Blood Banking and Serology

1. Isoimmunisation to platelet antigen (PI A1) and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies
would be xpected to cause newborn:
a. Erythroblastosis
b. Leukocytosis
c. Leukopenia
d. Thrombocytopenia

2. Following plasmaheresis, how long must a person wait before being eligible to donate a unit of
Whole Blood?
a. 8 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 48 hours
d. 24 hours

3. Each unit of whole blood will yield approximately how many units of cryoprecipitated AHF?
a. 40
b. 80
c. 130
d. 250

4. Addition of which of the following will enhance the shelf- life of whole blood?
a. Heparin
b. Adenine
c. Hydroxyethyl starch
d. Lactated Ringer’s solution

5. Pretransfusion compatibility testing must include:

a. Antibody screening by antiglobulin test
b. Autocontrol
c. Minor crossmatch
d. D test on recipient

6. Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?
a. ABO
b. Rh
c. Kell
d. Duffy

7. Under extreme emergency conditions when there is no time to determine ABO group for
transfusion, the technologist should:
a. Refuse to release any blood until the patient’s sample has been typed
b. Release O, Rh- negative whole bold
c. Release O, Rh- negative red blood cells
d. Release O, Rh- positive red blood cells

8. An obstetrical patient has had three previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy; the second
was jaundiced at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. Which
of the following is the most likely cause?
a. ABO incompatibility
b. Immune deficiency disease
c. Congenital spherocytic anemia
d. Rh incompatibility
 Blood Banking and Serology

9. With regard to inheritance, most blood group systems are:

a. Sex- linked dominant
b. Sex- linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Autosomal codominant

10. The optimum storage temperature for Cryoprecipitate AHF is:

a. 22oC
b. 4o C
c. - 12o C
d. - 20o C

11. The optimum storage temperature for Platelets is:

a. 22oC
b. 4o C
c. - 12o C
d. - 20o C
12. The optimum storage temperature for Red blood Cells, Frozen is:
a. 4o C
b. – 12o C
c. – 20o C
d. – 80o C

13. The optimum storage temperature for Whole Blood is:

a. 4o C
b. – 12o C
c. – 20o C
d. – 80o C

14. Quality control tests must be performed daily on:

a. Reagent red blood cells
b. Oral thermometers
c. Banked whole blood
d. Centrifuge timers

15. Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility include:

a. Mother is Rh- negative
b. Infant is Rh- negative
c. Mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen
d. Infant has a positive direct a antiglobulin test

16. Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?

a. A tattoo 5 months previously
b. Recent close contactwith a patient with viral hepatitis
c. Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously
d. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

17. The major crossmatch will detect a(n):

a. Group A patient mistyped as group O
b. Irregular antibody in the donor unit
c. Rh- negative donor unit mislabelled as Rh- positive
d. Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
 Blood Banking and Serology

18. Cells of the A3 subgroup will :

a. React with Dolichos biflorus
b. Not be agglutinated by anti- A
c. Give a mixed field reaction with anti- A, B
d. Not be agglutinated by anti- H

19. Mixed- field reactions with anti- A and anti- A, B and negative reactions with anti- B and anti-
A1 lectin (Dolichos biflorus) are observed. Without further testing, the most likely conclusion is
that the patient is group:
a. A1
b. A2
c. A3
d. A4

20. Anti- Fy is:

a. Usually a cold- reactive agglutinin
b. More reactive when tested with enzyme- treated red blood cells
c. Capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions
d. Often an autoagglutinin

21. A patient received two units of Red Blood Cells and had a delayed hemolytic transfusion
reaction. Pretransfusion records indicate a negative antibody screen. Repeat testing of the
pretransfusion specimen detected an antibody at the antiglobulin phase. What is the most likely
explanation for the original results?
a. Red cells were overwashed
b. Centrifugation time was prolonged
c. Patient’s serum was omitted from the original testing
d. Antiglobulin reagent was neutralized

22. Which one of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination?

a. RBCs typing as D positive
b. Presence of red cell autoantibody
c. Decreased serum bilirubin
d. Agglutination with normal adult ABO- compatible sera

23. Anti-Sd is strongly suspected if:

a. The patient has been previously transfused
b. The agglutinates are mixed- field and refractile
c. The patient is group A or B
d. Only a small number of panel cells are reactive

24. Mixed- field agglutination at the anti- human globulin phase of a crossmatch may be attributed
to:
a. Recently transfused cells
b. Intrauterine exchange transfusion
c. An antibody such as anti- Sd
d. Fetomaternal hemorrhage
 Blood Banking and Serology

25. In suspected cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn, what significant information can be
obtained from the baby’s blood smear?
a. Estimation of WBC, RBC, and platelet counts
b. Marked increase in immature neutrophils (shift to the left)
c. A differential to estimate the absolute number of lymphocytes present
d. Determination of the presence of spherocytes and elevated numbers of nucleated red blood
cells’

26. As a preventive measure against graft- versus- host disease, red blood cells prepared for infants
who have received intrauterine transfusions should be:
a. Saline- washed
b. Irradiated
c. Frozen and deglycerolized
d. Group and Rh compatible with the mother

27. Which of the following is the preferred specimen for the initial compatibility testing in exchange
transfusion therapy?
a. Maternal serum
b. Eluate prepared from infant’s red blood cells
c. Paternal serum
d. Infant’s post exchange serum

28. When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant’s antibody-
sensitized red blood cells and to control hyperbilirubinemia, the blood product of choice is ABO
compatible:
a. Fresh Whole Blood
b. Red Blood Cells washed
c. Fresh Frozen Plasma
d. Heparinized Red Blood Cells

29. Which one of the following histories represents an acceptable donor?

Hct BP Temperature Pulse Age Sex
a. 39 110/70 99.8 75 40 F
b. 37 135/85 98.6 80 35 M
c. 41 90/50 99.4 65 65 M
d. 45 115/80 98.6 102 17 M

30. According to AABB standards, 75% of all Platelet, Pheresis units tested shall contain how many
platelets per µL?
a. 5.5 x 10 10
b. 6.5 x 10 10
c. 3.0 x 10 11
d. 5.0 x 10 11

31. Following the second spin in the preparation of Platelet, Pheresis units tested shall contain how
many platelets per µL?
a. Allowed to sit undisturbed for 1 hour
b. Agitated immediately
c. Pooled immediately
d. Transfused within 48 hours
 Blood Banking and Serology

32. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of Platelets, from whole blood?
a. Light spin followed by a hard spin
b. Light spin followed by two hard spins
c. Two light spins
d. Hard spin followed by a light spin

33. The purpose of a low- dose irradiation of blood components is to:

a. Prevent posttransfusion purpura
b. Prevent graft- versus- host (GVH) disease
c. Sterilize components
d. Prevent noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

34. Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22o C- 24oC in 50 mL of plasma and
gently agitated can be used for up to:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 3 days
d. 5 days

35. The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha:
a. Galactosyl transferase
b. N- acetylgalactosaminyl transferase
c. L- fucosyl transferase
d. Glucosyl transferase

36. Refer to the following data:

Forward Group Reverse Group
Anti- A Anti- B Anti- A1 Lectin A1- cells A2- Cells Bcells
4+ neg 4+ neg 2+ 4+
The ABO discrepancy seen above is most likely due to:
a. Anti- A1
b. Roleaux
c. Anti- H
d. Unexpected IgG antibody present

37. A 25- year- old Caucasian woman, gravida 3, para 2, required two units of Whole Blood. The
antibody screen was positive and the results of the antibody panel are shown above. Which of the
following antibodies may be the cause of the positive antibody screen?
a. Anti- M and anti-K
b. Anti-c and anti- E
c. Anti- s and anti-c
d. Anti- Fyb and anti-c

38. A 25- year- old Caucasian woman, gravida 3, para 2, required two units of Whole Blood. The
antibody screen was positive and the results of the antibody panel are shown above. What is the
most probable genotype of this patient?
a. rr
b. r’r’
c. Ror
d. R1R1
 Blood Banking and Serology

39. A 25- year- old Caucasian woman, gravida 3, para 2, required two units of Whole Blood. The
antibody screen was positive and the results of the antibody panel are shown above. Which
common antibody has NOT been ruled out by the panel?
a. Anti- S
b. Anti- Lea
c. Anti- Jka
d. Anti- K

40. A patient’s serum reacted weakly positive (1+w) with 16 of 16 group O panel c3ells at the AHG
test phase. The autocontrol was negative. Tests with ficin- treated panel cells demonstrated no
reactivity at the AHG phase. Which antibody is most likely responsible for these results?
a. Anti- Ch
b. Anti-k
c. Anti-e
d. Anti- Jsa

41. Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by:
a. Causing rapid decay of complement components
b. Chelating Mg++ ions, which prevents the assembly of C6
c. Chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1
d. Preventing chemotaxis

42. A Kleihauer- Betke stain of a postpartum blood film revealed 0.3% fetal cells. What is the
estimated volume (mL) of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole blood?
a. 5 c. 25
b. 15 d. 35

43. The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:
a. Fresh Frozen Plasma
b. Platelets
c. Fresh Whole Blood
d. Cryoprecipitated AHF

44. An assay of plasma from a bag of cryoprecipitate AHF yields a concentration of 9 international
units (IU) of factor VIII per mL of cryoprecipitate AHE. If the volume is 9mL, what is the Factor
VIII content of the bag in IU?
a. 9
b. 18
c. 27
d. 81

45. The approximate percentage of the original plasma content of Factor VIII recovered in
cryoprecipitate AHF is:
a. 10%- 20%
b. 20%- 40%
c. 40%- 80%
d. 80%- 100%

46. A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis, and mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood
component for this infant would be:
a. Red blood cells c. Platelets
b. Fresh frozen plasma d. Cryoprecipitated AHF
 Blood Banking and Serology

47. A 65-year-old woman experienced shaking, chills and a fever of 103oF approximately 40 minutes
following the transfusion of a second unit of Red Blood Cells. The most likely explanation for
the patient’s symptoms is:
a. Transfusion of bacterially contaminated blood
b. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload
c. Anaphylactic transfusion reaction
d. Severe febrile transfusion reaction

48. An acid elution stain was made using a 1- hour post delivery maternal blood sample. Two
thousand cells were counted and thirty of these cells appeared to contain fetal hemoglobin. It is
the policy of the medical center to add one vial of Rh immune globulin to the calculated dose
when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 mL of whole blood. Calculate the
number of vials of Rh immune globulin to that would be indicated under these circumstances.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

49. The Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn is based on the
amniotic fluid:
a. Bilirubin concentration by standard methods
b. Change in optical density measured at 450nm
c. Rh determination
d. Ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin

50. A unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma was inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4o
C on Monday morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement
for:
a. All coagulation factors c. Factor VIII
b. Factor V d. Factor IX

Immunology
51. Which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is true?
a. Immunoglobulins are produced by T lymphocytes
b. The IgA class is determined by the gamma heavy chain
c. The IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules
d. There are two subclasses of IgG

52. The classic antibody response pattern following infection with hepatitis A is:
a. Increase in IgM antibody; decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody
b. Detectable presence of IgG antibody only
c. Detectable presence of IgM antibody only
d. Decrease in IgM antibody; increase in IgG antibody of the IgG3 subtype

53. Which of the following is the major residual split portion of C3?
a. C3a
b. C3b
c. C4
d. C1q

54. Which of the following releases histamine and other mediators from basophils?
a. C3a
b. Properdin factor B
c. C1q
d. C4
 Blood Banking and Serology

55. The component associated only with the alternative pathway of complement activation is:
a. C4
b. C1q
c. Properdin factor B
d. C3a

56. Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway?
a. Properdin factor B
b. C1q
c. C4
d. C3b

57. The enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique for the detection of HBsAg:
a. Requires radiolabeled C1q
b. Is quantitated by degree of fluorescence
c. Uses anti- HBs linked to horseradish peroxidase
d. Uses beads coated with HbsAg

58. Rheumatoid factor is:

a. An antigen found in the serum of patients with rheumatoid arthritis
b. Identical to the arthritis precipitin
c. IgG or IgM autoantibody
d. Capable of forming circulating immune complexes only when IgM- type autoantibody is present

59. The presence of immune complexes indicates:

a. Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia
b. Inflammatory tissue injury
c. Protection from complement- dependent neutrophil chemotaxis
d. Normal host response to antigenic exposure

60. The complement component C3:

a. Is increased( in plasma levels) when complement activation occurs
b. Can be measured by immunoprecitin assays
c. Releases histamine from basophils or mast cells
d. Is NOT involved in the alternate complement pathway

61. Chronic carriers of HBV:

a. Have chronic symptoms of hepatitis
b. Continue to carry the HBV
c. Do not transmit infection
d. Carry the HBV but are not infectious

62. The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:
a. HBs
b. Hbe
c. HBc
d. HBV

63. Hepatitis C (nonenteric form of non- A, non- B hepatitis) differs from hepatitis A and hepatitis B
because it:
a. Has highly stable incubation period
b. Is associated with a high incidence of icteric hepatitis
c. Is associated with a high incidence of the chronic carrier state
d. Is seldom implicated in cases of posttransfusion hepatitis

64. Which of the following mediators is released during T cell activation?

a. Immunoglobulins
b. Thymosin
c. Serotonin
d. Lymphokines
 Blood Banking and Serology

65. The J- chain is associated with which of the following immunoglobulins?

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgD

66. Initiation of the activation mechanism of the alternative complement pathway differs from that of
the classical pathway in that:
a. Antigen- antibody complexes containing IgM or IgG are required
b. Endotoxin alone cannot initiate activation
c. C1 component of complement is involved
d. Antigen- antibody complexes containing IgA or IgE may initiate activation

67. The C3b component of complement:

a. Is undetectable in pathologic sera
b. Is a component of the C3 cleaving enzyme of the classical pathway
c. Is cleaved by C3 inactivator into C3c and C3d
d. Migrates farther toward the cathode than C3

68. The serum hemolytic complement level (CH50):

a. is a measure of total complement activity
b. provides the same information as a serum factor B level
c. is detectable when any component of the classical system is congenially absent
d. can be calculated from the serum concentrations of the individual component

69. A 26- year old nurse developed fatigue, a low grade fever, polyarthritis and urticaria. Two
months earlier she had cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are
likely to be observed in this nurse?
a. negative hepatitis B surface antigen test
b. elevated AST and ALT levels
c. a positive rheumatoid factor
d. a positive Monospot TM test

70. The FTA- ABS test for the serologic diagnosis of syphilis is:
a. less sensitive and specific than the VDRL is properly performed
b. likely to remain positive after adequate antibiotic therapy
c. currently recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid
d. preferred over darkfield microscopy for diagnosing primary syphilis

71. The hyperviscosity syndrome is most likely to be seen in monoclonal disease of which of the
following immunoglobulin classes?
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgM d. IgD

72. Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by major physiochemical differences and
antigenic variation found primarily in the:
a. constant region of heavy chain
b. constant region of light chain
c. variable regions of heavy and light chains
d. constant regions of heavy and light chains

73. Which of the following complement components is a strong chemotactic factor as well as a strong
anaphylatoxin?
a. C3a c. C5a
b. C3b d. C4a
 Blood Banking and Serology

74. Which of the following complement components or pair of components is a viral neutralizer?
a. C1 c. C2b
b. C1, 4 d. C3a

75. Which of the following activities is associated with C3b?

a. opsonization
b. anaphylaxis
c. vasoconstriction
d. chemotaxis

76. Immediate hypersensitivity is most commonly associated with:

a. transfusion reaction
b. anaphylactic reaction
c. contact dermatitis
d. bacterial septicemia

77. A transfusion reaction to erythrocyte antigens will activate which of the following
immunopathologic mechanisms?
a. immediate hypersensitivity
b. arthus reaction
c. delayed hypersentivity
d. immune cytolysis

78. Delayed hypersensitivity is related to;

a. contact sensitivity to inorganic chemicals
b. transfusion reaction
c. anaphylactic reaction
d. bacterial septicemia

79. High titers of anti-microsomal antibodies are most often found in:
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. systemic lupus erythematosus
c. chronic hepatitis
d. thyroid disease

80. SLE patients often have which of the following test results?
a. high titers of DNA antibody
b. decreased serum immunoglobulin levels
c. high- titers of anti- smooth muscle antibodies
d. high titers of antimichondrial body

81. Anti- RNA antibodies are often present in individuals having an antinuclear antibody
immunoflourescent pattern that is;
a. speckled
b. rim
c. diffuse
d. nucleolar

82. Antibodies to which of the following immunoglobulins are known to have produced anaphylactic
reactions following blood transfusion?
a. IgA c. IgE
b. IgD d. IgG
 Blood Banking and Serology

83. The latex agglutination titer commonly considered as the lower limit of positivity for diagnosis of
rheumatoid arthritis is;
a. 1:2 c. 1: 160
b. 1:40 d. 1: 6

84. A 16-year- old boy with infectious mononucleosis has a cold agglutinin titer of 1: 2000. An
important consideration of this antibody’s clinical relevance is the:
a. thermal range c. specificity
o
b. titer at 4 C d. light chain type

85. Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?
a. monocyte c. basophil
b. neutrophil d. eosinophil

86. A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin- lecithin- cholesterol
antigen is:
a. FTA- ABS
b. RPR
c. MHA- TP
d. TPI

87. In the FTA- ABS test, the presence of beaded pattern of fluorescence along the treponeme
indicates:
a. positive identification of treponema pallidum
b. presumptive diagnosis of active syphilis
c. presence of nontreponemal antibody (NTA)
d. false- positive reaction

88. The most important use of nontreponemal antibody (NTA) test alone is in;
a. establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis
b. establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis
c. evaluating the success of therapy
d. determining the prevalence of disease in the general population

89. The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is;
a. nontreponemal antibody
b. CSF- VDRL
c. FTA- ABS
d. MHA- TP

90. The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is the production of which
class(es) of antibodies?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. both IgG and IgA
 Blood Banking and Serology

91. Within one week after exposure to rash illness, a maternal serum rubella titer that is equal to or
greater than 1:8 indicates:
a. probable immunity to rubella
b. evidence of acute rubella infection
c. susceptibility to rubella infection
d. absence of acute rubella

92. Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta?

a. IgG1 c. IgG3
b.1gG2 d.IgG4

93. The area of the immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region is located between
which domains?
a. VH and VL c. CH2 and CH3
b. CH1 and CH2 d. CH3 and VL

94. Which class of immunoglobulin is thought to function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface
of immune B lymphocytes?
a. IgD c. IgA
b. IgM d. IgD

95. Which of the following terms describes a graft between genetically unidentical individuals
belonging to the same species?
a. autograft c. allograft
b. isograft d. xenograft

96. Which of the following is the “recognition unit” in the classical complement pathway?
a. C1q c. C4
b. C3a d. C5

97. A series of eight tubes are set- up with 0.79 mL of diluent in each. A serial dilution is performed
by adding 10uL of serum to the first tube, and then transferring 10 uL through each remaining
tube. What is the serum dilution of tube 7?
a. 1:2.431 x 1011
b. 1:2 621 x 10 11
c. 1:1.920 x 10 13
d. 1:2.097 x 10 13

98. Patients suffering from Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased

concentrations of which of the following?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

99. The presence of HbsAg, anti- HBc and often HbeAg is characteristic of:
a. early acute phase HBV hepatitis
b. early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis
c. recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis
d. carrier state of acute HBV hepatitis
 Blood Banking and Serology

100. The disappearance of HbsAg and HbeAg, the persistence of anti- HBc, the appearance of anti-
HBs and often of anti- HBe indicate:
a. early acute HBV hepatitis
b. early convalescent phase HBV hepatitis
c. recovery phase of acute HBV hepatitis
d. carrier state of acute HBV hepatiti
Blood Banking and Serology