Power Engineering Fourth Class Q and A

FOURTH CLASS EXAM
1. How many centimeters squared in a 100 meters squared?

Ans: 1 000 000 cm2
2. 20 + 40 * (2/4)=?
Ans: 40
3. What is the heat energy equivalent of mechanical energy?

Ans: 1 Nm = 1 J
4. Why is sulphite added to feedwater?

Ans: to get rid of the oxygen and carbon dioxide
5. A pH of 6 in boiler water is considered to be?

Ans: is acidic
6. Where does internal treating water enter a watertube boiler?

Ans: the steam drum.
7. If a safety valve does not pop during a test the operator should?
Ans: to relieve the pressure and lift the handle and try again.
8. How many sub-divisions are in WHIMIS Class B?

Ans: 6
9. How much heat energy is needed to raise 5kg of water at 0o to just boiling at 300kPa?
Ans: 2807.35 kJ
10. What is the latent heat of steam at 2000kPa?

Ans: 1890.7 kJ
11. The earth's water cycle is known as?

Ans: hydrological cycle
12. What maximum percentage is allowed for a safety valve to pop above the MAWP?
Ans: no more than 6%
13. What is air primarily made up of?

Ans: nitrogen and oxygen.
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14. What is used to remove bicarbonates from feedwater?
Ans: heating the water up/heat.
15. What are the four classes of fire and their proper extinguisher for the source of the fire.
Ans: for Class A – combustible material. Class B – flammable liquid and gas. Class C – electrical.
Class D – combustible metals.
16. In wintertime, why does it appear that more white smoke is coming out of the exhaust stack?
Ans: the water molecules are dense when exposed to colder air
17. Kinetic energy is?

Ans: the ability of a body to do work due to motion.
18. Which of the following is false:

a) A vector quantity has magnitude
b) A scalar quantity has magnitude
c) A vector quantity has direction
d) A scalar quantity has direction
e) A vector quantity has magnitude and direction
The answer is D
19. If a spring is compressed from 15 cm to 12 cm what is the percentage decrease?

Ans: 20 %
20. If you look at a circle sideways it looks like a/an?

Ans: an eclipse
21. A device used to measure angles is?

Ans: a protractor
22. A cylinder cap is used to?

Ans: to protect the cylinder valve from breaking.
23. MSDS stands for?

Ans: material safety data sheet
24. When a controlled substance is decanted by one employee once a shift what labeling is required?
Ans: a three - part work place label.
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25. What requires a supplier label:
a) 5 gallon can of varsol
b) 1 liter bottle of lighter fluid
c) 45 gallon drum of nitric acid
Ans: C
26. A LD50 of 10mg per Kg is considered to be:

a) Within the proper limits
b) Very toxic
c) Not as bad as 50mg per Kg
Ans: B
27. What stack emissions are environmentally unhealthy:

a) Natural gas
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Sulfur dioxide
Ans: D
28. What is the most common way of artificial resuscitation?

Ans: mouth to mouth
29. If you go to repair a piece of electrical equipment and it has a lock on the panel you should:
a) Ask to have the lock remove
b) Have the lock removed and place your own lock on
c) Place your own lock on as well
Ans: C
30. When new compressors are installed they now require?

Ans: a noise impact study/ pressure test also.
31. The code for double extra strength steel is:

a) 2EX
b) 2XS
c) XXS
Ans: C
32. Steel pipe has what two divisions?

Ans: carbon and alloy
33. When two pieces of metal are heated until they are pushed and joined together it is called?
Ans: welding
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34. When two pieces of parent metal are welded together at the same plane it is called?
Ans: forge welding
35. The radiographic testing method for welding uses?

Answer is x-ray and gamma rays
36. What is a block and tackle?

Ans: a pulley system
37. A grinding wheel has a diameter of T and is turning at 2 R.PM. How far will a point turn in 60 sec.?
Ans: 2 rev.
38. What is work?

Ans: when a force causes a body to move a certain distance.
39. What to do if a safety valve lifts and the only pressure gauge reads low?
a) Shut down
b) Lower pressure and check gauge
c) Call boiler inspector
Ans: B
40. Same question for RV

Ans: A
41. What if a RV doesn't lift during a test?

a) Raise pressure
b) Shut down and replace RV
Ans: B
42. What is classed as a nuisance dust?

a) Quartz
b) Silica
c) Sandstone
d) Coal
e) Limestone
Ans: D
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43. What pressure for a high-pressure boiler?
a) 100 KPA
b) 200 KPA
c) 210 KPA
d) 90 KPA
Ans: 103 KPA
44. A vessel with no heat does not have to be registered if water temp is not above:
a) 65oc
b) 75oc
c) 85oc
d) 100oc
Ans: A
45. 200 KPA G is how much in ABSOLUTE (remember to add 101.3 for absolute)
a) 301.3
b) 99
c) 101
Ans: A
46. What does nickel do to steel?

a) hardens
b) increase corrosion resistance
Ans: B
47. What is steel W it will break before deforming?

a) brittle
b) malleable
c) ductile
Ans: A
48. What does limestone do when smelting iron?

Ans: that limestone makes slag to produce pig iron.
49. Drafting views. Which is the same?

a) top & depth
b) side & height
c) front & width
Ans: B
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50. What is not on a detail drawing?
a) cost
b) size
c) dimension
d) material
Ans: A
51. Flame detector?

a) pyrolite
b) scanner
Ans: B
52. How much do you purge a furnace?

a) 65% Max. Air
b) 75% Max. Air
c) 100% Max Air
d) 150% Max Air
Ans: D
53. Sodium Zeolite removes Mg & Ca by?

Ans: by using sodium softener.
54. Why do you blow down?

Ans: to get rid of condensate and impurities in the feed water.
55. Linear coefficient of metals

a) same for all non-ferrous metals
b) higher for copper than steel
c) measured in mm/m
Ans: B
56. When can a stationery engineer leave the plant unattended?

Ans: never – only when relieved.
57. How can you get rid of ground level S02?

a) increase steam in stack
b) cleaner coal
Ans: A
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58. What causes CO in emissions?
Ans: incomplete combustion
59. What is THEORETICAL air?

Ans: the amount of air needed for complete combustion.
60. Why is a Cyclone Fluidised bed better than a Bubble Fluidised bed?
Ans: a cyclone bed uses centrifugal motion.
61. Why is a bent tube boiler better than a straight tube boiler?
Ans: the bent tubes are in contact with the heating surfaces more. Plus the bent tube has greater steam
capacities and less headroom is needed.
62. What kind of mask is used in H2S?

Ans: a full face mask with a complete seal.
63. What does H2S do to sense of smell?

Ans: it dulls the sense of smell
64. What goes in a log book and who signs it?

Ans: anything important and the operator or chief signs it.
65. Environment is?

Ans: Natural & manmade
66. Organisms are?

Ans: consuming, producing and digesting
67. What is coalescing?

Ans: is either to join two pieces of metal into one or to make small particles for larger particles
68. What does a pressure regulator do?

Ans: it controls down stream pressure
69. 1 Joule/sec = ?
Ans: watt
70. Why use chain drive instead of belt drive?

Ans: the gears do not mesh together.
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71. What does an idler gear do?
Ans: transmits power
72. Natural Draft is?

Ans: a draft entering a vessel naturally without force, the more dense the air the better
73. Convection is the movement of fluid by?

a) density
b) pressure
c) temp
Ans: C
74. What temp can an electric arc reach?

a) 3000
b) 6500
c) 8000
Ans: C
75. Arc welding Reverse Polarity is?

a) negative ground
b) positive ground
Ans: A
76. What trips a sprinkler head?

a) heat
b) smoke
Ans: A
77. Where is a fire easily started?

a) closed room
b) Cluttered storage area
c) Basement
d) hydrogen cooled coupling
Ans: B
78. What is the most common inspection tool for cylinders?

a) Visual
b) radiograph
c) x-ray
d) dye
Ans: A
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79. What is the result of vibration in a water tube boiler?
a) tube failure
b) boiler crack
c) unstable flame
Ans: A
80. What constitutes water pollution?

a) thermal heat
b) acid water
c) caustic water
Ans: B
81. What is the sub-surface water

a) surface water, ground water, aeration
b) aeration, water table, ground water
Ans: B
82. What is needed before a plant can be de-commissioned

a) Environmental impact study
b) Remedial plan in place
Ans: B
83. What is flux on a welding rod for?

a) Keep the rod dry
b) Insulate the weld
c) Keep air away from the weld
Ans: all of them
84. What is the metal called where the tube is attached to the shell?
Answer is
85. What is stress relieving?

a) heat and cool quickly
b) heat and cool slowly
Ans: B
86. What prevents a fire tube boiler furnace from collapsing?

Ans: stayed surfaces.
87. What is the reason for using a flat gauge glass?

Ans: it is better for larger boilers
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88. A water float level indicator has?
Ans: the float in the boiler
89. What is a cyclone steam separator used for?

Ans: to get condensate out of the steam
90. What is the advantage of the hot lime process?

Ans: to treat large quantities of water in small vessels
91. What is used-to inject feed water chemicals into a boiler?

Ans: a positive displacement pump
92. What is used to test a liquid for acidity or alkalinity?

Ans: pH probe or litmus paper.
93. How does a deaerator remove oxygen?

Ans: it heats the liquid
94. What is superheated steam?

a) hotter than saturated steam
b) hotter than wet steam
Ans: A
95. Why is a steam trap used?

a) prevent condensate from entering a turbine
b) prevent water hammer
Ans: A
96. Why is steam vented through a superheater on start up?

Ans: to warm everything up without condensate being present.
97. What is organic matter in feed water called?

a) suspended particles
b) dissolved particles
Ans: A
98. If the temp increases what does the humidity do?

a) increases
b) decrease
c) same
d) reaches dew point sooner
Ans: A
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99. Which of the following is oral communication?
a) lecture
b) discussion
c) memo
d) both a and b
Ans: D
100. What ASME codebook can not be brought into the exam room?
a) I& ll
b) IV
c) IV &V
d) VI & VII
Ans: D
101. What type of welding is used for cast iron?

Ans: braze welding
102. What is the inside diameter of a pipe called?

Ans: Nominal
103. How are 2 inch or smaller pipes welded?

a) socket weld
b) lap weld
c) butt weld
Ans: B
104. What is a tee used for in piping?

Ans: to make the pipe go in a 90 degree angle
105. A 15 ft. spring is stretched to 16 ft. What is the percentage of increase?
a) 10%
b) 6.62 %
c) 6.67 %
d) 3%
e) 1%
Ans: A
106. What is a triangle called if all sides are equal length?

Ans: equilateral
107. What is a W. H. I. M. S. label for?

Ans: to give information on a controlled product.
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108. How many areas on a label?
Ans: 8
109. What is a controlled substance?

Ans: a product in the 6 WHIMS classes
110. What is a hazardous substance?

Ans: a product that can do harm to humans and the environment.
111. Who is responsible for labels?

Ans: manufacture
112. Who is responsible for training?

Ans: employer
113. Early government involvement in certification of power engineers became more important for the
following reasons except:
a) High pressures
b) Labour mobility
c) Safety
d) Pollution
e) Construction costs
Ans: E
114. Which of the following is not characteristic of increased automation in power plants?
a) Computerised control stations
b) Increased mechanisation
c) Manual flame checking
d) Continuous monitoring of processes
e) Continuous monitoring of costs
Ans: C
115. When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect is:
a) Serious foaming
b) Accumulation of very hard scale resulting in tube burn-out
c) Accumulation of soot
d) Decrease in water level
e) Shifting and loosening of baffles
Ans: A
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116. Which of the following certificates of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and op
of any power plant as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant and take charge of a shift
power plant as shift engineer?
a) Third Class Engineer’s Certificate of Competency
b) Building Operator’s Certificate of competency
c) Pressure Welder’s Certificate of Competency
d) First Class Engineer’s Certificate of competency
e) Fireman’s Certificate of Competency
Ans: D
117. Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class Engineer’s Certificate of Competency
Not qualified to perform?
a) Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of more than 10 000 kW, as shift
engineer
b) Take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil
type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5000 kW, when only in use for the
purpose of subterranean thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.
c) Take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more
than 1000 kW as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant.
d) Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers
having an aggregate capacity of not more than 10 000 kW, when used only for underground
thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.
e) Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of not more than 5000 kW, as shift
engineer.
Ans: A
118. The IAO is an organisation who’s primary concern is:

a) Lowering of maintenance costs through standardisation
b) Lowering of production costs through increased automation
c) Increase in safety awareness through public education
d) Lowering of insurance costs through standardisation
e) Increase in equipment quality through tougher government regulation
Ans: D
119. A mole refers to a quantity of:

a) Time
b) Amount of substance
c) Luminous intensity
d) Electric current
e) Length
Ans: B
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120. One hundredth of a gram is called a:
a) centigram
b) megagram
c) milligram
d) ton
e) kilogram
Ans: A.
121. Find the volume of a rectangular prism 3m long, 5m wide, and 2 m high.
a) 30
b) 3 m cubed
c) 30 m squared
d) 30 m
e) 30 m cubed
Ans: E
122. 2 kPa is the same as:

a) 0.145 psi
b) 0.069 bar
c) 0.02 bar
d) 6.895 lb./in sq.
e) 1.451 psi
Ans: C
123. Convert 2365 cm into kilometres.

a) 2.365 km
b) 0.002365 km
c) 23.65 km
d) 0.02365 km
e) 236.5 mg
Ans: D
124. If a box has side lengths of 3.5 m, 6.2 m. and 1.8 m respectively its volume is:
a) 39.06 m cubed
b) 3906 m cubed
c) 39.06 feet cubed
d) 39.06 cm cubed
e) 125 m cubed
Ans: A
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125. Subtract 74 from 101
a) 27
b) 37
c) 30
d) 33
e) 24
Ans: A
126. Divide 4035 by 15

a) 335
b) 269
c) 127
d) 326
e) 103
Ans: B
127. Multiply 365.24 by 92.1

a) 33 605.831
b) 33 638.649
c) 32 538.504
d) 33 638.604
e) 33 791.219
Ans: D
128. Add (-56) + 39

a) 95
b) 17
c) –17
d) –95
e) –26
Ans: C
129. Solve the expression: [(3.2)2 - (-4)3][(75/15)-(-10+15)]+(-19/3)

a) -543.93
b) –6.33
c) 748.73
d) –60.09
e) 12.07
Ans: B
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130. Which of the following is a mixed number?
a) 32/36
b) 19/5
c) 3 1/5
d) 6/24
e) 35/7
Ans: C
131. Evaluate the following 3/10 * 5/2 –2/3 to lowest terms.

a) 1/12
b) 11/20
c) 5/60
d) 33/60
e) 3/6
Ans: A
132. In lowest terms 0.04 is equal to:

a) 1/5
b) 1/25
c) 1/40
d) 4/10
e) 4/100
Ans: B
133. 62% of 85 362 equals:

a) 22 932.64
b) 13.768
c) 5292.492
d) 137 680.65
e) 52 924.44
Ans: E
134. An elastic is stretched by 86% to a length to 5.8 m. Calculate the original length
a) 3.118 m
b) 0.067 m
c) 4.988 m
d) 2.903 m
e) 8.675 m
Ans: A
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135. 63 is what percent of 260
a) 41.27%
b) 2.42%
c) 0.24%
d) 24.23% 63/260*100
e) 4.12%
Ans: D
136. What is the ratio between 75 L and 1.5 L in lowest terms?

a) 75 to 15
b) 50 to 1
c) .2
d) 5 to 1
e) 45 to 1
Ans: B
137. In the expression 8:x::16:8, x equals:

a) 4 8*8/16
b) 16
c) 2.5
d) 32
e) 16
Ans: A
138. A chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 9 parts A, 2 parts B and 5 parts C. A 64 kg batch is to be mixed.
quantity of A is required?
a) 52.36 kg
b) 36 kg
c) 20 kg
d) 8 kg
e) 2.25 kg
Ans: B
139. Concrete must be mixed with the ratio of 5 parts cement, 3 parts gravel and 4 parts water. If 6 tons of concrete
mixed how much gravel is required?
a) 2.4 tons
b) 2.5 tons
c) 1.5 tons
d) 2 tons
e) 1865 tons
Ans: C
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140. A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed
second gear?
a) 3.46 r/min
b) 150 r/min
c) 206.39 r/min
d) 97.5 r/min
e) 172.06 r/min
Ans: E
141. A gear has 1000 teeth and revolves at 50 r/min. The driven gear has 32 teeth. How fast does it turn?
a) 12.2 r/min
b) 1562.5 r/min
c) 609.8 r/min
d) 640 r/min
e) 390.2 r/min
Ans: B
142. One cubic metre is equal to

a) 1 cubic decimetre
b) 1 000 000 litres
c) 1 000 litres
d) 100 cubic decimetres
e) 1000 cubic centimetres
Ans: C
143. One watt is equal to?

a) 1 joule
b) 1 Newton metre
c) 1 joule/sec
d) 1 amp
e) 1 coulomb
Ans: C
144. Which of the following numbers are integers: 1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 25

a) 1,2, and 3
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
e) 1 and 2
Ans: D
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145. Which of the following are prime numbers: 1) 2, 2) 5, 3) 7, 4) 13, 5) 29
a) 1, 2, 3, and 5
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: E
146. Solve: b2 * b-2

a) b
b) b ^4 + 1
c) 1
d) –4b
e) b^4
Ans: C
147. Distance is:

a) always a vector quantity
b) a scalar quantity
c) measured in a straight line.
d) Always measured in a circular path
e) Velocity/time
Ans: B
148. When a simply supported beam is loaded with a mass of 1 tonne acting at the centre of the beam, the reaction at e
end of the beam is?
a) 0.4905 kN
b) 9.81 kN
c) 49.05 kN
d) 98.1 kN
e) 4.905 kN
Ans: E
149. An example of a vector quantity is:

a) speed
b) velocity
c) time
d) magnitude
e) distance
Ans: B
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150. Thermodynamics is that branch of physics that deals with:
a) the measurement of heat
b) the transfer of heat into other forms of energy
c) the relationship between temperature and the electrical condition in metals
d) the conversion of energy into heat
e) the movement of heat through solids
Ans: B
151. When the Fahrenheit reading is 312 oF the Celsius reading is:
a) 148.6 o C
b) 155.5 o C
c) 156.26 o C
d) 157.39 o C
e) 158.8 o C
Ans: B
152. The temperature of a body is a measure of:

a) the quantity of heat in the body
b) the quantity of cold in the body
c) the quality of heat in the body
d) the quality of cold in the body
e) the quantity of electrons in the body
Ans: C
153. The evaporation of a liquid:

a) takes place at any temperature
b) is a physical change
c) increases as the pressure upon the liquid increases
d) is a chemical change
e) all of the above
Ans: B
154. Where more than one view is shown in a drawing:

a) width is common to the front and top views
b) height is common to the front and side views
c) depth is common to the front and side views
d) hidden lines are used
e) all of the above
Ans: E
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155. A power plant log book:
a) should record all important events which occur during a shift and be signed by the person in
charge of the shift.
b) Should record only start up and shut down dates of equipment
c) Should not include information which is recorded elsewhere
d) Should be maintained and signed by the chief engineer only
e) Should record all important events which occur during a shift and be signed by the Chief
Engineer and the shift engineer
Ans: A
156. Section 7, “Rules for Care of Power Boilers: of the ASME Code Book are:
a) rules that are strictly enforced by the ASME
b) suggested rules to promote safety in boiler operation
c) applicable only to large high pressure boilers
d) rules developed to produce best economy of operations
e) rules that all boiler operators must follow
Ans: B
157. When working inside a boiler the maximum voltage of the lights you must use is:
a) 12 volts
b) 60 bolts
c) 110 volts
d) 220 volts
e) 220 volts or less provided you are grounded
Ans: A
158. A lock-out procedure for a boiler, pressure vessel, pump or electrical equipment being repaired or serviced is to:
a) lock and tag the control device in a inoperative position
b) lock only the main disconnect so that repairs can be performed.
c) Log and tag only equipment that can be remotely started
d) tag and lock equipment but leave key in main office so that maintenance can be performed
e) tag and lock equipment as approved by the safety committee
Ans: A
159. Three different extinguishing media used on fires are:

a) dry powder, foam, oxygen
b) water, dry powder, carbon dioxide
c) dry powder, carbon monoxide, water
d) foam, water, sulphur dioxide
e) sand, water, hydrogen
Ans: B
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160. Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to combat a class “C” fire? 1) carbon dioxide 2)
3) dry chemical 4) water
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 4
e) 2, 4
Ans: B
161. You notice one of the men you are working with lying on the ground. If you find that his breathing has stoppe
would:
a) give him something to drink and send for help
b) start artificial respiration immediately and summon help
c) send for a doctor
d) cover him with a blanket and run for help
e) turn the person over into the recovery position
Ans: B
162. A safety committee is responsible for:

a) repairing safety devices on equipment
b) supplying special courses
c) setting down the safety policy of the plant
d) promoting all safety aspects in the plant
e) making sure management responds to safety concerns.
Ans: D
163. Powerhouse accidents may involve electrical or mechanical hazards. To reduce mechanical hazards the o
should:
a) Open all valves as quickly as possible to increase pressure.
b) Shut all valves as quickly as possible to maintain pressure
c) Open and shut all valves under full load to minimize leakage
d) Open and shut all valves slowly, allowing pressure to equalize
e) Open and shut all valve under no load to save wear on the valves.
Ans: D
164. The first action of plant personal upon finding an unplanned environmental excursion is:
a) report the incident to OH & S
b) report the incident to Provincial Environmental Authorities
c) report the incident to E.R.C.B.
d) minimize and control the release
e) alert the remaining plant personnel
Ans: D
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165. The most proficient method of dealing with environmental impacts due to wastes is to:
a) avoid the generation of hazardous wastes
b) ensure it conforms to Transport of Dangerous Goods Act
c) ensure that disposal of material waste conforms with required legislation
d) conduct periodic inspections of the company used to dispose of hazardous waste
e) use long term storage
Ans: A
166. Metals that are very soft and easily worked are said to be:
a) ductile
b) elastic
c) plastic
d) malleable
e) tough
Ans: C
167. Case hardening of low carbon steel produces:

a) a high carbon inner core and low carbon outer surface
b) a high carbon inner core and high carbon outer surface
c) a low carbon inner core and low carbon outer surface
d) a low carbon inner core and high carbon inner surface
e) a low carbon inner core and high carbon outer surface
Ans: E
168. Relative to babbit, the greater amount of lead it contains:

a) the greater will be the amount of tin
b) the less load it will support
c) the shaft can operate at higher speed and light loads
d) the greater load it will support at slow speed
e) the greater chance of brittle failure
Ans:D
169. In order to convey fluid from one storage tank to another:

a) valves are required
b) pumps are necessary
c) drains are required
d) piping is required
e) siphon breakers are required
Ans:D
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170. Commercial pipe is made in standard sizes each having several different: 1) weight 2) colours 3) thickn
shapes 5) threads
a) 1, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3
d) 4, 5
e) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Ans:C
171. A check valve is a valve that:

a) is required on all boilers
b) allows flow in two directions
c) allows flow at regular intervals
d) does not allow flow at all
e) allows flow in one direction only
Ans:E
172. When steam is first being introduced into a piping system, it is important that:
a) all valves are wide open
b) all drains be closed
c) all valves be closed
d) all condensate water is drained
e) all by-pass valves are closed
Ans:D
173. Beading the tube ends on a fire tube boiler: 1) is done with a sledgehammer 2) makes the tube act as a s
reduces oxygen pitting 4) prevents overheating and splitting of the tube end
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 1, 4
e) 3, 4
Ans:C
120. In early boilers, fire walls were constructed of brick. Today this method has been replaced by the use of:
a) baffles
b) steel casing
c) tubes to form the furnace walls
d) plastic insulation
e) cement like refractory material
Ans:C
Page 24
121. Convection super-heaters are located:
a) away from the fire
b) by the burner
c) in the radiant zone
d) before the superheaters
e) at the back end of the boiler next to the blowdown tank
Ans:A
122. Generally packaged boilers are:

a) top supported
b) bottom-supported
c) externally
d) horizontal return tubular
e) oil fired boilers
Ans:B
123. The advantage of a multi-pass firetube boiler is:

a) larger water space
b) stronger construction
c) increased heat transfer
d) larger gas volume
e) high heat content in the flue gases at the stack
Ans:C
124. If the boiler has 60 m2 of heating surface, it must have how many safety valves?
a) at least two
b) at least one
c) only three
d) no more than two
e) one with enough capacity
Ans:A
125. A stop valve is allowed between the safety valve and the boiler drum when:
a) the stop valve is locked in the open position
b) there is more than one safety valve
c) a rupture disc is placed between the stop valve and the safety valve
d) no valve is allowed at any time
e) the pipe diameter is less than 2”
Ans:D
Page 25
126. The chemical symbol for carbon monoxide is:
a) C
b) CaCO3
c) CO
d) CO2
e) HCO3
Ans:C
127. Insufficient air for combustion will result in: 1) carbon in flue gasses 2) high oxygen reading in flue gases 3)
low oxygen reading in flue gases 4) high CO in flue gases 5) higher than normal flue gases temperature
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans:C
128. When you first notice that the water level in the boiler gauge glass can no longer be seen, it is best to:
a) start the stand-by feed pump or injector
b) shut off the boiler fuel supply
c) close the main steam valve
d) ensure the glass is not over filled
e) open the boiler drain at once
Ans:D
129. Modulating combustion controls:

a) regulate the steam and feed water supply
b) regulate the fuel and air supplies
c) control the oil atomizer
d) control the back draft damper
e) modulate the water supply proportionally to the air supply
Ans:B
130. When lighting up a steam or air atomizing burner: 1) admit steam or air to the burner before opening the
burner fuel valve 2) open burner fuel valve before admitting steam or air 3) establish an adequate ignition
source before opening the fuel valve 4) adjust the draft to provide a positive furnace pressure
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4
e) 3 and 4
Ans:B
Page 26
131. The most important step before lighting a gas fired boiler is to:
a) make sure the boiler is purged

b) make sure the water level is a t the normal operating level
c) have all the manhole covers shut
d) have all the fuel valves ready for start-up
e) must make sure that the steam drum vent valves are wide open
Ans:A
132. The major purpose of a blow-off tank is to:

a) purify and cool the water before returning it to the feed water tank
b) neutralize chemical impurities before pouring the water into the sewer
c) filter out mud and sediment before returning the water to the boiler
d) reduce the pressure and temperature of the water before entering the sewer
e) collect blowdown water for recirculation and reuse the boiler
Answer is D
133. Corrosion products in feed water can cause

a) slag deposits in superheaters
b) tube failure
c) increased steam pressure
d) increase in boiler efficiency
e) damage to the combustion areas
Ans:B
134. The zeolite inside a water softener is used to:

a) regenerate the brine solution
b) rinse the softened water
c) exchange sodium for calcium and magnesium
d) exchange soda for calcium and magnesium
e) re-energize the hydrogen in the water
Ans:C
135. Turbid water should not be passed through a zeolite bed because the accumulated deposits will coat the:
a) exchange material
b) filter medium
c) anthracite
d) sludge deposits
e) sand
Answer is A
Page 27
136. To determine the amount of dissolved solids in boiler feed water you would test the:
a) alkalinity of water
b) conductance of the water
c) pH value of the water
d) hardness of the water
e) negativity of the water
Ans:B
137. A high pressure boiler’s feed water pipe shall be provided with a:
a) pressure reducing and regulation valve
b) shutoff valve and regulating valve
c) check valve and shutoff valve
d) two shut off valves
e) two regulating valves
Ans:C
138. Moisture is removed from the steam before it leaves the steam drum by:
a) chemical action
b) high pressures
c) a continuous blowdown
d) cyclone separators or dry pipe
e) ejectors
Ans:D
139. The role of an economizer is to:

a) regulate the level of water in the boiler
b) preheat the feed water supply
c) regulate the amount of fuel going to the burner
d) meter the amount of chemical added to the system
e) preheat the combustion air supply
Ans:B
140. The purpose of a closed feed water heater is to:

a) remove scale forming impurities
b) reduce total dissolved solids
c) remove dissolved oxygen
d) decrease feedwater enthalpy
e) encourage chemical reactions
Answer is C
Page 28
141. A device called a siphon or pigtail is used between a boiler and a pressure gauge to:
a) absorb vibration
b) prevent steam from entering the gauge
c) keep moisture from the gauge
d) decrease the pressure
e) all of the above
Answer is B
142. The purpose of the safety valve is to:

a) release pressure when the boiler is above its safe operating pressure
b) stop the fuel supply
c) warn of high steam pressures
d) increase the boiler feedwater supply
e) initiate automatic shut down
Answer is A
143. Continuous boiler blowdown is used to control the:

a) water level in the boiler
b) dissolved solids concentration in the boiler
c) suspended solids concentration
d) steam quality
e) feed water quality
Answer is B
144. What is the purpose of a safety valve lifting lever?

a) Pop test the safety valve
b) Adjust safety valve lifting pressure
c) Gag safety so it won’t lift
d) Manual test to ensure the safety valve is not stuck closed
e) Assist in the valve’s installation
Answer is D
145. Why are internal stays used on some boiler designs?

a) To add strength to flat metal surfaces that are under pressure
b) Direct the flow of hot combustion gases
c) Ensure proper water circulation
d) To attach safety valves and other fittings
e) To direct the flow of steam
Answer is A
Page 29
146. The purpose of the blowdown tank is to:
a) reclaim blowdown as re-usable condensate
b) cool turbine exhaust into condensate
c) reduce the blowdown materials temperature before being sent to sewer
d) reclaim blowdown chemicals
e) reuse blowdown as make up water
Answer is C
147. A steam separator removes moisture by:

a) superheating the steam
b) changing the direction of steam flow
c) reducing the steam pressure
d) increasing the steam pressure
e) absorption
Answer is B
148. The presence of oxygen in a boiler systems will cause:

a) caustic embrittlement
b) bulging
c) corrosion
d) overheating
e) heat transfer efficiency increases
Answer is C
149. Which of the following boiler designs is a water tube type boiler?
a) A type
b) D type
c) O type
d) All of the above
e) Fire tube type
Answer is D
150. A High pressure steam boiler is one that produces steam:

a) Above 5 psi
b) Above 15 psi
c) Above 25 psi
d) Above 50 psi
e) Above 100 psi
Answer is B
Page 30
151. Draft is measured in:
a) psi
b) pounds per square foot
c) inches of mercury
d) inches of water
e) MPa
Answer is D
152. Pulverized coal is blown into a boiler by:

a) natural draft
b) a screw conveyor
c) primary air
d) gravity
e) a stoker
Answer is C
153. What is an acceptable boiler water pH?

a) 4
b) 7
c) 8
d) 10
e) 14
Answer is D
154. According to the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Act a guarded plant must have:
a) a low water level trip
b) high pressure trip
c) flame failure trip
d) all of the above
e) security staff
Answer is D
155. Water glasses must be installed so that if any water level at all is seen, we know the water level is at
least:
a) 76 mm above all the boiler tubes
b) 23 mm below all the boiler tubes
c) 76 mm above all the boiler hand holes
d) 23 mm below the steam dry pipe
e) 76 mm above the feedwater inlet
Answer is A
Page 31
216. If a boiler has a powered draft system on the inlet and outlet the combustion chamber it would be
considered a system?
a) natural
b) forced
c) induced
d) balanced
e) reversed
Answer is D
156. For normal and safe operation, the safety valve should be set to pop at a pressure?
a) higher then the boiler’s maximum allowable working pressure
b) lower then the boiler’s maximum allowable working pressure
c) higher then the feedwater pump can produce
d) lower then the operating controller set point
e) higher then the pressure gauge can indicate
Answer is B
157. Which components assist in the circulation of water in a water tube boiler?
a) risers
b) downcomers
c) both of the above
d) forced draft fan
e) steam dry pipe
Answer is C
158. Which one is not an example of suspend matter:

a) Sand
b) Clean water
c) Mud
d) Sewage
e) Vegetable matter
Answer is B
159. An example of a dissolved solid is?

a) Oxygen and Hydrogen
b) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
c) Calcium and magnesium
d) Hydrogen
e) Oxygen
Answer is C
Page 32
160. An example of a dissolved gas is?
a) oxygen and carbon dioxide
b) hydrogen
c) carbon
d) sulphur
e) air
Answer is A
161. What does oxygen do in a boiler?

a) causes grooves
b) causes smoothness
c) nothing
d) causes pitting
e) causes scale
Answer is D
162. What does carbon dioxide do in a boiler?

a) causes pitting
b) nothing
c) causes grooves
d) causes smoothness
e) causes scale
Answer is C
163. What do coagulants do?

a) increases the waters pH
b) decreases the water pH
c) make larger particles break into little particles
d) makes smaller particles form larger particles
e) cause turbulence
Answer is D
224. The filter aid tubular filter uses as a filter aid?

a) suspended matter
b) sponge
c) reversing the flow
d) screens
e) diatomaceous earth
Answer is E
Page 33
164. Most common floc formed from coagulants is:
a) Al2(SO4)3
b) CO
c) O2
d) AL
e) Na2H5
Answer is A
165. Sodium zeolite softening uses:

a) Anion exchange to convert the scale
b) Anion exchange to convert the caustic
c) Cation exchange to convert scale
d) Cation exchange to convert the caustic
e) Cation exchange to convert the sodium
Answer is C
166. Demineralizers are used when mineral free water is required.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
167. Mechanical Deaeration removes water of dissolved gases by raising the temperature so gases are vented
out of the water.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
168. When steam ( 70 – 100 kPa) is injected into a flow of water to sweep away the released gases the
process is called?
a) Steam injecting
b) Gas release
c) Scrubbing
d) Sweeping
e) Washing
Answer is C
169. pH control for a boiler is done by?

a) chlorine
b) caustic (sodium hydroxide)
c) demulsifier
d) sulphite
e) carbon monoxide
Answer is B
Page 34
170. Foaming causes the boiler to “prime” that is to carry over water with the steam, which is leaving the
boiler.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
171. What is used to prevent corrosion in the return lines?

a) oxygen
b) carbon dioxide
c) caustic
d) amines
e) antioxides
Answer is D
172. What should the chemical feed line to the boiler be equipped with next to the check valve.
a) shut off valve
b) another check valve
c) block valve
d) needle valve
e) gate valve
Answer is A
173. What kind of test determines how much calcium and magnesium salts are in the water?
a) turbidity test
b) pH test
c) chlorides test
d) alkalinity test
e) hardness test
Answer is E
174. What kind of test determines how much carbonates and hydroxides are present?
a) turbidity test
b) pH test
c) chlorides test
d) alkalinity test
e) hardness test
Answer is D
Page 35
175. Phenolphthalein or methyl orange test is an example of what test procedure?
a) turbidity test
b) pH test
c) chlorides test
d) alkalinity test
e) hardness test
Answer is D
176. Soot blowers are located in what part of the boiler?

a) water drum
b) steam drum
c) convection and radiant zones
d) blow down tank
e) try cocks
Answer is C
177. When soot blowing the boiler should be operating at 30% rating or more.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
178. When shot cleaning the iron shot or pellet should be what size of diameter.
a) 3 mm
b) 0.21 mm
c) 6 mm
d) 10 mm
e) 100 mm
Answer is C
179. Continuous Blow Down refers to the removal of the dissolved solids portion of the impurities.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
180. Where are the majority of the TDS (Total Dissolved Solids) found?
a) water drum
b) tubes
c) steam drum
d) main steam header
e) fire box
Answer is C
Page 36
181. What kind of valve controls the CBD?
a) gate valve
b) globe valve
c) butterfly valve
d) vernier valve
e) needle valve
Answer is D
182. The flow rate in the CBD line is equal to 1% or more of the overall boiler steam flow rate.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
183. Where does the majority of undissolved solids occur?

a) mud drum
b) water drum
c) steam drum
d) fire box
e) main steam header
Answer is A
184. Where is the blow off tank inlet line located?

a) Above the water level
b) Below the water level
c) At the very top of the tank
d) At the very bottom of the tank
e) There is no inlet
Answer is B
185. CSA B51 requires all blow-off tanks for all boilers operating at or above 103 kPag be discharged to a
sewer system. The temperature should not exceed 65oC
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
186. ASME B31.1 piping standards states that blow off piping must be anchored in such a fashion so that
motion cannot be transmitted back to the boiler.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 37
187. Each high pressure boiler must have 2 approved blow-off valves, one of which should be slow opening.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
188. What kind of valve is used so sediment will not collect under valve seat.
a) gate valve
b) globe valve
c) slow opening valve
d) needle valve
e) butterfly valve
Answer is C
189. What kind of valve is opened or closed by moving a lever or wrench through a small arc?
a) gate valve
b) globe valve
d) quick opening valve
e) butterfly valve
Answer is D
190. Where should a quick opening valve be placed in regards to a boiler because it acts as a sealing
guard valve?
a) farthest away from the boiler
b) nearest to the boiler
c) in the middle
d) does not matter
e) both a and b
Answer is B.
191. What kind of valve prevents water hammer and damage to the boiler? This valve is also known as the
blow off valve.
a) gate valve
b) globe valve
d) quick opening valve
e) butterfly valve
Answer is C
Page 38
192. What is the proper way to use a quick opening valve?
a) open first and close last
b) open last and close first
c) open first and close first
d) open last and close last
e) does not matter
Answer is A
193. When using two seatless slow opening valves what is the proper way to operate.
a) The valve furthest from the boiler is opened last and closed first to prevent cracking
b) The valve nearest from the boiler is opened first and closed first to prevent cracking
c) The valve furthest from the boiler is opened first and closed last to prevent cracking
d) The valve nearest from the boiler is opened last and closed last to prevent cracking
e) The valve furthest from the boiler is opened first and closed first to prevent cracking
Answer is C
194. What valves are usually used in emergencies.

a) A globe valve
b) A slow opening valve
c) A quick opening valve
d) A gate valve
e) A butterfly valve
Answer is D
195. Before start-up of a boiler what kind of inspector is needed to issue an inspection certificate.
a) North American inspector
b) American inspector
c) Canadian inspector
d) Provincial inspector
e) Local Boiler inspector
Answer is E
196. What must be coated on all hand holes and manholes before the boiler is started to prevent sticking.
a) paint
b) sand
c) graphite
d) glue
e) nothing
Answer is C
Page 39
197. To prevent boiler dry out make sure that there is a small flame going for at least 48 hours.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
198. Boiling out with soda or caustic removes all grease, welding debris, dirt, and oil from construction.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
199. Oil and grease in the boiler can cause.

a) cracking
b) foaming
c) sludge
d) scale
e) nothing
Answer is B
200. What position are automatic shut down valves placed in.
a) single block
b) single block and bleed
c) bleed
d) double block
e) double block and bleed
Answer is E
201. Before ignition all boiler shutdown switches must be in their “permissive” state.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
202. What colour is the pilot igniter light.

a) red
b) green
c) blue
d) yellow
e) white
Answer is A
Page 40
203. Boiler master is known as steam pressure.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
204. The last thing before ignition is to open the main gas cock.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
205. Where is the boiler’s stop valve located

a) at the inlet of boiler
b) at the outlet of the boiler
c) at the steam drum
d) at the mud drum
e) at the main steam header
Answer is B
206. The steam header arrangement can be 10 000, 2 000 and 330 kPa.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
267. The procedure for opening up a boiler into a pressurized steam header is referred to the
boiler into the header.
a) joining
b) slicing
c) cutting
d) over pressuring
e) pulling
Answer is C
207. Where is the non return valve actually connected.

a) upstream of the valve plug
b) beside the valve plug
c) upstream of the block valve
d) downstream of the block valve
e) downstream of the valve plug
Answer is E
Page 41
208. When the boiler pressure is still under normal kPa, the non return valve spindle is backed off (turned in
open direction) to.
a) One whole turn in the open position
b) Three quarters of a turn in the open position
c) Half of a turn in the open position
d) Two whole turns in the open position
e) One quarter of a turn in the open position.
Answer is E
209. Variation in the water level could indicate that the boiler is foaming or priming
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
210. Foaming could also be caused by a high conc. of dissolved or suspended solids in the water.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
211. What colour should the flame be.

a) red
b) orange
c) orange with a blue tip
d) blue
e) blue with an orange tip
Answer is E
212. Smoking may be caused by either a clogged air intake or the burner nozzle may be dirty.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
213. When using soot blowers what amount should the boiler load be above.
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 65%
e) 70%
Answer is B
Page 42
214. CBD (Continuous Blowdown) should be kept open to keep the conc. of dissolved and suspended solids
below max.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
215. Low water level could be caused by faulty feedwater level controller or pump failure or ruptured tubes.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
216. It is important to not feed water into the boiler to raise the level and to not open the safety valve or vent
valve to release pressure.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
217. When there is a high water level in the boiler the operator should
a) Shut off pumps or open blow-off valves
b) Allow pumps to keep running
c) Open vent valve
d) Open safety valve
e) Nothing
Answer is A
218. In the event of a fan failure the fuel gas must be shut off immediately.
a) true
b) false
Answer is A
219. The number one cause of furnace explosions is.

a) no gas
b) lack of water
c) lack of fire extinguishers
d) insufficient purge
e) no one was around.
Answer is D
Page 43
220. The most common cause of boiler accidents is.
a) overheating
b) underheating
c) excessive personnel
d) expert training
e) boiler in good condition
Answer is A
221. Draft refers to the process of supplying combustion air to the boiler furnace.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
222. Primary air refers to the air which may be pre mixed with the fuel before being admitted to the furnace
or to the air admitted close to the burner tip or fuel bed.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
223. Secondary air is the remaining air necessary for complete combustion, and is supplied close to the
burner in the combustion zone.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
224. Dust collectors may remove as much as

a) 90%
b) 100%
c) 97%
d) 95%
e) 93%
Answer is D
225. The most common type of chimney is the

a) carbon black
b) cement
c) brick
d) steel
e) aluminum
Answer is D
Page 44
226. Induced draft is where the velocity of the gases in the chimney is increased. This creates a partial
vacuum in the furnace, thereby increasing the airflow into the furnace.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
227. Forced draft means there is air being forced into the furnace.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
228. Balanced draft is the system which forces air into the furnace and the combustion gases are removed
from the furnace by natural or mechanical means.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
229. What is in the boiler that gives the air a swirling motion in order to obtain better mixing of fuel and air
plus they shut off the air supply when the burner is out of service.
a) louvers
b) doors
c) vents
d) fans
e) manholes
Answer is A
230. Combustion is to burn fuel in a boiler furnace to produce heat.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
231. An example of volatile matter is

a) water
b) sand
c) clay
d) hydrocarbons
e) shells
Answer is D
Page 45
232. The three T’s for the combustion process are
a) Temp, Time, Turbulence plus water
b) Temp, Triggers, Tramping plus air
c) Tramping, Time, Turbulence plus water
d) Ticking, Tacking, Taming plus air
e) Temp, Time, Turbulence plus air
Answer is E
233. Forms of complete combustion are: 1) C + O2 = CO2 2) 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O 3) S + O2 = SO2

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
234. Theoretical air is the amount of air required to supply just enough oxygen for complete combustion.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
235. CGA B149 1 is the installation code for natural gas burning appliances
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
236. Fixed carbon is carbon that is not combined with

a) S2
b) O2
c) H
d) H2
e) O
Answer is D
237. Which substance could not be a part of log fuel.

a) bark
b) sawdust
c) sugar cane
d) nut shells
e) hydrocarbons
Answer is E
238. Petroleum is crude oil in its unrefined state.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 46
239. Flash point is the lowest temperature at which the fuel oil gives off enough vapour to ignite when
exposed to an open flame
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
240. Liquid petroleum requires 1/120 th of the space than when it’s a gas
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
241. What moves large particles of coal into a furnace

a) cranes
b) conveyer belts
c) people
d) mechanical stokers
e) hoppers
Answer is D
242. Which one is not a mechanical stoker

a) Bar stoker
b) belt
c) underfeed
d) crossfeed
e) overfeed
Answer is B
243. A small opening where air enters in a furnace is called.

a) Tayer
b) Tire
c) Hole
d) Vent
e) Layer
Answer is A
244. A crossfeed stoker is also known as a chain grate stoker or bar stoker
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 47
245. An overfeed stoker is also known as a spreader stoker
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
246. Atomization is the breaking up of oil.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
247. Heavy oils must be heated to this temperature before atomization.

a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
e) 90
Answer is E
248. A rotary cup rotates at

a) 2500 r/min
b) 1500 r/min
c) 3500 r/min
d) 4500 r/min
e) 4000 r/min
Answer is C
249. Compressed air or kerosene can be used to clean burners

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
250. The higher the amount of excess air, the lower the % of CO2 and vice versa
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
251. What instrument is used to determine the amount of CO2 in the flue gas.
a) GC
b) Thermocouple
c) Bias controller
d) Thermometer
e) Fyrite analyzer
Answer is E
Page 48
252. The fyrite analyzer has a bottom reservoir which is filled with an absorbing fluid which extends
approximately how far into the bore.
a) 1 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 4 mm
e) 6 mm
Answer is E
253. How many bulb strokes does it take for a Fyrite analyzer to be purged.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 2
d) 20
e) 18
Answer is E
254. Net stack temperature is the difference between the temperature of the flue gases leaving the boiler and
the temperature of the air entering the combustion chamber.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
255. Safety valves protect the boiler from overpressuring

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
256. ASME Code requires that each steam boiler shall have this many safety valves.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5 or more
Answer is 1
Page 49
257. ASME Code requires that a boiler with 46.4 m2 of water heating surface shall have this many safety
valves.
a) none
b) 1
c) 2
d) does not matter how many
e) 2 or more
Answer is E
258. What is the pop safety valve pressure

a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) not more than 3 %
e) not more than 6 %
Answer is E
259. Safety valves that open and close quickly are called
a) Quick valves
b) Globe valves
c) Pop valves
d) Gate valves
e) Safety valves
Answer is C
260. The difference between the pressure at which the valve opens and closes is called blowdown.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
261. The blowdown must be a min. of 14 kPa (2 psi) and max. not lower than 96 % of the set pressure of the
safety valve.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 50
262. What must be installed by the boiler inspector to prevent unauthorized adjustment and tampering to a
safety valve
a) a fibreglass cover
b) seal
c) cap
d) O-ring
e) Cap screw and a seal
Answer is E
263. How much can the popping pressure be increased or decreased by changing the compression of the
spring.
a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 5%
e) 20%
Answer is D
264. Cast iron valves are not used on super heaters

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
265. What position should safety valves be placed in.

a) sideways position with the spindle horizontal
b) downwards position with the spindle horizontal
c) upwards position with the spindle horizontal
d) upwards position with the spindle vertical
e) sideways position with the spindle vertical
Answer is D
266. Torsion Bar Safety Valve are used on boilers with a pressure of 8000 kPa or higher.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
267. The safety valve must not be smaller than 13 mm (1/2 in) or larger than 110 mm (4 1/2 in) in seat
diameter
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 51
268. The safety valve pressure should not exceed more than 34 kPa (5 psi) above the max. allowable working
pressure when all the steam outlets are closed
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
269. The safety valve must be installed vertically in the highest practicable part of the boiler connected to a
flanged opening.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
270. The safety valve should open at what pressure with a 14 kPa plus or minus variation.
a) 100 kPa
b) 150 kPa
c) 123 kPa
d) 103 kPa
e) 101 kPa
Answer is D
271. If the valve does not go at 117 kPa shut the burner off and release pressure slowly through the vent
valve.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
272. A safety relief valve is not fitted with a blowdown adjustment ring and bottom guides.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
273. What temperature does a relief valve open at?

a) 90
b) 30
c) 99
d) 100
e) 50
Answer is C
Page 52
274. Which one is not a direct level measurement
a) dipstick
b) differential pressure level meter
c) gauge glass
d) float gauge
Answer is B
275. Which one is not a indirect level measurement

a) pressure sensing device
b) bubble system
c) differential pressure level meters
d) dipstick
Answer is D
276. What kind of gauge glass is the simplest and least costly method of liquid indication
a) float gauge
b) differential pressure level meter
c) tubular gauge
d) bubble system
e) gauge glass
Answer is C
277. Drain valves or cocks are used to remove any solid material that may collect.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
278. Tubular gauge glasses should not exceed this length and not be used on high pressures, high
temperatures, toxic or hazardous materials.
a) 700 mm
b) 600 mm
c) 750 mm
d) 650 mm
e) 800 mm
Answer is C
Page 53
279. The bottom of a water column should be installed this high above the top tube.
a) 70 mm
b) 80 mm
c) 86 mm
d) 76 mm
e) 96 mm
Answer is D
280. Try cocks are used to provide a means of point level detection when the gauge glass is being replaced.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
281. The lowest visible level in the gauge glass should be how much above the marker.
a) 20 mm or more
b) 30 mm or more
c) 40 mm or more
d) 50 mm or more
e) 60 mm or more
Answer is D
282. What kind of gauge glass is used for pressures above 2800 kPa, temperatures exceeding 250oC and
pressures up to 70 000 kPa.
a) Tubular
b) Glass
c) Reflux
d) Bicolour
e) Flat (armered type)
Answer is E
283. Mica in a transparent gauge will turn opaque colour when exposed to high temperatures and chemically
treated water
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 54
284. Which gauge glass is best used for clean, colourless, non-viscous, non-corrosive fluids including light
and heavy hydrocarbons.
a) Tubular
b) Glass
c) Reflux glass
d) Bicolour glass
Answer is C
285. What kind of gauge glass uses sealed circular glasses or double bullseye assemblies
a) Tubular
b) Glass
c) Reflux
d) Bicolour
Answer is D
286. Water column and gauge glasses should be blown down every shift to remove sediment.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
287. Dirt traps are installed to prevent contamination of the indicating liquid on a remote indicator. The
indicator also has no moving parts.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
288. The three methods to separate steam and water are by using the dry pipe, primary/secondary circuit and
steam scrubbing.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
289. The water in the mixture will have a mass between 2 – 25 times the mass of steam in the mixture.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 55
290. The two kinds of separators are:
a) cyclone and tornado
b) cyclone and smoother
c) turbo and cyclone
d) turbo and tornado
e) none of the above
Answer is C
291. Secondary separators are closely fitted corrugated metal plates located directly above the primary
separator.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
292. Dryers and steam scrubbers are the final stage to remove moisture and contaminants.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
293. Continuous blowdown is where the most dissolve solids are found to be removed.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
294. A steam boiler is basically a closed container, partially filled with water, which is evaporated into steam
under pressure by the application of heat.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
295. A hot water boiler is a closed container, completely filled with water. By the application of heat;
temperature and pressure of the water is raised but no steam is generated.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
296. A long shell or drum could contain higher pressures and increase the heating surface.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 56
297. Heating surface is the part of a boiler through which the heat is transferred from the combustion
products to the boiler water.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
298. In an externally fired boiler where is the furnace located.

a) outside the shell
b) inside the shell
c) in the mud drum
d) in the steam drum
Answer is A
299. Waterlegs are extensions from the shell, which surrounds the grate area to increase the heat capture from
the burning fuel.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
300. A firetube boiler consists of a shell containing straight tubes through which the hot gasses travel from
the fire to the stack.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
301. Watertube boiler uses the heat from the fire and hot gases to comes in contact with the outside of the
tubes.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 57
302. High pressure, High temperature and High capacity boilers are used to produce.
a) warm heat
b) electrical power
c) nothing, they are to big
d) nuclear weapons
e) to just heat water up
Answer is B
303. Thermo flooding boilers are used to inject large amounts of heat energy into geological formations.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
304. Valves located on a line heading from the lowest part of the water side of a boiler are called
a) Try cocks
b) Blowoff
c) Globe
d) Gate
e) Butterfly
Answer is B
305. Power boilers usually require a fast opening valve called a guard valve and a slow opening valve.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
306. Low pressure heating boilers usually require only one blowdown valve.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
307. Steel plate which close off the end of the boiler drum are called.
a) heads
b) caps
c) rings
d) covers
e) spoons
Answer is A
Page 58
308. High-pressure steam boilers operate at pressures above 103 kPa. They are also called power boilers.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
309. Which one is not a hot water boiler.

a) low pressure boiler
b) hot water supply boiler
c) High temperature
d) HRT
e) None of the above
Answer is D
370. An internally fired boiler has the combustion chamber located within the shell of the boiler, or the
furnace is surrounded by watertubes.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
371. Lowest Permissible Water Level (LPWL) is the lowest level at which the boiler can be safely operated
without damaging or overheating any part of the boiler.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
372. In heating boilers the lowest visible part of the water gauge is how much above the LPWL.
a) 10 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 76 mm
e) 37 mm
Answer is C
373. In power boilers the lowest visible part of the water gauge is how much above the LPWL.
a) 10 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 76 mm
e) 37 mm
Answer is B
Page 59
374. In a horizontal fire tube boiler the lowest part is not less than this above the highest point of the tubes,
flues or crown sheet.
a) 10 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 76 mm
e) 37 mm
Answer is D
375. What kind of boiler is supplied by the manufacture completely equipped and mounted on its own base.
a) Package Boiler
b) HRT
c) Scotch
d) Electric
Answer is A
376. Refractory is a protective layer of material that is applied to various parts of the boiler to withstand high
temperatures and abrasion.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
377. Safety relief valves are used where liquid are present. This type of valve does not pop but bleeds off
enough liquid to relieve the excess press.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
378. What is used as a protective device used to prevent steam from entering the internal works of a steam
gauge.
a) Try cock
b) Syphon
c) Steam stop valve
d) Relief valve
Answer is B
379. Breeching is when spent combustion gases from the boiler go up the stack it is also know as flue venting
or uptake.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 60
380. What surrounds the burner damper to regulate air to the burners.
a) vent
b) uptake system
c) syphon
d) try cocks
e) wind box
Answer is E
381. What kind of boiler uses a shell and head plates joined by rivets or fusion welding
a) Locomotive Dry bottom
b) HRT
c) Locomotive Wet bottom
d) Scotch
Answer is B
382. What kind of boiler uses crown sheets for the top of the firebox
a) Locomotive Dry bottom
b) HRT
c) Locomotive Wet bottom
d) Scotch
Answer is A
383. What keeps flat surface close together to keep waterlegs on firebox.
a) rings
b) bolts
c) flange
d) stay bolts
e) nuts
Answer is D
384. If the rear of a scotch boiler is brick lined the boiler is classed as
a) Wet back
b) Dry back
c) Brick back
d) Water back
Answer is B
Page 61
385. If the rear of a scotch boiler uses a waterleg it is classed as
a) Wet back
b) Dry back
c) Brick back
d) Water back
Answer is A
386. Which type of scotch boiler was designed for marine service.
a) Wet back
b) Dry back
c) Brick back
d) Water back
Answer is A
387. What kind of firetube scotch boiler is the most common

a) 1,3,6 pass
b) 1 pass
c) 2 pass
d) 2,3,4 pass
e) 4 pass
Answer is D
388. A longitudinal straight tube boiler has a drum that runs longitudinally in relation to the tubes. The water
circulates from the water space of the drum down the rear header, up the inclined tubes at what angle to
the steam drum.
a) 45
b) 90
c) 15
d) 360
e) 270
Answer is C
389. A cross drum straight tube boiler uses inclined straight tubes with the drum at what kind of angle to the
tubes.
a) 45
b) 35
c) 15
d) 360
e) right angles
Answer is E
Page 62
390. What was the first four pass bent tube boiler designed for hand firing.
a) Longitudinal straight tube boiler
b) Cross drum straight tube boiler
c) Scotch
d) HRT
e) Stirling type
Answer is E
391. What kind of package boiler has bent tubes that run from the upper drum to two mud drums to form the
furnace enclosures
a) Stirling
c) A type
d) D type
e) O type
Answer is C
392. What kind of package boiler has an upper and lower drum to form a water cooled furnace.
a) Stirling
c) A type
d) D type
e) O type
Answer is E
Page 63
393. What kind of boiler allows burners to be located in the end walls or between the tubes in the buckle at
right angles to the drum.
a) Stirling
c) A type
d) D type
e) O type
Answer is D
394. What kind of boiler needs bottom support to eliminate vibration, which could cause failure
a) Stirling
c) A type
d) D type
e) O type
Answer is D
395. A super heater is used when steam is required for power generation or a process at a high temperature
greater than saturation is needed to increase the overall plant efficiency.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
396. What is used to reduce flue gas temperature leaving the unit to as low a value as possible.
a) Super heater
b) Reheater
c) Air heater
d) Economizer
Answer is D
397. What is used to preheat combustion air for burners to improve efficiency.
a) Super heater
b) Reheater
c) Air heater
d) Economizer
Answer is C
Page 64
398. What is the most economical fuel to use and the most efficient method of burning.
a) shells
b) natural gas
c) gasoline
d) naphtha
e) pulverized coal
Answer is E
399. What kind of boiler is very compact, needs no fuel storage space, very easy to install and 98% of the
energy is absorbed as heat which produces no pollution.
a) Firetube boiler
b) Watertube boiler
c) Scotch boiler
d) Package boiler
e) Electric boiler
Answer is E
400. An electrode type electric boiler has a basket, which contains electrodes so when the water flows into
the basket a conductor is created to produce an electric current.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
401. Pure water can not conduct electricity

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
402. An immersion heater type is like a tea kettle

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
403. Shells and drum thickness ranges from

a) 1 mm to 10 mm
b) 100 mm to 200 mm
c) 7 mm to 89 mm
d) 6 mm to 250 mm
e) 1 mm to 50 mm
Answer is D
Page 65
404. Water tube heads are made dished shaped rather than flat because in a fire tube boiler the heads hold the
tubes therefore they must be flat
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
405. What kind of joint is the primary welded joint in a boiler

a) groove
b) cut
c) filler
d) butt
Answer is D
406. What kind of weld is used to make a butt joint

a) groove
b) cut
c) fillet
d) tee
Answer is A
407. What kind of weld is used to make a lap joint or a tee joint
a) groove
b) cut
c) fillet
d) tee
Answer is C
408. When a filler is applied to both sides of the joint the weld is called a double welded butt joint
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
409. The numbers within the weld refer to the passes or beads used to produce the weld and the sequence in
which they are applied. The numbers outside the weld refer to the layers with those prefixed by the
letter B being the layers applied to the underside of the weld.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 66
410. Preheat temp for welding ranges from 80 – 230 oC
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
411. Postweld heat treatment/stress relieving heats the entire drum after welding to above 590 and than cools
at a controlled rate to under 315 oC
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
412. Tubes used for high pressures are usually seamless.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
413. Bending the tube ends prevent the tube from overheating
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
414. Boiler stays prevent the boiler from doing this on flat surfaces which are exposed to pressure.
a) bending
b) bulging
c) breaking
d) bleeding
Answer is B
415. An elliptical manhole must not be less than 280 mm by 380 mm or 250 mm by 405 mm.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
416. The diameter of a circular man hole must be not less than
a) 200 mm
b) 380 mm
c) 350 mm
d) 400 mm
e) 405 mm
Answer is B
Page 67
417. Hand holes must not be less than 70 mm by 89 mm
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
418. Bolts and Yokes keep manholes and hand holes in place
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
419. What is the most frequently used material for piping

a) cast iron
b) copper
c) steal
d) forged steel
e) nickel
Answer is C
420. What is most frequently used for fittings

a) cast iron
b) copper
c) steal
d) forged steel
e) nickel
Answer is D
421. What is most frequently used for ash handling, sewage and underground water lines
a) cast iron
b) copper
c) steal
d) forged steel
e) nickel
Answer is A
422. Nominal piping is up to and including this pipe size.

a) 300.4 mm
b) 280.8 mm
c) 350.7 mm
d) 404.3 mm
e) 304.8 mm
Answer is E
Page 68
423. The older method lists pipes as standard (s), extra strong (xs) and double extra strong (xxs)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
424. The new method uses wall thickness ( 10, 20, 30, 40, 60 80, 100, 120, 140, and 160)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
425. What is the wall thickness for standard size

a) 10
b) 30
c) 40
d) 80
e) 160
Answer is C
426. What is the wall thickness for extra strong size

a) 10
b) 30
c) 40
d) 80
e) 160
Answer is D
427. Screwed connections are used for pipe sizes less than 101.6 mm.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
428. Bushing are used to connect pipes of different sizes

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
429. A pipe culter consists of a cutting wheel and adjustable guiding rollers.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 69
430. What is used to remove the internal burr on a pipe that has just been cut
a) pipe butt
b) knife
c) saw
d) pipe reamer
Answer is D
431. Threads are cut by a set of cutters known as dies which are held in a frame known as a stock.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
432. Van Stone flanges are used in piping systems constructed from stainless steel or other costly material
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
433. Ring joint is an oval ring which fits in the grooves that are machined in ring joint flanges (used for high
press applications)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
434. Piping 50.8 mm and smaller uses a socket weld. Larger pipes are butt welded
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
435. Backing and back up rings are used to aid in the lining up of the pipe and also to prevent weld metal
from producing down inside the pipe
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
436. Expansion bands make use of fabricated pipe with special bends.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 70
437. A pipe hanger or support at three meter intervals is considered a good rule of thumb. Hangers and
supports should be placed close to valves and after heavy equipment.
a) True
b) False
Answer A
438. Water hammer is a series of shocks produced by a sudden change in velocity of water flowing within a
pipeline.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
439. Install the steam trap below the lowest point in the system with the line leading to the trap pointed down.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
440. Diatomaceous Silica is made of

a) sand
b) water
c) clay and asbestos
d) sand and asbestos
Answer is C
441. What kind of valve is used as a stop valve that runs at right angles to the flow.
a) Gate
b) globe
c) needle
d) butterfly
e) ball
Answer is A
442. What kind of valve is used to throttle flows and causes the flow to change direction twice
a) gate
b) globe
c) needle
d) butterfly
e) ball
Answer is B
Page 71
443. What kind of valve allows precise flow control used for continuous blowoff or chemical feed control
a) gate
b) globe
c) needle
d) butterfly
e) ball
Answer is C
444. What kind of valve is used in thermal and hydroelectric power stations
a) gate
b) globe
c) needle
d) butterfly
e) ball
Answer is D
445. What kind of valve gives a tight shutoff plus it is used to handle slurries and fluids with a high solid
content.
a) gate
b) globe
c) needle
d) butterfly
e) ball
Answer is E
446. What kind of valve is used as a quick opening valve in a gas supply line
a) check
b) plug
c) gate
d) globe
e) needle
Answer is B
Page 72
447. What kind of valve prevents the reversal of flow in piping
a) check
b) plug
c) gate
d) globe
e) needle
Answer is A
448. ASME code section one states that each outlet from a power boiler (except safety valve connections) be
fitted with a stop valve located as close as practicable to the boiler
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
449. A stop valve of the outside-screw-and-yoke type with rising spindle when the outlet is how much of pipe
size and over
a) 50 mm
b) 51 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 61 mm
e) 41 mm
Answer is B
450. ASME Code section one states that a non-return valve is arranged closest to the boiler, a stop valve at
the header and drains in each case to drain the piping between valves.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
451. All reducing valves should be installed with isolating valves on either side and with a bypass valve.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
452. Ferrous metals include pure iron and alloys of iron. Whereas non-ferrous metals contain no iron such as
copper, lead, zinc etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 73
453. The ability to resist wear, abrasion, cutting and indentation is called
a) brittleness
b) ductility
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) elasticity
Answer is C
454. The property of a metal which permits no permanent deformation before breaking is
a) brittleness
b) ductility
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) elasticity
Answer is A
455. The property of a material that enables it to be drawn out to a considerable extent before rupture and at
the same time to sustain a load is.
a) brittleness
b) ductility
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) elasticity
Answer is B
456. The property is which a material is soft and easy to deform and do not return to their original shape
a) brittleness
b) ductility
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) elasticity
Answer is D
457. A material which can return to its original shape after stretching is called
a) brittleness
b) ductility
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) elasticity
Answer is E
Page 74
458. A property which allows a material to be hammered or rolled into another size or shape is called
a) toughness
b) malleability
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) ductility
Answer is B
459. A property that determines whether or not a material will break under a sudden impact or hard blow is
called
a) toughness
b) malleability
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) ductility
Answer is A
460. A hardness test can be achieved by performing a brinell or a rock well test
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
461. A rockwell tester can make the dial of the instrument measure the depth of the mark to what
a) 0.001 mm
b) 0.002 mm
c) 0.003 mm
d) 0.004 mm
e) 0.005 mm
Answer is B
462. There are two test’s to determine the toughness of a substance they are Izod and charpy
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
463. Iron is produced in a blast furnace from iron ore.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 75
464. Cast iron is produced by melting pig iron with some scrap iron in a cupola furnace. It contains 2-4%
carbon
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
465. Heating and cooling at a fixed rate is called

a) freezing
b) vaporization
c) warming
d) cooling
e) annealing
Answer is E
466. Wrought Iron is produced from puddling.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
467. Steel is alloys of iron and carbon containing less than how much carbon.
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 4%
e) 5%
Answer is B
468. 90% of steal is produced by the open hearth method

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
469. Medium carbon steel has how much carbon

a) 1–3%
b) 0.05 to 0.15%
c) 0.25 – 0.35 %
d) 0.3 – 0.45 %
e) 0.5 - .1.0 %
Answer is D
Page 76
470. “In solution” means that the elements do not combine with other elements but are held suspended as
crystals in basic ferrite
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
471. Slow permanent stretching of a material under stress at a high temperature is called
a) rolling
b) meshing
c) creep
d) steaming
e) plushing
Answer is C
472. Stainless steel has a min. of how much chromium.

a) 10 %
b) 12 %
c) 23 %
d) 60%
e) 45%
Answer is B
473. What increases hardness and decreases creep

a) vanadium
b) chromium
c) molybdenum
d) stretching
Answer is C
474. What promotes hardening and ductility

a) vanadium
b) chromium
c) molybdenum
d) stretching
Answer is A
Page 77
475. What is the oldest form of welding which join surfaces by heating to a certain temp where the metal
becomes plastic and pressure is than applied.
a) fusion
b) butt
c) forge
d) groove
e) fillet
Answer is C
476. What form of welding join to surfaces by heating them above the melting temperature of the base metal
with no pressure being applied.
a) fusion
b) butt
c) forge
d) groove
e) fillet
Answer is A
477. Oxyacetylene process uses acetylene and oxygen to make base metals weld together
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
478. Oxyacetylene torch is generally used as an equal pressure torch.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
479. What colours are the hoses used on an oxyacetylene torch

a) red for oxygen and blue for acetylene
b) blue for oxygen and red for a acetylene
c) green for acetylene and red for oxygen
d) red for acetylene and green for oxygen
Answer is D
480. A regulator pressure gauge shows cylinder pressure on one side and operating pressure on the other.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 78
481. When cutting stainless steal what must be burned with it
a) a high carbon steel
b) a low carbon steel
c) a high iron steel
d) a low iron steel
Answer is B
482. Arc welding is a fusion welding process where the pieces of metal are joined together by means of an
electric arc. The temperature produced by the arc ranges from 3000 – 8300 oC.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
483. What are deposits on the molten pool on the weld that provide a heavy slag layer over the weld tool
called.
a) sludge
b) globules
c) glue
d) sand
e) mud
Answer is B
484. Either alternating or direct current may be used for arc welding, depending on the type of electrode.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
485. Generators and rectifiers are used as power sources

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
486. A rectifier can

a) convert dc to ac
b) convert ac to dc
c) convert water into steam
d) convert ice into water
Answer is B
Page 79
487. One psi equals how many kPa
a) 1
b) 3
c) 14
d) 29
e) 7
Answer is E
488. The letter E on a metal arc indicates that the instrument is good for electric welding
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
489. E-7014 is nicknamed a high heat – low talent rod

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
490. Low voltage and high amps are required for welding
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
491. What kind of welding process is used to produce seams which are neat and uniform in appearance.
a) fusible welding
b) braze welding
c) butt welding
d) submerged arc welding
e) electric welding
Answer is D
492. What kind of welding is used extensively in the repair of cast iron and malleable iron parts
a) fusible welding
b) braze welding
c) butt welding
d) submerged arc welding
e) electric welding
Answer is B
Page 80
493. Backfire is when the flame retreats back into the torch
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
494. What is the easiest way to inspect a weld

a) x-ray
b) liquid dye
c) radiographic
d) visual
Answer is D
495. Penetrameters are test strips which are made of metal to control quality and reliability for radiographic
inspection
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
496. Power Boiler code section one paragraph PW-51 are the rules for radiographic and ultrasonic inspections
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
497. An environment is all the conditions that affect the development of an organism. The environment
consists of natural and man-made elements
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
498. How much oxygen is present in the air

a) 78
b) 13
c) 50
d) 60
e) 21
Answer is E
Page 81
499. How much of your body weight is water
a) 20
b) 30
c) 50
d) 70
e) 90
Answer is D
500. Most of the fresh water consumed comes from groundwater sources
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
501. The three zones of subsurface water are the zone of saturation, water table and zone of aeration
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
502. According to agriculture Canada soil is naturally occurring loose mineral or organic material at the
Earth’s surface that is capable of supporting plant growth
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
503. A parent material may be mineral or organic material deposited on the landscape.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
504. What is the study of plants and animals in relation to their environment
a) Environmental
b) Ecology
c) Toxicology
d) Mineralogy
e) Zoology
Answer is B
505. The gaseous pollutants that a power engineer has to be aware of are carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide
and NOX’s
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 82
506. Orstat is a flue gas analyzer
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
507. Lime scrubbing is a wet process that removes sulphur dioxide

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
508. Double Alkali is a limestone process that removes sulphur dioxide however there is no suspended solids
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
509. Sound travels as waves through the air. Sound is a form of energy therefore sound could have specific
power and intensity levels
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
510. Which one is not related to sound waves

a) reflected
b) deflected
c) absorbed
d) conducted
Answer is D
511. A human ear is usually capable of hearing sounds which represent press from 2 * 10 –5 kPa to 200 kPa
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
512. A decibel is equal to

a) 20 log (A/Ac)
b) 1 log (A/Ac)
c) 10 log (A/Ac)
d) 100 log (A/Ac)
e) 7 log (A/Ac)
Answer is C
Page 83
513. 140 dB is the threshold of pain, 60-70 is normal and 20-30 is a whisper
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
514. What is the min. size of a hole that would leak enough sound to make the enclosure non-effective
a) 1/10
b) 1/100
c) 1/1000
d) ½
e) 1/10 000
Answer is C
515. For a power plant the boiler stack is the main source of atm. Pollution
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
516. The size of fly ash in most plant is

a) less than 20 microns in diameter
b) less than 30 microns in diameter
c) less than 40 microns in diameter
d) less than 50 microns in diameter
e) less than 60 microns in diameter
Answer is B
517. Mechanical Centrifugal Collectors removes fly as by centrifugal, inertial and gravitational forces
developed by a vortex separator. This instrument has no moving parts.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
518. Bag filters are cleaned by what system which shakes the bags and the dust falls out into a hopper
a) scrubber
b) vacuum
c) rapper
d) tapper
e) mesher
Answer is C
Page 84
519. Wet scrubbers remove dust and gas pollution, they are efficient on particulate matter 5 microns in
diameter.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
520. The most effective method of fly ash removal is to dispose of it in a suitable landfill or sell to the
concrete industry
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
521. Dalton’s law states that gases in the atm. Exert pressures which are in proportion to their volume ratios.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
522. Henry’s law states that the amount of any gas that water can dissolve depends on the partial pressure the
gas exerts on the free surface of the water
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
523. Dearation principal is that the amount of oxygen dissolved in the water that is reduced from Henry’s law.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
524. What is used in cooling towers to cause the falling water to be broken into droplets
a) fans
b) blowers
c) splash bars
d) iron bars
Answer is C
Page 85
525. What kind of cooling tower is most widely used
a) hyperbolic
b) induced
c) forced
d) mechanical
e) dry
Answer is B
526. The most prevalent liquid on earth is water. Nearly ¾ of the earth’s surface is covered with water
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
527. How much of the earth’s water is fresh

a) 10 %
b) 1%
c) 0.01 %
d) 100 %
e) 50 %
Answer is C
528. What is water in the soil and rock called

a) salt water
b) slim
c) ground water
d) water table
Answer is C
529. Biochemical oxygen demand test (BOD) is used to determine the level of organic contamination such as
from domestic sewage effluent. The test determines how much the natural oxygen content of water is
taxed by the incoming pollution.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
530. Chemical oxygen demand test (COD) determines how much natural oxygen is conserved by nonorganic
pollutants.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 86
531. What kind of test determines how much suspended material is being carried in the water
a) BOD
b) COD
c) Turbidity test
d) PH
Answer is C
532. Deareation is when water does not contain enough dissolved oxygen to support animal life
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
533. Colloidal particles are very fine particles which are so small that they will not settle out
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
534. Liquids are disposed by total burning by the use of incinerators

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
535. Sulphur oxides are responsible for how much acid rain
a) 50 %
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
e) 90%
Answer is C
536. What is the main heat trapping gas responsible for the green house affect
a) sulphur dioxide
b) NOX’s
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon monoxide
e) Chlorofluorocarbons
Answer is C
Page 87
537. What destroys ozone after rising to the stratosphere
a) Sulphur dioxide
b) NOX’s
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon monoxide
e) Chlorofluorocarbons
Answer is E
538. Nitric acid is responsible for what percentage of acidity in acid rain
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30%
d) 40%
e) 50%
Answer is C
539. Cholorfluorocarbons (CFC’s) are man made products that are used as refrigerants, as a foaming agent
for plastic
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
540. FGD is flue gas desulphirization systems

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
541. Nox’s are highly dependent on temperature. More Nox’s occur if combustion zone temperature is 1650
o
C
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
542. To reduce pollution super stacks have been built.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 88
543. A kg. H2 delivers 4.25 times more energy than a kg. of carbon when burned completely.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
544. What is the most effective action when dealing with a problem because it eliminates the problem at the
root
a) Interim action
b) Adaptive action
c) Permanent action
d) All of the above
Answer is C
545. This action allows you to live with the effects of a problem while making plans to address the cause at
the earliest appointment.
a) Interim action
b) Adaptive action
c) Permanent action
d) All of the above
Answer is A
546. This action allows the plant to operate with the condition indefinitely
a) Interim action
b) Adaptive action
c) Permanent action
d) All of the above
Answer is B
547. When an existing facility is shut down and decommissioned, the site must be left in a condition suitable
for alternate uses.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
548. A condition of approval for a new facility requires that an acceptable development and reclamation plan
be prepared prior to construction
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 89
549. Combustion is an exothermic, self-sustaining reaction involving a solid, liquid and or gas as fuel. It can
occur in an inert atmosphere
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
550. Oxidizing agents are a chemical substance that can react with hydrogen or with metals.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
551. Reducing agents are involved as fuels in the combustion process. An example could be carbon
compound, sulphur, phosphorous or cellulose
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
552. Flamming combustion is the most common type of combustion. However in order to be a flamming fire
this must be burning.
a) wood
b) fuel
c) water
d) vapour
Answer is D
553. Which substance does not belong to the fire tetrahedron

a) Temperature
b) Hydrogen
c) Fuel
d) Oxygen
e) Chain reaction
Answer is B
554. Flameless Combustion only occurs with what kind of fuel. This type only needs temperature, fuel and
oxygen to burn.
a) solid
b) liquid
c) vapour
d) all of the above
Answer is A
Page 90
555. Flamming combustion will cease if the oxygen concentration is lowered to this percentage of
hydrocarbon gases.
a) 5%
b) 10 %
c) 15 %
d) 20 %
e) 25 %
Answer is C
556. Wood will continue to burn with oxygen levels as low as

a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 10 %
d) 20 %
e) 34 %
Answer is B
557. Asphyxiants reduce the concentration of oxygen in the air

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
558. Which class of the National Fire Protection Association Extinguisher is used for flammable or
combustible liquid/gases by removing one side of the tetrahedron
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
e) Class E
Answer is B
559. Which class of the National Fire Protection Association Extinguisher is used for combustible metals
which is a heat absorbing extinguisher that does not react with the burning metal
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
e) Class E
Answer is D
Page 91
560. Which class of the National Fire Protection Association Extinguisher is used on ordinary combustible
material which extinguishes by cooling water or dry chemical
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
e) Class E
Answer is A
561. Which class of the National Fire Protection Association Extinguisher is used for electrical fires which is
non conductive.
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
e) Class E
Answer is C
562. What kind of extinguisher is used on Class C fires because the extinguisher is non combustible which
reduces oxygen to the fire. It also does not leave a residue
a) Halogenated Agents
b) Foam
c) Dry Chemical
d) Dry Powder
e) Carbon dioxide
Answer is E
563. What kind of extinguisher breaks the chain reaction and is either single use for Class B or C fires or
multipurpose for Class A, B and C fires.
a) Halogenated Agents
b) Foam
c) Dry Chemical
d) Dry Powder
e) Carbon dioxide
Answer is C
Page 92
564. Halon extinguishers have a number system. The first digit stands for
a) iodine
b) bromine
c) chlorine
d) fluorine
e) carbon
Answer is E
565. The second number stands for on a halon extinguisher

a) iodine
b) bromine
c) chlorine
d) fluorine
e) carbon
Answer is D
566. The third number stands for on a Halon extinguisher

a) iodine
b) bromine
c) chlorine
d) fluorine
e) carbon
Answer is C
567. The fourth number stands for on a Halon extinguisher

a) iodine
b) bromine
c) chlorine
d) fluorine
e) carbon
Answer is B
568. The fifth number stands for on a Halon extinguisher

a) iodine
b) bromine
c) chlorine
d) fluorine
e) carbon
Answer is A
Page 93
569. Halon 2402 is used in aircraft engine compartments whereas Halon 1301 is a normal agent
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
570. Which type of fire extinguisher is used to exclude air, to cool and to provide a seal for the vapours from the
hydrocarbon. It s used for Class A and B fires.
a) Halongenated Agents
b) Foam (AFFF – Aqueous Film Forming Foam)
c) Dry chemical
d) Dry powder
e) Carbon
Answer is B
570. What kind of fire extinguisher is used for Class D fires because it excludes air plus provides cooling
a) Halongenated Agents
b) Foam
c) Dry chemical
d) Dry powder
e) Carbon
Answer is D
571. Portable Fire Extinguishers are marked with a shape what is used for a Class A fire
a) Blue circle
b) Red square
c) Green triangle
d) Yellow star
e) Purple octagon
Answer is C
572. Portable Fire Extinguishers are marked with a shape what is used for a Class B fire
a) Blue circle
b) Red square
c) Green triangle
d) Yellow star
e) Purple octagon
Answer is B
Page 94
573. Portable Fire Extinguishers are marked with a shape what is used for a Class C fire
a) Blue circle
b) Red square
c) Green triangle
d) Yellow star
e) Purple octagon
Answer is A
574. Portable Fire Extinguishers are marked with a shape what is used for a Class D fire
a) Blue circle
b) Red square
c) Green triangle
d) Yellow star
e) Purple octagon
Answer is D
575. Pictographs on fire extinguishers have a blue background if good and a black background with a red slash if
bad.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
576. Class A and B fire extinguishers have an underwriters laboratory Canada rating (ULC) which rates how
good a fire extinguisher is. 4A is more effective than 1 A
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
575. When maintenance is needed on Fire Extinguishers it is required by the code to have a certified agency do
the maintenance. Also the extinguisher should be looked at annually by the agency
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
576. Most common cause of fires in buildings in the industrialized world is overheating of electrical equipment.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 95
577. An electric arc is when the current is allowed to jump across an air gap.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
578. Electrical Protection Act governs the insulation and maintenance of electrical equipment, including the
requirements to prevent fires caused by overloading.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
579. Class 1 Division 1 is an area where hazardous concentration of flammable gases may exists continuously
under normal conditions. Class 1 Division 2 is an area where flammable liquids/gases are handled but are
normally confined to containers. Class 2 Division 1 is an area where combustible dust is present in normal
conditions. Class 2 Division 2 is an area where combustible dust is not normally found in normal
conditions. Class 3 Division 1 is an area where easily ignited fibres could be present. Class 3 Division 2 is
an area where fibres are stored or handled but not processed.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
580. Dry chemical can form a conducting path to the ground if any moisture is present
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
581. Workers Compensation Board (WCB) provides a rehabilitation and retraining service to assist workers in
returning to the workforce as soon as possible.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
582. The Occupational Health and Safety Act requires that an employer ensure the health and safety of their
workers as far as it is reasonable and practicable.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 96
583. Employers are required to carry out an investigation into the circumstances surrounding the injury/incident
and to prepare a report that is kept in file for how many years
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer is B
584. OH&S must be notified if a serious injury or an accident that has the potential of causing serious injury to a
person occurs at a work site
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
585. The maximum penalties in OH&S Act for first offence is

a) $1
b) 5 years in jail
c) $150 000
d) $250 000 and one year in jail
e) $150 000 and one year in jail
Answer is E
586. The distance gap between the head and the helmet on a hard hat should be
a) 2 “
b) 1 ¼ “
c) 1 ½ “
d) 2 ¼ “
e) 3 “
Answer is B
587. Respiratory protection must be worn in areas where the worker is exposed to airborne contamination or
where oxygen is less than 18 kPa
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
588. General Safety Regulation 95(2) states that the employer shall ensure that the employees wear self
contained breathing apparatus, self contained oxygen generated apparatus or remote supplied air apparatus
that has positive pressure in the face piece, 30 min capacity, escape pak and has an alarm
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 97
589. General Safety Regulation 99 states that an employer shall establish a code of practice governing the
selection maintenance and use of respirator equipment. (CSA Z94.4) governs the selection, care and use of
respirators)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
590. SCBA can be 30 or 60 min cylinders and have an air line up to 100 m long
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
591. Remote air supply breathing apparatus is an external air line for extended use with a spare air bottle
(escape pak is 5 min)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
592. Pumps that are pumping an explosive, corrosive or poisonous liquid must have how many valves on the
drain
a) none
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4
Answer is C
593. When isolating a steam turbine what do you always isolate first
a) Exhaust valve
b) Drive valve
c) Discharge valve
d) Suction Valve
Answer is B
594. When isolating a steam boiler what must you always isolate with
a) orifices
b) block valves
c) steam
d) blind flanges
Page 98
Answer is D
595. A confined space is any enclosed or partially enclosed space having restricted access and egress, and
which due to its nature may form a trap to become life threatening.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
596. Minimum oxygen level should not be below

a) 10 %
b) 5 %
c) 20 %
d) 25 %
e) 50 %
Answer is C
597. CTC stands for Canadian Transport Commission

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
598. Dot stands for Department of Transport

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
599. DOT-4BA-240 means that 4BA is construction specifications and 240 is the service pressure in psi
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
600. Tare weight (TW) is how much the cylinder weighs when empty
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
601. The serial number cannot be duplicated and is registered with the BUREAU OF EXPLOSIVES
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 99
602. A cap or a guard ring is placed over the cylinder valve because that is the most easily damaged part of
the cylinder. Note that the cap must be a female left hand thread
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 100
603. What do you use to move a cylinder
a) trolley
b) crane
c) hand truck
d) wagon
e) nothing – just roll it
Answer is C
604. What is used to prevent gas from escaping during the changing of a cylinder
a) guard ring
b) cap
c) hose
d) regulator
e) manifold
Answer is E
605. Foot rings make sure that the cylinder is placed in the upright position.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
606. Canadian standards Association states that gas cylinders should be located above the ground and
outside the building when connected to a gas consuming equipment.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
607. Cylinders must be kept horizontally and how far from the building opening.
a) 1 m
b) 2 m
c) 3 m
d) 4 m
e) 5 m
Answer is A
608. Never store oxygen and acetylene cylinders together they should be kept how far apart
a) 10 m
b) 1 m
c) 4 m
d) 6 m
e) 20 m
Answer is D
Page 101
609. Filler valves are used for product transfer into cylinders
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
610. The water jacket test subjects the cylinder under water to this pressure which is greater the pressure
stamped on it.
a) Twice as much
b) Three times as much
c) Four times as much
d) Five times as much
Answer is A
611.After inspection a new date is stamped near the previous date

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
612. Lean means that when the percent of fuel is lower than the lower flammable limit. Rich means that
when the percent of fuel is greater than the upper flammable limit.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
613. Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a enough vapours will ignite with the air.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
614. Switch loading is loading a product having a high flash point after a load of product having a low flash
point
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
615. To prevent switch loading tank cars should be purged with carbon dioxide
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 102
616. Switch loading is responsible for how much of the loading rack truck fires.
a) 60 %
b) 70 %
c) 80 %
d) 90 %
e) 100 %
Answer is D
617. What are used to prevent the spout from being thrown out
a) ties
b) reflectors
c) deflectors
d) hoses
Answer is C
618. In a LPG (Liquid Petroleum Gas) car there must be no air present
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
619. What is the space left above the surface of the liquid called
a) gap
b) hole
c) box
d) outage
Answer is D
620. How often should hoses be hydrostatically checked.

a) once every three years
b) once a year
c) twice a year
d) once every six months
e) twice a month
Answer is B
621. The gauge rod is set for one meter. Outage is calculated using relative density and temperature of the
product being loaded. The gauge level is measured to the nearest ¼ inch.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 103
622. Some light hydrocarbons need this above the vapour space to maintain positive pressure
a) air gap
b) water
c) gas blanket
d) water blanket
Answer is C
623. A sour product is a liquid petroleum product that may have H2S. You can be exposed to 10 ppm for 8
hours, 15 ppm for 15 min, 20 ppm ceiling limit.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
624. Bulk quantities are how many litres.

a) 300 litres or more
b) 350 litres or more
c) 584 litres or more
d) 454 litres or more
e) 276 litres or more
Answer is D
625. Truckers must have a valid H2S “alive” certificate

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
626. The best location for H2S sensors is in the path of those normal air currents and close to the most
probable source of leak.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
627. Artificial breathing must be done within how many minutes of exposure.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer is C
Page 104
628. A product with a concentration of H2S not exceeding 0.001% (10 ppm) is considered sweet.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
629. Ceiling OEL is the maximum concentration of an airborne substance to which a worker may be exposed
by inhalation H2S is 20 ppm.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
630. Pulmonary Edema is an abnormal excess of fluids in the lungs

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
631. The most important people in the EMS system is the bystander.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
632. Which one does not belong to the ABC system

a) Airway
b) Breathing
c) Circulation
d) All of the above
Answer is E
633. CVD is the cardiovascular disease.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
634. Without CPR the brain will have permanent damage unless it receives oxygen within
a) 2 –3 min
b) 3 –4 min
c) 4 – 5 min
d) 4 – 6 min
e) 3 – 5 min
Answer is D
Page 105
635. Artificial respiration adults need one breath every 5 seconds and a child needs one breath every 3
seconds.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
636. CPR – give 15 compressions at 80 –100 compressions per min than 2 slow breaths continue for 4 cycles
repeat until EMS arrives
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
637. When bleeding use the RED system which is rest, elevate the injured area, direct pressure on the area.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
638. Which element is not part of the broken bone rice system
a) Rest
b) Immobilize
c) Cold
d) Elevate
e) Cut
Answer is E
639. The three components of regulations are labelling, MSDS and employee training
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
640. Every controlled product sold or imported into a Canadian workplace must have a supplier label and an
MSDS
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
641. ANSI stands for American National Standards Institute. CCOHS stands for Canadian Centre for
Occupational Health and Safety. CPR stands for Controlled Products Regulations. HMIRA stands for
Hazardous Materials Information Review. HPA stands for Hazardous Products Act. NA stands for
North American Product Identification number and UN stands for United Nations Identification
number.
a) True
b) False
Page 106
Answer is A
Page 107
642. WHMIS has how many hazard symbols
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
e) 8
Answer is E
643. Controlled products must fit into one of how many classes.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
Answer is E
644. Which WHMIS class is Class A

a) Compressed gases
b) Oxidizing material
c) Poisonous and Infectious Material
d) Corrosive mater
e) Dangerously reactive material
Answer is A
645. How many divisions does Class B have (flammable and combustible material)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
Answer is E
646. How many divisions does Class D have (poisonous and infectious material)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
Answer is A
Page 108
647. WHMIS does not apply to anyone involved in the transportation of the product and TDG
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
648. Supplier labels are a requirement of sale or importation and are normally prepared by the manufacturer.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
649. Workplace labelling and marking is a responsibility equally shared between employers and employees.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
650. A supplier label must be bilingual.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
651. In case of acute and chronic toxicity only the skull and crossbones symbol is displayed.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
652. All controlled products used, handled or stored at a workplace must be labelled including wastes to be
discarded
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
653. The workplace label is normally applied to controlled products decanted at the workplace.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 109
654. What does a day to day product need?
a) Supplier label
b) 2 part work site label
c) 3 part work site label
d) 5 part supplier label
Answer is C
655. A one person use once per shift needs a product identifier and for immediate use no label is
required.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
656. A three-part workplace label must have the product identifier, basic risk phrase and a statement that
MSDS is available.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
657. Colour coding is used instead of labels on vessels and pipelines.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
658. How many areas are on a MSDS

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
e) 10
Answer is D
659. Toxicology is expressed three ways: acute, chronic and infectious.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
660. The three routes into the human body are ingestion, absorption and inhalation
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 110
661. Acute means that it is immediate and has serious effects. Whereas chronic means it is a long term effect.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
662. An MSDS label can not be older than
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
e) 5 years
Answer is C
663. For LD 50 and LC 50 the smaller the number the more toxic the product is
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
664. HMIRA gives an exemption grant for how many years

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
e) 5 years
Answer is C
665. OEL for H2S is what

a) 5 ppm
b) 10 ppm
c) 15 ppm
d) 20 ppm
e) 25 ppm
Answer is B
666. The ingredient disclosure list has 1736 chemicals

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 111
667. Materials having a number less than what are considered to have a slow evaporation rate
a) 0.01
b) 0.1
c) 0.5
d) 0.005
e) 0.8
Answer is E
668. TDG classification of flammable liquids ends at 61oC and WHMIS ends at 93.3oC
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
669. American society of mechanical engineers (ASME) set up a committee in 1911 to formulate rules of
construction of boilers. The committee is called Boiler and Pressure vessel committee
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
670. National Board of Boiler Pressure Vessel Inspectors was formed in 1919. The inspector enforces rules
of the code.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
671. All fittings must be registered

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
672. CSA B51 is the code for the construction and inspection of boilers and pressure vessels
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
673. CSA B52 is the mechanical refrigeration code

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 112
674. Details of drawing and specifications for boiler design must be sent to Chief inspector with the owner of
the designs signature.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
675. Do not confuse a sketch with unnecessary details.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
676. What are the points of which the measurements are to be taken are brought out as called
a) points
b) markings
c) marking lines
d) extension lines
Answer is D
677. The most common view on an engineering diagram are the front elevation, plan (top view) and one side
elevation
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
678. What view is usually the key view

a) plan view
b) right view
c) left view
d) one side elevation
e) front elevation
Answer is E
679. When a circle is viewed obliquely it appears as an ellipse.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 113
680. What is used to draw parallel lines or at right angles to each other
a) compass
b) ruler
c) protractor
d) triangle
Answer is D
681. Section lining should be drawn at what angle

a) 35
b) 25
c) 45
d) 90
e) 75
Answer is C
682. The three general principals for writing is to be clear, concise and correct
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
683. Concrete words refer to physical objects, concepts and generalizations

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
684. The ideal sentence is how many words long

a) 10 – 20
b) 20 – 30
c) 15 – 20
d) 5 – 10
e) 30 – 40
Answer is C
685. The four most common punctuation marks are the comma, semi-colon, colon and apostrophe
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 114
686. In technical writing a paragraph should be how long
a) 10 sentences long (200 words)
b) 3 sentences long (50 words)
c) 4 – 7 sentences long (100 words)
d) 13 – 15 sentences long (300 words)
Answer is C
687. 80 % of technical writing the topic sentence should be in the beginning of the paragraph
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
688. Unity is when all the sentences relate to the key idea. Coherence refers to the arrangement of ideas in a
logical, orderly sequence.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
689. Which method is not an example of coherence

a) diagrams
b) transitional expressions
c) pronouns
d) repetition of words
e) parallel structure
Answer is A
690. RENNS is used to help remember some of the main methods of developing details in a paragraph.
(RENNS stands for reasons, examples, names, numbers, senses)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
691. Memorandum means a thing worth remembering

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 115
692. How many parts are to a memo
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
e) 15
Answer is C
693. How many lines below the subject line does the message occur
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer is C
694. Headings are effective ways to use up white space and visual cues such as bolding will make the
message stand out
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
695. Thermodynamics is a branch of physics which deals with the conversion of heat into other forms of energy
or other forms of energy into heat
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
696. Standard atmospheric pressure is

a) 101.325 kPa
b) 760 mm Hg
c) 14.696 psi
d) 29.92 inches of Hg
e) all of the above
Answer is E
697. Enthalpy or heat content is the amount of heat expressed in kJ/kg or Btu/lb. contained in a substance,
relative to a base temperature.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 116
698. Latent Heat is the heat that causes a change of state of a substance without changing its temperature.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
699. Sensible heat is heat that causes a change in the temperature without changing the state
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
700. Specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit of mass of a substance 1oC
without changing its state.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
701. The temperature gradient is the rate of temperature change along these points from higher to lower.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
702. To change from Fahrenheit to Celsius (9/5 oC) + 32 vice versa 5/9 (oF – 32)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
703. A pyrometer measures very high temperatures

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
704. The specific heat of fresh water is 4.2 kJ/kg/oC.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
705. The highest rate of conductive heat transfer is obtained in dense materials because the molecules are in
close contact with each other.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 117
706. Water in a boiler is heated by
a) conduction currents
b) radiation
c) convection currents
d) all of the above
Answer is C
707. A compound gauge measures pressures above or below atmospheric pressure.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
708. absolute pressure = gauge pressure + 101.3 kPa

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
709. What is anything that has mass and occupies space (the best answer applies)
a) A human being
b) An element on the periodic table
c) Water
d) Matter
Answer is D
710. What is the name of the property that is not dependent on the amount of matter
a) intensive property
b) extensive property
c) chemical property
d) both a and c
e) both b and c
Answer is D
711. What is the name of the property that is dependent on the amount of matter
a) intensive property
b) extensive property
c) chemical property
d) both a and c
e) both b and c
Answer is B
Page 118
712. A homogeneous mixture has uniform composition where a heterogeneous mixture does not.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
713. What is a pure substance that consists of two or more elements chemically bound together
a) Super element
b) Compound
c) Matter
d) All of the above
Answer is B
714. Law of constant composition is all samples of a given substance will contain the same elements in the same
proportions.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
715. What are pure substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler form there are 109 of them
a) Compounds
b) Mixture
c) Water
d) Element
Answer is D
716. Mechanics is a branch of physics that deals with forces and the effects of forces on bodies at rest and in
motion.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
717. Newton’s first law states that every body will continue in its state of rest unless it is acted upon by an
external force. Second law states that the rate of change of motion is proportional to the force producing
the change and takes place in the direction in which the forces act. The third law states that for every action
there is an equal and opposite reaction
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 119
718. Which motion is not related
a) Time
b) Mass
c) Force
d) Velocity
e) Acceleration
Answer is A
719. The mass of a body is unchanging and does not vary according to its location
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
720. Velocity = change in position/time Acceleration = change in velocity/ time

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
721. What is a force per unit area and acts in a direction normal to or right angles to a surface
a) pressure
b) velocity
c) acceleration
d) time
e) mass
Answer is A
722. Work is when a force is applied to a body causing the body to move a certain distance
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
724. Pressure = force/area Work = force * distance Power = work done / time
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
723. Power is the rate of doing work. Energy is the capacity of a body to perform work.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 120
724. Potential Energy is the ability of a body to do work by virtue of its position. Kinetic energy is the ability of
a body to do work due to its motion.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
725. Force is the push or pull exerted on a body, and may make a body move or bring it to rest.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
726. What is a single support about which a bar is free to rotate called
a) balance
b) bar
c) support
d) fulcrum
Answer is D
727. Simply supported is a beam that rests on supports so it is free to bend.

a) True
b) False.
Answer is A
728. Actual Mechanical Advantage (MA) is the ration of the load to the effort
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
729. Velocity ratio is the distance moved by the effort divided by the distance moved by the load.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
730. A block and tackle system consists of a top and bottom pulley block (each carrying a # of pulleys which are
free to rotate on a common axle)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 121
731. A screwjack is a special type of inclined plane (wrapped around a cylinder)
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
732. A scalar quantity is one which has magnitude only. A vector quantity has magnitude and direction.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
733. What kind of diagram illustrates a system of vector

a) plan diagram
b) grid
c) chart
d) space diagram
Answer is D
734. Coplanar Vectors are when all the vectors are on the same plane. Concurrent vectors are vectors whose
lines of action meet at one point.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
735. Displacement refers to the change in the position of a body (magnitude and direction). Whereas distance is
a quantity that has magnitude only.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
736. When there is no change in direction for a body in motion, then displacement and distance will be the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
737. Which one is not an example of friction

a) Scalar friction
b) Static friction
c) Kinetic friction
d) Rolling friction
e) Fluid friction
Answer is A
Page 122
738. Static friction is always greater than kinetic friction.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
739. A rigid body is called a load, deformation is strain, internal resistance to external force is stress.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
740. Perpendicular force is called normal stress (push or pull). Parallel forces are called shear stresses. Ultimate
stress is when the material breaks is defined as the max. load divided by the original cross-sectional area
before deformation.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
741. A belt drive moves a pulley from another pulley by means of a friction force between the surface of the belt
and the pulleys. Belt drives are used to transmit power or to change rotational speeds or both.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
742. The follower rotates how much for each revolution of the driver.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer is B
743. A pulley train is a series of pulleys connected by belting. They are used to change speed or to transmit
power.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
744. Intermediate gears are used to transmit power between gears that are a distance apart. They do not affect
the speed of the driven gear.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 123
745. The advantage of gear drive over belt drives is that there is no slippage. Gears are able to transmit more
power than belt systems
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
746. Chain drives use special gears called sprockets which are driven by chains. Backlesh is when the teeth on
the gears can be moved slightly when not driven.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
747. A 4’th class engineer can take charge of a plant having a capacity no more than 1000 kW.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
748. IAO is insurers advisory organization of Canada. Minimizes insurance losses through standards and
inspection.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
749. Natural numbers are the numbers used for counting. Whole numbers are natural numbers and zero. Prime
numbers are whole numbers other than 0 and 1. Proper fractions are less than one improper fractions are
greater than one mixed numbers are whole numbers with fraction.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
750. 1 meter is 1/10 000 000 of the distance from North pole to the equator.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
751. Mensuration is the branch of math dealing with measurement or the determination of length, area and
volume. A line has no width or depth and is made of an infinite number of points laid side by side.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
752. A sharp corner is called an acute angle, a square corner is called a right angle, a blunt corner is called an
obtuse angle. A plane figure with three or more sides is called a polygon.
Page 124
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
753. Parallelograms are figures that have 4 straight side and the opposite sides are parallel. Must = 360 degrees.
A trapezoid is a quadrilateral having only two sides parallel. A trapezium has no two side parallel.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
755 A power plant is any plant with one or more boilers in which steam is generated at more than 103 kPa or a
boiler containing liquid at a pressure exceeding 1100 kPa and temp above this:
a) 100
b) 111
c) 121
d) 141
e) 91
Answer is C
754. What is the name of the person who is a skilled worker who operates and maintains the equipment in a
power plant.
a) Plant manager
b) Assistant
c) Junior operator
d) Power engineer
Answer is D
755. What is the name of the organization which is a non-profit, voluntary membership association that
produced codes.
a) LIS
b) MISA
c) ASME
d) ELMA
e) CSA
Answer is E
Page 125
756. What is the name of the code that is for the construction and Inspection of Boiler’s and Pressure Vessels.
a) CSA B51
b) CSA B52
c) ASME VI
d) ASME VII
Answer is A
757. What is the name of the code that is the mechanical refrigeration code.
a) CSA B51
b) CSA B52
c) ASME VI
d) ASME VII
Answer is B
758. Underwriters Laboratories of Canada which issues standards and also test products. Where a product
conforms with the standard the product bears ULC label.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
759. Mechanics is a branch of physics and deals with forces and the effect of forces on bodies at rest and bodies
in motion.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
760. What deals with forces and their effects on rigid bodies at rest.
a) Science
b) Statics
c) Dynamics
d) Vectors
e) All of the above
Answer is B
761. What deals with motion and the effects of force acting upon rigid bodies in motion.
a) Science
b) Statics
c) Dynamics
d) Vectors
e) All of the above
Answer is C
Page 126
762. Acceleration due to gravity is
a) 1 m/s
b) 9.8 m/s
c) 9.8 ft/s
d) 5 ft/s
e) all of the above
Answer is B
763. A free body diagram shows only what kind of forces which act upon a body.
a) internal forces
b) G forces
c) Kinetic force
d) External force
Answer is D
764. A moment of a force around a point is equal to the force multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the
point.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
765. What is a single support about which a bar is free to rotate.

a) Fulcrum
b) Lever
c) Beam
d) Simply supported beam
e) Wheel and axle
Answer is A
766. What is a straight bar or other rigid structure supported at a fulcrum in such away that a small force can
balance or move a much larger load.
a) Fulcrum
b) Lever
c) Beam
e) Wheel and axle
Answer is B
Page 127
767. What is a rigid member or bar supported in someway so that it is capable of carrying a load or a system of
loads.
a) Fulcrum
b) Lever
c) Beam
e) Wheel and axle
Answer is C
768. What is a beam that rests on supports so that it is free to bend without restriction from the supports.
a) Fulcrum
b) Lever
c) Beam
e) Wheel and axle
Answer is D
769. What is a lifting machine designed to lift heavy loads by application of a relatively small effort.
a) Fulcrum
b) Lever
c) Beam
e) Wheel and axle
Answer is E
770. What is the ratio of the distance moved by the effort to the distance moved by the load
a) Mechanical advantage
b) Coefficient of friction
c) Velocity ratio
d) All of the above
Answer is C
771. What is the ratio of the force required to overcome friction to the reaction normal to the surfaces
a) Mechanical advantage
b) Coefficient of friction
c) Velocity ratio
d) All of the above
Answer is B
Page 128
772. A force is a vector quantity.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
773. What is the motion in one plane that can be linear or circular.
a) Coplanar
b) Plane
c) Linearity
d) All of the above
Answer is B
774. Speed is a scalar quantity.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
775. The unit of work is numerically equal to the unit of heat.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
776. What is the term used when a body is capable of doing work. Units are J
a) Work
b) Force
c) Energy
d) All of the above
Answer is C
777. The law of conservation of energy is the energy, which neither be created nor destroyed, it can only be
transformed from one form to another.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 129
778. A belt drive should be arranged so that the tension in the bottom belt is always greater than the tension in
the top belt as this increases the angle of contact and reduces this.
a) Friction
b) Force
c) Tension
d) Contact
e) Slippage
Answer is E
779. Belt drives are used to transmit power or to change rotational speed.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
780. What is the name of a series of pulley’s that are connected by belts. With belt drives, the pulley’s all rotate
in the same direction.
a) Belt train
b) Chain Drive
c) Pulley Belt
d) Pulley train
Answer is D
781. What is used to reverse the rotation in pulley systems.

a) Intermediate gears
b) Idler gears
c) Check gears
d) Both A and B
Answer is D
782. If the external force on a material are trying to stretch the material, the internal forces will be resisting the
lengthening of the material and the stress set up in the material is called this while the member is called
this.
a) Stretching and bow
b) Compressive and strut
c) Tensile and tie
d) All of the above
Answer is C
Page 130
783. If the external forces try to compress the material the internal forces will resist the shortening of the
material. The stress set up in the material is this and the member is called this.
a) Stretching and bow
b) Compressive and strut
c) Tensile and tie
d) All of the above
Answer is B
784. Tensile and Compressive stresses are caused by in line forces perpendicular to the areas on which they act
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
785. What is it called when a material is subjected to a tensile or compressive force.

a) Stress
b) Strain
c) Compression
d) All of the above
Answer is B
786. Hooke’s Law is when within the elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to strain.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
787. What is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the substance by one degree.
a) Temperature
b) Heat
c) Specific Heat
d) Latent Heat
e) Sensible Heat
Answer is C
Page 131
788. What is when heat is given to a substance which results in an immediate rise in temperature
a) Temperature
b) Heat
c) Specific heat
d) Latent heat
e) Sensible heat
Answer is E
790. What is it when heat energy is absorbed

a) Temperature
b) Heat
c) Specific heat
d) Latent heat
e) Sensible heat
Answer is D
789. What is the quantity of heat necessary to change a unit mass of a substance from solid to liquid without a
change in temperature.
a) Latent heat
b) Enthalpy
c) Latent heat of Evaporation
d) Latent heat of Fusion
Answer is D
790. What is the quantity of heat necessary to change a unit of mass of a substance from a liquid to a vapour
without a change of temperature. Varies with pressure because it decreases in value as the pressure rises.
a) Latent heat
b) Enthalpy
c) Latent heat of evaporation
d) Latent heat of fusion
Answer is C
791. What is the amount of heat added to the water to raise its temperature from 0oC to the saturation
temperature.
a) Latent heat
b) Enthalpy
c) Latent heat of evaportation
d) Latent heat of fusion
Answer is B
Page 132
792. Width is common to both
a) front and side views
b) top and side views
c) front and top views
d) bottom and side views
e) all of the above
Answer is C
793. Height is common to both

e) all of the above
Answer is A
794. Depth is common to both

e) all of the above
Answer is B
795. To draw a circle on a diagram it must be drawn as an ellipse.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
796. Pipelines follow the isometric axes.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
797. Letters and numbers on a drawing should be this high.

a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 3 mm
d) 4 mm
e) 5 mm
Answer is C
Page 133
798. Large letters for a title should be this high on a drawing.
a) 2 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 6 mm
d) 8 mm
e) 10 mm
Answer is C
799. Extension lines should be a minimum of this long.

a) 2 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 6 mm
d) 8 mm
e) 10 mm
Answer is E
800. Iron is extracted from ore in a blast furnace

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
801. Flux is usually this which promotes the melting of the ore form the iron.
a) steel
b) sand
c) glass
d) limestone
Answer is D
802. Cast iron is made in a cupola furnace. Cast iron contains 2% carbon or more. Strength of the casting
depends on the proportion of carbon and graphite.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
803. What is the purest form of iron. Which is produced by “puddling” or working pig iron in a furnace where it
is melted without coming in contact with the fire or gases which makes all of the carbon escape.
a) Cast Iron
b) Wrought Iron
c) Steel
d) Aluminium
Answer is B
Page 134
804. What is an alloy of iron containing a small proportion of carbon not more than 2%.
a) Cast Iron
b) Wrought Iron
c) Steel
d) Aluminium
Answer is C
805. Low carbon steel never contains more than this much carbon
a) 0.1%
b) 0.2%
c) 0.3%
d) 0.4%
e) 0.5%
Answer is C
806. Alloy steel is steel that has added elements like nickel or chromium. Nickel does this and chromium does
that.
a) reduces resistance and corrosion
b) weakens and strengthens
c) hardness and toughness
d) toughness/corrosion resistance and hardness
Answer is D
807. What is produced form an ore known as bauxite by an electrolysis process.

a) Cast Iron
b) Wrought Iron
c) Steel
d) Aluminium
Answer is D
808. Bearing metals are called babbits or white metals which are alloys of tin, copper and antimony. When
melting babbit care must be taken to not over heat it because overheating causes valuable constituents to
evaporate.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 135
809. Acetylene should not be used over this pressure because acetylene has unstable characteristics.
a) 93 kPa
b) 101 kPa
c) 103 kPa
d) 143 kPa
e) 200 kPa
Answer is C
810. Never keep oil or grease close to oxygen cylinders due to the fact that the oil will ignite when exposed to
pressurized oxygen.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
811. Generators supply

a) AC Or DC
b) AC
c) DC
d) AC to DC
e) DC to AC
Answer is A
812. Transformers supply

a) AC or DC
b) AC
c) DC
d) AC to DC
e) DC to AC
Answer is B
813. Rectifiers supply

a) AC or DC
b) AC
c) DC
d) AC to DC
e) DC to AC
Answer is D
Page 136
814. When the welding electrode is connected to the negative terminal of the DC source and the base metal is
connected to the positive terminal it is called.
a) Narrow polarity
b) Normal polarity
c) Straight polarity
d) Forward polarity
e) Reverse polarity
Answer is C
815. When the welding electrode is connected to the positive terminal and the work is connected to the negative
terminal it is called.
a) Narrow polarity
b) Normal polarity
c) Straight polarity
d) Forward polarity
e) Reverse polarity
Answer is E
816. What is used to shield a weld plus improve penetration and reduce splatter.
a) cellulose
b) titanium dioxide
c) calcium carbonate
d) silica flour
e) all of the above
Answer is E
817. Flame cutting is when oxygen is used to cut hot iron or steel at 870oC. This is done with a cutting torch
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
818. HRT boiler is

a) uses no fire
b) electric
c) externally fired
d) internally fired
Answer is C
Page 137
819. Locomotive type boiler is
a) uses no fire
b) electric
c) externally fired
d) internally fired
Answer is D
820. Electrode and Immersion are types of what

a) uses no fire
b) electric
c) externally fired
d) internally fired
Answer is B
821. What is a differential in pressure which will produce a flow of air

a) force
b) work
c) strain
d) stress
e) draft
Answer is E
822. To increase the pressure differential between the pressure at furnace inlet and outlet you must.
a) Chill the outside air
b) Increase the temperature of the gas leaving the furnace
c) Increase the height of the chimney
d) All of the above
Answer is D
823. When draft is produced by natural means the flow is controlled by means of an air register.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 138
824. What is used to measure draft
a) ruler
b) gauge glass
c) “u” tube manometer
d) sling nut
Answer is C
825. Air atomizing oil burner is used on package boilers and steam atomizing oil burner is used on large boilers.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
827. For a package boiler it is recommended that 0.186 m2 opening be provided for every of boiler
power
a) 1200 kW
b) 1000 kW
c) 1654 kW
d) 2000 kW
e) 2567 kW
Answer is B
826. Screwed connections are generally used for piping less than this
a) 104.6 mm
b) 103.6 mm
c) 102.6 mm
d) 101.6 mm
e) 100.6 mm
Answer is D
827. What is used to connect pipes of different sizes.

a) welds
b) rings
c) bushings
d) brushings
e) tees
Answer is C
Page 139
828. What one is a flange
a) Screwed
b) Welded
c) Loose
d) Lapped
e) All of the above
Answer is E
829. What fits inside the pipe which are used to aid in the lining up of the pipe and also to prevent the weld
mental from protruding down inside the pipe.
a) gaskets
b) unions
c) o rings
d) back up rings
Answer is D
830. The markings on fittings should have the trade mark first than press/temp rating than material.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
831. What cause the steam to change direction or imparts a whirling motion to remove steam.
a) Steam trap
b) Sediment separator
c) Steam separator
d) Cyclone precipitator
Answer is C
832. What must be installed below the lowest point in the system with line leading to trap pitched downward.
a) Steam trap
c) Steam separator
Answer is A
Page 140
833. What is installed in front of a steam trap to prevent foreign material from entering
a) Steam trap
c) Steam separator
Answer is B
834. What causes a sharp turn at high speeds to reduce dust

a) Steam trap
c) Steam separator
Answer is D
835. What can absorb sound

a) lead
b) loose sand
c) brick
d) none of the above
e) all of the above
Answer is E
836. What are the firetube boiler heads which hold the tube sheets called.
a) sprockets
b) tube sheets
c) crown sheets
d) all of the above
Answer is C
837. What is used as a steam pressure gauge

a) manometer
b) try cocks
c) ruler
d) bourdon tube
Answer is D
Page 141
838. If the water level is found to be below the gauge glass then the fuel and air supply should be shut off
immediately.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
839. When a boiler is going out of service than it must be “layed up”. Either wet lay or dry lay which prevents
corrosion.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
840. Boiler feedwater must be treated to

a) Prevent sludge from depositing on boiler surfaces
b) Prevent scale from forming on boiler surfaces
c) Prevent corrosion of boiler metal
d) Prevent carryover of impurities with the steam leaving the boiler.
e) All of the above
Answer is E
841. What compounds cause hardness of the water and cause scale deposits
a) Calcium bicarbonate
b) Magnesium bicarbonate
c) Calcium sulphate
d) Magnesium sulphate
e) All of the above
Answer is E
842. If bicarbonates are not removed before the water enters the boiler, then they will form a soft scale on the
boiler surfaces.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
843. To remove dissolved gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide this is used.
a) Super heater
b) Feed water pump
c) Deaerator
d) Separator
Answer is C
Page 142
844. What cause the external boiler feedwater filter to reverse the direction of flow through the filter, thus
freeing the trapped material from the bed and washing it to waste.
a) Cyclone
b) Filter press
c) Backwash
d) Pressure
Answer is C
845. What softner is used to remove scale forming dissolve solids such as calcium and magnesium compounds
from the feedwater. This process can either be done hot or cold.
a) Lime-soda softener
b) Sodium Zeolite softener
c) Deaeration
d) All of the above
Answer is A
846. What softner is used to exchange the scale forming dissolved solids in the water with non-scale forming
dissolved solids.
a) Lime soda softener
b) Sodium zeolite softener
c) Deaeration
d) All of the above
Answer is B
847. What impurities cause scale and sludge

c) Calcium sulphate
e) All of the above
Answer is E
848. What impurities cause Corrosion and Carryover

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Monoxide
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Both A and C
e) Sulphate
Answer is D
Page 143
849. What does filtration remove
c) Calcium sulphate
e) All of the above
Answer is E
850. Temporary hardness are easily removed from the water by heating these chemicals below their boiling
points.
a) Sodium Hydroxide
b) Calcium and Magnesium bicarbonates
c) Calcium and Magnesium sulphates
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
Answer is B
851. Permanent hardness are these compounds which cannot be removed by heating the water.
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Calcium and Magnesium bicarbonates
c) Calcium and Magnesium sulphates
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
Answer is C
852. What causes corrosion in the return lines.

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Both a and c
Answer is D
853. What is added to the return lines to prevent corrosion

a) Sodium Hydroxide
b) Prime
c) Amines
d) All of the above
Answer is C
Page 144
854. To cut a boiler into a line when the boiler is a single boiler not connected to a common header with other
boilers, it is often the practice to raise steam pressure with the boiler stop valve open.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
855. To cut a boiler into a line when the boiler is connected to a common header with other boilers the boiler
should be provided with a non return stop valve directly at the boiler and a header stop valve adjacent to the
header with a drain valve between the two valves.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
856. What should you do in the event of a flame failure.

a) Increase fuel to the burner
b) Increase water to the boiler
c) Decrease water to the boiler
d) Decrease fuel to the burner
Answer is D
857. What is the purpose of a blow down ring on a safety valve

a) As the ring is raise the blow down will increase
b) As the ring is decreased the blow down will decrease
c) As the ring is decreased the blow down will increase
d) Both A and B
Answer is D
858. The low water cut off prevents damage due to over heating of the boiler tubes or plates.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
859. When a filler metal is applied to both side of the joint and the weld is called this
a) double filler
b) double welded butt joint
c) single welded butt joint
d) all of the above
Answer is B
Page 145
860. When a filler metal is applied to one side of the joint the weld is called this.
a) double filler
b) double welded butt joint
c) single welded butt joint
d) all of the above
Answer is C
870. Watertube boilers do not use the beading method because watertube boilers use welded stubs.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
871. Waterlegs on a locomotive boiler must be supported by short stays which are called.
a) through
b) staybolts
c) diagonal
d) longitudinal
Answer?
872. Stays are used to support flat surfaces. Watertube boilers do not need stays because they are not
normally flat surfaces.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
861. What is done to the boiler to remove any gas which may be present in the furnace.
a) Steaming
b) Cooling
c) Purging
d) Soot Blowing
Answer is C
862. Which one is a cause for a furnace explosion.

a) Failure to purge
b) Opening of burner valves before pilot fame, torch or other ignition method is established
c) Torch or pilot flame too weak to provide ignition.
d) Loss of main burner (flame out or flame failure)
e) All of the above
Answer is E
Page 146
863. How many passes does the HRT boiler have
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer is B
864. How many passes does the locomotive boiler have

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer is A
865. How many passes does the package boiler have

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Answer is D
866. Watertube boilers are better suited for high pressures than are firetube boilers. The reason for this is that
watertube boilers do not require large diameter drums as do the firetube types. A large diameter drum or
shell cannot withstand high pressures without being made excessively thick.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
867. 40 kg of copper at 15 0C receives 4000 kJ of heat. Calculate the final temperature of the metal. Specific
heat of copper is 0.39 kJ/kg/ 0C.
a) 231.4
b) 171.5
c) 278.3
d) 271.4
e) 122.9
Answer is D
Page 147
868. From the steam tables find the saturation temperature at 400 kPa.
a) 100
b) 120.23
c) 133.55
d) 176.3
e) 143.63
Answer is E
869. From the steam tables find the latent heat of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 350 kPa.
a) 2470.6
b) 2148.1
c) 2336.1
d) 2057.0
e) 2015.3
Answer is B
870. From the steam tables find the enthalpy of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 750 kPa
a) 2533.5
b) 2618.2
c) 2743.9
d) 2766.4
e) 2796.4
Answer is D
871. From the steam tables find the sensible heat of 1 kg of water at saturation temperature and a pressure of 900
kPa.
a) 289.23
b) 742.83
c) 814.93
d) 844.89
e) 878.50
Answer is B
872. What is the absolute pressure if the gauge pressure is 48.7 kPa.
a) 100
b) 125
c) 150
d) 175
e) 200
Answer is C
Page 148
877. A mass of 100 kg is moved a vertical distance of 10 m in 5 sec. What is the work done?
a) 8.72 kJ
b) 9810 kJ
c) 9.810 kJ
d) 8720 kJ
e) 1000 kJ
Answer is C
873. What is the purpose of an idler or intermediate gear?

a) Keeps the rotation flowing freely
b) Reverses the rotation when its necessary to transmit power between gears
c) Change direction of the gear from North to South or East to West
d) Both B and C
e) None of the above.
Answer is B
874. What are the main factors to consider when determining the factor of safety to be used for a material.
a) Mechanical properties of the material
b) Loading conditions
c) Possibility of corrosion
d) The degree of safety required
e) All of the above
Answer is E
875. Find the force to accelerate a mass of 100 kg at 10m/s2

a) 900 N
b) 300 N
c) 10 000 N
d) 1000 N
e) 500 N
Answer is D
876. If a steam gauge on a boiler reads 1000 kPa and the atmospheric pressure in the boiler room is 101 kPa,
what is the absolute pressure of the steam?
a) 1101 kPa
b) 1200 kPa
c) 901 kPa
d) 1000 kPa
e) 101 kPa
Answer is A
Page 149
877. (18 + 19 – 8) + (12 – 8 – 4)
a) 29
b) 31
c) 40
d) 0
e) 32
Answer is A
878. (120 / 3) * 5 * (2 / 2)
a) 51
b) 32
c) 200
d) 100
e) 150
Answer is C
879. Convert to Celsius 212 oF

a) 12
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
e) 10
Answer is D
880. What is a power engineer

a) A person who does maintenance in a power plant
b) A skilled worker who operates and maintains the equipment in a power plant
c) A person who creates remedial plans
d) A person who supervises men while working on pumps.
Answer is B
881. A certificate of competency is a document issued by a legal authority stating that a power engineer
meets certain qualifications and has passed certain required examinations set up by that authority.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
Page 150
882. Which one is related to an accident that could occur in a plant
a) Those occurring due to a defect in the machinery or equipment
b) Those due to defect in the management of the plant
c) Those due to individual human errors
d) All of the above
Answer is D
883. Expansion joints are preferred for high-pressure work.

a) True
b) False
Answer is A
884. Water hammer is the term used to describe a series of shocks produced by a sudden change of velocity
of water flowing within a pipeline. This sudden change of velocity may be caused by the rapid closing
or opening of a valve or by the rapid condensation of a pocket of steam within the pipe.
a) True
b) False
Answer is A
885. Two questions on CSA 355-261 (finding in the book)
886. What does the P stand for in PLAN.
887. What does a circle look line on an angle?
888. (2r2*11r+12) = (2r+4) (r+3)
889. Find the torque of something.
890. 40 deg C is what in Kelvin
891. Find the latent heat of something.
892. What is considered a polluting waste
893. What does limestone do to iron.
894. What class is for an electrical fire
Page 151
895. What is the area of a square having a diagonal of 15.
896. Solving for an equation.
897. Question on toughness, ductility, hardness etc.
898. Linear coef. of metals.
899. If steam having a dryness fraction of 0.9 is produced from saturated water at 200 kPa, what amount of heat must
be supplied per kilogram?
900. Boiler efficiency.
901. Coefficient of friction.
Page 152

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FOURTH CLASS EXAM

1. How many centimeters squared in a 100 meters squared?

3. What is the heat energy equivalent of mechanical energy?

4. Why is sulphite added to feedwater?

5. A pH of 6 in boiler water is considered to be?

6. Where does internal treating water enter a watertube boiler?

8. How many sub-divisions are in WHIMIS Class B?

10. What is the latent heat of steam at 2000kPa?

11. The earth's water cycle is known as?

13. What is air primarily made up of?

17. Kinetic energy is?

18. Which of the following is false:

19. If a spring is compressed from 15 cm to 12 cm what is the percentage decrease?

20. If you look at a circle sideways it looks like a/an?

21. A device used to measure angles is?

22. A cylinder cap is used to?

23. MSDS stands for?

26. A LD50 of 10mg per Kg is considered to be:

27. What stack emissions are environmentally unhealthy:

28. What is the most common way of artificial resuscitation?

30. When new compressors are installed they now require?

31. The code for double extra strength steel is:

32. Steel pipe has what two divisions?

35. The radiographic testing method for welding uses?

36. What is a block and tackle?

38. What is work?

40. Same question for RV

41. What if a RV doesn't lift during a test?

42. What is classed as a nuisance dust?

46. What does nickel do to steel?

47. What is steel W it will break before deforming?

48. What does limestone do when smelting iron?

49. Drafting views. Which is the same?

51. Flame detector?

52. How much do you purge a furnace?

53. Sodium Zeolite removes Mg & Ca by?

54. Why do you blow down?

55. Linear coefficient of metals

56. When can a stationery engineer leave the plant unattended?

57. How can you get rid of ground level S02?

59. What is THEORETICAL air?

62. What kind of mask is used in H2S?

63. What does H2S do to sense of smell?

64. What goes in a log book and who signs it?

65. Environment is?

66. Organisms are?

67. What is coalescing?

68. What does a pressure regulator do?

70. Why use chain drive instead of belt drive?

72. Natural Draft is?

73. Convection is the movement of fluid by?

74. What temp can an electric arc reach?

75. Arc welding Reverse Polarity is?

76. What trips a sprinkler head?

77. Where is a fire easily started?

78. What is the most common inspection tool for cylinders?

80. What constitutes water pollution?

81. What is the sub-surface water

82. What is needed before a plant can be de-commissioned

83. What is flux on a welding rod for?

85. What is stress relieving?

86. What prevents a fire tube boiler furnace from collapsing?

87. What is the reason for using a flat gauge glass?

89. What is a cyclone steam separator used for?