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CCNA Questions Answers Feb 8, 2018 Last updated on: Oct 24, 2018
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1. Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

• DNS
• DHCPv6*
• DHCP
• autoconfiguration*

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2. What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

• A. exactly one active router*


• B. one or more standby routers*
• C. one or more backup virtual routers
• D. exactly one standby active router
• E. exactly one backup virtual router

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3. After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify
the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

• Router#show ip interface loopback 0*


• Router#show run
• Router#show interface loopback 0
• Router#show ip interface brief

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4. Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface
on a switch?

• Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 *
• Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
• Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
• Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
• Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

5. Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)

• Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin*


• Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin*
• Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin*
• Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
• Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
• Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin

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6. Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

• Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.*


• OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.*
• EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
• Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
• EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic
address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is
only valid on the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of
FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).

7. If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience
catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?

• a switch with priority 20480*


• a switch with priority 8192
• a switch with priority 4096
• a switch with priority 12288

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8. Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
• They may indicate a duplex mismatch.*
• By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.*
• They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
• They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
• They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

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9. Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

• router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1*


• router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
• router(config-router)#default-information originate
• router(config-router)#default-information originate always

10. Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence?
(Choose two.)

• blocking*
• listening*
• learning
• forwarding
• discarding

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11. If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how
many broadcast domains are present on the router?

• 1
• 2
• 4*
• 8

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12. Question about HTTP API :

• Rest*
• OpenFlow
• COpflex
• OpenStack

13. What two state that lacp forwarding (something like this)

• Passive *
• Active*
• Auto
• Desirable

14. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

• ipv6 local
• ipv6 host
• ipv6 unicast-routing*
• ipv6 neighbor

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15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

• 10.0.0.0 /21
• 10.0.0.0 /22*
• 10.0.0.0 /23
• 10.0.0.0 /24

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16. Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access
layer?

• switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk


switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
• switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
• switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1*
• switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

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17. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination
network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route
is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which
route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
• the OSPF route
• the EIGRP route*
• the RIPv2 route
• all three routes
• the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

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18. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as
illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the
correct configuration.

Given the partial


configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity

• incompatible IP address
• insufficient bandwidth
• incorrect subnet mask
• incompatible encapsulation*
• link reliability too low
• IPCP closed

19. A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a
remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the
network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the
connection?

• Main(config)# interface serial 0/0


Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
• Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut *
• Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
• Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

20. Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous
circuis and has built-in security mechanisms?

• HDLC
• PPP*
• X.25
• Frame Relay

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21. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or
green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?
(Choose three.)

• Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch
ports.
• Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.*
• Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
• Ensure the switch has power.*
• Reboot all of the devices.
• Reseat all cables.*
22. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and
R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic
shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based
on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

• The OSPF area is not configured properly.


• The priority on R1 should be set higher.
• The cost on R1 should be set higher.
• The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.*
• A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
• The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

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23. What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to
an ISP?

• Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.*


• Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
• The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
• A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime
router. What is the cause of the problem?
• The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
• The passwords do not match on the two routers.*
• CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
• The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
• With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers
cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.

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25. What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a
Cisco switch?

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security


Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

• A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.


• A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.*
• A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
• Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames
from that address are received.
• Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames
from that address are received.

26. Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of
2950Switch.

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security


2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur
when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

• The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
• Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.*
• This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
• All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be
forwarded out fa0/1.*
• Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will
not be forwarded out fa0/1.
• Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch,
will be forwarded out fa0/1.

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27. Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you
to view directly connected Cisco devices?

• enable cdp
• cdp enable
• cdp run*
• run cdp

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28. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to
find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

• It checks the configuration register.*


• It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
• It loads the first image file in flash memory.
• It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

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29. What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

• VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.*


• VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
• VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
• VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
• VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical
location.*
• VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.*

30. Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three
statements are true? (Choose three.)

• All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.*


• Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
• The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.*
• All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
• All designated ports are in a forwarding state.*
• This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

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31. Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a
given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)
• show interface trunk*
• show interface interface
• show ip interface brief
• show interface vlan
• show interface switchport*

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32. Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

• discarding*
• listening
• learning
• forwarding*
• disabled

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33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed Switch B and needs to configure it for
remote access from the management workstation connected to Switch A . Which set of
commands is required to accomplish this task?

• SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1


SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no
shutdown
• SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip
default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
• SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no
shutdown*
• SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no
shutdown
• SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no
shutdown

34. Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

• They increase the size of collision domains.


• They allow logical grouping of users by function.*
• They can enhance network security.*
• They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision
domains.
• They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the
broadcast domains.*
• They simplify switch administration.

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35. What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

• A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data


traffic from other network traffic.*
• A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use
the same network infrastructure.
• A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks
to use the same network infrastructure.*
• Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains,
thus reducing their size.*
• Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
increasing their size.
• VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs
all belong to the same broadcast domain.
• Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

36. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

• Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.


• Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.*
• Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both
Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
• Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.*
• In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched
segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All
other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.*
• If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the
address.

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37. Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process?
(Choose two.)

• The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and
flow control information.*
• The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the
segment.
• Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and
destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
• Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control
information to a segment.*
• The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical
link.

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38. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.*


• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.*
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.*
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

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39. Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

• no carrier
• late collisions*
• giants
• CRC errors
• deferred
• runts

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40. Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call
path?

• PQ
• CBWFQ
• round robin
• RSVP*

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41. When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface
respond when it receives a BPDU?

• It continues operating normally.


• It goes into a down/down state.
• It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN.
• It goes into an errdisable state.*

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42. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

• It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.


• The connection is established before data is transmitted.*
• It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.*
• It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
• It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
• It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.*

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43. Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been
configured using HDLC encapsulation?

• router#show platform
• router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0*
• router#show ip interface s0/2/0
• router#show ip interface brief

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44. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)

• It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.


• It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.*
• It is bandwidth-intensive.
• It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
• It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.*

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45. What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

• They are routed the same as public IP addresses.


• They are less costly than public IP addresses.*
• They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.*
• They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
• They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

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46. What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?

• a recursive DNS search*


• the operating system cache
• the ISP local cache
• the browser cache

47. Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is
established?

• show ip bgp summary*


• show ip community-list
• show ip bgp paths
• show ip route

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48. During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?

• the PPP Session phase*


• Phase 2
• the Active Discovery phase
• the Authentication phase
• Phase 1

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49. Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose
three.)

• The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.


• The tunnel interface is down.*
• A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.*
• The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.*
• The ISP is blocking the traffic.
• An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.

50. Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true?
(Choose two.)

• Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.


• Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints.*
• Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.*
• Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.
• Multiple leased lines can share a router interface.
• Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds.

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51. Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)

• They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.*


• They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.
• They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.
• They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.
• They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.*

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52. Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose
two.)

• Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.


• Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network.*
• Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.*
• Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
• Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
• Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.

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53. Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

• router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1*


• router(config-router)#default-information originate always
• router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
• route(config-router)#default-information originate
54. Which statement about RADIUS security is true?

• It supports EAP authentication for connecting to wireless networks.*


• It provides encrypted multiprotocol support.
• Device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirety.
• It ensures that user activity is fully anonymous.

55. If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log
messages will the router send?

• 0-4*
• 0-5
• 0-2
• 0-6
• 0-1

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56. What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)

• 802.2 Protocol
• 802.3 Protocol*
• 10BaseT half duplex
• CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs*
• CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs

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57. What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures?

• A. Packet loss
• B. Congestion
• C. Hop-by-hop “something”
• D. End-to-end response time*
• E. ?

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58. What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three )

• Recursive routes*
• Directly connected routes*
• Fully specified routes*
• Advertised routes
• Virtual links
• Redistributed routes
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59. What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

• Forwarding
• Enabled
• Disabled*
• Errdisabled

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60. What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)

• Layer 2 protocol*
• Layer 3 protocol
• Proprietary protocol*
• enabled by default*
• disabled by default

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61. How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)

• switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q*


• switchport mode trunk*
• switchport trunk allowed vlan 20*
• switchport trunk native vlan 20
• switchport mode dynamic desirable

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62. What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

• Tos Field*
• DSCP
• IP Precedence
• Cos
• -ANOTHER OPTION-

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63. What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?

• CSMA/CA
• -ANOTHER OPTION-
• -ANOTHER OPTION-
• CSMA/CD*

64. Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?

• Trunk Ports
• Access Ports
• Dynamic Auto*
• Dynamic Desirable

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65. If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log
messages will the router send?

• 0-4
• 0-5
• 0-2
• 0-6*
• 0-1

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66. Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?

• SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10*
• SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
• SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
• SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10

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67. Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported


alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?

• VRRP*
• GLBP
• TFTP
• DHCP

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68. Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement
about the configuration is true?

• IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.


• The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.*
• The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
• Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

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69. If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts connected in
another port, how many collision domains are present on the router?

• 5
• 2*
• 3
• 4

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70. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

• an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.*


• an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.
• a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address
that has been provided by an ISP*
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided
by a local administrator

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71. You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web
servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets.
Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

• 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248*
• 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
• 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

72. What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

• speed
• DTP negotiation settings*
• trunk encapsulation
• duplex

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73. Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose
two.)

• They use ICMPv6 type 134.*


• The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.*
• The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
• They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
• Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

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74. Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

• MSTP*
• RSTP
• PVST+
• Mono Spanning Tree

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75. A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)

• A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
• B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses
in the voice vlan.
• C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses
to the running configuration.*
• D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
• E. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can
learn new addresses up to the maximum defined.*

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76. Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a
switching decision?

• fragment-free switching
• store-and-forward switching
• cut-through switching*
• ASIC switching

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77. Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with
millisecond precision?
• no logging console
• logging buffered 4
• no logging monitor
• service timestamps log datetime mscec*
• logging host 10.2.0.21

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

78. Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)

• OSPF is a link-state protocol.*


• Updates are sent to a broadcast address.
• It uses split horizon.
• Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.*
• RIP is a link-state protocol.
• Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.*

79. Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking
mode?

• show ip interface brief


• show vlan
• show interfaces
• show interface switchport*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

80. Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

• Switch#show ip interface vlan 20


• Switch#show vlan id 20*
• Switch#show ip interface brief
• Switch#show interface vlan 20

81. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B


be written? (Choose two.)

• A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B*
• B. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
• C. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
• D. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B*
• E. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


82. Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine
whether a VoIP issue is caused by excessive end-to-end time?

• packet loss
• jitter
• successive packet loss
• round-trip time latency*

83. Refer to the exhibit.

Which of
these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been
completed?

• A. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and ST.
• Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration
change.*
• As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
• More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

84. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host
A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from
host fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

• The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.


• Host and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
• The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.*
• The switch interface connected to the router is down.
• Host needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

85. Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?

• There is a duplex mismatch.


• The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
• The serial interface is disabled.
• The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
• Port security has disabled the interface.*
• The interface is fully functioning.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


86. Refer to the exhibit

All of the
routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network
addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

• Link A 172.16.3.0/30*
• Link A 172.16.3.112/30
• Network A 172.16.3.48/26
• Network A 172.16.3.128/25*
• Link A 172.16.3.40/30
• Network A 172.16.3.192/26

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

87. Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?

• Layer 2 bridge
• Layer 2 switch
• Layer 3 switch*
• router

88. Which statement about LLDP is true?

• It is configured in global configuration mode.


• It is configured in global configuration mode.*
• The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.
• It runs over the transport layer.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

89. If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
• switch 0040.00.90C5
• switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
• switch 0004.9A1A.C182*
• switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

90. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs


to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency.
The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be
checked. What command will display the required information?

• Router# show ip eigrp neighbors*


• Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
• Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
• Router# show ip eigrp topology

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

91. Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

• FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.


• FC00::/7 is used in private networks.*
• FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
• FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.*
• 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
• FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

92. Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server
assigns?

• show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12*


• show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


93. Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the
same bandwidth? (Choose three.)

• Switch B – F0/0*
• Switch A – Fa0/1*
• Switch B – Fa0/1*
• Switch C – F0/1
• Switch A – Fa0/0
• Switch C – Fa0/0
94. Refer to the exhibit

The network administrator cannot


connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping
the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that
the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should
be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1*


• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• Switch1(config)# line con0Switch1(config-line)# password ciscoSwitch1(config-line)#
login
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3
255.255.255.0
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# duplex fullSwitch1(confiq-if)#
speed 100
95. Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being
configured to run RSTP.No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of
these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose
three.)

• A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated *


• B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root *
• C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
• D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
• E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
• F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

96. Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

• cut through
• fast switching
• process switching
• Cisco Express Forwarding*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

97. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

• traceroute
• telnet
• ping*
• show ipv6

98. What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose
two.)

• The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are
mismatched.*
• 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.
• Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by
collisions.
• The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.*
• Autonegotiation is disabled.

99. Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

• The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.


• The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.
• The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.*
• The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

100. Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a


Cisco routing device?

• FHRP*
• DHCP
• RSMLT
• ESRP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

101. What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

• 172.16.1.0/26*
• 172.16.1.0/25
• 172.16.1.0/24
• the default route

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

102. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability
of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that
communication?
• transport
• network
• presentation
• session
• application*

103. What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

• determine whether additional hardware has been added*


• locate an IOS image for booting
• enable a TFTP server
• set the configuration register

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

104. Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

• HSRP*
• VRRP
• GLBP
• CARP

105. Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol?


(Choose three.)

• provides common view of entire topology*


• exchanges routing tables with neighbors
• calculates shortest path*
• utilizes event-triggered updates*
• utilizes frequent periodic updates

106. Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign
an IP address to a PPPoE client?

• virtual-template interface*
• DHCP
• dialer interface
• AAA authentication

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

107. how is MPLS implemented (like this) :

• on LAN
• must be on redundant links
• can be on redundant or nonredundant links*
• can’t remember

108. Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

• RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.*


• RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.*
• RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
• RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links
than STP does.*
• RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
• RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links

109. What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

• A. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.*
• B. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the
packets.
• C. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
• D. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable.
• E. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require external access.*
• F. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

110. Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on
port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

• SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12


• SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
• SW1#show running-config*
• SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12*
• SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

111. Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network
administrator’s next action be?
• Check the trunk encapsulation mode for Switch C’s fa0/1 port.
• Check the duplex mode for Switch C’s fa0/1 port.
• Check the duplex mode for Switch A’s fa0/2 port.*
• Check the trunk encapsulation mode for Switch A’s fa0/2 port

112. Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

• A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.


• A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
• A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
• If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an
administrator must resolve the conflict.*
• If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of
time configurable by the administrator.
• If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be
reused until the server is rebooted.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

113. Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link
are true? (Choose two.)
• CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
• CHAP uses a three-way handshake.*
• CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.*
• CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
• CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
• CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

114. Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to
create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown,
what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been
attached?

• VLANs have not been created yet.


• An IP address must be configured for the port.
• The port is currently configured for access mode.*
• The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
• The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


115. Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring
port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port
fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The
administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to
RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of
these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

• Port security needs to be globally enabled.


• Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.*
• Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
• Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.*
• Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
• The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become
active.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

116. Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)

• It uses consistent route determination.*


• It is best used for small-scale deployments.*
• Routing is disrupted when links fail.*
• It requires more resources than other routing methods.
• It is best used for large-scale deployments.
• Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

117. What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above
statements? (Choose Three.)

• 10.0.0.0*
• 10.4.3.0
• 172.15.4.0
• 172.15.0.0*
• 192.168.4.0*
• 192.168.0.0

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

118. Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?

• Routing
• Hairpinning
• Encapsulation*
• Switching

119. What does split horizon prevent?

• routing loops, link state


• routing loops, distance vector*
• switching loops, STP
• switching loops, VTP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

120. Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?

• interface
• virtual IP address
• priority*
• router ID

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

121. Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?

• preempt*
• priority
• other options

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

122. Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

• show interface status


• show ip interface brief*
• show ip route
• show interface

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

123. Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?

• Level 0
• Level 1
• Level 15*
• Level 16

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

124. Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

• unicast
• multicast
• anycast*
• broadcast

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

125. Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)

• It is the counterpart of IPv4 private addresses*


• It uses FC00::/7 as prefix*
• wrong
• wrong
126. Which range represents the standard access list?

• 99*
• 150
• 299
• 2000

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

127. What to do when the router password was forgotten?

• use default password cisco to reset


• access router physically
• use ssl/vpn
• Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

128. What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol?

• it discovers the routers, switches and gateways.


• it is network layer protocol
• it is physical and data link layer protocol
• it is proprietary protocol*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


Which command you enter on a switc

129. Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?

• telnet
• ssh*
• vtp
• vpn
• dmvpn

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

130. How do you configure a hostname?

• A. Router(config)#hostname R1*
• B. Router#hostname R1
• C. Router(config)#host name R1
• D. Router>hostname R1

131. How do you maintain security in multiple websites?


• vpn*
• dmvpn
• other
• other

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

132. Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of
00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

• Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
• Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data
originated.*
• Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data
originated.
• Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

133. What routing protocol use first-hand information from peers?

• link-state*
• distance-vector
• path-vector
• other

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

134. What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?

• SA*
• DA
• FCS
• other

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


Which statement a

135. What is new in HSRPv2?

• prempt
• a greater number in hsrp group field*
• other

136. What’s are true about MPLS?

• It use a label to separate traffic from several costumer*


• It use IPv4 IPv6
• other
• other

137. A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a
specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the
internet. Which ACL can be used?

• reflexive
• extended
• standard
• dynamic*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

138. Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is
otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?

• transport type all


• transport output all
• transport preferred all
• transport input all*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

139. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?

• Allow users to develop their own approach to network security


• Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized
individuals*
• Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the
likelihood of passwords being forgotten
• Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user
equipment is well known and widely reported
• Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

140. Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to
a remote location? (Choose two)

• no logging console
• logging host ip-address*
• terminal monitor*
• show logging | redirect flashioutput.txt
• snmp-server enable traps syslog

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

141. Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management
system?

• Cisco OpenDaylight
• Cisco ACI
• Cisco APIC*
• Cisco IWAN

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

142. What command can you enter in config mode to create DHCP pool?

• ip dhcp pool DHCP_pool*


• ip dhcp exclude -add
• ip dhcp conflict logging
• service dhcp

143. Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and
replies?

• ping*
• traceroute
• ssh
• telnet

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


144. What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two)

• static reservation
• DHCP reservation
• prevent DHCP rouge server*
• prevent untrusted host and servers to connect*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

145. What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose
Three)

• network access control*


• path isolation*
• virtual network services*
• policy enforcement

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

146. Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric?

• unequal cost load balancing*


• path selection
• equal cost load balancing
• path count

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

147. Standard industrialized protocol of etherchannel?

• LACP*
• PAGP
• PRP
• REP

148. Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two)

• It can send a specific number of packet*


• It can send packet from specified interface of IP address*
• It can resolve the destination host name
• It can ping multiple host at the same time

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

149. What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server?


• Switch(config)#ntp master 3*
• Switch(config)#ntp peer IP
• Switch(config)#ntp server IP
• Switch(config)#ntp source IP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

150. Which two statements about syslog logging are true?

• Syslog logging is disabled by default


• Messages are stored in the internal memory of device*
• Messages can be erased when device reboots*
• Messages are stored external to the device
• The size of the log file is dependent on the resources of the device.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

151. How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?

• Configure VLAN
• Confiture NTP
• Configure each VLAN
• Configure VTP*

152. Which password types are encrypted?

• SSH
• Telnet
• enable secret*
• enable password

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

153. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

• 00000000
• 11111100*
• 11111111
• 11111101

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

154. Which statement about ACLs is true?

• An ACL have must at least one permit action, else it just blocks all traffic.*
• ACLs go bottom-up through the entries looking for a match
• An ACL has a an implicit permit at the end of ACL.
• ACLs will check the packet against all entries looking for a match.

155. What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?

• The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.


• The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process,
causing the adjacency to go down.
• A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to
go down.*
• Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

156. What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three.)

• Preamble*
• TTL
• Type/length*
• Frame check sequence*
• version
• others

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

157. Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?

• Create an action plan


• Implement an action plan
• Gather facts*
• others

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

158. Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which
vlan?

• on the default vlan


• on the management vlan
• on the native vlan
• on any vlan except the default vlan*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

159. In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

• the QoS byte


• the CoS byte
• the ToS byte*
• the DSCP byte

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

160. Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined to 192.168.0.0/20 to
a specific interface?

• A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1*


• B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
• C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
• D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

161. Which two protocol can detect native vlan mismatch errors? (Choose two.)

• CDP*
• VTP
• DTP
• STP*
• PAGP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

162. Which three options are switchport config that can always avoid duplex mismatch
error between the switches? (Choose Three.)

• set both side on auto-negotation.*


• set both sides on half-duplex*
• set one side auto and other side half-duplex
• set both side of connection to full-duplex*
• set one side auto and other side on full-duplex
• set one side full-duplex and other side half-duplex

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

163. What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two.)
• they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA*
• they are managed by IANA
• increase the flexibility of network design
• provide network isloation from the internet*
• they are routable over internet

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

164. How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?

• 32
• 48
• 64*
• 128

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

165. ?????(An image on exhibit)


An interface which we have to determine from the routing the route learned by which
routing protocol?

• EIGRP*
• OSPF
• RIP
• BGP

166. Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with
several satellite branches?

• star
• hub and spoke*
• point-to-point
• full mesh

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

167. Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology
changes?

• successors
• advertised changes
• goodbye messages*
• expiration of the hold timer

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


168. If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log
messages will the router send?

• informational messages only


• warning and error conditions only
• normal but significant conditions only
• error conditions only
• all levels except debugging*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

169. Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)

• A. It ensures that user activity is untraceable.


• B. It provides a secure accounting facility on the device.
• C. device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirely.*
• D. It allows the user to remotely access devices from other vendors.
• E. It allows the users to be authenticated against a remote server.*
• F. It supports access-level authorization for commands.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

170. What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model’s INTERNET layer?

• Application
• Session
• Data Link
• Presentation
• Network*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

171. Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

• It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network
reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
• It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.*
• It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across
networks.
• It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
• It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

172. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
• IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration*
• DHCP
• NHRP
• IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration*
• ISATAP tunneling

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

173. A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted
authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?

• Monitor mode*
• High-Security mode
• Low-impact mode
• Closed mode

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

174. How to verify strong and secured SSH connection?

• ssh -v 1 -l admin 10.1.1.1


• ssh -v 2 -l admin 10.1.1.1*
• ssh -l admin 10.1.1.1
• ssh v 2 admin 10.1.1.1

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

175. How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.168.10.0
with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

• 4
• 8
• 16
• 14*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

176. What interconnection cable can you use when you use a MDI connection?

• cut-through
• straight-through
• crossover*
• rollover

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


177. Which cisco platform can verify ACLs?

• Cisco Prime Infrastructure


• Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
• Cisco APIC-EM*
• Cisco IOS-XE

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

178. In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security administrator must be
able to correlate system security alert logs directly with the employee who triggers the
alert. Which of the following should the security administrator implement in order to meet
this requirement?

• Access control lists on file servers


• Elimination of shared accounts
• Group-based privileges for accounts
• Periodic user account access reviews*

179. When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the
group IP Address on each device?

• In the global config


• Under serial interface
• Under the routing protocol
• Under the multilink interface*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

180. If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you configure the setting?

• in the IP protocol*
• in the multicast interface
• in the serial interface
• in the global configuration

181. Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing
solution?

• It reduces the need for a backup data center.


• It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.*
• It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
• It eliminates the need for a GSS.

182. Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
• The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.
• It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
• It is configured in enable mode.
• It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

183. Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list?

• removing an entry
• opening the access-list in notepad
• adding an entry
• resequencing*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

184. How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing
from the routing table?

• it broadcast the packet to each interface on the router


• it discards the packet*
• it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router
• it routes the packet to the default route

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

185. Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration?
(Choose two.)

• autonomous system number*


• version number
• router ID
• subnet mask
• IP address*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

186. Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)?

• The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master
router.*
• The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead
interval.*
• HSRP supports only clear-text authentication
• The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on
the same LAN.
• The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses
on the LAN.
• HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of
load balancing.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

187. Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology ( choose 2)?

• it reduces management overhead.*


• switches can be located anywhere regardless of there physical location.
• it requires only 1 IP add per VLAN.*
• it requires only 3 IP add per VLAN.
• it supports HSRP VRRP GLBP.
• it support redundant configuration files.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

188. How to trouble DNS issue ( choose two)?

• Ping a public website IP address.


• Ping the DNS Server.*
• Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.
• Determine whether the hardware address is correct.
• Determine whether the name servers have been configured.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

189. Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules?

• The ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM.


• The ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM.*
• The Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler.
• The Cisco IWAN application.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

190. What does traffic shaping do to reduce congestion in a network?

• buffers and queues packets.*


• buffers without queuing packets.
• queqes without buffering packets.
• drops packets.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


191. Which 2 statements about extended traceroute command is true?

• it can send packets from specified interface or ip add.*


• it can use a specified TTL value.*
• it can validate the reply data.
• it can use a specificed TOS.
• it can repeated automatically to a specified interval.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

192. Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on
a DHCP Server?

• Show ip DHCP database.


• Show ip DHCP pool.
• Show ip DHCP binding.*
• Show ip DHCP server statistic.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

193. Which statement about SNMPv2 is true?

• Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.


• it requires passwords to be encrypyed.
• Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enable without default values.*
• It requires passwords at least eight characters en length.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

194. Which symptom most commonly indicates that 2 connecting interface are configured
with a duplex mismatch?

• an int with up/down state.


• an int with down/down state.
• late collisions on the interface.*
• the spanning tree process shutting down.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

195. Which VTP mode can not make a change to vlan?

• Server.
• Client.*
• Transparent.
• Off
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

196. Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with
troubleshooting?

• A. one way jitter measurement


• B. congestion detection
• C. hop-by-hop response time*
• D. packet-loss detection

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

197. Which mode are in PAgP? (choose two)

• Auto.*
• Desirable.*
• Active.
• Passive.
• On.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

198. In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose
two.)

• when they receive a special token.


• when there is a carrier.
• when they detect no other devices are sending.*
• when the server grants access.
• when the medium is idle.*

199. Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2
network? (Choose two.)

• 802.1d*
• VTP
• 802.1q
• SAP
• STP*

200. At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

• Layer 2*
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 1

201. What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and
roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN
links?(Choose three.)

• reduced cost.*
• better throughput.
• broadband incompatibility.
• increased security.*
• scalability.*
• reduced latency.

202. Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?

• Scan Timer.
• TTD.
• Flow Label.
• Hop Limit.*
• Hop Count.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

203. which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of
violations?

• access.
• protect.
• restrict.*
• shutdown.

204. which 2 optns are requirements for configuring ripv2 for ipv4 (choose 2 )?

• enabling RIP authentication.


• connecting RIP to a WAN Interface.
• enabling auto route sumamrization.
• allowing unicast updates for RIP.*
• enabling RIP on the router.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

205. which configuration command can u apply to a hsrp router so that its local interface
becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?

• standby 1 preempt
• no additional config is required*
• standby 1 priority 250
• standby 1 track ethernet

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

206. which 2 statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true?

• A. It is configured on the interface*


• B. It is globally configured
• C. It is configured using a network statement
• D. It is vendor agnostic
• E. It supports a shutdown feature*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

207. which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignment?

• sh ip dhcp database
• sh ip dhcp pool*
• sh ip dhcp import
• sh ip dhcp server statistics

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

208. which three technical services support cloud computing?

• A. network-monitored power sources


• B. layer 3 network routing*
• C. ip localization*
• D. redundant connections
• E. VPN connectivity
• F. extended SAN services*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

209. which two steps must you perform to enbale router- on- stick on a switch?

• connect the router to a trunk port*


• config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
• config full duplex
• cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
• assign the access port to the vlan*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


210. which add prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on a
single interface?

• all prefix on the interface*


• the prefix that the administrator configure for OSPFv3 use
• the lowest prefix on the interface
• the highest prefix on the interface

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

211. which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

212. CIDR notation (255.255.255.252 ) / notation?

• 30*
• 31
• 32
• 33

213. Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)

• RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.


• RSTP defines new port roles.*
• RSTP defines no new port states.
• RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
• RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.*

214. What is known as ―one-to-nearest addressing in IPv6?

• global unicast
• anycast*
• multicast
• unspecified address

215. When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, it installs the route with :

• Longest bit Match (highest subnet Mask)


• lowest AD*
• lowest metric
• equal load balancing

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

216. Requirement to configure DHCP binding ( 2 options)

• DHCP pool
• ip address*
• Hardware address*
• other option

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

217. how to see dhcp conflict?

• show ip dhcp pool


• show dhcp database
• show ip dhcp conflict*
• Other Option.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

218. What type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?

• Dynamic*
• Static
• Auto
• one more option

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

219. Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users
according to policy?

• policy enforcement
• network access control*
• network services virtualization
• path isolation

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

220. Which two statements about firewalls are true?

• They can be used with an intrusion prevention system.*


• They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data.*
• Each wireless access point requires its own firewall.
• They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the internet.
• They can prevent attacks from the internet only.

221. Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? ( Choose two)

• They can be configured as trunk ports.


• Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface.
• 802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface.
• Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.*
• They can be configured as host ports.*

222. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support
DHCP?

• on the switch trunk interface.


• on the router closest to the client.*
• on the router closest to the server.
• on every router along the path.

223. Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?

• Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default


• Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
• Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201*
• Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

224. How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?

• It uses a pool of addresses


• It converts IPV4 addresses to unused IPv6 Addresses
• assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session*
• It uses virtual MAC Address and Virtual IP Addresses

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

225. Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three)

• Spoofing attacks*
• Vlan Hopping*
• botnet attacks
• DDOS attacks
• ARP Attacks*
• Brute force attacks
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

226. What does split-horizon do?

• Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol*


• Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
• Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
• Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

227. Refer to the exhibit.

After you apply the given configuration to R1, you notice that it failed to enable OSPF
Which action can you take to correct the problem?

• Configure a loopback interface on R1


• Enable IPv6 unicast routing on R1.*
• Configure an IPv4 address on interface FO/0.
• Configure an autonomous system number on OSPF.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

228. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default
VLAN is confgured on the switches?
• one*
• two
• six
• twelve

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

229. Which three statements correcctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP
address.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP
address on a unique IP subnet.*
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to
communicate with each other.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to
communicate with each other.*
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP
address.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

230. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the
discarding role?

• Switch3, port fa0/1


• Switch3, port fa0/12
• Switch4, port fa0/11*
• Switch4, port fa0/2
• Switch3, port Gi0/1
• Switch3, port Gi0/2

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

231. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP
server?
• The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.
• Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
• Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.*
• In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image
in flash.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

232. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of
the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
• Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1
• Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254*
• Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2
• Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2*
• Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224
• Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240

233. Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between the
two devices in a network?

• ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM*


• I WAN application
• ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM
• APIC-EM automation scheduler

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

234. Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they
attempt to connect to a local network?

• 802.1x*
• 802.11
• 802.2x
• 802.3x

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

235. When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it
handle the packet?

• It discards the packet*


• It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
• It sends the packet to the next hop address
• It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

236. If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the
same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?

• It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors


• It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router
• It disables the routing protocol
• It prefers the static route*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


237. Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two)

• They are routes to the exact /32 destination address


• They are used when a route to the destination network is missing
• They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route
administrative distance*
• They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down*
• They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

238. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP


address does it send the packet?

• 192.168.14.4*
• 192.168.12.2
• 192.168.13.3
• 192.168.15.5

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

239. What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?

• It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.*


• It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.
• It can disable the overload command.
• It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

240. How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

• Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
• Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time.
• Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by
periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.*
• Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine
the length of the agreement.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

241. Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with
a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

• The number of collision domains would remain the same.


• The number of collision domains would decrease.
• The number of collision domains would increase.*
• The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.*
• The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
• The number of broadcast domains would increase.

242. Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer

Which reason for the problem is most likely true?


• The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect.*
• The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect.
• The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.
• The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

243. Which effect of the passive-interface command on R1 is true?


• It prevents interface Fa0/0 from sending updates.*
• Interface Fa 0/0 operates in RIPv1 mode.
• It removes the 172.16.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.
• It removes the 172.17.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

244. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP
application layer? (Choose three)

• Session*
• transport
• presentation*
• application*
• data-link
• network

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

245. When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?

• A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue*


• B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
• C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
• D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

246. Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on
devices? (Choose TWO)

• Show ntp associations.*


• Show clock details.
• Show clock.
• Show time.
• Show ntp status.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

247. When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to
which state?

• Blocking
• Forwarding*
• Learning
• Listening

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

248. Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet with multiple possible
paths to the destination
over different routing protocols?

• the path with both the lowest administrative distance and the highest metric
• the path with the lowest administrative distance*
• the path with the lowest metric
• the path with both the lowest administrative distance and lowest metric

249. Which command is used to know the duplex speed of serial link?

• show line
• show interface*
• show protocol
• show run

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

250. What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server?

• switch(config)#ntp master 3*
• switch(config)#ntp peer 193.168.2.2
• switch(config)#ntp server 193.168.2.2
• switch(config)#ntp source 193.168.2.2

251. Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?

• Class C
• Class B*
• Class D
• Class A

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

252. On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?

• interface port
• access port
• switch port
• trunk port*

253. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.101.45 the traffic is sent through
which interface?

• FastEthernet0/1*
• FastEthernet0/0
• FastEthernet1/0
• FastEthernet1/1

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

254. Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4
network?

• interface ip address verification


• MAC address table verification
• neighbor discovery verification*
• Routing table entry verification

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

255. Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?

• VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255*


• Virtual MAC addresses
• tracking
• preemption

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

256. Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex
setting on the interface?

R1(config)#interface gigabitEthernet0/1
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1. 255.255.255.0
R1(config-if)#speed 100
R1(config-if)#duplex full

• router#show ip protocols
• router#show startup-config
• router#show line
• router#show interface gig 0/1*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

257. Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true?

• They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.*


• They are defined by RFC 1884
• They use the prefix FEC0::/10
• They use the prefix FC00::/7*
• They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.

1. Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

258. Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring
port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?

• trunk
• access
• dynamic desirable
• dynamic auto*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

259. When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router
configuration checks you
must perform?

• Verify that the router interface IP address is correct.*


• Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.
• Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.*
• Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.
• Verify that a default route is configured.
• Verify that the route appears in the Routing table*

260. Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to
work?

• PortFast on the interface


• the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID*
• a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
• Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

261. Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?

• IEEE 802 1w
• IEEE 802 1D
• IEEE 802 1Q*
• IEEE 802 1p

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

262. Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?

• RFC 4193
• RFC 1519
• RFC 1518 *
• RFC 1918

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

263. What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?

• 24 hours*
• 12 hours
• 48 hours
• 36 hours

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

264. Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside
address?

• dynamic NAT
• NAT overload
• PAT
• static NAT*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

265. Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?

• bus
• star*
• mesh
• ring

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

266. Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

• Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
• It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different
VLANs on the same subnet
• It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
• It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different
VLANs.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

267. By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port
with port security enabled?

• 8
• 2
• 1*
• 0

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

268. Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
• access point*
• switch
• wireless controller
• firewall

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

269. When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages
on an interface?

• virtual links
• passive-interface*
• directed neighbors
• OSPF areas

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

270. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

• The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed


• VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed
• The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration
mode*
• VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


Which method does a connected trun

271. Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative
distance of 90 in the routing table?

• S
• E
• D*
• R
• O

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


272. Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

• Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default*


• Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default
• Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
• The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons

273. Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?

• The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses


• If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that
is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.*
• The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
• The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded

274. Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their
preferences?

• administrative distance*
• next hop
• metric
• routing protocol code

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

275. Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

• 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66*
• 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
• 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
• 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

276. Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with
R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
• R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3
• A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency
from being established.
• The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.*
• EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
• R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

277. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose
two.)

• to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2*


• to allow communication with devices on a different network
• to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
• to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
• to allow communication between different devices on the same network*
• to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

278. 2 authentication type of MLPPP

• PEAP
• LEAP
• PAP*
• CHAP*
• TACACS+

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

279. What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?

• It enables port address translation.*


• It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted
• It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.
• It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

280. What are the requirements for running VTP (choose two)

• VTP domain names must be different


• VTP domain names must be the same*
• VTP server must have the highest revision numbers
• All devices need to have the same VTP version*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

281. What is the use of IPv4 private space (choose two)

• connect applications together


• save global address space*
• something about NAT
• allow intra-company communication*

282. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid
host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.9.0*
• 172.16.8.0
• 172.16.31.0*
• 172.16.20.0*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

283. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

• The designated port


• The backup port
• The alternate port
• The root port*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

284. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred
forwarding interface?

• The interface number


• The port priority*
• The VLAN priority
• The hello time

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

285. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

• The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a
VLAN*
• The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
• Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064`
• A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running
configuration only

286. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for
the network segment that services the printers?

• Switch1
• Switch2
• Switch3*
• Switch4

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

287. In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?

• when a network device fails to forward packets*


• when you require ROMMON access*
• when management applications need concurrent access to the device
• when you require administrator access from multiple locations
• when the control plane fails to respond

288. Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted
password and EXEC mode user privileges?

• Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48*


• Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
• Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
• Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

289. What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access
point?

• The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.


• A connection occurs.
• Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.
• The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

290. Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?

• preference of the route source


• IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets*
• how the route was learned
• exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets

291. Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is
true?

• It is defined globally
• It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated
using access or route maps.*
• It must be configured if static NAT is used
• It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

292. Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?

• shutdown*
• protect
• shutdown vlan
• restrict

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

293. Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?

• ICANN
• APNIC
• RIR
• ISPs*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

294. which value indicate the distance from the ntp authoritative time source?

• priority
• location
• layer
• stratum*

295. Which NTP type designates a router without an external reference clock as an
authoritative time source?

• server
• peer
• master*
• client

296. Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose Three)

• authorization*
• accounting*
• authentication*
• accountability
• accessibility
• authority

297. Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse 2)

• 50*
• 1550*
• 150
• 1250
• 2050

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

298. When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the
group IP Address on each device?

• in the global config


• Under serial interface
• Under the routing protocol
• Under the multilink interface*
299. What are two statement for SSH?

• use port 22*


• unsecured
• encrypted*
• most common remote-access method
• operate at transport

300. If a route is not present in the routing table for a particular destination, what would
the router do?

• Default route
• Flood
• Drop*
• No Answer

301. Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.

• ACL blocking port 23


• ACL blocking All ports
• ACL blocking port 80*
• ACL blocking port 443
• None of the above

302. Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source?

• NTP Peer
• NTP Broadcast
• NTP Master*
• NTP Server

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

303. Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

• Access-list 110 permit any any


• Access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255*
• Access list 101 deny tvp any host 192.168.1.1
• Access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

304. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

• Traceroute
• telnet
• ping
• ping ipv6*

305. Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?

• CAM table
• Trunk table
• MAC table
• binding database*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

306. What is one benefit of PVST+?

• PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.


• PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
• PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.*
• PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth
usage.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

307. Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

• When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from
the source MAC
address and the MAC address table.
• Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same
VLAN.*
• Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different
VLAN.
• Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span
across the ports.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

308. Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default
switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree
instance of VLAN 1?

• the switch with the highest MAC address


• the switch with the lowest MAC address*
• the switch with the highest IP address
• the switch with the lowest IP address

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


309. Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APlC-EM controller? (Choose
two.)

• lt automates network actions between different device types.*


• lt provides robust asset management.
• lt tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions.
• lt automates network actions between legacy equipment.
• lt makes network functions programmable.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

310. Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that
connect through a switch in the same LAN?

• ping address*
• tracert address
• traceroute address
• arp address

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

311. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in
the exhibit?
(Choose two.)

• Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.


• Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
• Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
• The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.*
• Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
• The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

312. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each
nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

• path cost*
• lowest port MAC address
• VTP revision number
• highest port priority number
• port priority number and MAC address

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

313. Refer to the exhibit.

lf RTRO1 as configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers
that are running ElGRP on the network? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.4.O
• 1O.O.O.O*
• 172.16.O.O*
• 192.168.2.O*
• 192.168.O.O
• 1O.4.3.O

314. Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

• lt can run on a UNlX server.*


• lt authenticates against the user database on the local device.
• lt is more secure than AAA authentication.
• lt is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
• lt uses a managed database.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

315. Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

• spanning-tree uplinkfast
• spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst*
• spanning-tree backbonefast
• spanning-tree mode mst

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

316. A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex
FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch
ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

• More collision domains will be created.


• IP address utilization will be more efficient.
• More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
• An additional broadcast domain will be created.*

317. VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport
access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

• The command is rejected.


• The port turns amber.
• The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.*
• The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

318. Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports
FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is
chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this
scenario?

• 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.


• VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
• A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.*
• VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

319. Refer to the exhibit


All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to
SwitchA can
communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output
shown, what is the most likely problem?

• The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.


• The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
• The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.*
• VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
• Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the
switches.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

320. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco
Catalyst switch?

• It creates a VLAN 999 interface.


• It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.*
• It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
• It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

321. Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
• Bandwidth*
• Bandwidth and Delay
• Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
• Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

322. Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

• show cdp neigbors


• show session*
• show users
• show vty logins

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

323. Refer to the exhibit.


Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the
192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

• The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.


• The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
• The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.*
• The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

324. Refer to the exhibit. You have discovered that computers on the 192 168 10 0/24
network can ping their default gateway, but they cannot connect to any resources on a
remote network. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
• The 192.168.12.0/24 network is missing from OSPF.*
• The OSPF process ID is incorrect.
• The OSPF area number is incorrect.
• An ARP table entry is missing for 192.168.10.0.
• A VLAN number is incorrect for 192.168.10.0.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

325. Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on
the network?

• single-homed
• full mesh*
• point-to-point
• hub-and-spoke

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

326. Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly
secured Cisco switch and make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.)

• tty password
• enable secret password*
• vty password*
• aux password
• console password
• username password

327. Refer to the exhibit. Which user-mode password has just been set?
• Telnet*
• Auxiliary
• SSH
• Console

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

328. Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?

• Routing protocol code


• Prefix
• metric
• Network mask*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

329. How can you disable DTP on a switch port?

• Configure the switch port as a trunk.* (no correct answer, in fact)


• Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
• Change the operational mode to static access
• Change the administrative mode to access

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

330. How is the redundancy represented in ntp master?

• N:1
• N+1*
• 1:N

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

331. Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with
connected devices?

• Show cdp neighbors detail*


• Show cdp neighbor
• Show cdp interface
• Show cdp traffic

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

332. Which technology can enable multiple vlan to communicate with one another?

• Intra-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch


• Inter-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch*
• Inter-vlan routing using a layer 2 switch
• Intra-vlan routing using router on a stick

333. Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?

• CST
• RSTP
• MSTP
• PVST+*

334. Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet?

• Unique Local
• Compatible
• Link local
• Global*

335.

interface Loopback0
ip address 172.16.1.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp 999
neighbor 10.1.5.2 remote-as 65001

Refer to the exhibit . Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0
interface to the BGP Peers?

• Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224*


• Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
• Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
• Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
• Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
• Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


336. Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer
networking?

• System network architecture


• Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol*
• Open system Interconnect
• Open network architecture

337. Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?
(Choose two.)

• Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.


• Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing
table.*
• Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
• Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
• An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
• Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
• Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

338. Refer to the exhibit.

Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

• The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.*
• The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
• Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
• Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
• The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

339. Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose
two.)

• Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.


• Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
• Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.*
• Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
• Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
• Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

340. Which definition of default route is true?

• A route that is manually configured.


• A route used when a destination route is missing.
• A route to the exact /32 destination address*
• Dynamic route learned from the server.

341. Which value must the device send as its username when using CHAP to authenticate
with the remote peer site id:17604704 over a PPP link?

• The automatically generated user name


• The local host name*
• The user name defined by the administrator
• The host name of the remote device.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

342. Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true?(choose two)

• Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2


• Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3*
• Ethernet 10BASE-T dose not support full-duplex.
• When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD ,it terminates transmission as soon as
collision occurs*
• When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA ,it terminates transmission as soon as
collision occurs

343. How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)

• Enable RIP*
• Connect RIP to WAN interface
• Enable no auto-summary*
• Enable authentication

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

344. Which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connections over an unsecure
transport network?
• Point-to-point
• DMVPN*
• VPN
• site-to-site VPN

345. interface fa0/0


ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXX
neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.

• x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224*


• x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
• x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31
• x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224

346. Which two statements about MPLS are true? (Choose two)

• It provides automatic authentication


• It can carry multiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6*
• It encapsulates all traffic in an IPv4 header
• It uses labels to separate and foward customer traffic*
• It tags customer traffic using 802.1q

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

347. Which command is used to build DHCP pool?

• ip dhcp pool DHCP*


• ip dhcp conflict
• ip dhcp-server pool DHCP
• ip dhcp-client pool DHCP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

348. Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line ?

• Low cost
• Full-mesh capability
• Flexibillity of design
• Simply of configuration*

349. Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring
port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable or auto mode?

• Dynamic Auto
• Dynamic Desirable*
• Access
• Trunk

350. which type of IP address of ipv6 that also exist in IPv4 but barely used?

• unicast
• multicast
• anycast*
• broadcast

351. How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? ( choose two)

• uses process number


• neighbor configured directly
• configured driectly on interface*
• configured globally interface
• have shutdown feature*

352. Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports
on a router?

• show interface switchport


• show ip interface brief*
• show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
• show interface status

353. Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)

• All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name*
• All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.
• All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name
• The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain*
• All switches must use the same VTP version.

354. Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to
192.168.10.1?
• RIP
• OSPF
• IGRP
• EIGRP*

355. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)

• to enable intra-enterprise communication*


• to implement NAT
• to connect applications
• to conserve global address space*
• to manage routing overhead

356. Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?

• The default reset password is cisco


• It requires a secure SSl/VPN connection
• A factory resset is required if you forget the password
• It requires physical access to the router*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

357. If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into
a different port,
how many collision domains are on the switch?

• 2*
• 4
• 5
• 6

358. What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three)

• MIB*
• manager*
• supervisor
• agent*
• set
• AES

359. which command is used to enable CHAP authentication whit PAP as the fallback
method on a serial
interface?

• (config-if)#authentication ppp chap fallback ppp


• (config-if)#authentication ppp chap pap
• (config-if)#ppp authentication chap pap*
• (config-if)#ppp authentication chap fallback ppp

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

360. What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

• only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
• Only the enable password will be encrypted.
• Only the enable secret password will be encrypted
• It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the
configuration.
• It will encrypt all current and future passwords.*

361. Refer to the exhibit A frame on vlan 1on switch s1 is sent to switch s2 when the frame
is received on vlan 2,what causes this behavior?
• trunk mode mismatches
• vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
• native vlan mismatches*
• allowing only vlan 2 on the destination

362. Refer to the exhibit.Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the
operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
• One interface has a problem.
• Two interfaces have problems.
• The interfaces are functioning correctly.*
• The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

363. Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

• Broadcast frames are never sent to swiches.


• Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
• A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.*
• Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
• A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

364. What can you change to select switch as root bridge?

• make lower priority*


• make higher priority
• make lower path cost
• make higher path cost

365. Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1 ?


• 1
• 90*
• 110
• 120

366. Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ?

• They must be configured on all IPv6 interface*


• They must be globally unique
• They must be manually configured
• They are advertised globally on the network

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

367. Which configuration can be used with PAT to allow multiple inside address to be
translated to a single
outside address ?

• Dynamic Routing
• DNS
• Preempt
• overload*

368. Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (Choose two)

• MAC address*
• soure IP address
• destination IP address
• Protocols
• Port numbers*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

369. Which command can you enter to create a NAT pool of 6 addresses?

• Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.74 prefix-length 24*


• Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.13.74 prefix-length 16
• Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.66 175.17.12.72 prefix-length 8
• Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.76 prefix-length 8

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

370. Which header field is new on IPv6?

• Version
• Hop Limit
• Flow Label*
• Traffic Class

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

371. Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?

• Router loopback address


• Router IP address*
• Router priority
• Router tracking number

372. Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (choose three)

• Desirable*
• Auto*
• On*
• Blocking
• Transparent
• Forwarding

373. Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start
running?

• public IP address
• loopback interface
• router ID*
• process ID

374. Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the default native VLAN to be
unused?
• CAM table overflow
• switch spoofing
• VLAN hopping*
• MAC spoofing

375. Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?

• Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.


• Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing
process*
• As numbers are configure in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
• Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

376. Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?

• It prioritizes routing protocol traffic.


• It remarks traffic that is below the CIR
• It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.*
• It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

377. Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?

• determining the path cost


• electing designated ports*
• learning the sender bridge ID
• assigning the port ID

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

378. what is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?

• Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.*


• Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
• Only RADIUS uses TCP
• Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

379. Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?

• It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage


• It simplifies adding and removing hosts.
• It supports better performance of high-needs applications.
• It provides higher port density with better resource usage.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

380. Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

• learning
• listening
• discarding*
• forwarding

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

381. What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

• transparent
• auto*
• on*
• desirable*
• client
• forwarding

382. Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, What would cause router A not to form an
adjacency with router B?
• The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
• The value of the dead timers on the router are different.*
• Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
• The process indentifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

383. What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in
milliseconds?

• service timestamps log datetime localtime


• service timestamps debug datetime msec*
• service timestamps debug datetime localtime
• service timestamps log datetime msec

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

384. Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to
produce the given the output?

• A. interface FastEthernet 0/3


Channel-group 1 mode desirable
Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switchport mode trunk
• interface FastEthernet 0/3
Channel-group 2 mode passive
Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switchport mode trunk*
• interface FastEthernet 0/3
Channel-group 2 mode on
Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switchport mode trunk
• interface FastEthernet 0/3
Channel-group 2 mode active
Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switchport mode trunk
385. While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer,you determined that the
computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that
server.Which reason for the problem is most likely ture?

• A VLAN number is incorrect


• An ARP table entry is missing
• A route is missing
• An ACL is blocking the TCP port*

386. When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues,how can you verify that an IP
address is known to a router?

• Check whether the IP address is in the routing table


• Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address
• Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table
• Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

387. Refer to the exhibit.After you apply the given configuration to R1, you determine that
it is failing to advertise the 172.16.10.32/27 network .Which action most likely to correct the
problem.

• Enable passive interface


• Enable RIPv2*
• Enable manual summarization
• Enable autosummarization.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


388. Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing
before you implement OSPFv3?(Choose two)

• configure an autonomous system number


• configure a loopback interface
• configure a router ID
• Enable IPv6 on an interface*
• Enable IPv6 unicast routing*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

389. Which option is the main function of congestion management?

• discarding excess traffic


• queuing traffic based on priority*
• classifying traffic
• providing long-term storage of buffered data

390. Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?

• ip ospf hello-interval seconds


• router ospfv2 process-id
• router ospf value
• router ospf process-id*

391. Refer to the exhibit.If RTR01 is configured as shown,which three addresses will be
received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network?(choose three)

• 192.168.2.0*
• 10.4.3.0
• 10.0.0.0*
• 172.16.0.0*
• 172.16.4.0
• 192.168.0.0

392. Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?


• dynamic
• bia
• static*
• sticky

393. Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame?(choose two)

• frame check sequence*


• header
• source IP address
• destination IP address
• type*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

394. Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information ?

• in the MAC address table


• in the CAM table
• in the DHCP binding database*
• in the VLAN database

395. To enable router on a router subinterface,which two steps must you perform?(choose
two)

• Configure full duplex and speed


• configure the subinterface with an IP address*
• Configure an IP route to the VLAN destination network
• Configure a default to route traffic between subinterface
• Configure encapsulation dot1q*

396. Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security
model?

• show snmp group*


• show snmp pending
• snmp-server contact
• show snmp engineID

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

397. Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?

• It is always performed automatically


• Each VLAN must have its own root bridge*
• Each VLAN must use the same root bridge
• Each root bridge must reside on the same root switch

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

398. Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true?(choose two)

• The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed.*


• It is used for an ISATAP tunnel
• The embedded IPv4 address is an RFC 1918 address
• The MAC address 20:02:b0:10:be:ef is embedded into the IPv6 address
• It is used for a 6to4 tunnel*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

399. Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the
router?

• bootstrap*
• POST
• mini-IOS
• ROMMON mode

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

400. Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose
three.)

• 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.*


• 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
• 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.*
• 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
• 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.*

401. Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)

• It allows a single strand of fiber to support bidirectional communications*


• It is used for long-distance and submarine cable systems*
• It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber
• It supports both the SDH and SONET standards*
• Each channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal
• It supports simplex communications over multiple strands of fiber

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

402. If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are exchanging link-state
advertisements, which state have they reached?
• Exstart
• 2-Way
• FULL*
• Exchange

403. Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?

• Teredo
• 6to4*
• 4to6
• GRE
• ISATAP

404. Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic?
(Choose two.)

• There are two broadcast domains in the network.*


• There are four broadcast domains in the network.
• There are six broadcast domains in the network.
• There are four collision domains in the network.
• There are five collision domains in the network.
• There are seven collision domains in the network.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


405. Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?

• 0000.0C07.AC15*
• 0000.5E00.01A3
• 0007.B400.AE01
• 0007.5E00.B301

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

406. assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified
and removed on a cisco switch?

• 2 through 1001*
• 1 through 1001
• 1 through 1002
• 2 through 1005

407. Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements are true of the interfaces on
switch1?(choose two)
• A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5*
• FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.*
• FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned mac address
• Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disable.
• Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
• FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

408. Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 port on the 2950 model switches
that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
• The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
• SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
• SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
• SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
• SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
• SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
• SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
• SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

409. Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true?
(Choose three.)

• SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features*


• SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
• SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP*
• SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP
• SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.*
• SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

410. which command do use we to see SNMP version

• show snmp pending*


• show snmp engineID
• snmp-server something
• http://bbs.hh010.com

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

411. Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?

• CLNS
• TCPv6
• NHRP
• NDP
• ARP*

412. What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ipv6 connection?

• /127*
• /128
• /64
• /48
• /32

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

413. What are three features of the IPV6 protocol?(choose three)

• complicated header
• plug-and-play*
• no broadcasts*
• checksums
• optional IPsec
• autoconfiguration*

414. Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design?(choose three)

• to confine network instability to single areas of the network.*


• to reduce the complexity of router configuration
• to speed up convergence*
• to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
• to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
• to reduce routing overhead*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

415. Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

• A. application
• B. internet*
• C. network
• D. transport

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

416. If Computer A is sending traffic to computer B, which option is the source ip address
when a packet leaves R1 on interface F0/1?

• IP address of the R2 interface F0/1


• Ip address of computer B
• Ip address of R1 interface F0/1
• Ip address of Computer A*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

417. Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a specific OID tree?

• server group
• a community
• a view record*
• an access group

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

418. Refer to the exhibit:


after you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start
Which reason for the problem is most likely true ?

• The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched*


• The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched
• The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
• The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched

419. Afer you apply the given configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device
cannot
communicate with hosts outside of their subnet.
Which action is most likely to correct the problem?

ip dhcp pool test


network 192.168.10.0/27
domain name cisco.com
dns-server 172.16.1.1 172.16.2.1
netbios-name-server 172.16.1.10 172.16.2.10

• Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients


• Activate the dhcp pool
• Correct the subnet mask
• configure the default gateway*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


420. which command can you enter in a network switch configuration so that learned mac
addresses are saved in configuration as they connect?

• Switch(config-if)#Switch port-security
• Switch(config-if)#Switch port-security Mac-address stcky*
• Switch(config-if)#Switch port-security maximum 10
• Switch(config-if)#Switch mode access

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

421. Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?

• learning
• forwarding
• blocking
• disabled*

422. Which command can you enter to block HTTPS traffic from the whole class A private
network range to a host?

• R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 443


• R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 53
• R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 53
• R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 443*

423. When is a routing table entry identified as directly connected?

• when the local router is in use as the network default gateway


• when the network resides on a remote router that is physically connected to the local
router
• when an interface on the router is configure with an ip address and enabled*
• when the route is statically assigned to reach a specific network

424. Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?

• FC00::/7
• FC00::/8
• FE80::/10*
• FF00::/8

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

425. Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel ?

• PAgP
• LACP*
• Cisco Discovery Protocol
• DTP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

426. For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space define (Choose two)

• to preserve public IPv4 address space*


• to reduce the occurrence of overlapping IP addresses*
• to preserve public IPv6 address space
• reduce the size of ISP routing tables
• to support the NAT protocol

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

427. Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two)

• It must be manually enabled after RIP is configured as the routing protocol*


• It uses multicast address 224.0.0.2 to share routing information between peers
• its default administrative distances 120*
• It is a link-state routing protocol
• It is an EGP routing protocol

428. In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostname of a device?

• line mode
• interface mode
• global mode*
• router mode

429. In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses appropriate? (Choose two)

• on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources


• on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts*
• on the public-facing interface of a firewall
• on hosts that require minimal access to external resources*
• to allow hosts inside an enterprise to communicate in both directions with hosts outside
the enterprise

430. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)

• The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems*


• Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device*
• They can be created dynamically after the network statement is con-figured.
• The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system
• The two devices must have matching timer settings
431. Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)

• device management address.*


• device type*
• spanning-tree topology
• routing configuration
• access-list configuration

432. Which two statements about UDP are true? (Choose two)

• It can transmit data at a rate higher than the path capacity*


• It uses a three-way handshake to ensure that traffic is transmitted properly
• It guarantees packet delivery
• it includes protection against duplicate packets
• it can be used for multicast and broadcast traffic*

433. Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose Two)

• They can provide access within enterprises and to the public.


• in Most cases, they are physically connected to other network devices to provide
network connectivity*
• They can protect a network from internal and external threats.
• Most access points provide Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity.*
• They must be hardwired to a modem.

434. For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential host startup is-sues? (Choose
two.)

• DHCP*
• DNS*
• OSPF
• RIP
• CDP

435. What does it take for BGP to establish connection. (Choose two)

• Enable cdp
• AS number on local router*
• AS number on remote router*
• IGP
• EGP

436. On which layer tcp/ip is ACL Apic-EM path

• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4*

437. Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an
enterprise?

• IaaS
• DaaS
• SaaS*
• PaaS

438. Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

• Utilizing Syslog improves network performance


• The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems
• A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using
router disk space*
• There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are
comparable SNMP trap messages.*
• Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping
• A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.*

439. What are the two statements about EUI-64 addressing? (Choose two)

• A locally administrated address has the universal/local bit set to 0.*


• A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
• A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
• The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC
address*
• The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC
address

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

440. After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device,under which
two conditions is DNS spoofing enabled on the device?(choose two)

• The DNS server queue limit id disabled


• The ip host command is disabled
• All configured IP name server addresses are removed*
• The ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface
• The no ip domain lookup command is configured*

441. which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use DNS services?

• configure a relay agent information reforwarding policy


• configure manual bindings*
• configure the relay agent information option
• configure a name server

442. Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time
for all IP traffic between a Cisco router and an end device ?(choose two)

• A. ICMP path echo*


• B. UDP echo
• C. ICMP path jitter
• D. UDP jitter
• E. TCP connect
• F. ICMP echo*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

443. What authentication type is used by SNMPv2 ?

• username and password


• community strings*
• HMAC-MD5
• HMAC-SHA

444. Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication ?

• RARP
• CSMA/CA
• CSMA/CD*
• IEEE 802.1x

445. While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue,show interface command output
displays tunnel status up,but line protocol is down.
Which reason for this problem is most likely ?

• The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself*
• The next hop server is misconfigured
• The interface has been administratively shut down
• The tunnel was just reset

446. Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true ?(choose two)

• It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management


interface*
• The administrator can create only one stack of switches in a network which is under the
same administrative domian
• When a new master switch is elected,it queries the previous master for its running
configuration
• The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases*
• Each switch manages its own MAC address table

447. Router R1 has a static route that is configured to destination network.A directly
connected interface is configured with an IP address in the same destination
network.Which statement about R1 is true?

• R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors


• R1 prefers the static route
• R1 prefers the directly connected interface*
• R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router

448. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

• outside public
• inside local
• inside global*
• inside public
• outside global
• outside local

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

449. Which configuration register value can you set on a Cisco device so that it ignores the
NVRAM when it boots?

• 0x2124
• 0x2120
• 0x2142*
• 0x2102

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

450. Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches?(choose two)

• Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
• You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.*
• Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image
• The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the
existing master fails.*
• You can license the entire stack with a single master license

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


451. Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configures time
source?

• show ntp authenticate


• ntp associations
• ntp server time
• ntp authenticate
• show ntp associations*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

452. Which two statements about LLDP are true ?(choose two)

• It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices*


• It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
• It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
• It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
• It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer*

453. A network administrator enters the following command on a router:logging trap 3 .


What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server?(choose three)

• warning
• informational
• error*
• emergency*
• debug
• critical*

454. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?


• The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
• VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
• The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
• SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

455. Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by


a smaller number of public IP addresses?

• NAT*
• NTP
• RFC 1631
• RFC 1918

456. Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)

• inside local*
• inside global*
• inside private
• outside private
• external global
• external local

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


457. Refer to the exhibit.A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network.Which
subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting
the fewest addresses?

• 192.168.1.56/27
• 192.168.1.64/26*
• 192.168.1.64/27
• 192.168.1.56/26

458. Refer to the exhibit.If the devices produced the given output,what is the cause of the
EtherChannel problem?
• There is a speed mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.*
• There is an MTU mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces
• There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interface
• SW1’s Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.

459. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

• 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
• 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
• FEC0:2927:1860:W067::2A4
• 2004:1:25A4:886F::1*

460. Which two statements about configuring an Ether Channel on a Cisco switch are
true?(Choose two)

• The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must have the same STP port path cost
• The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must be on the same physical
switch*
• An Ether Channel can operate in Layer 2 mode only
• The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must operate at the same speed and
duplex mode*
• The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must be part of the same VLAN or trunk

461. Which two statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are true?( Choose two)

• They receive packets on the closest interface that is discovered by the routing
protocol*
• They are allocated from the IPv6 broadcast address space
• They are used in conjunction with source-specific multicast for IPv6
• They use the prefix FC00::/8
• They arr allocated from the IPv6 unicast address space*

462. What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?

• Define inside and outside interfaces*


• Define public and private IP addresses
• Define IP address pools
• Define global and local interfaces

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

463. It you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an establshed BGP
neighbor, which additional task must you perfom to allow the two devices to continue
exchanging routes?

• Reset the BGP connections on the device


• Reset the gateway interface
• Clear the IP routes on the device*
• Change the weight and distance settings on the other device to match

464. Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture and analyze frames that
transt an interface? (Choose two)

• SNMP
• NetFlow
• IP SLA
• SPAN*
• RSPAN*

465. Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two)

• It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port


• It aggregates traffic statistics for reporting on a configurable basis
• It requires a remote device to log and maintain collected data
• It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to
a designated end device*
• It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance*

466. Which two are features of IPv6?(choose two)

• multicast*
• broadcast
• allcast
• podcast
• anycast*

467. Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true?(Choose two)

• It is used to initiate a VTP server and cient relationship


• It uses SNMP to share device information to an external server
• It runs on the network layer and the data link layer.
• It runs on the data link layer only*
• It uses TLVs to share device information*

468. Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management?(Choose two)

• CBWFQ*
• FRTS
• CAR
• PQ*
• PBR
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

469. Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements
describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

• The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192


• The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128*
• The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1*
• The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
• The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
• The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.*

470. A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a


nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum
of 50 host addresses per subnet.
Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support
an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128*
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192*
• 255.255.248.0
471. which two statements describe key differences between single- and dual-homed WAN
connections? (Choose two)

• Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections*


• Dual-homed WAN connections have more management-application overhead than
single-homed connections
• Dual-homed WAN connections require more skill to administer than single-homed
connections*
• Dual-homed WAN connections have a simpler topology than single-homed connections
• Dual-homed WAN connections have higher WAN speed than single- homed connections

472. which two values are needed to run the APIC-EM ACL Analysis tool ?(choose two)

• destination address*
• destination port
• periodic refresh intervlan
• source address*
• protocol
• source port

473. Which QOS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

• weighted fair queuing


• FIFO
• policing*
• shaping

474. Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP SLA? (Choose two)

• The destination device must support the echo protocol*


• default gateway must be configured for the source and destination devices
• The source device must be running Layer 2 services.
• The source and destination devices must be Cisco devices
• The source device must be a Cisco device but the destination device can be from any
vendor*

475. What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

• trap*
• get
• response
• capture

476. In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled
port?
• listening
• forwarding*
• discarding
• learning

477. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with
redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same
VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

• The design will function as intended


• Spanning-tree will need to be used
• The router will not accept the addressing scheme*
• The connection between switches should be a trunk.
• The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

478. For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation instead of stacking
switches?(Choose two)

• to allow hot-swapping modules


• to increase the number of devices in use*
• to avoid the use of a centralized configuration manager*
• to avoid relying solely on Ethemet interfaces
• to increase the maximum port count

479. Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true?(Choose two

• increased latency
• redundancy*
• improved scalability
• reliability*
• reduced itter

480. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic on the control plane uses which VLAN ?

• VLAN 1
• VLAN 5
• VLAN 10*
• VLAN 20

481. Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge?(choose two

• the highest MAC address


• the lowest MAC address*
• the highest port priority
• the lowest system ID

the lowest switch priority*

482. Which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network?

• firewall*
• WLAN controller
• load balancer
• intrusion prevention device

483. What two actions can be taken to secure the virtual teminal interfaces on a
router?(choose two)

• Administratively shut down the interface


• Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-
class command*
• Physically secure the interface
• Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-group
command
• Configure a virtual terminal password and logi process*

484. Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (choose two)

• Category 5e*
• RG11
• RG-6
• Category 6*
• Category 3

485. Which value is included in the initial TCP syn message?

• a session ID
• sequence number*
• a TTL number
• an acknowledgment number

486. At which severity level can syslog logging begin to affect router performance?

• debugging
• emergency*
• notification
• critical

487. Refer to the exhibit.What is the effect of the configuration?


• Traffic from PC A is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
• Traffic from PC A is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
• Traffic from PC B is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A*
• Traffic from PC B is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PCA

488. Which effete does the aaa new-model coniguration commandhave?

• It enables AAA services on the device*


• It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
• It associates a RADIUS server to an AAA group.
• It configures a local user on the device.

489. A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast Enable. Which state
does the interface enter when it recives a BPDU ?

• Blocking
• Shutdown
• Listening
• Errdisable*

1. Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

490. Which IEEE standard protocol is Which IEEEsful DTP completion in a switch over
FastEthernet?

• 802.3ad
• 802.1w
• 802.1Q*
• 802.1d

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

491. Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

• NCP
• LCP*
• ISDN
• DLCI
• SLIP

492. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose
two.)

• Global addresses start with 2000::/3.*


• Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
• Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
• There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.*
• If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for
the interface.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

493. While troubleshooting a DHCP client that is behaving erratically, you discover that
the client has been assigned the same IP address as a printer that is a staticIP address.
Which option is the best way to resolve the problem?

• Configurea static route to the client.


• Assign the client the same IP address as the router.
• Move the client to another IP subnet
• Move the printer to another IP subnet.
• Reserve the printer IP address.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

494. Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?

• When a router have multiple subnets on a single physical link.*


• When a router have single subnet on multiple physical links.
• When a router have multiple interface on single physical links.
• When a router have single interface on multiple physical links.

495. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command,
which router is the feasible successor?
• 10.1.0.1 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.1, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (46152000/41640000), Route is Internal
Vector metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 64 Kbit
Total delay is 45000 Microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
• 10.0.0.2 (Serial0.1), from 10.0.0.2, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (53973248/128256), Route is Internal
Vector Metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 48 Kbit
Total delay is 25000 Microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 1
• 10.1.0.3 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.3, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (46866176/46354176), Route is Internal
Vector metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 56 Kbit
Total delay is 45000 microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
• 10.1.1.1 (Serial0.1), from 10.1.1.1, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (46763776/46251776), Route is External
Vector metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 56 Kbit
Total delay is 41000 microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2

496. Which symptom can cause duplex mismatch problem?

• no earner
• collisions on interface*
• giants
• CRC errors

497. Which of the port is not part of STP protocol.

• Listening
• Learning
• Forwarding
• Discarding*

498. which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid mac address to pass but
block traffic from invalid mac address?

• protect*
• shutdown
• shutdown vlan
• restrict

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

499. Which type of routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information
?

• distance vector protocols*


• link state protocols
• path vector protocols
• exterior gateway protocols

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

500. Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?

• MD5
• PSK
• AH
• ESP*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

501. Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates?

• static
• RIPng*
• OSPFv3
• IS-IS for IPv6

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


502. which definition of a host route is true ?

• A route that is manually configured


• A route used when a destination route is missing.
• A route to the exact /32 destination address*
• Dynamic route learned from the server.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

503. which statement about upgrading a cisco IOS device with TFTP server ?

• the operation is performed in active mode


• the operation is performed in unencrypted format
• the operation is performed in passive mode
• the cisco IOS device must be on the same LAN as the TFTP server*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

504. Which statement about DHCP snooping is true?

• it blocks traffic from DHCP servers on untrusted interfaces.*


• it can be configured on switches and routers.
• it allows packets from untrusted ports if their source MAC address is found in the binding
table.
• it uses DHCPDiscover packets to identify DHCP servers.

505. Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router?
(Choose three)

• ntp peer
• ntp max-associations
• ntp authenticate*
• ntp trusted-key*
• ntp authentication-key*
• ntp refclock

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

506. Which functionality does an SVI provide?

• OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches


• remote switch administration
• traffic routing for VLANs*
• OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches
507.Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true?
(Choose two)

• A. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d


• B. The subnet ID is 4079*
• C. The global ID is 14920bf83d
• D. The address is a link-local address
• E. The global ID is 4079
• F. The address is a unique local address*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

508. Which type of cable must you use to connect two device with mdi interfaces ?

• rolled
• crossover*
• crossed
• straight through

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

509. Which of the following is true about spanning-tree root-bridge election

• It happens automatically. (something like that)*


• Every root bridge has the same VLAN.
• Every VLAN has its own root bridge.
• i forgot the last

510. how is MPLS implemented (like this) :

• on LAN
• must be on redundant links
• can be on redundant or nonredundant links*
• can’t remember

511. Question about HTTP API :

• Rest*
• OpenFlow
• COpflex
• OpenStack

512. What two state that lacp forwarding (something like this)

• Passive *
• Active*
• Auto
• Desirable

513. On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?

• A. a router
• B. a Layer 2 switch
• C. a hub*

514. Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?

• A. 1500
• B. 9216
• C. 1600
• D. 1518*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

515. A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a
shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network
interface port?

• A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.


• B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
• C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.*
• D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
• E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

516. Which two statements about fiber cable are true? (Choose two)

• A. Single-mode fiber supports SC and LC connectors only


• B. Single-mode cable is most appropriate for installations longer 10 km*
• C. Fiber cable is relatively inexpensive and supports a higher data rate than coaxial cable
• D. Multimode cable supports speeds between 100 Mbps and 100 Gbps*
• E. Multimode cable supports speeds between 100 Mbps and 9.92 Gbps

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

517. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as
illustrated, but there is no connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have
a correct configuration.
Given the partial configurations, identify the problem on the Brevard router that is causing
the lack of connectivity.
• A. transmission unit size too large
• B. no loopback set
• C. an incorrect subnet mask
• D. incompatible encapsulation at each end
• E. an incorrect IP address*
• F. incompatible bandwidth between routers

518. Which two pieces of information are provided by the “show controllers serial 0”
command? (Choose two)

• A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.*


• B. The uptime of the interface
• C. the status of the physical layer of the interface*
• D. the full configuration of the interface
• E. the interface‟s duplex settings

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

519. What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line?

• A. Low cost
• B. Full-mesh capability
• C. Flexibility of design
• D. Simply configuration*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

520. Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?

• A. Ports are untrusted by default.


• B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
• C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
• D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
• E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative
domain.*

521. Which function does traffic shaping perform?

• A. It buffers and queues excess packets*


• B. It buffers traffic without queuing it
• C. It queues traffic without buffering it
• D. It drops packets to control the output rate

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

522. Which QoS tool can you use to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily
intended for data traffic?

• A.WRED
• B. FIFO
• C. PQ*
• D.WFQ

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

523. Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?

• A. Ethernet
• B. dialer*
• C. serial
• D. Frame Relay

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

524. Which statement about MPLS is true?

• A. It operates in Layer 1.
• B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.*
• C. It operates in Layer 3.
• D. It operates in Layer 2.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

525. Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?

• A. ring
• B. full mesh
• C. hub-and-spoke*
• D. partial mesh

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

526. Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that to re-enable
CDP if it was disabled by the administrator?

• A. enable cdp
• B. cdp enable
• C. cdp run*
• D. run cdp

527. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?

• A. It is Cisco-proprietary Protocol*
• B. It can discover information from routers, firewalls and switches
• C. It runs on the network layer
• D. It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.

528. What two statements about CDP are true? (Choose two)

• A. CDP runs on the data link layer only *


• B. CDP uses SNMP to share device information to an external server
• C. CDP runs on the network layer and the data link layer
• D. CDP uses TLVs to share device information*
• E. CDP used to initiate a VTP server and client relationship

529. Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices
across different subnets?

• A. 172.20.1.0
• B. 127.0.0.1
• C. 192.168.0.119
• D. 239.255.0.1*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

530. Which two statements are true for multicast MAC address directions?

• A. 01:00:5E:xx:xx:xx*
• B. one to one
• C. 01 00 xx xxxxxxx
• D. 02 xx xxxxxxx
• E. one to many*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

531. Which command can you use to set the hostname on a switch?

• A. switch-mdf-c1(config)#hostname switch-mdf1*
• B. switch-mdf-c1>hostname switch-mdf1
• C. switch-mdf-c1#hostname switch-mdf1
• D. switch-mdf-c1(config-if)#hostname switch-mdf1

532. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?

Switch#configuration terminal
Switch#interface VLAN 1
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.2.2 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)#end

• A. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.*


• B. It configures an active management interface.
• C. It configures the native VLAN.
• D. It configures the default VLAN.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

533. Which statement about switch access ports is true?

• A. They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.*


• B. A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.
• C. They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support
• D. By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

534. Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to
access the network?

• A. CSMA/CD*
• B. IGMP
• C. port security
• D. split horizon

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

535. Which option is a invalid hostname for a switch?

• A. 5witch-Cisco
• B. Switch-Cisco!*
• C. 5witchCisc0
• D. SwitchCisc0

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

536.

A
technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the
management workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to
accomplish this task?

• A.
SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
• B.
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
• C.
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
• D.
SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

537. Which of the three options are switchbox configurations that can always avoid duplex
mismatch errors between two switches? (Choose three)

• A. Set one side of the connection to the full duplex and the other side to half duplex
• B. Set both sides of the connection to full duplex*
• C. Set one side of the connection to auto-negotiate and the other side to half duplex
• D. Set one side of the connection to auto-negotiate and the other side to full duplex
• E. Set both sides of the connection to auto-negotiate*
• F. Set both sides of the connection to half duplex*

538. Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain?
(Choose two)

• A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN*


• B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
• C. congestion on the switch inband path*
• D. a failing NIC in an end device
• E. an overloaded shared segment

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

539. What is the default VLAN on an access port?

• A. 0
• B. 1*
• C. 10
• D. 1024

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

540. Which statement about DTP is true?

• A. It uses the native VLAN.


• B. It negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured.
• C. It uses desirable mode by default.
• D. It sends data on VLAN 1.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

541. Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if
all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three)
• A. Switch A – Fa0/0
• B. Switch A – Fa0/1 *
• C. Switch B – Fa0/0 *
• D. Switch B – Fa0/1 *
• E. Switch C – Fa0/0
• F. Switch C – Fa0/1

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

542. Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?

• A. 802.1x
• B. 802.1q*
• C. 802.1w
• D. 802.1s

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

543. Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding stated?

• A. BPDU guard
• B. PortFast*
• C. loop guard
• D. UDLD
• E. Uplink Fast

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

544. Which type of port role does not participate in STP calculation?

• A. Listening
• B. Learning
• C. Forwarding
• D. Discarding*

545. A question about BPDU. What would a PortFast BPDU guard port do when it is
configured on a port? (Choose two)

• A. err-disabled when port receives BPDUs*


• B. supported only on nontrunking access ports*
• C. forward when port receives BPDUs
• D. supported on trunk ports

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

546. Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two)

• A. listening
• B. backup
• C. disabled
• D. learning*
• E. discarding*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

547. Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology
change?

• A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the
switch.
• B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by
ports in the same STP instance.*
• C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the
switch.
• D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in
the same STP instance.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


548. Which protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more
switches?

• A. multicast
• B. STP
• C. VTP*
• D. split-horizon

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

549. To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information


between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two)

• A. Each end of the trunk line must be set to IEEE 802.1E encapsulation.
• B. The VTP management domain name of both switches must be set the same.*
• C. All ports on both the switches must be set as access ports.
• D. One of the two switches must be configured as a VTP server.*
• E. A rollover cable is required to connect the two switches together.
• F. A router must be used to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

550. Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another
port or ports on the same switch?

• A. copy run start


• B. traceroute
• C. the ICMP Echo IP SLA
• D. SPAN*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

551. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the “show interface
port-channel 1 etherchannel” command and it returned this output. Which information is
provided by the Load value?

• A. the percentage of use of the link


• B. the preference of the link
• C. the session count of the link
• D. the number source-destination pairs on the link*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

552. Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?

• A. interface FastEthernet 0/0


encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
• B. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
• C. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
description subinterface vlan 30
• D. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

553. Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?

• A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.


• B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the
same hub.
• C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded
slower than expected.
• D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
• E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

554. Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?

• A. IEEE 802.1X
• B. HSRP
• C. port channel
• D. router on a stick*

555. How is master redundancy provided on a stacked switches?

• A. 1:N*
• B. N:1
• C. 1:1
• D. 1+N
• E. N+1
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

556. Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?

• A. 1
• B. 64
• C. 99
• D. 100*
• E. 299
• F. 1099

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

557. If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage server, which destination
MAC address does host Z use to transmit packets?

• A. the host Z MAC address


• B. the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to the storage server
• C. the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to host Z*
• D. the MAC address of the storage server interface

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

558. Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?

• A. IBGP
• B. OSPF
• C. IS-IS
• D. EIGRP*
• E. RIP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

559. Which statement about static routes is true?

• A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.


• B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
• C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default
• D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.*

560. When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one
network and destined to another, which portion of the packet does if replace?

• A. Layer 2 frame header and trailer*


• B. Layer 3 IP address
• C. Layer 5 session
• D. Layer 4 protocol

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

561. Which statement about routing protocols is true?

• A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
• B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.*
• C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
• D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.

562. Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to
a destination?

• A. IGRP
• B. RIP*
• C. EIGRP
• D. OSPF

563. In which situation would the use of a static route be appropriate?

• A. To configure a route to the first Layer 3 device on the network segment.


• B. To configure a route from an ISP router into a corporate network.
• C. To configure a route when the administrative distance of the current routing protocol
is too low.
• D. To reach a network is more than 15 hops away.
• E. To provide access to the Internet for enterprise hosts*

564. What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two)

• A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets


• B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
• C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal
functionality*
• D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm*
• E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged
network

565. Refer to the exhibit. Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency
with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the
two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two)
• A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
• B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
• C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
• D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.*
• E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

566. Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the
neighbors of a device?

• A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces


• B. show ipv6 route eigrp
• C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors*
• D. show ip eigrp traffic

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

567. Which routing protocols are compatible with stubs? (Choose two)

• A. OSPF*
• B. EIGRP*
• C. EGP
• D. BGP
• E. IS-IS
• F. RIP

568. Which feature or utility enables a switch or router to monitor network performance
and availability using a responder?

• A. NetFlow
• B. ping
• C. traceroute
• D. IP SLA*
569. Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?

• A. show ip nat statistics*


• B. debug ip nat
• C. show ip debug nat
• D. clear ip nat statistics

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

570. Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?

• A. PAT*
• B. SFTP
• C. RARP
• D. ARP
• E. TFTP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

571. Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?

• A. when the network must route UDP traffic


• B. when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts
*
• C. when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts
• D. when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require
outside access

572. Which three options are the HSRP states for a router? (Choose three)

• A. initialize
• B. learn*
• C. secondary
• D. listen*
• E. speak*
• F. primary

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

573. Which two statements about the “tunnel mode ipv6ip” command are true? (Choose
two)

• A. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.*


• B. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.*
• C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
• D. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol.
• E. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

574. In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three)

• A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.*


• B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.*
• C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.*
• D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
• E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
• F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

575. You enter the “show ipv6 route” command on an OSPF device and the device displays
a route. Which conclusion can you draw about the environment?

• A. OSPF is distributing IPv6 routes to BGP.


• B. The router is designated as an ABR.
• C. The router is designated as totally stubby.
• D. OSPFv3 is in use.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

576. What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?

• A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.*


• B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
• C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
• D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

577. What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?

• A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201*


• B. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1
• C. ?
• D. ?

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578. Which command sets and automatically encrypts the privileged enable mode
password?
• A. enable password cisco
• B. secret enable cisco
• C. password enable cisco
• D. enable secret cisco*

579. The enable secret command is used to secure access to which CLI mode?

• A. user EXEC mode


• B. global configuration mode
• C. privileged EXEC mode *
• D. auxiliary setup mode

580. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting the no login command?

Router#config t
Router(config)#line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)#password c1sc0
Router(config-line)#no login

• A. Telnet access is denied.


• B. Telnet access requires a new password at the first login.
• C. Telnet access requires a new password.
• D. no password is required for telnet access.*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

581. Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the
LAN?

• A. 802.1d
• B. 802.11
• C. 802.1w
• D. 802.1x*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

582. What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different
networks?

• A. Ping the loopback address.


• B. Ping the default gateway.
• C. Ping the local interface address.
• D. Ping the remote network.*

583. While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another
VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on
interfaces and the local VLANs are up?
• A. show ip interface brief*
• B. show ip nat statistics
• C. show ip statistics
• D. show ip route

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

584. Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?

• A. SNMPv3 with RBAC


• B. SNMPv3*
• C. SNMPv1
• D. SNMPv2

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

585. What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?

• A. Configure server traps.


• B. Configure the server group.*
• C. Configure the server host.
• D. Configure the remote engine ID.

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586. Which command can you enter to configure the switch as an authoritative NTP server
with a site id: 13999902?

• A. Switch(config)#ntp master 3 *
• B. Switch(config)#ntp peer 193.168.2.2
• C. Switch(config)#ntp server 193.168.2.2
• D. Switch(config)#ntp source 193.168.2.2

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

587. What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose three)

• A. WiMax*
• B. satellite Internet*
• C. municipal Wi-Fi*
• D. site-to-site VPN
• E. DSLAM
• F. CMTS

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference


588. What are three characteristics of satellite Internet connections? (Choose three)

• A. Their upload speed is about 10 percent of their download speed.*


• B. They are frequently used by rural users without access to other high-speed
connections.*
• C. They are usually at least 10 times faster than analog modem connections.*
• D. They are usually faster than cable and DSL connections.
• E. They require a WiMax tower within 30 miles of the user location.
• F. They use radio waves to communicate with cellular phone towers.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

589. Which command can you enter to verify echo request and echo reply?

• A. ping*
• B. traceroute
• C. tracert
• D. telnet

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

590. What utility is used for shadowed rules?

• A. Create an action plan


• B. Implement an action plan*
• C. Gather facts
• D. ?

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

591. What feature you should use to analyse and monitor your traffic for troubleshooting?

• A. RSPAN
• B. SPAN
• C. Netflow*
• D. SNMP

592. Which command can you use to test whether a switch supports secure connections and
strong authentication?

• Router#ssh –v 1 –l admin 10.1.1.1


• Switch>ssh –v 1 –l admin 10.1.1.1
• Switch#ssh –l admin 10.1.1.1
• Router>ssh –v 2 –l admin10.1.1.1*

593. Which functionality does split horizon provide?


• It prevents switching loops in distance-vector protocols.
• It prevents switching loops in link-state protocols.
• It prevents routing loops in distance-vector protocols.*
• It prevents routing loops in link-state protocols.

594. How many host addresses are available on the network 192.168.1.0 subnet 255.255.255
240?

• 6
• 8
• 14*
• 16

595. Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs?

• server
• off
• client*
• transparent

596. Which three statements about DTP are true? (Choose three.)

• It is a proprietary protocol.*
• It is a universal protocol.
• It is a Layer 2-based protocol.*
• It is enabled by default.*
• It is disabled by default.
• It is a Layer 3-based protocol.

597. Refer to the exhibit. You have determined that computer A cannot ping computer B.
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
• The computer B default gateway address is incorrect.
• The computer B subnet mask is incorrect.
• The computer A subnet mask is incorrect.
• The computer A default gateway address is incorrect.*

598. Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric for the route from R1 to 192.168.10.1?
• 2
• 90
• 110
• 52778*

599. Which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignments?

• show ip dhcp database


• show ip dhcp pool*
• clear ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp import

600. Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose two.)

• on
• desirable*
• passive
• auto*
• active

601. Which six-byte field in a basic Ethernet frame must be an individual address?

• SOF
• FCS
• DA
• SA*

602. Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a local router
after it has been disabled?

• Router(config-if)#cdp run
• Router(config-if)#cdp enable
• Router(config)#cdp run*
• Router(config)#cdp enable