Anda di halaman 1dari 2

Lemma. 2𝑛 > 𝑛2 for all 𝑛 > 4 in integer.

Proof. As 𝑛 = 5, 25 > 52 holds.


Assume that 𝑛 = 𝑘, 2𝑘 > 𝑘 2 holds for some 𝑘 > 4 then
as 𝑛 = 𝑘 + 1, 2𝑘+1 − (𝑘 + 1)2
= 2 ∙ 2𝑘 − (𝑘 2 + 2𝑘 + 1) > 2 ∙ 𝑘 2 − (𝑘 2 + 2𝑘 + 1)
= 𝑘 2 − 2𝑘 − 1 = (𝑘 − 4)(𝑘 + 2) + 7 > 0
since 𝑘 > 4. And so 2𝑘+1 > (𝑘 + 1)2 holds. By MIP, 2𝑛 > 𝑛2 holds for all 𝑛 > 4 in integer.

Lemma. 3𝑛 > 𝑛3 for all 𝑛 > 3 in integer.


Proof. As 𝑛 = 4, 34 > 43 holds.
Assume that 𝑛 = 𝑘, 3𝑘 > 𝑘 3 holds for some 𝑘 > 3 then
as 𝑛 = 𝑘 + 1, 3𝑘+1 − (𝑘 + 1)3
= 3 ∙ 3𝑘 − (𝑘 3 + 3𝑘 2 + 3𝑘 + 1) > 3 ∙ 𝑘 3 − (𝑘 3 + 3𝑘 2 + 3𝑘 + 1)
= 2𝑘 3 − 3𝑘 2 − 3𝑘 − 1 = (𝑘 − 3)(2𝑘 2 + 3𝑘 + 6) + 17 > 0
since 𝑘 > 3. And so 3𝑘+1 > (𝑘 + 1)3 holds. By MIP, 3𝑛 > 𝑛3 holds for all 𝑛 > 3 in integer.

Lemma. 4𝑛 > 𝑛4 for all 𝑛 > 4 in integer.


Proof. As 𝑛 = 5, 45 > 54 holds.
Assume that 𝑛 = 𝑘, 4𝑘 > 𝑘 4 holds for some 𝑘 > 4 then
as 𝑛 = 𝑘 + 1, 4𝑘+1 − (𝑘 + 1)4
= 4 ∙ 4𝑘 − (𝑘 4 + 4𝑘 3 + 6𝑘 2 + 4𝑘 + 1) > 4 ∙ 𝑘 4 − (𝑘 4 + 4𝑘 3 + 6𝑘 2 + 4𝑘 + 1)
= 3𝑘 4 − 4𝑘 3 − 6𝑘 2 − 4𝑘 − 1 = (𝑘 − 4)(3𝑘 3 + 8𝑘 2 + 26𝑘 + 100) + 399 > 0
since 𝑘 > 4. And so 4𝑘+1 > (𝑘 + 1)4 holds. By MIP, 4𝑛 > 𝑛4 for all 𝑛 > 4 in integer.

Lemma 2. 𝑛𝑛+1 > (𝑛 + 1)𝑛 for all 𝑛 ≥ 3 in integer.


𝑛+1 𝑛 1
Proof. We prove 𝑛 > ( ) = (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 then conclude 𝑛𝑛+1 > (𝑛 + 1)𝑛 for all 𝑛 ≥ 3 in integer.
𝑛

1
As 𝑛 = 3, 3 > (1 + 3)3 holds.

1
Assume that 𝑛 = 𝑘, 𝑘 > (1 + 𝑘)𝑘 holds for some 𝑘 ≥ 3 then

1 1 1 1
as 𝑛 = 𝑘 + 1, 𝑘 + 1 > (1 + )𝑘 > (1 + )𝑘 ⟹ 1 > (1 + )𝑘
𝑘 𝑘+1 𝑘+1 𝑘+1

1 1 1 1 1 1
which implies 𝑘 + 1 > (1 + 𝑘)𝑘 + 𝑘+1 (1 + 𝑘+1)𝑘 > (1 + 𝑘+1)𝑘 + 𝑘+1 (1 + 𝑘+1)𝑘

1 𝑘 1 1 𝑘+1
= (1 + 𝑘+1) (1 + 𝑘+1) = (1 + 𝑘+1) holds. By MIP, we are done.

1 1
Actually, (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 ≥ 2 since (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 is increasing to 𝑒 ≒ 2.71828, ∀𝑛 ∈ ℕ
Bernoulli inequality. (1 + 𝑥)𝑟 ≥ 1 + 𝑥𝑟 for every integer 𝑟 ≥ 0 and every real number 𝑥 ≥ −1.
Proof. As 𝑟 = 0, (1 + 𝑥)0 ≥ 1 + 0 holds.
Assume that 𝑟 = 𝑘, (1 + 𝑥)𝑘 ≥ 1 + 𝑥𝑘 holds, then
as 𝑟 = 𝑘 + 1, (1 + 𝑥)𝑘+1 = (1 + 𝑥)(1 + 𝑥)𝑘 ≥ (1 + 𝑥)(1 + 𝑥𝑘)
= 1 + 𝑥𝑘 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 𝑘
= 1 + 𝑥(𝑘 + 1) + 𝑥 2 𝑘 ≥ 1 + 𝑥(𝑘 + 1) holds.

1 1 1 2 1 𝑛
Also can be proven by (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 = 𝐶0𝑛 + 𝐶1𝑛 𝑛 + 𝐶2𝑛 (𝑛) + ⋯ + 𝐶𝑛𝑛 (𝑛) = 1 + 1 + ⋯ ≥ 2

1
We have 𝑛 > (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 ≥ 2 for all 𝑛 ≥ 3 in integer.

Theorem. 𝑛𝑝 > 𝑝𝑛 , ∀𝑝 > 𝑛 ≥ 3 in integer.


Proof. As 𝑝 = 𝑛 + 1, 𝑛𝑛+1 > (𝑛 + 1)𝑛 for all 𝑛 ≥ 3 in integer holds by Lemma 2.
Assume that 𝑝 = 𝑚, 𝑛𝑚 > 𝑚𝑛 holds for some 𝑚 > 𝑛 ≥ 3 then
as 𝑝 = 𝑚 + 1, 𝑛(𝑚+1) = 𝑛 ∙ 𝑛𝑚 > 𝑛 ∙ 𝑚𝑛
1 1 1 1 1
since 𝑛 > (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 by Lemma 2. And 𝑚 > 𝑛 ⟹ 𝑛 > 𝑚 we have 𝑛 > (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 > (1 + 𝑚)𝑛

1 𝑚+1 𝑛
so 𝑛 > (1 + 𝑚)𝑛 = ( ) ⟹ 𝑛 ∙ 𝑚𝑛 > (𝑚 + 1)𝑛 completes the induction.
𝑚

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