 20 mm. Thick. Calculate the C. 829 lbs.
safe pressure in the shell if the tensile
strength of the Plate is 400 kN/mm2 and D. 735 lbs.
the factor of safety is 6.
173. A 3’’ diameter short shaft carrying
two pulley close to the bearings transmit
how much horsepower if the shaft makes
A. 1.33 n/mm2 280 rpm?
B. 0.33 n/mm2
C. 13.3 n/mm2 A. 199 hp

D. 133.3 n/ mm2 B. 198 hp

A. Is a ratio of average stress on a section
to the allowable stress 168. The linear portion of the stress-strain C. 200 hp
diagram of the steel is known as the:
B. Is the ratio of areas involved in a D. 210 hp
sudden change of cross section

C. Is the ratio of maximum stress produced A. Modulus of elongation

in a section to the average stress over the 174. What pressure is required to punch a
B. Plastic range hole 2’’
section
C. Strain hardening A. 10 tons
D. Is the load factor applied to loads
D. Elastic range B. 20 tons
164. Modulus of rigidity of a steel member
is 169. For a system to be in equilibrium, the C. 30tons
sum of the external forces acting on the
system must be: D. 40 tons
A. Define as the unit shear stress divided
175. Compute the working strength of a 1’’
by the unit shear deformation (shear
bolt which is screwed up tightly in a
strain) A. Equal to unity packed joint when the allowable working
B. Equal to the modulus of elasticity stress is 13000psi?
B. A maximum
divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio
C. Indeterminate
C. Defined as the length divided by the
A. 3600 psi
moment of inertia D. Zero
B. 3950 psi
D. Equal to approximately 7/10 of the 170. A short structural member of length l,
modulus of elasticity area a and modulus of elasticity e, C. 3900 psi
subjected to a compression load of p. The
165. Fixing both ends of a simply member will: D. 3800 psi
supported beam that has a uniform load
throughout the span will increase the 176. What is the working strength of a 2’’
allowable load by: bolt which is screwed up tightly in a
A. Elongated by pl/ae packed joint when the allowable working
stress is 12000 psi?
B. Shorten by pl/ae
A. 25%
C. Buckle at π2 Ei/ll
B. 50% A. 20,120 lbs.
D. None of the above
C. 75% B. 25,347 lbs.
171. What is a metal characteristic to
D. 100% withstand forces that cause twisting? C. 20,443 lbs.
D. 20,200 lbs. 182. The section modulus of a rectangular B. 4 5/8” dia.
of base “b” and height “h” about its base is:
177. Compute the speed of the gear C. 4 7/8” dia.
mounted on a 52.5 mm diameter shaft
receiving power from a driving motor with D. 4 ¾” dia.
250hp. A. Bh2/6
187. With the electric arc welding rate of
B. Bh3/3 18 in./min., how long will It take to weld a
½ in. Thick plate by 3 ft. Long seam?
A. 2182 rpm C. Bh2/12

B. 2071 rpm D. Bh3/12

A. 3 min.
C. 2282 rpm 183. A 2-in. Solid shaft is driven by a 36-in.
Gear and transmits power at 120 rpm. If B. 2 min.
D. 2341 rpm allowable shearing stress is 12 psi, what
Horsepower can be transmitted? C. 1.5 min.
178. What force p is required to punch a
½ in. Hole on a 3/8 in. Thick plate if the D. 4 min.
ultimate shear strength of the plate is
A. 29.89 188. A hollow shaft has an inner diameter
42000 psi?
of 0.035 m. An outer diameter of 0.06 m.
B. 35.89 Compute for the torque if the shear Stress
is not to exceed 120 GPa in nm.
A. 24940 lbs C. 38.89

B. 24620 lbs D. 34.89

A. 4500
C. 24960 lbs 184. A coiled spring with 5 cm. Of outside
diameter is required to work under the B. 4100
D. 24740 lbs load of 190 n. The wire diameter is 15 mm,
the spring is to have 6 active coils and the C. 4300
179. A hollow shaft has inner diameter of ends to be closed and round. Determine
0.035 m. And outer Diameter of 0.06 m. D. 4150
the total number of coils. The modulus of
Determine the polar moment of inertia of rigidity is 80gpa and the mean radius is to 189. What modulus of elasticity in tension
the hollow shaft. be 23 mm, with 7 mm pitch of the spring. is required to obtain a unit deformation of
0.00105 m/m from a load producing a unit
tensile stress of 44,000 psi?
A. 1.512 x 10-6 m4 A. 6.5 coils
B. 1.215 x 10-6 m4 B. 7.5 coils
A. 42.300 x 106 Psi
C. 1.152 x 10-6 m4 C. 8.5 coils
B. 41.202 x 106 Psi
D. 1.125 x 10-6 m4 D. 9.5 coils
C. 43.101 x 106 Psi
180. What is the modulus of elasticity if 185. A helical spring having square and
the stress is 44,000 psi and a unit of D. 41.905 x 106 Psi
ground ends has a total of 18 coils and its
0.00105? material has modulus of elasticity in shear 190. If the ultimate shear strength of steel
of 78.910 GPa. If the spring has an outside plate is 42,000 lb/in2, what force is
diameter of 10.42 cm. and a wire diameter necessary to punch a 0.75 inch diameter
A. 41.905 x 106 of 0.625 cm, compute the maximum hole in an inch thick plate?
deflection that can be produced in the
B. 42.300 x 106 spring due to a load of 50 Kgs.

C. 41.202 x 106 A. 63008 lbs.

D. 43.101 x 106 A. 302 mm B. 68080 lbs.

181. Determine the thickness of a steel air B. 342 mm C. 61800 lbs.

receiver with 30 inches diameter and
pressure load of 120 psi. Design stress of C. 551 mm D. 66800 lbs.
8000 psi.
D. 322 mm 191. A steel tie rod on bridge must be
made to withstand a pull of 5000 lbs. Find
186. Design the size of solid steel to be the diameter of the rod assuming a factor
A. ¼ in. used for 500 Hp, 250 rpm application if of safety of 50 and ultimate stress of
the allowable torsional deflection is 1° and 64000 lb/in2.
B. 5/8 in. the allowable stress is 10,000 psi and
modulus of rigidity is 13 X 106 Psi.
C. 3/8 in.
A. 0.75 in.
D. ½ in.
A. 5” dia. B. 0.71 in.
C. 0.84 in.
D. 0.79 in.
192. Compute the nominal shear stresses
at the surface in MPa for a 40 mm DIIA,
meter shaft that transmit 750 KW at 1500
rpm. Axial and bending load are assumed
negligible. Torsional shearing stress is 28
n/mm2.
A. 218
B. 312
C. 232
D. 380
193. The ratio of the moment of inertia of
the cross-section of the beam to the
section modulus.
A. Equal to the radius gyration
B. Equal to the area of the cross-section
C. Measure a distance
D. Dependent on the modulus of elasticity
of the beam measure
194. Continuous stretching under load
even if the stress is less than the yield
point:
A. Plasticity
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Ductility
195. The maximum moment in a simple
beam subject to a triangular load
beginning at zero from the left support to
a value at the right support occurs at
distance from the left support of:
A. 0.5 l
B. 0.577 l
C. 0.667 l
D. 0.750 l
196. Shear center of a cross section:
A. Is located at the centroid for wf and
doubly symmetric shapes.
B. Can be located by equilibrium of
internal torsional shear stresses with
external torsional forces.
C. For singly symmetry cross section such 202. Large deformation of a structural
as c shape, is located at the axis of member bending out of line because of
symmetry but not at the centroid. large and critical loads:
D. All of the above
197. The stress in an elastic material is: A. Buckle
B. Instability
A. Inversely proportional to the materials C. Plastic deformation
yield strength
D. All of the above
B. Inversely proportional to the force
acting 203. A propped cantilever beam (a beam
fixed at one end and simple supported at
C. Proportional to the displacement the other end) is subject to a uniform load
of 10 kN/m and a concentrated load of 40
D. Inversely proportional to the strain kN at midspan. Determine the reaction at
the simple support if the span is 10 m.
198. The linear portion of the stress- strain
diagram of steel is known as the
A. 50 kn.
A. Modulus of elasticity B. 60 kn
B. Plastic range C. 70 kn
C. Stain hardening D. 80 kn
D. Elastic range 204. A truck is moving along 20 m. Span of
beam. The front axle load is 8 kN, the
199. Principal stress occur on those planes
middle load is spaced at 3 m from the
front and 6 m from the rear. Determine
the max. Moment produced by the load.
A. Where the shearing is zero
B. Which are 45° degrees apart
A. 142.62 kn.m
C. Where the shearing stress is a
maximum B. 153.54 kn.m
D. Which are subjected to pure tension C. 141.62 kn.m
D. 234.45 kn.m
200. The deflection of the beam is 205. A tee section is made up of a 30 x 150
mm flange and a 30 mm x mm web. The
A. Directly proportional to the modulus of neutral axis above the lowest fibers of the
elasticity and moment of inertia section is :
B. Inversely proportional to the modulus
of elasticity and moment of inertia
A. 155 mm
C. Directly proportional to the load
imposed and inversely to the length B. 35 mm
squared
C. 160 mm
D. Inversely proportional to the weight
D. None of the above
and length
206. The sum of all forces in the
orthogonal directions and sum of all
moments about any point are zero:
201. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit A. Buckling load
longitudinal deformation
B. Compatibility
B. Unit stress to unit strain
C. Equilibrium
C. Elastic limit to portion limit
D. Stability
D. Shear strain to compressive strain
207. A mild steel column is hollow and 212. The moment of inertia about the the tip, the moment of inertia is 37.7 x 106
circular in cross section with an external principal x – x-axis of a cross section is: mm. The maximum normal stress is
diameter of 350 mm and internal diameter limited to 150 n/mm2.
of 300 mm. It carries a compressive load
of 200 KN. The shortening of the column if
A. The integral of y2Da
its initial height is 5 m and E = 200000
A. 5000000 N
n/mm2. B. The integral of xda
B. None in the list
C. The integral of x2Da
C. 14252136546n
A. 78.4 n/mm2 D. The integral of xyda
D. 681816 N
B. -0.00039 213. The stress in an elastic material is:
218. A bar of metal 2 mm in diameter is
C. 1.95 mm
tested on a length of 250 mm. In tension
D. None on the list the following result were recorded:
A. Inversely proportional to the materials
yield strength
208. Find the constant of 81 hp in a 3
inches cold rolled line shafting which B. Inversely proportional to the force Load KN 10.4
transmitted 210 RMP. acting 31.2
C. Proportional to the displacement

A. 900 D. Inversely proportional to the strain Extension mm 0.036

B. 600 0.089
214. Principal stresses occur on those
planes:
C. 800

D. 500 The young modulus E is nearly:

A. Where the shearing stress is zero
209. A steel wire 10 m. long , hanging
vertically supports a tensile load of 1000 N. B. Which are 45° Apart A. 80700n/mm2
Neglecting the weight of the wire,
determine the required diameter if the C. Where the shearing stress in minimum B. 2154465n/mm2
elongation is not to exceed 2.5 mm.
D. Which are subjected to pure tension C. 21654024n/mm2
Assume E = 200 GPa.
215. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the: D. None in the list

A. 5.046 mm. Answer: d.

A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit
B. 3.596 mm.
longitudinal deformation
C. 4.297 mm. 219. A beam has the cross section 300 mm
B. Unit stress to unit strain by 900mm. It is subjected to a normal
D. 6.382 mm. tensile force P whose line of action passes
C. Elastic limit to proportional limit
100 mm above the centrion. Calculate the
210. The ratio of the lateral expansion to
D. Shear to compressive strain maximum allowable value of P if the
the longitudinal shortening of a concrete
maximum direct stress is limited to ±150
cylinder when subjected to compressive 216. 66. A mild steel column is hollow and N/mm2.
load. circular in cross section with an external
diameter of 350 mm and internal diameter
of 300 mm. It carries a compressive load
A. 2451354 KN
A. Modulus of elasticity of 200 KN. The shortening of the column if
its initial height is 5 m and E = 200000 B. 21648 KN
B. Poisson’s ratio N/mm2.
C. 10224 KN
C. Modulus of rupture
D. 21300 KN
D. None of the above A. 19.60 mm.
220. The stress flow, Q of a beam 0.25 m x
211. The moment of inertia of any plane B. 19.60 cm 50 m in section that is subjected to a shear
figure can be expressed in units of length
of 95 KN is:
to the: C. 19.30 in.

D. None in the list

A. 526 KN
A. First power 217. A t-beam made up of a flange and a
web, from 2 plates 20 x 200 mm joined B. None in the list
B. Second power together to from a T, is subjected to a
tensile force P whose line of the flange of C. 258 kn/m
C. Third power
the T section. The centroid of the flange of
the T section. The centroid is 65 mm from D. 285 kn/m
D. Fourth power
221. The inertia portion of the
stress-strain diagram of a steel is known as
the:
A. Elastic range
B. Strain hardening
C. Plastic range
D. Modulus of elongation
222. If a member is not restrained against
sway, and has hinged ends, and the critical
load is reached, this member will buckle
laterally turning into the shape of;
A. S-curve
B. Full sine wave
C. Half sine wave
D. Not in the list
223. To determine the required section
modulus S, the minimum M max should
be:
A. Multiplied by the maximum allowable
bending stress
B. Divided by the maximum allowable
bending stress
C. None in the list
D. Divided by the modulus of elasticity e
and moment of inertia
224. In a long column, (slenderness ratio >
160) which of the following has the
greatest influence on its tendency to
buckle under a compressive load:
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Radius of gyration of the column
C. Length of the column
D. Compressive strength of the material
225. The allowable load in shear for an 8.5
mm weld having an allowable shearing of
124 MPa for a total length of 306 mm is
about:
A. None in the list
B. 1054 N
C. 228000 N
D. 745 N
226. The max. Moment of a beam with
span 7 m. carrying a uniform load of 12
kn/m with both ends fixed is equal to
A. 49 kn/m A. 100 MPa
B. 62 kn/m B. 50 MPa
C. 32 kn/m C. 200 MPa
D. 86 kn/m D. None in the list
227. A steel column has the following 232. The shear capacity v if a steel wide
properties: modulus of elasticity E = flange section , 600 mm deep whose web
200000 MPa, yield strength Fy = 200 MPa, is 9 mm thick , is closest to : (assume Fy =
length l = 12 m. Moment of inertia I = 37.7 200 MPa)
x 106 mm4 area = 8000 mm2. The
allowable stress is closest to:
A. 486 KN
A. 120 mpa B. 864 KN
B. 67.4 mpa C. 432 KN
C. 33.7 mpa D. 684 KN
D. 91.1 mpa 233. A flat bar 50 mm by 6 mm in cross
section is bent by a couple such that the
228. A steel wide flange beam is laterally maximum stress in the section is 162 MPa.
supported. The width of the web if the If the modulus of elasticity of the material
beam is 700 mm and web thickness is 10 is 200000 N/mm2, the radius of curvature
mm, if Fy is equal to 250 MPa, the of the bar is:
allowable bending stress is:
A. 370 m
A. 180 mpa
B. 37 m
B. 150 mpa
C. 3.70 m
C. 165 mpa
D. 3700m
D. 200 mpa
234. The structural I-beam supporting a
229. The moment of inertia of a trapezoid floor carries a floor load of 4.6 kN/m2. The
with base b = 600 mm and top a = 400 mm beams span 6.0 m and are simply
and depth d = 900 mm is nearest to: supported at their ends. Determine the
center line spring if their ends. Determine
the center line spring if the allowable
stress in the beam is 120 Mpa and the
A. 50 x 109 mm4
section modulus is 534 x 103 mm3 .
B. 400 x 109 mm4
C. 60 x 109 mm4
A. 3.75 m
D. 30 x 109 mm4
B. 3.45 m
230. A rectangular footing 2 m by 1.5 m
C. 4.0 m
carries a vertical load of 500 KN and
moment of 100 KN-m in the longer D. 3.0 m
direction of the footing. What is the
maximum soil pressure under the footing? 235. A flat steel bar is 75 mm wide, 9 mm
thick, and 1.2 m long. It is bent by two
equal couples applied at the ends such
that the midpoint deflection is 40 mm.
A. 353 kn/m2
Determine the magnitude of the couples.
B. 3000 psf Assume E = 200000 MPa.
C. 267 kn/m2
D. 533 kn/m2 A. 2001 N-m
231. A strip of steel 1 mm thick is bent into B. 1414 N-m
an area of a circle radius 1.0 m E is equal
C. 202.5 N-m
to 200 GPa. The maximum bending stress
is:
D. 707.6 kN-m
236. A rectangular section has a moment
of inertia Ix = 300 x 106 mm4 and Iy = 80 x
106 mm4 about an axis inclined 45
degrees counter – clockwise which passes
through the centroid.
A. 250 x 106 mm4
B. 190 x 106 mm4
C. 210 x 106 mm4
D. 230 x 106 mm4
237. A precast beam of length l is to be
lifted at two points. The Two points should
be at ______ distance from the ends so
the maximum moment is as small as
possible.
A. 0.21 l
B. 0.33 l
C. 0.50 l
D. 0.25 l
238. A simply supported beam of length 7
m has a concentrated couple Mo of 10
KN-m applied at one end. The maximum
deflection is located at this distance from
the applied load.
A. 2.50 m
B. 2.252 m
C. 3.95 m
D. 2.75 m
239. A beam length L and with both ends
fixed against rotation carries a
concentrated load E somewhere along the
span. If L obtained when concentrated is
at this distance from one of the supports.
A. 0.23 L
B. 0.375 L
C. 0.50 L
D. 0.25 L
240. A propped cantilever beam (fixed at
one end and simply supported at the
other end) has a span L of 6.0 m the beam
carries a uniform load W of 600 KN/m
throughout the span. Compute the
rotation at the simply supported end.
A. 1350/EI
B. 10800/EI B. Two of the three
C. 5400/EI C. One of the three
D. 2700/EI D. All of the three
241. A simple beam of length L has a 245. A metal specimen with 36 mm
concentrated load of P at a distance A diameter and has a length L = 360 mm. A
from the left support and B from the right force of 300 KN elongates the length by
support. The maximum moment in the 1.2 mm. What is the elastic modulus?
beam is:
A. 198763 MPa
A. Pa2 /L
B. 176829 MPa
B. None in the list
C. 199999 MPa
C. Pa2 /L2
D. 88419 MPa
D. Pab/L
246. Stress tensor contains the following
242. A shear center of an H section with independent stresses:
unequal flange is located rearer to the
bigger flange. If the smaller flange is 16
mm by 100 mm, the larger is 16 mm by
A. 6 normal stresses + 3 shearing stresses
200 mm, and the web is 9 mm by 284 mm,
the distance of the shear center from the B. 6 normal stresses + 6 shearing stresses
center of the bigger flange is:
C. 3 normal stresses + 3 shearing stresses
D. 3 normal stresses + 6 shearing stresses
A. 248 mm
247. A simple beam having a span of 10 m.
B. 31.56 mm is subjected to a couple at the left support.
At what distance from the left support will
C. 142 mm
maximum deflection occurs?
D. 252.44 mm
243. Calculate the moment applied at the
A. 4.22 m.
end of a flat steel bar 1.2 m long that will
produce a midpoint deflection of 40 mm. B. 0
The flat bar is 75 mm wide and 9 mm thick.
Use E = 200000 MPa. C. 5.5 m
D. 5 m
A. 202.5 N-m 248. The allowable capacity of a 10 mm
thick fillet weld, E 60 Electrode (Fu = 415
B. 404.5 N-m MPa) is:
C. 303.5 N-m
D. 505.5 N-m A. 900 N/mm
244. This subject involved analytical B. 880 N/mm
methods for determining strength,
stiffness (deformation characteristics) and C. 885 N/mm
stability of the various member in a
D. 740 N/mm
structural system:
249. The rotation or twist in degrees of a
shaft, 800 mm long, subjected to a torque
I. Mechanics of materials of 80 N-m, 20 in diameter, and shear
modulus g of 80000 MPa is:
II. Strength of materials
A. 3.95
B. 2.92
III. Mechanics of deformable bodies
C. None in the list
D. 3.94
A. One of the three
250. The location of the maximum
shearing stress in the structural steel
rolled section is at the :

A. Flange junction of web and flange

B. Web junction of web and flange

C. Uniform a cross section

D. Web neutral axis