Dermatovenerology CM 388 PDF

Dermatovenerology - CM
Bessisy Tamir – M1248
Anatomy, histology and physiology of the skin.

The methodology of dermatological examination.
The basis of treatment in dermatology.
1. Normal basal cell layer is composed of:

a. [X] Keratinocytes
b. [X] Melanocytes
c. [ ] Fibroblasts
d. [X] Langerhans cells
e. [X] Merkel cells
2. What dendritic cells does basal layer contain:
a. [ ] Keratinocytes
b. [X] Melanocytes
c. [X] Langerhans cells
d. [ ] Leucocytes
e. [ ] Mastocytes
3. Stratum lucidum is absent on:
a. [X] Mucous membranes
b. [ ] Palms
c. [ ] Soles
d. [X] Nail bed
e. [X] Cortex of the hair shaft
4. The basement membrane is composed of:
a. [ ] Lamina spheroidalis
b. [X] Lamina lucida
c. [X] Lamina densa
d. [X] Lamina reticularis
e. [ ] Lamina papilaris
5. Dermis is composed of:
a. [X] Papillary layer
b. [ ] Granular layer
c. [X] Reticular layer
d. [ ] Prick-cell layer
e. [ ] Horny layer
6. Histological structure of the dermis includes:
a. [X] Ground substance
b. [ ] Keratinosomes (Odland grains)
c. [X] Fibers
d. [X] Cells
e. [ ] Desmosomes
7. Fibrous matrix of the dermis doesn’t contain:
a. [X] Ground substance
b. [ ] Collagen fibers
c. [ ] Elastic fibers
d. [ ] Reticulin fibers
e. [X] Tonofibrils
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8. What substances do fibroblasts synthesize:

a. [X] Collagen
b. [X] Elastin
c. [ ] Hyaline
d. [ ] Mucin
e. [X] Mucopolysaccharides
9. Collagen fibers are composed of:
a. [X] Glycin
b. [X] Hydroxyprolin
c. [X] Proline
d. [ ] Valine
e. [ ] Leucine
10. Eccrine sweat glands are absent on:
a. [ ] Palms and soles
b. [X] Glans penis
c. [X] Internal surface of the prepuce
d. [X] Labium minus
e. [ ] Pubic region
11. Types of the hair are:
a. [X] Lanugo
b. [ ] Imago
c. [X] Vellus
d. [X] Intermedium hair
e. [X] Terminal hair
12. What functions only epidermis has:
a. [X] Keratinogenesis
b. [X] Melanogenesis
c. [ ] Thermoregulation
d. [ ] Plasticity
e. [ ] Neuroreceptor and vascular supply
13. What functions only dermis has:
a. [X] Strength
b. [X] Elasticity
c. [X] Plasticity
d. [ ] Keratinogenesis
e. [ ] Melanogenesis
14. Which are the main features of aging skin:
a. [ ] Thickness of the epidermis
b. [X] Thinning of the collagen fibers
c. [ ] Thinning of the elastic fibers
d. [X] Decreasing mitotic activity of keratinocytes
e. [X] Decreasing blood supply
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15. Secretory structures of the skin include:

a. [X] Sebaceous glands
b. [X] Meibomian glands
c. [X] Tyson and Montgomery glands
d. [ ] Littre glands
e. [X] Sweat glands
16. Normal sweat contains:
a. [X] Urea
b. [X] Lactic acid
c. [ ] Cholesterol
d. [X] Water
e. [X] NaCl
17. Normal composition of the sebum includes:
a. [X] Triglycerides
b. [ ] Free fatty acids
c. [X] Carbohydrates
d. [X] Cholesterol
e. [X] Squalene
18. Neurocutaneous receptors of touch and mechanical stimuli are:
a. [ ] Krause corpuscle
b. [ ] Ruffini corpuscle
c. [X] Meissner corpuscle
d. [X] Merkel cell-nerve complexes
e. [X] Pacinian corpuscle
19. Neurocutaneous receptors of thermoregulation are:
a. [ ] Meissner corpuscle
b. [X] Ruffini corpuscle
c. [X] Krause corpuscle
d. [ ] Merkel cell-nerve complexes
e. [ ] Pacinian corpuscle
HISTOPATHOLOGY OF THE SKIN
20. Choose histopathological changes which occur in the epidermis:

a. [X] Hyperkeratosis
b. [ ] Acute ad chronic inflammation
c. [X] Acantholysis
d. [X] Acanthosis
e. [ ] Papillomatosis
21. Choose histopathological changes which occur in the dermis:
a. [X] Infectious granuloma
b. [ ] Dyskeratosis
c. [X] Papillomatosis
d. [ ] Spongiosis
e. [ ] Granulosis
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APPROACH TO DERMATOLGIC DIAGNOSIS
22. Primary skin lesions are:

a. [X] Macule
b. [X] Papule
c. [ ] Erosion
d. [X] Pustule
e. [X] Wheal
a. [X] Nodule
b. [X] Crust
c. [ ] Ulceration
d. [ ] Bulla
e. [X] Vesicle
a. [ ] Lichenification
b. [X] Pustule
c. [ ] Fissure
d. [ ] Crust
e. [X] Wheal
25. Choose infiltrative primary skin lesions:
a. [ ] Vesicle
b. [X] Papule
c. [X] Nodule
d. [ ] Wheal
e. [ ] Bulla
26. Choose exudative primary skin lesions:
a. [ ] Macule
b. [X] Wheal
c. [ ] Papule
d. [X] Bulla
e. [X] Pustule
27. Choose cavitary primary skin lesions:
a. [X] Pustule
b. [X] Vesicle
c. [X] Bulla
d. [ ] Wheal
e. [ ] Papule
28. Choose secondary skin lesions:
a. [X] Fissure
b. [X] Ulceration
c. [ ] Purpura
d. [ ] Telangiectasia
e. [X] Lichenification
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29. Secondary skin lesions are:

a. [ ] Papule
b. [ ] Pustule
c. [X] Erosion
d. [X] Crust
e. [X] Scale
30. Secondary skin lesions are:
a. [ ] Nodule
b. [X] Fissure
c. [X] Cicatrix
d. [X] Excoriation
e. [ ] Pustule
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ACNE VULGARIS. ROSACEA. VIRAL INFECTIONS OF THE SKIN.

SEBORRHEA AND ACNE VULGARIS
31. Non-inflammatory lesions in acne vulgaris are:

a. [ ] Papule
b. [ ] Pustule
c. [ ] Nodules and cysts
d. [X] Microcomedo
e. [X] Open and closed comedones
32. Inflammatory eruptions in acne vulgaris are:
a. [ ] Microcomedo
b. [ ] Open and closed comedones
c. [X] Papules and pustules
d. [X] Nodules and cysts
e. [ ] Pigmented macules and scars
33. Residual lesions in acne vulgaris are:
a. [X] Hyperpigmented macules
b. [ ] Open and closed comedones
c. [ ] Papules and pustules
d. [ ] Nodules and cysts
e. [X] Hypertrophic scars and atrophy
34. The most typical sites of involvement in seborrhea are:
a. [ ] Extremities
b. [X] Face and scalp
c. [ ] Buttocks
d. [ ] Belly
e. [X] Chest
35. Dermatoses due to seborrhea are:
a. [X] Acne vulgaris
b. [ ] Eczema caused by sensibilization to Streptococcus spp.;
c. [X] Eczema caused by sensibilization to Pityrosporum spp.;
d. [ ] Alopecia areata
e. [X] Androgenic alopecia
36. Medical therapy of acne vulgaris includes:
a. [X] Tetracyclines and macrolides
b. [X] Isotretinoin and tretinoin
c. [X] Ethinyl estradiol and estradiol
d. [ ] Progesterone and testosterone
e. [X] Cyproterone acetate
37. Pathogenic factors of acne vulgaris are:
a. [X] Endocrinal disturbance
b. [ ] Allergic reaction
c. [X] Proliferation of Propionbacterium acnes
d. [X] Abnormal follicular keratinization
e. [X] Inflammation
38. Medical management of rosacea includes:
a. [ ] Penicillins
b. [X] Metronidazole
c. [ ] Topical steroids
d. [X] Keratoplastic ointments
e. [X] Sun-screen creams
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39. What medicines decrease sebum secretion in seborrhea:

a. [ ] Testosterone acetate
b. [X] Cyproterone acetate
c. [X] Ethinyl estradiol
d. [X] Isotretinoin
e. [X] Spironolactone
40. What medicines decrease follicular occlusion in acne vulgaris:
a. [X] Salicylic acid
b. [ ] Nalidixic acid
c. [X] Azelaic acid
d. [X] Retinoic acid
e. [ ] Mefenamic acid
41. What medicines are effective against Propionbacterium acnes in acne vulgaris:
a. [ ] Penicillins
b. [X] Tetracyclines
c. [X] Macrolides
d. [X] Clyndamicin gel
e. [X] Benzoyl peroxide solution
ROSACEA
42. Factors which play a role in pathogenesis of rosacea are:

a. [X] Functional anomalies of skin vessels
b. [X] Pathology of the gastro-intestinal tract
c. [X] Endocrinal disturbances
d. [X] Long-term application of corticosteroid ointments
e. [ ] Use of sun-screen agents
43. Characteristic features of rosacea are:
a. [ ] Onset at an early age
b. [X] Common among the women
c. [ ] Evidence of multiple comedones
d. [X] Involvement of the convex areas of face
e. [X] Erythematous and telangiectatic base of the lesions
44. Medical management of rosacea includes:
a. [ ] Tanning
b. [ ] Hot bath
c. [X] Cryotherapy
d. [ ] Pyrotherapy
e. [X] Keratoplastic ointment
45. Choose oral antibiotics for rosacea treatment:
a. [X] Tetracyclines
b. [ ] Cephalosporins
c. [X] Macrolides
d. [ ] Penicillins
e. [ ] Sulfanilamides
46. In rosacea are contraindicated:
a. [X] Hot and spicy food
b. [X] Alcohol
c. [X] Nicotinic acid derivates
d. [X] Topical steroids
e. [ ] Metronidazole
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VIRAL DISEASES
47. Topical therapy of herpes simplex includes:

a. [X] Aniline solutions
b. [ ] Fluocinolon
c. [X] Acyclovir
d. [ ] Clotrimazole
e. [ ] Tetracycline
48. What histopathological changes are specific for common wart:
a. [ ] Acantholysis
b. [X] Acanthosis
c. [X] Papillomatosis
d. [X] Hyperkeratosis
e. [ ] Spongiosis
49. Systemic therapy of herpes simplex includes:
a. [ ] Griseofulvin
b. [ ] Prednisolone
c. [X] Acyclovir
d. [X] Foscarnet
e. [ ] Doxycycline
50. Viruses which affect skin and mucous membranes are composed of:
a. [ ] DNA and RNA
b. [X] DNA or RNA
c. [X] Capsid
d. [X] Protein-lipid membrane
e. [ ] Ribosomes
51. What clinical manifestations are typical for common wart:
a. [ ] Severe pruritus
b. [X] Long asymptomatic evolution
c. [ ] Face involvement
d. [X] Non-inflammatory papules
e. [ ] Regional lymphadenitis
52. What laboratory tests are human papilomaviruses confirmed by:
a. [ ] Culture
b. [ ] Microscopic examination
c. [X] Biopsy
d. [X] Molecular and biochemical tests
e. [ ] Hemagglutination assay
53. Choose sites of involvement and modes of transmission of Herpes Zoster:
a. [ ] Anterior horn of spinal cord
b. [ ] Regional lymphatic nodes
c. [X] Along peripheral nerves (dermatomal distribution )
d. [ ] Sensitive nerves
e. [X] Sensitive craniocerebral and spinal ganglia
54. What histopathological changes are specific for Herpes Zoster:
a. [ ] Spongiosis
b. [X] Ballooning degeneration
c. [X] Degenerative acantholysis
d. [ ] Acanthosis
e. [ ] Granulosis
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55. Treatment for molluscum contagiosum includes:

a. [X] Cryotherapy
b. [ ] Oral tetracycline
c. [ ] Oral antiviral agents
d. [X] Curretage and electrocoagulation
e. [X] Expulsion of the content and treatment of wound with iodide solution
56. What clinical findings are typical for Herpes Zoster:
a. [ ] Painless lesions
b. [ ] Generalized pruritus
c. [X] Closely grouped vesicles on an erythematous base
d. [X] Dermatomal distribution
e. [ ] Positive Nicolsky sign
57. Viral diseases of the skin are:
a. [X] Common warts
b. [X] Herpes Zoster
c. [X] Condyloma acuminata
d. [ ] Condyloma latum
e. [X] Molluscum contagiosum
58. What clinical manifestations are specific for herpes simplex:
a. [X] Burning sensation at the site of affection
b. [X] Closely grouped vesicles and polycyclic erosions
c. [X] Skin and mucous membranes involvement
d. [ ] Postherpetic neuralgia
e. [X] Frequent recurrences
59. What skin diseases do human papilomaviruses cause:
a. [ ] Condyloma latum
b. [X] Condyloma acuminata
c. [ ] Milker’s nodules
d. [ ] Molluscum contagiosum
e. [X] Warts
60. What skin diseases do poxviruses cause:
a. [ ] Varicella
b. [X] Smallpox
c. [ ] Wart
d. [X] Molluscum contagiosum
e. [X] Milker’s nodules
61. Management of human papillomovirus infection includes:
a. [X] Trichloroacetic acid
b. [X] Podophyllinum and podophyllotoxin
c. [ ] Acyclovir
d. [X] Cryotherapy
e. [X] Topical salicylic acid
62. What clinical findings are typical for molluscum contagiosum:
a. [X] Absence of subjective symptoms
b. [X] Umbilicate nitidous skin-colored papules
c. [ ] Flat-topped nitidous polygonal violaceous papules
d. [X] Papules within a white curd-like substance can be seen that can be expressed with pressure;
this mass represents horny layer cells affected by virus
e. [X] High incidence among children and immunodeficiency people
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63. Modes of molluscum contagiosum transmission are:

a. [X] Direct home contact
b. [X] Indirect contact
c. [X] Sexual contact
d. [X] Autoinoculation
e. [ ] Blood transfusion
64. The most common complications of Herpes Zoster are:
a. [X] Secondary impetiginization
b. [X] Postherpetic neuralgia
c. [X] Hypertrophic and keloid scars
d. [ ] Varicella
e. [X] Hearing injury and eyes involvement
65. Treatment of Herpes Zoster includes:
a. [X] Rest
b. [X] Antiviral agents
c. [X] Analgesics
d. [ ] Topical steroids
e. [X] Topical antiseptics
66. Choose medicines which are used for postherpetic neuralgia treatment:
a. [ ] Antibiotics
b. [X] Analgesics
c. [X] Anticonvulsants
d. [X] Corticosteroids
e. [X] Topical antiseptics
67. What laboratory tests is herpes simplex confirmed by:
a. [X] Tzanck smear
b. [ ] Isolation on non-cellular media
c. [X] Direct immunofluorescence
d. [X] Electron microscopy
e. [X] In case of primary infection – serologic assay
68. What factors predispose to Herpes Zoster development:
a. [X] Oral corticosteroids
b. [X] Cytostatic agents
c. [ ] γ-globulin introduction
d. [X] Malignant tumors
e. [ ] Arterial hypertension
69. Choose sexual transmitted viral skin diseases:
a. [X] Condyloma acuminata
b. [X] Herpes simplex
c. [X] Molluscum contagiosum
d. [ ] Herpes Zoster
e. [ ] Viral hepatitis A
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INFESTATIONS
70. What skin lesions are common for scabies:

a. [X] Papules and vesicles
b. [ ] Wheals
c. [ ] Scales
d. [ ] Pustule
e. [X] Linear burrows
71. Common complications of scabies are:
a. [X] Eczematization
b. [X] Secondary impetiginization
c. [ ] Vitiligo
d. [ ] Alopecia
e. [ ] Hypertrichosis
72. Sources of scabies are:
a. [X] Afflicted people
b. [X] Articles of personal use
c. [ ] Mosquito
d. [ ] Fly
e. [ ] Mouse
73. Sources of pediculosis are:
a. [ ] Handle animals
b. [ ] Domestic animals
c. [ ] Wild animals
d. [X] Afflicted people (through direct contact)
e. [X] Afflicted people (through indirect contact)
74. What tests is pediculosis capitis confirmed by:
a. [X] Evidence of adult mites
b. [X] Evidence of the eggs
c. [ ] Skin tests
d. [ ] Biopsy
e. [X] Presence of impetiginous skin lesions
75. Scabies is transmitted by:
a. [X] Sexual contact
b. [X] Direct contact
c. [X] Indirect contact
d. [ ] Droplet way
e. [ ] Alimentary way
76. Typical sites of the involvement in scabies of the adults are:
a. [ ] Face and neck
b. [X] Web spaces of the hands
c. [X] Belly
d. [ ] Palms and soles
e. [X] Buttocks and thighs
77. Common clinical features of scabies are:
a. [ ] Flat-topped papules
b. [X] Linear burrows
c. [X] Pruritus which get worse at night
d. [ ] Itching which get worse at cold
e. [X] Hardy sign
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78. What clinical features of scabies are common in children:

a. [ ] Mucous membrane involvement
b. [X] Face involvement
c. [X] Palms and soles involvement
d. [ ] Insignificant itching or absence of pruritus
e. [X] Secondary impetiginization
79. Typical clinical signs of phthirus pubis are:
a. [X] Evidence of lice and eggs
b. [X] Severe pruritus
c. [X] Excoriation with secondary impetiginization
d. [ ] Papules and vesicles disposed in groups
e. [X] Macule caerulee
80. What scabicides are effective for topical treatment:
a. [X] Crotamiton
b. [ ] Benzyl peroxide solution
c. [X] Benzyl benzoate emulsion
d. [X] Precipitate sulphur
e. [X] Lindane
81. Clinical forms of pediculosis are:
a. [X] Pediculosis capitis
b. [ ] Pediculosis of palms and soles
c. [X] Pediculosis corporis
d. [X] Phthirus pubis
e. [ ] Pediculosis of genitalia
82. Pediculosis is caused by:
a. [X] Pediculus humanus capitis
b. [X] Phthirus pubis
c. [ ] Sarcoptes hominis
d. [X] Pediculus humanus corporis
e. [ ] Larva migrans
83. Common complications of pediculosis capitis are:
b. [ ] Alopecia areata
c. [X] Desquamation of the scalp
d. [X] Pigmented macules on the forehead
e. [ ] Pityriasis simplex
84. What are main clinical symptoms of pediculosis capitis:
a. [X] Evidence of lice and eggs
b. [X] Evidence of eggs
c. [ ] Pruritus
d. [ ] Secondary impetiginization
e. [X] Macule caerulee
85. What therapy is effective and secure for head lice treatment:
a. [ ] Kerosene + vegetable oil, 3:1
b. [X] Lindane 1% - powder or solution
c. [X] Permethrine or Malathion
d. [ ] Benzyl peroxide solution
e. [X] Co-trimoxazole for systemic use
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86. Choose therapy used for phthirus pubis treatment:

a. [X] Shaving
b. [X] Benzyl benzoate emulsion
c. [ ] Benzyl peroxide solution
d. [ ] Benzylpenicillin
e. [X] Lindane
87. Scabicides drugs are:
a. [X] Hexachlorcyclohexane
b. [ ] Benzpyrene
c. [X] Benzyl benzoate emulsion
d. [X] Sulphur ointment
e. [ ] Sulphones
PYODERMAS
88. Normal skin flora is composed of:

a. [X] Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. [X] Micrococcaceae
c. [X] Diphtheroids
d. [X] Corynebacterium acnes
e. [ ] Pseudomonas aeruginosa
89. Causative agents of pyodermas are:
a. [X] Staphylococcus aureus
b. [X] Streptococcus pyogenus
c. [X] Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. [X] Proteus vulgaris
e. [ ] Trichophyton violaceum
90. Choose pyodermas without hair follicle involvement:
a. [ ] Impetigo Bockhardt
b. [ ] Carbuncle
c. [X] Contagious non-bullous impetigo Tilbury-Fox
d. [X] Bullous impetigo
e. [X] Intertrigo caused by Streptococcus spp.
91. Choose pyodermas related to hair follicles:
a. [ ] Contagious non-bullous impetigo Tilbury-Fox
b. [ ] Bullous impetigo
c. [X] Sycosis vulgaris
d. [ ] Ecthyma
e. [X] Furuncle
92. Choose staphylococcal pyodermas that involves glabrate skin:
a. [X] Bullous impetigo
b. [ ] Sycosis vulgaris
c. [ ] Pemphigus vulgaris
d. [X] Erythroderma Ritter von Rittersheim
e. [ ] Erythroderma Brocq
93. Choose pyodermas without hair follicle involvement:
a. [X] Contagious non-bulous impetigo Tilbury-Fox
b. [X] Bullous impetigo
c. [ ] Sycosis vulgaris
d. [X] Ecthyma
e. [ ] Furuncle
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94. What bacteria are main causative agents of follicular pyodermas:

b. [ ] Streptococcus pyogenus
c. [X] Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. [ ] Streptococcus viridians
e. [ ] Mycobacterium tuberculosis
95. Streptococcal pyodermas are:
a. [ ] Carbuncle
b. [ ] Sycosis vulgaris
c. [X] Contagious non-bullous impetigo
d. [X] Erysipelas
e. [X] Ecthyma
96. What does specific immunotherapy of pyodermas include:
a. [X] Staphylococcus anatoxin
b. [X] Autovaccine
c. [X] Polyvalent anti-staphylococcus vaccine
d. [ ] Pyrotherapy
e. [ ] Autohemotherapy
97. Non-specific immunotherapy of chronic pyodermas includes:
a. [ ] Polyvalent anti-staphylococcus vaccine
b. [X] Pyrotherapy
c. [X] Autohemotherapy
d. [X] Immunomodulators
e. [ ] Autovaccine
98. Choose topical antibiotics that are used in pyodermas treatment:
a. [X] Polymixin
b. [X] Mupirocin
c. [X] Bacitracin
d. [ ] Loratadine
e. [ ] Terbinafine
99. Choose methods for topical treatment of the infiltrative stage of the furuncle:
a. [ ] Cryotherapy
b. [X] Keratoplastic ointments
c. [X] Ultra-high frequency
e. [ ] Cold wet-to-dry compresses
100. Choose methods for topical treatment of the furuncle after its rupture:
a. [X] Hypertonic solutions
b. [X] Antiseptic solutions
c. [ ] Ultra-high frequency
e. [ ] Massage
101. Choose medicines that are used for topical treatment of sycosis vulgaris:
a. [ ] Antifungal agents
b. [X] Antibiotics
d. [X] Aniline solutions
e. [X] Keratoplastic ointments
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102. Causative agents of pyodermas are:

b. [X] Streptococcus pyogenus
c. [X] Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. [ ] Trichophyton violaceum
e. [ ] Borrelia burgdorferi
103. What factors predispose to pyodermas development:
a. [X] Nidus of chronic infection
b. [X] Poor hygiene
c. [X] Diabetes mellitus
d. [X] Malabsorption
e. [ ] Psoriasis
104. Choose dermatosis that can be complicated by pyodermas:
a. [X] Scabies
b. [X] Pediculosis
c. [X] Atopic dermatitis
d. [ ] Psoriasis
e. [X] Pemphigus vulgaris
105. What laboratory methods are informative in furunculosis:
a. [X] Immunogram
b. [X] Antibiogram
c. [ ] Biopsy
d. [ ] Coprological examination
e. [X] Glycemia
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SKIN FUNGAL INFECTIONS
106. Choose clinical forms of dermatophytosis:

a. [X] Tinea capitis
b. [X] Tinea barbae
c. [ ] Tinea versicolor
d. [X] Tinea cruris
e. [X] Tinea pedis
107. What fungal diseases do yeasts cause:
a. [ ] Trichophytosis
b. [X] Candidiasis
c. [X] Pityriasis versicolor
d. [X] Erythrasma
e. [ ] Cryptococcosis
108. What structures does yeast affect:
a. [X] Skin
b. [X] Mucous membranes
c. [X] Nails
d. [X] Internal organs
e. [ ] Hairs
109. What clinical features are typical for Tinea capitis:
a. [ ] Foci of alopecia on non-altered skin
b. [X] Erythemato-squamous foci of alopecia covered with broken hairs
c. [ ] Focus of alopecia with hypertrophic scars
d. [X] Inflammatory infiltrative and pustular tumefy lesions with broken hairs and follicular
orifices oozing with pus
e. [ ] Small-patchy alopecia
110. What dermatophytes are causative agents of zoo-anthropophilic Trichophytosis:
a. [ ] Trichophyton rubrum
b. [X] Trichophyton verrucosum
c. [ ] Trichophyton tonsurans
d. [ ] Trichophyton violaceum
e. [X] Trichophyton gypseum
111. Choose fungal diseases caused by pseudofungi:
a. [ ] Candidiasis
b. [ ] Rubromycosis
c. [ ] Pityriasis versicolor
d. [X] Actinomycosis
e. [X] Erythrasma
112. What dermatophytes are causative agents of superficial Trichophytosis:
a. [ ] Trichophyton gypseum
b. [ ] Trichophyton verrucosum
c. [X] Trichophyton tonsurans
d. [ ] Trichophyton schoenleinii
e. [X] Trichophyton violaceum
113. What does microscopic examination of involved hair demonstrate:
a. [ ] Unicellular yeasts
b. [ ] Coccus
c. [X] Spores
d. [X] Mycelium
e. [ ] Pseudomycelia
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114. What sites does Kerion affect:

a. [ ] Skin
b. [ ] Soles
c. [X] Beard and mustache area
d. [X] Scalp
e. [ ] Nail bed
115. What sites does Microsporosis affect:
a. [X] Scalp
b. [ ] Soles
c. [ ] Palms
d. [X] Glabrous skin
e. [ ] Nails
116. What sites does Tinea pedis affect:
a. [X] I and V nails
b. [ ] All nails
c. [X] I and IV interdigital spaces
d. [ ] All interdigital spaces
e. [X] Foot arch
117. Choose laboratory tests that confirm Candidiasis:
a. [ ] Wood’s lamp
b. [X] Culture procedures
c. [X] Microscopic examination
d. [ ] Biopsy
e. [ ] Baltzer sign
118. What anti-fungal agents are more effective for systemic treatment:
a. [ ] Natamycin
b. [X] Griseofulvin
c. [ ] Astemizole
d. [X] Ketoconazole
e. [ ] Nystatin
119. Choose anti-fungal agents for topical use:
a. [ ] Clobetasol
b. [X] Clotrimazole
c. [X] Ketoconazole
d. [ ] Polymixin
e. [X] Terbinafine
120. Source of infection of Kerion is:
a. [X] Patient
b. [X] Cattles
c. [ ] Cats
d. [ ] Dogs
e. [X] Rodent
121. What dermatophytes are anthropophilic: !!!
a. [X] Microsporum ferrugineum
b. [ ] Trichophyton schoenleinii
c. [ ] Microsporum canis
d. [X] Trichophyton rubrum
e. [ ] Trichophyton verrucosum
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122. What dermatophytes are zoo-anthropophilic:

a. [ ] Trichophyton violaceum
b. [ ] Epidermophyton floccosum
c. [X] Trichophyton verrucosum
d. [X] Microsporum canis
e. [X] Trichophyton gypseum
123. What structures does dermatomycoses affect:
a. [ ] Mucous membranes
b. [ ] Semimucosa
c. [X] Skin
d. [X] Nails
e. [X] Hairs
124. What fungi are dermatophytes:
a. [X] Microsporum canis
b. [X] Trichophyton verrucosum
c. [ ] Sporotrix schenckii
d. [ ] Pityrosporum ovale
e. [X] Trichophyton purpureum
125. What substrates can be used for laboratory examination on dermatophytes:
a. [ ] Urinary discharge
b. [ ] Spit
c. [X] Hairs
d. [X] Nails
e. [X] Scales
126. What investigations confirm dermatophytoses:
a. [X] Wood’s lamp
b. [X] Microscopic examination
c. [X] Culture
d. [ ] Tzanck smear
e. [ ] Diascopy
127. What dermatophyte causes endothrix pattern of hair invasion:
a. [ ] Trichophyton gypseum
b. [X] Trichophyton violaceum
c. [ ] Trichophyton verrucosum
d. [X] Trichophyton tonsurans
e. [X] Trichophyton schoenleinii
128. What dermatophyte causes ectothrix pattern of hair invasion:
a. [X] Microsporum spp.
b. [X] Trichophyton gypseum
c. [ ] Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. [ ] Trichophyton tonsurans
e. [X] Trichophyton verrucosum
129. Subcutaneous mycoses are:
a. [X] Mycetoma
b. [X] Chromomycosis
c. [ ] Candidiasis
d. [X] Sporotrichosis
e. [ ] Mycosis fungoides
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130. What fungus is causative agent of Tinea versicolor:

a. [ ] Candida albicans
b. [X] Pityrosporum ovale
c. [X] Pityrosporum orbiculare
d. [ ] Corynebacterium minutissimum
e. [X] Malassezia furfur
131. What investigations confirm Pityriasis versicolor:
a. [X] Microscopic examination
b. [ ] Culture
c. [X] Wood’s lamp
d. [X] Baltzer sign
e. [ ] Diascopy
132. What does superficial trichophytosis affect:
a. [X] Scalp
b. [ ] Soles
c. [ ] Palms
d. [X] Nails
e. [X] Glabrous skin
133. Sources of zoo-anthropophilic microsporosis are:
a. [X] Afflicted person
b. [ ] Cattles
c. [X] Cats
d. [X] Dogs
e. [ ] Rodent
134. Clinical forms of Tinea pedis are:
a. [ ] Verrucous
b. [X] Erythemato-squamous
c. [X] Intertriginous
d. [ ] Pustular
e. [X] Dyshidrotic
135. What dermatomycoses have fluorescence under Wood’s lamp:
a. [X] Microsporosis
b. [ ] Trichophytosis
c. [ ] Candidiasis
d. [X] Pityriasis versicolor
e. [X] Favus
136. What structures does rubromycosis affect:
a. [ ] I and V nails only
b. [X] All nails
c. [ ] I and IV web spaces only
d. [X] All web spaces
e. [X] Lateral and anterior surfaces of the feet
137. What does microscopic examination demonstrate in candidiasis:
a. [ ] Mycelium
b. [X] Pseudomycelia
c. [ ] Endotrix pattern of hair invasion
d. [ ] Ectotrix pattern of hair invasion
e. [X] Unicellular yeasts
19
138. Clinical forms of cutaneous candidiasis are:

a. [ ] Stomatitis
b. [X] Intertrigo
c. [X] Palms and soles involvement
d. [ ] Balanoposthitis and vulvovaginitis
e. [X] Paronychia
139. Mucosal manifestations of candidiasis are:
a. [ ] Paronychia
b. [X] Balanoposthitis and vulvovaginitis
c. [X] Angular stomatitis
d. [X] Stomatitis
e. [ ] Intertrigo
140. Clinical features of candidiasis are:
a. [ ] Hypopigmented lesions surrounded by a pigmented hallo
b. [X] Erosive and macerated lesions covered with detached epidermis
c. [X] White cheesy easily removed depositions
d. [ ] Hemorrhagic membranous adherent depositions
e. [X] Presence of satellite vesicopustules
141. Choose topical anti-fungal agents which are effective in candidiasis therapy:
a. [ ] Co-trimoxazole
b. [X] Ketoconazole
c. [X] Clotrimazole
d. [ ] Clobetasol
e. [X] Methylene blue
142. What medicines are effective for candidiasis therapy:
a. [ ] Griseofulvin
b. [ ] Nystatin 1-2mln Un per day
c. [X] Fluconazole
d. [X] Ketoconazole
e. [X] Itraconazole
143. Dermatophytoses are:
a. [ ] Erythrasma
b. [X] Microsporosis
c. [X] Trichophytosis
d. [X] Rubromycosis
e. [X] Tinea favosa
144. Clinical forms of rubromycosis are:
a. [X] Rubromycosis of soles
b. [X] Rubromycosis of palms and soles
c. [X] Generalized rubromycosis
d. [X] Rubromycosis of the nails
e. [ ] Rubromycosis of the scalp
145. Sources of dermatophytoses are:
a. [X] Afflicted person
b. [X] Cats
c. [X] Dogs
d. [X] Cattles
e. [ ] Insects
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146. What investigations confirm Kerion:

a. [X] Microscopic examination
b. [X] Culture
c. [ ] Wood’s lamp
d. [X] “Honey comb” sign
e. [ ] Skin tests
147. What medicines are effective for Tinea versicolor therapy:
a. [ ] Griseofulvin
b. [X] Ketoconazole
c. [X] Itraconazole
d. [ ] Nystatin 1-2 mln Un per day
e. [X] Fluconazole
148. Topical treatment for Tinea capitis includes:
a. [X] Keratolytic ointments
b. [X] Iodide solution
d. [X] Antifungal ointments
e. [X] Keratoplastic ointments
149. What sites does Candida albicans colonize as a saprophyte:
a. [ ] Oral cavity
b. [ ] Gastro-intestinal tract
c. [X] Urethra and urinary bladder
d. [ ] Vagina
e. [X] Healthy skin
150. What factors predispose to candidiasis development:
a. [X] Diabetes mellitus
b. [X] Oral contraceptives
c. [X] Tetracyclines
d. [ ] Hypothermia
e. [X] Pregnancy
151. Angular stomatitis occurs in:
a. [ ] Rosacea
b. [X] Candidiasis
c. [X] Syphilis
d. [X] Streptococcal skin infection
e. [ ] Lupus vulgaris
152. Choose clinical symptoms that help to differentiate parasitic sycosis from sycosis vulgaris:
a. [X] Evident infiltration
b. [ ] Low-grade infiltration
c. [X] Acute evolution
d. [ ] Recurrent evolution
e. [X] Well defined margins
153. Topical anti-fungal agents are:
a. [ ] Clobetasol
b. [X] Clotrimazole
c. [ ] Betamethasone
d. [X] Terbinafine
e. [X] Naftifine
21
154. Choose antifungals from imidazole group:

a. [ ] Metronidazole
b. [X] Clotrimazole
c. [X] Ketoconazole
d. [ ] Bifonazole
e. [ ] Ciclopirox
22
PSORIASIS AND LICHEN PLANUS
155. What clinical features are common for pustular psoriasis Barber:
a. [X] Erythematous papular and pustular symmetrical lesions on palms and soles
b. [ ] Erythroderma associated with pustules
c. [ ] General illness and dyscrasia
d. [X] Fingers aren’t involved
e. [ ] Recurrent evolution; patient can die without treatment
156. The mechanism of action of phototherapy in psoriasis involves:
a. [X] Depression of intracellular DNA synthesis
b. [X] Decrease of keratinocytes mitotic activity
c. [ ] Stimulation of T lymphocytes
d. [ ] Stimulation of B lymphocytes
e. [X] Depression of Langerhans cells
157. What clinical features are common for stationary psoriasis:
a. [X] Negative Kobner phenomenon
b. [ ] Paleness of the central part of lesion
c. [ ] Tendency to peripheral growth and confluence of the lesions
d. [ ] Appearance of new lesions
e. [X] Papules with white scaly surface
158. Choose clinical sub-types of pustular psoriasis:
a. [X] Palmaris et plantaris Barber
b. [ ] Generalized Barber
c. [ ] Palmaris et plantaris Zumbusch
d. [X] Generalized von Zumbusch
e. [ ] All listed above
159. Topical treatment for progressive stage of psoriasis includes:
a. [ ] Arievici ointment
b. [ ] Whitefield ointment
c. [ ] 10-20% urea ointment
d. [X] 1-2% salicylic acid ointment
e. [X] Topical steroids
160. What triggers is psoriasis provoked by:
a. [X] Systemic administration of Lithium and β-adrenolytic agents
b. [X] Concentrated keratolytic ointments
c. [X] Permanent mechanic injuries
d. [ ] Systemic administration of cytotoxic drugs
e. [ ] Topical steroids
161. Secondary psoriatic erythroderma is caused by:
b. [ ] Oral cytotoxic agents
c. [X] Antimalarial drugs and gold salts
e. [X] Application of concentrate and irritant topical agents
162. Choose retinoids which are used in psoriasis:
a. [X] Retinol acetate
b. [ ] Azathioprine
c. [X] Acitretin
d. [ ] Cyproterone acetate
e. [ ] Tocopherol acetate
23
163. What clinical findings are typical for progressive stage of psoriasis:
a. [X] Positive Kobner phenomenon
b. [ ] Paleness of central part of the lesion
c. [X] Tendency to peripheral growth and confluence of the lesions
d. [X] Appearance of new lesions
e. [ ] Papules with white scaly surfaces
164. What histopathological changes are common for psoriasis:
a. [ ] Acantholysis
b. [X] Acanthosis
c. [X] Proliferative hyperkeratosis
d. [ ] Papillomatosis
e. [X] Parakeratosis
165. Medical management of lichen planus includes:
a. [ ] Pulse administration of corticosteroids following by long-term repeated courses of treatment
b. [X] Antihistamines and sedative agents
c. [ ] Metronidazole
d. [X] Antimalarial agents (in case of chronic evolution)
e. [X] Vitamins A,C,B
166. The most common sites of involvement in psoriasis are:
a. [X] Scalp
b. [ ] Mucous membranes
c. [ ] Flexural surfaces of joints
d. [X] Extensor surfaces of joints
e. [X] Lumbar-sacral region
167. What clinical findings are specific for lichen planus
a. [X] Severe pruritus
b. [ ] Asymmetric, elevate, scaling papules
c. [X] Flat-topped, nitidous, violaceous papules
d. [ ] Well defined red erythematous lesions covered with scales
e. [X] Oral mucosa involvement
168. Typical sites of involvement in lichen planus are:
a. [ ] Face
b. [ ] Palms and soles
c. [X] Anterior surface of forearms, legs and hands
d. [X] Oral mucosa
e. [X] Lumbar region
169. What histopathological changes are common for lichen planus:
a. [ ] Hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis
b. [X] Granulosis
c. [X] Lympho-hystiocytic linear infiltrate settled in the papillary dermis
d. [X] Vacuolar degeneration of basal keratinocytes
e. [X] “Saw-like” irregular acanthosis
170. Nail involvement in lichen planus is manifested by:
a. [X] Pterigium formation
b. [X] Longitudinal lines
c. [ ] Pitting
d. [X] Subungual hyperkeratosis
e. [X] Melanonychia striata
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171. What clinical features are typical for pustular psoriasis von Zumbusch:
a. [ ] Erythematous papular and pustular symmetrical lesions on palms and soles
b. [X] Erythroderma associated with pustules
c. [X] General illness and dyscrasia
d. [X] Hypocalcemia, hypoalbuminemia, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
e. [X] Recurrent evolution; delay of treatment can cause patient's death
172. Clinical forms of lichen planus are:
a. [X] Verrucous
b. [X] Atrophic
c. [X] Follicular
d. [X] Vesicular-bullous
e. [ ] Nummular
173. Clinical forms of psoriasis vulgaris are:
a. [X] Punctate
b. [X] Guttate
c. [X] Nummular
d. [X] Plaque-type
e. [ ] Erythrodermic
174. What clinical manifestations are specific for psoriatic arthritis:
a. [X] Involvement of distal and proximal interphalangeal joints
b. [X] Spondylitis and sacroileitis
c. [ ] Evidence of the rheumatoid factor in blood
d. [X] Negative results of Vaaler-Rose reaction and latex-test
e. [X] Destruction of the joints and arthrosis formation
175. Medical therapy of progressive stage of psoriasis includes:
a. [X] Detoxification
b. [X] Metylxantine derivatives (papaverine, theophylline )
c. [X] Antihistamines and hyposensitization agents
d. [ ] Phototherapy
e. [X] Cytotoxic agents
176. Choose cytostatic drugs used for psoriasis treatment:
a. [X] Methotrexate
b. [ ] Ciprofloxacin
c. [ ] Cyproterone
d. [X] Cyclosporine
e. [X] Cyclophosphamide
177. Treatment regimen of stationary and regressive stages of psoriasis includes:
a. [ ] Antimalarials
b. [X] Pyrotherapy
c. [ ] Oral corticosteroids
d. [X] PUVA-therapy
e. [X] Curative baths
178. Topical treatment of stationary and regressive stages of psoriasis includes:
a. [X] Keratolytic and keratoplastic ointments
b. [X] Cignolin
c. [X] Calcipotriol
d. [ ] Lindan
e. [ ] Permethrine
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179. What clinical signs are typical for psoriasis vulgaris:

a. [X] Stearin macule
b. [X] Surface membrane
c. [X] Auspitz
d. [ ] Wickham
e. [X] Kobner
180. Increased proliferation of basal keratinocytes in psoriasis is mediated by:
a. [ ] Increased quantity of epidermal chalones
b. [X] Increased level of GMPc and decreased level of AMPc
c. [ ] Decreased level of polyamines in psoriatic lesions
d. [X] Increased activity of phospholipase C and calmodulin
e. [X] Significant quantity of LTB4 and 12 HETE
181. What cytokines increase proliferation of keratinocytes in psoriasis:
a. [X] IFN-γ
b. [X] TNF-α
c. [X] IL-2
d. [ ] IL-4
e. [ ] IL-5
182. Increased proliferation of keratinocytes in psoriasis is maintained by:
a. [X] IL-1
b. [ ] IL-4
c. [X] IL-6
d. [X] IL-8
e. [X] TGF-α
183. What histopathological changes in the dermis are specific for psoriasis:
a. [ ] Munro microabscess
b. [ ] Potrier microabscess
c. [ ] Infectious granuloma
d. [X] Perivascular inflammatory infiltrate
e. [X] Papillomatosis
184. Severe clinical forms of psoriasis include:
a. [ ] Psoriasis vulgaris
b. [X] Psoriatic arthritis
c. [X] Erythrodermic psoriasis
d. [X] Pustular psoriasis
e. [ ] Seborrheic psoriasis
185. Nail changes in psoriasis are manifested by:
a. [X] “Thimble” sign
b. [X] Onycholysis
c. [X] Beau’s lines
d. [ ] Pterigium formation
e. [X] Subungual hyperkeratosis
186. What clinical features are common for erythrodermic psoriasis:
a. [X] General illness, fever
b. [X] Lymphadenopathy and evident itching
c. [ ] Nummular lesions
d. [X] Apparent nail changes and diffuse alopecia
e. [X] Generalized, scaling, infiltrative erythema
26
187. Choose photosensitizer agents which are used for PUVA-therapy in psoriasis:
a. [X] 5-Methoxypsoralen
b. [X] 8-Methoxypsoralen
c. [ ] Para-amino-benzoic acid
d. [ ] Chloroquine
e. [ ] Nicotinic acid
188. What diseases is lichen planus often associated with:
a. [X] Lupus erythematosus
b. [X] Hepatitis C
c. [X] Ulcerative colitis
d. [X] Alopecia areata
e. [ ]Psoriasis
27
CONECTIVE TISSUE DISEASES
189. What clinical features are typical for chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus:
a. [ ] Nicolsky sign
b. [X] Besnier-Mescersky sign
c. [ ] Asboe-Hansen sign
d. [X] Follicular hyperkeratosis
e. [ ] Pospelov sign
190. Clinical forms of scleroderma are:
a. [X] Localized
b. [ ] Erythrodermic
c. [ ] Intertriginous
d. [ ] Nummular
e. [X] Systemic
191. What laboratory tests is chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus confirmed by:
a. [ ] Determination of LE-cells circulating in the blood
b. [X] Biopsy
c. [ ] Determination of the complement level in plasma
d. [X] Direct immunofluorescence
e. [ ] Indirect immunofluorescence
192. Topical treatment of cutaneous lupus erythematosus includes:
a. [ ] Psoralen
b. [X] Topical steroids
c. [ ] Tetracyclines
d. [X] Sunscreen agents
e. [ ] Aniline solutions
193. Secondary symptoms of chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus are:
a. [X] Hypo- or hyperpigmentation
b. [ ] Excoriations
c. [X] Infiltration
d. [X] Telangiectasia
e. [ ] Lichenification
194. The most common sites of involvement in chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus are:
a. [X] Face
b. [X] Dorsum of the hands
c. [ ] Major folds
d. [X] Scalp
e. [X] V area of the neck
195. Basic symptoms of chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus are:
a. [ ] Infiltration
b. [X] Erythema
c. [ ] Telangiectasia
e. [X] Atrophy
196. What histopathological features are common for circumscribed scleroderma:
a. [X] Perivascular and interstitial variably dense infiltrate of lymphocytes
b. [ ] Loss of cohesion between keratinocytes, due to breakdown of intercellular bridges
c. [X] Thickening and homogenization of collagen bundles
d. [ ] Widening of intercellular spaces between keratinocytes due to ﬂuid accumulation
e. [X] Blood vessel walls demonstrate endothelial swelling and edema
28
197. Sistemic medical management of morphea includes:

b. [X] Antibiotics (penicillin)
c. [ ] Aciclovir
d. [X] Micofenolat-mofetil
e. [X] Hydroxychloroquine
198. Choose factors which provoke and maintain lupus erythematosus lesions:
a. [X] Medicines
b. [X] Bacterial infection
c. [X] Viral infection
d. [X] Sun light,
e. [ ] Gluten-rich food
199. What histopathological features are common for discoid chronic lupus erythematosus:
a. [ ] Parakeratosis
b. [X] Follicular hyperkeratosis
c. [ ] Granulosis
d. [X] Vacuolar degeneration of basal keratinocytes
e. [X] Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate in the dermis
200. Choose clinical sub-types of chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus:
a. [X] Discoid
b. [ ] Exudative
c. [X] Tumidus
d. [X] Lupus panniculitis
e. [ ] Linear
201. Clinical sub-types of morphea are:
a. [X] Plaque-type
b. [X] Linear
c. [ ] Discoid
d. [X] Generalized
e. [X] Guttate
202. What clinical manifestations are specific for lupus panniculitis:
a. [X] Evident scars
b. [X] Infiltration and subcutaneous nodules
c. [ ] Frequent ulceration
d. [X] Association with discoid form
e. [X] Submaxillary area and neck involvement
203. Pathogenesis of scleroderma includes:
a. [X] Endothelial cell injury
b. [ ] Peripheral nerves damage due to irritation
c. [X] Connective tissue damage
d. [X] Increase quantity of Th-lymphocytes
e. [ ] Depression of fibroblasts function
204. Choose stages of localized scleroderma:
a. [ ] Papular
b. [X] Edematous
c. [X] Indurative
d. [X] Atrophic
e. [ ] Telangiectatic
29
205. Topical treatment of morphea includes:

a. [X] Clobetazol 0.05%
b. [ ] Mupirocin 2%
c. [X] Tacrolimus 0.1%
d. [X] Calcipotriene 0.005
e. [ ] Clotrimazol 1%
ALOPECIA AREATA
206. What type of the hair damage is typical for alopecia areata:
a. [ ] Hair – breakage
b. [ ] Unpleasant smell
c. [ ] Nodules formation
d. [X] ‘Exclamation-mark’ hairs
e. [X] Thinning of the hair root (“shaky hair” sign)
207. Clinical sub-types of alopecia areata are:
a. [X] Reticular
b. [X] Totalis
c. [X] Universalis
d. [X] Ophiasis
e. [ ] Areolar
208. Alopecia areata can be associated with:
a. [X] Thyroid gland disturbances
b. [X] Nail involvement
c. [X] Psychiatric disorders
d. [ ] Scarring
e. [X] Atopic dermatitis
209. Systemic treatment of alopecia areata includes:
a. [X] Amino acids and microelements
b. [ ] Adrenaline and noradrenaline
c. [X] Vitamins
d. [ ] Estrogens
e. [ ] Antiandrogens
210. Topical treatment of alopecia areata includes:
a. [X] PUVA-therapy
b. [X] Contact immunotherapy (dinitrochlorbenzene, squaric acid dibutylester)
c. [X] Intralesional and topical steroids
d. [X] Non-specific contact irritation (dithranol, pepper tincture)
e. [ ] Adrenoceptor agonists
VITILIGO
211. Medical management of vitiligo includes:

a. [X] PUVA-therapy
b. [ ] X-ray therapy
c. [X] Topical steroids
d. [ ] Contact immunotherapy and non-specific irritation
e. [X] Vitamins and microelements
30
ALLERGIC DERMATOSES. DRUG-INDUCED CUTANEOUS ERUPTIONS

ALLERGIC VASCULITIS ERYTHEMA MULTIFORME
212. What clinical features are typical for subacute eczema:

a. [ ] Lichenification
b. [X] Moderate vesiculation
c. [X] Erythematous lesions covered with crusts
d. [ ] Evident oozing
e. [ ] Rapid evolution
213. What medicines cause development of non-immunological urticaria:
a. [ ] Penicillin
b. [ ] Aspirin
c. [ ] Co-trimoxazole
d. [X] Alkaloids (Morphine, Codeine)
e. [X] Contrast agents
214. What type of hypersensitivity reactions is urticaria mediated by:
a. [X] Type I
b. [ ] Type II
c. [X] Type III
d. [ ] Type IV
e. [ ] None of the above
215. Mechanisms of immunological urticaria development are :
a. [X] IgE dependent
b. [ ] IgA dependent
c. [ ] IgG dependent
d. [ ] IgM dependent
e. [X] Complement dependent
216. Choose urticaria which is mediated by type III hypersensitivity reaction:
a. [ ] Alimentary
b. [ ] Cholinergic
c. [X] Urticarial vasculitis
d. [X] Autoimmune
e. [ ] Dermographism
217. What clinical features are specific for acute eczema:
a. [X] Generalized and permanent pruritus
b. [X] Wheals
c. [ ] Lesions are present during 48 hours
d. [X] Daily repeating episodes of disease which lasts for 4-6 weeks
e. [ ] Positive test with Metacholine
218. What clinical features are typical for Angioedema Quincke:
a. [ ] Severe itching
b. [X] During palpation doesn’t occur dimple
c. [X] Undefined margins of the lesions
d. [ ] Lesions don’t occur at the same place twice
e. [X] Lesions persist more than 24 hours
219. What tests is urticaria confirmed by:
a. [X] Exclusion diet
b. [ ] Biopsy
c. [X] Skin scratch test
d. [X] Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
e. [X] Physical challenge tests
31
220. Choose clinical symptoms specific for irritant contact eczema:

a. [ ] Lesions occur because of the sensibilization
b. [X] Lesion occur at the place of irritation
c. [ ] Lesions advance peripherally
d. [X] Lack of peripheral growth of the lesions
e. [X] Involution of the lesions due to elimination of the irritant factor
221. What trigger factors can be irritant contact eczema induced by:
a. [X] Nettle
b. [X] High-concentrate acids and basics
c. [ ] Pollen of the plants
d. [ ] Nickel
e. [X] Hot water
222. What substances cause allergic contact eczema:
a. [X] Neomycin, benzocaine
b. [ ] High-concentrate acids and basics
c. [X] Nickel, cobalt, chrome
d. [X] Para-phenylendiamine
e. [ ] Nettle
223. What features are characteristic for allergic contact eczema:
a. [ ] Lesions occur after the first contact with allergen
b. [X] Type IV allergic reaction
c. [ ] Type I allergic reaction
d. [X] Lesions advance peripherally and confluence
e. [ ] Localization of the lesions exclusively at the sites of irritation
224. Choose skin lesions which are typical for acute eczema:
a. [ ] Scaling
b. [ ] Lichenification
c. [X] Erythema
d. [X] Vesiculation
e. [X] Edema and oozing
225. What skin lesions are specific for chronic eczema:
a. [X] Itching, infiltrative, well-defined lesions
b. [ ] Vesiculation
c. [ ] Oozing
d. [X] Lichenification
e. [X] Scaling
226. What histopathological changes are found in chronic eczema:
a. [X] Acanthosis
b. [ ] Spongiosis
c. [X] Perivascular lymphocyte infiltrate
d. [X] Hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis
e. [ ] Acantholysis
227. What does topical treatment of chronic lichenified eczema include:
a. [ ] Wet-to-dry compresses with antiseptic solutions
b. [ ] Emulsions and pasts
c. [X] Corticosteroid ointments
d. [X] Low-concentrate keratoplastic and keratolytic ointments
e. [X] Occlusive bandages
32
228. What does topical treatment of acute eczema include:

a. [ ] Corticosteroid and keratoplastic ointments
b. [X] Wet-to-dry compresses with antiseptics
c. [X] Aniline solutions
d. [ ] Occlusive bandages
e. [X] Corticosteroid spray
229. Systemic treatment of acute urticaria includes:
a. [X] Antihistamines and hyposensitization agents
b. [ ] Antibiotics
c. [X] Corticosteroids
d. [ ] Vitamin B
e. [X] Diuretics
230. Choose emergency procedures which are undertaken in case of angioedema of the larynx:
a. [ ] Α-adrenergic blockers
b. [X] Antihistamines and diuretics
c. [X] Intravenous introduction of corticosteroids
d. [X] Intravenous introduction of adrenalin
e. [ ] Intravenous drip-feed of water-salt solutions
231. Adulthood stage of atopic dermatitis is manifested by:
b. [X] Association with pollinosis
c. [ ] Predominant affection of the face
d. [ ] Red dermographism
e. [X] Evident lichenification of the folds
232. In vivo allergic tests are:
a. [X] Patch test
b. [X] Scratch test
c. [X] Prick test
d. [ ] Test of immune adhesion
e. [X] Intradermal test
233. Systemic therapy of acute eczema includes:
a. [ ] Massive intravenous drip-feed of water-salt solutions
b. [ ] Cytostatic agents
c. [X] Corticosteroids
d. [X] Antihistamines and hyposensitization drugs
e. [X] Diuretics
234. What features are specific for atopic dermatitis:
a. [X] Family history of atopy
b. [X] Pruritus and eczema
c. [ ] Decrease of Th2 lymphocyte activity
d. [ ] Increase of interferon-γ activity in plasma
e. [X] Increase of IgE in plasma
235. Associated features of atopic dermatitis are:
a. [ ] Seborrhea
b. [X] Dennie-Morgan lines
c. [ ] Wickham sign
e. [X] Xerosis
33
236. What type of disease atopic dermatitis is :

a. [X] Constitutional disease
b. [X] Autosomal-dominant transmitted disease
c. [X] With chronic and recurrent evolution
d. [ ] With increased level of IgA
e. [X] Associated with bronchial asthma, allergic conjunctivitis and rhinitis
237. What complications are typical for atopic dermatitis:
b. [X] Association of dermatomycoses
c. [X] Eczema herpeticum
d. [X] Eczema vaccinatum
e. [ ] Seborrhea
238. Systemic therapy of atopic dermatitis includes:
a. [X] Diet and hygiene regimen
b. [X] Antihistamines
c. [X] PUVA-therapy
d. [ ] Long courses of oral corticosteroids
e. [X] Enterosorbent agents
239. Topical treatment of atopic dermatitis includes:
a. [X] Corticosteroids
b. [X] Tar
c. [ ] Alcohol solutions and basic soaps
d. [ ] Benzyl benzoate emulsion
e. [X] Tacrolimus and pimecrolimus
240. What are typical features of atopy:
a. [X] Eczema
b. [X] Bronchial astma
c. [X] Allergic rhinitis
d. [ ] Allergic vasculitis
e. [X] Allergic conjunctivitis
241. What types of hypersensitivity reaction is atopic dermatitis mediated by:
a. [X] Type I
b. [ ] Type II
c. [ ] Type III
d. [X] Type IV
e. [ ] None of the above
242. What immunological and biochemical changes occur in atopic dermatitis:
a. [ ] Decrease plasma level of IgE
b. [X] Increase activity of Th2 lymphocytes which secrete a lot of interleukins 4 and 5
c. [X] Increase activity of Th1 lymphocytes which secrete a lot of interferon-γ
d. [X] Decrease level of secretory IgA
e. [ ] Decrease level of intracellular AMPc
243. Age stages o atopic dermatitis are:
a. [X] Atopic dermatitis of infancy and toddlers
b. [X] Atopic dermatitis of children from 3 to 7 ages old and adolescents
c. [X] Atopic dermatitis of adults
d. [ ] Atopic dermatitis of elderly people
e. [ ] Paraneoplastic atopic dermatitis
34
244. What clinical findings are characteristic for infantile stage of atopic dermatitis:
a. [ ] Presence at the birth
b. [ ] Lichenified eczema
c. [X] Erythema, edema, vesiculation and weeping
d. [X] Cheeks, chin and forehead involvement
e. [X] Family history of atopy
245. What clinical findings are typical for childhood stage of atopic dermatitis:
a. [ ] Acute eczema
b. [X] Folds involvement
c. [ ] Face involvement
d. [X] Severe pruritus
e. [X] Xerosis
246. What clinical findings are specific for adulthood stage of atopic dermatitis:
a. [X] Lichenified eczema
b. [ ] Red dermographism
c. [X] Typical localization on folds and posterior neck
d. [X] Circumscribed neurodermatitis
e. [X] Severe pruritus
247. Essentials features of the atopic dermatitis are:
a. [X] Chronic and recurrent eczema
b. [X] Pruritus
c. [X] Family history of atopy
d. [ ] Xerosis
e. [ ] Pityriasis alba
248. Eruptions in vasculitis Gougerot-Ruiter are characterized by:
a. [ ] Monomorphism
b. [X] Evolutionary polymorphism
c. [ ] Try polymorphism
d. [X] Symmetrical distribution
e. [ ] Asymmetrical distribution
249. Types of allergic vasculitis due to perivascular infiltrate structure are:
a. [X] Leucocytoclastic
b. [ ] Macrophage
c. [X] Granulomatous
d. [X] Lymphocytic
e. [ ] Hypercomplementary
250. Medical management of purpura Henoch-Schonlein includes:
a. [ ] Kinetotherapy
b. [X] Moderate doses of oral corticosteroids
c. [ ] Long-term orthostatic position
d. [X] Aspirin or sulfones
e. [X] Antihistamines
251. Medical management of drug-induced eruptions includes:
a. [X] Non-specific hyposensitization
b. [ ] Specific hyposensitization
c. [X] Diuretics
d. [X] Laxative agents
e. [X] Enterosorbent agents
35
252. Medical management of Lyell syndrome includes:

a. [ ] Cytostatics
b. [X] Pulse therapy of corticosteroids followed by a maintenance regimen
c. [X] Regain of water-salt balance
d. [X] Adequate detoxification
e. [X] Short-term mid doses of corticosteroids
253. What mechanism is erythema multiforme mediated by:
a. [X] Infectious-allergic
b. [ ] Autoimmune
c. [X] Toxicoallergic
d. [ ] Tumor related
e. [ ] Dismetabolic
254. Clinical sub-types of erythema multiforme are:
a. [ ] Tuberculoid
b. [X] Erythematous-papular
c. [ ] Nodular
d. [X] Vesicle-bullous
e. [ ] Lichenoid
255. What clinical features are typical for erythema multiforme minor:
a. [X] Acute onset
b. [X] Erythematous papules and/or vesicles and bullas with acral distribution
c. [ ] Flaccid bullas on non-modified skin
d. [X] Spontaneous involvement of the eruption
e. [X] Seasonal evolution of disease and recurrences
256. What clinical findings are specific for Stevens-Johnson syndrome:
a. [X] High fever at the onset of disease
b. [X] Respiratory system and kidneys involvement
c. [X] Extensive erosions and bullas on mucous membranes associated with widespread skin lesions
d. [ ] More than ½ of skin surface is affected
e. [ ] Spontaneous involution of the disease
257. Clinical forms of erythema multiforme are:
a. [ ] Serpiginous
b. [ ] Ring-shaped
c. [ ] Herpetiform
d. [X] Target lesions
e. [X] Multiple concentric vesicular rings (herpes iris)
258. Medical therapy of erythema multiforme minor includes:
a. [X] Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
b. [X] Antibiotics
c. [X] Hyposensitization agents
d. [X] Antihistamines
e. [ ] Corticosteroids (pulse therapy)
259. Treatment of Stevens-Johnson syndrome includes:
a. [X] Regain of water-salt balance
b. [ ] Sulfanilamides
c. [ ] Barbiturates
d. [X] Corticosteroids (pulse therapy)
e. [X] Detoxification
36
BULLOUS DERMATOSES.GENODERMATOSES
260. What clinical findings are typical for autoimmune pemphigus:

a. [ ] Auspitz
b. [X] Nicolsky
c. [ ] Baltzer
d. [X] Asboe-Hansen
e. [ ] Wickham
261. How is Iadassohn test carried out in dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring:
a. [X] Using 50 % Potassium iodide ointment under an occlusive bandage
b. [ ] Swabbing the skin with 3% Iodide solution
c. [ ] Administrating 3% Potassium iodide solution
d. [ ] Using diascopy
e. [ ] Pressing on skin lesions with a probe
262. Maintenance treatment in autoimmune pemphigus includes:
a. [ ] Prednisolone 20-40mg a day during 1-3 month
b. [ ] Prednisolone 20-40 mg a day during 4-6 month
c. [ ] Prednisolone 20-40 mg a day during 6-12 month
d. [X] Prednisolone 20-40 mg a day not less than 5 years
e. [X] Potassium, calcium, antacids, anabolic steroids, vitamins
263. Blister formation in prick-cell layer is characteristically for:
a. [ ] Pemphigus foliaceus
b. [X] Pemphigus vulgaris
c. [X] Pemphigus vegetans
d. [ ] Bullous pemphigoid
e. [ ] Pemphigus erythematosus
264. Blister formation in granular layer is typical for:
a. [ ] Pemphigus vulgaris
b. [X] Pemphigus foliaceus
c. [ ] Pemphigus vegetans
d. [X] Pemphigus erythematosus
e. [ ] Bullous pemphigoid
265. What clinical findings are typical for dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring:
a. [X] Tense vesicles and bullas
b. [X] Erythematous-edematous plaques
c. [X] Papules
d. [ ] Tubercles
e. [ ] Nodules
266. Approach to therapy of dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring includes:
a. [ ] Antimalarial drugs
b. [X] Sulfones, sulfanilamides and corticosteroids
c. [X] Elimination of halogens
d. [ ] Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
e. [X] Gluten-free diet
267. What anamnestic data are specific for dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring:
a. [X] Enteropathy
b. [ ] Increase sensitivity to pollen
c. [X] Increase sensitivity to gluten
d. [X] Exacerbation of disease after halogen administration
e. [ ] Exacerbation of disease after basics administration
37
268. Differential signs of pemphigus foliaceus, in comparison with pemphigus vulgaris, are:
a. [ ] Low-grade severity of the disease
b. [X] Superficial localization of the bullas
c. [X] Scaly, crusted lesions
d. [X] Mucous membranes aren’t involved
e. [ ] Much worse prognosis
269. Differential signs of pemphigus vegetans, in comparison with pemphigus vulgaris, are:
a. [X] Distribution of the lesions especially in folds
b. [ ] Localization of bullas in the granular layer
c. [X] Presence of flaccid vesicles, bullas and pustules that transforms in vegetating lesions
d. [ ] More severe evolution
e. [X] Disease occurs in patients with intact immune system
270. Pulse therapy of autoimmune pemphigus includes:
a. [ ] Long term antibiotic therapy
b. [ ] Intermediate doses of Prednisolone (40-60 mg a day)
c. [X] Prednisolone up to 3mg/kg/day
d. [X] Cytostatics
e. [X] Plasmapheresis
271. What laboratory tests is autoimmune pemphigus confirmed by:
a. [ ] Culture
b. [X] Tzanck smear
c. [ ] Wood’s lamp test
d. [X] Direct and indirect immunofluorescence microscopy
e. [X] Biopsy
272. What laboratory tests is dermatitis herpetiformis confirmed by:
a. [X] Eosinophilia in bullas liquid and blood
b. [X] Direct immunofluorescence microscopy which detects IgA deposits concentrating on the dermal papilla area
c. [ ] Direct immunofluorescence microscopy which detects IgG deposits concentrating on the dermal papilla area
d. [X] Positive Iadassohn sign
e. [ ] Positive Nicolsky sign
273. What clinical features are specific for dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring:
b. [ ] Monomorphism of the lesions
c. [X] Polymorphism of the lesions
d. [X] Distribution of the lesions
e. [X] Erythematous base of the lesions
274. Choose medicines which are contraindicated in dermatitis herpetiformis:
a. [ ] Co-trimoxazole
b. [X] Fluorinated topical steroids
c. [X] Potassium iodide
d. [X] Bromides
e. [X] Calcium chloride
275. Clinical forms of autoimmune pemphigus are:
a. [X] Pemphigus vulgaris
b. [ ] Neonatal pemphigus
c. [X] Pemphigus vegetans
d. [X] Pemphigus foliaceus
e. [X] Pemphigus erythematosus
38
276. What keratinocyte structures are targets for pemphigus autoantibodies:

a. [X] Desmoglein I
b. [X] Desmoglein III
c. [X] Plakoglobin
d. [ ] Centromere
e. [ ] Nucleus
277. What autoantibodies are specific for dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring:
a. [ ] Antidesmosome
b. [X] Antigliadine
c. [X] Antireticulin
d. [ ] Antitopoisomerase
e. [X] Antiendomysium
278. The most common sites of involvement in ichtyosis vulgaris are:
a. [ ] Major folds
b. [X] Scalp
c. [ ] Genitalia
d. [X] Extensor surfaces of the extremities
e. [X] Trunk (more evident at lumbar region)
279. What clinical features are typical for epidermolysis bullosa simplex:
a. [X] Onset of trauma-induced lesions
b. [ ] Scar formation
c. [ ] Evidence of milia
d. [X] Negative Nicolsky sign
e. [X] Teeth, nails and hair aren’t involved
280. What clinical findings are common for hyperplastic variant of dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa:
a. [X] Onset of spontaneous and trauma-induced bullas
b. [X] Mucous membrane involvement
c. [ ] Absence of milia
d. [ ] Teeth, nails and hair aren’t involved
e. [X] Evidence of residual scars, inclusive keloid
281. Choose sub-types of inherited epidermolysis bullosa:
a. [X] Simplex
b. [ ] Vulgaris
c. [X] Dystrophic hyperplastic
d. [X] Dystrophic polydisplastic
e. [ ] Congenital
282. What clinical manifestations are specific for polydisplastic variant of dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa:
a. [ ] Onset of bullas exclusively at the sites of trauma
b. [X] Mucous membrane involvement
c. [X] Teeth and nails involvement
d. [X] Deforming scars, milia and mutilations
e. [ ] Negative Nicolsky sign
283. Medical management of ichtyosis vulgaris includes:
a. [ ] Cytotoxic agents
b. [X] Vitamin A
c. [X] Acitretin
d. [X] Keratolytic ointments
e. [X] Emollients
39
284. Clinical forms of ichtyosis vulgaris are:

a. [ ] Erythrodermic
b. [X] Simplex
c. [X] Serpentine
d. [X] Hystrix
e. [X] Xerodermic
285. Medical therapy of epidermolysis bullosa includes:
a. [ ] Keratolytic ointments
b. [X] Cyclosporine and retinoids
c. [X] Vitamins E, A, C, PP
d. [X] Oral corticosteroids
e. [X] Collagenase inhibitors
286. Clinical sub-types of ichtyosis are:
a. [X] Vulgaris
b. [ ] Dystrophic
c. [X] X-linked
d. [X] Lamellar
e. [X] Ichthyosiform erythroderma
287. What clinical features are typical for ichtyosis vulgaris:
a. [ ] Folds involvement
b. [X] Xerosis
c. [X] Scaling lesions
d. [ ] Erythematous lesions
e. [ ] Bullous lesions
288. What histopathological changes are specific for ichtyosis vulgaris:
a. [ ] Proliferative hyperkeratosis
b. [X] Retentional hyperkeratosis
c. [ ] Granulosis
d. [X] Defective synthesis of the keratohyalin
e. [X] Follicular hyperkeratosis
289. What laboratory tests is epidermolysis bullosa confirmed by:
a. [ ] Microscopic examination
b. [ ] Culture
c. [X] Biopsy
d. [X] Antenatal anamnesis (evidence of increased level of α-fetoprotein in mother’s blood)
e. [X] Positive family history
40
SYPHILIS
290. Shortening of incubation period of syphilis can be caused by:

a. [X] Intercurrent infectious disease
b. [X] Bipolar chancre
c. [X] Multiple chancres
d. [ ] Use of antibiotics during the incubation period
e. [X] Repeated sexual contacts with infected person
291. What species of Treponema are pathogenic for humans:
a. [ ] Treponema genitalis
b. [X] Treponema bejel
c. [X] Treponema pallidum
d. [X] Treponema carateum
e. [ ] Treponema microdentium
292. What clinical and laboratory findings are common for late latent syphilis:
a. [ ] Disseminated lesions
b. [X] No evidence of sexual contacts which confirmed contamination
c. [ ] Duration of the disease less than 1 year
d. [ ] High titer of reagins
e. [X] High percent of immobilized Treponema pallidum
293. Classification of primary syphilis includes:
a. [ ] Latent syphilis
b. [X] Seronegative syphilis
c. [X] Seropositive syphilis
d. [ ] Recent syphilis
e. [ ] Late syphilis
294. Syphilitic angina is manifested by:
a. [X] Asymptomatic evolution
b. [ ] General illness (fever, malaise, weakness)
c. [X] Well defined erythema
d. [ ] Erosive papules
e. [ ] Dysphonia and husky voice
295. Nontreponemal serologic tests for syphilis include:
a. [ ] Treponema pallidum immobilization test – TPI
b. [X] Complement binding reaction – Bordet-Wasserman
c. [ ] Indirect immunofluorescence assay – FTA, FTA-abs
d. [X] Microprecipitation test on a glass slide – VDRL, RPR, MRP (MRS)
e. [ ] Treponema pallidum hemagglutination - TPHA
296. Specific treponemal tests include:
a. [X] Treponema pallidum hemagglutination – TPHA
b. [X] Enzyme immunoassay – EIA
c. [X] Indirect immunofluorescence assay – FTA, FTA-abs
d. [ ] Microprecipitation test on a glass slide – VDRL, RPR, MRP (MRS)
e. [X] Treponema pallidum immobilization test – TPI
297. A typical syphilitic chancre is manifested by:
a. [X] Erosion
b. [ ] Fissure
c. [ ] Excoriation
d. [ ] Scale
e. [X] Ulcer
41
298. Tertiary syphilis is manifested by:

a. [ ] Papules
b. [X] Tubercles
c. [ ] Wheals
d. [X] Nodules
e. [ ] Vesicles
299. What laboratory tests is syphilis confirmed by:
a. [ ] Culture
b. [X] Serologic tests
c. [ ] Allergic tests
d. [X] Dark-field microscopy
e. [ ] Microscopy of Gram stained slides
300. Treatment regimen for early syphilis (primary, secondary, and early latent acquired) lasts for:
a. [ ] Benzylpenicillin 7 days
b. [X] Benzylpenicillin 14 days
c. [ ] Benzylpenicillin 28 days
d. [X] Benzathine penicillin – 2-3 doses (1 dose a week)
e. [ ] Benzathine penicillin – 4-5 doses (1 dose a week)
301. Deep pustular syphilides are:
a. [ ] Impetiginoid
b. [ ] Varioliform
c. [ ] Acneiform
d. [X] Ecthymiform
e. [X] Rupioides
302. What clinical and laboratory findings are common for early latent acquired syphilis:
a. [ ] Syphilitic alopecia and leukomelanodermia
b. [X] Asymptomatic evolution
c. [X] Duration of the disease up to 2 years
d. [X] High titer of the reagins
e. [ ] High percentage of immobilized Treponema pallidum
303. Prophylactic treatment for syphilis is administered to:
a. [X] Children born from infected mothers
b. [ ] Patients with latent syphilis
c. [ ] Healthy people which had last sexual contact with infected person up to 2 month
d. [ ] Household contacts of infected people
e. [X] Pregnant women who received treatment before and are followed up
304. The syphilitic chancre is manifested by:
a. [ ] Poor defined erosive-ulcerative lesion
b. [X] Firm-elastic infiltration at the base of lesion
c. [X] Serous exudate on the surface of the lesion
d. [ ] Painful lesion
e. [ ] Permanent bleeding erosive-ulcerative eruptions
305. The most common sites of involvement in condyloma acuminata are:
a. [ ] Major folds
b. [ ] Extensor surfaces of the extremities
c. [X] Perianal region
d. [X] Perigenital region
e. [ ] Palms and soles
42
306. Morphologic types of Treponema pallidum are:

a. [ ] Diplococcus
b. [ ] Spores
c. [X] Spiral
d. [X] Cysts
e. [X] L-forms
307. What clinical features are common for chancre-amigdalitis:
a. [ ] Erosive-ulcerative eruptions
b. [X] Asymmetrical distribution
c. [X] Well defined borders
d. [ ] Odynophagia
e. [X] Regional lymphadenitis
308. What skin lesions are typical for secondary syphilis:
a. [ ] Diffuse erythematous plaques
b. [X] Papular and pustular rash
c. [ ] Chancre
d. [ ] Gummas
e. [X] Alopecia and leukomelanodermia
309. What clinical features are common for primary syphilis:
a. [ ] Erythematous angina
b. [X] Chancre
c. [ ] Erosive papules
d. [X] Regional lymphadenitis
e. [X] Specific lymphangeitis
310. Atypical forms of syphilitic chancre are:
a. [ ] Indurative erythema
b. [X] Indurative edema
c. [X] Chancre-panaritium
d. [X] Chancre-amigdalitis
e. [ ] Fagedenism
311. Malignant syphilis is manifested by:
a. [ ] Multiple roseola
b. [X] Miliary papules
c. [ ] Lenticular papules
d. [ ] Herpetiform papules
e. [X] Rupia and ecthyma
312. Clinical forms of syphilitic alopecia are:
a. [X] Patchy
b. [X] Diffuse
c. [ ] Seborrheic
d. [ ] Areata
e. [ ] Ophiasis
313. Reliable features of late congenital syphilis are:
a. [X] Keratitis
b. [ ] Saddle nose
c. [X] Labyrinthitis
d. [X] Anomalies of the upper incisors
e. [ ] Anomaly of the 1st upper molar tooth
43
314. What clinical and laboratory features is tertiary syphilis confirmed by:
a. [X] Gummas and tubercles
b. [ ] Roseola and multiple papules
c. [X] Skeleton, internal organs and nervous system involvement
d. [ ] High titer of reagins
e. [X] High percentage of immobilized Treponema pallidum
315. What clinical findings are typical for syphilitic lymphadenitis:
a. [ ] Soft consistence
b. [ ] Tendency to ramolissement
c. [X] Movable, non-adherent to surrounding tissues lymphnodes
d. [X] Painless lymphnodes
e. [X] Multiple lymphnodes involvement
316. What clinical and laboratory features is secondary syphilis confirmed by:
a. [ ] Asymmetrical regional lymphadenitis
b. [X] Syphilides
c. [ ] Chancre
d. [X] Alopecia and leukomelanodermia
e. [ ] High percentage of immobilized Treponema pallidum
317. Complications of a chancre in men are:
a. [X] Balanitis and balanoposthitis
b. [X] Phimosis and paraphimosis
c. [ ] Indurative edema
d. [X] Gangrenous chancre
e. [ ] Chancre-amigdalitis
318. Clinical sub-types of papular syphilides are:
a. [X] Miliary
b. [X] Lenticular
c. [X] Nummular
d. [ ] Condyloma acuminata
e. [X] Condyloma latum
319. Possible outcome of pregnancy in infected woman is:
a. [X] Spontaneous abortion
b. [X] Premature stillbirth or delivery of unviable infant
c. [X] Premature delivery or in-time birth of an infant which after some period of time will
develop clinical manifestations of early or late congenital syphilis
d. [X] In-time birth of an infant with latent syphilis
e. [ ] In-time birth of a healthy infant, which doesn’t need a prophylactic treatment for syphilis
320. Modes of transmission of the syphilis are:
a. [X] Direct contact (sexual, non-sexual)
b. [X] Indirect
c. [X] Blood transfusion
d. [X] Mother to child
e. [ ] Genetic (hereditary)
321. What clinical features are common for recurrent secondary syphilis:
a. [ ] Chancre
b. [ ] Asymmetric regional lymphadenitis
c. [ ] Disseminated and symmetric roseola
d. [X] Condyloma latum
e. [X] Alopecia and leukomelanodermia
44
322. Favorable conditions for latent syphilis onset are:

a. [ ] Increase of specific reactivity
b. [X] Decrease of specific reactivity
c. [ ] Serologic anergy (prosone phenomenon)
d. [X] Increase of the specific immune response
e. [ ] Decrease of the specific immune response
323. Characteristic clinical manifestations of early congenital syphilis are:
a. [X] Osteochondritis and osteoperiostitis
b. [X] Syphilitic rhinitis
c. [ ] Chancre
d. [X] Pemphigus lesions on palms and soles
e. [X] Hochzinger’s diffuse papulous infiltration
45
GONORRHEA
324. Pathogenic role of gonococcal pili consists in:

a. [ ] Decrease of gonococcal adhesion to the epithelial cells
b. [ ] Stimulation of the phagocytosis mediated by neutrophils and antigen representative cells
c. [X] Participation in transmission of metabolites and genetic material (plasmids)
d. [X] Mediation of leucocytes and erythrocytes hemagglutination
e. [X] Induction of the immune response
325. Atypical forms of N.gonorrhoeae are:
a. [ ] B-form
b. [ ] A-form
c. [X] L-form
d. [X] Spheroplast
e. [ ] Diplococcus
326. Clinicoevoluative forms of gonorrhea are:
a. [ ] Primary
b. [X] Chronic
c. [ ] Secondary
d. [ ] Tertiary
e. [X] Acute
327. What clinical findings are common for chronic gonococcal prostatitis:
a. [X] Prostatorrhea
b. [X] Total urethritis
c. [X] Irregular increase of prostate lobes
d. [ ] Evident median sulcus of prostate which is detected on the palpation
e. [X] Moderate pain which arises on the palpation
328. Primary sites of gonococcal infection are:
a. [X] Urethra
b. [X] Rectum
c. [X] Conjunctiva
d. [X] Tonsils
e. [ ] Skin
329. Clinical forms of descending gonorrhea in female are:
a. [ ] Endometritis
b. [ ] Pelvic inflammatory disease
c. [X] Bartholinitis
d. [X] Vulvovaginitis
e. [ ] Cystitis
330. Clinical forms of ascending gonorrhea in women are:
a. [X] Adnexitis
b. [ ] Vestibulitis
c. [ ] Vulvitis
d. [X] Pyelonephritis
e. [X] Cystitis
331. Choose elective medium that are used for isolation of N.gonorrhoeae:
a. [X] Muller-Hinton
b. [ ] Feinberg-Whittington
c. [ ] Sabouraud
d. [X] Thayer-Martin
e. [ ] Lowenstein
46
332. In acute anterior gonococcal urethritis in men the “two-glasses” test shows that:
a. [ ] I urine portion is transparent
b. [X] I urine portion is turbid
c. [X] II urine portion is transparent
d. [ ] II urine portion is turbid
e. [ ] Terminal hematuria in the II urine portion
333. The routine staining used for microscopic examination of gonococci is:
a. [ ] Romanovsky-Giemsa
b. [X] Gram
c. [ ] Ziehl-Nielsen
d. [X] Metillen bleu solution
e. [ ] Dark-field microscopy
334. The topographic forms of gonococcal urethritis in men are:
a. [ ] External
b. [X] Anterior
c. [ ] Disseminated
d. [ ] Interior
e. [X] Total
335. Urethral complication of the chronic gonorrhea in men:
a. [X] Inflammation of Tyson’s glands
b. [X] Inflammation of Littre’ s glands
c. [ ] Inflammation of Skene’s glands
d. [ ] Inflammation of Bartolini glands
e. [X] Inflammation of Morgagni’s glands
336. The primary sites of gonococcal infection in women are:
a. [ ] External genitalia
b. [ ] Vagina
c. [X] Cervix
d. [ ] Endometrium
e. [X] Urethra
337. The primary sites of extragenital gonorrhea are:
a. [X] Pharynx and tonsils
b. [ ] Skin
c. [X] Rectum
d. [X] Conjunctiva
e. [ ] Lips
338. Target-epithelium for gonococcal infection is:
a. [ ] Stratified flat keratinizing epithelium
b. [ ] Monostratal flat keratinizing epithelium
c. [X] Cylindrical epithelium
d. [X] Cuboidal epithelium
339. Follow-up of the gonorrhea in women should be made:
a. [ ] At the 1st-2nd day after treatment
b. [X] At the 7th-10th day after treatment
c. [X] During 2 menstrual cycles after the 1st testing
d. [ ] During 4 menstrual cycles after the 1st testing
e. [ ] Shouldn’t be made
47
340. What clinical features are typical for acute anterior gonococcal urethritis in men:
a. [ ] White-yellowish, spumous, liquid discharge with unpleasant smell
b. [X] Abundant, purulent, yellowish-green, viscous discharge
c. [ ] Pain and burning sensation at the end of urination
d. [ ] Frequent, imperative urination with tenesmus
e. [X] Edema and constriction of external orifice of the urethra
341. Modes of transmission of gonorrhea are:
a. [ ] Transplacental
b. [X] Intranatal
c. [X] Direct (sexual)
d. [X] Indirect (household)
e. [ ] Droplet
342. Clinicopathologic forms of gonococcal prostatitis are:
a. [ ] Infiltrative
b. [X] Catarrhal
c. [X] Follicular
d. [ ] Glandular
e. [X] Parenchymatous
343. Clinicoevoluative forms of gonococcal prostatitis are:
a. [ ] Recent
b. [X] Acute
c. [ ] Fulminant
d. [ ] Torpid
e. [X] Chronic
344. What clinical signs are typical for acute total gonococcal urethritis in men:
a. [ ] Abundant, yellowish-green, spumous transparent discharge with unpleasant smell
b. [ ] Pain and burning sensation at the beginning of urination
c. [X] Frequent, imperative urination with tenesmus
d. [X] Terminal hematuria
e. [X] Painful and frequent erection, hemospermia
345. Local complications of gonococcal urethritis are:
a. [X] Balanitis
b. [X] Balanoposthitis
c. [ ] Prostatitis
d. [X] Phimosis
e. [X] Paraphimosis
346. Urethroscopy forms of chronic gonococcal urethritis are:
a. [X] Infiltrative
b. [X] Desquamative
c. [X] Granular
d. [X] Glandular
e. [ ] Torpid
347. What laboratory tests is gonorrhea confirmed by:
a. [X] Microscopy of stained slides
b. [X] Culture isolation on elective medium
c. [X] Serologic assay
d. [ ] Allergic tests
e. [ ] Biopsy
48
348. Local complications of gonorrhea in men are:

a. [X] Epididymitis and funiculitis
b. [X] Orchitis
c. [ ] Balanoposthitis
d. [ ] Inflammation of Litter’s and Morgagni’s glands
e. [X] Prostatitis
349. Extragenital complications of gonorrhea in men are:
a. [X] Arthritis
b. [X] Endocarditis
c. [X] Perihepatitis
d. [ ] Prostatitis
e. [ ] Epididymitis
350. Extragenital forms of gonorrhea are:
a. [X] Ophthalmia
b. [ ] Pelvic inflammatory diseases
c. [ ] Prostatitis
d. [X] Pharyngitis
e. [X] Proctitis
351. Medical management of chronic gonorrhea includes:
a. [X] Antibiotics
b. [X] Gonococcal vaccine
c. [X] Immunostimulants
d. [ ] Cytotoxic agents
e. [X] Topical treatment
352. For single dose treatment of gonorrhea are administered:
a. [X] Ceftriaxone
b. [X] Ofloxacin
c. [ ] Doxycycline
d. [ ] Penicillin
e. [X] Spectinomycin
353. Effective antibacterial agents for gonorrhea treatment are:
a. [ ] Metronidazole
b. [X] Co-trimoxazole
c. [ ] Clotrimazole
d. [X] Ciprofloxacin
e. [X] Azithromycin
354. Sites of gonococcal infection in girls are:
a. [X] Urethra
b. [ ] Endometrium
c. [X] External genitalia
d. [ ] Cervix
e. [X] Vagina
TRICHOMONIASIS
355. What medicines are effective for systemic treatment of trichomoniasis:

a. [ ] Clotrimazole
b. [X] Metronidazole
c. [ ] Mebendazole
d. [X] Tinidazole
e. [X] Ornidazole
49
356. What medicines are effective for topical treatment of trichomoniasis:

a. [ ] Anuzole
b. [ ] Astemizole
c. [X] Metronidazole
d. [X] Clotrimazole
e. [X] Distilled water
357. Primary sites of trichomoniasis in women are:
a. [X] Vagina
b. [ ] Cervix
c. [X] Urethra
d. [X] Bartholin and Skene glands
e. [X] External genitalia
358. Primary sites of trichomoniasis in men are:
a. [X] Urethra
b. [X] Glans penis
c. [X] Prepuce
d. [ ] Rectum
359. What clinical features are typical for trichomoniasis in men:
a. [ ] Abundant, purulent, viscous urethral discharge
b. [X] Transparent, spare urethral discharge
c. [X] Constriction and edema of external orifice of the urethra
d. [X] Burning and discomfort on urination
e. [X] Painful erosions on glans penis and prepuce
360. What clinical findings are common for trichomoniasis in women:
a. [X] Vulvar burning
b. [ ] Yellow-green, viscous discharge
c. [X] Liquid, spumous, white-yellowish discharge
d. [X] Unpleasant smell of the discharge
e. [X] Erythema and edema of the external genitalia
361. Choose medicines that are used for treatment of acute mix urogenital infection (gonorrhea+trichomoniasis):
a. [X] Doxycycline
b. [ ] Pyrogenal
c. [ ] Gonococcal vaccine
d. [X] Metronidazole
e. [ ] Topical antiseptics
362. Choose medicines that are used for treatment of mix urogenital infection (gonorrhea +
trichomoniasis + candidiasis) in women:
a. [X] Oral Metronidazole
b. [X] Oral Doxycycline
c. [X] Oral Fluconazole
d. [ ] Oral Mebendazole
e. [X] Clotrimazole for topical treatment
50
NON-GONOCOCCAL UROGENITAL INFECTIONS CAUSED BY CHLAMYDIA

AND MYCOPLASMA
363. Choose diseases that are caused by Chlamydia spp.:

a. [X] Trachoma
b. [X] Granuloma venereum
c. [X] Lymphogranuloma venereum
d. [ ] Phthiriasis
e. [X] Psittacosis and ornithosis
364. Clinical forms of urogenital clamidiosis in women are:
a. [ ] Vulvovaginitis
b. [X] Urethritis
c. [X] Cervicitis
d. [X] Pelvic inflammatory disease
e. [X] Endometritis
365. Clinical forms of urogenital clamidiosis in men are:
a. [ ] Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. [ ] Perihepatitis
c. [X] Urethritis
d. [X] Prostatitis
e. [X] Epididymitis
366. What laboratory test is urogenital clamidiosis confirmed by:
a. [X] Transcriptional amplification and PCR
b. [ ] Culture isolation on non-cell medium
c. [X] Culture isolation on cell medium
d. [X] Direct and indirect immunofluorescence
e. [X] Enzyme immunoassay (ELISA)
367. What antibiotics are effective for treatment of clamidiosis:
a. [X] Ofloxacin
b. [ ] Penicillin
c. [ ] Spectinomycin
d. [X] Doxycycline
e. [X] Azithromycin
368. Basic clinical findings of Reiter’s syndrome are:
a. [X] Conjunctivitis
b. [X] Arthritis
c. [ ] Inguinal lymphadenitis
d. [X] Urethritis
e. [ ] Labyrinthitis
369. Additional clinical features of Reiter’s syndrome are:
a. [ ] Alopecia
b. [X] Psoriasiform lesions
c. [X] Erosions in the oral cavity
d. [X] Erosions on genitalia
e. [X] Nail dystrophies
370. Choose medicines that are used for treatment of Reiter’s syndrome:
a. [ ] Penicillins and cephalosporins
b. [X] Tetracyclines and macrolides
c. [X] Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
d. [X] Corticosteroids
e. [X] Cytotoxic agents
51
371. What mycoplasmas cause urogenital infections:

a. [ ] Mycoplasma orale
b. [X] Mycoplasma hominis
c. [X] Mycoplasma genitalium
d. [ ] Mycoplasma salivarium
e. [X] Ureaplasma urealyticum
372. What antibiotics are effective for treatment of urogenital mycoplasmosis:
a. [ ] Penicillins
b. [ ] Cephalosporins
c. [X] Tetracyclines
d. [X] Macrolides
e. [X] Fluorquinolones
HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS DISEASE
373. Biochemical composition of human immunodeficiency virus includes:

a. [ ] DNA
b. [X] RNA
c. [X] Proteins
d. [X] Glycoproteins
e. [X] Lipids
374. Target-cells for human immunodeficiency virus are:
a. [X] Macrophages
b. [X] Langerhans cells
c. [X] Helper T lymphocytes
d. [ ] Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
e. [X] Monocytes
375. Modes of transmission of HIV infection are:
a. [X] Sexual contact
b. [X] With non-sterile instruments, syringes and needles
c. [X] Blood transfusion
d. [X] Transplacental or with mothers milk
e. [ ] With insects bites
376. HIV infection can be transmitted by:
a. [ ] Saliva
b. [X] Blood
c. [ ] Tears
d. [X] Sperm
e. [X] Cervix discharge
377. What clinical features are common for acute retroviral syndrome:
a. [ ] Kaposi sarcoma
b. [X] Pseudoinfluenzal and pseudo-mononucleosis syndrome
c. [X] Generalized persistent lymphadenopathy
d. [ ] Candidiasis with esophageal, bronchi and lungs involvement
e. [X] Morbilliform rash
52
378. What clinical findings are common for pre-AIDS:

a. [X] Persistent and recurrent stomatitis due to Candida albicans
b. [X] Generalized, symmetric lesions of Herpes Zoster
c. [X] Disseminated, prolonged lesions of herpes simplex
d. [ ] Kaposi sarcoma
e. [X] Oral hairy leukoplakia
379. What clinical manifestations are common for manifested AIDS:
a. [X] Visceral candidiasis with esophageal, pharynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs involvement
b. [ ] Oropharyngeal candidiasis
c. [X] Disseminated cryptococcosis
d. [X] Extrapulmonary and pulmonary tuberculosis
e. [X] Kaposi sarcoma
380. What anamnestic and clinical data are common for epidemic Kaposi sarcoma:
a. [ ] It’s common among the women
b. [ ] It’s typical for heterosexuals
c. [X] Young age onset
d. [X] Face, trunk, mucous membranes involvement
e. [X] Aggressive evolution
381. What lesions are typical for Kaposi sarcoma:
a. [ ] Pustule
b. [X] Nodule
c. [ ] Vesicle
d. [X] Macule
e. [ ] Wheal
382. What laboratory tests is HIV infection confirmed and followed up by:
a. [ ] Tzanck smear
b. [ ] Culture isolation on non-cell medium
c. [X] Enzyme immunoassay (ELISA)
d. [X] Polymerized chain reaction (PCR)
e. [X] Western-Blot assay
383. What immune disturbances are specific for HIV infection:
a. [ ] Decrease of T8 lymphocytes
b. [X] Decrease of T4/T8 ratio (less 1.3-1)
c. [X] Decrease or absence of the delayed hypersensitivity reaction
d. [X] Increase level of the immunoglobulin spontaneous secretion
e. [ ] Increase of interferon synthesis
384. Choose antiretroviral agents used for treatment of HIV infection:
a. [X] Nucleoside inhibitors of reverse transcriptase
b. [X] Nucleotide inhibitors of reverse transcriptase
c. [X] Non-nucleoside inhibitors of reverse transcriptase
d. [ ] Lipase inhibitors
e. [X] Protease inhibitors
385. Choose specific antiretroviral agents used for HIV treatment:
a. [ ] Acyclovir
b. [ ] Foscarnet
c. [X] Indinavir
d. [X] Zidovudine
e. [X] Nevirapine
53
Pityriasis rosea Gibert
386. What clinical findings are typical for pityriasis rosea Gibert:
a. [X] Onset of the erythematous scaling herald patch
b. [ ] Roseolous or scaling papular lesions which occur simultaneously with herald patch
c. [X] Roseolous or scaling papular lesions which occur several days after herald patch
d. [X] Rugous eruptions covered by branny scales
e. [ ] Lesions with smooth, nitidous surface without scaling
387. Characteristic features of lesions in pityriasis rosea Gibert are:
a. [X] Paleness of central part of the lesion
b. [X] Poor defined scaling margins
c. [X] Light pruritus
d. [ ] Positive Wickham sign
e. [ ] Positive Baltzer sign
388. What viruses are incriminated in the development of pityriasis rosea Gibert:
a. [X] Human herpes viruses 6 and 7
b. [X] ECHO virus
c. [X] Parainfluenza viruses
d. [ ] Human papillomavirus
e. [ ] HIV
54

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Bessisy Tamir – M1248

Anatomy, histology and physiology of the skin.

1. Normal basal cell layer is composed of:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

8. What substances do fibroblasts synthesize:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

15. Secretory structures of the skin include:

HISTOPATHOLOGY OF THE SKIN

20. Choose histopathological changes which occur in the epidermis:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

APPROACH TO DERMATOLGIC DIAGNOSIS

22. Primary skin lesions are:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

29. Secondary skin lesions are:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

ACNE VULGARIS. ROSACEA. VIRAL INFECTIONS OF THE SKIN.

31. Non-inflammatory lesions in acne vulgaris are:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

39. What medicines decrease sebum secretion in seborrhea:

42. Factors which play a role in pathogenesis of rosacea are:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

47. Topical therapy of herpes simplex includes:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

55. Treatment for molluscum contagiosum includes:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

63. Modes of molluscum contagiosum transmission are:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

70. What skin lesions are common for scabies:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

78. What clinical features of scabies are common in children:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

86. Choose therapy used for phthirus pubis treatment:

88. Normal skin flora is composed of:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

94. What bacteria are main causative agents of follicular pyodermas:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

102. Causative agents of pyodermas are:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

SKIN FUNGAL INFECTIONS

106. Choose clinical forms of dermatophytosis:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

114. What sites does Kerion affect:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

122. What dermatophytes are zoo-anthropophilic:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

130. What fungus is causative agent of Tinea versicolor:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

138. Clinical forms of cutaneous candidiasis are:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

146. What investigations confirm Kerion:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

154. Choose antifungals from imidazole group:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

PSORIASIS AND LICHEN PLANUS

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

179. What clinical signs are typical for psoriasis vulgaris:

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

Bessisy Tamir – M1248

CONECTIVE TISSUE DISEASES

Bessisy Tamir – M1248