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GATE
Mechanical Engineering
Question Papers
E-Book
(2013-2015)
SOLVED
Introduction
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test paper of GATE ME.
GATE
Question Paper
2015
(with Solutions)
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
Notations :
Question Paper Name: ME : MECHANICAL ENGINEERING 1st Feb Shift1

Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0
Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.
Section Marks: 15.0
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.
Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ
Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT
Correct Answer :
1.9 to 2.2
Options :

Options :
Section Marks: 85.0
Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Correct answer :
0.96 to 0.98
Correct Answer :
7.8 to 8.2

Correct Answer :
76 to 78
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
0.38 to 0.42
Correct Answer :
171 to 175
Options :
Options :
Options :
Correct Answer :
4.9 to 5.1
Options :
Correct Answer :
9.8 to 10.2
Options :
Correct Answer :
24 to 26
Question Number : 30 Question Type : SA
Correct Answer :
0.66 to 0.69

Options :
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
34000 to 36000
Options :
Correct Answer :
214 to 218
Options :
Correct Answer :
21.8 to 22.2
Correct Answer :
29.5 to 29.7

Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
0.15 to 0.17
Options :
Correct Answer :115 to 120

Options :
Correct Answer :
43 to 45
Options :
Options :
Options :
Correct Answer :
6.2 to 6.3
Options :
Options :
Correct Answer :
4.5
Correct Answer :
-117 to -115
Options :

Correct Answer :
3.6 to 3.8
Correct Answer :
6.0 to 6.3
Options :
Correct Answer :
95.14 to 95.20
Options :
Correct Answer :
2.0 to 2.2
Options :

Correct Answer :
39 to 40
Correct Answer :
68000 to 72000
GATE
Question Paper
2014
(with Solutions)
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A Career is a Life National Defence
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GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination
1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.
Navigating to a Question :
7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
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c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
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Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
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You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.
Answering a Question :
8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.
11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.
Choosing a Section :
13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
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only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.
Changing the Optional Section :
18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.
19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section?” If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.
20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
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GATE 2014 Examination
ME: Mechanical Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
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GATE 2014 SET- 5 General Aptitude -GA
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “India is a country of rich heritage and cultural diversity.”
Which one of the following facts best supports the claim made in the above sentence?
(A) India is a union of 28 states and 7 union territories.
(B) India has a population of over 1.1 billion.
(C) India is home to 22 official languages and thousands of dialects.
(D) The Indian cricket team draws players from over ten states.
Q.2 The value of one U.S. dollar is 65 Indian Rupees today, compared to 60 last year. The Indian Rupee
has ____________.
(A) depressed (B) depreciated (C) appreciated (D) stabilized
Q.3 'Advice' is ________________.

(A) a verb (B) a noun (C) an adjective (D) both a verb and a noun
Q.4 The next term in the series 81, 54, 36, 24, … is ________
Q.5 In which of the following options will the expression P < M be definitely true?
(A) M < R > P > S (B) M > S < P < F (C) Q < M < F = P (D) P = A < R < M
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 Find the next term in the sequence: 7G, 11K, 13M, ___
(A) 15Q (B) 17Q (C) 15P (D) 17P
GA 1/3
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Q.7 The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows the population of animals in a reserve forest. The
correct conclusions from this information are:
(i) Butterflies are birds

(ii) There are more tigers in this forest than red ants
(iii) All reptiles in this forest are either snakes or crocodiles
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in this forest
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Q.8 A man can row at 8 km per hour in still water. If it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as to
row downstream, then find the stream velocity in km per hour.
GA 2/3
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Q.9 A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in 2012. The following pie chart presents the share of
raw material, labour, energy, plant & machinery, and transportation costs in the total manufacturing
cost of the firm in 2012. The expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs. 4,50,000. In 2013, the raw
material expenses increased by 30% and all other expenses increased by 20%. If the company
registered a profit of Rs. 10 lakhs in 2012, at what price (in Rs.) was each air purifier sold?
Q.10 A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected by testing four randomly chosen bulbs. The batch is
rejected if even one of the bulbs is defective. A batch typically has five defective bulbs. The
probability that the current batch is accepted is
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 3/3
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GATE 2014 SET-3 MECHANICAL – ME
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Consider a 3×3 real symmetric matrix S such that two of its eigenvalues are � � �� with
��
respective eigenvectors� � �, �� . If � � � then �� equals
�
��
(A) a (B) b (C) ab (D) 0
Q.2 If a function is continuous at a point,

(A) the limit of the function may not exist at the point
(B) the function must be derivable at the point
(C) the limit of the function at the point tends to infinity
(D) the limit must exist at the point and the value of limit should be same as the value of the
function at that point
Q.3 Divergence of the vector field x 2 z iˆ + x y ˆj − y z 2 kˆ at (1, −1, 1) is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.4 A group consists of equal number of men and women. Of this group 20% of the men and 50% of
the women are unemployed. If a person is selected at random from this group, the probability of the
selected person being employed is _______
Q.5 � �
The definite integral �� is evaluated using Trapezoidal rule with a step size of 1. The correct
�
answer is _______
Q.6 A rotating steel shaft is supported at the ends. It is subjected to a point load at the center. The
maximum bending stress developed is 100 MPa. If the yield, ultimate and corrected endurance
strength of the shaft material are 300 MPa, 500 MPa and 200 MPa, respectively, then the factor of
safety for the shaft is _______
Q.7 Two solid circular shafts of radii R1 and R2 are subjected to same torque. The maximum shear
stresses developed in the two shafts are �� and �� . If R1/ R2=2, then �� is _______
Q.8 Consider a single degree-of-freedom system with viscous damping excited by a harmonic force. At
resonance, the phase angle (in degree) of the displacement with respect to the exciting force is
(A) 0 (B) 45 (C) 90 (D) 135
ME 1/12
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Q.9 A mass m1 of 100 kg travelling with a uniform velocity of 5 m/s along a line collides with a
stationary mass m2 of 1000 kg. After the collision, both the masses travel together with the same
velocity. The coefficient of restitution is
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.01 (D) 0
Q.10 Which one of following is NOT correct?

(A) Intermediate principal stress is ignored when applying the maximum principal stress theory
(B) The maximum shear stress theory gives the most accurate results amongst all the failure
theories
(C) As per the maximum strain energy theory, failure occurs when the strain energy per unit
volume exceeds a critical value
(D) As per the maximum distortion energy theory, failure occurs when the distortion energy per
unit volume exceeds a critical value
Q.11 Gear 2 rotates at 1200 rpm in counter clockwise direction and engages with Gear 3. Gear 3 and
Gear 4 are mounted on the same shaft. Gear 5 engages with Gear 4. The numbers of teeth on Gears
2, 3, 4 and 5 are 20, 40, 15 and 30, respectively. The angular speed of Gear 5 is
20T 2
3
4 5
40T 15T 30T
(A) 300 rpm counterclockwise (B) 300 rpm clockwise
(C) 4800 rpm counterclockwise (D) 4800 rpm clockwise
Q.12 Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and outer radii, ri and ro , respectively, length, L and
thermal conductivity, k. Its inner and outer surfaces are maintained at Ti and To , respectively
( Ti > To ). Assuming one-dimensional steady state heat conduction in the radial direction, the
thermal resistance in the wall of the tube is
1 ⎛r ⎞ L
(A) ln⎜⎜ i ⎟⎟ (B)
2πkL ⎝ ro 2πri k
⎠
1 ⎛r ⎞ 1 ⎛r ⎞
(C) ln⎜ o ⎟⎟ (D) ln⎜ o ⎟⎟
2πkL ⎜⎝ ri ⎠ 4πkL ⎜⎝ ri ⎠
ME 2/12
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Q.13 Which one of the following pairs of equations describes an irreversible heat engine?
δQ δQ
(A) v∫ δ Q > 0 and v∫ T
<0 (B) v∫ δ Q < 0 and v∫ T
<0
δQ δQ
(C) v∫ δ Q > 0 and v∫ T > 0 (D) v∫ δ Q < 0 and v∫ T > 0
Q.14 Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid through a circular pipe of diameter, D. Identify the correct
pair of statements.
I. The fluid is well-mixed

II. The fluid is unmixed
III. ReD < 2300
IV. ReD > 2300
(A) I, III (B) II, IV (C) II, III (D) I, IV
Q.15 For a gas turbine power plant, identify the correct pair of statements.
P. Smaller in size compared to steam power plant for same power output
Q. Starts quickly compared to steam power plant
R. Works on the principle of Rankine cycle
S. Good compatibility with solid fuel
(A) P, Q (B) R, S (C) Q, R (D) P, S
Q.16 A source at a temperature of 500 K provides 1000 kJ of heat. The temperature of environment is
27°C. The maximum useful work (in kJ) that can be obtained from the heat source is _______
Q.17 A sample of moist air at a total pressure of 85 kPa has a dry bulb temperature of 30°C (saturation
vapour pressure of water = 4.24 kPa). If the air sample has a relative humidity of 65%, the absolute
humidity (in gram) of water vapour per kg of dry air is _______
Q.18 The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is
(A) Ultrasonic Machining (B) Electrochemical Machining

(C) Abrasive Jet Machining (D) Laser Beam Machining
Q.19 The actual sales of a product in different months of a particular year are given below:
September October November December January February

180 280 250 190 240 ?
The forecast of the sales, using the 4-month moving average method, for the month of February
is _______
ME 3/12
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Q.20 A straight turning operation is carried out using a single point cutting tool on an AISI 1020 steel
rod. The feed is 0.2 mm/rev and the depth of cut is 0.5 mm. The tool has a side cutting edge angle
of 60°. The uncut chip thickness (in mm) is _______
Q.21 A minimal spanning tree in network flow models involves

(A) all the nodes with cycle/loop allowed (B) all the nodes with cycle/loop not allowed
(C) shortest path between start and end nodes (D) all the nodes with directed arcs
Q.22 Match the casting defects (Group A) with the probable causes (Group B):
Group A Group B
P: Hot tears 1: Improper fusion of two streams of liquid metal
Q: Shrinkage 2: Low permeability of the sand mould
R: Blow holes 3: Volumetric contraction both in liquid and solid stage
S: Cold Shut 4: Differential cooling rate
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
Q.23 Cutting tool is much harder than the workpiece. Yet the tool wears out during the tool-work
interaction, because
(A) extra hardness is imparted to the workpiece due to coolant used
(B) oxide layers on the workpiece surface impart extra hardness to it
(C) extra hardness is imparted to the workpiece due to severe rate of strain
(D) vibration is induced in the machine tool
ME 4/12
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Q.24 The stress-strain curve for mild steel is shown in the figure given below. Choose the correct option
referring to both figure and table.
Point on the graph Description of the point

P 1. Upper Yield Point
Q 2. Ultimate Tensile Strength
R 3. Proportionality Limit
S 4. Elastic Limit
T 5. Lower Yield Point
U 6. Failure
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4, T-5, U-6

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2, T-6, U-5
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2, U-6
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2, T-3, U-6
Q.25 The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to

(A) high fluidity (B) high melt temperature
(C) wide range of solidification temperature (D) low coefficient of thermal expansion
ME 5/12
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Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 An analytic function of a complex variable z = x + i y is expressed=
as f ( z ) u ( x , y ) + i v ( x , y ) ,
=
where i − 1 . If u ( =
x, y ) x 2 − y 2 , then expression for v ( x, y ) in terms of x, y and a general
constant c would be
(A) x y + c
x2 + y2 (C) 2 x y + c
( x − y) 2
(B) +c (D) +c
2 2
Q.27 Consider two solutions �� and �� of the differential equation
��

� �� 0� � � 0, such that �� 0� � �� 0� �� 0� � 0� � � ��
��
��
The Wronskian �� at � � �� is
��
(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) π/2
Q.28 A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective pieces in a day with associated probability of 1/6, 2/3 and
1/6, respectively. The mean value and the variance of the number of defective pieces produced by
the machine in a day, respectively, are
(A) 1 and 1/3 (B) 1/3 and 1
(C) 1 and 4/3 (D) 1/3 and 4/3
Q.29 The real root of the equation 5 x − 2 cos x − 1 = 0 (up to two decimal accuracy) is _______
Q.30 A drum brake is shown in the figure. The drum is rotating in anticlockwise direction. The
coefficient of friction between drum and shoe is 0.2. The dimensions shown in the figure
are in mm. The braking torque (in N.m) for the brake shoe is _______
1000 N
800
480
100
200
Drum
ME 6/12
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Q.31 A body of mass (M) 10 kg is initially stationary on a 45° inclined plane as shown in figure. The
coefficient of dynamic friction between the body and the plane is 0.5. The body slides down the
plane and attains a velocity of 20 m/s. The distance travelled (in meter) by the body along the plane
is _______
45°
Q.32 Consider a simply supported beam of length, 50h, with a rectangular cross-section of depth, h, and
width, 2h. The beam carries a vertical point load, P, at its mid-point. The ratio of the maximum
shear stress to the maximum bending stress in the beam is
(A) 0.02 (B) 0.10 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.01
Q.33 The damping ratio of a single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system with mass of 1 kg,
stiffness 100 N/m and viscous damping coefficient of 25 N.s/m is _______
Q.34 An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a flat surface
without slipping. If the velocity of the center of mass is v, the kinetic energy of the disc is
9 11 2 13 2 15 2
(A) mv 2 (B) mv (C) mv (D) mv
16 16 16 16
Q.35 A force P is applied at a distance x from the end of the beam as shown in the figure. What would be
the value of x so that the displacement at ‘A’ is equal to zero?
(A) 0.5L (B) 0.25L (C) 0.33L (D) 0.66L
ME 7/12
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Q.36 Consider a rotating disk cam and a translating roller follower with zero offset. Which one of the
following pitch curves, parameterized by t, lying in the interval 0 to 2π, is associated with the
maximum translation of the follower during one full rotation of the cam rotating about the center
at (x, y) = (0, 0) ?
(A) x ( t ) cos
= = t , y ( t ) sin t
(B) x ( t ) cos
= = t , y ( t ) 2 sin t
1
(C) x ( t ) =
+ cos t , y ( t ) =
2sin t
2
1
(D) x ( t ) = + cos t , y ( t ) =
sin t
2
Q.37 A four-wheel vehicle of mass 1000 kg moves uniformly in a straight line with the wheels revolving
at 10 rad/s. The wheels are identical, each with a radius of 0.2 m. Then a constant braking torque is
applied to all the wheels and the vehicle experiences a uniform deceleration. For the vehicle to stop
in 10 s, the braking torque (in N.m) on each wheel is _______
Q.38 A slider-crank mechanism with crank radius 60 mm and connecting rod length 240 mm is shown in
figure. The crank is rotating with a uniform angular speed of 10 rad/s, counter clockwise. For the
given configuration, the speed (in m/s) of the slider is _______
240
60 90°
Q.39 Consider an objective function ܼሺ‫ݔ‬ଵ ǡ ‫ݔ‬ଶ ሻ ൌ ͵‫ݔ‬ଵ ൅ ͻ‫ݔ‬ଶ and the constraints
‫ݔ‬ଵ ൅ ‫ݔ‬ଶ ൑ ͺ,
‫ݔ‬ଵ ൅ ʹ‫ݔ‬ଶ ൑ Ͷ,
‫ݔ‬ଵ ൒ Ͳǡ ‫ݔ‬ଶ ൒ Ͳ.
The maximum value of the objective function is _______
ME 8/12
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Q.40 A mass-spring-dashpot system with mass m = 10 kg, spring constant k = 6250 N/m is excited by a
harmonic excitation of 10 cos(25t) N. At the steady state, the vibration amplitude of the mass is
40 mm. The damping coefficient (c, in N.s/m) of the dashpot is _______
F=10 cos(25t)
c
k
Q.41 A certain amount of an ideal gas is initially at a pressure p1 and temperature T1. First, it undergoes a
constant pressure process 1-2 such that T2 = 3T1/4. Then, it undergoes a constant volume process
2-3 such that T3 = T1/2. The ratio of the final volume to the initial volume of the ideal gas is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.75 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.5
Q.42 An amount of 100 kW of heat is transferred through a wall in steady state. One side of the wall is
maintained at 127°C and the other side at 27°C. The entropy generated (in W/K) due to the heat
transfer through the wall is _______
Q.43 A siphon is used to drain water from a large tank as shown in the figure below. Assume that the
level of water is maintained constant. Ignore frictional effect due to viscosity and losses at entry
and exit. At the exit of the siphon, the velocity of water is
O ZQ
ZP
ZO
ZR R
Datum
(A) ��ZQ � ZR � (B) ��ZP � ZR � (C) ��ZO � ZR � (D) ��ZQ
ME 9/12
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Q.44 Heat transfer through a composite wall is shown in figure. Both the sections of the wall have equal
thickness (l). The conductivity of one section is k and that of the other is 2k. The left face of the
wall is at 600 K and the right face is at 300 K.
600 K Ti 300 K
Heat flow
k 2k
l l
The interface temperature Ti (in K) of the composite wall is _______
Q.45 A fluid of dynamic viscosity 2 × 10−5 kg/m.s and density 1 kg/m3 flows with an average velocity of
1 m/s through a long duct of rectangular (25 mm × 15 mm) cross-section. Assuming laminar flow,
the pressure drop (in Pa) in the fully developed region per meter length of the duct is _______
Q.46 At the inlet of an axial impulse turbine rotor, the blade linear speed is 25 m/s, the magnitude of
absolute velocity is 100 m/s and the angle between them is 25°. The relative velocity and the axial
component of velocity remain the same between the inlet and outlet of the blades. The blade inlet
and outlet velocity triangles are shown in the figure. Assuming no losses, the specific work (in J/kg)
is _______
100 m/s 78 m/s

78 m/s 58.6 m/s
25°
25 m/s
Q.47 A solid sphere of radius r1 = 20 mm is placed concentrically inside a hollow sphere of radius
r2 = 30 mm as shown in the figure.
1
2
r1
r2
The view factor F21 for radiation heat transfer is

ଶ ସ ଼ ଽ
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ଷ ଽ ଶ଻ ସ
ME 10/12
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GATE 20144 SET--3 M
MECHANIC
CAL – ME
Q.48 A double-pipe
d counter-flow
w heat exchaanger transfeers heat betw
ween two waater streams.. Tube side
watter at 19 liteer/s is heatedd from 10°C to 38°C. Sh hell side watter at 25 liteer/s is enterin
ng at 46°C.
Asssume constannt propertiess of water; density
d 00 kg/m3 annd specific heeat is 4186 J/kg.K.
is 100 J The
LM
MTD (in °C) is i _______
Q.49 A diesel
d enginne has a com a cut-off takes place at 10% of the stroke.
mpression raatio of 17 and
Asssuming ratio of specific heats
h (γ) as 1.4,
1 the air-sttandard efficiiency (in perrcent) is ____
____
Q.50 Connsider the giiven project network, whhere numberrs along variious activitiees represent the normal
tim
me. The free float
f on activvity 4-6 and the
t project du
uration, resppectively, aree
2
2 5
3 3
1 2 5 5
3 6 7
2 4
4
(A)) 2, 13 (B) 0, 13 (C) −2, 13 (D) 2, 12
Q.51 A manufacturer
m r can producce 12000 beaarings per daay. The manuufacturer recceived an ord
der of 8000
beaarings per daay from a cuustomer. Thee cost of hollding a beariing in stock is Rs. 0.20 per month.
Settup cost per production run
r is Rs. 5000. Assuming g 300 working days in a year, the frrequency of
prooduction run should be
(A)) 4.5 days (B) 4.5 months (C) 6.8 days (D) 6.8 months
Q.52 A cylindrical
c blind riser wiith diameter d and heightt h, is placedd on the top of the mold cavity of a
closed type sannd mold as shown s he riser is of constant vvolume, then the rate of
in thee figure. If th
soliidification inn the riser is the
t least wheen the ratio h:d
h is
(A)) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1
ME 11/122
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Q.53 The diameter of a recessed ring was measured by using two spherical balls of diameter d2=60 mm
and d1=40 mm as shown in the figure.
The distance H2=35.55 mm and H1=20.55 mm. The diameter (D, in mm) of the ring gauge
is _______
Q.54 Which pair of following statements is correct for orthogonal cutting using a single-point cutting
tool?
P. Reduction in friction angle increases cutting force

Q. Reduction in friction angle decreases cutting force
R. Reduction in friction angle increases chip thickness
S. Reduction in friction angle decreases chip thickness
(A) P and R (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) Q and S
Q.55 For spot welding of two steel sheets (base metal) each of 3 mm thickness, welding current of
10000 A is applied for 0.2 s. The heat dissipated to the base metal is 1000 J. Assuming that the heat
required for melting 1 mm3 volume of steel is 20 J and interfacial contact resistance between sheets
is 0.0002 Ω, the volume (in mm3) of weld nugget is _______
ME 12/12
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GATE 2014
Answer Keys for ME ‐ Mechanical Engineering
SESSION ‐ 5 SESSION ‐ 5
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 C 1 ME 24 C 1
GA 2 B 1 ME 25 C 1
GA 3 B 1 ME 26 C 2
GA 4 16 to 16 1 ME 27 A 2
GA 5 D 1 ME 28 A 2
GA 6 B 2 ME 29 0.53 to 0.56 2
GA 7 D 2 ME 30 63 to 65 2
GA 8 4 to 4 2 ME 31 56 to 59 2
GA 9 20000 to 20000 2 ME 32 D 2
GA 10 0.80 to 0.82 2 ME 33 1.24 to 1.26 2
ME 1 D 1 ME 34 C 2
ME 2 D 1 ME 35 C 2
ME 3 C 1 ME 36 C 2
ME 4 0.64 to 0.66 1 ME 37 9 to 11 2
ME 5 1.1 to 1.2 1 ME 38 0.54 to 0.68 2
ME 6 1.9 to 2.1 1 ME 39 17 to 19 2
ME 7 7.9 to 8.1 1 ME 40 9 to 11 2
ME 8 C 1 ME 41 B 2
ME 9 D 1 ME 42 80 to 85 2
ME 10 B 1 ME 43 B 2
ME 11 A 1 ME 44 399 to 401 2
ME 12 C 1 ME 45 1.7 to 2.0 2
ME 13 A 1 ME 46 3250 to 3300 2
ME 14 D 1 ME 47 B 2
ME 15 A 1 ME 48 10.8 to 11.2 2
ME 16 399 to 401 1 ME 49 58 to 62 2
ME 17 19 to 22 1 ME 50 A 2
ME 18 D 1 ME 51 C 2
ME 19 239 to 241 1 ME 52 A 2
ME 20 0.08 to 0.12 1 ME 53 92 to 94 2
ME 21 B 1 ME 54 D 2
ME 22 B 1 ME 55 140 to 160 2
ME 23 C 1
GATE
Question Paper
2013
(with Solutions)
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2013 Question Booklet Code
A
ME : MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either
a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with
the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or
b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not ME,
then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the appropriate
bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name
and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the
bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE
marks. For all 1 mark questions,  mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks
questions,  mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked
answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no
negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
Question Booklet for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ballpoint pen.
Name
Registration Number ME
ME-A 1/16
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2013 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING - ME
Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.

∂u ∂u ∂ 2 u
Q.1 The partial differential equation +u = is a
∂t ∂x ∂x 2
(A) linear equation of order 2 (B) non-linear equation of order 1

(C) linear equation of order 1 (D) non-linear equation of order 2
Q.2 The eigenvalues of a symmetric matrix are all

(A) complex with non-zero positive imaginary part.
(B) complex with non-zero negative imaginary part.
(C) real.
(D) pure imaginary.
Q.3 Match the CORRECT pairs.
Numerical Integration Scheme Order of Fitting Polynomial

P. Simpson’s 3/8 Rule 1. First
Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second
R. Simpson’s 1/3 Rule 3. Third
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-3 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2
Q.4 A rod of length L having uniform cross-sectional area A is subjected to a tensile force P as shown in
the figure below. If the Young’s modulus of the material varies linearly from E1 to E2 along the
length of the rod, the normal stress developed at the section-SS is
S
E1 E2
P P
L/2 S
P P( E1 − E2 ) PE 2 PE1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A A( E1 + E2 ) AE1 AE2
Q.5 Two threaded bolts A and B of same material and length are subjected to identical tensile load. If
the elastic strain energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of bolt B and the mean diameter of bolt A is
12 mm, the mean diameter of bolt B in mm is
(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 48
ME-A 2/16
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Q.6 A link OB is rotating with a constant angular velocity of 2 rad/s in counter clockwise direction and
a block is sliding radially outward on it with an uniform velocity of 0.75 m/s with respect to the
rod, as shown in the figure below. If OA = 1 m, the magnitude of the absolute acceleration of the
block at location A in m/s2 is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.7 For steady, fully developed flow inside a straight pipe of diameter D, neglecting gravity effects, the
pressure drop ∆p over a length L and the wall shear stress τ w are related by
∆p D ∆p D 2 ∆p D 4 ∆pL
(A) τ w = (B) τ w = (C) τ w = (D) τ w =
4L 4L2 2L D
Q.8 The pressure, dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air in a room are 1 bar, 30°C and 70%,
respectively. If the saturated steam pressure at 30°C is 4.25 kPa, the specific humidity of the room
air in kg water vapour/kg dry air is
(A) 0.0083 (B) 0.0101 (C) 0.0191 (D) 0.0232
Q.9 Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduction, without heat generation, in a plane wall;
with boundary conditions as shown in the figure below. The conductivity of the wall is given by
k = k 0 + bT ; where k0 and b are positive constants, and T is temperature.
T2 whereT2 > T1
T1
x
As x increases, the temperature gradient ( dT dx ) will
(A) remain constant (B) be zero (C) increase (D) decrease
Q.10 In a rolling process, the state of stress of the material undergoing deformation is
(A) pure compression (B) pure shear
(C) compression and shear (D) tension and shear
ME-A 3/16
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Q.11 Match the CORRECT pairs.
Processes Characteristics / Applications

P. Friction Welding 1. Non-consumable electrode
Q. Gas Metal Arc Welding 2. Joining of thick plates
R. Tungsten Inert Gas Welding 3. Consumable electrode wire
S. Electroslag Welding 4. Joining of cylindrical dissimilar materials
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
Q.12 A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread angle 60° is inspected for its pitch diameter using 3-wire
method. The diameter of the best size wire in mm is
(A) 0.866 (B) 1.000 (C) 1.154 (D) 2.000
Q.13 Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a rate of 50 per hr and tickets are issued in the order of their
arrival. The average time taken for issuing a ticket is 1 min. Assuming that customer arrivals form a
Poisson process and service times are exponentially distributed, the average waiting time in queue
in min is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.14 In simple exponential smoothing forecasting, to give higher weightage to recent demand
information, the smoothing constant must be close to
(A) −1 (B) zero (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0
Q.15 A steel bar 200 mm in diameter is turned at a feed of 0.25 mm/rev with a depth of cut of 4 mm. The
rotational speed of the workpiece is 160 rpm. The material removal rate in mm3/s is
(A) 160 (B) 167.6 (C) 1600 (D) 1675.5
Q.16 A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 min. The solidification time in min for a cube of the same
material, which is 8 times heavier than the original casting, will be
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 24 (D) 40
Q.17 For a ductile material, toughness is a measure of
(A) resistance to scratching (B) ability to absorb energy up to fracture
(C) ability to absorb energy till elastic limit (D) resistance to indentation
Q.18 In order to have maximum power from a Pelton turbine, the bucket speed must be
(A) equal to the jet speed. (B) equal to half of the jet speed.
(C) equal to twice the jet speed. (D) independent of the jet speed.
Q.19 Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduction along x-axis (0 ≤ x ≤ L), through a plane
wall with the boundary surfaces (x=0 and x=L) maintained at temperatures of 0°C and 100°C. Heat
is generated uniformly throughout the wall. Choose the CORRECT statement.
(A) The direction of heat transfer will be from the surface at 100°C to the surface at 0°C.
(B) The maximum temperature inside the wall must be greater than 100°C.
(C) The temperature distribution is linear within the wall.
(D) The temperature distribution is symmetric about the mid-plane of the wall.
ME-A 4/16
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Q.20 A cylinder contains 5 m3 of an ideal gas at a pressure of 1 bar. This gas is compressed in a
reversible isothermal process till its pressure increases to 5 bar. The work in kJ required for this
process is
(A) 804.7 (B) 953.2 (C) 981.7 (D) 1012.2
Q.21 A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed at both the ends, is subjected to an internal pressure.
The ratio of the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress developed in the shell is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
Q.22 If two nodes are observed at a frequency of 1800 rpm during whirling of a simply supported long
slender rotating shaft, the first critical speed of the shaft in rpm is
(A) 200 (B) 450 (C) 600 (D) 900
Q.23 A planar closed kinematic chain is formed with rigid links PQ = 2.0 m, QR = 3.0 m, RS = 2.5 m
and SP = 2.7 m with all revolute joints. The link to be fixed to obtain a double rocker (rocker-
rocker) mechanism is
(A) PQ (B) QR (C) RS (D) SP
Q.24 Let X be a normal random variable with mean 1 and variance 4. The probability P{X < 0} is
(A) 0.5 (B) greater than zero and less than 0.5
(C) greater than 0.5 and less than 1.0 (D) 1.0
Q.25 Choose the CORRECT set of functions, which are linearly dependent.
(A) sin x , sin2 x and cos2 x (B) cos x , sin x and tan x
(C) cos 2x , sin2 x and cos2 x (D) cos 2x , sin x and cos x
ME-A 5/16
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Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The following surface integral is to be evaluated over a sphere for the given steady velocity vector
field F = xi + yj + zk defined with respect to a Cartesian coordinate system having i, j and k as
unit base vectors.
1
∫∫ 4 (F .n) dA
S
where S is the sphere, x + y + z = 1 and n is the outward unit normal vector to the sphere. The
2 2 2
value of the surface integral is

(A) π (B) 2 π (C) 3 π /4 (D) 4 π
d2 f
Q.27 The function f (t ) satisfies the differential equation + f = 0 and the auxiliary
dt 2
df
conditions, f (0) = 0, (0) = 4 . The Laplace transform of f (t ) is given by
dt
2 4 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s +1 s +1 s2 +1 s4 +1
Q.28 Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at inlet and exit of a steam turbine, running under steady
state, are as given below:
Specific enthalpy (kJ/kg) Velocity (m/s)

Inlet steam condition 3250 180
Exit steam condition 2360 5
The rate of heat loss from the turbine per kg of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting changes in
potential energy of steam, the power developed in kW by the steam turbine per kg of steam flow
rate, is
(A) 901.2 (B) 911.2 (C) 17072.5 (D) 17082.5
Q.29 Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream
diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2.
Assuming steady, inviscid flow, constant atmospheric pressure everywhere and neglecting
curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter in mm of the stream 0.5 m below the tap is
approximately
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25
Q.30 A steel ball of diameter 60 mm is initially in thermal equilibrium at 1030°C in a furnace. It is

suddenly removed from the furnace and cooled in ambient air at 30°C, with convective heat
transfer coefficient h = 20 W/m2K. The thermo-physical properties of steel are: density
ρ = 7800 kg/m3, conductivity k = 40 W/mK and specific heat c = 600 J/kgK. The time required in
seconds to cool the steel ball in air from 1030°C to 430°C is
(A) 519 (B) 931 (C) 1195 (D) 2144
ME-A 6/16
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Q.31 A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm while running at a
mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to exceed ±2%, the mass
moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg-m2 is
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 125
Q.32 A compound gear train with gears P, Q, R and S has number of teeth 20, 40, 15 and 20,
respectively. Gears Q and R are mounted on the same shaft as shown in the figure below. The
diameter of the gear Q is twice that of the gear R. If the module of the gear R is 2 mm, the center
distance in mm between gears P and S is
Q
P S
+ + +
R
(A) 40 (B) 80 (C) 120 (D) 160
Q.33 A pin jointed uniform rigid rod of weight W and length is supported horizontally by an external
force F as shown in the figure below. The force F is suddenly removed. At the instant of force
removal, the magnitude of vertical reaction developed at the support is
(A) zero (B) W 4 (C) W 2 (D) W
Q.34 Two cutting tools are being compared for a machining operation. The tool life equations are:
Carbide tool: VT 1.6 = 3000
HSS tool: VT 0.6 = 200
where V is the cutting speed in m/min and T is the tool life in min. The carbide tool will provide
higher tool life if the cutting speed in m/min exceeds
(A) 15.0 (B) 39.4 (C) 49.3 (D) 60.0
Q.35 In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P(5,10) is to be obtained about a line which passes
through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-axis. The coordinates of
the transformed point will be
(A) (7.5, 5) (B) (10, 5) (C) (7.5, −5) (D) (10, −5)
ME-A 7/16
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Q.36 A linear programming problem is shown below.

Maximize 3x + 7y
Subject to 3x + 7y ≤ 10
4x + 6y ≤ 8
x, y ≥ 0
It has
(A) an unbounded objective function. (B) exactly one optimal solution.
(C) exactly two optimal solutions. (D) infinitely many optimal solutions.
+ 0 .020
Q.37 Cylindrical pins of 25 + 0 .010 mm diameter are electroplated in a shop. Thickness of the plating is
30 ±2.0 micron. Neglecting gage tolerances, the size of the GO gage in mm to inspect the plated
components is
(A) 25.042 (B) 25.052 (C) 25.074 (D) 25.084
Q.38 During the electrochemical machining (ECM) of iron (atomic weight = 56, valency = 2) at current
of 1000 A with 90% current efficiency, the material removal rate was observed to be 0.26 gm/s. If
Titanium (atomic weight = 48, valency = 3) is machined by the ECM process at the current of
2000 A with 90% current efficiency, the expected material removal rate in gm/s will be
(A) 0.11 (B) 0.23 (C) 0.30 (D) 0.52
Q.39 A single degree of freedom system having mass 1 kg and stiffness 10 kN/m initially at rest is
subjected to an impulse force of magnitude 5 kN for 10−4 seconds. The amplitude in mm of the
resulting free vibration is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 5.0 (D) 10.0
Q.40 A bar is subjected to fluctuating tensile load from 20 kN to 100 kN. The material has yield strength
of 240 MPa and endurance limit in reversed bending is 160 MPa. According to the Soderberg
principle, the area of cross-section in mm2 of the bar for a factor of safety of 2 is
(A) 400 (B) 600 (C) 750 (D) 1000
Q.41 A simply supported beam of length L is subjected to a varying distributed load

sin (3 π x/L) Nm−1, where the distance x is measured from the left support. The magnitude of the
vertical reaction force in N at the left support is
(A) zero (B) L 3π (C) L π (D) 2 L π
Q.42 Two large diffuse gray parallel plates, separated by a small distance, have surface temperatures of
400 K and 300 K. If the emissivities of the surfaces are 0.8 and the Stefan-Boltzmann constant is
5.67 × 10−8W/m2K4, the net radiation heat exchange rate in kW/m2 between the two plates is
(A) 0.66 (B) 0.79 (C) 0.99 (D) 3.96
ME-A 8/16
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Q.43 A hinged gate of length 5 m, inclined at 30° with the horizontal and with water mass on its left, is
shown in the figure below. Density of water is 1000 kg/m3. The minimum mass of the gate in kg per
unit width (perpendicular to the plane of paper), required to keep it closed is
(A) 5000 (B) 6600 (C) 7546 (D) 9623
Q.44 The pressure, temperature and velocity of air flowing in a pipe are 5 bar, 500 K and 50 m/s,
respectively. The specific heats of air at constant pressure and at constant volume are 1.005 kJ/kgK
and 0.718 kJ/kgK, respectively. Neglect potential energy. If the pressure and temperature of the
surroundings are 1 bar and 300 K, respectively, the available energy in kJ/kg of the air stream is
(A) 170 (B) 187 (C) 191 (D) 213
2
Q.45 The probability that a student knows the correct answer to a multiple choice question is . If the
3
student does not know the answer, then the student guesses the answer. The probability of the
1
guessed answer being correct is . Given that the student has answered the question correctly, the
4
conditional probability that the student knows the correct answer is
2 3 5 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 6 9
d 2u du
Q.46 The solution to the differential equation − k = 0 where k is a constant, subjected to the
dx 2 dx
boundary conditions u(0) = 0 and u(L) = U, is
(A) u = U
x  1 − e kx
(B) u = U  
L 1− e
kL

 1 − e − kx   1 + e kx 
(C) u = U  
− kL 
(D) u = U  kL 

1− e  1+ e 
x ln ( x ) dx is
e
Q.47 The value of the definite integral ∫1
4 3 2 2 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 2
(A) e + (B) e − (C) e + (D) e −
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
ME-A 9/16
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Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
A single riveted lap joint of two similar plates as shown in the figure below has the following geometrical
and material details.
P w w P
t
t
width of the plate w = 200 mm, thickness of the plate t = 5 mm, number of rivets n = 3, diameter of the
rivet dr = 10 mm, diameter of the rivet hole dh = 11 mm, allowable tensile stress of the plate σp = 200 MPa,
allowable shear stress of the rivet σs = 100 MPa and allowable bearing stress of the rivet σc = 150 MPa.
Q.48 If the rivets are to be designed to avoid crushing failure, the maximum permissible load P in kN is
(A) 7.50 (B) 15.00 (C) 22.50 (D) 30.00
Q.49 If the plates are to be designed to avoid tearing failure, the maximum permissible load P in kN is
(A) 83 (B) 125 (C) 167 (D) 501
Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
Water (specific heat, cp = 4.18 kJ/kgK) enters a pipe at a rate of 0.01 kg/s and a temperature of 20°C. The
pipe, of diameter 50 mm and length 3 m, is subjected to a wall heat flux qW′′ in W/m2:
Q.50 If qW′′ = 2500x, where x is in m and in the direction of flow (x = 0 at the inlet), the bulk mean
temperature of the water leaving the pipe in °C is
(A) 42 (B) 62 (C) 74 (D) 104
Q.51 If qW′′ = 5000 and the convection heat transfer coefficient at the pipe outlet is 1000 W/m2K, the
temperature in °C at the inner surface of the pipe at the outlet is
(A) 71 (B) 76 (C) 79 (D) 81
ME-A 10/16
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Academy
Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100 mm diameter with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev, depth of cut of 4 mm and
cutting velocity of 90 m/min, it is observed that the main (tangential) cutting force is perpendicular to the
friction force acting at the chip-tool interface. The main (tangential) cutting force is 1500 N.
Q.52 The orthogonal rake angle of the cutting tool in degree is

(A) zero (B) 3.58 (C) 5 (D) 7.16
Q.53 The normal force acting at the chip-tool interface in N is
(A) 1000 (B) 1500 (C) 2000 (D) 2500
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

In a simple Brayton cycle, the pressure ratio is 8 and temperatures at the entrance of compressor and
turbine are 300 K and 1400 K, respectively. Both compressor and gas turbine have isentropic efficiencies
equal to 0.8. For the gas, assume a constant value of cp (specific heat at constant pressure) equal to 1 kJ/kgK
and ratio of specific heats as 1.4. Neglect changes in kinetic and potential energies.
Q.54 The power required by the compressor in kW/kg of gas flow rate is
(A) 194.7 (B) 243.4 (C) 304.3 (D) 378.5
Q.55 The thermal efficiency of the cycle in percentage (%) is

(A) 24.8 (B) 38.6 (C) 44.8 (D) 53.1
ME-A 11/16
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General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q.56 to Q.60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 Complete the sentence:
Universalism is to particularism as diffuseness is to _______________.
(A) specificity (B) neutrality (C) generality (D) adaptation
Q.57 Were you a bird, you ___________________ in the sky.

(A) would fly (B) shall fly (C) should fly (D) shall have flown
Q.58 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Nadir
(A) Highest (B) Lowest (C) Medium (D) Integration
Q.59 Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence:

(A) He is of Asian origin.
(B) They belonged to Africa.
(C) She is an European.
(D) They migrated from India to Australia.
Q.60 What will be the maximum sum of 44, 42, 40, ...... ?
(A) 502 (B) 504 (C) 506 (D) 500
Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and 100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at random.
What is the probability that the selected number is not divisible by 7?
(A) 13/90 (B) 12/90 (C) 78/90 (D) 77/90
Q.62 A tourist covers half of his journey by train at 60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30 km/h and
the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. The average speed of the tourist in km/h during his entire journey is
(A) 36 (B) 30 (C) 24 (D) 18
Q.63 Find the sum of the expression

1 1 1 1
+ + + ............... +
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 80 + 81
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10
Q.64 The current erection cost of a structure is Rs. 13,200. If the labour wages per day increase by 1/5 of
the current wages and the working hours decrease by 1/24 of the current period, then the new cost
of erection in Rs. is
(A) 16,500 (B) 15,180 (C) 11,000 (D) 10,120
ME-A 12/16
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Q.65 After several defeats in wars, Robert Bruce went in exile and wanted to commit suicide. Just before
committing suicide, he came across a spider attempting tirelessly to have its net. Time and again,
the spider failed but that did not deter it to refrain from making attempts. Such attempts by the
spider made Bruce curious. Thus, Bruce started observing the near-impossible goal of the spider to
have the net. Ultimately, the spider succeeded in having its net despite several failures. Such act of
the spider encouraged Bruce not to commit suicide. And then, Bruce went back again and won
many a battle, and the rest is history.
Which of the following assertions is best supported by the above information?
(A) Failure is the pillar of success.
(B) Honesty is the best policy.
(C) Life begins and ends with adventures.
(D) No adversity justifies giving up hope.
ME-A 13/16
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Space for Rough Work
ME-A 14/16
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ME-A 15/16
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ME-A 16/16
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GATE 2013 : Answer keys for ME - Mechanical Engineering
ORS code A ORS code B ORS Code C ORS Code D

Paper Q.No
Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s)
ME 1 D C C D
ME 2 C B C D
ME 3 D C A Marks to All
ME 4 A A C B
ME 5 B C D B
ME 6 C A C B
ME 7 A B A A
ME 8 C B C C
ME 9 D B B A
ME 10 C Marks to All A C
ME 11 A D D B
ME 12 C C C C
ME 13 C D D C
ME 14 D C C D
ME 15 D A B D
ME 16 Marks to All C C A
ME 17 B D A B
ME 18 B C C C
ME 19 B A A A
ME 20 A C B C
ME 21 C B B D
ME 22 A A B C
ME 23 C D Marks to All A
ME 24 B D D C
ME 25 C C D C
ME 26 A B B D
ME 27 C C B C
ME 28 A D B C
ME 29 B B B D
ME 30 D D B B
ME 31 A A A A
ME 32 B B D D
ME 33 B D A B
ME 34 B C B D
ME 35 B C C B
Page 1 of 2
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GATE 2013 : Answer keys for ME - Mechanical Engineering
ORS code A ORS code B ORS Code C ORS Code D

Paper Q.No
Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s)
ME 36 B D A C
ME 37 D B C A
ME 38 C B B C
ME 39 C B D A
ME 40 D B B B
ME 41 B B D D
ME 42 A A A A
ME 43 D D B B
ME 44 B B D B
ME 45 D A C B
ME 46 B C C B
ME 47 C A D B
ME 48 C B C D
ME 49 C D C B
ME 50 B C D C
ME 51 D C B C
ME 52 A C A C
ME 53 B A B A
ME 54 C A C A
ME 55 A B A B
ME 56 A B C A
ME 57 A A C C
ME 58 B C A A
ME 59 C A B C
ME 60 C C A B
ME 61 D B B C
ME 62 C D D B
ME 63 B D C D
ME 64 B C B D
ME 65 D B D B
Page 2 of 2

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Question Paper Name: ME : MECHANICAL ENGINEERING 1st Feb Shift1

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

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Correct Answer :115 to 120

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Question Number : 65 Question Type : NAT

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

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