Titan QB 1 457 PDF

1.
In an open loop control system
(a) Output is independent of control input

(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
Ans: b
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system
will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?
(a) Field controlled D.C. motor

(b) Ward leonard control
(c) Metadyne
(d) Stroboscope
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
(b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Ans: b
7. In open loop system

(a) the control action depends on the size of the system
(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
8. __________ has tendency to oscillate.

(a) Open loop system
(b) Closed loop system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
9. A good control system has all the following features except

(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
10. A car is running at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback element
for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
11. The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

(a) computer control system
(b) digital data system
(c) stochastic control system
(d) adaptive control system
Ans: c
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.

(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following ?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
16 is a part of the human temperature control system.

(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
18 is a closed loop system.

(a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft
(b) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter
(d) Electric switch
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
21 increases the steady state accuracy.

(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
22. A.C. servomotor resembles

(a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
(c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease ?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
Ans: d
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
(c) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
Ans: a
26 is an open loop control system.

(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Stroboscope
(d) Metadyne
Ans: b
27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from

(a) saturation in amplifying stages
(b) loss of gain
(c) vibrations
(d) oscillations
Ans: a
28. Zero initial condition for a system means

(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) no initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Ans: d
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ?
(a) The order of the system
(b) The time constant
(c) The output for any given input
(d) The steady state gain
Ans: c
30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.

(a) remains unaffected
(b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(c) increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease
(d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
Ans: c
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes
and load disturbances depend ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
32. The transient response, with feedback system,

(a) rises slowly
(b) rises quickly
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays quickly
Ans: d
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
(a) The time constant of the system
(b) Damping of the system
(c) The gain of the system
(d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
Ans: d
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?
(a) All the co-efficients can have zero value
(b) All the co-efficients are always non-zero
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
Ans: c
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a
phase margin close to zero ?
(a) The system is relatively stable
(b) The system is highly stable
(c) The system is highly oscillatory
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be
avoided ?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: d
38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
40. A controller, essentially, is a

(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier
Ans: c
41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?

(a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
(c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
Ans:
42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.

(a) digital
(b) linear
(c) non-linear
(d) discontinuous
Ans:
43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass
Ans: d
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
Ans: a
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to

(a) velocity
(b) pressure
(c) air flow
(d) air flow rate
Ans: d
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

(a) charge
(b) resistance
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) reciprocal of conductance
Ans: b
48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to

(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to
(a) heat flow
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature
Ans: d
50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance
Ans: c
51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to

(a) inertia forces
(b) internal forces
(c) stored energy
(d) friction
Ans: c
52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is
known as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ?
(a) Linear and time-in variant systems
(b) Linear and time-variant systems
(c) Linear systems
(d) Non-linear systems
Ans: a
55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?

(a) Signal flow graph
(b) Analogous table
(c) Output-input ratio
(d) Standard block system
Ans: a
56. ___________ is the reference input minus the primary feedback.

(a) Manipulated variable
(b) Zero sequence
(c) Actuating signal
(d) Primary feedback
Ans: c
57. The term backlash is associated with

(a) servomotors
(b) induction relays
(c) gear trains
Ans:
58. With feedback _____ increases.

(a) system stability
(b) sensitivity
(c) gain
(d) effects of disturbing signals
Ans: a
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
60. In a system zero initial condition means that

(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
Ans: a
61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates

(a) reduced velocity lag error
(b) increased velocity lag error
(c) increased speed of response
(d) reduced time constant of the system
Ans: a
62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of

(a) amplidyne set
(b) resistance-capacitance parallel circuit
(c) motor-generator set
Ans:
63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to

(a) capacitance
(b) reciprocal of capacitance
(c) current
(d) resistance
Ans: b
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?
(a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
(b) Laplace Transform
(c) Fourier Integral
(d) Either (b) or (c)
Ans: a
65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
(a) smaller damping ratio
(b) larger damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
Ans: a
66. Static error co-efficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems for
specified ________ input signal.
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) position
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at

(a) low frequencies
(b) reduced values of open loop gain
(c) increased values of open loop gain
Ans: b
68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.

(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: a
69. The type 1 system has ______ at the origin.

(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: c
70. The type 2 system has at the origin.
(a) no net pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: d
71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are

(a) constant, constant
(b) constant, infinity
(c) zero, constant
(d) zero, zero
Ans: c
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit _______
function.
(a) parabolic
(b) ramp
(c) impulse
(d) step
Ans: b
73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is

(a) unity
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) 10
Ans: b
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a certain
level for all the time, the system is
(a) not necessarily stable
(b) stable
(c) unstable
(d) always unstable
(e) any of the above
Ans: a
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ?
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot
Ans: a
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?

(a) Frequency response
(b) Absolute stability
(c) Relative stability
(d) Time response
Ans: c
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?

(a) Lead-compensation
(b) Lag-compensation
(c) Lead-lag compensation
Ans: b
78. __________________ technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?

(a) Nyquist Criterion
(b) Quasi linearization
(c) Functional analysis
(d) Phase-plane representation
Ans: a
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following
compensators may be used ?
(a) Phase-lead
(b) Phase-lag
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) and (b)
Ans: a
80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays

(a) is independent of frequency
(b) is inversely proportional to frequency
(c) increases linearly with frequency
(d) decreases linearly with frequency
Ans: c
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?
(a) Low-level oscillations
(b) High-level oscillations
(c) Conditional stability
(d) Overdamping
Ans: a
82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator ?

(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(c) Speed and acceleration
(d) Displacement
Ans: b
83 ____________ is not a final control element.

(a) Control valve
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Electro-pneumatic converter
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?

(a) The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
(b) The range of measured variables from set value
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air output chan¬ges from maximum to
minimum
Ans: c
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
Ans: b
86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ?
(a) Differential bellows and straingauge
(b) Selsyn
(c) Strain gauge
(d) Strain gauge and potentiometer
Ans: a
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?

(a) Microsyn
(b) Selsyn
(c) Synchro-resolver
(d) Synchro-transformer
Ans: c
88. The effect of error damping is to

(a) provide larger settling lime
(b) delay the response
(c) reduce steady state error
Ans: c
89 technique gives quick transient and stability response

(a) Root locus
(b) Bode
(c) Nyquist
(d) Nichols
Ans: a
90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output

(a) lag at all frequencies
(b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
(c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
Ans: c
91. Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servo motor ?
(a) Static friction
(b) Backlash
(c) Saturation
Ans: c
92 can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?

(a) Bode-Nyquist stability methods
(b) Transfer functions
(c) Root locus design
(d) State model representatives
Ans: d
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
94. Which of the following is an electromechanical device ?

(a) Induction relay
(b) Thermocouple
(c) LVDT
Ans: c
95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it

(a) reduces damping
(b) reduces the gain margin
(c) increases input noise
(d) increases error
Ans: c
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
(a) oscillatory
(b) critically damped
(c) overdamped
(d) underdamped
Ans: d
97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady state error
(a) increases
(b) minimizes
(c) does not have any effect on
Ans: b
98. With feed back _____ reduces.

(a) system stability
(b) system gain
(c) system stability and gain
Ans: b
99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?

(a) Constant current
(b) Constant voltage
(c) Constant current as well as constant voltage
(d) Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
Ans: d
100. Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?

(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
101 directly converts temperature into voltage.

(a) Thermocouple
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Gear train
(d) LVDT
Ans: a
102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the following
conditions ?
(a) Systems having complexities and non-linearities
(b) Systems having stability problems
(c) Systems having multiple input dis¬turbances
Ans: d
103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?

(a) Alternating current
(b) Direct current
(c) A.C. voltage
(d) D.C. voltage
Ans: d
104. A.C. servomotor is basically a

(a) universal motor
(b) single phase induction motor
(c) two phase induction motor
(d) three phase induction motor
Ans: c
105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
(a) small bandwidth
(b) negative time constant
(c) large negative transfer function pole
Ans: c
106. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?

(a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
(b) The bandwidth of the system
(c) The response of a system to a step input
(d) The frequency response of a system
Ans: a
ECE131x EXIT EXAM School of EECE B. +1 D. none of these
Control Systems 4th Quarter, SY 2011- 10𝑠+8
2012 15. Find the inverse Laplace of 𝐹(𝑠) = 3 .
𝑠
A. 10t + t2 C. 3t2 + t - 1
Part 1: Advanced Engineering Math B. 11 + 4t D. 4t + 5
1. Find the Laplace transform of 2/(s + 1) – 4/(s + 3).
A. 2 e(exp -t) – 4 e(exp -3t) 3 1 2
B. e(exp -2t) + e(exp -3t) 16. Transpose the matrix |−2 −1 0 |
C. e(exp -2t) – e(exp -3t) 0 2 −1
−1 2 0 3 1 2
D. [2 e(exp -t)][1 – 2 e(exp -3t)]
A. | 0 −1 −2| C. | 1 2 −1|
2 2 1 3 −2 −1 0
2. The Laplace transform of i(t) is given by 𝐼(𝑠) =
2(𝑠+1)
. As t  𝟑 −𝟐 𝟎 1 3 2
B. |𝟏 −𝟏 𝟐 | D. |−1 −2 0|
∞, the value of i(t) tends to
A. 0 C. 2 𝟐 𝟎 −𝟏 2 2 −1
B. 1 D. ∞
17. Which of the following are even functions?
2
3. The value of (1 + j)^6 is equal to A. 𝑡 + 𝑡 2 C. 𝑒 𝑡
A. j4 C. -j8 B. 𝒕 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝒕
𝟐
D. 𝑡 cos 𝑡
3
B. -j12 D. j6
18. What is the inverse Laplace transform of k divided by [(s
4. Match List I (signals) with List II (Laplace transform) and select square) + (k square)]?
the correct answer. A. cos kt C. (e exponent kt)
B. sin kt D. 1.00
List I (A) e-t (B) 1 (C) t (D) te-t
𝑗3 𝑗2 𝑗2
1 1 1 1
List II 1. 2 2. 3. 4. 19. The value of | 5 4 −𝑗3| is
𝑠 (𝑠+1)2 𝑠 𝑠+1 𝑗 𝑗2 7
A. 12 + j2 C. -12 – j2
A B C D A B C D B. -12 + j2 D. 12 – j2
A. 4 1 3 2 C. 4 3 1 2
B. 2 3 1 4 D. 2 1 3 4 20. If z1 = j and z2 = -1 + j2, the |z1 + z2| is
A. √8 C. 4
5. Evaluate (3cis30°)4
A. 81 cis120° C. 81 cis60° B. √𝟏𝟎 D. 2
B. 81 cis30° D. 81 cis90°
21. Let f(t) = cos t and g(t) = sin t. Calculate ℒ[𝑓 ∗ 𝑔](𝑠).
6. Which of the following cannot be an operation on matrices? 1 𝑠 𝟏 𝒔
A. (𝑠 ) (𝑠2 +4) C. (𝒔𝟐 +𝟏) (𝒔𝟐 +𝟏)
A. subtraction C. division
B. multiplication D. addition 4 4𝑠 2 𝑠
B. (𝑠2 −4) (𝑠2 −4) D. (𝑠2 ) (𝑠+1)
7. If b = 0. then the number a + jb is
A. complex C. imaginary 22. The complex number z which satisfy |z| < 2 are
B. real D. irrational A. on the x-axis
B. on the circle with radius 2 and center at the origin
8. Find the inverse Laplace of 𝐹(𝑠) =
16𝑠+24
. C. inside the circle with radius 2 and center at the origin
4𝑠 2 +20 D. none of these
A. 𝟒𝐜𝐨𝐬 √𝟓𝒕 + (𝟔/√𝟓) 𝐬𝐢𝐧 √𝟓𝒕
B. 12 sin 5𝑡 + (3/5) cos 5𝑡 23. Evaluate (3 + j2)(3 + j2).
C. 5 cos √3𝑡 + (3/√5) sin √3𝑡 A. 0.396bar(92.19°) C. 14.483bar(248.03°)
D. (5/√3) cos 5𝑡 + 5 sin 5𝑡 B. 2bar(265°) D. 3.606bar(33.69°)
9. Given: 24. Find the Laplace transform of 2e-2t cos 3t.

4 5 0 1 0 0 2(𝑠+4) 𝟐(𝒔+𝟐)
A. C.
𝐴 = |6 7 3|, 𝐵 = |0 1 0|. What is A times B equal to? 𝑠 2 +4𝑠+13 𝒔𝟐 +𝟒𝒔+𝟏𝟑
2𝑠 2(𝑠+4)
1 2 5 0 0 1 B. D.
4 0 0 6 7 0 𝑠 2 +4𝑠+13 𝑠(𝑠+2)2
A. |0 7 0| C. |8 9 4|
0 0 5 2 3 5 25. The Fourier series of the function f(t) = t2 on the interval [-π, π]
0 0 0 𝟒 𝟓 𝟎 is
𝑛𝜋
B. |0 7 0| D. |𝟔 𝟕 𝟑| A. 𝜋 2 + ∑∞
𝑛=1 cos 𝑛𝑡
2
1 0 0 𝟏 𝟐 𝟓 𝝅𝟐 𝟒(−𝟏)𝒏
B. + ∑∞
𝒏=𝟏 𝒏𝟐
𝟑
C. ∑𝑛=1 𝜋 3 sin 𝑛𝑡 + ∑∞
∞ 2
𝑛=1 𝜋 cos 𝑛𝑡
2 3 1 𝜋 ∞
D. + ∑𝑛=1(cos 𝑛𝑡 − sin 𝑛𝑡)
10. If 𝐴 = |−1 2 4|, what is cofactor of the second row, third 6
0 5 7
column element? Part 2: Feedback Control Systems
2 3 1 7 1. For a second order system overshoot = 12% and settling time
A. | | C, − | | = 0.6 s. The location of poles are
0 5 2 0
𝟐 𝟑 3 1 A. -9.88 ± j6.67 C. -4.38 ± j6.46
B. − | | D. | |
𝟎 𝟓 5 7 B. -6.67 ± j9.88 D. -6.46 ± j4.38
11. Evaluate 3bar(30°) - (6 – j2) + 5bar(-20°). 2. The pole-zero plot given below is that of a
A. 5.660 – j1.790 C. 1.296 – j1.790
B. 1.296 + j1.790 D. 1.296 + j5.660
12. Simplify: j30 –2j25 + 3j17 A. PID controller

A. 1 + j C. –1 + j B. PD controller
B. –1 – j2 D. –1 + j5 C. Integrator
D. Lag-lead compensating network
13. If the Laplace transform of f(t) = g(s) and f(0) = 1, f’(0) = -3
then the Laplace transform of f”(t) is 2𝑠+1
A. s2g(s) – 1 C. s2g(s) – s - 3 3. The transfer function 𝑃𝑠 = denotes a/an
𝑠 2 +𝑠+1
2
B. s g(s) – s + 3 D. s2g(s) + 3s - 1 A. Stable system C. Marginally stable system
B. Unstable system D. None of these
14. If j2 = -1, then j2 + j4 + j6 + j8 + …. to (2n + 1) terms equals
A. -1 C. 0
4. While designing controller, the advantage of pole-zero 17. The Nyquist plot of an open-loop transfer function G(jω)H(jω)
cancellation is of a system encloses th (-1, j0) point. The gain margin of the
A. the system order is increased system is
B. the system order is reduced A. Less than zero C. zero
C. the cost of controller becomes low B. Greater than zero D. infinity
D. system’s error reduced to optimum levels
18. The forward-path transfer function of a unity feedback system
5. The transfer function of a system can be used for evaluating is 𝐺(𝑠) =
𝐾
. The system has 10% overshoot and
A. Time constant C. Type of system 𝑠 𝑛 (𝑠+𝑎)
B. Feedback D. Output for a given input velocity error constant Kv = 100. The value of K is
A. 237 x 103 C. 14.4 x 103
6. In case of phase-lag compensation used in system, gain B. 144 D. 237
crossover frequency, bandwidth and undamped frequency are
respectively 19. The system response can be tested better with the help of
A. decreased, decreased, decreased A. Sinusoidal input signal
B. increased, increased, increased B. Unit impulse input signal
C. increased, increased, decreased C. Ramp input signal
D. increased, decreased, decreased D. Exponentially decaying signal
7. The z-transform of a causal system is given as 𝑋(𝑧) = 20. In the Bode-plot of a unity feedback control system, the value
2−1.5𝑧 −1 of phase of G(jω) at the gain crossover frequency is -120o.
. The x[0] is The phase margin of the system is
1−1.5𝑧 −1 +0.5𝑧 −2
A. -1.5 C. 1.5 A. -120o C. -60o
B. 2 D. 0 B. 60o D. 120o
8. Consider the system shown below. 21. If the gain margin of a certain feedback system is given as 20
dB, the Nyquist plot will cross the negative real axis at the
point
A. s = -0.05 C. s = -0.1
B. s = -0.2 D. s = -0.01
Which of the following figures is the input-output relationship
of this system? 22. The correct sequence of steps needed to improve system
stability is
A. reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative
action
Fig. 1 Fig. 2 B. reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative
feedback
C. insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce
Fig. 3 Fig. 4 gain
A. Figure 1 C. Figure 3 D. use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative
B. Figure 2 D. Figure 4 action
9. If the damping factor of a system is unity. Then the system is 23. A servomechanism is generally made up of
A. Overdamped C. Under damped A. Power amplifier C. Mechanical output
B. Critically damped D. Unstable B. Error actuated signal D. All of the above
10. In an open loop system the control action 24. The overall transfer function C/R of the system below will be
A. Depends on the input signal
B. Depends on system variables
C. Depends on size of the system
D. Is independent of the output A. 𝐺 C.
𝑮
(𝟏+𝑯𝟏 )(𝟏+𝑯𝟐 )
𝐺 𝐺
11. A unity feedback system has open-loop function 𝐺(𝑠) = B. D.
1 1+𝐻2 1+𝐻1 +𝐻2
. The gain margin and phase margin are
𝑠(2𝑠+1)(𝑠+1)
A. -3.52 dB, -168.5o C. 3.52 dB, -168.5o 25. The presence of feedback in a control system
B. -3.52 dB, 11.6o D. 3.52 dB, 11.6o A. Increases accuracy and reduces bandwidth
B. Reduces bandwidth and increases distortion
12. The equivalent transfer function of three parallel blocks C. Increases effects of non-linearities and reduces distortion
1 1 𝑠+3 D. Reduces distortion and increases bandwidth
𝐺1 (𝑠) = , 𝐺2 (𝑠) = and 𝐺3 (𝑠) = .
𝑠+1 𝑠+4 𝑠+5
𝒔𝟑 +𝟏𝟎𝒔𝟐 +𝟑𝟒𝒔+𝟑𝟕 −(𝑠 3 +10𝑠 2 +34𝑠+37)
A. C.
(𝒔+𝟏)(𝒔+𝟒)(𝒔+𝟓) (𝑠+1)(𝑠+4)(𝑠+5)
𝑠+3 −(𝑠+3)
B. D.
(𝑠+1)(𝑠+4)(𝑠+5) (𝑠+1)(𝑠+4)(𝑠+5)
13. One of the following methods can be used to determine the

relative stability of a control system
A. Routh stability criterion C. Root-locus technique
B. Hurwitz stability criterion D. none of these
14. Derivative control

A. has the same effect as output rate control
B. reduces damping
C. is predictive in nature
D. increases the order of the system
15. Select the one that is an open loop control system?

A. Stroboscope C. Ward Leonard control
B. Field controlled dc motor D. Metadyne
16. A system has a position error constant Kp = 3. The steady

state error for input of 8tu(t) is
A. 2.67 C. infinity
B. 2 D. 0
ECE131x EXIT EXAM School of EECE B. [
−11 8
] D. [
−11 9
]
19 5 −20 −4
Control Systems 1st Quarter, SY 2012 -
2013 12. Find the Laplace transform of t7.
A. 5040/s7 C. 5040/s8
Part 1: Advanced Engineering Math B. 5040/s6 D. 5040/s9
1. Find the Inverse Laplace Transform of (5s + 4)/s3.
A. 5 + 2t2 C. 5t + 2 13. The recursion relations for the coefficients of the power
B. 5t + t2 D. 5t + 2t2 series solution to the differential equation y’’ – xy = x are
1
A. 𝑎0 = 0; 𝑎𝑛+2 = 𝑎𝑛 , 𝑛 ≥ 1
2. Solve the differential equation y’ = y using the method of 𝑛
𝑛(𝑛−1)
power series. B. 𝑎𝑛+2 =
𝑛(𝑛+2)
,𝑛 ≥ 1
𝑥 𝑛+1 𝒙𝒏
A. 𝑦 = 𝐶 ∑∞𝑛=0 C. 𝒚 = 𝑪 ∑∞𝒏=𝟎 C. 𝑎𝑛+1 = 𝑛 ∙ 𝑎𝑛 , 𝑛 ≥ 1
(𝑛+1)! 𝒏!
𝑥 2𝑛 𝑥 𝑛+1 D. 𝒂𝟐 = 𝟎; 𝒂𝟑 = (𝟏 + 𝒂𝟎 )/𝟔,
B. 𝑦 = 𝐶 ∑∞
𝑛=0 D. 𝑦 = 𝐶 ∑∞
𝑛=0 𝒂𝒏+𝟑 = 𝒂𝒏 /((𝒏 + 𝟑)(𝒏 + 𝟐)), 𝒏 ≥ 𝟏
2𝑛! 2𝑛!
3 𝑡 1 14. Given the Fourier series in cosine form f(t) = 5 cos 40πt +
3. Find the Laplace transform of 𝑒 − 2 𝑒 −𝑡 .
2 cos 60πt. What is the frequency of fundamental?
𝑠+2 𝒔+𝟐 A. 10 C. 20
A. C.
2(𝑠2 −1) 𝒔𝟐 −𝟏 B. 40 D. 30
𝑠+2 𝑠+2
B. D.
𝑠2 +1 2(𝑠2 +1) 16𝑠+24
15. Find the inverse Laplace transform of 2 .
4𝑠 +20
4. The cube roots of -1 are A. 4cos 2.2361t + 2.6833sin 2.2361t
−1+𝑗√3 −1−𝑗√3 𝟏+𝒋√𝟑 𝟏−𝒋√𝟑 B. 4sin 2.2361t + 2.6833sin 2.2361t
A. -1, , C. -1, , C. 4cos 5t + 2.6833sin 2.2361t
2 2 𝟐 𝟐
1+𝑗√3 1−𝑗√3 D. 4cos 2.2361t + 0.4472sin 2.2361t
B. 1, , 2 D. -1, -1, -1
2
16. A complex voltage waveform is given by v = 120 sin ωt + 36
5. When the negative half-cycle of a complex waveform is sin (3ωt + π/2) + 12 sin (5ωt + π). It has a time period of T
reversed, it becomes identical to its positive half-cycle. This seconds. The percentage fifth harmonic contents in the
feature indicates that the complex waveform is composed of waveform is
A. fundamental C. even harmonics A. 12 C. 36
B. odd harmonics D. both A and B B. 10 D. 5
6. If 𝑓(𝑡) = 10 + 8 cos 𝑡 + 4 cos 3𝑡 + 2 cos 5𝑡 + ⋯, the angular 17. If a 3 x 3 matrix and its inverse are multiplied, write the
frequency of the 6th harmonic is product.
A. 12 C. 9 𝟏 𝟎 𝟎 0 0 1
B. 11 D. 6 A. [𝟎 𝟏 𝟎] C. [0 1 0]
𝟎 𝟎 𝟏 1 0 0
0 0 0 1 1 1
7. Find the Laplace transform of 𝑓(𝑡) = sin 8𝑡 sin 6𝑡. B. [0 0 D.
2𝜋 𝟗𝟔𝒔
0] [1 1 1]
A. C. 0 0 0 1 1 1
√𝑠−2 (𝒔𝟐 +𝟒)(𝒔𝟐 +𝟗𝟔)
6𝑠−8 96𝑠
B. D. 18. ____ is a combination of real and imaginary numbers.
𝑠2 +4𝑠+40 (𝑠2 −4)(𝑠2 +96) A. real number C. imaginary number
B. imaginary operator D. complex number
8. The inverse Laplace transform of the function 𝐹(𝑠) =
−𝑠4 +6𝑠−12 19. A periodic function f(t) is said to possess odd quarter-wave
4 is
𝑠5 −2𝑠 symmetry if
A. f(t) = t5 – et C. f(t) = sin 3t – e4t A. f (t) = f (-t) C. f (t) = -f (t + T/2)
B. f(t) = sinh t + cos 2t D. f(t) = t3 – e2t B. f (-t) = -f (t) D. both B and C
9. Evaluate the determinant 20. A given function f(t) can be represented by a Fourier series if
1 6 0 it
|4 2 7 | A. is periodic
0 5 3 B. is single-valued
A. 110 C. 101 C. has a finite number of maxima and minima in any one
B. -101 D. -110
period
D. all of the above
10. Write the polar form of the vector 3 + j4.
A. 6 cis 53.1 deg C. 5 cis 53.1 deg
21. Perform the operation: 4(cos 60° + j sin 60°) divided by
B. 10 cis 53.1 deg D. 8 cis 53.1 deg
2(cos 30° + j sin 30°)] in rectangular coordinates.
A. square root of 3 – j2 C. square root of 3 + j
1 2
11. Element of matrix 𝐵 = [ ] B. square root of 3 – j D. square root of 3 + j2
0 −5
3 6
Element of matrix 𝐶 = [ ] 22. The method of power series tells us that the general solution
4 1
Find the elements of the product of the two matrices, matrix of the differential equation y’ = y is
BC. A. 𝑦 = 𝐶𝑒 −𝑥 C. 𝑦 = 𝐶 sin 𝑥
A. [
𝟏 𝟖
] C. [
−10 9
] B. 𝒚 = 𝑪𝒆𝒙 D. 𝑦 = 𝐶 cos 𝑥
𝟐𝟎 −𝟓 −19 6
23. Given the equations:
x+y+z=2
3x – y – 2z = 4
5x – 2y + 3z = -7
Solve for y by determinants
A. 1 C. 3
B. -2 D. 0 Fig. 3 Fig. 4
A. Figure 1 C. Figure 3
24. In the Fourier series of a periodic function, the coefficient a o B. Figure 2 D. Figure 4
is zero, it means that the function has
A. odd symmetry 9. The forward-path transfer function of a unity feedback (ufb)
B. even quarter-wave symmetry system is 𝐺(𝑠) =
𝐾(𝑠−2)(𝑠+4)(𝑠+5)
. For system to be stable,
C. odd quarter-wave symmetry 𝑠 2 +3
D. any of the above the range of K is
A. K > 1/54 C. 1/54 < K < 3/40
25. If z1 = j and z2 = -1 + j2, the |z1 + z2| is B. K < 3/40 D. unstable
A. √8 C. 4
10. The pole-zero plot given below is that of a
B. √𝟏𝟎 D. 2
Part 2: Feedback Control Systems

𝑧(8𝑧−7)
1. Given the z-transform 𝑋(𝑧) = 2 . The limit of x[∞] is A. PID controller
4𝑧 −7𝑧+3
A. 1 C. ∞ B. PD controller
B. 2 D. 0 C. Integrator
D. Lag-lead compensating network
2. The system response can be tested better with the help of
A. Sinusoidal input signal 11. Consider the systems shown below. If the forward path gain
B. Unit impulse input signal is reduced by 10% in each system, then the variation in C 1
C. Ramp input signal and C2 will be respectively
D. Exponentially decaying signal
3. Under force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to which

of the following?
A. charge C. inductance
B. capacitance D. current
4. The Nyquist plot of an open-loop transfer function G(jω)H(jω) A. 10% and 1% C. 10% and 0%
of a system encloses th (-1, j0) point. The gain margin of the B. 2% and 10% D. 5% and 1%
system is
A. Less than zero C. zero 12. For a second order system overshoot = 10% and peak time
B. Greater than zero D. infinity Tp = 5 s. The location of poles are
A. -0.46 ± j0.63 C. -0.74 ± j0.92
5. If stability error for step input and speed of response be the B. -0.63 ± j0.46 D. -0.92 ± j0.74
criteria for design, the suitable controller will be
A. P controller C. PD controller 13. The forward-path transfer function of a unity feedback
B. PI controller D. PID controller system is 𝐺(𝑠) =
𝐾
. The system has 10% overshoot
𝑠 𝑛 (𝑠+𝑎)
6. An ON-OFF controller is a and velocity error constant Kv = 100.The value of a is
A. P controller A. 23.7 x 103 C. 14.4 x 103
B. PID controller B. 237 D. 144
C. Integral controller
2𝑠+1
D. Non-linear controller 14. The transfer function 𝑃𝑠 = denotes a/an
𝑠 2 +𝑠+1
A. Stable system
7. Analysis of control system by Laplace transform technique is
B. Unstable system
NOT possible for which one of the following?
C. Marginally stable system
A. Linear systems
D. None of these
B. Time-invariant systems
C. Discrete-time systems
15. The z-transform of an anti-causal system is 𝑋(𝑧) =
D. unstable continuous-time systems 12−21𝑧
. The value of x[0] is
3−7𝑧+12𝑧 2
8. A unity feedback system has open-loop function 𝐺(𝑠) = A. -7/4 C. 4
1 B. 0 D. Does not exist
. Which of the following figures is the Nyquist plot
𝑠(2𝑠+1)(𝑠+1)
for the given system? 16. In the signal flow graph shown below, the transfer function is
A. 3.75 C. 3
Fig. 1 Fig. 2 B. -3 D. -3.75
17. A system is shown below. The transfer function for this C. Floating controller
system is D. Proportional-position controller
24. Which of the following best defines a transfer function?

A. Ratio of system response to a system input function
B. Ratio of system input function to system response
C. Laplace transform of system response minus the
Laplace transform of the system input function
𝐺1 𝐺2 D. Ratio of Laplace transform of system response to the
A.
1+𝐺1 𝐺2 𝐻2 +𝐺2 𝐻1 Laplace transform of the system input function
𝐺1 𝐺2
B.
1+𝐺1 𝐺2 +𝐻1 𝐻2 25. A servomechanism is generally made up of
𝐺1 𝐺2 A. Power amplifier
C.
1−𝐺1 𝐻1 −𝐺2 𝐻2 +𝐺1 𝐺2 𝐻1 𝐻2 B. Error actuated signal
𝑮𝟏 𝑮𝟐 C. Mechanical output
D.
𝟏+𝑮𝟏 𝑯𝟏 +𝑮𝟐 𝑯𝟐 +𝑮𝟏 𝑮𝟐 𝑯𝟏 𝑯𝟐 D. All of the above
18. The closed loop gain of the system shown below is
A. -2 C. -6
B. 6 D. 2
19. Consider the system shown below.
Which of the following figures is the input-output relationship

of this system?
Fig. 1 Fig. 2
Fig. 3 Fig. 4
A. Figure 1 C. Figure 3
B. Figure 2 D. Figure 4
20. The overall transfer function C/R of the system below will be
𝑮
A. 𝐺 C.
(𝟏+𝑯𝟏 )(𝟏+𝑯𝟐 )
𝐺 𝐺
B. D.
1+𝐻2 1+𝐻1 +𝐻2
21. Regulator can be categorized as

A. Type 0 system
B. Type 1 system
C. Type 2 systems
D. Type 3 system
22. The transfer function of a system can be used for evaluating

A. Time constant
B. Feedback
C. Type of system
D. Output for a given input
23. For an electrically heated temperature controlled liquid

heater, the best controller is
A. Single-position controller
B. Two-position controller
ECE131x EXIT EXAM School of EECE D. none of these
Control Systems 2nd Quarter, SY 2012 -
10. A proportional controller leads to
2013 A. infinite error for step input of type 1 system
B. infinite error for step input of type 0 system
1. Derivative control C. zero steady state error for step input for type 1 system
A. has the same effect as output rate control D. zero steady state error for step input for type 0 system
B. reduces damping
C. is predictive in nature 11. The closed loop gain of the system shown below is
D. increases the order of the system
2. One of the following methods can be used to determine the

relative stability of a control system
A. Routh stability criterion
B. Hurwitz stability criterion
C. Root-locus technique A. -2 C. -6
D. none of these B. 6 D. 2
3. An ON-OFF controller is a 12. The servo systems with step acceleration input is a
A. P controller A. Type 0 system
B. PID controller B. Type 1 system
C. Integral controller C. Type 2 systems
D. Non-linear controller D. Type 3 system
4. For a second order system settling time is Ts = 7 s and peak 𝑧(8𝑧−7)
time is Tp = 3 s. The location of poles are 13. Given the z-transform 𝑋(𝑧) = 2 . The limit of x[∞] is
4𝑧 −7𝑧+3
A. -0.97 ± j0.69 C. -1.047 ± j0.571 A. 1 C. ∞
B. -0.69 ± j0.97 D. -0.571 ± j1.047 B. 2 D. 0
5. The sum of the gains of the feedback paths in the signal flow 14. The block diagrams below are equivalent if G is equal to
graph below is
A. af + be + cd + abef + bcde
B. af + be + cd
C. af + be + cd + abef + abcdef
D. af + be + cd + cbef + bcde + abcdef A. s+1 C. s+2
B. 2 D. 1
6. In force-current analogy, capacitance is analogous to which
of the following? 15. In an open loop system the control action
A. mass C. displacement A. Depends on the input signal
B. velocity D. momentum B. Depends on system variables
C. Depends on size of the system
7. The Nyquist plot of an open-loop transfer function G(jω)H(jω) D. Is independent of the output
of a system encloses th (-1, j0) point. The gain margin of the
system is 16. Consider the system shown below.
A. Less than zero C. zero
B. Greater than zero D. infinity
8. In the signal flow graph shown below, the sum of loop gain
of non-touching loops is Which of the following figures is the input-output relationship
of this system?
Fig. 1 Fig. 2
A. t32t23 + t44 C. t24t43t32 + t44

B. t23t32 + t34t43 D. t23t32 + t34t43 + t44
Fig. 3 Fig. 4
9. Routh table was constructed from the characteristic A. Figure 1 C. Figure 3
equation of a control system. The first column of the table B. Figure 2 D. Figure 4
contained the following integers 1, 4, 5, 6, 13. The system is
A. Stable 17. A servomechanism is generally made up of
B. Unstable A. Power amplifier
C. Marginally stable B. Error actuated signal
C. Mechanical output
D. All of the above 28. Evaluate the value of √−10 multiplied by√−7.
A. j C. −√𝟕𝟎
𝑠+1
18. For a negative feedback shown below, 𝐺(𝑠) = and B. √70 D. √17
𝑠(𝑠+2)
𝑠+3
𝐻(𝑠) = . The equivalent transfer function is 29. Which of the following functions has the Laplace transform
𝑠+4
of 2es/(s2 + 4)?
A. 2u(t – 1)sin t C. u(t – 1)sin 2(t – 1)
B. 2u(t + 1)sin t D. u(t + 1)sin 2(t + 1)
30. Evaluate 5 cos30° + j5sin30° + 2ej0.752 – (3 + j5).

𝑠(𝑠+2)(𝑠+3) (𝒔+𝟏)(𝒔+𝟒)
A. C. A. 3.012 bar (-22.11°) C. 3.012 bar (45°)
𝑠 3 +7𝑠 2 +12𝑠+3 𝒔𝟑 +𝟕𝒔𝟐 +𝟏𝟐𝒔+𝟑
𝑠(𝑠+2)(𝑠+3) (𝑠+1)(𝑠+4)
B. 30.12 bar (22.11°) D. -3.012 bar (22.11°)
B. D.
𝑠3 +5𝑠2 +4𝑠−3 𝑠 3 +5𝑠 2 +4𝑠−3
31. Given:
2𝑠+1 4 5 0 1 0 0
19. The transfer function 𝑃𝑠 = denotes a/an 𝐴 = |6 7 3|, 𝐵 = |0 1 0|. What is A times B equal to?
𝑠 2 +𝑠+1
A. Stable system 1 2 5 0 0 1
B. Unstable system 4 0 0 6 7 0
C. Marginally stable system A. |0 7 0| C. |8 9 4|
D. None of these 0 0 5 2 3 5
0 0 0 𝟒 𝟓 𝟎
B. |0 7 0| D. |𝟔 𝟕 𝟑|
20. If the gain margin of a certain feedback system is given as
1 0 0 𝟏 𝟐 𝟓
20 dB, the Nyquist plot will cross the negative real axis at
the point 32. The inverse Laplace transform of the function 𝐹(𝑠) =
A. s = -0.05 C. s = -0.1 −𝑠4 +6𝑠−12
B. s = -0.2 D. s = -0.01 4 is
𝑠5 −2𝑠
A. f(t) = t5 – et C. f(t) = sin 3t – e4t
21. In the Bode-plot of a unity feedback control system, the B. f(t) = sinh t + cos 2t D. f(t) = t3 – e2t
value of magnitude of G(jω) at the phase crossover
frequency is ½. The gain margin is 33. Use the Laplace transform to solve the integral equation
A. 2 C. 1/3 𝑡
B. 1/2 D. 3 𝒚(𝑡) = 𝑡 2 + ∫0 (𝑡 − 𝜏)𝑦(𝜏)𝑑𝜏
A. -2t + e2t C. t2 – e2t + e-t
t -t
22. For a second order system overshoot = 10% and peak time B. -2 + e + e D. t + et
Tp = 5 s. The location of poles are
A. -0.46 ± j0.63 C. -0.74 ± j0.92 34. What is the quotient when 4 + j8 is divided by j3?
B. -0.63 ± j0.46 D. -0.92 ± j0.74 A. 8 – j4 C. -8 + j4
B. 8 + j4 D. -8 – j4
23. Any externally introduced input signal affecting the
𝑠+5
controlled output is known as a 35. The inverse Laplace transform of the function
(𝑠+1)(𝑠+3)
is
A. Signal C. Stimulus
B. Feedback D. Gain Control A. 2e-t – e-3t C. e-t – 2e-3t
B. 2e-t + e-3t D. e-t +– e-3t
24. The z-transform of an anti-causal system is 𝑋(𝑧) =
3𝑠−15
12−21𝑧
3−7𝑧+12𝑧 2
. The value of x[0] is 36. Find the inverse Laplace transform of
𝑠2 +6𝑠+5
.
A. -7/4 C. 4 A. 3.33e2t – 1.33e-t C. 7.50e-5t – 4.50e-t
B. 0 D. Does not exist B. 7.50e-5t – 4.50e-t D. 15e2t – 9e-t
25. A power amplifying feedback control system where in the 1 −1 2 𝑥

controlled variable is mechanical position or a time 37. If matrix [2 1 3] is multiplied by [𝑦] is equal to zero,
derivative of position such as velocity or acceleration, is 0 −1 1 𝑧
𝑥
called
A. Servomechanism C. Timer then matrix [𝑦] is
B. Regulator D. Automation 𝑧
A. 3 C. 0
B. 1 D. -2
26. If the average value of a periodic function over one period is
zero and it consists of only odd harmonics then it must be
38. If 𝑗 = √−1, solve for x and y if x + 2 + j4 = 5 + j(y – 3)
possessing ____ symmetry.
A. -3, 7 C. 3, 7
A. half-wave C. odd quarter-wave
B. 3, -7 D. -3, -7
B. even quarter-wave D. odd
39. The Laplace transform of u(t − 2) is:
27. Use the Laplace transform to find the general solution of the 1 𝑒 2𝑠
differential equation y’’ – 4y’ + 4y = ex. A. C.
𝑠+2 𝑠
A. y = Ae2x + Bxe2x + ex C. y = Ae2x + Be-2x + ex 1 𝒆−𝟐𝒔
B. y = Aex + Be-x + 3ex D. y = Aex + Bxex + e2x B. D.
𝑠−2 𝒔
B. sin kt D. 1.00
40. A complex voltage waveform is given by v = 120 sin ωt + 36
sin (3ωt + π/2) + 12 sin (5ωt + π). It has a time period of T
seconds. The percentage fifth harmonic contents in the
waveform is
A. 12 C. 36
B. 10 D. 5
41. Determine the inverse Laplace transform of

200
𝐼(𝑠) = 𝑠2 −50𝑠+10625
A. i(t) = 2e-25t sin 100t C. i(t) = 2e-25t cos 100t
B. i(t) = 2te-25t sin 100t D. i(t) = 2te-25t cos 100t
42. The value of (1 + j)^6 is equal to

A. j4 C. -j8
B. -j12 D. j6
43. The Fourier series of a waveform possessing even quarter-

wave symmetry has only
A. even harmonics C. odd sine terms
B. odd cosine terms D. both B and C
44. Evaluate (6 + j7)(5bar(35°) + 7ej0.765).

A. 34.986 bar (60.96°)
B. 952.187bar(107.55°)
C. 110.305bar(89.548°)
D. 2.210bar(89.548°)
45. If 2j2 + 6j3 + 3j16 – 6j19 + 4j25 = x + jy, then

A. x = 1, y = -4 C. x = 1, y = 4
B. x = 4, y = -1 D. x = -1, y = -4
46. A given function f(t) can be represented by a Fourier series if

it
A. is periodic
B. is single-valued
C. has a finite number of maxima and minima in any one
period
D. all of the above
5
47. The final value theorem of function 𝐹(𝑠) = 2 is
𝑠(𝑠 +2𝑠+2)
equal to
A. zero C. 5/2
B. 2/5 D. 5
48. The Fourier series of the function f(t) = t on the interval [-2,
2] is
𝑛𝜋𝑡 𝑛3 𝑛𝜋𝑡
A. ∑∞ 2
𝑛=1(𝑛 − 𝑛) sin C. ∑∞ 𝑛=1 sin
2 2 2
𝑛𝜋𝑡 −𝟒(−𝟏)𝒏 𝒏𝝅𝒕
B. ∑∞ 2
𝑛=1(𝑛 + 𝑛) sin D. ∑∞
𝒏=𝟏 𝐬𝐢𝐧
2 𝒏𝝅 𝟐
49. Find the Laplace transform of 𝑓(𝑡) = 3𝑒 −0.5𝑡 sin 3𝑡 sinh 7𝑡.
3 3
A.
(𝑠−6.5)2 +9
− (𝑠+6.5)2 +9
4.5 4.5
B.
(𝑠−6.5)2 +9
− (𝑠+6.5)2 +9
4 4
C.
(𝑠−6.5)2 +9
− (𝑠+6.5)2 +9
𝟒.𝟓 𝟒.𝟓
D.
(𝒔−𝟔.𝟓)𝟐 +𝟗
− (𝒔+𝟕.𝟓)𝟐+𝟗
50. What is the inverse Laplace transform of k divided by [(s

square) + (k square)]?
A. cos kt C. (e exponent kt)
Objective Questions
Chapter 2
1. For the network shown in Figure P2.43, Vi ðtÞ is the input and i(t) is the output. The transfer function
I(S)=V(S) of the network is
Cs C
(a) (b)
LCs þ RCs þ 1
2 LCs þ RCs þ 1
2
Cs C
(c) (d)
RCs2 þ LCs þ 1 RCs2 þ LCs þ 1 ½IES 1993
R L
j(t) C
Vi(t)
Figure P2.43 A network (Objective Question 1).

2. For the field-controlled dc servomotor, as shown in Figure P2.44, the transfer function ðsÞ=EðsÞ
contains
(a) Two times constants, no integration (b) Two times constants, one integration
(c) One time constants, one integration (d) One time constants, one integration
½IES 1996
R Ig (Constant)
Singular relation
J1I
Figure P2.44 A filed-controlled servomotor.

3. A mechanical system consists of two mass-spring friction system, as shown in Figure P2.45. The order
of the transfer function X(s)=F(s) is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Figure P2.45 Two mass-spring friction system. ½IES 1996

2 . OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
4. Consider a multiple gear system, as shown in Figure P2.46. Which one of the following gives the
equivalent inertia referred to shaft 1?
B N
J
N
J
B
N B B
J
N
Figure P2.46 A multiple gear system.
2
N1 2 N1 N3 2 N2 N2 N4 2
(a) J1 þ J2 þ Ja (b) J1 þ J2 þ J3
N2 N2 N4 N1 N1 N3

N1 2 N1 N2 2 N2 2 N1 N2 2
(c) J1 þ J2 þ J3 (d) J1 þ J2 þ J3
N2 N3 N4 N1 N3 N4
½IES 2004
5. For the mechanical system, shown in Figure P2.47, the system is described as:
y2(t) y1(t)
M
K f(t)
B
Figure P2.47 A mechanical system.
d 2 y1 ðtÞ dy1 ðtÞ d 2 y2 ðtÞ dy2 ðtÞ

(a) M þB ¼ K ½y2 ðtÞ y1 ðtÞ (b) M þB ¼ K ½y2 ðtÞ y1 ðtÞ
dt2 dt dt2 dt
d 2 y1 ðtÞ dy1 ðtÞ d 2 y2 ðtÞ dy2 ðtÞ

(c) M þB ¼ K ½y1 ðtÞ y2 ðtÞ (d) M þB ¼ K ½y1 ðtÞ y2 ðtÞ
dt2 dt dt 2 dt
½IES 2001
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS . 3
Chapter 3
1. Consider a signal flow graph, as in Figure P3.12.
s1 s2 s3
K2
K1
K3
(i)
s1 s2 s3
K2
K1
K3
(ii)
s1 K1 s2 s3
K2
K3
(iii)
Figure P3.12 Signal flow graphs for Objective Question 1.
Signal flow graphs, which have the same transfer function, would include:
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
½IAS 1999
2. Consider a signal flow graph shown in Figure P3.13.
b7
b2 b5
b1
b3 b8 b9 b10
Z2 b4
Z1 Z6

Consider the following statements regarding the signal flow graph:

(i) There are three forward paths.
(ii) These are three individual loops.
(iii) These are two nontouching loops.
Of these statements:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct. (b) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct. (d) (i) and (iii) are correct.
½IES 1998
3. Referring to Figure P3.14, match list I (signal flow graph) with list II (transfer function), and select
the correct answer using the codes given in the following list:
List I List II
P
A. Figure (i) 1:
1Q
Q
B. Figure (ii) 2:
1 PQ
PQ
C. Figure (iii) 3:
1 PQ
PQ
D. Figure (iv) 4:
1 P2
Codes: A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1
½IAS 2000
4. A system block diagram is shown in Figure P3.15.
X
R(s) + + +
G1 G2 G3 C
−
H2
H1
The overall transfer function of the system is

C G1 G2 G3
¼
R 1 þ G1 G2 G3 H1 þ G2 H2 G3 G2 H3
The value of X in the figure would be equal to
(a) H3 (b) G3 H3
(c) G2 H3 (d) G3 H3
½IAS 2001
5. The signal flow graph of the system is shown in Figure P3.16.
The transfer function CðsÞ=DðsÞ of the system is

G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞ G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞ
(a) (b)
1 þ G1 ðsÞHðsÞ 1 G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞHðsÞ
G2 ðsÞ G2 ðsÞ
(c) (d)
1 þ G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞHðsÞ 1 G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞHðsÞ ½IAS 2001
6. The closed loop system shown in Figure P3.17 is subjected to a disturbance NðsÞ.
The transfer function CðsÞ=NðsÞ is given
G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞ G1 ðsÞ

(a) (b)
1 þ G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞHðsÞ 1 þ G1 ðsÞHðsÞ
G2 ðsÞ G2 ðsÞ
(c) (d)
1 þ G2 ðsÞHðsÞ 1 þ G1 ðsÞG2 ðsÞHðsÞ
½IES 1997
7. The transfer function of the system shown in Figure P3.18 is
O ABC O AþBþC
(a) ¼ (b) ¼
R 1 þ ABC R 1 þ AB þ AC
O AB þ AC O AB þ AC
(c) ¼ (d) ¼
R ABC R 1 þ AB þ AC
R + −
O
A
−
+

½IAS 1998
8. Three blocks G1 ; G2 and G3 are connected in some fashion such that overall transfer function is
G1 þ G3 ð1 þ G1 G2 Þ
1 þ G1 G2
The blocks are connected in the following manner:

(a) G1 ; G2 with negative feedback and combination in parallel with G3
(b) G1 ; G3 with negative feedback and G2 in parallel
(c) G1 ; G2 is cascade and combination in parallel with G3
(d) G1 ; G3 in cascade and combination in parallel with G2
½IAS 2004
9. In regeneration feedback, the transfer function is given by
GðsÞ GðsÞ GðsÞ GðsÞHðsÞ

(a) ¼ (b) ¼
RðsÞ 1 þ GðsÞHðsÞ RðsÞ 1 GðsÞHðsÞ
GðsÞ GðsÞHðsÞ GðsÞ GðsÞ

(c) ¼ (d) ¼
RðsÞ 1 þ GðsÞHðsÞ RðsÞ 1 GðsÞHðsÞ
½IAS 1992
10. The transfer function CðsÞ=RðsÞ of the system, whose block diagram is shown in Figure P3.19, is
G1 G2 G1 G2
(a) (b)
1 þ G1 H1 þ G2 H2 G1 G2 H1 H2 1 þ G1 H1 þ G2 H2 þ G1 G2 H1 H2
G1 G2 G1 ð1 þ G2 H2 ÞG2 ð1 þ G1 H1 Þ
(c) (d)
1 þ G1 H1 þ G2 H2 1 þ G1 H1 þ G2 H2 þ G1 G2 H1 H2
R(S) + + C(S)
G1 G2
− −
H1 H2
½IES 1993
11. The signal flow graph of a closed loop system is shown in Figure P3.20, wherein TD represents the
disturbance reduces by
(a) Increasing G2 ðsÞ (b) Decreasing G2 ðsÞ
(c) Increasing G1 ðsÞ (d) Decreasing G1 ðsÞ

½IES 1997
12. The response c(t) of a system to an input r(t) is given by the following different equation:
d 2 cðtÞ 3dcðtÞ
þ þ 5cðtÞ ¼ 5rðtÞ
dt2 dt
The transfer function of the system is given by
5 1
(a) GðsÞ ¼ (b) GðsÞ ¼
s2 þ 3s þ 5 s2 þ 3s þ 5
3s sþ3
(c) GðsÞ ¼ (d) GðsÞ ¼
s2 þ 3s þ 5 s2 þ 3s þ 5
½IES 1996
13. The gain CðsÞ=RðsÞ of the signal flow graph, shown in Figure P3.21, is
G1 G2 þ G2 G3 G1 G2 þ G2 G3
(a) (b)
1 þ G1 G2 H1 þ G2 G3 H1 þ G4 1 þ G1 G2 H1 þ G2 G3 H1 G4
G1 G3 þ G2 G3 G1 G3 þ G2 G3
(c) (d)
1 þ G1 G3 H1 þ G2 G3 H1 þ G4 1 þ G1 G3 H1 þ G2 G3 H1 G4
½IES 2003
14. The overall gain CðsÞ=RðsÞ of the block diagram, shown in Figure P3.22, is
G1 G2 G1 G2
(a) (b)
1 G1 G2 H1 H2 1 G2 H2 G1 G2 H1
G1 G2 G1 G2
(c) (d)
1 G2 H2 G1 G2 H1 H2 1 G1 G2 H1 G1 G2 H2
R(S) + +
G1 G2
+
H1 H2
½IES 2003
15. From Figure P3.23, the transfer function of the signal flow graph is
T12 T22
(a) (b)
1 T22 1 T12
T12 T22
(c) (d)
1 þ T12 1 þ T12
½IES 1992
T22
X1 T12 X2

Chapter 4
1. The unit-impulse response of a system is given by cðtÞ ¼ 0:5et=2. Its transfer function is
(a) 1=ðs þ 2Þ (b) 1=ð1 þ 2sÞ
(c) 2=ð1 þ 2sÞ (d) 2=ðs þ 2Þ
½IAS 1993
2. If the unit-step response of a system is a unit impulse function, then the transfer function of such a
system will be
(a) 1 (b) 1=s
(c) s (d) 1=s2
½IAS 1994
3. When a unit-step input is applied, a second-order underdamped system has a peak overshoot of OP
occurring at tmax : If another step input, equal in magnitude to the peak overshoot OP, is applied at
t ¼ tmax , then the system will settle down at
(a) 1 þ OP (b) 1 OP
(c) OP (d) 1:0
½IAS 1994
4. The system shown in Figure P4.58 is subjected to a unit ramp input on close the switch (s).
(a) Steady-state error will increase and damping coefficient j will decrease.
(b) Both-steady state error and damping coefficient j will increase
(c) Both steady-state error and damping coefficient j will decrease.
(d) Steady-state error will decrease and damping coefficient j will increase.
R(s) + + K C(s)
– – s(s + a)
K1 s
s
Figure P4.58 Figure for Objective Question 4.
½IAS 1995
5. The impulse response of a system is given by
1 t=2
cðtÞ ¼ e
2
which of the following is its unit-step response?
(a) 1 et=2 (b) 1 et

(c) 2 et (d) 1 e2t
½IAS 1998
6. For the system, shown in Figure P4.59, the damping factor j and undamped natural frequency vn are
respectively
pffiffiffiffiffi rffiffiffiffi rffiffiffiffi

2 KJ J K f
(a) and (b) and pffiffiffiffiffi
f K J 2 KJ
rffiffiffiffi
f K 2F K
(c) pffiffiffiffiffi and (d) pffiffiffiffiffi and
2 KJ J KJ J
½IAS 1999
7. Type of a system depends on the

(a) No. of its poles (b) Difference between the no. of poles and zeros
(c) No. of its real poles (d) No. of poles it has at the origin
½IAS 2000
8. A unity feedback system has open loop transfer function as
16
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 16Þ
The natural frequency of the system is
(a) 16 (b) 8
(c) 2 (d) 4
½IAS 2002
9. The system
0:8
GðsÞ ¼
s2 þs2
is excited by a unit-step input. The steady-state output is
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.4 (d) Unbonded
½IAS 2003
10. The system shown in Figure P4.60 has a unit-step unit. In order that the steady-state error is 0.1, the
value of K required is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.9
(c) 1.0 (d) 9.0
½IAS (EE) 1994
11. The settling time of a feedback system with the closed-loop transfer function
CðsÞ v2s
¼ 2
RðsÞ s þ 2vn s þ v2n
is
2 vn
(a) ts ¼ (b) ts ¼
vn 2
4
(c) ts ¼ (d) ts ¼ 4vn
vn
½IAS (EE) 1998
12. The feedback control system shown in Figure P4.61 is
+
s2 s+2
− ( s + 1) 2 s ( s + 1)
2s + 3
s ( s + 3)
(a) Type 0 system (b) Type 1 system

(c) Type 2 system (d) Type 3 system
½IES (EC) 1993
13. A typical control system is shown in Figure P4.62. Assuming RðsÞ ¼ 1=s; the steady-state error is
1
(a) (b) K
1þK
(c) Zero (d) 1
R(s) + s + 40 C(s)
K
– s(s + 10)
1
s + 20
½IES (EC) 1995

14. The velocity-error constant Kv of a feedback system of a closed-loop transfer function
CðsÞ GðsÞ
¼
RðsÞ 1 þ GðsÞHðsÞ
is
ðÞ
(a) Kv ¼ Lim sGðsÞHðsÞ (b) Kv ¼ Lim s 1þGGðssÞHðsÞ
s!0 s!0
(c) Kv ¼ Lim sGðsÞ (d) Kv ¼ Lim s½1 þ GðsÞHðsÞ

s!0 s!0
½IES (EC) 1998

15. In the derivation of expression for peak percent overshoot
!

Mp ¼ exp pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi 100%
1 2
which one of the following condition is NOT required?

(a) The system is linear and time invariant.
(b) The system transfer function has a pair of complex conjugate poles and no zeros.
(c) There is no transportation delay in the system.
(d) The system has zero initial condition.
½GATE (EC) 2005
16. For what values of a, does the system shown in Figure P4.63 have a zero steady-state error (timed)
for a step input?
(a) a ¼ 0 (b) a ¼ 1
(c) a 4 (d) For no value of a
s +1
s 2 + 5s + a
1
s+4

½GATE (EE) 1992
17. A system has the following transfer function

100ðs þ 5Þðs þ 50Þ
GðsÞ ¼
s4 ðs þ 10Þðs2 þ 3s þ 10Þ
The type and order of the system are respectively
(a) 4 and 9 (b) 4 and 7
(c) 5 and 7 (d) 7 and 5
½IES (EE) 1998
18. For the system shown in Figure P4.64, the state value of the output c(t) is
Input = Unit step
+ K
– s(s + 2s) C(s)
1 + 0.025
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 1 (d) Dependent on the values of K and Kt
½IES (EE) 1999
19. Consider the following statements regarding system shown in Figure P4.65, where m ¼ mass,
B ¼ frictional coefficient and K ¼ spring constant:
1. It represents a conservative system. pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
2. It has a natural frequency of undamped oscillation of K=m:
3. It has a time constant of m/K of these statements.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
½IAS 1997
B=0
m
20. In Figure P4.66, spring constant is K, viscous friction coefficient is B, mass is M and the system
output motion is x(t) corresponding to input force F(t). Which of the following parameters relates to
the above system?
x(t)
k
F(t)
M
Here
1. The constant ¼ 1=M pffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
2. Damping coefficient ¼ B= 2 KM pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
3. Natural frequency of oscillation ¼ K=M
½IES (EE) 1995
21. The step response of a system is cðtÞ ¼ 1 5et þ 10e2t 6e3t . The impulse response of the
system is
(a) 5et 20e2t þ 18e3t (b) 5e t 20e2t þ 18e3t
(c) 5et þ 20e2t þ 18e3t (d) 5et þ 20e2t 18e3t
½IAS 2003
22. Given a unity feedback with

K
G ð sÞ ¼
sðs þ 4Þ
the value of K for damping ratio of 0.5 is

(a) 1 (b) 16
(c) 4 (d) 2
½IAS 2003
23. A unity-feedback control system has a forward-path transfer function G(s) is given by
10ð1 þ sÞ
GðsÞ ¼
s2 ðs þ 1Þðs þ 5Þ
The steady-state error due to unit parabolic input
t2
rðtÞ ¼ UðtÞ
2
is
(a) Zero (b) 0.5
(c) 1.0 (d) Infinite
½IAS 2003
24. Damping factor and undamped natural frequency for a position control system is given by
pffiffiffiffiffi pffiffiffiffiffi K pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
(a) 2 KJ; KJ respectively (b) ; K=J respectively
2fJ
f pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi J pffiffiffiffiffi
(c) pffiffiffiffiffi ; K=J respectively (d) pffiffiffiffiffi ; KJ respectively
2 KJ 2 Kf
½IES (EE) 1992
25. Match List I (Time Domain Specification) with List II (Equation for Finding Its Value), and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Time Domain Specification) List II (Equation for Finding Its Value)
pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
A. Peak overshoot 1. =ðvn 1 2 Þ
B. Peak time 2. 4=ðvn Þ
C. Rise time 3. expð= 1 2 Þ%
D. Settling time (2%) 4. p fcos1 ½=ðvn 1 2 Þg
(a) 3 2 4 1 (c) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1
½IAS 2004
26. In type I system, a constant output velocity at steady state will be possible, when
(a) There is no error.
(b) There is a constant steady-state error.
(c) There is a variable steady-state error.

(d) There is a fluctuating error.
½IES (EE) 1992
27. If the time response of a system is given by the following equation
yðtÞ ¼ 5 þ 3 sinðvt þ 1 Þ þ e3t sinðvt þ 2 Þ þ e5t
then the steady-state part of the above response is given by
(a) 5 þ 3 sinðvt þ s1 Þ (b) 5 þ 3 sinðvt þ 1 Þ þ e3t sinðvt þ 2 Þ
(c) 5 þ e5t (d) 5
½IES (EE) 1996
28. The impulse response of a system is 5e10t ; its step response is equal to
(a) 0:5e10t (b) 5ð1 e10t Þ
(c) 0:5ð1 e10t Þ (d) 10ð1 e10t Þ
½IES (EE) 1996
29. The transfer function of a system is 10/(1 þ s) when operated as a unity feedback system, the steady-
state error to a unit-step input will be
(a) Zero (b) 1/11
(c) 10 (d) Infinity
½IES (EE) 1996
30. The unit-impulse response of a second-order system is 1=6e0:8t sinð0:6tÞ . Then the natural
frequency and damping ratio of the system are respectively
(a) 1 and 0.6 (b) 1 and 0.8
(c) 2 and 0.4 (d) 2 and 0.3
½IES (EE) 2003
31. A second-order control system has
100
MðjwÞ ¼ pffiffiffi
100 v2 þ 10 2jv
Its Mp (peak magnitude) is

(a) 0.5
pffiffiffi (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 2
½IES (EE) 2003
32. Consider the following system, shown in Figure P4.67, where x(t) ¼ sin t. What will be the response
y(t) in the steady state?
x(t) y(t)
s
1+ s

pffiffiffi pffiffiffi
(a) sin(t 458)= 2 (b) sin(t þ 458)= 2
pffiffiffiet
(c) 2 sin t (d) sin t cos t
½IES (EE) 2004
33. The damping ratio and natural frequency of a second-order system are 0.6 and 2 rad/s respectively.
Which of the following combinations gives the correct values of peak and settling time, respectively,
for the unit-step response of the system?
(a) 3.33 s and 1.95 s (b) 1.95 s and 3.33 s
(c) 1.95 s and 1.5 s (d) 1.5 s and 1.95 s
½IES (EE) 2004
34. Which of the following equations gives the steady-state error for a unity-feedback system excited by
us
us ðtÞ þ tus ðtÞ þ t2
2
1 1 1 1 1 2
(a) þ þ (b) þ þ
2 þ Kp Kv Ka 1 þ Kp Kv Ka
1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) þ þ (d) þ þ
Kp Kv Ka 1 þ Kp Kv Ka
½IES (EE) 2004
35. The steady-state error, due to a ramp input for a type-2 system, is equal to
(a) Zero (b) Infinite
(c) Non-zero number (d) Constant
½IES (EE) 2001
36. Which of the following is the steady-state error of a control system with step-error, ramp-error and
parabolic-error constants Kp; Ku Ka ; respectively, for the input ð1 t2 Þ3ðtÞ?
3 3 3 6
(a) (b) þ
1 þ Kp 2Ka 1 þ Kp Ka
3 3 3 6
(c) (d)
1 þ Kp Ka 1 þ Kp Ka
½IES (EE) 2005
37. The steady-state error of the type-1 second-order system to unit-ramp input is
(a) 2vn (b) 2=vn
(c) 4=vn (d) None of these
38. The unit-step response of a second-order linear system, with zero initial states, is given by
cðtÞ ¼ 1 þ 1:25e6t sinð8t tan1 1:333Þ; t0
The damping ratio and the undamped natural frequency of oscillation of the system are, respectively
(a) 0.6 and 10 rad/s (b) 0.6 and 12.5 rad/s
(c) 0.8 and 10 rad/s (d) 0.8 and 12.5 rad/s
½IAS 2000
39. If a second-order system has poles at ð1 jÞ, then the step response of the system will exhibit a peak
value at
(a) 4.5 s (b) 3.5 s
(c) 3.14 s (d) 1 s
½IAS 2001
40. In a continuous data system:
(a) Data may be a continuous function of time at all points in the system.
(b) Data is necessarily a continuous function of time at all points in the system.
(c) Data is continuous at the input and output parts of the system but not necessarily during
intermediate processing of the data.
(d) Only the reference signal is a continuous function of time.
41. A control system, having a unit damping factor, will give

(a) A critically damped response (b) An oscillatory response
(c) An undamped response (d) No response
½IES (EE) 1992
42. Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to
(a) Linear time-variant systems (b) Nonlinear time-variant systems
(c) Linear time-invariant system (d) Nonlinear time-invariant systems
½IES (EE) 1993
43. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by
K
G ð sÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þ
If the gain K is increased to infinity, then the damping ratio will tend to become
pffiffiffi
(a) 1= 2 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) 1
½IES (EE) 1993
44. The transfer system of a control system is given as
K
T ð sÞ ¼
x2 þ 4s þ K
where K is the gain of the system in radians/amp. For this system to be critically damped, the value of
K should be
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
½IES (EE) 1996
45. Consider the following statements with reference to a system with velocity-error constant,
Kc ¼ 1000:
1. The system is stable. 2. The system is of type 1.
3. The test signal used is a step input.
Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
½IES (EE) 2003
46. The response cðtÞ to a system is described by the differential equation
d 2 c ðtÞ dc ðtÞ
2
þ4 þ 5c ðtÞ ¼ 0
dt dt
The system response is:
(a) Undamped (b) Underdamped
(c) Critically damped (d) Oscillatory
½IES (EC) 1999
47. Consider the following transfer functions:
1 4
1: 2:
s2 þsþ1 s2 þ 2s þ 4
2 1
3: 4:
s2 þ 2s þ 2 s2 þ 2s þ 1
3
5:
s2 þ 6s þ 3
Which of the above transfer functions represents underdamped second-order systems?

(a) 4 and 5 (b) 1, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 5
½IES (EE) 2004
48. The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is given by
K
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þ
If the gain K is increased to infinity, then the damping ratio will tend to become
(a) Zero (b) 0.707
(c) Unity (d) Infinite
½IES (EE) 2005
49. Consider the following statements in connection with the differential equation
d 2y
4 þ 36y ¼ 36x
dt2
1. The natural frequency of the response is 6 rad/sec.
2. The response is always oscillatory.
3. The percentage overshoot is 10%, and damping ratio of the system is 0.6.
4. Both system time constant and settling time are infinite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
½IES (EE) 2005
50. A second-order system exhibits 100% overshoot. Its damping coefficient is:
(a) Equal to 0 (b) Equal to 1
(c) Less than 1 (d) Greater than 1
½IES (EE) 1998
51. For a second-order system
d 2y dy
2 2
þ 4 þ 8y ¼ 8x
dt dt
the damping ratio is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.333 (d) 0.5
½IES (EC) 1992
52. In the type-1 system, the velocity error is:
(a) Inversely proportional to the bandwidth of the system
(b) Directly proportional to gain constant
(c) Inversely proportional to gain constant
(d) Independent of gain constant
½IES (EC) 1992
53. A unity-feedback control system has a forward-path transfer function equal to
42:25
sðs þ 6:5Þ
The unit-step response of this system, starting from rest, will have its maximum value at a time
equal to
(a) 0 sec (b) 0.56 sec
(c) 5.6 sec (d) Infinity
½IES (EC) 1993
54. Match the system open-loop transfer functions given in List I with the steady-state errors produced
for a unit-ramp input. Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
30
A. 1. Zero
þ 6s þ 9
s2
30
B. 2 2. 0.2
s þ 6s
30
C. 2 2. 0.3
s þ 9s
sþ1
D. 4. Infinity
s2
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
½IES (EC) 1993
55. A plant has the following transfer function
1
GðsÞ ¼
s2 þ 0:2s þ 1
For a step input, it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant
settling time is
(a) 20 s (b) 40 s
(c) 35 s (d) 45 s
½IES (EC) 2003
56. A second-order control system is defined by the following differential equation:
d 2 c ðtÞ dc ðtÞ
4 2
þ8 þ 16c ðtÞ ¼ 16uðtÞ
dt dt
The damping ratio and natural frequency for this system are respectively
(a) 0.25 and 2 rad/s (b) 0.50 and 2 rad/s
(c) 0.25 and 4 rad/s (d) 0.50 and 4 rad/s
½IES (EE) 2001
57. Assuming the transient response of a second-order system to be given by
e4t pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
c ðtÞ ¼ 1 pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi sinðvn 1 2 þ Þ
1 2
the setting time for the 5% criterion will be

(a) 1/4 s (b) 3/4 s
(c) 5/4 s (d) 4 s
½IES (EC) 1994
58. Consider the systems with the following open-loop transfer functions:
36 100
1: 2:
sðs þ 3:6Þ sðs þ 5Þ
6:25
3:
sðs þ 4Þ
The correct sequence of these systems in increasing order of the time taken for the unit-step
response to settle is
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1
½IES (EC) 1994
59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Characteristic equation) List II (Nature of damping)

A. s2 þ 15s þ 26:25 1. Undamped
B. s2 þ 5s þ 6 2. Under-damped
C. s2 þ 20:25 3. Critically damped
D. s2 þ 4:55s þ 42:25 4. Overdamped
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3
½IES (EC) 1994
60. For the control system in Figure P4.68 to be critically damped, the value of gain K required is:
R(s) + 2 C(s)
K
– s2 + 7s + 2
(a) 1 (b) 5.125

(c) 6.831 (d) 10
½IES (EC) 1995
61. A system has an open-loop transfer function
10
G ð sÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þðs þ 2Þ
What is the steady-state error when it is subjected to the input
3
r ðtÞ ¼ 1 þ 2t þ t2 ?
2
(a) Zero (b) 0.4
(c) 4 (d) infinity
½IES (EC) 1995
62. Consider a unit-feedback control system shown in Figure P4.69. The ratio of the time constants of
the open-loop response to the closed-loop response will be:
R(s) + 2 C(s)
− s+4

(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1

(c) 3:2 (d) 2:3
½IES (EC) 1995
63. Consider the following overall transfer function for a unity feedback system
4
s2 þ 4s þ 4
Which of the following statements regarding this system are correct?
1. Position error constant Kp for the system is 4.
2. The system is of type one.
3. The velocity-error constant Kv for the system is finite.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
½IES (EC) 1996
64. A first-order system is shown in Figure P4.70. Its time response to a unit-step input is given by
R(s) C(s)
1
1 + sT
(a) cðtÞ ¼ ð1=T Þet=T (b) cðtÞ ¼ Tð1 et=T Þ

(c) cðtÞ ¼ ð1 et=T Þ (d) c ðtÞ ¼ Tet=T
½IES (EC) 1996
65. For a unity-feedback system, the open-loop transfer function is
16ðs þ 2Þ
G ð sÞ ¼
What is the steady-state error if the input is r ðtÞ ¼ ð2 þ 3t þ 4t2 ÞuðtÞ?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 ½IES (EC) 1996
66. A system has a transfer function
CðsÞ 4
¼
RðsÞ s2 þ 1:6s þ 4
For the unit-step response, the settling time (in seconds) for 2% tolerance band is
(a) 1.6 (b) 2.5
(c) 4 (d) 5
½IES (EC) 1996
67. A second-order system has the damping ratio and undamped natural frequency of oscillation
vn . The settling time at 2% tolerance band of the system is
2 3
(a) (b)
vn vn
4
(c) (c) vn
vn ½IES (EC) 2000
68. Which of the following is the steady-state error for a step input applied to a unity-feedback system
with the open-loop transfer function
10
G ð sÞ ¼ 2 ?
s þ 14s þ 50
(a) ess ¼ 0 (b) ess ¼ 0:83
(c) ess ¼ 1 (d) ess ¼ 1
½IES (EC) 2001
69. In the system shown in Figure P4.71, where
r ðtÞ ¼ 1 þ 2t ðt 0Þ
the steady-state value of the error eðtÞ is equal to
(a) Zero (b) 2/10
(c) 10/2 (d) Infinity
r(t) + e(t) 10( s + 1) C(t)

− s 2 ( s + 2)

½IES (EE) 2001
70. Consider the unity-feedback system as shown in Figure P4.72. The sensitivity of the steady-state
error to change in parameter K and parameter a with ramp inputs are respectively
(a) 1, 1 (b) 1, 1
(c) 1, 0 (d) 0, 1
r(t) + e(t) 10( s + 1) C(t)
– s 2 ( s + 2)
½IES (EC) 2002

71. When the time period of an observation is large, the type of error is:
(a) Transient error (b) Steady-state error
(c) Half-power error (d) Position-error constant
½IES (EC) 2003
72. What is the unit-step response of a unity-feedback control system having forward-path transfer
function
80
GðsÞ ¼ ?
sðs þ 18Þ
(a) Overdamped (b) Critically damped

(c) Underdamped (d) Undamped oscillatory
½IES (EC) 2004
73. What is the steady-state error for a unity-feedback control system having
1
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þ
due to unit-ramp input?
(a) 1 (b) 0.5
pffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
(c) 0.25 (d) 0:5
½IES (EC) 2005
74. Given a unity-feedback system with
K
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 4Þ
what is the value of K for a damping ratio of 0.5?
(a) 1 (b) 16
(c) 4 (d) 2
½IES (EC) 2005
75. Match List I (System G(s)) with List II (Nature of response), and select the correct answer using the
codes given.
List I (System G(s)) List II (Nature of response)
400
A. 1. Undamped
þ 12s þ 400
s2
900
B. 2 2. Critically damped
s þ 90s þ 400
225
C. 2 3. Underdamped
s þ 30s þ 225
625
D. 2 4. Overdamped
s þ 0s þ 225
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
½IES (EC) 2005
76. An underdamped second-order system with negative damping will have the two roots:
(a) On the negative real axis as real roots
(b) On the left-hand side of the complex plane as complex roots
(c) On the right-hand side of the complex plane as complex conjugates

(d) On the positive real axis as real roots
½IES (EC) 2005
77. Which of the following expresses the time at which second peak in step response occurs for a second-
order system?
2
(a) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi (b) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
vn 1 2 vn 1 2
3
(c) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi (d) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
vn 1 2 1 2 ½IES (EC) 2005
78. The steady-state error of a stable of type 0 unity-feedback system for a unit-step function is
(a) 0 (b) 1=ð1 þ Kp Þ
(c) 1 (d) 1=Kp
½GATE (EC) 1990
79. A second-order system has a transfer function given by
25
GðsÞ ¼
s2 þ 8s þ 25
If the system, initially at rest, is subjected to a unit-step input at t ¼ 0, the second peak in the
response will occur at
(a) s (b) =3 s
(c) 2 =3 s (d) =2 s
½GATE (EC) 1991
80. A unity-feedback control system has an open-loop transfer function
4ð1 þ 2sÞ
G ð sÞ ¼
s2 ðs þ 2Þ
If the input to the system is a unit ramp, the steady-state error will be
(a) 0 (b) 0.5
(c) 2 (d) Infinity
½GATE (EC) 1991
81. The step-error coefficient of a system
1
G ð sÞ ¼
ðs þ 6Þðs þ 1Þ
with unity feedback is
(a) 1=6 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) 1
½GATE (EC) 1995
82. Consider a unity-feedback control system with open-loop transfer function
K
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þ
The steady-state error of the system due to a unit-step input is

(a) Zero (b) K
(c) 1/K (d) Infinite
½GATE (EC) 1998
83. For a second-order system with the closed-loop transfer function
9
T ð sÞ ¼
s2 þ 4s þ 9
the settling time for 2% band, in seconds, is:
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
(c) 3.0 (d) 4.0
½GATE (EC) 1999
84. If the characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is s2 þ 2s þ 2 ¼ 0, then the system is
(a) Overdamped (b) Critically damped
(c) Underdamped (d) Undamped
½GATE (EC) 2001
85. Consider a system with a transfer function
sþ6
GðsÞ ¼
Ks2 þsþ6
Its damping ratio will be 0.5 when the value of K is
(a) 2/6 (b) 3
(c) 1/6 (d) 6
½GATE (EC) 2002
86. The transfer function of a system is
100
GðsÞ ¼
For a unit-step input to the system, the approximate setting time for 2% criterion is:
(a) 100 s (b) 4 s
(c) 1 s (d) 0.1 s
½GATE (EE) 2002
87. For a feedback-control system of type 2, the steady-state error for a ramp input is:
(a) Infinite (b) Constant
(c) Zero (d) Interminate
½GATE (EE) 1996
88. A unit-feedback system has an open-loop transfer function G(s). The steady-state error is zero for
(a) Step input and type-1 G(s) (b) Ramp input and type-1 G(s)
(c) Step input and type-0 G(s) (d) Ramp input and type-0 G(s)
½GATE (EE) 2000
89. A unity-feedback system has an open-loop transfer function
25
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 6Þ
The peak overshoot in the step-input response of the system is approximately equal to:
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 15% (d) 20%
½GATE (EE) 2000
90. If the ramp input is applied to a type-2 system, the steady-state error is:
(a) Positive constant (b) Negative constant
(c) Zero (d) Positive infinity
½GATE (EE) 2000
91. Consider the unit-step response of a unity-feedback control system, whose open-loop transfer
functions is
1
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þ
The maximum overshoot is equal to
(a) 0.143 (b) 0.153
(c) 0.163 (d) 0.173
½GATE (EE) 1996
92. An open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback system is given by
K
sðs þ 1Þ
If the value of gain K is such that the system is critically damped, the closed-loop poles of the system
will lie at:
(a) 0.5 and 0.5 (b) j0:5
(c) 0 and 1 (d) 0.5 j0:5
½GATE (EE) 2002
93. The block diagram shown in Figure P4.73 gives a unity-feedback closed-loop control system. The
steady-state error in the response of the above system to the unit-step input is:
(a) 25% (b) 0.75%
(c) 6% (d) 33%
u(t) + 15 v(t)
3
− s + 15 s +1
½IES (EE) 2001

94. A block diagram of a closed-loop control system is given in Figure P4.74. The values of K and P are
respectively (such that the system has a damping ratio of 0.7 and an undamped natural frequency, vn ,
of 5 rad/sec):
(a) 20 and 0.3 (b) 20 and 0.2
(c) 25 and 0.3 (d) 25 and 0.2
R(s) + K C(s)
– s( s + 2)
1 + sP
½IES (EC) 1997

95. The unit-impulse response of a second-order underdamped system, starting from rest, is given by
cðtÞ ¼ 12:5e6t sin 8t; t0
The steady-state value of the unit-step response of the system is equal to:
(a) 0 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.5 (d) 1.0
½GATE (EE) 2004
96. In the case of a second-order system described by a differential equation
Jd 2 0 d0
þF þ k0 ¼ ki
dt2 dt
where i and 0 are the input and output shaft angles, the natural frequency is given by:
pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
(a) K=J (b) J=K
pffiffiffiffiffi pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
(c) KJ (d) K J
½IES (EC) 1997
97. Assuming unit-ramp input match List I (System type) with List II (Steady-state error), and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (system type) List II (steady-state error)

A. 0 1. K
B. 1 2. 1
C. 2 3. 0
D. 3 4. 1=4
(a) 2 4 3 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 2 4 3
½IES (EC) 2003
98. A unity-feedback second-order control system is characterized by
K
GðsÞ ¼
sð Js þ BÞ
where J ¼ moment of inertia, K ¼ system gain and B ¼ viscous damping coefficient. The transient
response specification, which is not affected by variation of system gain, is the:
(a) Peak overshoot (b) Rise time
(c) Settling time (d) Damped frequency of oscillation
½IES (EE) 1997
99. A linear second-order system with the transfer function
49
GðsÞ ¼ 2
s þ 16s þ 49
is initially at rest and is subjected to a step-input signal. The response of the system will exhibit a
peak overshoot of:
(a) 16% (b) 9%
(c) 2% (d) Zero
½IES (EE) 1998
100. The unit-impulse response of a linear time-invariant second-order system is
gðtÞ ¼ 10e8t sin 6t ðt 0Þ
The natural frequency and the damping factor of the system are respectively
(a) 10 rad/s and 0.6 (b) 10 rad/s and 0.8
(c) 6 rad/s and 0.6 (d) 6 rad/s and 0.8
½IES (EE) 1999
101. If ða jbÞ are the complex conjugate roots of a characteristic equation of a second-order system,
then its damping coefficient and natural frequency will be respectively:
b pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi b
(a) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi and a2 þ b2 (b) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
a þb
2 2 a þ b2
2
a p ffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi a
(c) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi and a2 þ b2 (d) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi and a2 þ b2
a þb
2 2 a þ b2
2
½IES (EE) 2000
102. A unity-feedback control system has a forward-path transfer function
10ð1 þ 4sÞ
G ð sÞ ¼
s2 ð1 þ sÞ
If the system is subjected to an input
t2
rðtÞ ¼ 1 þ t þ ðt 0Þ
2
then the steady-state error of the system will be:
(a) Zero (b) 0.1
(c) 10 (d) Infinity
½IES (EE) 2000
103. The effect of error-rate damping is:
(a) To reduce steady-state error (b) Delay the response
(c) To provide larger settling time (d) None of the above
Chapter 5
1. If the characteristic equation of a system is s3 þ 14s2 þ 56s þ k ¼ 0 then it will be stable only if:
(a) 0 < K < 784 (c) 10 > K > 600

(b) 1 < K < 64 (d) 4 < K < 784
½IAS 1994
2. The first two rows of Routh’s tabulation of a fourth-order system are:
s4 1 10 5
s3 2 20
The number of roots of the system lying on the right half of the s-plane is:
(a) Zero (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
3. The first stability test showed the sign as follows: ½IAS 1996
Rows I II III IV V VI VII

Signs + + + + +
The number of roots of the system lying the right half of the s-plane is:
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
½IAS 1998
4. For the block diagram shown in Figure P5.21, the limiting values of K for the stability of inner loop
is found to be x < K < y, the overall system will be stable if and only if:
(a) 4x < K < 4y (b) 2x < K < 2y
(c) x < K < y (d) x=2 < K < y=2
½IES (EE) 2000

5. A system with the characteristic equation s4 þ 2s3 þ 11s2 þ 18s þ 18 ¼ 0 will have a closed-loop
poles such that:
(a) All poles lie in the left half of the s-plane.
(b) All poles lie in the right half of the s-plane.
(c) Two poles lie symmetrically on the imaginary axis of the s-plane.
(d) No pole lies on the imaginary axis of the s-plane.
½IAS 1993
6. By properly choosing the value of K, the output c(t) of the system (as shown in Figure P5.22) can be
made to oscillate sinusoidally at a frequency (in rad/s) of:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
K c(t)
s(s+1)(s+4)
½IAS 1993
7. Which one of the following statements is true for the system shown in Figure P5.23?
(a) Open-loop system is unstable but closed-loop system is stable.
(b) Open-loop system is stable but closed-loop system is unstable.
(c) Both open-loop and closed-loop system are stable.
(d) Both open-loop and closed-loop systems are unstable.

½IAS 1993
List I (Roots in the s-plane) List II (Corresponding impulse response)

(a) 5 1 2 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 5 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 1 5
½IAS 1995
9. Consider the following statements regarding the stability analysis by Routh–Hurwitz criterion.
1. For a system to be stable, all the coefficients of the characteristic equation must be present and of
the same sign.
2. If a system is to be stable, there should not be any sign change in the first column of the Routh’s
array.
3. The order of the auxillary equation obtained from the elements of the Routh’s table is always
odd.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) 1 and 3 are correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
½IAS 1999
10. A closed-loop system is shown in Figure P5.24. The largest possible value of for which the system
would be stable is:
(a) 1 (b) 1.1
(c) 1.2 (d) 2.3
½IES (EC) 1998
11. The number of roots in the left-half of s-plane for the equation s3 4s2 þ s þ 6 ¼ 0 would be
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
½IAS 2001
12. The characteristic equation of a feedback-control system is s3 þ Ks2 þ 5s þ 10 ¼ 0 for the system to
be critically stable, the values of K should be
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
½IES (EE) 1999
13. A closed-loop system is stable when all its poles in the s-plane lie
(a) On the positive real axis (b) On the imaginary axis
(c) In the left half (d) In the right half ½IAS 2002
14. Consider the equation 2s4 þ s3 þ 3s2 þ 5s þ 10 ¼ 0. The number of roots this equation has in the
right half of the s-plane is:
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
½IAS 2003
15. The feedback system shown in Figure P5.25 is stable for all values of K is given by:
(a) K > 0 (b) K < 0
(c) 0 < K < 42 (d) 0 < K < 60

½IAS 2003
16. For making an unstable system stable:

(a) Gain of the system should be increased.
(b) Gain of the system should be decreased.
(c) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased.
(d) The number of poles to the loop-transfer function should be increased.
½IES (EE) 1992
17. While forming a Routh’s array, the situation of a row zeros indicates that the system:
(a) Has symmetrically located roots (b) Is not sensitive to variations in gain
(c) Is stable (d) Is Unstable
½IES (EC) 1997
18. The characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is given by s4 þ 6s3 þ 11s2 þ 6s þ k ¼ 0: Stable
closed-loop behavior can be ensured when the gain K is such that:
(a) 0 < K < 10 (b) K > 10
(c) 1 K < 1 (d) 0 < K 20
½IES (EE) 1993
19. By a suitable choice of the scalar parameter K, the system shown in Figure P5.26 can be made to
oscillate continuously at a frequency of:
(a) 1 rad/s (b) 2 rad/s
(c) 4 rad/s (d) 8 rad/s

½IES (EE) 1993
20. The open-loop transfer functions with unity feedback are given below for different systems:
2 2
1. GðsÞ ¼ 2. GðsÞ ¼
sþ2 sðs þ 2Þ
2 2ðs þ 1Þ
3. GðsÞ ¼ 4. GðsÞ ¼
s2 ðs þ 2Þ sðs þ 2Þ
Among these systems, the unstable system is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
½IES (EE) 1993
21. The open-loop transfer function of a control system is given by

K ðs þ 10Þ
sðs þ 2Þðs þ aÞ
The smallest possible value of a for which this system is stable in a closed loop for all positive values
of K is:
(a) 0 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 12
½IES (EE) 1994
22. The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is given by

K ðs þ 2Þ
GðsÞ ¼ ðs þ 1Þðs 7Þ
For K > 6, the stability characteristic of the open-loop and closed-loop configuration of the system
are, respectively:
(a) Stable and stable (b) Unstable and stable
(c) Stable and unstable (d) Unstable and unstable
½IES (EE) 1994
23. The open-loop transfer function of a system is given by

K
G ð sÞ ¼
The value of K which will cause sustained oscillations in the closed-loop unity feedback, is:
(a) 16 (b) 32
(c) 48 (d) 64
½IES (EE) 1996
24. The characteristic equation 1 þ G(s)H(s) ¼ 0 of a system is given by s4 þ 6s3 þ 11s2 þ 6s þ

K ¼ 0. For the system to be stable, the value of the gain K should be:
(a) Zero (b) Greater than zero but less than 10
(c) Greater than 10 but less than 20 (d) Greater than 20 but less than 30
½IES (EE) 1996]
25. The characteristic equation for a third-order is q(s) ¼ a0 s3 þ a1 s2 þ a2 s þ a3 ¼ 0: For the third-
order system to be stable, besides that all the coefficients have to be positive, which one of the
following has to be satisfied as a necessary and sufficient condition?
(a) a0 a1 a2 a3 (b) a1 a2 a0 a3
(c) a2 a3 a1 a0 (d) a0 a3 a1 a2
½IES (EE) 2004
26. For which of the following values of K, the feedback, shown in Figure P5.27, is stable?
(a) K > 0 (b) K < 0
(c) 0 < K < 42 (d) 0 < K < 6 0
½IES (EE) 2005
27. Consider the equation 2s4 þ s3 þ 3s2 þ 5s þ 10 ¼ 0: How many roots does this equation have in
the right half of the s-plane?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
½IES (EE) 2005
28. When all the roots of the characteristic equation are found in the left of an s-plane, the response
due to the initial condition will:
(a) Increase to infinity as time approaches infinity
(b) Decrease to zero as time approaches infinity
(c) Remain constant for all time
(d) Be oscillating
½IES (EC) 1992
29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I (characteristic root location) List II (system characteristic)
A. (1 þj), (1j) 1. Marginally stable
B. (2 þj), (2j), (2j), (2j) 2. Unstable
C. j, j, 1, 1 3. Stable
Codes: A B C A B C
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2
½IES (EC) 1992
30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:
List I (Roots in the s-plane) List II (Impulse response)
A. Two imaginary roots
B. Two complex roots in the right half plane
C. A single root on the negative real axis
D. A single root at the origin
Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
½IES (EC) 1992
31. How many roots of the characteristic equation s5 þ s4 þ 2s3 þ 2s2 þ 3s þ 15 ¼ 0 lie in the left half
of the s-plane?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 5
½IES (EC) 1993
32. A control system is shown in Figure P5.28. The maximum value of the gain K for which the system is
stable is:
pffiffiffi
(a) 3 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5 ½IES(EC) 1993
33. Consider the following statements regarding the number of sign change in the first column of Routh
in respect of the characteristic equation s2 þ 2as þ 4 :
1. If a ¼ þ", where " is near to zero, number of sign changes will be equal to zero.
2. If a ¼ 0, the number of sign change will be equal to one.
3. If a ¼ "; where " ¼ near zero, the number of sign changes will be equal to two.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
½IES (EC) 1994
34. The value of K for which the unity-feedback system
K
G ð sÞ ¼
crosses the imaginary axis is
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 48
½IES (EC) 1997
35. The first column of a Routh array is:
s5 1
s4 2
s3 3=2
s2 1=3
s1 10
s0 2
How many roots of the corresponding equation are there in the left of the s-plane?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
½IES (EC) 1996
36. The characteristic equation of a system is given by 3s4 þ 10s3 þ 5s2 þ 2 ¼ 0. This system is:
(a) Stable (b) Marginally stable
(c) Unstable (d) None of (a), (b) or (c)
½IES (EE) 2002
37. The loop transfer function of Q closed-loop system is given by
k
GðsÞHðsÞ ¼
s2 ðs2 þ 2s þ 2Þ
The angle of departure of the root locus at s ¼ 1 þ j is
(a) Zero (b) 90
(c) 90 (d) 180
½IES (EC) 1998
38. The Routh–Hurwitz criterion cannot be applied when the characteristic equation of the system
contains any coefficients which is:
(a) Negative real and exponential functions of s
(b) Negative real, both exponential and sinusoidal functions of s
(c) Both exponential and sinusoidal functions of s
(d) Complex, both exponential and sinusoidal functions of s
½IES (EC) 2000
39. Which one of the following characteristics equations can result in a stable operation of the feedback
system?
(a) s3 þ 4s2 þ s 6 ¼ 0 (b) s3 s2 þ 5s þ 6 ¼ 0
(c) s3 þ 4s2 þ 10s þ 11 ¼ 0 (d) s4 þ s3 þ 2s2 þ 4s þ 6 ¼ 0
½IES (EC) 2000
40. Consider the following statements: Routh–Hurwitz criterion gives
1. Absolute stability
2. The number of roots lying on the right half of the s-plane.
3. The gain margin and phase margin
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
½IES (EC) 2000
41. The given characteristic polynomial s4 þ s3 þ 2s þ 3 ¼ 0 has:
(a) Zero root in the RHS of the s-plane (b) One root in the RHS of the s-plane
(c) Two roots in the RHS of the s-plane (d) Three roots in the RHS of the s-plane
½IES (EC) 2001
42. A system has a single pole at the origin. Its impulse response will be:
(a) Constant (b) Ramp
(d) Decaying exponential (d) Oscillatory
½IES (EC) 2002
43. Match List I (Pole–zero plot of linear control system) with List II (Response of the system), and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Pole–zero plot of linear control system) List II (Response of the system)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
½IES (EC) 2002
44. The characteristic equation of a control system is given by
s6 þ 2s5 þ 8s4 þ 12s3 þ 20s2 þ 16s þ 16s ¼ 0
The number of the roots of the equation, which lie on the imaginary axis of the s-plane, is:
(a) Zero (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 6
½IES (EC) 2003
45. The closed-loop system shown in Figure P5.29 becomes marginally stable, if the constant K is
chosen to be:
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 40
½IES (EE) 2002
46. An open loop system has a transfer function

1
s3 þ 1:5s2 þ s 1
It is converted into a closed-loop system by providing negative feedback having transfer function
20(s þ 1). Which one of the following is correct?
The open loop and closed loop system are respectively:
(a) Stable and stable (b) Stable and unstable
(c) Unstable and stable (d) Unstable and unstable
½IES (EC) 2004
47. An electromechanical closed-loop control system has the characteristic equation s3 þ 6Ks2 þ
ðK þ 2Þs þ 8 ¼ 0; where K is the forward gain of the system. The condition for the closed-loop
stability is:
(a) K ¼ 0.528 (b) K ¼ 2
(c) K ¼ 0 (d) K ¼ 2528
½GATE (EC) 1990
48. The characteristic equation of a feedback control system is given by s3 þ 5s2 þ ðK þ 6Þ s þ K ¼ 0;

where K > 0 is a scalar variable parameter. In the root–loci diagram of the system, the asymptotes
of the root–locus for large values of K meet at a point in the s-plane, whose coordinates are:
(a) (3, 0) (b) (2, 0)
(c) (1, 0) (d) (2, 0)
½GATE (EC) 1991
49. For a second-order system, damping ratio, ; is 0 < < 1, then the roots of the characteristic
polynomial are:
(a) Real but not equal (b) Real and equal
(c) Complex conjugates (d) Imaginary
½GATE (EC) 1995
50. The number of roots of s3 þ 5s2 þ 7s þ 3 ¼ 0 in the left half of the s-plane is:
(a) Zero (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three
½GATE (EC) 1998
51. The transfer function of a system is

2s2 þ 6s þ 5
ðs þ 1Þ2 ðs þ 2Þ
The characteristic equation of the system is:
(a) 2s2 þ 6s þ 5 ¼ 0 (b) ðs þ 1Þ2 ðs þ 2Þ ¼ 0
(c) 2s2 þ 6s þ 5þ ðs þ 1Þ2 ðs þ 2Þ ¼ 0 (d) 2s2 þ 6s þ 5 ðs þ 1Þ2 ðs þ 2Þ ¼ 0
½GATE (EC) 1998
52. A system described by the transfer function

1
HðsÞ¼
s3 þ s2 þ Ks þ 3
is stable. The constraints on a and K are:
(a) > 0; K < 3 (b) > 0; K > 3
(c) < 0; K > 0 (d) > 0; K < 0
½GATE (EC) 2000
53. The characteristic polynomial of a system is qðsÞ ¼ 2s5 þ s4 þ 4s3 þ 2s2 þ 2s þ 1. The system is:
(a) Stable (b) Marginally stable
(c) Unstable (d) Oscillatory
½GATE (EC) 2002
54. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is
K
GðsÞ ¼
sðs2 þ s þ 2Þðs þ 3Þ
The range of K for which the system is stable is:

(a) 21/44 > K > 0 (b) 13 > K > 0
(c) 21/4 < K < 1 (d) 6 < K < 1
½GATE (EC) 2004
55. For the polynomial PðsÞ ¼ s5 þ s4 þ 2s3 þ 2s2 þ 3s þ 15; the number of roots that lie in the right
half of the s-plane is:
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 1
½GATE (EC) 2004
56. A feedback system is shown in Figure P5.30. The system is stable for all positive values of K, if:
(a) T ¼ 0 (b) T < 0
(c) T > 1 (d) 0 < T < 1
½IES (EE) 2000

57. The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is
K ðs þ 10Þðs þ 20Þ
G ð sÞ ¼
s2 ðs þ 2Þ
The closed-loop system will be stable, if the value of K is:

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
½IES (EE) 1998
58. The number of roots of the equation 2s4 þ s3 þ 3s2 þ 5s þ 7 ¼ 0 that lie in the right half of the
s-plane is:
(a) Zero (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three
½GATE (EE) 1998
59. The characteristic equation of a feedback control system is 2s4 þ s3 þ 3s2 þ 5s þ 10 ¼ 0. The
number of roots in the right half of the s-plane are:
(a) Zero (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
½GATE (EE) 2003
60. First column elements of the Routh’s tabulation are 3, 5, 3/4, 1/2 and 2. It means that there
is/are:
(a) One root in the left half of the s-plane (b) Two roots in the half of the s-plane
(c) Two root in the right half of the s-plane (d) One root in the right half of the s-plane
½IES (EC) 1999
61. The loop gain GH of a closed-loop system is given by

K
The value of K for which the system just becomes unstable, is:
(a) K ¼ 6 (b) K ¼ 8
(c) K ¼ 48 (d) K ¼ 96
½GATE (EE) 2003
62. A unity-feedback system having an open-loop gain

K ð1 sÞ
GðsÞHðsÞ ¼
1þs
becomes stable when:
(a) | K | > 1 (b) K > 1
(c) | K | < 1 (d) K <1
½GATE (EE) 2005
63. The algebraic equation FðsÞ ¼ s5 3s4 þ 5s3 7s2 þ 4s þ 20 is given. F(s) ¼ 0 has:
(a) A single complex root with the remaining roots being real
(b) One positive real root and four complex roots, all with positive real parts
(c) One negative real root, two imaginary roots and two roots with positive real parts
(d) One positive real root, two imaginary roots and two roots with negative real parts
½GATE (EE) 2006
64. The characteristic equation of a control system is given by sðs þ 4Þðs2 þ 2s þ 2Þ þ Kðs þ 1Þ ¼ 0.
What are the angles of the asymptotes for the root loci for K 0?
(a) 608, 1808, 3008 (b) 08, 1808, 3008
(c) 1208, 1808, 2408 (d) 08, 1208, 2408
½IES (EE) 2005
65. Figure P5.64 shows the Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) of a system. If
G(s)H(s) has one right-hand pole, the closed-loop system is:
Figure P5.64
(a) Always stable

(b) Unstable with one closed-loop right-hand poles
(c) Unstable with two closed-loop right-hand poles
(d) Unstable with three closed-loop right-hand poles
½GATE (EC) 2003
66. For the equation s3 4s2 þ s þ 6 ¼ 0; the number of roots in the left half of the s-plane will be:
(a) Zero (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three
½GATE (EE) 2004
Chapter 6
1. Which one of the following application software is used to obtain an accurate root locus plot?
(a) LISP (b) MATLAB
(c) dBASE (d) Oracle
½IES (EC) 2003
2. Despite the presence of a negative feedback, control systems still have problems of instability
because the:
(a) Components used have nonlinearities.
(b) Dynamic equations of the subsystems are not known exactly.
(c) Mathematical analysis involves approximations.
(d) The system has a large negative phase angle at high frequencies.
½GATE (EC) 2005
3. The open-loop transfer function of unity-feedback control system is

K
GðsÞ ¼ ; 0<ab
sðs þ aÞðs þ bÞ
The system is stable if:

aþb ab
(a) 0 < K < (b) 0 < K <
ab aþb
a
(c) 0 < K < abða þ bÞ (d) 0 < K < ða þ bÞ
b ½IES (EC) 2000
4. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by
K ðs þ 2Þ
G ð sÞ ¼
sðs2þ 2s þ 2Þ
The centroid and angles of root locus asymptotes are respectively:

(a) Zero and þ90 ; 90 (b) 2/3 and þ60 ; 60
(c) Zero and þ120 ; 120 (d) 2/3 and 90 ; þ90
½IAS 1993
5. The open-loop transfer function is given by

GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
s2 þ 4s þ 8
Its root locus diagram is
½IAS 1994
6. Which of the following are the features of the breakaway point in the root-locus of a closed-loop control
system with the characteristic equation 1 þ KG1 ðsÞ H1 ðsÞ ¼ 0?
1. It need not always occur only on the real axis.
2. At this point G1 ðsÞ H1 ðsÞ ¼ 0:
dk
3. At this point ¼ 0:
ds
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
½IES (EC) 1997
7. The root-locus plot of an open-transfer function
K
GHðsÞ ¼
is
½IAS 1996
8. To improve the stability and time response of a control system, poles are often added to the system
transfer function. In this context, which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Zero poles: makes the system stable and slow responding
(b) One pole: makes the system less stable and slow responding
(c) Two poles: makes the system less stable and fast responding
(d) Three poles: makes the system conditionally stable and fast responding
½IAS 1997
9. Consider the following statements regarding root loci:
1. All root loci start from respective poles of G(s) H(s).
2. All root loci end at the respective zeros of G(s) H(s) or go to infinity.
3. The root loci are symmetrical about the imaginary axis of the s-plane.
½IAS 1997
10. If the open-loop transfer function of a feedback system is given by
K
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 2Þðs þ 2s þ 5Þ
2
then the centroid of the asymptotes will be:

(a) 1, 0 (b) 1, 0
(c) 0, 1 (d) 0, 1
½IAS 1998
11. Consider the following statements regarding the root-locus technique for analyzing linear control
systems:
1. Root-locus is the locus of the roots of the characteristic equation as the closed-loop gain K is
varied from zero to infinity.
2. The number of branches of the root-loci is equal to the number of poles of the open-loop transfer
function.
3. For a particular point in the s-plane to lie on the root-locus, the angle criteria to be satisfied is
ð2I þ 1Þ; where I ¼ 0; 1; 2:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct. (b) 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) 1 and 3 are correct. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
½IAS 1999
12. Figure P6.25 shows root-loci of the open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) of a system. Consider the
following inferences drawn from the figure:
1. It has no zero. 2. It is a stable system.
3. It is a second order system.
Which of these inferences are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
½IAS 2000
jω
s-plane
13. The characteristic equation of a unity-feedback control system is given by s3 þ K1 s2 þ s þ K2 ¼ 0:

Consider the following statements in this regard:
1. For a given value of K1 , all the root-locus branches will terminate at infinity for K2 in the positive
direction.
2. For a given value of K2 , all the root-locus branches will terminate at infinity for the variable K1
in the positive direction.
3. For a given value of K2 , only one root-locus branch will terminate at infinity for the variable K1
in the positive direction.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 3 alone is correct
(c) 2 alone is correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
½IES (EE) 1993
14. The transfer function for a system is

K ðs þ 2Þ
GðsÞ ¼ ; k>0
ðs þ 1Þðs þ 3Þðs þ 4Þ
Two branches (loci) of the plot directed along asymptotes are centered at a point:
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 1
½IAS 2001
15. The root-locus plot of a system having open-loop transfer function
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
will have angle of asymptotes as:
(a) 608, 1008 (b) 608, 1808, 3008
(c) 608, 1208, 1808 (d) 608, 908, 1208
½IAS – 2003
16. The intersection of root locus branches with the imaginary axis can be determined by use of:
(a) Nyquist criterion (b) Routh’s criterion
(c) Polar plot (d) None of above
½IES (EE) 1992
17. Which of the following is not necessarily valid for root-locus pattern?
(a) The n finite zeros and m poles are plotted on the s-plane. Then (m – n) indicates the number of
non-finite zeros.
(b) The number of poles gives the number of loci.
(c) A value of s on the real axis is a point on the root locus, if the total number of poles and zeros on the
real axis to the right of the point is even.
(d) There are as many asymptotes as non-finite zeros.
½IES (EE) 1992
18. The root locus of a unity feedback system is shown in Figure P6.26. The open-loop transfer function is
given by:

K K ðs þ 1Þ
(a) (b)
sðs þ 1Þðs þ 2Þ sðs þ 2Þ
K ðs þ 2Þ Ks
(c) (d)
sðs þ 1Þ ðs þ 1Þðs þ 2Þ ½IES (EE) 1993
19. Given the unity-feedback system with
K
G ð sÞ ¼
The root-locus of the system is given by
jω jω
σ σ
(a) (b)
jω jω
σ
σ
(c) (d)
½IES (EE) 2004

20. Figure P6.27 shows the root-locus of open-loop transfer function of a control system
* pole zero origin
PQ ¼ 2:6 ¼ PQ0
RP ¼ 1:4
OR ¼ 2:0
OQ ¼ 1:4 ¼ OQ0
The value of the forward-path gain K at the point P is:
Q jω
R
P σ
(a) 0.2 (b) 1.4

(c) 3.4 (d) 4.8
½IES (EE) 1994
21. For a unity-negative feedback control system, the open-loop transfer function is
K
GðsÞ ¼
The root-locus plot of the system is:
½IES (EC) 1999

22. The closed-loop transfer function of a feedback-control system is given by

CðsÞ K
¼ 2
RðsÞ s þ ð3 þ K Þs þ 2
Which one of the following diagrams represents a root locus diagram of the system for K > 0?
½IES (EE) 1996

23. The open-loop transfer function of a feedback-control system is given by
K ðs þ 2Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 4Þðs2 þ 4s þ 8Þ
In the root-locus diagram of the system, the asymptotes of the root-loci for large values of K meet at a
point in the s-plane. Which one of the following is the set of coordinates of that point?
(a) (1, 0) (b) (2, 0)
(c) (10/3, 0) (d) (2, 0)
½IES (EE) 1996
24. Consider the following statements with reference to the root loci of the characteristic equation of
unity-feedback control system with an open-loop transfer function of
K ðs þ 1Þðs þ 3Þðs þ 5Þ
GðsÞ ¼
1. Reach locus starts at an open-loop pole and ends either at an open-loop zero or infinity.
2. Reach locus starts at an open-loop pole or infinity and ends at an open-loop zero.
3. There are three separate root loci.
4. There are five separate root loci.
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
½IES (EE) 2003
25. The loop transfer function of a system is given by

GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 25Þ2
The number of loci terminating at infinity is:
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
½IES (EE) 2003
26. A control system has
K
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼ ; ð0 < K < Þ
sðs þ 4Þðs2þ 4s þ 20Þ
What is the number of breakaway points in the root locus diagram?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Zero
½IES (EE) 2004
27. An open-loop transfer function of a feedback system has m poles and n zeros (m > n). Consider the
following statements:
1. The number of separate root loci is m.
2. The number of separate root loci is n.
3. The number of root loci approaching infinity is (m n).
4. The number of root loci approaching infinity is (m þ n).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
½IES (EE) 2005
28. Consider the root-locus diagram (Figure P6.28) of a system and the following statements:
1. The open-loop system is a second-order system.
2. The system is overdamped for K > 1.
3. The system is absolutely stable for all values of K.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
½IES (EC) 1992
29. A transfer function G(s) has type pole-zero plot, as shown in Figure P6.29. Given that the steady-
state gain is 2, the transfer function G(s) will be given by:
2ðs þ 1Þ 5ðs þ 1Þ
(a) (b)
s2 þ 4s þ 5 s2 þ 4s þ 4
(c) 2 (d)
s þ 4s þ 5 ðs þ 2Þ2

½IES (EC) 1993
30. In the root locus for open-loop transfer function
K ðs þ 6Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
the breakaway and break-in points are located respectively at:
(a) 2 and 1 (b) 2.47 and 3.77
(c) 4.27 and 7.73 (d) 7.73 and 4.27
½IES (EC) 1994
31. If the open-loop transfer function of the system is
K ðs þ 10Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 8Þðs þ 16Þðs þ 72Þ
then a closed-loop pole will be located at s ¼ 12 when the value of K is:
(a) 4355 (b) 5760
(c) 9600 (d) 9862
½IES (EC) 1994
32. A unity-feedback system has

K
G ð sÞ ¼
In the root locus, the breakaway point occurs between:
(a) s ¼ 0 and 1 (b) s ¼ 1 and 1
(c) s ¼ 1 and 2 (d) s ¼ 2 and 1
½IES (EC) 1995
33. The loop-transfer function of a feedback control system is given by
K
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
2
The number of asymptotes of its root loci is:

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
½IES (EC) 1996
34. Which of the following effects are correct in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer
function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct. (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(c) 2 and 3 are correct. (d) 1 and 3 are correct.
½IES (EC) 1998
35. The intersection of asymptotes of root-loci of a system with the open-loop transfer function
K
G ð sÞ H ð sÞ ¼
is
(a) 1.44 (b) 1.33
(c) 1.44 (d) 1.33
½IES (EC) 2000
36. The root-locus plot of the system having the loop-transfer function
K
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
2
has
(a) No breakaway point (b) Three real breakaway points
(c) Only one breakaway point (d) One real and two complex breakaway points
½IES (EC) 2001

37. An open-loop transfer function is given by

K ðs þ 1Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 2Þðs2 þ 2s þ 2Þ
It has:
(a) One zero at infinity (b) Two zeros at infinity
(c) Three zeros at infinity (d) Four zeros at infinity
½IES (EC) 2001
38. Which of the following is the open-loop transfer function of the root loci shown in
Figure P6.30?
jω
r1
r3 σ
r2
K K
(a) (b)
sðs þ T1 Þ2 ðs þ T1 Þðs þ T2 Þ2
K K
(c) (d) 2
ðs þ T Þ3 s ðsT1 þ 1Þ
½IES (EC) 2002
39. The instrument used for plotting the root locus is called:
(a) Slide rule (b) Spirule
(c) Synchro (d) Selsyn
½IES (EC) 2002
40. A control system has
K ðs þ 1Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
Root locus of the system can lie on the real axis:
(a) Between s ¼ 1 and s ¼ 3 (b) Between s ¼ 0 and s ¼ 4
(c) Between s ¼ 3 and s ¼ 4 (d) Towards left of s ¼ 4
½IES (EC) 2002
41. Figure P6.31 shows the root locus of a unity-feedback system. The open-loop transfer function of the
system is:
K Ks
(a) (b)
sðs þ 1Þðs þ 2Þ ðs þ 1Þðs þ 2Þ
K ðs þ 1Þ K ðs þ 2Þ
(c) (d)
sðs þ 2Þ sðs þ 1Þ ½IES (EC) 2003
42. The root loci of a feedback control system for large values of s are asymptotic to the straight lines
with angles u to the real axis given by the equation:
ðp zÞ ð2K þ 1Þ
(a) (b)
2K þ 1 pz
2K
(c) 2K(p z) (d) z
p
½IES (EC) 2004
43. Consider the following statements: In root-locus plot, the breakaway points:
1. Need not always be on the real axis alone
2. Must lie on the root loci
3. Must lie between 0 and1
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
½IES (EC) 1999
44. Which of the following is not the property of root loci?
(a) The root locus is symmetrical about jv axis.
(b) They start from the open-loop poles and terminate at the open-loop zeros.
(c) The breakaway points are determined from dK/ds = 0.
(d) Segments of the real axis are part of the root locus, if and only if the total number of real poles
and zeros to their right is odd.
½IES (EC) 1995

45. An open-loop transfer function is given by

K ðs þ 3Þ
sþ5
Its root-loci will be as in
½IES (EC) 1997

46. Given a unity-feedback system with open-loop transfer function
K
GðsÞ ¼
The root locus plot of the system is of the form:
½GATE (EC) 1992

47. If the open-loop transfer function is a ratio of a numerator polynomial of degree m and a denominator
polynomial of degree n, then the integer (n m) represents the number of:
(a) Break-away points (b) Unstable poles
(c) Separate root loci (d) Asymptotes
½GATE (EC) 1994
48. Consider the loop-transfer function
K ðs þ 6Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
In the root-locus diagram, the centroid will be located at:
(a) 4 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
½IES (EC) 1999
49. Consider the points s1 ¼ 3 þ j4 and s2 ¼ 3 j2 in the s-plane. Then, for a system with the
open-loop transfer function
K
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
ðs þ 1Þ4
(a) s1 is on the root locus, but not s2 : (b) s2 is on the root locus, but not s1 :
(c) Both s1 and s2 are on the root locus. (d) Neither s1 nor s2 is on the root locus.
½GATE (EC) 1999
50. Which of the following points is NOT on the root locus of a system with the open-loop transfer
function
K
pffiffiffi
(a) s ¼ j 3 (b) s ¼ 1.5
(c) s ¼ 3 (d) s ¼ 1
½GATE (EC) 2002

51. The root locus of the system
K
has the break-away point located at:
(a) (0.5, 0) (b) (2.548, 0)
(c) (4,0) (d) (0.784, 0)
½GATE (EC) 2003
52. Given
K
the point of intersection of the asymptotes of the root loci with the real axis is:
(a) 4 (b) 1.33
(c) 1.33 (d) 4
½GATE (EC) 2004
53. A unity-feedback system has an open-loop transfer function, GðsÞ ¼ K=s2 : The root loci plot is:
½GATE (EE) 2002

54. Figure P6.32 shows the root-locus plot (location of poles not given) of a third-order system whose
open-loop transfer function is:
K K
(a) 3 (b) 2
s s ðs þ 1Þ
K K
(c) 2 (d) 2
sðs þ 1Þ sðs 1Þ

½GATE (EE) 2005
55. The root-locus plot for an uncompensated unstable system is shown in Figure P6.33. The system is to
be compensated by a compensated zero. The most desirable of the compensating zero would be the
point marked:
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D

½IES (EE) 1997
56. The loop-transfer function GH of a control system is given by
K
GH ¼
sðs þ 1Þðs þ 2Þðs þ 3Þ
Which of the following statements regarding the conditions of the system root loci diagram is/
are correct?
1. There will be four asymptotes.
2. There will be three separate root loci.
3. Asymptotes will intersect at real axis at A ¼ 2=3.
Which of the follwing is the correct answer?
(a) 1 alone (b) 2 alone
(c) 3 alone (d) 1, 2 and 3
½IES (EE) 1998
57. Match List-I with List-II in respect of the open-loop transfer function
K ðs þ 10Þðs2 þ 20s þ 500Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 20Þðs þ 50Þðs2 þ 4s þ 5Þ
and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Types of loci) List II (Numbers)

A. Separate loci 1. one
B. Loci on the real axis 2. two
C. Asymptotes 3. three
D. Break-away points 4. five
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
½IES (EE) 1999
58. If the characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is
K
1þ ¼0
the centroid of the asymptotes in root-locus will be:

(a) Zero (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 2
½IES (EE) 1999
59. The characteristic equation of a linear control system is s2 þ 5Ks þ 10 ¼ 0: The root-loci of the
system for 0 < K < 1 is:
jω jω
K=∞
K=0
K=∞ K = ∞ Re K=0 K=0 Re
K=0 K=∞
(a) (b)
jω jω
K=0 K=∞
Re Re
K=∞ K=∞ K=0 K=0
K=0
K=∞
(c) (d)
½IES (EE) 2000

60. The characteristic equation of a feedback control system is given by s3 þ 5s2 þ ðK þ 6Þs þ K ¼ 0:
In a root-loci diagram, the asymptotes of the root loci for large K meet at a point in the s-plane,
whose coordinates are:
(a) (2, 0) (b) (1, 0)
(c) (2, 0) (d) (3, 0)
½IES (EE) 2001
61. Which of the following are the characteristics of the root locus of
K ðs þ 5Þ
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
1. It has one asymptote. 2. It has intersection with jv-axis.
3. It has two real axis intersection. 4. It has two zeros at infinity.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
½IES (EE) 2002
Chapter 7
1. A system is described by

0 1 0
X¼ xþ u and Y ¼ ½1 0x
2 3 1
The transfer function is:
1 1
(a) 2 (b)
s þ 2s þ 3 þ 3s þ 1
2s2
1 1
(c) 2 (d) 2
s þ 3s þ 2 3s þ 2s þ 1
[IAS 1995]
2. Consider the single-input system described by the vector-matrix state equation ¼ A ðtÞ þ BuðtÞ;
and the output equation YðtÞ ¼ CðtÞ, where ðtÞ is the state vector, u(t) is the control input and

0 1 0
A¼ ; B¼ ; C ¼ ½1 1
1 2 1
The system is:
(a) Controllable and observable (b) Controllable but unobservable
(c) Uncontrollable but observable (d) Uncontrollable and unobservable
[IAS 1995]
3. Which of the following systems is completely state controllable?

X1 1 0 x1 2 X1 1 0 x1 2
(a) ¼ þ u (b) ¼ þ u
X2 0 2 x2 1 X2 0 2 x2 0

X1 1 0 x1 1 X1 0 0 x1 2
(c) ¼ þ u (d) ¼ þ u
X2 0 1 x2 0 X2 2 2 x2 2
[IAS 1996]
4. A control system is represented as x ¼ AX þ BU, y ¼ CX. Consider the following statements in
this regard:
1. The pair (AB) is controllable implies that the pair (ATBT) is observable.
2. The condition of controllability depends on the matrices A and B of the system.
3. The pair (AC) is observable implies that the pair (ATCT) is controllable.
[IAS 1997]
5. The state representation for a second-order system is given by X1 ¼ x1 þ u, X2 ¼ x1 2x2 þ u.
Consider the following statements regarding the above systems:
1. The system is completely state-controllable.
2. If x1 is the output, then the system is output controllable.
3. If x2 is the output, then the system is output controllable.
Of these statement:
[IAS 1997]
6. Given a system represented by equation

0 1 0
X¼ xþ u; Y ¼ ½ 1 0 x
2 3 1
The equivalent transfer function representation G(s) of the system is:
1 1
(a) GðsÞ ¼ 2 (b) GðsÞ ¼ 2
s þ 5s þ 2 s þ 3s þ 2
3 2
(c) GðsÞ ¼ 2 (d) GðsÞ ¼ 2
s þ 3s þ 2 s þ 2s þ 2 [IES 1993]
7. A nonlinear system cannot be analyzed by Laplace transform because:
(a) It has no zero initial conditions.
(b) The superposition’s law cannot be applied.
(c) Nonlinearity is generally not well defined.
(d) All of the above. [IES 1992]
8. Which of the following statements regarding the state transition matrix is correct?
(a) fð0Þ ¼ 0 (b) fð0Þ ¼ 0 ¼ fð1=tÞ
(c) fðt1 þ t2 Þ ¼ fðt1 Þ þ fðt2 Þ (d) fðt1 t2 Þfðt1 t0 Þ ¼ fðt2 t0 Þ
[IAS 2000]
9. A system G(s) is expressed in the state variable form as x ¼ JX þ Bu, y ¼ CX þ Du. Consider the
following statements with regard to the properties of Jordan canonical matrix J.
1. The diagonal elements of J are poles of G(s).
2. All the elements below the principal diagonal are zeros.
3. All the elements above the principal diagonal are zeros.
Among these statements:
(a) 1 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 alone is correct (d) 3 alone is correct
[IAS 1999]
10. For
2 3
sþ6 1
6 s þ 6s þ 5
2 s2 þ 6s þ 5 7
fðsÞ ¼ 6
4
7
5
5 s
s2 þ 6s þ 5 s2 þ 6s þ 5
the coefficient matrix A is:

6 5 5 5
(a) (b)
6 0 0 6

6 0 0 1
(c) (d)
5 6 5 6
[IAS 1998]
11. A linear second-order single-input continuous time system is described by the following set of
differential equations:
X1 ¼ 2x1 þ 4x2, X2 ¼ 2x1 x2 u(t)
where x1 and x2 are state variables and u(t) is the input. The system is:
(a) Controllable and stable (b) Controllable but unstable
(b) Uncontrollable and unstable (d) Uncontrollable but stable
[IAS 1998]
12. The second-order system X ¼ AX has

1 1
A¼
1 0
The values of its damping factor x and natural frequency on are respectively:
(a) 1 and 1 (b) 0.5 and 1
(c) 0.707 and 2 (d) 1 and 2
[IES 1996]
13. Which of the following properties are associated with the state transition matrix (t)?
1. fðtÞ ¼ f1 ðtÞ
2. fðt1 =t2 Þ ¼ fðt1 Þ f1 ðt2 Þ
3. fðt1 þ t2 Þ ¼ fðt2 Þ fðt1 Þ
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
[IES 1996]
14. The state variable description of a single-input single-output linear system is given by: XðtÞ ¼
AXðtÞ þ buðtÞ and yðtÞ ¼ CXðtÞ; where

1 1 0
A¼ ; B¼ ; C ¼ ½ 1 1
2 0 1
The system is:
(a) Controllable and observable (b) Controllable but on observable
(c) Uncontrollable but observable (d) Uncontrollable and unobservable
[IES 1996]
15. A system is described by state equation

X1 2 0 x1 1
¼ þ u
X2 0 2 x2 1
The state transition matrix of the system is:
2t
e 1 e2t 0
(a) (b)
0 e2t 0 et
2t 2t
e 1 e 1
(c) (d)
0 e2t 0 e2t
[IES 1994]
16. The state equation of a system is

0 1 0
X¼ Xþ u
20 9 1
The poles of this system are located at:
(a) 1, 9 (b) 1, 20
(c) 4, 5 (d) 9, 20
[IES 1995]
17. The system matrix of a continuous-time system, described in the state variable form, is
2 3
x 0 0
4
A¼ 0 y 1 5
0 1 2
The system is stable for all values of x and y satisfying:
1 1 1
(a) x < ; y > (b) x > ; y > 0
2 2 2
1
(c) x < 0; y < 2 (d) x < 0; y <
2 [IES 1993]
18. The state representation of a second-order system is x1 ¼ x1 þ u, x2 ¼ x1 2x2 þ u. Consider the
following statements regarding the above system:
1. The system is completely state controllable.
2. If x1 is the output, then the system is completely output controllable.
Of these statements
[IES 1993]
19. The state space representation of a system is given by:

1 0 1 1
X¼ Xþ u and Y ¼ X
0 2 0 1
Then the transfer function of the system is:

1 1
(a) 2 (b)
s þ 3s þ 2 sþ2
s 1
(c) 2 (d)
s þ 3s þ 2 sþ1 [IES 2003]
20. Consider the following statements with respect to a system represented by its state space model X ¼
AX þ BU and Y ¼ CX:
1. The static vector X of the system is unique.
2. The eigen values of A are the poles of the system transfer function.
3. The minimum number of state variables required is equal to the number of independent energy
storage elements in the system.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3
[IES 2003]
21. A certain linear time invariant system has the state and the output equations given below:

X1 1 1 x1 0 x
¼ þ u; Y ¼ ½1 1 1
X2 0 1 x2 1 x2

If x1 ð0Þ ¼ 1; x2 ð0Þ ¼ 1; uð0Þ ¼ 0 then dy
dt t¼0 is:
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) None of above
[GATE 1997]
22. A linear discrete-time system has the characteristic equation z3 0.81z ¼ 0. The system:
(a) Is stable
(b) Is marginally stable
(c) Is unstable
(d) Stability cannot be accessed from the given information
[GATE 1992]
23. A linear time-invariant system is described by the state variable model

X1 1 0 x1 0 x
¼ þ u ½1 2 1
X2 0 2 x2 1 x2
(a) The system is completely controllable.

(b) The system is not completely controllable.
(c) The system is not completely observable.
(d) The system is not completely observation.
[GATE 1992]
24. A linear second-order single-input continuous time system is described by the following set of
differential equations:
X1 ðtÞ ¼ 2x1 ðtÞ þ 4x2 ðtÞ; X2 ðtÞ ¼ 2x1 ðtÞ x2 ðtÞ þ 4ðtÞ
where x1 ðtÞ and x2 ðtÞ are the state variables and u(t) is the control variable. The system is:
(a) Controlled and stable (b) Controlled but unstable
(c) Uncontrolled and unstable (d) Uncontrolled but stable
[GATE 1992]
25. A system described by

X1 0 1 x1
¼
X2 1 1 x2
To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method, the following V-functions are considered:
V1 ¼ 2x12 þ x22 ; V2 ¼ x12 þ x22
Which of these V-functions are suitable in this case?
(a) Only V1 (b) Only V2
(c) Both V1 and V2 (d) Neither V1 nor V2
[IES 1993]
26. The transfer function of a zero-order-hold system is:
(a) ð1=sÞ ð1 þ esT Þ (b) ð1=sÞ ð1 esT Þ
(c) 1 ð1=sÞesT (d) 1 þ ð1=sÞesT
[GATE 1998]
27. Given

1 0
A¼
0 1
the state transition matrix eAt is given by:

0 et et 0
(a) t (b)
e 0 0 et

et 0 0 et
(c) (d)
0 et et 0
[GATE 2004]
28. The state variable equations of a system are X1 ¼ 3x1 x2 þ u; X2 ¼ 2x1 ; Y ¼ x1 þ u: The
system is:
(a) Controllable but not observable (b) Observable but not controllable
(c) Neither controllable nor observable (d) Controllable and observable
[GATE 2004]
29. The zero-input response of a system given by the state-space equation

x1 1 0 x1 x1 ð0Þ 1
¼ and ¼
x2 1 1 x2 x2 ð0Þ 0
is
t
te t e
(a) (b)
t t
t
e t
(c) (d)
te t te t
[GATE 2003]
30. The transfer function y(s)/u(s) of a system described by the state equations xðtÞ ¼ 2xðtÞ þ 2uðtÞ
and yðtÞ ¼ 0:5xðtÞ is:
0:5 1
(a) (b)
s2 s2
0:5 1
(c) (d)
sþ2 sþ2 [GATE 2002]
31. For the system described by the state equation
2 3 2 3
0 1 0 0
x ¼ 4 0 0 1 5x þ 4 0 5u
0:5 1 2 1
If the control signal u is given by u ¼ ½0:5 3 5x þ v; the eigen values of the closed-loop
system will be:
(a) 0, 1, 2 (b) 0, 1, 3
(c) 1, 1, 2 (d) 0, 1, 1
[GATE 1999]
32. The system model described by the state equations is

0 1 0
X¼ xþ u; Y ¼ ½1 1x
2 3 1
(a) Controllable and observable (b) Controllable but not observable
(c) Observable but not controllable (d) Neither controllable nor observable
[GATE 1999]
33. A system is described by a state equation X ¼ AX þ BU. The output is given by Y ¼ CX, where

4 1 1
A¼ ; B¼ ; C ¼ ½1 0
3 1 1
Transfer function G(s) of the system is:
s 1
(a) 2 (b)
s þ 5s þ 7 s2 þ 5s þ 7
s 1
(c) (d)
s2 þ 3s þ 2 s2 þ 3s þ 2 [GATE 1995]
34. The eigen values of the matrix

a 1
a 1
are:
(a) ða þ 1Þ; 0 (b) a; 0
(c) ða 1Þ; 0 (d) 0; 0
[GATE 1994]
35. The matrix of any state-space equations for the transfer function CðsÞ=RðsÞ of the system, shown in
Figure P7.17, is

1 0 0 1
(a) (b)
0 1 0 1
(c) ½1 (d) ½3

[GATE 1994]
36. The transfer function for the state variable representation X ¼ AX þ Bu, Y ¼ CX þ Du is
given by:
(a) D þ CðsI AÞ1 B (b) BðsI AÞ1 C þ D
(c) DðsI AÞ1 B þ C (d) CðsI AÞ1 D þ B
[GATE 1993]
37. Consider a seconds order system whose state-space representation is of the form X ¼ AX þ Bu. If
x1 ðtÞ ¼ x2 ðtÞ, the system is:
(a) Controllable (b) Uncontrollable
(c) Observable (d) Unstable
[GATE 1993]
38. A linear system is described by the following state equation XðtÞ ¼ AXðtÞ þ BUðtÞ; where

0 1
A¼
1 0
The state-transition matrix of the system is:

cos t sin t cos t sin t
(a) (b)
sin t cos t sin t cos t

cos t sin t cos t sin t
(c) (d)
sin t cos t cos t sin t
[GATE 2006]
39. A system with input x[n] and output y[n] is given as

5
y½n ¼ sin pn x½n
6
The system is:
(a) Linear, stable and invertible (b) Nonlinear, stable and non-invertible
(c) Linear, stable and non-invertible (d) Linear, unstable and invertible
[GATE 2006]
40. The eigen value of the system represented by
2 3
0 1 0 0
60 0 1 07
X¼6 40 0
7X
0 15
0 0 0 1
are:
(a) 0, 0, 0, 0 (b) 1, 1, 1, 1
(c) 0, 0, 0, 1 (d) 1, 0, 0, 0
[GATE 2002]
41. For the system

2 3 1
X¼ Xþ u
0 5 0
which of the following statements is true?
(a) The system is controllable but unstable(b) The system is uncontrollable and unstable
(c) The system is controllable and stable (d) The system is uncontrollable and stable
[GATE 2002]
42. The equation in Objective Question 41 may be organized in the state-space form as follows
2 2 3
d o " #
6 dt2 7 do
6 7
4 do 5 ¼ P dt þ QVa
o
dt
where the P matrix is given by:
2 3 2 3
B K 2 K 2 B
6 LJ 7 6 J 7
(a) 4 J 5 (b) 4 LJ 5
1 0 0 1
2 3 2 3
0 1 1 0
(c) 4 K 2 B 5 (d) 4 B K 2 5
LJ J J LJ
[GATE 2003]
43. The state transition matrix for the system X ¼ AX with initial state X(0) is:
(a) ðsI AÞ1 (b) eAt ð0Þ
(c) Laplace inverse of ðsI AÞ1 (d) Laplace inverse of ðsI AÞ1 ð0Þ
[GATE 2002]
44. The state variable description of a linear autonomous system is X ¼ AX, where X is the
two-dimensional state vector, and A is the system matrix given by

0 2
A¼
2 0
The roots of the characteristic equation are:
(a) 2 and þ2 (b) j2 and þj2
(c) 2 and 2 (d) þ2 and þ2
[GATE 2004]
45. For the matrix
2 3
3 2 2
P ¼ 40 2 15
0 0 1
one of the eigen values is equal to 2. Which of the following is an eigen vector?
2 3 2 3
3 3
(a) 4 2 5 (b) 4 2 5
1 1
2 3 2 3
1 2
(c) 4 2 5 (d) 4 5 5
3 0
[GATE 2005]
46. If
2 3
1 0 1
R ¼ 42 1 1 5
2 3 2
then the top view of R1 is:
(a) ½ 5 6 4 (b) ½ 5 3 1
(c) ½ 2 0 1 (d) ½ 2 1 1=2
[GATE 2005]
47. For a system with the transfer function

3ðs 2Þ
HðsÞ ¼
4s2 2s þ 1
the matrix A in the state-space form X ¼ AX þ Bu is equal to:
2 3 2 3
1 0 0 0 1 0
(a) 4 0 1 05 (b) 4 0 0 15
1 2 4 1 2 4
2 3 2 3
0 1 0 1 0 0
(c) 4 3 2 15 (d) 4 0 0 15
1 2 4 1 2 4
[GATE 2006]
48. A linear system is described by the state equations

X1 1 0 x1 0
¼ þ r; C ¼ x2
X2 1 1 x2 1
where r and C are the input and output respectively. The transfer function is:
1 1
(a) (b)
sþ1 ðs þ 1Þ2
1 1
(c) (d)
s1 ðs 1Þ2
[IES 1997]
49. Consider the following state equations for a discrete system:

x1 K þ 1 1=2 0 x1 ðK Þ 1
¼ þ uðK Þ;
x2 K þ 1 1=4 1=4 x2 ðK Þ 1

x1 ðK Þ
yðK Þ ¼ ½ 1 1 4uðK Þ
x2 ðK Þ
The system given above is:
(a) Controllable and observable (b) uncontrollable and unobservable
(c) Uncontrollable and observable (d) Controllable and unobservable
[IES 1997]
50. The state and output equations of a system are as under:

x1 ðtÞ 0 1 x1 ðtÞ 0
State equation : ¼ þ uðtÞ
x2 ðtÞ 1 2 x2 ðtÞ 1

x ðtÞ
Output equation : CðtÞ ¼ ½ 1 1 1
x2 ðtÞ
The system is:

a. Neither state controllable nor output controllable
b. State controllable but not output controllable
c. Output controllable but not state controllable
d. Both state controllable and output controllable
[IES 1998]
51. A linear time-invariant system is described by the following dynamic equation:

dxðtÞ
¼ AxðtÞ þ BuðtÞ; yðtÞ ¼ CsðtÞ
dt
where

0 1 0
A¼ ; B¼ ; C ¼ ½1 1
2 3 1
The system is:
(a) Both controllable and observable (b) Controllable, but not observable
(c) Observable, but not controllable (d) None of the above
[IES 2002]
52. The state-space representation in a phase-variable form for the transfer function
2s þ 1
GðsÞ ¼
s2 þ 7s þ 9
is
0 1 0 1 0 0
(a) x ¼ xþ u; y ¼ ½ 1 2 x (b) x ¼ xþ u; y ¼ ½ 0 1 x
9 7 1 9 7 1

9 0 0 9 7 0
(c) x ¼ xþ u; y ¼ ½ 2 0 x (d) x ¼ xþ u; y ¼ ½ 1 2 x
0 7 1 1 0 1
[IES 2002]
53. The asymptotic approximation of the log magnitude versus frequency plot of a minimum phase
system with real poles and one zero is shown in Figure P7.18.
dB
–40 dB/dec
54
–60 dB/dec
–40 dB/dec
–60 dB/dec
0.1 2 5 25 rad/sec
Figure P7.18 Closed-loop poles and response: a. stable system; b. unstable system.
Its transfer function is:

(a) (b)
sðs þ 2Þ ðs þ 25Þ ðs þ 2Þ2 ðs þ 25Þ
(c) (d)
s2 ðs þ 2Þ ðs þ 25Þ s2 ðs þ 2Þ ðs þ 25Þ
[GATE (EE) 2001]
54. The Bode plot shown in Figure P7.19 has GðjoÞ as:
100 100
(a) (b)
joð1 þ j0:5oÞð1 þ j0:1oÞ joð2 þ joÞð10 þ joÞ
10 10
(c) (d)
joð1 þ 2joÞð1 þ 10joÞ joð1 þ 0:5joÞð1þ0:1joÞ
[IES (EE) 1999]

55. The system, with the Bode magnitude plot, shown in Figure P7.20, has the transfer function:
1
60 x (t) s+1 y (t)
40
20
ω
0 0.01 0.05 0.1

60ðs þ 0:01Þðs þ 0:1Þ 10ð1 þ 10sÞ

(a) (b)
s2 ðs þ 0:05Þ2 sð1 þ 20sÞ
3ðs þ 0:05Þ 5ðs þ 0:1Þ

(c) (d)
sðs þ 0:1Þðs þ 1Þ sðs þ 0:05Þ
[GATE (EE) 1991]
56. A system has 14 poles and 2 zeros. The slope of its highest frequency asymptote in its magnitude
plot is:
(a) 40 dB=decade (b) 240 dB=decade
(c) 280 dB=decade (d) 320 dB=decade
[IES (EE) 2000]
57. Consider the Bode-magnitude plot shown in Figure P7.21.
The transfer function HðsÞ is:

sþ10 10ðsþ1Þ
(a) (b)
ðsþ1Þðs þ 100Þ ðsþ1Þðs þ 100Þ
102 ðsþ1Þ 103 ðsþ100Þ
(c) (d)
ðsþ10Þðs þ 100Þ ðsþ1Þðs þ 10Þ
[GATE (EC) 2004]
58. In the Bode plot of a unity-feedback control system, the value of phase of G(jo) at the gain crossover
frequency is 125 , the phase margin of the system is:
(a) 125 (b) 55
(c) 55 (d) 125
[GATE (EC) 1998]
59. Non-minimum phase-transfer function is defined as the transfer function, which has:
(a) Zeros in the right-hand s-plane (b) Zeros only in the right-half s-plane
(c) Poles in the right-half s-plane (d) Poles in the left-half s-plane
[GATE (EC) 1995]
60. The 3-dB bandwidth of a typical second-order system given by with the transfer function
CðsÞ o2n
¼ 2
RðsÞ s tþ2xon sþo2n
is
qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi rffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
(a) on ¼ 1 2x2 (b) on ¼ ð1 2x Þþ x4 x2 þ1
2
rffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi rffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
(c) on ¼ ð1 2x2 Þþ 4x4 4x2 þ2 (d) on ¼ ð1 2x2 Þþ 4x4 4x2 þ 2
[GATE (EC) 1994]
61. The log-magnitude Bode plot of non-minimum system is shown in Figure P7.22.
Its transfer function is given by:

s 10 s þ 10
(a) GðsÞ ¼ (b) GðsÞ ¼
s þ 100 s 100
s 10 s þ 10
(c) GðsÞ ¼ (d) GðsÞ ¼
1 100 s þ 100
[IES (EC) 1997]
62. For the minimum phase system to be stable:

(a) Phase margin should be negative and gain margin should be positive.
(b) Phase margin should be positive and gain margin should be negative.
(c) Both phase margin and gain margin should be positive.
(d) Both phase margin and gain margin should be negative.
[IES (EC) 2005]
63. With negative feedback in a closed-loop control system, the system sensitivity to parameter
variations:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Becomes zero (d) Becomes infinite
[IES (EC) 2005]
64. Consider the following statements regarding the frequency response of a system as shown in Figure
P7.23
1. The type of the system is one.
2. o3 ¼ static error coefficient (numerically).
3. o2 ¼ ðo1 þ o2 Þ=2:
Magnitude (db)
20 db/dec
40 db/dec
0 ω1 ω2 ω3
log

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
[IES (EC) 2003]
65. A system with zero initial conditions has the closed-loop transfer function
s2 þ 4
T ð sÞ ¼
ðsþ1Þðsþ4Þ
The system output is zero at frequency:
(a) 0.5 rad/sec (b) 1 rad/sec
(c) 2 rad/sec (d) 4 rad/sec
[GATE (EE) 2001]
66. The forward-path transfer function of a unity-feedback system is given by

100
GðsÞ ¼
s2 þ10sþ100
The frequency response of the system will exhibit the resonance peak at:
(a) 10 rad/s (b) 8.66 rad/s
(c) 7.07 rad/s (d) 5 rad/s
[IES (EC) 2004]
67. A second-order overall transfer function is given by
4
s2 þ2sþ4
Its resonant frequency is:
pffiffiffi
(a)p
2ffiffiffi (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 3
[IES (EC) 1997]
68. Consider the following statements associated with phase and gain margins:
1. They are a measure of closeness of the polar plot to the 1 þ j0 point.

2. For a non-minimum phase to be stable, it must have positive phase and gain margins.
3. For a minimum phase system to be stable, both the margin must be positive.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 alone
[IES (EC) 2002]
69. An open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system has two finite zeros, two poles at
origin and two pairs of complex conjugate poles. The slope of high-frequency asymptote in a Bode
magnitude plot will be
(a) þ40 dB/decade (b) 0 dB/decade
(c) 40 dB/decade (d) 80 dB/decade
[IES (EC) 2001]
70. The phase angle for the transfer function
1
GðsÞ ¼
ð1þsT Þ3
at the corner frequency is
(a) 458 (b) 908
(c) 1358 (d) 2708
[IES (EC) 1998]
List I (Transfer functions) List II (Description)
1 s
A. 1. Non-minimum phase system
1þs
1þs
B. 2. Minimum phase system
ð1þsÞð1 þ 2sÞð1 þ 3sÞ
1 3s
C. 3. All phase system
ð1 þ 4sÞð1 þ 2sÞð1þsÞ
Codes A B C A B C
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3
[IES (EC) 1995]
72. What is the slope change at o ¼ 10 of the magnitude vs. frequency characteristic of a unity-feedback
system with the following open-loop transfer function?
5ð1þj0:1oÞ
GðjoÞ ¼
joð1þj0:5oÞ 1þj0:6ðo=50Þþðjo=50Þ2
(a) 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec (b) 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec

(c) 20 dB/dec to 40 dB/dec (d) 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec
[IES (EC) 1995]
73. The magnitude plot for a minimum phase function is shown in the given Figure P7.24.
The phase plot for this function:

(a) Cannot be uniquely determined
(b) Will be monotonically increasing from 08 to 1808
(c) Will be monotonically decreasing from 1808 to 08

(d) Will be monotonically decreasing from 1808 to 908
[IES (EC) 1995]
74. For the second-order transfer function
4
T ð sÞ ¼
s2 þ 2s þ 4
the maximum resonance peak will be:

pffiffiffi
(a) 4 (b) 4=p3ffiffiffi
(c) 2 (d) 2= 3
[IES (EC) 1994]
75. A linear state time-invariant system is forced with an input xðtÞ ¼ A sin ot under steady-state
conditions (see Figure P7.25),
x(t) G(s) y(t)
the output y(t) of the system will be:

(a) A sin ðot þ xÞ; where x ¼ tan1 jGðjoÞj (b) jGðjoÞjA sin½ot þ ffGðjoÞ
(c) jGðjoÞjA sin½2ot þ ffGðjoÞ (d) AGðjoÞ sin½ot þ ffGðjoÞ
[IES (EC) 1993]
76. Consider the following statements with regard to the bandwidth of a closed-loop system:
1. In a system, where the low-frequency magnitude is 0 dB on the Bode diagram, the bandwidth is
measured at the 3-dB frequency.
2. The bandwidth of the closed-loop control system is a measurement of the range of fidelity of
response of the systems.
3. The speed of response to a step input is proportional to the bandwidth.
4. The system with the larger bandwidth provides a slower step response and lower fidelity ramp
response.
Which of the statements give above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
[IES (EE) 2005]
77. The Bode phase angle plot of a system is shown in Figure P7.26.
The type of the system is:

(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
[IES (EE) 2003]
78. Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode plot, as shown in Figure P7.27?
1 s 1
(a) G ¼ (b) G ¼
1þ s ð1þ sÞ2
1 1
(c) G ¼ 2 (d) G ¼
s sð1þ sÞ
0 db
ω =1
90°
–180°
ω=1
[IES (EE) 1993]

79. The Bode plot of the transfer function GðsÞ ¼ s is:
(a) Zero magnitude and phase shift
(b) Constant magnitude and constant phase-shift angle
(c) 20 dB/decade and phase shift of p=2
(d) 20 dB/decade and constant phase-shift angle
[IES (EE) 1992]
80. A minimum phase unity-feedback system has a Bode plot with a constant slope of 20 dB/decade for
all frequencies. What is the value of the maximum phase margin for the system?
(a) 08 (b) 908
(c) 908 (d) 1808
[IES (EE) 2004]
81. A decade frequency range is specified by:

(a) o1 =o2 ¼ 2 (b) o1 =o2 ¼ 10
(c) o1 =o2 ¼ 8 (d) None of the above
[IES (EE) 1992]
82. Which one of the following is the minimum phase transfer function corresponds to Bode magnitude
plot, as shown in the Figure P7.28?
Magnitude
20 db/dec
ω =2 Frequency
1
(a) (b) 2s þ 1
2sþ1
1 1
(c) (d) sþ1
ðs=2Þ þ 1 2 [IAS 2004]
83. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given as

1
GðsÞ ¼
sþ1
The bandwidth for this system, under open-loop and closed-loop operations, are respectively:
(a) 0.5 andp
1.0
ffiffiffiffiffiffirad/s
ffi (b) 1.0 and 0.5 rad/s
(c)1.0 and 2:0 (d) 2.0 and 1.0 rad/s
[IAS 2004]
84. The magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown in Figure P7.29. What is the steady-state error
corresponding to a unit-step input?

(a) 1=101 (b) 1=100
(c) 1=41 (d) 1=40
[IES (EC) 1995]
85. Loop gain versus phase plot is known as:
(a) Nyquist plot (b) Bode plot
(c) Nichol’s chart (d) Inverse Nyquist plot
[IAS 2002]
86. The transfer function of a system is given by
k 1
GðjoÞ ; k<
ðjoÞðjoTþ1Þ T
Which one of the following (Figure P7.30) is the Bode plot of this function?

[IES (EE) 1998]
87. The frequency response for a network function H(s) is given in Figure P7.31.
|H( j ω)| db
20
–20 db/dec
ω (rad/s)
H(s) is given by:

s 10s
(a) (b)
sþ1 sþ1
10 1
(c) (d)
sþ1 sðsþ1Þ [IAS 2003]
88. Consider the following statements regarding the transfer function G(s) plotted in Figure P7.32:
20 log10 |G( j ω )|
40
20
0.1 1 10 100 ω (rad)
1. G(s) has corner frequencies at o ¼ 0:1, 1 and 10.

100ðsþ1Þ
2. GðsÞ ¼ :
sðsþ10Þ
3. The magnitude of 20 log10 jGðjoÞj at o ¼ 1000 is 20 dB.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
[IAS 2000]
89. The magnitude of a transfer function is shown in Figure P7.33.
db –6 db/octane
6 db
–6 db/octane
0.1 2 10 ω 2 (log scale)
The transfer function in question is:

s
s
4 1þ 4s 1þ
(a)
2 2
s (b) s
s 1þ 1þ
10 10
4ð1 þ 2sÞ 4sð1 þ 2sÞ
(c) (d)
sð1 þ 10sÞ 1 þ 10s
[IES (EC) 1998]
90. Straight line asymptotic Bode-magnitude plot for a certain system is shown in Figure P7.34.
What will be its transfer function?
db
4 10
0
ω
20 db/dec –40 db/dec

s
4s 4 1þ
(a)
4
s
s 2
(b)
s 2
1þ 1þ 1þ
4 10 10
0:25 0:25s
(c)
s
s (d)
s
s 2
1þ 1þ 1þ 1þ [IAS 1997]
4 10 4 10
91. Bode plots of an open-loop transfer function of a control system are shown in Figure P7.35.
Gain
(db)
0 K ω
Phase
(degrees)
90°
180°
ω
270°
The gain margin of the system is:
(a) K (b) K
(c) 1=K (d) 1=K
[IAS 1996]
92. For asymptotic Bode plot (dB versus log) of a transfer function with a factor of the form
1
s2 þ2xon sþs2n
the corner frequency, slope in dB/dec and error at the corner frequency will be respectively
(a) xon , þ 40 and error is x dependent
(b) on , 40 and error x is dependent
(c) xon , þ20 and 3 dB
(d) on , 20 and þdB
[IAS 1994]
93. GA ðjoÞ,GB ðjoÞ and Gc ðjoÞ are three transfer functions whose phase variations are shown in
Figure P7.36. The magnitude variation with respect to frequency is the same for both GA ðjoÞ and
Gc ðjoÞ; but the phase variation is as indicated by the curves labeled A and C in the figure. The
transfer function GB ðjoÞ is such that xC ðjoÞ ¼ xA ðjoÞ þ wB ðjoÞ:
GA, GB and GC are respectively:

(a) Minimum-phase, all pass and non-minimum phase functions
(b) Minimum-phase, non-minimum phase and all pass functions
(c) All-pass, minimum phase and non-minimum phase functions
(d) All-pass, non-minimum phase and minimum phase functions
[IAS 1994]
94. In the system shown in Figure P7.37, r ðtÞ ¼ sin o t:
r(t) + 16 c(t)
s(s + 4)
-
The steady-state response, c(t), will exhibit a resonance peak at a frequency of:
pffiffiffi
(a) 4 rad=s (b) p
2 ffiffiffi2 rad=s
(c) 2 rad=s (d) 2 rad=s
[IAS 1993]
95. A system has 12 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of:
(a) 200 dB/decade (b) 240 dB/decade
(c) 280 dB/decade (d) 320 dB/decade
½IES (EC) 1992
96. The root-locus of a unity-feedback system is shown in Figure P7.38. The open-loop transfer function
of the system is:
K K ðs þ 1Þ
(a) (b)
sðs þ 1Þðs þ 3Þ sðs þ 3Þ
K ðs þ 3Þ Ks
(c) (d)
sðs þ 1Þ ðs þ 1Þðs þ 3Þ
Im
s-plane
−3 −2 −1

½IES (EE) 1999
97. The Nyquist plot of an open-loop system with the transfer function
sþ2
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
ðs þ 1Þðs 1Þ
will be of the form:
2 2
(a) (b)
2 2
(c) (d)
½IAS 1994
98. The Nyquist plot of an open-loop stable system is shown in Figure P7.39. If (1, 0) point is as
indicated in the figure, then the closed loop system will be:
(a) Unstable with two RHP poles (b) Stable
(c) Unstable with one pole in RHP (d) Unstable with three poles in RHP
ω = 0−
(−1, 0)
ω=∞
+
ω=0

½IAS 1995
List I (Nyquist plot) List II (Transfer function)
A. K
1.
ð1 þ sT1 Þð1 þ sT2 Þ
K
B. 2.
ð1 þ sT1 Þð1 þ sT2 Þð1 þ sT3 Þ
K
C. 3.
1 þ sT1
K
D. 4.
sð1 þ sT1 Þ
(a) 4 3 1 5 (b) 3 1 2 5
(c) 4 1 2 5 (d) 1 2 3 4
½IAS 1995
100. Consider the following Nyquist plot (Figure P7.40). The feedback system will be stable, if and only if
the critical point lies in the region:
(a) I (OP) (b) II (PQ)
(c) III (QR) (d) IV (R to minus infinity)
½IES (EC) 1998
101. The gain margin of a unity-negative feedback system having forward-transfer function
K
sðsT þ 1Þ
is
(a) Infinity (b) KT
(c) 1 (d) Zero
½IAS 2001
102. The Nyquist plot of a system passes through the (1, j0) point in the GH plane. The phase margin of
the system is:
(a) >0 (b) Zero
(c) <0 (d) Infinite
½IAS 2002
103. The 3-dB cut-off frequency of a first-order low-pass filter is oc . If the input signal is 0.5 sin oc t; the
output will have a phase shift of:
(a) 45 (b) 90
(c) 45 (d) 90
½IAS 2004
104. Consider the following statements:

1. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
2. Bode plot is in frequency domain.
3. Root-locus plot is in time domain.
4. Routh Hermitz’s criterion is in time domain.
Which of the following is correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1 and 2 are correct. (d) All four are correct.
½IES (EE) 1992
105. The advantages of the Nyquist stability test are:

(a) It guides in stabilizing an unstable system.
(b) It enables to predict closed-loop stability from open-loop results.
(c) It is applicable to experimental results of frequency response to open-loop system.
½IES (EE) 1992
106. Which of the following is used for the Nyquist plot?

(a) Pole zero plot (b) Closed-loop function
(c) Open-loop function (d) Characteristic equation
½IES (EE) 1992
107. The constant M-circles corresponding to the magnitude (M) of the closed-loop transfer of a linear
system for values of M greater than one lie in the G-plane and to the:
(a) Right of the M = 1 line (b) Left of the M = 1 line
(c) Upper side of the M = +j1 line (d) Lowe side of the M = j1 line
½IES (EE) 1992
108. Consider the Nyquist diagram (Figure P7.41) for given KG(s)H(s). The transfer function KG(s)H(s)
has no poles and zeros in the right half of the plane. If (1, j0) point is located first in region I and then
in region II, the change in stability of the system will be from:
(a) Unstable to stable (b) Stable to stable
(c) Unstable to unstable (d) Stable to unstable
Im
Real

½IES (EE) 2002
109. The Nyquist plot (Figure P7.42) of a control system is shown below. For this system, H(s) is equal to:
K K
(a) (b)
sð1 þ sT1 Þ s2 ð1 þ sT1 Þ
K K
(c) 3 (d)
s ð1 þ sT1 Þð1 þ sT2 Þ s2 ð1 þ sT1 Þð1 þ sT2 Þ
½IES (EE) 2003
110. The Nyquist plot for the closed-loop control system with the loop transfer function
100
sðs þ 10Þ
is plotted. Then the critical point (1, j0) is:
(a) Never enclosed (b) Enclosed under certain conditions
(c) Just touched (d) Enclosed
½IES (EE) 2004
111. Consider the following Nyquist of a feedback system having open-transfer function
sþ1
GHðsÞ ¼ 2
s ðs 2Þ
as shown in Figure P7.42. What is then number of closed-loop poles in the right half of the s-plane?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
½IES (EE) 2004
112. Consider the following statements for a counter-clockwise Nyquist path:

1. For a stable closed-loop system, the Nyquist plot of G(s)H(s) should encircle (1, j0) point as many
times as there are poles of G(s)H(s) in the right half of the s-plane, the encirclements, if there are any,
must be made in the counter-clockwise direction.
2. If the loop-gain function G(s)H(s) is a stable function, for a stable closed-loop system is always
stable.
3. If the loop gain function G(s)H(s) is a stable function. For a stable closed-loop system, the Nyquist
plot of G(s)H(s) must not enclose the critical point (1, j0).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) only 3
½IES (EE) 2004
113. Match List I (Nyquist plot of loop-transfer function of a control system) with List II (Gain margin in
dB), and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Does not intersect the axis between 0 and 1. >0
(1, j0)
B. Intersects the negative real axis 2. 1
between 0 and (1, j0)
C. Passes through (1, j0) 3. < 0

D. Encloses (1, j0) 4. 0
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
½IES (EE) 2005
114. The open-loop transfer function of a unity-negative feedback system is

G ð sÞ ¼
The polar plot of the system is:
½IES (EC) 1999

115. The effect of adding poles and zeroes can be determined quickly by:
(a) Nicholas chart (b) Nyquist plot
(c) Bode plot (d) Root locus
½IES (EC) 1992
116. The polar plot of a transfer function passes through the critical point (1, 0). The gain margin is:
(a) Zero (b) 1 dB
(c) 1 dB (d) Infinity
½IES (EE) 1999]
117. The polar plot of

10
GðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þ2
intercepts the real axis at o ¼ o0 . Then, the real parts and o0 are respectively given by:
(a) 5, 1 (b) 2.5, 1
(c) 5, 0.5 (d) 5, 2
½IES (EC) 1992
118. For the transfer function
1
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs þ 1Þð1 þ 0:5sÞ
the phase cross-over frequency is:
(a) 0.5 rad/sec (b) 0.707 rad/sec
(c) 1.732 rad/sec (d) 2 rad/sec
½IES (EC 1993
119. The gain-phase plot of an open-loop transfer function of four different systems labeled A, B, C and
D are shown in Figure P7.43. The correct sequence of the increasing order of stability of the four
systems will be:

(a) A, B, C, D (b) D, C, B, A
(c) B, A, D, C (d) B, C, D, A
½IES (EC) 1994
120. A portion of a polar plot of an open-loop transfer function is shown in Figure P7.44. The phase
margin and gain margin will be respectively:
(a) 30 and0:75 (b) 60 and 0.375
(c) 60 and 0.75 (d) 60 and 1=0:75
Im G(s)H(s)
Unit circle
–0.75
–1
120° Re G(s)H(s)
–0.375
½IES (EC) 1999
121. A unity-feedback system has the following open-loop frequency response.
o j GðjoÞ j ffGðjoÞ
2 7.5 118
3 4.8 130
4 3.15 140
5 2.25 150
6 1.70 157
8 1.00 170
10 0.64 180
The gain margin and phase margin of the system are:

(a) 0 dB, 170 (b) 3.86 dB, 180
(c) 0 dB, 10 (d) 3.86 dB, 10
½IES (EC) 1995
122. The type and order of the system, whose Nyquist plot is shown in Figure P7.45, are respectively:
(a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 2
(c) 0, 2 (d) 2, 1
Im
40
ω→∞ ω=0
Re

½IES (EC) 1995
123. The radius and the center of M circles are given respectively by:

M M2 M2 M
(a) 2 ; ;0 (b) 2 ; ;0
M 1 M2 1 M 1 M2 1

M2 M2 M2 M2
(c) ; ;0 (d) ; ; 0
M1 M1 M2 1 M2 1
½IES (EC) 1996
124. Which one of the following is the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open-loop transfer
function
K
GðjoÞ ¼
ð1 þ joT1 Þð1 þ joT2 Þ
½IES (EC) 1996
125. The constant M circle for M = 1 is the:

(a) Straight line x ¼ 1=2 (b) Critical point (j, j0)
(c) Circle with r = 0.33 (d) Circle with r = 0.67
½IES (EC) 1999
126. Consider the following statements: The gain margin and phase margin of an unstable system may
respectively be:
1. Positive, positive 2. Positive, negative
3. Negative, positive 4. Negative, negative
(a) 1 and 4 are correct. (b) 1 and 2 are correct.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
½IES (EC) 1996
127. The polar plot of an open-loop transfer function of a feedback-control system intersects the real axis
at 2. The gain margin of the system is:
(a) 6 dB (b) 0 dB
(c) 6 dB (d) 40 dB
½IES (EC) 1996
128. Match List I (scientist) with List II (contribution in the area of), and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Bode 1. Asymptotic plots
B. Evans 2. Polar plots
C. Nyquist 3. Root locus techniques

4. Constant M and N plots
Codes: A B C A B C
(a) 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 4 (d) 1 3 2
½IES (EC) 2000
129. The polar plot (for positive frequencies) for the open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback
control system is shown in Figure P7.46. The phase margin and the gain margin of the system are
respectively:
(a) 1508 and 4 (b) 1508 and 3/4
(c) 308 and 4 (d) 30 and 3/4
Im G(jω)
j1
–0.25
–1 1
Re G(jω)
–j1
½IES (EE) 2000
130. Which of the following equations represents the constant magnitude locus in the G-plane for M ¼ 1;
½x-axis in Re G(jo ) and y-axis in Im G(jo )?
(a) x ¼ 0.5 (b) x ¼ 0
(c) x2 þ y2 ¼ 1 (d) ðx þ 1Þ2 þ y2 ¼ 1
½IES (EC) 2000
131. Which of the following features is NOT associated with Nicholas chart?
(a) (0 dB,1808) point on Nicholas chart represents the critical point (1 þ j0).
(b) It is symmetric about1808.
(c) The M loci are centered about (0 dB,1808) point.
(d) The frequency at the intersection of the G(jo ) locus and M ¼ þ3 dB locus give a bandwidth of
the closed-loop system.
½IES (EC) 2000
132. The open-loop transfer function of a system is

K
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
ð1 þ sÞð1 þ 2sÞð1 þ 3sÞ
The phase crossover frequency oc is:
pffiffiffi
(a) 2 (b) p
1 ffiffiffi
(c) Zero (d) 3
½IES (EC) 2001
133. The open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback control system is given as

1
GðsÞ ¼
sð1 þ sT1 Þð1 þ sT2 Þ
The phase crossover frequency and the gain margin are respectively:
1 T1 þ T2 pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi T1 þ T2
(a) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi and (b) T1 T2 and
T1 T2 T1 T2 T1 T2
1 T1 T2 pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi T1 T2
(c) pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi and (d) T1 T2 and
T1 T2 T1 þ T2 T1 þ T2 ½IES (EC) 2001
134. A constant N-circle having center at ð1=2 þ j0Þ in the G-plane, represents the phase angle
equal to:
(a) 180 (b) 90
(c) 45 (d) 0
½IES (EC) 2001
135. The constant M-circle represented by the equation x2 þ 2:25 x þ y2 ¼ 1:125; where x ¼
Re½GðjoÞ and y ¼ Im½GðjoÞ has the value of M equal to:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
½IES (EC) 2001
136. The Nyquist plot of

10
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
s2 ð1 þ 0:5sÞð1 þ sÞ
Will start (o ¼ 1) in the
(a) First quadrant and terminate (o ¼ 0) in the second quadrant
(b) Fourth quadrant and terminate (o ¼ 0) in the second quadrant
(c) Second quadrant and terminate (o ¼ 0) in the third quadrant
(d) Third quadrant and terminate (o ¼ 1) in the first quadrant
½IES (EC) 2002
137. Consider the following statements: Nichol?s chart gives information about:
1. Closed-loop frequency response
2. The value of the peak magnitude of the closed-loop frequency response Mp
3. The frequency at which Mp occurs
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
½IES (EC) 2002
138. Which of the following is the Nyquist diagram for the open-loop transfer function
5
G ð sÞ H ð sÞ ¼ ?
sð1 þ 0:1sÞð1 þ 0:01sÞ
Im Im
−1 Re −1 Re
(a) (b)
Im Im
−1 Re −1 Re
(c) (d)
½IES (EC) 2002

139. The constant N loci represented by the equation x2 þ x þ y2 ¼ 0, where and y ¼ Imj GðjoÞ j is for
the value of phase angle equal to:
(a) 45 (b) 0
(c) þ45 (d) þ90
½IES (EC) 2002
140. Which of the following techniques is utilized to determine the actual point at which the root locus
crosses the imaginary axis?
(a) Nyquist technique (b) Routh–Hurwitz criterion
(c) Nichol?s criterion (d) Bode technique
½IES (EC) 2003
141. Consider the following techniques:
1. Bode plot 2. Nyquist plot
3. Nichol?s plot 4. Routh–Hurwitz criterion
Which of these techniques are used to determine the relative stability of a closed-loop linear system?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
½IES (EC) 2003
142. The transfer function of a certain system is given by
s
GðsÞ ¼
1þs
The Nyquist plot to the system is:
Im G(s) Im G(s)
ω=0
ω=∞ ω=∞
Re G(s) Re G(s)
ω=0
(a) (b)
Im G(s) Im G(s)
ω=0 ω=0
ω=∞
ω=∞ Re G(s) Re G(s)
(c) (d)
½IES (EE) 2001

143. The Nyquist plot, shown in Figure P7.47, matches with the transfer function:
1 1
(a) (b)
ðs þ 1Þ3 ðs þ 1Þ2
1 1
(c) (d)
s2 þ2s þ 2 sþ1
Im
ω=∞ Re
ω=0

½IES (EC) 2003
144. The phase margin (PM) and the damping ratio ðxÞ are related by:
qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
2x þ 1 þ 4x4
2
2x
(a) PM ¼90 tan1 (b) PM ¼ tan1 qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
2
2x2 þ 1 þ 4x4
qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi qffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
pffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffiffi
1
2x 2
þ 1 þ 4x 4
1
2x 2
þ 1 þ 4x4
(c) PM ¼90 þ tan (d) PM ¼180 tan
2 2
½IES (EC) 2003
145. The phase angle of the system
sþ5
G ð sÞ ¼
s2 þ 4s þ 9
varies between:
(a) 08 and 908 (b) 08 and908
(c) 08 and1808 (d)90 and1808
½IES (EE) 2001
146. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the theory of stability?
(a) Phase margin is the phase angle lagging, in short of 1808, at the frequency corresponding to a
gain of 10.
(b) Gain margin is the value by which the gain falls short of unity, at a frequency corresponding to
90 phase lag.
(c) Routh–Hurwitz criterion can determine the degree of stability.
(d) Gain margin and phase margin are the measure of the degree of stability.
½IES (EC) 2004
147. The radius of constant-N circle for N ¼ 1 is:

pffiffiffi
(a) 2 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) p1ffiffi2
½IES (EC) 1999
148. The forward-path transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by

1
G ð sÞ ¼
ð1 þ sÞ2
What is the phase margin for this system?
(a) p rad (b) 0 rad
(c) p=2 rad (d) p rad
½IES (EC) 2004
149. All the constant-N circles in the G-plane cross the real axis at the fixed points. Which are these
points?
(a) 1 and origin (b) Origin and þ1
(c) 0.5 and þ0.5 (d) 1 and þ1
½IES (EC) 2004
150. What is the value of M for the constant-M circle represented by the equation 8x2 þ 18x þ 8y2 þ
9 ¼ 0; where x ¼ Rej GðjoÞ j and y ¼ Iml j GðjoÞ j?
(a) 0.5 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 8
½IES (EC) 2004
151. If the gain of the loop system is doubled, the gain margin of the system is:
(a) Not affected (b) Doubled
(c) Halved (d) One fourth of original value
½IES (EC) 2005
152. Which of the following methods can determine the closed-loop system resonance frequency of
operation?
(a) Root locus method (b) Nyquist method
(c) Bode plot (d) M and N circle method
½IES (EC) 2005
153. For a stable closed-loop system, the gain at the phase cross-over frequency should always be:
(a) <20 dB (b) >6 dB
(c) <6 dB (d) <0 dB
½IES (EC) 2005
154. Match List I (frequency response) with List II (time response), and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Bandwidth 1. Overshoot
B. Phase margin 2. Stability
C. Response peak 3. Speed of time response
D. Gain margin 4. Damping ratio
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 3 4
½IES (EC) 2005
155. The open-loop transfer function of a feedback control system is
1
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
ðs þ 1Þ3
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 16
½GATE (EC) 1991
156. The Nyquist plot of a phase transfer function GðjoÞHðjoÞ of a system encloses the (1, 0) point.
(a) Less than zero (b) Zero
(c) Greater than zero (d) Infinity
½GATE (EC) 1998
157. The gain margin (in dB) of a system having the loop transfer function
pffiffiffi
2
sðs þ 1Þ
is:
(a) 0 (b) 3
(c) 6 (d) 1
½GATE (EC) 1999
158. The phase margin (in degrees) of a system having the loop transfer function
pffiffiffi
2 3
sðs þ 1Þ
is:
(a) 458 (b) 308
(c) 608 (d) 308
½GATE (EC) 1999
159. The constant-M loci is symmetrical with respect to:

(a) Real axis and imaginary axis (b) M ¼ 1 straight line and the real axis
(c) M ¼ 1 straight line and the imaginary axis (d) M ¼ 1 straight line
½IES (EC) 1998
160. A system with the transfer function

s
GðsÞ ¼
1þs
is subjected to a sinusoidal input r ðtÞ ¼ sin ot in steady-state, the phase angle of the output relative
to the input at o ¼ 0 and o ¼ 1 will be respectively:
(a) 0 and 90 (b) 0 and 0
(c) 90 and 0 (d) 90 and 90
½IES (EE) 2000
161. Consider the following Nyquist plots of different control systems:
Im Im
–1 O Re –1 O Re
ω
(a) (b)
Im
Im
–1 O Re –1 O Re
(c) (d)
Which of these plots represents a stable system?

(a) 1 alone (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
½IES (EE) 2000
162. The system with the open-loop transfer function

1
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
sðs2 þ s þ 1Þ
has a gain margin of:
(a) 6 dB (b) 0 dB
(c) 3.5 dB (d) 6 dB
½GATE (EC) 2002
163. The gain margin and the phase margin of a feedback system with
s
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
ðs þ 100Þ3
are:
(a) 0 dB, 08 (b) 1;1
(c) 1; 0 (d) 88:5dB; 1
½GATE (EC) 2003
164. If the Nyquist plot of an open-loop transfer function of a feedback control system is shown in the
left half of the s-plane (Figure P7.48), then the number of closed-loop poles in the right half of the
s-plane will be:
(a) Zero (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
Im
GH plane
ω = −∞ Re
−1
ω→0′
½IES (EE) 1999

165. Which of the following polar diagrams corresponds to a lag network?
Im Im
ω=0 ω=∞ ω=∞ ω=0
Re Re
(a) (b)
Im Im
ω=0 ω=∞ ω=∞ ω=0
Re Re
(c) (d)
½GATE (EC) 2005
166. The gain and phase crossover frequencies in rad/sec are respectively:
(a) 0.632 and 1.26 (b) 0.632 and 0.485

(c) 0.485 and 0.632 (d) 1.26 mA and 0.632 V
½GATE (EC) 2005
167. The polar plot of
1þs
G ð sÞ ¼
1 þ 4s
for 0 o 1 in the G-plane is :
½IES (EE) 1999
168. The Nyquist plot of GðjoÞHðjoÞ for a closed control system passes through the (1, j0) point in the
GH-plane. The gain margin of the system in dB is equal to:
(a) Infinite (b) Greater than zero
(c) Less than zero (d) Zero
½GATE (EC) 2006
169. A unity-feedback system has the open-loop transfer function

1
GðsÞ ¼
ðs þ 2Þðs 1Þðs þ 3Þ
The Nyquist plot of G encircles the origin:
(a) Never (b) Once
(c) Twice (d) Thrice
½GATE (EE) 1992
170. The polar plot of a type 1, 3 pole, open-loop system is shown in Figure P7.49. The closed-loop
system is:
(a) Always stable

(b) Marginally stable
(c) Unstable with one pole on the right half s-plane
(d) Unstable with two poles on the right half s-plane
½GATE (EE) 2001
171. The Nyquist plot of a loop transfer function G(s)H(s) of a closed-loop control system passes through
the point (1, j0) in the G(s)H(s) plane. The phase margin of the system is:
(a) 08 (b) 458
(c) 908 (d) 1808
½GATE (EE) 2002
172. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given as
as þ 1
GðsÞ ¼
s2
The value of a to give a phase margin of 45 is equal to:
(a) 0.141 (b) 0.441
(c) 0.841 (d) 1.141
½GATE (EE) 2004
173. The gain margin of a unity-feedback control system with the open-loop transfer function
sþ1
GðsÞ ¼
s2
is:
pffiffiffi
(a) 0pffiffiffi (b) 1= 2
(c) 2 (d) 1
½GATE (EE) 2005
174. 207. In the GH (s) plane, the Nyquist plot of the loop-transfer function
pe0:25
GðsÞ HðsÞ ¼
s
passes through the negative real axis at the point:

(a) (0.25, j0) (b) (0.5, j0)
(c) (1, j0) (d) (2, j0)
½GATE (EE) 2005
175. If the compensated system shown in Figure P7.50 has a phase margin of 60 at the crossover
frequency of 1 rad/sec, then the value of the gain K is:
(a) 0.366 (b) 0.732
(c) 1.366 (d) 2.738

½GATE (EE) 2005
176. The Nyquist plot for a control system is shown in Figure P7.51
Figure P7.51 Nyquist plot for Objective Question 176.
the bode plot for the same system will be

−20 dB/dec
0
−20 dB/dec
|G| −40 dB/dec
|G|
−40 dB/dec
ω1 ω2 ω1
(a) (b)
|G|
−20 dB/dec
−40 dB/dec
|G| −40 dB/dec
ω1 −60 dB/dec ω1 ω2 −60 dB/dec
(c) (d)
177. The Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) is shown in Figure P7.52. It indicates
that:
(a) The open-loop system is unstable, but the closed-loop system is stable.
(b) Both open-loop and closed-loop systems are unstable.
(c) Open-loop system is stable, but closed-loop system is unstable.
(d) Both open-loop and closed-loop systems are stable.
J Im
GH plane
ω = −∞
Re
(−1, j0)
ω = +∞
ω = 0+
½IES (EE) 1997

178. Which of the following statements regarding the stability of a feedback control system is correct?
(a) Gain margin (GM) gives the complete information about the relative stability of the gain system.
(b) Phase margin (PM) gives the complete information about the stability of the system.
(c) GM and PM together give information about the relative stability of the system.
(d) Gain cross-over and phase cross-over frequencies give the required information about the relative
stability of the system.
½IES (EC) 1998
179. Match List I (Plot/diagram/chart) with List II (Characteristic), and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Constant-M loci 1. Constant gain and phase shift loci of the closed-loop system
B. Constant-N loci 2. Plot of loop gain with variation of o
C. Nichol?s chart 3. Circles of constant gain for closed-loop transfer function
D. Nyquist plot 4. Circles of constant phase shift of closed-loop transfer function
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
½IES (EE) 1998
Chapter 8
1. A system is described by

0 1 0
X¼ Xþ u
2 3 i
The system is
(a) Controllable and observable (b) Uncontrollable and observable
(c) Controllable and unobservable (d) Uncontrollable and unobservable
½IAS 1995
2. Which one of the following methods is NOT used for the analysis of nonlinear control systems?
(a) Phase plane method (b) Decreasing function method
(c) Liapunov’s method (d) Piecewise linear
½IES 2003
3. The state equations of a system are given by x_ ¼ X þ u; y ¼ X. The system is
(a) Controllable and observable
(b) Controllable but not completely observable
(c) Neither controllable nor completely observable
(d) Not completely controllable but observable
½IES 2005
4. The state representation of a second-order system is x_ 1 ¼ x1 þ u; x_ 2 ¼ x1 2x2 þ u. Consider the
following statements regarding the above system:
1. The system is completely state controllable.

½IES 1993
5. The system matrix of a continuous-time system, described in the state variable form, is
2 3
x 0 0
A ¼ 4 0 y 1 5
0 1 2
The system is stable for all values of x and y satisfying
(a) x < 1=2; y < 1=2 (b) x > 1=2; y > 0
(c) x < 0; y < 2 (d) x < 0; y < 1=2
½IES 1993
6. The state equation of a system is

0 1 0
X¼ Xþ
20 9 1
The poles of this system are located at

(a) 1; 9 (b) 1; 20
(c) 4; 5 (d) 9; 20
½IES 1995
7. The z-transform of a signal is given by
1z1 ð1 z4 Þ
CðzÞ ¼
4ð1 z1 Þ2
Its final value is
(a) 1=4 (b) Zero
(c) 1:0 (d) Infinity
½GATE 1999
8. The transfer function, YðsÞ=UðsÞ, of a system described by the state equations xðtÞ ¼ –2xðtÞ þ 2uðtÞ
and yðtÞ ¼ 0:5xðtÞ is
(a) 0:5=ðs 2Þ (b) 1=ðs 2Þ
(c) 0:5=ðs þ 2Þ (d) 1=ðs þ 2Þ
½GATE 2002
9. The state variable equations of a system are:

1. x1 ¼ 3x1x2 þ 2
2. x2 ¼ 2x1
The system is
(a) Controllable but not observable (b) Observable but not controllable
(c) Neither controllable nor observable (d) Controllable and observable
½GATE 2004
10. Given

1 0
A¼
0 1
the state transition matrix is given by

0 et et 0
(a) t (b)
e 0 0 et
t
e 0 0 et
(c) (d)
0 et et 0
½GATE 2004
11. If
2 3
5 0 2
40 3 05
2 0 1
The inverse of A is
2 3 2 3
1 0 2 5 0 2
(a) 4 0 1=3 0 5 (b) 4 0 1=3 0 5
2 0 5 2 0 1
2 3 2 3
1=5 0 1=2 1=5 0 1=2
(c) 4 0 1=3 0 5 (d) 4 0 1=3 0 5
1=2 0 1 1=2 0 1
½GATE 1998
12. Given the homogenous state space equation

3 1
X¼
0 2
the steady state value of Xss ¼ lim xðtÞ, given the initial value of Xð0Þ ¼ ½10; 10T , is
t!1
0 3
(a) Xss ¼ (b) Xss ¼
0 2

10 1
(c) Xss ¼ (d) Xss ¼
10 1
½GATE 2002
13. The matrix of any state-space equation for the transfer function CðsÞ=RðsÞ of the system, shown in
Figure P8.22, is

1 0 0 1
(a) (b)
0 1 0 1
(c) ½1 (d) ½3
½GATE 1994
14. A system is described by the state equation XX ¼ AX þ BU. The output is given by Y ¼ CX,
where

4 1 1
A¼ ; B¼ ; C ¼ ½1; 0
3 1 1
The transfer function GðsÞ of the system is
s 1
(a) 2 (b)
s þ 5s þ 7 þ 5s þ 7
s2
s 1
(c) 2 (d) 2
s þ 3s þ 2 s þ 3s þ 2
½GATE 1995
15. A state variable system

0 1 1
XðtÞ ¼ XðtÞ þ uðtÞ
0 3 0
with the initial condition X(0) ¼ ½1 3T and the unit step input u(t) has the state transition matrix
2 1 3 2 3
1 t
1 ð1 e3t Þ 1 ðe e3t Þ
(a)4 3 5 (b)4 3 5
0 e3t 0 et
2 1 t 3 " #
1 ðe e3t Þ 1 ð1 et Þ
(c)4 3 5 (d)
0 e 3t 0 et ½GATE 2005
16. A state variable system

0 1 1
XðtÞ ¼ XðtÞ þ uðtÞ
0 3 0
with the initial condition X(0) ¼ ½1 3T and the unit step input u(t) has the state transition
equation

t et t et
(a) XðtÞ ¼ (b) XðtÞ ¼
et 3e3t

t e3t t e3t
(c) XðtÞ ¼ (d) XðtÞ ¼
3e3t et
½GATE 2005
17. The value of matrix A in X ¼ AX for the system described by the differential equation y þ
2y þ 3y ¼ 0 is

1 0 1 0
(a) (b)
2 1 1 2

0 1 0 1
(c) (d)
2 1 3 2
½IES 1998
18. The minimum number of states necessary to describe the network shown in Figure P8.23 in a state
variable form is

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
½IES 1998
19. A system is represented by y þ 2y þ 5y þ 6y ¼ 5x. Its state variables are x1 ¼ y; x2 ¼ y and

x3 ¼ y. Then the coefficient matrix A will be
2 3 2 3
0 1 0 0 1 0
(a) 4 0 0 1 5 (b) 4 0 0 1 5
6 5 2 2 5 6
2 3 2 3
0 0 1 0 0 1
(c) 4 0 1 0 5 (d) 4 0 1 0 5
6 5 2 2 5 6
½IES 1999
20. The state equation of a linear system is given by X ¼ AX þ BU, where

0 2 0
A¼ and B ¼
2 0 1
The state transition matrix of the system is
2t
e 0 e2t 0
(a) (b)
0 e2t 0 e2t

sin 2t cos 2t cos 2t sin 2t
(c) (d)
cos 2t sin 2t sin 2t cos 2t
½IES 1999
21. Consider the single-input, single-output system with its state variable representation:
2 3 2 3
1 0 0 1
X ¼ 4 0 2 0 5X þ 4 1 5U; Y ¼ ½1 0 2X
0 0 3 0
The system is
(a) Neither controllable nor observable (b) Controllable but not observative
(c) Uncontrollable but observable (d) Both controllable and observable
½IES 2001
22. A particular control system is described by the following state equations:

0 1 0
X¼ Xþ U and Y ¼ ½2 0X
2 3 1
The transfer function of this system is

YðsÞ 1 YðsÞ 2
(a) ¼ (b) ¼
UðsÞ 2s2 þ 3s þ 1 UðsÞ 2s2 þ 3s þ 1
YðsÞ 1 YðsÞ 2
(c) ¼ (d) ¼
UðsÞ s2 þ 3s þ 2 UðsÞ s2 þ 3s þ 2
½IES 2001
23. A transfer function of a control system does not have pole-zero cancellation. Which one of the
following statements is true?
(a) System is neither controllable nor observable
(b) System is completely controllable and observable
(c) System is observable but uncontrollable
(d) System is controllable but unobservable
½IES 2002
24. Consider the following statements:

1. A discrete-time system is said to be stable, if and only if its response for until impulses ðtÞ decays
with K
2. Routh–Herwitz testing may be applied to determine the stability of the discrete-data system using
bilinear transformation
1þv
Z¼
1v
A discrete data system is unstable if any of the roots of the characteristics equation lies within the unit
circle on the complex plane.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
½IES 2003
25. For a unity-feedback system, the origin of the s-plane is mapped in the z-plane by the transformation
z ¼ eST to which one of the following?
(a) Origin (b) 1 þ j0
(c) 1 þ j0 (d) 0 þ j1
½IES 2004
26. A linear time-invariant discrete-time system is described by the vector-matrix difference equation
xðk þ 1Þ ¼ FxðkÞ þ GuðkÞ
where xðkÞ is the state vector, F is an ðn nÞ constant matrix, G is an ðn rÞ constant matrix and
u(k) is the control vector. The state transition matrix of the system is given by the Z-transform of
(a) ZI F (b) ðZI FÞZ

(c) ðZI FÞ1 G (d) ðZI FÞ–1 Z
½GATE 1991
27. The Z-transform of the time function

X
1
ðn kÞ
k¼0
is
Z1 Z
(a) (b)
Z Z1
Z ðZ 1Þ2
(c) (d)
ðZ 1Þ2 Z
½GATE 1998
28. The block diagram of a sampled-data system is shown in Figure P8.24
GRðzÞ GðzÞRðzÞ
(a) (b)
1 þ GHðzÞ 1 þ GHðzÞ
GRðzÞ GðzÞRðzÞ
(c) (d)
1 þ GðzÞHðzÞ 1 þ GðzÞHðzÞ
½IES 1998
29. Consider the following statements regarding hold circuits for the reconstruction of sampled signals:
1. Hold circuits are essentially low-pass filters.
2. A first-order hold circuit introduces less phase-lag in comparison to zero hold circuit
3. A zero-order hold has a flat gain-frequency response over the frequency range 0 v 2=T,
where T is the sampling period.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 3 alone (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 alone
½IES 1999
30. The overall pulse transfer function of the system shown in Figure P8.25 is

1 expð1Þ Z½1 þ expð1Þ

(a) (b)
Z expð1Þ ðZ 1Þ½Z þ expð1Þ
1 þ expð1Þ Z½1 expð1Þ

(c) (d)
Z þ expð1Þ ðZ 1Þ½Z expð1Þ
½IES 1999
31. The system matrix of a discrete system is given by

0 1
A¼
3 5
The characteristic equation is given by
(a) z2 þ 5z þ 3 ¼ 0 (b) z2 3z 5 ¼ 0
(c) z2 þ 3z þ 5 ¼ 0 (d) z2 þ z þ 2 ¼ 0
½IES 2001
1. Approximately of ideal filters that are stable and realizable.
- Practical or non-ideal filters
2. Introduction of integral action in the forward path of a unity feedback system result in a.
- System with no steady state error
3. Addition of zeroes in transfer function caused which of the following
- Lag compensation
4. Zero initial condition for a system means.
- System is at rest and no energy stored in any of its components
5. A signal whose values s(t) (amplitude) is defined for every value of the independent
variable t (time)
- Continuous – time signal
6. A band limited lowpass signal is sampled at twice its Nyquist rate with fs = 2000Hz. The
signal is band limited to.
- 1000hz
7. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho – generator.

- Speed
8.
9. The characteristic equation of a system is given by 3s^4+10s^3+5s^2+2=0. This system is
- Neither stable marginally stable or unstable
10. The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called.
- Transient Response
11. Which of the following is not periodic
- X(t) = 4u(t) + 2sin(3t)
12. The aperture effect
- Attenuates the high frequency components
13. Any external introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a.
- Stimulus
14. If A and B are two square matrices such that AB=A and BA=B then
- A,B are idempotent
15. The inverse Laplace transform of the function (s+5)/[(s+1)(s+3)] is
- 2e^-t – e^-3t
16. A car is rtyining at a constant speed of 50km/h, which of the following is the feedback
element for the driver.
- Needle of the speedometer
17. The transfer function technique is called as inadequate under which of the following
conditions?
- All of the above
18. The Fourier series for the function f(x) = sin^2x
- 0.5 – 0.5cos3x
19. The trigonometric Fourier Series of an even function does not have
- Sine term
20. AC servomotor is basically
- Two phase induction motor
21.
22. The viscous friction co-efficient to, in force – voltage analogy, analogous to
- Resistance
23. ((1+i)*((2+1)/(3+1)))) is equal to
- -1/2
24. ADT system defined by the input – output relationship y(n) = x]2n] is
- A linear and shift – invariant
25. The Laplace transform analysis gives
- Both a and b
26. In radix – 2 decimation – in – time FFT algorithm
- Input sequence is in bit reversed order while the output or DFT sequence is in
natural order
27. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
- Reduced values of open loop gain
28. These are filters with multiple passbands and stopbands and are obtained by placing
several poles near the unit circle.
- Comb Filter
29. The number of all possible matrices of orders 3x3 with each entry of 0 or 1 is
- 512
30. A unity feedback system has open loop transfer function G(s). The steady state – error is
zero for
- Step input and type – 0 G(s)
31. In the state variable description of a continuous – time system, the state equations and
the output equations are respectively
- A ordinary linear differential equations and algebraic equations
32. A radix – 2 FFT algorithm is one which requires N, the sequence length to be
- Power of 2
33. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient
response
- Root Locus
34. Which of the following is periodic
- X(t) = 4cos(3pit+pi/2) + 2cos(8pit+pi/2)
35. A unity feedback second order control system is characterized by G(s) = k/[s (Js+b)]. The
transient response specification which is NOT affected by variation of system gain is the
- Damped frequency of oscillation
36. Which of the following is the input of the controller
- Sensed Signal
37. An even – order casual FIR filter with the symmetric impulse response
- Type – II FIR filter
38. Which of the following cannot be the Fourier series of a parabolic function
- 2cos(pi)x + 7cosx
39. Shifting a time signal along the time axis causes
- A change only in the phase spectrum
40. A measure of number of samples in one second, expressed in samples per second
- Sampling Frequency
41. Matrices A and B will be inverse of each other only if
- AB=BA=1
42. The Laplace transform of (t^2coswt)u(t) is
- 2s^3-6w^2s / (s+w^2)^3
43. Determine the final value of x(s) = 3s^2+4s+1 / s^4+3s^3+3s^2+2s
- 0
44. By using the Laplace transform, compute the convolution x(t)*v(t) of the two signals
where x(t) e^-t and v(t) = sint:
- ½(e^-t-cost+sint)
45. Compute the inverse Laplace transform of x(s) = 3s^2+2s+1 / s^3+5s^2+8s+4
- 2e^-t + e^-2t – 9te^-2t
46. Compute the inverse Laplace transform of x(s) = 12s-8 / s^2-4s+20
- X(t) = 4e^2t(3cos4t+sin4t)
47. Find the inverse Laplace transform of x(s) = 3s^3+3s / s^6
- X(t) 3/2t^2 + 1/8t^4
48. Determine the initial value of x(s) = 2(s^2+1) / s(s+2)(s+4)
- 2
49. Determine the Laplace transform of f(t)=3e^tsin5t
- F(s) = 15 / [(s-1)^2 +25]
50. Evaluate g(t) = 0, t<5 (t-5)^2, t>5
- G(s) = 2e^-5s / s^3
51. (2i/1+i)^2 is equal to
- 1-2i
52. The modulus of the complex number
- 1/sqrt(2)
53. If a is a complex number such that a^2+a+1 = 0, the a^31 is equal to
- A
54. The argument of 1-isqrt(3) / 1+isqrt(3)
- 4pi / 3
55. (-1+isqrt3)^15/(1-i)^20 + (-1-isqrt3)^15/(1+i)^20 is equal to
- -64
56. The argument of the complex number z = (1+isqrt3)^2 / 4i(1+isqrt3) is equal to
- Pi / 2
57. If 5z2/7z1 is purely imaginary number, then 2z1+3z2 / 2z1-3z2
- 25/49
58. If z is a complex number such that z = 4 and arg (z) = 5pi/6, the z is equal to
- -sqrt(3) +i
59. If w I a complex cube root of unity, the value of a+bw+cw^2/c+aw+bw^2 +
a+bw+cw^2/b+cw+aw^2
- 1
60. (1-i/1+i)^20 is equal to
- 1
61. The Fourier series of a real periodic function has only
(P) cosine terms if it is even
(Q) sine terms if it is even
(R) cosine terms if it is odd
(S) sine term if it is odd
- P and S
62. Choose the function f(x), -inf<x<inf, for which a Fourier series cannot be defined
- e^-x sin(25x)
63. Which of the following cannot be the Fourier series of a periodic function
- F(x) = 2cospix +7 cosx
64. If F(x) = -f(-x) and f(x) satisfy the Dirichlet’s conditions, the f(x) can be expanded in a
fourier series containing
- Only sine terms
65. If from the function f(x) one forms the function x(t) = f(t) + f(-t), the x(t) is
- Even
66. The fourier series expansion for the function f(x) = sin^2x
- 0.6 – 0.5cos2x
67. Which of the following functions is not periodic
- F(x) = e^(-7) sin10pix
68. The fourier series of an odd periodic function contains only
- Sine terms
69. The trigonometric fourier series of an even function does not have
- Sine terms
70. For the function f(x) = -k, –pi<x<0 k, 0<x<pi
- 0
71. The function f3(x) = -1 +1x +bx2 Is orthogonal to functions f1(x) = 1 and f2(x) = x in the
interval (-1, 1). The Value of b will be
- 3
72. If A is an m x n matrix such that AB and BA are both defined, then B is an
- n x m matrix
73. If A and B are symmetric matrices, then ABA is
- Symmetric
74. If A and B are two invertible matrices of same order, the (AB)^-1 is.
- B^-1 A^-1
75. The inverse of a symmetric matrix is
- Symmetric
76. If A, B are two square matrices such that AB=A BA=B then
- A, B are idempotent
77. Inverse of a diagonal matrix is
- Diagonal matrix
78. If A is a skew - symmetric then A for an odd positive integer is
- Skew – symmetric
79. The number of all possible matrices of order 3 x 3 with each entry 0 or 1 is
- 512
80. If AB – BA are symmetric matrices of same order the AB – BA is a
- Skew – symmetric matrix
81. If a matrix A is symmetric as well as skew symmetric then
- A is null matrix
82. Matrices A and B will be inverse of each other only if
- AB = BA = 1
83. The Laplace transform analysis gives
- Time domain and frequency domain response
84. The initial value of 20 – 10t – e^25t is
- 19
85. The final value of 2s+1 / s^4+8s^3+16s^2+s
- 1
86. The inverse Laplace transform of (1-e^-as) / s is
- U(t) – u(t-a)
87. The inverse Laplace transform of the function s+5 / (s+1)(s+3) is
- 2e^-t - e^-3t
88. If a[f(t)] = 2(s+1) / s^2+2s+5 the f(0+) and f(inf) are given by
- 2, 0 respectively
89. The final value theorem is used to find the
- Transient behavior of the system ouput
ADVANCED ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS AND
CONTROL SYSTEMS EXIT EXAM
7. The magnitude of a complex number
1. The Laplace transform of cos 5t is is also known as
a. Phasor
a.
b. Modulus
c. Argument
b. d. Absolute Value
c.
7. The magnitude of a complex number
is also known as
d. a. Phasor
b. Modulus
c. Argument
d. Absolute Value
2. The inverse Laplace transform of 8. The Laplace transform theorem of
is
a. final value theorem
a.
b. initial value theorem
b.
c. linearity theorem
c.
d. frequency shift theorem
d.
9. He invented a purely mechanical
temperature control system for hatching
eggs.
3. The representation of complex a. James Clerk Maxwell
numbers is called b. CornelisDrebbel
a. Euler diagram
c. Walter Evans
b. Agand diagram d. William Cubitt
c. Argand diagram
d. Argrand diagram 10. Other term for error in the system
a. fluctuating signal
4.The formula is equivalent to b. actuating signal
a. sin θ c. distorted signal
b. cosθ d. deteriorating signal
c. sinhθ
d. coshθ
11. Which of the following electrical
component has the quantity of the rate
6. It is the n x n square matrix with ones
of change in voltage?
on the main diagonal and zero a. resistor
elsewhere. b. inductor
a. identity matrix
c. capacitor
b. diagonal matrix
d. transistor
c. triangular matrix
d. inverse matrix
12. The applied force used in the
parallel electrical analog is
a. mesh current/s 18. It is a technique for reducing signal-
b. node voltage/s flow graphs to single transfer function
c. voltage source that relate the output of a system to its
d. current source input
a. Cramer’s rule
b. Raisin’s rule
13. It is a magnetic field developed by c. Mayson’s rule
stationary permanent magnets d.Mason’srule
a. induced field
b. fixed field 19. The physical interpretation for the
c. armature constant acceleration is the input.
d. transformer a. step
b. ramp
14. In first order system, time constant is c. parabola
defined as the time it takes for the d. quadratic
response to rise to of its final value.
20. In first order system, settling time is
defined as the time for the response to
a. 12.5% reach and stay within of its final
b. 37% value.
c. 63% a. 2% b.
d. 98% 50% c.
98% d.
15. If 2 distinct poles are located in the 100%
LHP real axis with step input, the system
is 21. Find the transfer function of the
a. underdamped parallel RLC circuit with R = 6 Ω, L = 2
b. undamped H, and C = 1 F.
c. critically damped a.
d. overdamped
b.
16. For underdamped system, as the
damping ratio increases, the oscillation c.
a. increases
b. decreases d.
c. remains the same
d. double
22. The equation of the Torque speed
17. Find the inverse Laplace transform curve is given by Tm= -15ωm + 225
of when the input voltage is 120 V. Find the
constant Kb.
a. (2cos3t + 3sin3t) a. 1.8
b. (2cos3t - 3sin3t ) b. 1.9
c. (2cos3t + sin3t ) c. 8
d. (2cos3t sin3t ) d. 9
c. 0.2 s
23. The Laplace transform of the unit d. 0.24 s
step response is
a. 0 29. Find the damping ratio given 19.47%
b. 1 overshoot.
c. 1/s a. 0.40
d. infinity b. 0.43
c. 0.46
For numbers 24 and 25, given the first d. 0.49
order transfer function
Given the characteristic polynomial:
Determine the value of K that makes the

system marginally stable
24. The time constant is a. 3
b. 12
a. 0.01 s c. 36
b. 0.03 s d. 72
c. 0.05 s
d. 0.06 s 31. The representation for the spring in
25. The rising time is parallel analog is expressed in
a. K H
a. 0.04 s b. 1/K H
b. 0.06 s c. K F
c. 0.08 s d. 1/K F
d. 0.1 s
For nos. 32 and 33, given negative unity
For numbers 26-28, given the second feedback transfer function
order transfer function
26. The damping ratio is 32. Find the steady state error when the
a. 0.21 input is 4tu(t).
b. 0.23 a. 0.14
c. 0.26 b. 0.27
d. 0.3 c. 0
27. The settling time is d. infinity
a. 0.73 s 33. Find the steady state error when the
b. 0.76 s input is 4t2u(t).
c. 0.79 s a. 0.14
d. 0.82 s b. 0.27
c. 0
28. The peak time is d. infinity
a. 0.12 s
b. 0.16 s
35. The symbol used for the coefficient 41. Which of the following Test
of viscuous friction for translational Waveform inputs is applicable for
mechanical systems modeling?
a. f a. Step
b. fv b. Ramp
c. D c. Parabola
d. V d. Sinusoid
36. It is the time required for an output to
reach and remain within a given error 42. The speed of the elevator deals with
band following some input stimulus. the of control system.
a. Peak Time a. Steady State Error
b. Rise Time b. Steady State Response
c. Settling Time c. Transient Response
d. Time Constant d. Stability
37. The of a transfer function are 43. In Routh-Hurwitz criterion, the

the values of the Laplace transform s number of roots of the polynomial in the
that cause the transfer function to is equal to the number of sign
become infinite. changes in the first column.
a. Feedback a. left half plane
b. Poles b. right half plane
c. Unity Feedback c. imaginary axis
d. Zeros d. real axis
38. Two or more transfer functions in 44. A system is marginally stable if the
cascade perform the operation of natural response but remains
a. addition constant or oscillates
b. division a. decays
c. multiplication b. grows
d. subtraction c. either decays or grows
d. neither decays nor grows
39. He invented the safety valve.
a. Denis Papin 45. Two or more transfer functions in
b. Edmund Lee parallel perform the operation of
c. James Clerk Maxwell a. addition
d. Walter Evans b. subtraction c.
both a and b d.
40. Find the steady state error of the none of these
system given the position constant of
45. 46. The unit of the spring constant in
a. 2.22% mechanical rotational system is
b. 22.2% a. N – m
c. 2.17% b. N/m
d. 21.7% c. N –m /rad
d. N/rad- m
47. The equation of the Torque speed
curve is given by Tm= -20ωm +300
when the input voltage is 150 V. Find the
constant Kt/Ra.
a. 0.2
b. 2
c. 1.5
d. 15
48. Find the %OS when the damping

ratio is 0.52.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
49. The constant position is the Type

transfer function.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
50. In order that the system to be stable,

all poles should be located in the
of the s-plane.
a. left half plane
b. right half plane
c. real axis
d. imaginary axis
1. As compared to a closed-loop system, d. Equally sensitive to forward and
an open-loop system is feedback path parameter
a. More stable as well as more changes
accurate 6. Consider the block diagram below
b. Less stable as well as less
accurate
c. More stable but less accurate
d. Less stable but more accurate
,
2. The positioning system of a printer can
the closed-loop transfer function T(s)–
be modeled as
Y(s)=10(s+50)/s2+60s+500 R(s) where Y(s)C(s) is
the input R(s) represents the desired
position and Y(s) is the output position.
If the input is a unit step input, the final
value of the output is
a. Y(inf)=lim s->inf ,y(t)=1
b. Y(inf)=lim s->inf ,y(t)=50
c. Y(inf)=lim s->inf ,y(t)=100
d. None of the above
3. The principles of homogeneity and 7. The signal flow of a system is shown in
superposition are applied to the given figure, in this graph, the
a. Linear time variant systems number of three non-touching loops is
b. Non-linear time variant systems
c. Linear time invariant systems
d. Non-linear time invariant
systems
4. ?? Consider a system with the closed-
loop transfer function
Y(s)/R(s)=20(s+4)/s2+8s+15 with input
R(s) and output Y (s). When all initial a. 0
conditions are zero and the input is an b. 1
impulse, then the output y(t) is c. 2
a. Y(t)=10e^-5t+10e^-3t d. 3
b. Y(t)= e^-5t+10e^-t 8. Consider the differential equation
c. Y(t)=10e^-3t–10e^-5t
d. Y(t)=20e^-5t+5e^-15t
5. Feedback control systems are
a. Insensitive to both forward and
feedback path parameter
changes
b. Less sensitive to feedback path 9. Which of the following is used in digital
parameter changes than to position control system
forward path parameter a. Stepper motor
changes b. AC servo motor
c. Less sensitive to forward path c. Synchro
parameter changes than to d. DC servo motor
feedback path parameter
changes
10.
13. The signal flow graph shown in the

11. Consider the system shown in figure I given figure has
and figure II. If the forward path gain is
reduced by 10% in each system, then
the variation in C1 and C2 will be
respectively
a. 10% and 10%

b. 2% and 10%
c. 5% and 1%
d. 10% and 1%
12. a. Three forward paths and two
non-touching loops
b. Three forward pats and two
loops
c. Two forward paths and two
non-touching loops
d. Two forward paths and three ii. It reduces the
loops sensitivity of plant
14. parameter variations
iii. It does not involve
output measurements
iv. It has the ability to
control the system
translated response
Select the correct answers using the
codes given below
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
18. A first order dynamic system is
15. A signal flow graph is shown in the represented by the differential
given figure. The number of forward
paths M and the number of individual
loops P for this signal flow graph would
be
equation
19. The number of forward paths
a. M=4 and P=3

b. M=4 and P=3
c. M=4 and P=3
d. M=4 and P=3
20. A system with more than one input

variable or more than one output
variable is known by what name?
a. Closed loop feedback system
b. Robust control system
c. Open loop feedback system
d. Multivariable control system
16. 21. It is what we normally think of as the

17. Which of the following are the frequency of the signal
characteristics of closed loop system? a. Analog Frequency
i. It does not compensate b. Random Frequency
for disturbances c. Digital Frequency
d. Discrete Frequency b. Stopband
22. Continuous time signals are also called c. Transition band
analog signals because their amplitude d. Guard band
is “analogous” (that is, proportional) to 27. It have special architectures that make
the physical quantity they represent moving and manipulating data more
a. Continuous time signal efficient
b. Deterministic signal a. DSP
c. Analog signal b. DSP Processor
d. Digital signal c. MATLAB
23. This is the use of digital to d. Scilab
process signals 28. The highest signal frequency that is
a. DSP retained in an input signal after
b. DSP Processor sampling and is equal to half the
c. MATLAB sampling frequency, or Fs/2. All
d. Scilab frequencies above Fs/2 are aliased into
frequencies below Fs/2.
a. Normalized Frequency
b. Folding Frequency
c. Apparent Frequency
d. Sampling Frequency
29. A mathematical transform using
sinusoids as the basis function
a. Fourier Transform
b. Inverse Fourier Transform
c. Laplace Transform
d. Inverse Laplace Transform
30. Defined for discrete-time sinusoids, it
represents a number of occurrences of
24. The basic Cooley-tuckey algorithm that
a repeating event per sample.
uses length N as a power of 2 for
a. Normalized Frequency
splitting sequences into two sub-
b. Folding Frequency
sequences of equal length at each stage
c. Apparent Frequency
of algorithm.
d. Sampling Frequency
a. DFT
31. A series of sinusoid wave form that,
b. FFT
when added together, produce a
c. Radix-2 FFT algorithm
resultant wave form
d. Radix-R FFT algorithm
a. Power series
25. It is the analog frequency by the
b. Energy series
sample interval
c. Fourier series
a. Analog Frequency
d. Laplace series
b. Random Frequency
32. An ideal lowpass filter with cutoff
c. Digital Frequency
frequency π/K needed in the
d. Discrete Frequency
decimation-by-K system. More
26. A band of frequencies created when the
generally, any zero-phase filter that has
sampling frequency is greater than the
every Kth-ordered sample zero except
Nyquist rate. It contains no signal
the one at n=0 which is 1/K. Also known
spectra.
as a K-band filter.
a. Passband
a. Antialiasing filter
b. Matched filter
c. Nyquist filter
d. Product filter
33. A filter that is used on the output of the
DAC in a DSP system. Its purpose is to
smooth out the stair step pattern of the
DAC’s output.
a. Smoothing filter
37.
b. Anti-Aliasing filter
c. Finite impulse response filter
d. Infinite impulse response filter
34. It is a special function that shapes the
transfer function. Typically used to
tweak the coefficients of filters.
a. Window
b. Anti-Aliasing filter
d. Infinite impulse response filter 38.
35. A filter that is used to limit the
bandwidth of any incoming signal 39. What is the dc term of the Fourier
a. Window series?
b. Anti-Aliasing filter a. The zero volt crossing value
c. Finite impulse response filter b. The maximum value of a cycle
d. Infinite impulse response filter c. The minimum value of a cycle
d. The average value of the
waveform over one full cycle
40. What are the restrictions on the sine
and cosine terms of a fourier series?
a. The frequencies of sine and
cosine terms must be random
b. The frequencies of sine and
cosine terms must be an integer
multiple of the fundamental
c. The fourier series must have
either sine or cosine terms but
not both
d. Sine and cosine terms must be
of less magnitude than the
36. fundamental
41. A fourier series refers to a series of
terms used to represent a
nonsinusoidal periodic waveform. Of
what terms is the series comprised?
a. The average value plus the sum
of sine and cosine terms
b. The difference between sine
and cosine terms
c. The product of sine and cosine
terms
d. The sum of sine and cosine
terms
42.
a. 9
b. 01
c. 42
d. 14
47. What is the adjoint of the matrix
43. Specify the symmetry of the following

signal
a. Odd
b. None
c. Even 48. What is the determinant of the matrix
d. Half-wave
44.
45. If A is a 3 x 3 matrix with |A|=8, then
what is the value of |3A|?
a. 8
b. 24
c. 72
d. 216
46. What is the trace of the matrix
49.
50.
1. From the signal flow graph shown in the c. Three phase induction motor
figure, d. Synchronous motor
5. Control engineering is applicable to
which field of engineering
a. Electrical and biomedical
b. Mechanical and aerospace
c. Chemical and environmental
d. All of the above
6. Closed-loop control system should have
which of the following properties
a. Desirable responses to
commands
b. Low sensitivity to changes in
plant parameters
c. Good regulation against
disturbances
2. A stepper motor d. All of the above
a. Is a two phase induction motor 7. Early application of feedback control
b. Is a kind of rotating amplifier include which of the following
c. Is an electromagnetic a. Water clock of ktesibios
transducer commonly used to b. Watt’s flyball governor
convert an angular position of c. Drebbel’s temperature
the shaft into an electrical regulator
system d. All of the above
d. Is an electromechanical device 8. Important modern applications of
which actuates a train of step control systems include which of the
angular (or linear) movements following
in response to a train of input a. Fuel-efficient and safe
pulses on one to one basis automobiles
b. Automated manufacturing
c. Autonomous robot
d. All of the above
9. Complete the following sentence
Control of an industrial process by
automatic rather than manual means is
often called
a. A specification
b. Negative feedback
c. Automation
d. A design gap
10. Complete the following sentence
are intrinsic in the progression
3. from an initial concept to the final
4. The ac motor used in servo applications product
is a a. Closed loop feedback system
a. Single phase induction motor b. Open loop feedback system
b. Two phase induction motor c. Flyball governors
d. Design gap a. Fs is real
11. Complete the following sentence b. Real part of Fs is >= 0 when real
Control engineers are concerned with part of s>=0
understanding and controlling c. Fs is real when s is real
segments of their environment often d. All of the above
called
a. Risk
b. Design synthesis
c. Trade-offs
d. System
12. A polynomial P(s) is said to be Hurwitz if
a. The root of P(s) have non zero
real parts 17. For a positive real function Fs
b. The roots are real for all “s” real a. 1/Fs is also positive real
or complex function
c. P(s) is real when “s” is real and b. 1/Fs is not positive real
roots of P(s) have real parts c. 1/Fs^2 is positive real
zero or negative d. Fs^2 is positive real
d. S=+- jw, where w is real
13. Continued fraction expansion of a ratio
of odd to even parts of Hurwitz
polynomial yields
a. All real positive quotients
b. Alternate positive and negative
quotients
c. Must have abrupt termination
d. None of the above 18.
14. 19.
20.
15. 21. A filter that, once excited, may have an
16. A fraction is said to be positive real if
output for an infinite period of time
and only if
a. Window
b. Anti-aliasing filter
d. Infinite impulse response filter
22. Normally used to compute the
spectrum of a signal from the time
domain version of the signal
a. Fast Fourier Transform
b. Inverse Fast Fourier Transform 26.
c. Discrete Fourier Transform 27. A signal whose future values can be
d. Inverse Discrete Fourier predicted exactly from past values
Transform a. Continuous time signal
23. A computational technique for b. Deterministic signal
computing the transform of a signal. c. Analog signal
Normally used to compute the time d. Digital signal
domain representation of a signal from 28. Any physical quantity that varies as a
the spectrum of the signal. function of time, space, or any other
a. Fast Fourier Transform variable or variables
b. Inverse Fast Fourier Transform a. Continuous time signal
c. Discrete Fourier Transform b. Discrete time signal
d. Inverse Discrete Fourier c. Random signal
Transform d. Signal
29. An analog filter system function which
is a Taylor series approximation of the
ideal response at a single frequency.
The resulting filter has maximally flat
response to passband and stopband.
a. Butterworth approximation
b. Chebyshev approximation
c. Elliptic approximation
d. Bessel approximation
30. An analog filter system function which
is optimum in the minimax sense over
24.
both passband and stopband and is
based on rational Chebyshev functions.
The resulting filter has equiripple
passband and stopband responses.
a. Butterworth approximation
b. Chebyshev approximation
c. Elliptic approximation
d. Bessel approximation
31. An odd-order causal FIR filter with
25. symmetric impulse response.
a. Type I FIR filter
b. Type II FIR filter
c. Type III FIR filter
d. Type IV FIR filter
32. These are filters with multiple
passbands and stopbands and are
obtained by placing several poles in the
unit circle.
a. Comb filter
b. Ideal frequency selective filter
c. Practical or nonideal filter
d. Notch filter
33. These are filters with perfect null at
certain frequencies and are obtained by
placing zeros at those frequencies
a. Comb filter 37.
b. Ideal frequency selective filter
c. Practical or nonideal filter
d. Notch filter
34. An odd-order causal FIR filter with
antisymmetric impulse response.
a. Type I FIR filter
b. Type II FIR filter
c. Type III FIR filter 38.
d. Type IV FIR filter
35. The process of taking instantaneous
measurements of the amplitude of a
continuous-time signal at regular
intervals of time
a. Sampling
b. Quantization
c. Convolution
d. Crosscorrelation
36.
39.
40.
43. To 50
41.
42.
1. Inverse of a diagonal matrix is 6. A filter that is a product of the basic
a. Symmetric analysis and synthesis filters
b. Skew-symmetric a. Antialiasing filter
c. Diagonal b. Matched filter
d. None of the above c. Nyquist filter
2. Has a distortionless response over one d. Product filter
or more frequency bands and zero 7. An even-order causal FIR filter with
response elsewhere. Major categories antisymmetric impulse response
are: lowpass (LPF), highpass (HPF), a. Type-I FIR filter
bandpass (BPF), and bandstop (BSF) b. Type-II FIR filter
filter c. Type-III FIR filter
a. Comb filter d. Type-IV FIR filter
b. Ideal frequency-selective filter
c. Practical or nonideal filter 8. Which of the following is memoryless?
d. Notch filter a. y[n]+2y[n-1]=x[n+1]
b. I
3. The fourier series of a real periodic c. II
function has only d. III
i. P cosine terms if it is e. IV
even
ii. Q sine terms if it is even 9. A stepper motor
iii. R cosine terms if it is a. Is a two phase induction motor
odd b. Is a kind of rotating amplifier
iv. S sine terms if it is odd c. Is an electromagnetic
a. P and S transducer commonly used to
b. P and R convert an angular position of a
c. Q and S shaft into an electrical
d. Q and R d. Is an electromechanical device
which actuates a train of step
4. If A and B are symmetric matrices then angular (or linear) movements
ABA is in response to
a. Symmetric
b. Skew symmetric 10. If A and B are symmetric matrices then
c. Diagonal ABA is
d. Triangular a. Symmetric
b. Skew symmetric
5. A divide and conquer algorithm that c. Diagonal
uses length N as a power of R for d. Triangular
splitting sequences into R sub-
sequences of equal length at each stage 11. Inverse of a diagonal matrix is
of the algorithm a. Symmetric
a. DFT b. Skew-symmetric
b. FFT c. Diagonal
c. Radix-2 FFT algorithm d. None of the above
d. Radix-R FFT algorithm
12. If A,B are two square matrices such that c. Actuating signal
AB=A and BA=B then d. Primary feedback
a. A,B are idempotent
b. Only A is idempotent 19. If f(x)=-f(x) and f(x) satisfy the Dirichlet’s
c. Only B is idempotent conditions then f(x) can be expanded in
d. None of those a Fourier series containing
a. Only sine terms
13. If A is a mxn matrix such that AB and BA b. Only cosine terms
are both defined, then B is a c. Cosine term and a constant
a. mxn matrix term
b. nxm matrix d. Sine term and a constant term
c. nxn matrix
d. mxm matrix 20. From which of the following transfer
function can be obtained?
14. The triangular Fourier series of an even a. Signal flow graph
function does not have b. Analogous table
a. Constants c. Output-input ratio
b. Cosine terms d. Standard block diagram
c. Sine terms
d. Odd harmonic terms 21. If A and B are two invertible matrices of
same order, then (AB)^-1 is
15. If a matrix A is symmetrical as well as a. AB
skew symmetric then b. BA
a. A is a diagonal matrix c. B^-1A^-1
b. A is a null matrix d. A^-1B^-1
c. A is a unit matrix
d. A is a triangular matrix
16. Consider the following statements

a. The effect of feedback is to
reduce the system error
b. I, II, and III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I and III
17. A control system working under
unknown random action is called
a. Computer controlled system
b. Digital data system 22.
a. 1
c. Stochastic control system
b. -1/2
d. Adaptive control system
c.
d.
18. is the reference input minus
the primary feedback
23. Choose the function f(x), infinity
a. Manipulated variable
a. 3sin(25x)
b. Zero sequence
b. 4cos(20x+3)+2sin(10x) 29. can be systems
c. e^(-|x|)sin(20x) which are time-varying
d. 1
24. If z=log(2-sqrt(2i)) then sin(z) is equal to

a. i
b. 2i
c. 1
d. 2
a. Bode-nyquist stability methods
25. Which of the following is an open loop? b. Transfer functions
a. The respiratory system of man c. Root locus design
b. A system for controlling the d. State model representation
movement of the slide of a
milling machine
30. If a step function is applied to the input
c. A thermostatic control
of a system and the output remains
d. Traffic light control
below a certain level for all the time,
the system is
26. The steady state error due to a ramp
input for a type two system is equal to
a. Zero
b. Infinite
c. Nonzero number
d. Constant
27. The Fourier series expansion for the

function f(x)=sin^2x
a. Sin x + sin 2x a. Not necessary stable
b. 1 – sin2x b. Stable
c. Sin 2x + cos 2x c. Unstable
d. (1-x) cos^2x d. unstable
28. The second derivative input signal is

equal to
a. The time constant of the
system
b. Damping of the system
c. The gain of the system
d. The time constant and
of the system
Question 1 Question 5 The correct answer is: 2000
If a resistor rated at 5 watts Find the total force producing
Question 10
and 6 volts are connected magnetic flux of a circuit
across a battery with an open having 40 V applied across a A circuit of resistance R
circuit voltage of 6 volts. relay coil with 80 turns on 2 ohms and inductance L
What is the internal ohms resistance. Henry has a direct voltage of
resistance of the battery if the 230 volts applied to it. 0.30
resulting current is 0.8 A? The correct answer is: 1,600 second after switching on,
AT the current was found to be 5
The correct answer is: 0.30 amperes. After the current
Question 6
ohm had reached its final value,
What is the force between a the circuit was suddenly
Question 2 point charge 2 x 10^-5 short-circuited. The current
In a test of a 10-ampere coulomb and another 3 x 10^- was again found to be 5
watthour meter having a 6 coulomb when they are 10 ampere at 0.30 second after
constant of 0.40, the disk cm apart in vacuum? short-circuiting the coil. Find
makes 40 revolutions in 55 the value of R and L.
seconds. The average volts The correct answer is: 53.95
and amperes during this kg The correct answer is: 23
period are 116 volts and 10 ohms, 10 H
Question 7
amps. Determine the percent
A constant voltage is applied Question 11
accuracy of this meter at this
to a series RL circuit at t = 0 The open-circuited voltage at
load.
by closing the switch. The terminals of load RL is 30 V.
The correct answer is: voltage across L is 25 volts at Under the conditions of
90.28% t = 0 and drops to 5 volts at t maximum power transfer, the
= 0.025 second. If L = 2 H, load voltage would be ____.
Question 3 what must be the value of R
Calculate the magnetic field in ohms? The correct answer is: 15 V
intensity to produce a
The correct answer is: 128.80 Question 12
magnetic flux density of 10 x
10^-3 Tesla at the center of a How much time is required
Question 8
long solenoid. for electromagnetic energy to
Point charges in air are travel one nautical mile and
The correct answer is: 7958 located accordingly: Q1 = 3 x return to the source?
AT/m 10^-8 C at (0, 0) meters, Q2
= 5 x 10^-8 C at (3, 0) meters The correct answer is: 12.36
Question 4 and Q3 = -5 x 10^-8 C at (0, microseconds
A series circuit consists of a 4) meters. Calculate the field
Question 13
20-ohm resistance, a 150 mH intensity at (3, 4) meters.
inductance and an unknown A magnetomotive force is
capacitance. The circuit is The correct answer is: 59.97 supplied by a current of one
supplied with a voltage v = V/m ampere through 100 turns.
100 sin 377t. Find the value The magnetic circuit consists
Question 9
of capacitance at resonance. of a steel core of 1000
The magnetic flux of 2000 permeability, 10 cm long and
The correct answer is: 47 uF lines is how many in 4 sq. cm area and an air gap
maxwells?
one cm long. What is the field the current drawn by the coil The correct answer is: R/4
intensity at the air gap? alone across a 220 V, 60 Hz
Question 22
source. Determine the
The correct answer is: 124.4 resistance of the non- A 100,000-ohm voltmeter is
oersted inductive resistor. used in measuring the
insulation resistance of a
Question 14
The correct answer is: 3.63 motor. When connected in
A plant has a load of 290 ohms series with the insulation
kilowatt with an average across a 250-Volt line, the
power factor of 70%. The Question 18
instrument reads 1 Volt. What
owner requests you to correct Twenty-four (24) dry cells are is the insulation resistance of
the power factor to reduce its arranged in rows of six (6) in the motor?
power consumption. How series and the four (4) rows
much capacitor kVAR is in parallel. The emf of each The correct answer is: 25.1
required to increase the cell is 1.40 Volt, and internal Mega-ohms
power factor to 90%? resistance of each is 0.08
Question 23
ohm. Determine the current
The correct answer is: 155.39 to an external resistor of 3.2 A lead-sheath cable for
ohms. underground service has a
Question 15
copper conductor (diameter =
The capacitor that stores the The correct answer is: 5.23 A 0.350 inch) surrounded by
charge of 0.5 C at 10 volts 0.20 inch wall of rubber
has a capacitance of ____ Question 19
insulation. Assuming the
farad. Determine the mutual dielectric constant of 4.3 for
inductance between two rubber, calculate the
The correct answer is: 0.05 unity-coupled coils of 6 H and capacitance of the cable per
8 H.
Question 16 mile length.
A 1% d Arsonval meter The correct answer is: 48 H The correct answer is: 0.504
movement has coil and
uF/mile
swamping resistance adding Question 20
to 200 ohms. The full-scale A series RLC circuit when Question 24
voltage is 50 mV. Determine existed by a 10 V sinusoidal An alkaline cell is discharged
the shunt resistance required voltage source of variable at a steady state current of 4
producing 1 A full scale frequency, exhibits amp at 12 hours, the average
current meter. resonance at 100 HZ and has terminal voltage being 1.2
a 3 dB band width of 5 Hz. volt. To restore it to its
The correct answer is: 50.01 The voltage across the original state of charge, a
milli-ohms inductor L at resonance is steady current of 3 amp for
Question 17 20 hrs is required, the
The correct answer is: 200 V
A coil has a resistance of 6 average terminal voltage
ohms and an inductance of Question 21 being 1.44 volts. What is its
0.02 H. When a non-inductive A certain wire has a watt-hour efficiency?
resistor is connected in series resistance R. The resistance
The correct answer is:
with the coil, the current of another wire identical with
66.67%
drawn when connected to the first except for having
220 V DC source is equal to twice its diameter is Question 25
What is the coefficient of = 0.025 inches; A = 6 square to measure 150 volts at full
coupling of two coils whose inches. What is the scale?
mutual inductance is 1 H and capacitance of the capacitor?
whose self-inductances are The correct answer is: 70
1.2 and 2 H? The correct answer is: 4372 kilo-ohms
picofarad
Question 34
The correct answer is: 0.645
Question 30 One leg of a radio tuned
Question 26 The torque of a spring circuit has a capacitance of 1
What is the energy stored in controlled ammeter varies as x 10^-9 F. It is tuned at 200
a 50 uF capacitor if the the square of the current thru kHz. What is the inductance
impressed voltage is 220 it. If the current of 5 amperes of the other leg in Henry?
volts? produces deflection of 90
degrees, the deflection in The correct answer is: 6.33 x
The correct answer is: 1.21 degrees for a current of 3 10^-4
joules
Question 35
Question 27 A piece of conductor 10 cm
A wound rotor motor, 7.5 HP, Question 31 long moves across a
230 volts, 3-phase takes a Given the following line magnetic field of 10,000
line current of 18.4 ampere, voltages and two load gauss at a velocity of 120
when operating at rated impedances: Vab = 117 cis cm/sec. What voltage
output at an efficiency of (0 deg) V; Vbc = 117 cis (240 appears across the
88%. Calculate the indication deg) V; Vca = 117 cis (120 conductor?
on the wattmeter when this is deg) V; Zab = 5 + j12 ohms;
inserted to measure power by Zbc = 13 + j0 ohms. Solve for The correct answer is: 0.12 V
the T-method. the current in line c.
Question 36
The correct answer is: 3.179 The correct answer is: 17.95 A certain capacitor is charged
kW A at 48 volts after which its
stored energy is 5.76 x 10^-2
Question 28 Question 32 joules. What is the
A coil of 10 ohms resistance A certain process uses warm capacitance of the capacitor?
and 0.1 H inductance is water at rate of 2 liters per
connected in parallel with a minute. The water enters at The correct answer is: 50 uF
capacitor of unknown electric heater at 25 deg C to
Question 37
capacitance. If the total 50 deg C. Assuming no heat
A dc ammeter has an internal
impedance of the losses, what is the wattage of
resistance of 0.1 ohm. A
combination is 100 ohms, the heater?
shunt of 1.010 x 10^-3 ohm is
determine the value of the
The correct answer is: 2420 connected to the ammeter.
capacitance.
What is the multiplier of the
Question 33 setup?
The correct answer is: 50 uF
A voltmeter with an internal
Question 29 resistance of 5000 ohms is The correct answer is: 100
Question text calibrated to read 10 volts at
Question 38
A parallel plate capacitor has full-scale. How much series
Two series connected 7 H
the following values: k = 81, d resistance is needed in order
inductors are adjacent to
each other. Their coefficient The correct answer is: 10 The correct answer is: 0.50
of coupling is 0.64. What is Amperes uF
the value of M?
Question 43 Question 47
The correct answer is: 4.48 H A moving coil instrument
having meter resistance of 5
Question 39 A copper wire has a
ohms is to be used as a
Two point charges Q1 = 50 voltmeter 0 - 100 volts. If the resistance of 2.4 ohms at 20
microcoulombs and Q2 = 10 full-scale deflection current is degrees Celsius. Find the
microcoulombs are located at 10 mA, the required series resistance at 75 degrees
(-1, 1, 3) and (3, 1, 0) meters resistance is Celsius. Resistance
respectively. Find the temperature coefficient at 20
magnitude of the force on The correct answer is: 9995 degrees Celsius is
Q1. ohms 0.034/degrees Celsius.
The correct answer is: 4.9 N Question 44 The correct answer is: 6.89
A current transformer has a ohms
Question 40
single turn primary and a 200
An electronic device draws Question 48
turn secondary and is used to
300 watts from its 24 volt measure a.c. current with the A three-phase 230-V circuit
power source. Find effective help of a standard 5-A a.c. serves two single-phase
resistance. ammeter. These loads, A and B. Load A is an
arrangements can measure a induction motor rated 8 hp,
The correct answer is: 1.92 230 V, 0.70 pf, 0.90
line current of up to ____
ohms efficiency, which is connected
ampere,
across lines a and b. Load B
Question 41
The correct answer is: 1000 draws 5 kW at 1.0 pf and is
A magnetic circuit consists of
connected across lines b and
silicon steel of 3000 Question 45
c. Assume a sequence of a-
permeability, of 10 cm length A series loop contains the b-c, solve for the total power
and a cross section of 1.5 sq. following circuit elements in factor of the load.
cm and an air gap of the order: an 8-Volt source, 2 k
same cross section and of 2 ohms resistor. A 3 k ohms The correct answer is: 0.864
cm length. A 1/2 ampere resistor, a 16-Volt source and
current flows through the Question 49
a 7 k ohms resistor. What is
5000 turn coil. What is the the voltage across the 2 k Ten impedances connected
field intensity at the air gap? ohms resistor? Source in parallel draw the following
Voltage are additive. individual current: 5 cis(0
The correct answer is: 1567 deg), 5 cis (5 deg), 5 cis (10
oersted The correct answer is: 4 Volts deg), 5 cis (15 deg), 5 cis (20
deg), 5 cis (25 deg), 5 cis (30
deg), 5 cis (35 deg), 5 cis (40
Find the current in a If two 0.25 uF capacitors are deg), 5 cis (45 deg). What is
conductor through which 2.5 connected in parallel, what the equivalent power factor of
x1 0^21 electrons pass in 10 will be the total effective the circuit?
seconds. capacitance?
Question 50 78.4 cis (214 deg) A, Ic = 75 A magnetic coil produces
If an oscilloscope with a cis (80 deg) A. If the voltages 100,000 Maxwell with 2,000
vertical deflection of 0.1 volt impressed on the load are turns and with a current of 2
rms per centimeter (cm), is balanced 3-phase, having a A. The voltage is cut-off and
used in conjunction with a 10 magnitude of 4140 volts line the flux collapses in 0.01 sec.
ohm shunt resistor to to line, solve for the total What is the average voltage
measure a 25 milli-amp power in kW. that will appear across the
current, compute the vertical coil?
deflection? Select one:
The correct answer is: 2.5 cm The correct answer is:
506.85 200 V
Question 1
Question 7
One ampere-turn is
equivalent to _____ gilberts. A conductor 0.5 m long is
moved at right angle to a
The correct answer is: uniform field strength of 0.12
Wb/m^2 at a speed of 0.2
1.26 Question 4
meter per second. Find the
value of emf induced.
A conductor, 50 mm long,
moves at a velocity of 2.5 The correct answer is:
Question 2 meters per second across a
magnetic field of 0.90 0.012 V
A parallel plate capacitor with Wb/m^2. What is the voltage
air between its plates is generated? Question 8
charged until the potential
difference V appears across The correct answer is: Question text
it. Another capacitor having 0.1125 V Two metallic plates
hard rubber (dielectric separated by 1 cm are
constant = 3) between its Question 5
connected across a 12 V
plates but otherwise identical, battery. A certain material is
is also charged to the same To roughly check his kWh
inserted completely filling the
potential difference. If the meter an electrician hook-up
space between the plates
energy of the first capacitor is a wattmeter, he switched on
and the charge on each plate
W, that of the second is the load, he counted 5 rev in
observed to double. What is
18 sec, the meter constant is
the dielectric constant of the
The correct answer is: 3.2. The wattmeter reads 368
plastic material?
Watts. What is the error of
3W the meter? The correct answer is:
Question 3 The correct answer is: 2

8% slower Question 9
A 3-phase, 3-wire load draws
the following line currents: Ia
Question 6
= 60 cis (330 deg) A, Ib =
A certain capacitor is charged susceptance of 8 mhos and a permeability and an air gap.
at 48 volts after which its capacitive reactor having a The length of the steel core is
stored energy is 5.76 x 10^-2 susceptance of 5 mhos. What 10 cm and the air gap is 2
joules. What is the is the impedance of the cm. Both have same cross
capacitance of the capacitor? section of 1.5 sq cm. A
circuit? current of 1/2 ampere flows
The correct answer is: through the windings to
produce 2351 maxwells flux.
50 uF
0.16 + j0.12 ohms How many turns are there in
the coil?
Question 10
Question 13
To test the accuracy of a
Question text
kilowatt-hour meter an 5,000 turns
electrician used a wattmeter. A current transformer has a
He found out that the meter single turn primary and a 200 Question 16
makes 5 revolutions in 18 turn secondary and is used to
seconds. The meter constant measure a.c. current with the A one-meter rod of 2 cm
is 3.2. What is the help of a standard 5-A a.c. diameter is drawn until its
percentage error if the ammeter. These resistance is 100 times the
wattmeter reading is 3368? arrangements can measure a initial resistance, its length
line current of up to ____ afterward is?
ampere,
5% slower The correct answer is:
12.5 m
Question 11 1000
Question 17
A 5-ohm resistance is Question 14
connected in parallel with a Point charges in air are
10-ohm resistance. Another When two inductors are located accordingly: Q1 = 3 x
set, a 6-ohm and an 8-ohm connected in series aiding, 10^-8 C at (0, 0) meters, Q2
resistances are also their total inductance is 40 = 5 x 10^-8 C at (3, 0) meters
connected in parallel. The mH, when connected series and Q3 = -5 x 10^-8 C at (0,
two sets are connected in opposing the inductance is 4) meters. Calculate the field
series. What is the equivalent 17.5 mH. What is the value of intensity at (3, 4) meters.
resistance?
mutual inductance? Feedback
6.76 ohm
59.97 V/m
562.5
Question 12
Question 18
Question 15
A parallel circuit consists of a
An isolated sphere 10 cm in
resistor having a A magnetic circuit consists of
radius is charged in air to 500
conductance of 4 mhos, an silicon steel of 3000
inductive reactor having a
Volts. How much charge is Three loads, units A, B and C The correct answer is:
required? are connected in parallel and
take currents that are 3 mH
The correct answer is: respectively 12, 10 and 15 A
respectively. Assuming Ia to Question 26
5.563 nC be the reference phasor. Ib
leads Ia by 30 deg and Ic An ammeter has a range of 0
Question 19
lags behind Ia by 65 deg, - 10 amps. What is shunt
calculate the total (resultant) resistance to be connected if
A 120-V per phase, three- the range is increased to 100
current.
phase Y-connected source amps? The internal
delivers power to the The correct answer is: 28.33 resistance of the ammeter is
following delta-connected A 0.10 ohms.
load: Phase 1 = 40 cis (0
deg), Phase 2 = 20 cis (-60 Question 23 The correct answer is:
deg), Phase 3 = 15 cis (45
deg). Solve for the three line 0.0111 ohms
One (1) kW is equal to ____
currents. hp.
Question 27
The correct answer is: The correct answer is:
An ammeter rated 5 A,
13.49 A, 9 A, 22.45 A 1.34 having a resistance of 0.5
ohm, is to be converted into a
Question 20 Question 24 200-V voltmeter by
connecting a resistor in
A voltmeter using a 20 micro- A certain 50 micro-A meter series with the ammeter.
amp meter movement has an movement has a resistance Calculate the value of this
ohm/V rating of of 90 ohms. What value of resistance.
series multiplier is needed to
The correct answer is: The correct answer is:
make an instrument that will
read 5 volts (maximum)?
50 kilo-ohms/V 39.5 ohms
99.91 kilo-ohms
In a series RC circuit, the A battery is formed of five
voltage across the capacitor Question 25 cells joined in series. When
and the resistor are 60 and the external resistance is 4
80 volt respectively, the total A coil of inductance 8 mH, ohms, the current is 1.5 A
voltage is produces 80 uWb of and when the external
magnetic flux. Of this total resistance is 9 ohms, the
flux, 60 uWb are linked to a current falls to 0.75 A. Find
100 V second coil of inductance 2 the internal resistance of
mH, how much is the mutual each cell.
Question 22 inductance between the
coils? The correct answer is:
0.2 ohm
Question 29 Question 33 A galvanometer has a
resistance of 300 ohms.
How much current is A copper wire of unknown What is the ohmic resistance
necessary for a coil of 200 length has a resistance of to make it read one is to ten?
turns to provide a 400 0.80 ohm. By successive
ampere turn magnetizing passes through drawing dies, The correct answer is:
force? the length of the wire is
33.33
increased by 2 1/2 times its
The correct answer is: original value. Assuming that
Question 37
resistivity remains unchanged
2A
during the drawing process,
To double the current range
determine the new value of
Question 30 of a 50-micro-amp, 2 kilo-
its resistance.
ohm moving coil meter
Three resistors having the The correct answer is: movement, the shunt
same resistances are resistance should be
connected in star and across 5 ohms
480 V 3-phase lines. To what The correct answer is:
value should the line voltage Question 34
2 kilo-ohms
be changed to obtain the
same line currents with the The voltage across the Question 38
resistors delta-connected? resistor, inductor and
capacitor in series is 60 V, 90 A single-phase three wire, 60
V and 10 V respectively. Hz, 220 V, watthour meter
160 V What is the voltage across has a disc constant of 1.2.
this circuit? Determine the energy
Question 31 recorder by the meter after
18,000 revolutions of the
If three shielded 100 mH coils 100 V disc.
are connected in series, what
is the total effective The correct answer is:
Question 35
inductance?
21.6 kW-hr
A capacitor with air between
its plates has a capacitance Question 39
300 mH of 3 uF. What is the
capacitance when wax of A three-phase balanced load
Question 32 dielectric constant 2.8 is draws a line current of 80 A
between the plates? at 0.90 lagging power factor.
If relative permittivity of mica Solve for the minimum size in
is 5, its absolute permittivity kVAR of the capacitor bank
is 1.07 uF needed to raise the power
factor to 0.96 leading, if the
Question 36 line to line voltage is 13,200
5*(permittivity of free volts.
space)
The correct answer is: The correct answer is: Four 3 pCoul spheres are in
1338.25 corners of square q 1 cm on
1.25 sin (wt + 75.5 deg) sides. Find the force in
Question 40 Newton?
Question 44
Calculate the equivalent The correct answer is:

power in watt of 100 joules A capacitor of 2 microfarad
with an initial charge q0 is 15.5 x 10^(-10)
per second.
connected across the
Question 48
The correct answer is: terminals of a 10 ohm resistor
and the switch is closed at t =
100 watts 0. Find q0 (micro-coulomb) if Four capacitors A, B, C and
the transient power in the D are connected across a 15-
Question 41 V DC source. The charges
resistor is known to be pR =
360*e^(-10^-5*t) accumulated in A, B and C
The current in an electric are equal to 2000, 750 and
lamp is 5 amperes. What The correct answer is: 1500 uC, respectively. If the
quantity of electricity flows total capacitance of the
toward the filament in 6 120 combination is known to be
minutes? 35 uF, how much charge is
Question 45
accumulated in capacitor D?
A piece of conductor 10 cm The correct answer is:
1800 C long moves across a
magnetic field of 10,000 1000 uC
Question 42
gauss at a velocity of 120
Question 49
cm/sec. What voltage
A one-meter of annealed appears across the
copper 2.5 cm in diameter is conductor? A series RLC circuit with R =
drawn until its resistance is 1 k-ohm, L = 1 H and C =
100 times the initial The correct answer is: 6.25 uF is suddenly
resistance, its diameter connected across a 24 V dc
afterward is? 0.12 V source. At t = 0, i = 0 and q =
0. Determine the current after
The correct answer is: Question 46
0.01 sec.
0.25 cm Calculate the magnitude of The correct answer is:
the electric field at a point
Question 43 5.40 mA
that is 30 cm from a point
charge Q = -3.2 x 10^-6 C.
A coil of 50-ohm resistance Question 50
and of 150-mH inductance is The correct answer is:
connected in parallel with a Three impedances each 10 +
50-uF capacitor. If the source 3.0 x 10^5 N/C j5 ohms are connected delta
voltage is 100 sin (wt + 30 on a balanced three-phase
Question 47
deg), what is the equation of source. If the equation of the
the line current? phase Van = 120 sin wt.
What is the equation of the
line current through the
impedance connected across
phase A and B?
18.59 sin (wt + 3.44

degrees)
A dc ammeter has an internal Feedback arrangements can measure a
resistance of 0.1 ohm. A line current of up to ____
shunt of 1.010 x 10^-3 ohm is The correct answer is: 111 A ampere,
connected to the ammeter.
What is the multiplier of the Find the voltage drop Select one:
setup? developed across D Arsonval
meter movement having an a. 1000
Select one: internal resistance of 1 kilo-
ohms and full current of 150 b. 200
a. 10 micro amperes.
c. 40
b. 80 Select one:
d. 5000
c. 100 a. 150 mV
Feedback
d. 50 b. 150 V
The correct answer is: 1000
Feedback c. 150 kV
A copper disc of radius 0.1m
The correct answer is: 100 d. 150 micro V is rotated about its centre
with 20 revolutions per
Find the flux density having a Feedback second in a uniform magnetic
flux of 20,000 Maxwells field of 0.1 T with its plane
through a perpendicular area The correct answer is: 150 V perpendicular to the field.
of 2 cm squared. The emf induced across the
A coil of 15 H inductance radius of the disc is
Select one: and 10 ohms resistance is
suddenly connected to a 20 Select one:
a. 10,000 gauss volts DC source by closing
switch. The energy stored in a. pi/20 volt
b. 22,000 gauss the magnetic field 2 seconds
after the switch is closed is; b. pi/10 volt
c. 40,000 gauss
Select one: c. 10pi millivolt
d. 20,000 gauss
a. 10 joules d. 20pi millivolt
Feedback
b. 30 joules Feedback
The correct answer is: 10,000
gauss c. 20 joules The correct answer is: 20pi
millivolt
The average value of a d. 16.43 joules
sinusoidal current is 100 A. A coil of 250 turns is wound
Its r.m.s. value is ____. Feedback on a closed iron ring whose
cross sectional area is 20
Select one: The correct answer is: 16.43 cm^2 and mean length of 100
joules cm. Determine the energy
a. 111 A stored in the magnetic field if
A current transformer has a a current of 2 A is passed
b. 63.7 A single turn primary and a 200 through it. Assume a
turn secondary and is used to permeability of iron is 900.
c. 70.7 A measure a.c. current with the
d. 141.4 A help of a standard 5-A a.c. Select one:
ammeter. These
a. 1.88 J If a current of 5A flowing in going into the wattmeter is
a coil of inductance 0.1 H is 115 volts. What is the MW
b. 2.03 J reversed in 10 ms, e.m.f. indicated when the wattmeter
induced in it is ____ volt. reads 800 watts?
c. 2.83 J
Select one: Select one:
d. 3.12 J
a. 1 a. 19.2 MW
Feedback
b. 100 b. 192 MW
The correct answer is: 2.83 J
c. 50 c. 150 MW
A balanced 3-phase load
draws 75 amperes line d. 10,000 d. 15.0 MW
current at 230 volts line to
line and 0.848 lagging power Feedback Feedback
factor. If the two-wattmeter is
used, solve for the readings The correct answer is: 100 The correct answer is: 192
of the two wattmeters. MW
If an oscilloscope with a
Select one: vertical deflection of 0.1 volt Question 14
rms per centimeter (cm), is
a. 17.24 kW, 8.10 kW used in conjunction with a 10 Correct
ohm shunt resistor to measure
b. 15.32 kW, 10.02 kW a 25 milli-amp current, Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
compute the vertical Flag question
c. 17.86 kW, 7.48 kW deflection?
d. 16.42 kW, 8.92 kW Question text
Select one:
Feedback The ohmic resistance of a
a. 25 cm large magnetic contactor is
The correct answer is: 17.24 b. 0.25 cm measured to be 20 ohms. A
kW, 8.10 kW 230 V is impressed on the
c. 0.025 cm contractor and the current is
The decay of a coil is taken as 3.2 A. Neglecting
recorded, it is found that iL = d. 2.5 cm core loss, determine the
10 A at t = 2ms and iL = 3.58 inductance of the contractor
A at t = 6 ms. what is the Feedback in mH?
time constant of the coil.
The correct answer is: 2.5 cm Select one:
Select one:
Question 13 a. 261
a. 6 ms
Correct b. 315
b. 4 ms
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 c. 251
c. 2 ms
Flag question d. 183
d. 3 ms
Question text Feedback
Feedback
At a 115 kV substation, the The correct answer is: 183
The correct answer is: 4 ms PT ratio is 100 and the CT
ratio is 1200/5. The potential Question 15
Incorrect The correct answer is: 1.44 x a. 1 ohm
10^-3 J
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 b. 0.25 ohm
Question 17
Flag question c. 4 ohms
Correct
Question text d. 2 ohms
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
A coil of 40 ohms resistance Feedback
has an inductance of 100 mH Flag question
and is connected in parallel The correct answer is: 0.25
with a 40 uF capacitor. What Question text ohm
is the resonance frequency of
the circuit? A battery is formed of five Question 19
cells joined in series. When
Select one: the external resistance is 4 Correct
ohms, the current is 1.5 A
a. 79.6 Hz and when the external Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
resistance is 9 ohms, the Flag question
b. 47.75 Hz current falls to 0.75 A. Find
the internal resistance of each Question text
c. 60 Hz cell.
d. 23.7 Hz A parallel plate capacitor has
Select one: the following values: k = 81,
Feedback d = 0.025 inches; A = 6
a. 0.3 ohm square inches. What is the
The correct answer is: 47.75 b. 0.2 ohm capacitance of the capacitor?
Hz
c. 0.5 ohm Select one:
Question 16
d. 1.0 ohm a. 437.2 picofarad
Correct
Feedback b. 4372 picofarad
The correct answer is: 0.2 c. 4.372 picofarad
Flag question ohm d. 43.72 picofarad
Question text Question 18 Feedback
A 20 uF capacitor is charged Correct
by a 12-V battery. What is The correct answer is: 4372
the stored energy in the Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 picofarad
capacitor?
Flag question Question 20
Select one:
Question text Incorrect
a. 1.07 x 10^-3 J
Four cells, each of internal Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
b. 2.88 x 10^-3 J resistance 1 ohm, are Remove flag
connected in parallel. The
c. 2.88 x 10^-2 J battery resistance will be Question text
d. 1.44 x 10^-3 J ____
An ammeter has a range of 0
Feedback Select one: - 10 amps. What is shunt
resistance to be connected if Correct c. none of the above
the range is increased to 100
amps? The internal resistance Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 d. 54 ohms
of the ammeter is 0.10 ohms.
Flag question Feedback
Select one:
Question text The correct answer is: 2
a. 1.111 ohms ohms
A wye-connected, balanced
b. 2.111 ohms three-phase load draws 75 A Question 24
from 230 V, 60 Hz source.
c. 0.111 ohms To measure the total power, Correct
two wattmeters are connected
d. 0.0111 ohms in lines A and C and reads Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
8,625 W and 17,250 W, Flag question
Feedback respectively. Determine the
The correct answer is: 0.0111 impedance of the balanced Question text
ohms load.
If relative permittivity of
Question 21 Select one: mica is 5, its absolute
permittivity is
Incorrect a. 1.77 cis (-30 deg) ohms
Select one:
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 b. 3.07 cis (30 deg) ohms
a. (permittivity of free
Remove flag c. 1.77 cis (30 deg) ohms space)/5
Question text d. 3.77 cis (-30 deg) ohms b. 8.854 x 10^-12
A series RLC circuit is Feedback c. 5*(permittivity of free

consisting of 20 ohms The correct answer is: 3.77 space)
resistor, 20 mH inductor, 100 cis (-30 deg) ohms
uF in series is connected to a d. 5/(permittivity of free
100 V dc source. Find the Question 23 space)
additional resistance just to
prevent the oscillation of the Correct Feedback
resulting transient current The correct answer is:
Select one: 5*(permittivity of free space)
Flag question
a. 82.8 ohms Question 25
Question text
b. 26.2 ohms Correct
If 18 resistances, each of
c. 282 ohms value 36 ohms, are connected Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
in parallel, then the total Flag question
d. 8.28 ohms resistance is ____
Feedback Question text
Select one:
The correct answer is: 8.28 If two 0.25 uF capacitors are
a. 2 ohms connected in parallel, what
ohms
b. 36 ohms will be the total effective
Question 22 capacitance?
Select one: Question text Question 29
a. 0.50 uF A certain capacitor is charged Incorrect

at 48 volts after which its
b. 0.125 uF stored energy is 5.76 x 10^-2 Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
joules. What is the
c. 0.624 uF capacitance of the capacitor? Flag question
d. 2.5 uF Select one: Question text
Feedback a. 50 uF A 12 micro-farad capacitor

charged at 500 Volts and a 6
The correct answer is: 0.50 b. 60 uF micro-farad capacitor
uF charged at 250 Volts are
c. 30 uF connected in parallel. What is
Question 26 the potential difference in the
d. 2 F combination?
Incorrect
Feedback Select one:
The correct answer is: 50 uF a. 750 Volts
Remove flag
Question 28 b. 417 Volts
Question text
Incorrect c. 500 Volts
A milliameter with full-scale
deflection of 1 mA and a Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 d. 450 Volts
resistance of 25 ohms was
used to measure an unknown Remove flag Feedback
current by shunting the meter
with a 1-ohm resistor. The Question text The correct answer is: 500
meter then reads half-scale. Volts
What is the unknown value? To roughly check his kWh
meter an electrician hook-up Question 30
Select one: a wattmeter, he switched on
the load, he counted 5 rev in Correct
a. 12.5 mA 18 sec, the meter constant is
3.2. The wattmeter reads 368 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
b. 130 mA Watts. What is the error of
the meter? Flag question
c. 125 mA
Select one: Question text
d. 13 mA
a. 8% slower A coil has a resistance of 6
Feedback ohms and an inductance of
b. 8% faster 0.02 H. When a non-
The correct answer is: 13 mA inductive resistor is
c. 5% faster connected in series with the
Question 27 coil, the current drawn when
d. 5% slower connected to 220 V DC
Correct
source is equal to the current
Feedback drawn by the coil alone
The correct answer is: 8% across a 220 V, 60 Hz source.
Flag question slower
Determine the resistance of Question text Feedback
the non-inductive resistor.
Given: Vab = 240 cis (0 deg) The correct answer is: 80%
Select one: V, Vbc = 240 cis (240 deg)
V, Vca = 240 cis (120 deg) Question 34
a. 3.69 ohms V, Zab = 6 + j8 ohms, Zbc =
5 + j8.6 ohms, Zca = 10 + j0 Correct
b. 3.96 ohms ohms. Solve for the three line Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
c. 6.39 ohms currents Ia, Ib and Ic.
Flag question
d. 3.63 ohms Select one:
Question text
Feedback a. Ia = 45 A, Ib = 43 A, Ic =
20 A Two coils A and B are
The correct answer is: 3.63 connected in series such that
ohms b. Ia = 48 A, Ib = 43 A, Ic = the total inductances are 1 H
24 A and 0.4 H depending on the
Question 31 direction of current in the
c. Ia = 48 A, Ib = 42 A, Ic =
24 A coils. Calculate the coupling
Incorrect factor between the coils if the
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 d. Ia = 45 A, Ib = 42 A, Ic = self-inductance of coil B is
20 A 0.5 H.
Remove flag
Feedback Select one:
Question text
The correct answer is: Ia = 48 a. 35%
Two similar charges of 250 A, Ib = 42 A, Ic = 24 A
statC are situated on small b. 85%
spheres 15 cm apart. What is Question 33
c. 47%
the potential at point midway
between the spheres? Correct
d. 79%
Select one: Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Feedback
a. 66.7 statV Flag question
The correct answer is: 47%
b. 16.7 statV Question text
Question 35
c. 25 statV A 25 ohms resistor connected
in series with a coil of 50 Correct
d. 33.3 statV ohms resistance and 150 mH Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
inductance. What is the
Feedback power factor of the circuit? Flag question
The correct answer is: 16.7 Select one: Question text
statV
a. 75% A moving coil instrument
Question 32 having meter resistance of 5
b. 80% ohms is to be used as a
Correct voltmeter 0 - 100 volts. If the
c. 90%
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 full-scale deflection current is
d. 85% 10 mA, the required series
Flag question resistance is
Select one: Question text The correct answer is: 682
a. 9995 ohms A capacitor whose plates is Question 39

20 cm x 3.0 cm and is
b. 1000 ohms separated by a 1.0-mm air Correct
gap is connected across a 12-
c. 20 ohms V battery. Determine the Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
d. none of these charge accumulated on each Flag question

plate after a long time.
Select one:
The correct answer is: 9995 Two capacitors 30 and 10
ohms a. 8.1 x 10^-11 C microfarad are connected in
b. 5.3 x 10^-12 C series, what is the total
Question 36 capacitance?
Correct c. 6.4 x 10^-10 C
Select one:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 d. 7.2 x 10^-9 C
a. 40 microfarad
b. 7.5 microfarad
Question text The correct answer is: 6.4 x
10^-10 C c. 20 microfarad
Given the following line d. 300 microfarad
voltages and two load Question 38
impedances: Vab = 117 cis (0 Incorrect Feedback
deg) V; Vbc = 117 cis (240
deg) V; Vca = 117 cis (120 Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is: 7.5
deg) V; Zab = 5 + j12 ohms; microfarad
Zbc = 13 + j0 ohms. Solve Remove flag
for the current in line c. Question 40
Question text
Select one: Correct
The power factor of a load on
a. 18.46 A a 120 volt, 60 Hz source is Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
raised from 0.707 to 0.866 Flag question
b. 16.62 A lagging by connecting a 53
micro-farad capacitor across Question text
c. 17.41 A the load. What is the true
d. 17.95 A power of the load in watts? If a current of 5 A flows
through a long wire of radius
Feedback Select one: 0.004 meter, what is the
magnetic intensity produced
The correct answer is: 17.95 a. 862 0.02 meter away from the
A b. 682 surface of the wire?
Question 37 c. 286 Select one:
Correct d. 268 a. 39.80 AT/m
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Feedback b. 33.17 AT/m
Flag question c. 66.34 AT/m

d. 19.70 AT/m b. 40 joules 90 ohms. What value of
series multiplier is needed to
Feedback c. 10 joules make an instrument that will
read 5 volts (maximum)?
The correct answer is: 39.80 d. 20 joules
AT/m Select one:
Feedback
Question 41 a. 102 kilo-ohms
Correct joules b. 99.91 kilo-ohms
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Question 43 c. 98 kilo-ohms
Flag question Correct d. 110 kilo-ohms
Question text Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Feedback
The resistance of 120 meters Flag question The correct answer is: 99.91
of wire is 12 ohms. What is kilo-ohms
its conductance? Question text
Question 45
Select one: A magnetic coil produces
100,000 Maxwell with 2,000 Correct
a. 6 siemens turns and with a current of 2
A. The voltage is cut-off and Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
b. 12 siemens the flux collapses in 0.01 sec.
What is the average voltage Flag question
c. 0.0521 siemens that will appear across the
coil? Question text
d. 0.0833 siemens
Select one: What is the flux density
Feedback having a flux of 12,000
a. 2,000 kV maxwells through a
The correct answer is: 0.0833 perpendicular area of 6 cm
siemens b. 2 kV squared?
Question 42 c. 200 V Select one:
Incorrect d. 20 kV a. 72 gauss
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Feedback b. 2,000 gauss
Remove flag The correct answer is: 200 V c. 200 gauss
Question text Question 44 d. 72,000 gauss
A coil of resistor of 5 ohms Correct Feedback
and inductance 0.4 H is
connected to a 50 V d.c. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is: 2,000
supply. The energy stored in gauss
the field is Flag question
Question 46
Correct
a. 80 joules A certain 50 micro-A meter
movement has a resistance of Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question Feedback emf induced is 9 V, then the
value of X is
Select one:
A certain wire 20 ft long and Question 48
100 circular mil area has a a. 0.66 Wb-s^-2
resistance of 1.6 ohms. What Correct
is its resistivity? b. -1.5 Wb-s^-2
Select one: c. -0.66 Wb-s^-2
Flag question
a. 2.2 ohm-CM/ft d. 1.5 Wb-s^-2
Question text
b. 8 ohm-CM/ft Feedback
The resistance of the field
c. 10.3 ohm-CM/ft winding of a DC machine is The correct answer is: -1.5
0.25 ohm at 25 degrees C. Wb-s^-2
d. 15.2 ohm-CM/ft When operating at full-load,
the temperature of the Question 50
Feedback winding is 75 degrees C. The
temperature coefficient of Incorrect
The correct answer is: 8 ohm- resistance of copper is
CM/ft Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
0.00427 per degree C at 0
Question 47 degrees C. Find the resistance Remove flag
of the field winding at full-
Correct load. Question text
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Select one: A 100 W, 110 V and 50 W,

110 V lamps are connected in
Flag question a. 0.298 ohm series across a 220 V DC
source. If the resistances of
Question text b. 0.315 ohm the two lamps are assumed to
c. 0.512 ohm remain constant, the voltage
Two metallic plates separated across the 100 W lamp is
by 1 cm are connected across _____ volt.
a 12 V battery. A certain d. 0.271 ohm
material is inserted Feedback Select one:
completely filling the space
between the plates and the The correct answer is: 0.298 a. 73.3 V
charge on each plate ohm
observed to double. What is b. 110 V
the dielectric constant of the Question 49
plastic material? c. 220 V
Incorrect
Select one: d. 146.7 V
a. 6 Feedback
Remove flag
b. 2 The correct answer is: 73.3 V
Question text
c. 0.5 A flat circular coil having 50
A varying magnetic flux loops of wire on in has a
d. 4 linking a coil is given by phi diameter of 48 cm. What
= Xt^2. If at time t = 3 s, the current must flow in its wires
to produce a flux density of Question text The correct answer is: 8.28
0.005 Tesla at its center? ohms
Two similar electric charges
Select one: of 1 C each are placed 1 m Question 5
apart in air. Force of
a. 40.5 amperes repulsion between them Correct
would be nearly ____
b. 38.2 amperes Newton. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
c. 45.5 amperes Select one: Flag question
d. 32.8 amperes a. 1 Question text
Feedback b. 8.854 x 10^-12 A 5-ohm resistor is connected

in parallel with a 10-ohm
The correct answer is: 38.2 c. 4*pi inductive reactance. The
amperes combination is then
d. 9 x 10^9 connected in series with a 4-
Question 2 ohm capacitive reactance.
Feedback The whole combination is
Incorrect
connected across a 100-volt,
The correct answer is: 9 x 60 Hz supply. How much is
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 10^9 the total current drawn by the
Remove flag Question 4 circuit?
Question text Correct Select one:
Calculate the capacitance Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 22.36 A
between two parallel plates
each of which is 100 cm^2 Flag question b. 19.89 A
and 2 mm apart in air.
Question text c. 23.16 A
Select one:
A series RLC circuit is d. 20.45 A
a. 0.443 uuF consisting of 20 ohms Feedback
resistor, 20 mH inductor, 100
b. 0.502 uF uF in series is connected to a The correct answer is: 22.36
c. 0.515 uF 100 V dc source. Find the A
additional resistance just to
d. 0.452 uF prevent the oscillation of the Question 6
resulting transient current
Feedback Correct
Select one:
The correct answer is: 0.443 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
uuF a. 82.8 ohms
Flag question
Question 3 b. 282 ohms
Question text
Correct c. 26.2 ohms
The potential difference
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 d. 8.28 ohms measured across a coil is 4.5
V, when it carries a direct
Flag question Feedback current of 9 A. The same coil
when carries an alternating
current of 9 A at 25 Hz, the Correct c. 3.33 H
potential difference is 24 V.
Find the power when it is Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 d. 0.49 H
supplied by 50 V, 50 Hz
supply. Flag question Feedback
Select one: Question text The correct answer is: 1.43 H
a. 54 W The electric energy required Question 10

to raise the temperature of
b. 63 W water in a pool is 1000 kWh. Correct
If the heat losses are 25%, the
c. 30 W heating energy required will Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
be ____. Flag question
d. 45 W
Feedback
a. 1111 kWh A plate capacitor is made up
The correct answer is: 45 W
b. 1750 kWh of 501 sheet of aluminum 25
Question 7 cm x 30 cm with a dielectric
c. 1333 kWh of paraffin paper 0.0015 cm
Correct thick. What is the capacitance
d. 1266 kWh in microfarads of the
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 condenser (K for paraffin
Feedback paper is 2.3)?
Flag question
The correct answer is: 1333 Select one:
Question text kWh
a. 75
A galvanometer with a 20- Question 9
ohm coil resistance has a full- b. 35
scale deflection current of 10 Incorrect
mA. If a 0.02 ohm is placed c. 50
across the meter to increase Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
its capacity, what is the d. 25
approximate new full scale Remove flag
current of the meter? Feedback
Question text
Select one: The correct answer is: 25
Two coils of inductance 6 &
a. 10.11 A 4 Henries are connected in Question 11
parallel such that its
b. 10.01 A coefficient of coupling is Correct
41% with mutual inductance
c. 11.01 A opposes the self-inductance. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
What is the total inductance Flag question
d. 10.10 A of the combination?
Select one:
The correct answer is: 10.01 A 1% d Arsonval meter
a. 0.94 H movement has coil and
A
b. 1.43 H swamping resistance adding
Question 8 to 200 ohms. The full-scale
voltage is 50 mV. Determine Question 13 d. 12pi x 10^-7 H/m
the shunt resistance required
producing 1 A full scale Correct Feedback
current meter.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is: 4pi x
Select one: 10^-7 H/m
Flag question
a. 52.02 milli-ohms Question 15
Question text
b. 50.01 milli-ohms Correct
A dc motor 10 hp, 230 volts
c. 49.22 milli-ohms has 0.85 efficiency. The Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
allowable voltage drop is
d. 48.74 milli-ohms 10% of input voltage. Find Flag question
the area of wire in circular
Feedback mil if the length is 150 ft. and Question text
resistivity of copper is 10.4 Find the voltage drop
The correct answer is: 50.01 ohm-cmil per ft.
milli-ohms developed across D Arsonval
Select one: meter movement having an
Question 12 internal resistance of 1 kilo-
a. 2588 ohms and full current of 150
Incorrect micro amperes.
b. 3088
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Select one:
c. 6176
Flag question a. 150 mV
d. 5176
Question text b. 150 V
Feedback
To test the accuracy of a c. 150 micro V
kilowatt-hour meter an The correct answer is: 5176
electrician used a wattmeter. d. 150 kV
He found out that the meter Question 14
makes 5 revolutions in 18 Feedback
seconds. The meter constant Incorrect
is 3.2. What is the percentage The correct answer is: 150 V
error if the wattmeter reading Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
Question 16
is 3368? Remove flag
Correct
a. 8% slower Knowing that the absolute
permittivity of air is 8.854 x Flag question
b. 8% faster
10^-12 F/m, determine the
absolute permeability of air. Question text
c. 5% faster
Select one: A 6 H coil whose resistance
d. 5% slower is 12 ohms is connected in
Feedback a. 3pi x 10^-7 H/m series with a 24 ohms resistor
and to a 144 V battery and a
The correct answer is: 5% b. 2pi x 10^-7 H/m switch. The switch is closed
slower at t = 0. Determine the time
c. 4pi x 10^-7 H/m
constant and the steady state Correct Feedback
current of the circuit.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is:
Select one: 5*(permittivity of free space)
Flag question
a. 0.66 sec, 3 A Question 20
Question text
b. 0.36 sec, 12 A Incorrect
The maximum value of a sine
c. 0.50 sec, 6 A wave AC voltage which will Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
produce heat in a resistor at
d. 0.45 sec, 4 A the same average rate as 115 Remove flag
V of direct current is ____.
Select one:
The correct answer is: 0.50 A 100,000-ohm voltmeter is
sec, 6 A a. 230 V used in measuring the
insulation resistance of a
Question 17 b. 81.3 V motor. When connected in
series with the insulation
Incorrect c. 162.6 V across a 250-Volt line, the
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 instrument reads 1 Volt.
d. 115 V What is the insulation
Flag question Feedback resistance of the motor?
Question text The correct answer is: 162.6 Select one:

V a. 25.1 Mega-ohms
A non-magnetic ring having a
mean diameter of 30 cm the Question 19
cross-section area is 4 sq. cm b. 29.4 Mega-ohms
and uniformly wound with Correct c. 18.7 Mega-ohms
two conductors A and B over
one another. A has 90 turns Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 d. 24.9 Mega-ohms
and B has 240 turns.
Calculate the first principle of Flag question Feedback
mutual inductance between Question text
the cores. The correct answer is: 25.1
If relative permittivity of Mega-ohms
Select one: mica is 5, its absolute Question 21
a. 11.52 permittivity is
Correct
b. 11.00 Select one:
c. 10.55 a. 5*(permittivity of free
space) Flag question
d. 10.62
b. (permittivity of free Question text
Feedback space)/5
How many circular mils does
The correct answer is: 10.62 c. 5/(permittivity of free a round copper rod of 0.25
space) inch diameter have?
Question 18
d. 8.854 x 10^-12 Select one:
a. 196,000 radius, its capacitance to Flag question
infinity is
b. 62,500 Question text
Select one:
c. 1,963,500 Four 3 pCoul spheres are in
a. 55 uF corners of square q 1 cm on
d. 49,000 sides. Find the force in
b. 55 F Newton?
Feedback
c. 55 pF Select one:
d. 55 nF a. 15.5 x 10^(-10)
Question 22
Feedback b. 4.05 x 10^(-10)
Correct
The correct answer is: 55 pF c. 8.11 x 10^(-10)
Question 24 d. 20.25 x 10^(-10)
Flag question
Correct Feedback
Question text
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is: 15.5 x
If two identical 3 A, 4 ohms 10^(-10)
Norton equivalent circuits are Flag question
connected in parallel with Question 26
like polarity to like, the Question text
combined Norton equivalent Correct
circuit is A capacitor of 2 microfarad
with an initial charge q0 is Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Select one: connected across the
terminals of a 10 ohm resistor Flag question
a. 6 A, 4 ohms and the switch is closed at t =
0. Find q0 (micro-coulomb) Question text
b. 6 A, 8 ohms if the transient power in the
resistor is known to be pR = In a parallel RLC resonant
c. 6 A, 2 ohms 360*e^(-10^-5*t) circuit R = 10 k ohms, C =
0.47 uF, the bandwidth will
d. 3 A, 2 ohms Select one: be.
Feedback a. 2100 Select one:
The correct answer is: 6 A, 8 b. 120 a. 212.76 rad/sec
ohms
c. 102 b. 100 rad/sec
Question 23
d. 1200 c. 2.12 x 10^10 rad/sec
Correct
Feedback d. none of the above
The correct answer is: 120 Feedback
Flag question
Question 25 The correct answer is: 212.76
Question text rad/sec
Correct
If a body is considered as a Question 27
conducting sphere of 0.5 m Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Correct The correct answer is: 33.33 c. 3.2 x 10^6 N/C
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Question 29 d. 2.8 x 10^6 N/C
Flag question Incorrect Feedback
Question text Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is: 3.0 x
10^5 N/C
Assuming an ideal capacitor, Flag question
with no leakage, what is the Question 31
capacitive reactance of 10 Question text
microfarad capacitance of Correct
DC (0 Hz)? A voltmeter with an internal
resistance of 5000 ohms is Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Select one: calibrated to read 10 volts at
full-scale. How much series Flag question
a. 16000 ohms resistance is needed in order
to measure 150 volts at full Question text
b. 0 ohms scale? A single-phase three wire, 60
c. infinite capacitive Select one: Hz, 220 V, watthour meter
reactance has a disc constant of 1.2.
a. 78 kilo-ohms Determine the energy
d. 1,000,000 ohms recorder by the meter after
b. 70 kilo-ohms 18,000 revolutions of the
Feedback disc.
c. 75 kilo-ohms
The correct answer is: infinite Select one:
capacitive reactance d. 72 kilo-ohms
a. 21.6 kW-hr
Question 28 Feedback
b. 27.6 kW-hr
Correct The correct answer is: 70
kilo-ohms c. 25.4 kW-hr
Question 30 d. 20.5 kW-hr
Flag question
Correct Feedback
Question text
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is: 21.6
A galvanometer has a kW-hr
resistance of 300 ohms. What Remove flag
is the ohmic resistance to Question 32
make it read one is to ten? Question text
Correct
Select one: Calculate the magnitude of
the electric field at a point Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. 10 that is 30 cm from a point
charge Q = -3.2 x 10^-6 C. Flag question
b. 33.33
c. 30
a. 2.4 x 10^5 N/C Three (3) 10-uF capacitors
d. 100 are connected in series. What
b. 3.0 x 10^5 N/C is the total capacitance?
Feedback
Select one: Two coils of inductances 4 H Question 36
and 6 H are connected in
a. 3.33 uF parallel such that their mutual Incorrect
inductance is 3 H assists the
b. 60 uF self-inductance. The total Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
c. 30 uF inductance of the Remove flag

combination is ____.
d. 6.66 uF Question text
Select one:
Feedback Two similar coils have a
a. 3.75 H coupling coefficient of 0.25
The correct answer is: 3.33 and a mutual inductance of
uF b. 0.94 H
0.9 H. The self-inductance of
c. 2.06 H each coil is ____ Henry.
Question 33
d. 8.25 H Select one:
Correct
Feedback a. 0.2
The correct answer is: 3.75 H b. 0.6
Flag question
Question 35 c. 0.36
Question text
Incorrect d. 0.4
A small single-phase, 240 V
induction motor is tested in Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Feedback
parallel with 160 ohms
resistor. The motor takes 2 Remove flag The correct answer is: 0.6
amperes and the total current
is 3 amperes. What is the Question text Question 37
power of the whole circuit?
The total inductance of two Correct
Select one: coils, A and B when
connected in series aiding is Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. 360 W 0.5 H and 0.2 H when Flag question
connected in series opposing.
b. 800 W Coil A when isolated from Question text
c. 580 W coil B has a self-inductance
of 0.2 H. Calculate the self- Three capacitors of 20, 10
d. 220 W inductance of coil B. and 15 uF respectively are
connected in series across a
Feedback Select one: 100-V supply. Find the
voltage across the 10 uF
The correct answer is: 800 W a. 0.15 H capacitor.
Question 34 b. 0.16 H Select one:
Correct c. 0.20 H a. 46.15 V
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 d. 0.12 H b. 42.38 V
Flag question Feedback c. 38.25 V
Question text The correct answer is: 0.15 H d. 54.52 V
Feedback b. 2.88 x 10^-3 J Select one:
The correct answer is: 46.15 c. 1.44 x 10^-3 J a. 12 siemens

V
d. 1.07 x 10^-3 J b. 0.0521 siemens
Question 38
Feedback c. 6 siemens
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1.44 x d. 0.0833 siemens
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 10^-3 J
Feedback
Flag question Question 40
Question text Correct siemens
Two straight parallel wires 2 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Question 42

m long and 3 mm apart
carries a current of 8.0 A in Flag question Correct
opposite direction. Calculate
the force between these Question text Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
conductors. A 240-V, 25 Hz sinusoidal Flag question
Select one: generator is connected to a 20
ohms resistor. Determine the Question text
a. 8.53 x 10^-3 N instantaneous current when
elapsed time is 0.01 second. A three-phase 230-V circuit
b. 8.75 x 10^-3 N serves two single-phase
Select one: loads, A and B. Load A is an
c. 8.33 x 10^-3 N induction motor rated 8 hp,
a. 16.30 A 230 V, 0.70 pf, 0.90
d. 8.25 x 10^-3 N efficiency, which is
b. 15.43 A connected across lines a and
Feedback b. Load B draws 5 kW at 1.0
c. 12.00 A pf and is connected across
The correct answer is: 8.53 x lines b and c. Assume a
10^-3 N d. 16.97 A
sequence of a-b-c, solve for
Question 39 Feedback the total power factor of the
load.
Correct The correct answer is: 16.97
A Select one:
Question 41 a. 0.864
Flag question
Correct b. 0.886
Question text
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 c. 0.704
A 20 uF capacitor is charged
by a 12-V battery. What is Flag question d. 0.907
the stored energy in the Feedback
capacitor? Question text
The resistance of 120 meters The correct answer is: 0.864

Select one:
of wire is 12 ohms. What is
its conductance? Question 43
a. 2.88 x 10^-2 J
Correct a. 35% The two circuits have the
following values: R1 = 5
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 b. 79% ohms X1 = 3 ohms inductive,
R2 = 7 ohms and X2 = 4
Flag question c. 85% ohms capacitive. If the
Question text d. 47% terminal voltage is 120 volts,
what is the total current?
A circuit whose resistance is Feedback
20 ohms and inductance of Select one:
10 H has a steady state The correct answer is: 47%
a. 35.5
voltage of 100 volts suddenly
applied to it. For the instant Question 45
b. 20.6
of 0.50 second after the Correct
voltage is applied, determine c. 30.8
the total power input to the Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
circuit. d. 14.9
Flag question
Select one: Feedback
Question text
a. 500 watts The correct answer is: 30.8
To roughly check his kWh
b. 116 watts meter an electrician hook-up Question 47
a wattmeter, he switched on Correct
c. 200 watts the load, he counted 5 rev in
d. 316 watts 18 sec, the meter constant is Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
3.2. The wattmeter reads 368
Feedback Watts. What is the error of Flag question
the meter?
The correct answer is: 316 Question text
watts Select one:
A one-meter rod of 2-cm
Question 44 a. 5% faster diameter is drawn until its
resistance is 100 times the
Incorrect b. 5% slower initial resistance. Its length
afterwards is?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 c. 8% slower
Select one:
Flag question d. 8% faster
a. 5 m
b. 10 m
Two coils A and B are The correct answer is: 8%
connected in series such that slower c. 12.5 m
the total inductances are 1 H
and 0.4 H depending on the Question 46 d. 100 m
direction of current in the Correct
coils. Calculate the coupling Feedback
factor between the coils if the Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is: 10 m
self-inductance of coil B is
0.5 H. Flag question Question 48
Select one: Question text Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 d. 862
The relative permeability of a Question 50

certain silicon steel is 4500.
A certain magnetic loop Correct
consists of a silicon steel of
10 cm square, 20 cm long Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
and an air gap of 1/4 cm, Flag question
what is the reluctance of the
magnetic circuit? Question text
Select one: The stator of a 440 V, 50 HP
shunt motor is tested at 75
a. 6.44 x 10^-4 degrees C for its insulation
b. 2.54 x 10^-2 resistance between terminals
connected together and the
c. 6.44 x 10^-3 ground frame. When a 50,000
ohm voltmeter is connected
d. 2.54 x 10^-3 in series with a 600 V DC
source, the meter indicates
Feedback 125 V. Calculate the
insulation resistance.
The correct answer is: 2.54 x
10^-2 Select one:
Question 49 a. 170 kilo-ohms
Correct b. 180 kilo-ohms
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 c. 190 kilo-ohms
Flag question d. 200 kilo-ohms
The power factor of a load on The correct answer is: 190
a 120 volt, 60 Hz source is kilo-ohms
raised from 0.707 to 0.866
lagging by connecting a 53
micro-farad capacitor across
the load. What is the true
power of the load in watts?
Select one:
a. 286
b. 268
c. 682
Question Bank in AC Motors
1. REE Board Exam October 1997 9. REE Board Exam March 1998
A single phase induction motor is rated 5 hp, A 50 HP three-phase motor, rated 220 V, 75%
75% power factor and 220 volts. What is its full power factor has 6 poles. The slip at full load is
load current? 3%. What is the frequency of the rotor current
A. 22.5 amperes at full-load?
B. 20.5 amperes A. 1.8 Hz C. 5.4 Hz
C. 16.5 amperes B. 60 Hz D. 58.2 Hz
D. 18.5 amperes
10. EE Board Exam April 1986
2. EE Board Exam April 1990 A 150 HP, 3-phase, 6-pole, 460 V, 60 Hz
A 5 hp, 3-phase motor draws current when induction motor draws 195 A line current at full-
connected to 230 V. Determine the current load speed of 1170 rpm and 0.85 p.f. Solve for
drawn by the motor if the power factor is 0.90 the percent slip at full-load.
and efficiency of 83%. A. 2.5% C. 2.8%
A. 12.53 A C. 13.25 A B. 3.0% D. 2.0%
B. 15.13 A D. 14.05 A
11. EE Board Exam October 1986
3. EE Board Exam April 1994 The deep well pump motor is 50 HP, 3-phase, 4
A 3-phase motor is rated 750 hp at 460 volts poles, 230 volts, 60 Hz induction motor,
line to line, 0.85 pf lagging and 0.95 efficiency. operating at 0.90 efficiency, 0.85 power factor
Solve for the rated current. and 3% slip. Determine the current at which the
A. 869.64 A C. 405.43 A motor is operating.
B. 702.23 A D. 917.32 A A. 112.7 A C. 120.5 A
B. 122.4 A D. 124.7 A
A 40 hp, 3-phase, 4-pole, 230 volt, 60 Hz, 12. EE Board Exam April 1993
induction motor operating at 0.90 efficiency, The rotor of a 220 V, 60 Hz, 4-pole induction
0.85 power factor and 3 percent slip, drives a motor has a power input of 80 kW is observed
water pump. Determine the current at which the that the rotor emf makes 90 cycles per minute.
motor is operating. Calculate the rotor copper loss.
A. 94.531 A C. 97.915 A A. 2 kW C. 3 kW
B. 96.234 A D. 93.351 A B. 5 kW D. 4 kW
5. EE Board Exam April 1992 13. EE Board Exam October 1990

Calculate the speed of a 60-cycle, 14-pole A 10-HP, 4 pole, 25 Hz, 3-phase induction
motor if the slip is 5%. motor is taking 9100 watts from the line. Core
A. 514.28 rpm loss is 290 watts; stator copper loss is 568
B. 488.57 rpm watts; rotor copper loss is 445 watts and the
C. 456.32 rpm friction and windage loss is 121 watts.
D. 429.63 rpm Determine the output torque in Newton-meters.
A. 108.4 C. 101.2
6. EE Board Exam April 1992 B. 112.5 D. 103.3
The rotor speed of a six-pole, 50-cycle
induction motor is 960 rpm. Calculate the 14. EE Board Exam April 1993
percent slip. The rotor of a 220 V, 60 Hz, 4 pole induction
A. 5% C. 4% motor has a power input of 80 kW is observed
B. 2% D. 3% that the rotor emf makes 90 cycles per minute.
Calculate the mechanical power developed.
7. REE Board Exam October 1997 A. 72 kW C. 75 kW
What is the speed of an induction motor of six B. 78 kW D. 77 kW
poles if the percent slip is 2.5%?
A. 1462 rpm C. 877 rpm 15. EE Board Exam April 1993
B. 1170 rpm D. 1755 rpm Determine the speed in rpm of the motor at full
load with the following circuit elements per
8. EE Board Exam October 1984 phase:
A squirrel cage induction motor with nameplate Rotor leakage reactance = 0.65
data of 150 HP, 3-phase, 460 V, 60 Hz, 6-pole, Stator leakage reactance = 1.12
0.85 p.f. was subjected to certain performance Rotor resistance = 0.10
tests. The test result readings were as follows: Stator resistance = 0.25
Full-load current = 202 A Connection = Y – Y
Full-load torque = 676.8 lb-ft This motor is 500 HP, 3-phase, 2200 volt, 60-
Solve for the percentage slip. cycle, 6- pole induction motor with additional
A. 3.28% C. 3.05% core loss of 2,000 watts and the friction and
B. 4.15% D. 2.25% windage losses total is 10,000 watts.
A. 1200 rpm C. 1190 rpm A. 1.9 kW C. 2.0 kW
B. 1196 rpm D. 1188 rpm B. 1.8 kW D. 2.1 kW

16. EE Board Exam April 1981, April 1989 A wound rotor motor, 7.5 HP, 230 volts, 3-
A 30 HP, 4 poles, 3-phase, 230 volts, 60 Hz phase takes a line current of 18.4 amperes,
squirrel cage induction motor operating at 90% when operating at rated output at an efficiency
efficiency, 85% power factor and 2.5% slip of 88%. Calculate the indications on wattmeters
drives a water pump for a reservoir. Find the when these are inserted to measure power by
current and speed at which the motor is the two wattmeter method.
operating. A. 4.035 kW, 2.325 kW
A. 73.4 A, 1755 rpm B. 4.232 kW, 2.126 kW
B. 62.4 A, 1755 rpm C. 3.902 kW, 2.456 kW
C. 73.4 A, 1800 rpm D. 3.855 kW, 2.503 kW
D. 62.4 A, 1800 rpm
23. EE Board Exam June 1990
17. EE Board Exam October 1980 Two wattmeter method is used to test a 25 HP,
A 50 HP, 3-phase, 4-pole, 60 Hz, 230 volt 230 volt, 1800 rpm, 60 cycle, 3-phase induction
squirrel cage induction motor has an efficiency motor. When the line voltages are 230 volts,
of 90%, a power factor of 85% and a slip of 2% one wattmeter reads +13,400 watts and the
at full-load. Find the torque in lb-ft at full-load. other +7,400 watts. Determine motor line
A. 152.45 C. 121.34 current.
B. 148.87 D. 150.56 A. 55.6 A C. 52.3 A
B. 58.4 A D. 50.8 A
The losses in a 220-V, three-phase, 25 Hz, 4- 24. EE Board Exam April 1992
pole induction motor at full-load are as follows: An induction motor of 30-hp, 220-volts, 3-phase
Core = 3.0% draws 450 percent of the rated current with the
Friction and windage = 2.0% rated voltage and delivers during the starting
Stator Cu loss = 4.0% period 130 percent of the rated torque. The full-
Rotor Cu loss = 2.0% load efficiency and full-load power factor of this
At 70% of full-load of the machine, determine motor is 80% and 70% respectively. If an
its efficiency. autotransformer is used as a starting unit and
A. 90.52% C. 87.24% starting torque of the load is only 50 percent of
B. 88.15% D. 89.81% the rated torque of the motor, find the starting
voltage.
19. EE Board Exam October 1980 A. 136.44 volts
A 100 HP, 440 volt, three-phase, 60 Hz B. 130.65 volts
induction motor operates with 92 percent C. 132.36 volts
efficiency, 0.85 power factor, at rated load. D. 134.20 volts
What is the current of the motor?
A. 125 A C. 98 A 25. EE Board Exam October 1989
B. 115 A D. 55 A A 10-HP, 550 volts, 60 Hz, 3-φ induction motor
has a starting torque of 160% of full-load torque
20. EE Board Exam October 1991 and starting current of 425% of full-load current.
A three-phase wound rotor induction motor, 440 If the motor is used on a 440 volt, 60 Hz
V, 60 cycles, 4 pole is connected to a pump that system, what will be the starting torque
delivers 1000 cfm of water against an effective expressed in percent of full-load value?
head of 8 ft. Under this load, the motor draws A. 102.4% C. 104.2%
15 kW at a power factor of 0.90. When B. 101.8% D. 103.5%
operated without load, the motor draws 800
watts. The stator resistance per phase is 0.21 26. EE Board Exam October 1989
ohm and the rotor resistance per phase is A 10-HP, 550 volts, 60 Hz, 3-φ induction motor
0.022 ohm. The turns ratio between stator and has a starting torque of 160% of full-load torque
rotor is 4:1. Determine the efficiency of the and starting current of 425% of full-load current.
pump. What will be the voltage in order that the
A. 83.62% C. 83.16% starting current be limited to the full-load value?
B. 84.65% D. 84.24% A. 132.47 V C. 125.52 V
B. 129.41 V D. 136.75 V
21. REE Board Exam April 1997
A resistor assembly for a wound rotor consists 27. REE Board Exam October 1998
of 20 elements of cast iron grid elements. The A 25 hp, 230 V, three-phase motor with 85%
rating of each is 0.10 ohm. When joined in power factor has a starting current of 5.5 times
series and tested across 220 volts, the rated current. To reduce the starting current, a
measured current was 100 A. How much power wye-delta is installed. What shall be the new
was lost in the joints? starting current?
A. 195 amps C. 135 amps
B. 302 amps D. 175 amps A. 3,500 rpm C. 875 rpm
B. 1,780 rpm D. 3,450 rpm
28. REE Board Exam October 1997
A squirrel cage motor is started at 50% its rated 35. EE Board Exam April 1993
voltage. What is the starting torque relative to In a certain industrial plant, they have two
its rated voltage starting torque? motors that are connected in concatenation to
A. 50% C. 25% drive a load. Machine A has 4 poles is
B. 100% D. 75% connected to a 50-Hz source, while machine B
which has 8 poles is connected to the rotor of
29. EE Board Exam April 1989 machine A. Find the speed of the combination if
A delta-connected load induction motor draws the slip is 8%.
100 A from each line of a three-phase source A. 460 rpm C. 690 rpm
and develops 40 lb-ft torque at standstill. Find B. 750 rpm D. 1500 rpm
the torque when connected to the same source
if the motor is reconnected in wye. 36. REE Board Exam October 1997
A. 13.3 lb-ft A three phase motor is rated 50 hp, 440 volts
B. 120 lb-ft and 85% power factor. What is its rated
C. 40 lb-ft current?
D. none of these A. 57.8 amps C. 55 amps
B. 57.5 amps D. 59 amps
An induction motor of 30-hp, 220-volts, 3-phase 37. EE Board Exam October 1992
draws 450 percent of the rated current with the The losses in a 220 V, three-phase, 25 Hz, 4-
rated voltage and delivers during the starting pole induction motor at full-load are as follows:
period 130 percent of the rated torque. The full- Core = 3.0%
load efficiency and full-load power factor of this Friction and windage = 2.0%
motor is 80% and 70% respectively. If an Stator Cu loss = 4.0%
autotransformer is used as a starting unit and Rotor Cu loss = 2.0%
starting torque of the load is only 50 percent of At 70% of full-load of the machine, determine
the rated torque of the motor, find the starting its speed and efficiency
voltage and starting current of the line. A. 1,170 rpm and 88.78%
A. 245.78 volts and 301.4 amps B. 740 rpm and 89.81%
B. 136.44 volts and 292.7 amps C. 1,200 rpm and 89.81%
C. 178.90 volts and 288.6 amps D. 1,800 rpm and 78.93%
D. 220 volts and 227.3 amps
31. EE Board Exam October 1986 A 460-volt, 3-φ motor draws 208 amperes with
The deep well pump motor is 50 HP, 3-phase, 4 a power factor of 0.91 lagging. Calculate the
poles, 230 volts, 60 Hz induction motor, cost of energy input to the motor during a 40-
operating at 0.90 efficiency, 0.85 power factor hr/wk with 5.5 cents/kW-hr.
and 3% slip. Determine the discharge of the A. Php545.56/week
pump in cubic meters per minute, assuming B. Php331.78/week
that the total head against which the pump is C. Php145.78/week
working is 50 meters and that the density of D. Php267.89/week
water is 1000 kg per cubic meter.
A. 4.103 C. 4.563 39. EE Board Exam October 1990
B. 4.224 D. 4.205 A 10-hp, 4-pole, 25-Hz, 3-φ induction motor is
taking 9,100 watts from the line. The core loss
32. REE Board Exam September 2000 is 290 watts; stator copper loss is 568 watts;
Find the rotor frequency of an induction motor if rotor copper loss is 445 watts; and the friction
the rotor speed is 1,145 rpm. and windage loss is 121 watts. Determine the
A. 2.75 Hz C. 1.25 Hz output torque in Newton-meter.
B. 5.50 Hz D. 60 Hz A. 150.56 C. 103.32
B. 190.32 D. 178.76
A three-phase induction motor is rated 50 hp, 40. EE Board Exam April 1988
220 volts and 1745 rpm and 78% power factor. A Ball Mill rotor is rated 750-hp, 460 volts line to
What is the percent slip? line, 60 Hz, 0.85 power factor lagging and 0.95
A. 2.5% C. 3.5% efficiency. Solve for the rated current.
B. 3.1% D. 4.0% A. 900 amps C. 780 amps
B. 870 amps D. 990 amps
An AC squirrel cage induction motor has a 41. REE Board Exam September 2001
speed rating of 1,750 rpm. If the leads are such A 70-hp, 230-volts, 3-φ induction motor
that they could be reconnected for consequent operating at 0.77 power factor has a starting
winding, what would be the resulting speed?
current of 5 times its full-load current. Calculate C. universal motor
the starting current. D. repulsion-start induction motor
A. 851 amps
B. 170 amps 49. EE Board Exam April 1992
C. 295 amps A test used to determine the equivalent
D. 1,475 amps resistance of an induction motor is
A. no-load test
42. REE Board Exam September 2001 B. short circuit test
Which of the following is not a reason why a C. blocked rotor test
single phase induction motor will not run? D. polarity test
A. one of the current is made out of phase
between the lines
B. hysteresis
C. shaded poles
D. two windings displaced from each other
Rapid stopping of a motor by momentarily
43. REE Board Exam October 1996 connecting the motor in reverse direction is
The following are types of AC motor starters called
except one A. jogging
A. reactance starter l B. inching
B. wye-delta starter C. plugging
C. across the line starter D. sequence operation
D. capacitance starter
44. REE Board Exam April 1995 Repeated starting and stopping of a motor is
Motor starting device that will reduce the referred to as
voltage impressed at motor’s terminals during A. stepping
starting periods. B. jogging
A. autotransformer C. phasing
B. primary resistor-type D. none of these
C. wye-delta starter
D. all of these
52. EE Board Exam June 1990
An induction motor driven above synchronous
45. EE Board Exam April 1994, April 1992 speed is called
Basically all electric motors operate on the A. induction regulator
principle of repulsion or ____. B. frequency changer
A. induction C. induction generator
B. magnetism D. phase converter
C. resistance
D. capacitance
Unsolved problems
53. REE Board Exam September 2004
46. EE Board Exam April 1994 In an induction motor, what is the percent slip if
The principle of operation of induction motor is the speed is 3,510?
based on A. 1 C. 2
A. Fleming’s right hand rule B. 1.5 D. 2.5
B. rotating magnetic field
C. Faraday’s law
D. Ohm’s law 54. REE Board Exam September 2002
The speed of an induction motor is 1170 rpm.
What is the frequency of the rotor current?
47. EE Board Exam October 1993 A. 2.5 Hz C. 1.5 Hz
A compensator is a device that is used with B. 37.5 Hz D. 3.3 Hz
alternating current motors to ____.
A. boost the supply voltage during starting
periods 55. REE Board Exam September 2002
B. compensate for low power factor when A 3-phase, 220 volt induction motor having a
motor is not fully loaded power factor of 0.8 has 3% losses. Determine
C. reduce the supply voltage during starting the current drawn by the motor.
periods A. 25.23 A C. 20.18 A
D. compensate for voltage drop in the circuit B. 43.69 A D. 14.56 A
48. EE Board Exam April 1992 56. REE Board Exam April 2002
A single-phase motor provided with a squirrel A three-phase squirrel cage motor is started by
cage winding on its rotor in addition to its wye-delta starter. What shall be its starting
regular winding is called torque relative to its rated voltage starting
A. split-phase induction motor torque?
B. repulsion induction motor A. 33.3% C. 57.7%
B. 42.3% D. 100%
66. Regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel-
57. ECE Board Exam November 1999 cage induction motor, (SCIM) which statement
How do you call the speed of an alternating is false.
current (AC) induction motor? A. it prevents cogging
A. Varying supply frequency B. it increases starting torque
B. Varying series resistance of the field C. it produces more uniform torque
C. Varying supply voltage D. it reduces motor ‘hum’ during its operation
D. Varying both the supply voltage and
frequency at the same time 67. The principle of operation of a 3-phase
induction motor is most similar to that of a
58. ECE Board Exam November 1995 A. synchronous motor
The best way to control the speed of an AC B. repulsion-start induction motor
induction motor is by varying the _____. C. transformer with a shorted secondary
A. supply frequency D. capacitor-start, induction-run motor
B. both supply voltage and frequency
simultaneously 68. The magnetizing current drawn by transformers
C. supply voltage and induction motors is the cause of their ____
D. series resistance of the field power factor.
A. zero C. lagging
59. ECE Board Exam November 1997 B. unity D. leading
A two pole, three phase motor has _____ field
poles. 69. The effect of increasing the length of air-gap in
A. 6 C. 2 an induction motor will be to increase the
B. 8 D. 4 A. power factor
B. speed
60. ECE Board Exam November 2001 C. magnetizing current
_____ refers to an AC generator. D. air-gap flux
A. Commutator C. Rotor
B. Motor (AC) D. Alternator 70. In a 3-phase induction motor, the relative speed
of stator flux with respect to ____ is zero.
61. ECE Board Exam November 2000 A. stator winding C. rotor flux
Series motors operated on either AC or DC are B. rotor D. space
sometimes called _____.
A. Universal motors 71. An eight pole wound rotor induction motor
B. General motors operating on 60 Hz supply is driven at 1800
C. Bavarian motors r.p.m. by a prime mover in the opposite
D. Anglo motors direction of revolving magnetic field. The
frequency of rotor current is
62. ECE Board Exam April 2001 A. 60 Hz
What does the term single-phase indicate? B. 120 Hz
A. One input C. 180 Hz
B. One current (one input) D. none of the above
C. One time
D. One voltage (one input) 72. A 3-phase 4 pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs
at a speed of 1440 r.p.m. The rotating field
63. ECE Board Exam November 1996 produced by the rotor rotates at a speed of
Kind of AC-motor, light load high load low ____ r.p.m. with respect to the rotor.
speed. A. 1500 C. 60
A. Synchronous motor B. 1440 D. 0
B. Squirrel cage motor
C. Split phase motor 73. In a 3- induction motor, the rotor field rotates at
D. Universal motor synchronous speed with respect to
A. stator
64. ECE Board Exam November 1996 B. rotor
A two pole, one phase motor has ___field C. stator flux
poles. D. none of the above
A. 8 C. 6
B. 2 D. 4 74. Irrespective of the supply frequency, the torque
developed by a SCIM is the same whenever
65. What is the percent slip of a 4-pole induction ____ is the same.
motor if the output speed is 1,755 rpm? A. supply voltage
A. 3 C. 2.5 B. external load
B. 5 D. 4 C. rotor resistance
D. slip speed
75. The number of stator poles produced in the
rotating magnetic field of a 3-Ф induction motor 86. The torque developed by a 3-phase induction
having 3 slots per pole per phase is motor depends on the following three factors:
A. 3 C. 2 A. speed, frequency, number of poles
B. 6 D. 12 B. voltage, current and stator impedance
C. synchronous speed, rotor speed and
76. The power factor of a squirrel-cage induction frequency
motor is D. rotor emf, rotor current and rotor p.f.
A. low at light loads only
B. low at heavy loads only 87. If the stator voltage and frequency of an
C. low at light and heavy loads only induction motor are reduced proportionately, its
D. low at rated load only A. locked rotor current is reduced
B. torque developed is increased
77. Which of the following rotor quantity in a SCIM C. magnetizing current is decreased
does NOT depend on its slip? D. both A and B
A. reactance
B. speed 88. The efficiency and p.f. of a SCIM increases in
C. induced emf proportion to its
D. frequency A. speed
B. mechanical load
78. A 6-pole, 50-Hz, 3- induction motor is running C. voltage
at 950 rpm and has rotor Cu loss of 5 kW. Its D. rotor torque
rotor input is ____ kW.
A. 100 C. 95 89. A SCIM runs at constant speed only so long as
B. 10 D. 5.3 A. torque developed by it remains constant
B. its supply voltage remains constant
79. The efficiency of a 3-phase induction motor is C. its torque exactly equals the mechanical
approximately proportional to load
A. (1 – s) C. N D. stator flux remains constant
B. s D. Ns
90. The synchronous sped of a linear induction
80. A 6-pole, 50-Hz, 3- induction has a full-load motor does NOT depend on
speed of 950 rpm. At half load, its speed would A. width of pole pitch
be ____ rpm. B. number of poles
A. 475 C. 975 C. supply frequency
B. 500 D. 1000 D. any of the above
81. If rotor input of a SCIM running with a slip of 91. Thrust developed by a linear induction motor
10% is 100 kW, gross power developed by its depends on
rotor is ____ kW. A. synchronous speed
A. 10 C. 99 B. rotor input
B. 90 D. 80 C. number of poles
D. both A and B
82. Pull-out torque of a SCIM occurs at that value
of slip where rotor power factor equals 92. The stator of a 3-phase induction motor
A. unity C. 0.866 produces ____ magnetic field.
B. 0.707 D. 0.5 A. steady
B. rotating
83. When applied rated voltage per phase is C. alternating
reduced by one-half, the starting torque of a D. none of these
SCIM becomes ____ of the starting torque with
full voltage. 93. An induction motor is preferred to a dc motor
A. ½ C. because it
B. ¼ D. A. provides high starting torque
84. If maximum torque of an induction motor is 200 B. provides fine speed control
kg-m at a slip of 12%, the torque at 6% slip C. has simple and rugged construction
would be ____ kg-m. D. none of the above
A. 100 C. 50
B. 160 D. 40 94. A 3-phase induction motor is
A. essentially a constant speed motor
85. The fractional slip of an induction motor is the B. a variable speed motor
ratio C. very costly
A. rotor Cu loss/rotor input D. not easily maintainable
B. stator Cu loss/stator input
C. rotor Cu loss/rotor output 95. The air gap between stator and rotor of a 3-
D. rotor Cu loss/stator Cu loss phase induction motor ranges from
A. 2 cm to 4 cm
B. 0.4 mm to 4 mm 104. If the induction motor shown in Fig. 6.1 runs at
C. 1 cm to 2 cm 1450 rpm, then slip is
D. 4 cm to 6 cm A. 50%
B. 3.3%
96. If the frequency of 3-phase supply to the stator C. 5%
of a 3-phase induction motor is increased, the D. none of these
synchronous speed
A. is decreased 105. In Fig. 6.1, the rotor frequency ____ is when
B. is increased the motor is at standstill.
C. remains unchanged A. zero
D. none of the above B. 25 Hz
C. 50 Hz
97. If Ns is the speed of rotating flux and Nr the D. none of these
speed of the rotor, then the rate at which the
flux cuts the rotor conductors is directly 106. If one of the lines in Fig. 6.1 is interchanged,
proportional to then
A. Ns C. Ns – Nr A. flux speed increases
B. Nr D. Nr – Ns B. flux speed decreases
C. flux speed remains the same but direction
98. In a 3-phase induction motor, the rotor speed is is reversed
____ the synchronous speed. D. none of the above
A. greater than
B. smaller than 107. If a 4-pole induction motor has a synchronous
C. equal to speed of 1500 rpm, then supply frequency is
D. none of these A. 50 Hz
B. 25 Hz
99. The synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction C. 60 Hz
motor having 20 poles and connected to a 50 D. none of these
Hz source is
A. 600 rpm C. 1200 rpm 108. The full-load slip of a 3-phase induction motor
B. 1000 rpm D. 300 rpm ranges from
A. 10% to 20%
100. The relation among synchronous speed (Ns), B. 20% to 30%
rotor speed (Nr) and slip (s) is C. 2% to 5%
A. Nr = (s – 1)Ns D. none of these
B. Nr = (1 – s)Ns
C. Nr = (1 + s)Ns 109. The direction of rotation of field in a 3-phase
D. Nr = sNs induction motor depends upon
A. number of poles
101. When a 3-phase induction motor is at no load, B. magnitude of supply voltage
the slip is C. supply frequency
A. 1 D. phase sequence of supply voltage
B. 0.5
C. practically zero 110. The rotor winding of a 3-phase wound rotor
D. 0.2 induction motor is generally ____ connected.
A. star
102. When the rotor of a 3-phase induction motor is B. delta
blocked, the slip is C. partly star partly delta
A. zero C. 0.1 D. none of the above
B. 0.5 D. 1
111. 3-phase wound rotor motors are also called
103. The speed of the rotating flux in Fig. 6.1 will be ____ motors.
3-phase A. synchronous
supply
50 HZ B. slip ring
C. series
D. commutator
P=4
112. The advantage of wound rotor motor is that
A. it is inexpensive
3-Phase Induction Motor B. it requires less maintenance
Fig. 6.1 C. external resistance can be inserted in the
A. 1500 rpm rotor circuit
B. 1000 rpm D. none of the above
C. 750 rpm
D. none of these
113. A wound rotor motor is mainly used in 122. When an induction motor is running at full-load,
application where rotor reactance is ____ rotor resistance.
A. a high starting torque is required A. comparable to
B. speed control is not required B. very large compared to
C. less costly motor is required C. large compared to
D. high rotor resistance is required during D. none of the above
running
123. If the slip of a 3-phase induction motor
114. The torque characteristic of a 3-phase increases, the p.f. of the rotor circuit
induction motor is similar to that of A. is increased
A. dc series motor B. is decreased
B. dc shunt motor C. remains unchanged
C. dc differentially compounded motor D. none of the above
D. dc cumulatively compounded motor
124. The magnetizing current drawn by a 3-phase
115. In a wound rotor motor, the rotor winding is induction motor is about ____ of full-load stator
wound for poles ____ that of the stator winding. current.
A. equal to A. 5% C. 15 to 20%
B. greater than B. 10 to 15% D. 30 to 50%
C. smaller than
D. none of these 125. A high starting torque can be obtained in a 3-
phase induction motor by
116. Wound rotors are less extensively used than A. increasing rotor resistance
squirrel cage motor because B. decreasing rotor resistance
A. slip rings are required on the rotor circuit C. increasing rotor reactance
B. rotor windings are generally Y-connected D. none of the above
C. they are costly are required greater
maintenance 126. The starting torque of a 3-phase induction
D. none of the above motor is ____ supply.
A. independent of
117. A 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor operates at 5% B. directly proportional to
slip. The frequency of emf induced in the rotor C. directly proportional to the square of
will be D. none of the above
A. 25 Hz
B. 50 Hz 127. The starting torque of an induction motor is
C. 2.5 Hz maximum when rotor resistance per phase is
D. none of these ____ rotor reactance/phase.
A. equal to
118. The maximum voltage is induced in the rotor of B. two times
a 3-phase induction when it C. four times
A. runs at no-load D. none of these
B. runs at full-load
C. is blocked 128. Under running conditions, the maximum torque
D. none of these of 3-phase induction motor will occur at that
value of slip at which rotor resistance/phase is
119. The reactance of the rotor circuit of a 3-phase ____ rotor reactance/phase.
induction motor is maximum at A. two times
A. no-load B. four times
B. full-load C. equal to
C. half full-load D. none of these
D. starting
129. The maximum torque of a 3-phase induction
120. The rotor current in a 3-phase induction motor motor under running conditions is
is ____ slip. A. inversely proportional to supply voltage
A. inversely proportional to B. inversely proportional to rotor reactance at
B. directly proportional to standstill
C. independent of C. directly proportional to rotor resistance
D. none of these D. none of the above
121. At starting, rotor reactance of a 3-phase 130. If the supply voltage of a 3-phase induction
induction motor is ____ rotor resistance. motor is increased two times, then torque is
A. small as compared to A. increased two times
B. equal to that of B. decreased two times
C. large as compared to C. increased four times
D. none of the above D. decreased four times
131. The 3-phase induction motor is so designed D. none of these
that the rotor should have ____ under running
conditions. 141. In a squirrel cage rotor, the bars are not placed
A. high resistance to the shaft but are skewed to have
B. high reactance A. greater mechanical strength
C. large slip B. less rotor losses
D. low resistance C. uniform torque
D. none of the above
132. If a 3-phase induction motor is running at slip s
(in decimal) then rotor copper loss is equal to 142. In a squirrel cage motor, the number of stator
A. (1 – s) x rotor input slots is ____ rotor slots.
B. (1 + s) x rotor input A. always equal to the number of
C. s x rotor input B. always greater than the number of
D. none of these C. always less than the number of
D. either more or less than the number of
133. If an induction motor is running at slip s (in
decimal) then rotor output is equal to 143. If the air gap between the rotor and stator of 3-
A. (1 + s) x rotor input phase induction motor is increased then
B. (s - 1) x rotor input A. no-load current is decreased
C. s x rotor input B. leakage reactances are decreased
D. (1 – s) x rotor input C. leakage reactances are increased
134. If Ns and Nr are the speeds of rotating field and
rotor respectively, the ratio rotor input/rotor 144. If the slip of induction motor increases, then
output is equal to current in the stator winding
A. Nr/Ns C. Ns - Nr A. is increased
B. Ns/Nr D. Nr – Ns B. is decreased
C. remains unchanged
135. At no-load, the rotor core loss of a 3-phase D. none of the above
induction motor is
A. large 145. The conditions of an induction motor at no-load
B. small resemble those of a transformer whose
C. practically small secondary is
D. none of the above A. short-circuited
B. open-circuited
136. Friction and windage loss of a 3-phase C. supplying a variable resistive load
induction motor are D. none of the above
A. maximum at no load
B. minimum at no load 146. The conditions of an induction motor at
C. remains the same at all loads standstill resemble those of a transformer
D. none of the above whose secondary is
A. short-circuited
137. For higher efficiency of 3-phase induction B. open-circuited
motor, the slip should be C. supplying a variable resistive load
A. large D. none of the above
B. very large
C. as small as possible 147. The conditions of an induction motor on load
D. 1 resemble those of a transformer whose
secondary is
138. If a 3-phase induction motor is running at a slip A. short-circuited
s (in decimal), then approximate efficiency of B. open-circuited
the motor is C. supplying a variable resistive load
2
A. s C. s - 1 D. none of the above
B. 1 + s D. 1 - s
148. The speed of a squirrel cage induction motor is
139. A 3-phase induction motor is running at 2% changed by
slip. If the input to rotor is 1000 W, then A. pole changing
mechanical power developed by the motor is B. rheostatic control
A. 20 W C. 500 W C. cascade control
B. 980 W D. 200 W D. none of these
140. The approximate efficiency of a 3-phase 50 Hz, 149. One of the speeds of a 2-speed squirrel cage
4-pole induction motor running at 1350 rpm is induction motor is 800 rpm (lower speed). The
A. 90% other speed would be
B. 40% A. 400 rpm C. 1600 rpm
C. 65% B. 2400 rpm D. 1200 rpm
A. squirrel cage
150. A four speed squirrel cage induction motor B. wound
uses ____ stator windings. C. either A or C
A. four C. one D. none of these
B. three D. two
160. For the same rating, the size of a single-phase
151. In a double squirrel cage induction motor, the induction motor is about ____ that of the
outer cage winding has corresponding 3-phase induction motor.
A. high inductance A. 3 times C. 1.5 times
B. low resistance B. the same as D. 0.33 times
C. high resistance
D. none of these 161. For the same rating, the p.f. of a single-phase
induction motor is about ____ that of the
152. At starting of a double squirrel cage induction corresponding 3-phase induction motor.
motor A. the same as
A. lower cage winding has low reactance B. less than
B. outer cage winding has good p.f. C. more than
C. lower winding is more effective D. none of these
162. For the same rating, the efficiency of a single-
153. Very large 3-phase induction motors (> 25 HP) phase induction motor is about ____ that of the
are started corresponding 3-phase induction motor.
A. direct on line A. less than
B. star-delta starting B. the same as
C. by autotransformer starting C. more than
D. none of the above D. none of these
154. If the rotor slots are made deeper, rotor 163. Three-phase induction motors are widely used
resistance is for industrial applications because
A. increased at starting A. they are rugged in construction, requires
B. decreased at starting less maintenance and are less expensive
C. increased under running condition than other motors
D. none of the above B. their speed can be controlled very
smoothly over a wide range
C. their operating characteristics are superior
155. In a squirrel cage induction motor, the number
over other electrical motors
of rotor bars is generally
D. they can be manufactured easily for any hp
A. even number
rating
B. equal to stator poles
C. prime number
D. none of these 164. In a three-phase induction motor
A. three-phase supply is to be given to stator
winding and dc supply to the rotor winding
156. In a squirrel cage induction motor, the
maximum torque developed under running
conditions is B. only three-phase supply is to be given to
A. equal to starting torque stator winding
B. full-load torque C. three-phase supply is to be given to both
C. less than starting torque stator and rotor windings
D. much higher than full-load torque D. three-phase supply is to be given to rotor
winding
157. In a wound rotor induction motor, the external
resistance is so adjusted in the rotor circuit that 165. The stator and rotor cores of an induction motor
maximum torque developed is are made up of laminated sheets
A. equal to its starting torque A. to reduce the hysteresis loss in the core
B. equal to its full-load torque B. to reduce the eddy-current loss in the core
C. less than its full-load torque C. to make the rotor and stator mechanically
D. none of the above strong
D. to enable the stator and rotor cores
dissipate heat more effectively
158. For the same kVA rating, the leakage flux in
induction motor is ____ that of transformer.
A. more than 166. The stator and rotor cores of an induction motor
B. less than are made up of magnetic material
C. about the same A. to keep the cost of construction low
D. none of these B. to reduce the magnetizing current
C. to make the parts strong
D. because the reluctance of the magnetic
159. A single-phase induction motor employs ____ material is strong
rotor.
poles of a three-phase induction motor is given
167. In wound-rotor type induction motors the rotor by
terminals are brought out through slip rings A. C.
A. to enable extra resistance to be connected B. D.
across them during starting
B. to enable closing the rotor circuit externally 175. When a 400-V, 50-Hz, 6-pole induction motor is
C. to enable three-phase supply to be applied rotating at 960 rpm on no-load, its slip is
across the rotor winding through rush and A. 1 per cent C. 3 per cent
slip-ring arrangement B. 2 per cent D. 4 per cent
D. to enable connecting the rotor windings
either in star or in delta depending upon 176. The torque-slip characteristic for a three-phase
the need induction motor is such that
A. for lower values of slip, torque is directly
168. A pulsating (alternating) magnetic field will be proportional to slip and for higher values of
produced when slip, torque is inversely proportional to slip
A. two-phase supply is applied across a two- B. for lower values of slip, torque is inversely
phase stator winding proportional to slip and for higher values of
B. three-phase supply is applied across a slip, torque is directly proportional to slip
three-phase stator winding C. for lower values of slip, torque is directly
C. a polyphase supply is applied across a proportional to the square of the slip and
polyphase stator winding for higher values of slip, torque is inversely
D. a single-phase supply is applied across a proportional to slip
single-phase stator winding D. for lower values of slip, torque is directly
proportional to the slip and for higher
169. To make the simplest 6-pole stator winding, at values of slip, torque is inversely
least proportional to square of slip
A. two coils are needed
B. one coil is needed 177. Torque developed by a three-phase, 400-V
C. three coils are needed induction motor is 100 N-m. If the applied
D. six coils are needed voltage is reduced to 200-V, the developed
torque will be
170. The direction of the rotating magnetic field A. 50 N-m C. 200 N-m
produced by the stator ampere-turns of a three- B. 25 N-m D. 62.5 N-m
phase induction motor changes if
A. the sequence of the supply to the stator 178. If the rotor circuit resistance of a three-phase
terminals is changed induction is increased
B. a variable frequency voltage is applied A. its starting torque will increase and the
across the stator terminals maximum torque developed will also
C. the supply voltage is changed increase
D. supply to any one phase is disconnected B. both the starting torque and maximum
torque will remain unchanged
171. A 400-V, 50-Hz, 4-pole, three-phase induction C. its starting torque will increase but the
motor cannot run at 1500 rpm because maximum torque developed will decrease
A. at 1500 rpm there will be no emf induced in D. its starting torque will increase but the
the rotor circuit hence no torque will be maximum torque developed will remain
produced unchanged
B. an induction motor can run only at a speed
higher than its synchronous speed 179. To achieve higher starting torque in a three-
C. at 1500 rpm, torque developed by the rotor phase slip-ring type induction motor
may not be sufficient to rotate the rotor A. extra resistance should be connected
D. at 1500 rpm, the rotor will draw excessive across the slip-rings terminals
current and may be harmful to the motor B. the phase sequence of the supply to the
motor should be reversed
172. A 400-V, 50-Hz three-phase induction motor C. the supply voltage should be increased
rotates at 1440 rpm on full-load. The motor is D. the windings should first be connected in
wound for star and then in delta
A. 2-poles C. 6-poles
B. 4-poles D. 8-poles 180. For a three-phase induction motor having rotor
circuit resistance of 6 . Maximum torque occurs
173. The slip of a 400-V, three-phase, 4-pole at a slip of 0.6. The value of standstill rotor
induction motor when rotating at 1440 rpm is circuit reactance is
A. 2 per cent C. 4 per cent A. 4.44 C. 1 Ω
B. 3 per cent D. 5 per cent B. 0.36 D. 10 Ω
174. The relation between synchronous speed, 181. While starting a three-phase induction motor, a
stator supply frequency and stator number of star-delta starter is used to
A. reduce the starting current to a safe value A. 1500 rpm C. 1000 rpm
B. achieve higher starting torque B. 1440 rpm D. 750 rpm
C. enable the motor to start in the right
direction 190. The torque developed by an induction motor is
D. be able to reverse the direction of rotation A. directly proportional to the square of the
of the rotor as and when necessary rotor resistance
B. directly proportional to the square of the
182. A delta-connected 400-V, 50-Hz, three-phase supply voltage
induction motor when started direct-on-line C. inversely proportional to the supply voltage
takes a starting current of 30 A. When the D. inversely proportional to the slip
motor is started through a star-delta starter.
The starting current will be 191. The power factor of an induction motor will be
A. 3 A C. 15 A high when
B. 10 A D. 30 A A. running at no-load
B. running at full-load
183. The magnetizing current a three-phase C. rotor is blocked
induction motor is much higher than the D. the rotor is crawling
equivalent transformer because
A. the size of an induction motor is higher 192. A 5-hp, three-phase, 400-V star-connected
than an equivalent transformer squirrel-cage induction motor meant to drive a
B. of the presence of air-gap between stator milling machine, at starting takes about
and rotor in an induction motor A. 40 A C. 150 A
C. grain oriented magnetic material is used for B. 100 A D. 200 A
the core of an induction motor
D. inferior magnetic material is used for the
193. The starting torque of an induction motor can
core of an induction motor
be increased by
A. increasing the rotor reactance
184. Smooth speed control of a three-phase B. increasing the rotor resistance
induction motor over a wide range is possible, C. increasing the supply frequency
by D. giving supply through star-delta starter
A. pole changing method
B. frequency control method
194. For a given three-phase induction motor,
C. using consequent pole technique
maximum torque will be developed at starting if
D. by voltage control method
the rotor parameters are as follows:
A. R2 = 2 , X2 = 8
185. The power input in blocked-rotor test performed B. R2 = 4 , X2 = 8
on a three-phase induction motor is C. R2 = 8 , X2 = 8
approximately equal to D. R2 = 16 , X2 = 8
A. hysteresis loss in the core
2
B. I R loss in the windings
195. The speed of a three-phase induction motor will
C. eddy-current loss in the core
increase if the
D. iron-loss in the core
A. number of poles of the stator winding is
increased
186. The power input in no-load test performed on a B. number of poles of the stator winding is
three-phase induction motor is approximately decreased
equal to C. frequency of the stator supply is decreased
A. hysteresis loss in the core D. resistance of the rotor circuit is increased
2
B. I R loss in the windings
C. eddy-current loss in the core
196. Induction motors now-a-days use die-cast
D. iron-loss in the core
aluminum rotor because
A. aluminum is lighter than copper
187. In the equivalent circuit of a three-phase B. aluminum is cheaper than copper
induction motor the mechanical load on the C. aluminum is easy to cast because of low
motor can be represented by a resistance of melting point and is easily available
value D. aluminum has less resistivity than copper
A. C.
B. D.
197. When the rotor circuit resistance of a polyphase
induction motor is increased
188. The phenomenon of squirrel-cage motors A. the staring torque increases
sometime showing tendency to run at a very B. the maximum value of torque decreases
low speed is known as C. the slip at which maximum torque occurs
A. cogging C. damping remains unchanged
B. crawling D. skewing D. maximum torque is developed at starting
189. The speed of revolving field for a 50-Hz, 8-pole 198. In an induction motor the rotor resistance and
machine will be reactance are 0.2 ohm and 5 ohm respectively.
In order that the torque of the motor may be a D. parallel with starting
maximum, the value of slip should be equal to
A. 10% C. 4% 208. The purpose of starting winding in a single-
B. 8% D. 1% phase induction motor is to
A. reduce losses
199. What will happen if the air gap in an induction B. limit temperature rise of the machine
motor is increased? C. produce rotating flux in conjunction with
A. the windage losses will increase main winding
B. the magnetizing current of the rotor will D. none of the above
decrease
C. the power factor will decrease 209. If Im and Is are the current in the main and
D. the speed of the motor will increase starting windings respectively and α is the
angle between Im and Is, then motor torque T
200. An induction motor is said to be crawling if is given by
A. it accelerates too fast A. T α Im Is cos α
B. it is started on full load B. T α Im Is sin α
C. it is subjected to fluctuating load C. T α Im Is
D. it runs at 10 to 15 percent of rated speed D. none of these
201. 210. In the resistance split-phase induction motor

A. C. shown in Fig. 1, the angle α between Im and Is
B. D. is about
SINGLE PHASE MOTORS A. 80 degrees C. 75 degrees

202. Most of single-phase induction motors are ____ B. 65 degrees D. 25 degrees
machines.
A. 2 pole C. 8 pole 211. The starting winding of a split-phase induction
B. 6 pole D. 4 pole motor shown in Fig. 1 is disconnected when the
motor attains about ____ of synchronous
203. The main winding and starting winding of a speed.
single -phase induction motor are connected in A. 75% C. 25%
____ across the supply. B. 50% D. 100%
A. series
B. parallel 212. In the resistance split-phase induction motor
C. series-parallel shown in Fig. 1, the main windings has
D. none of these
A. high resistance and high inductance
204. The starting winding of a single-phase B. high resistance and low inductance
induction motor has ____ that of the main C. low resistance and high inductance
winding. D. low resistance and low inductance
A. more poles than
B. less poles than 213. At starting, the current Is in the starting winding
C. same number of poles shown in Fig. 1
D. none of the above A. lags V by 90 degrees
B. leads V by 90 degrees
205. A 50 Hz, 4 pole single-phase induction motor C. is nearly in phase with V
will have a synchronous speed of D. leads V by 75 degrees
A. 1500 rpm
B. 750 rpm 214. A resistance split-phase induction motor is
C. 1200 rpm used for
D. none of these A. low inertia loads
B. high inertia loads
206. A 4 pole, 50 Hz single-phase induction motor C. very high inertia loads
has a slip of 5%. The speed of the motor will be D. none of the above
A. 1500 rpm
B. 1425 rpm 215. The direction of split-phase induction motor can
C. 1200 rpm be reversed by interchanging the connections
D. none of these of supply of
A. either main or starting winding
207. In a single-phase induction motor, speed B. both main and starting winding
sensitive centrifugal switch is connected in C. rotor winding
____ winding. D. none of the above
A. parallel with main
B. series with main 216. The resistance split-phase induction motor has
C. series with starting ____ starting torque.
A. high 225. The capacitor-start, capacitor-run induction
B. moderate motor acts as a true 2-phase motor at
C. very low A. starting C. all loads
D. none of these B. no load D. full load
217. The resistance split-phase induction motor is 226. The capacitor-start, capacitor-run motor is used
used in those applications where in those applications where
A. starting is frequent A. highly starting torque is required
B. starting period is long B. silence is important
C. starting is infrequent C. noisy operation is not important
D. none of the above D. none of the above
218. The resistance split-phase induction motors are 227. The capacitor-start, capacitor-run motor has
the most popular single-phase induction motors A. no centrifugal switch
because of B. low power factor
A. their low cost C. noisy operation
B. their high starting torque D. low efficiency
C. the long starting period
D. none of the above 228. Capacitor motors ____ resistance split-phase
induction motors.
219. In the capacitor start induction motor shown in A. are costlier than
Fig. 2, the angle α between Im and Is is B. are less costly than
C. cost about the same as
D. poor starting torque than
229. Most of the troubles of single-phase induction

motor are traceable to the
A. exactly 90° C. about 40° A. rotor bars
B. about 30° D. about 75° B. main winding
C. shaft bearings
D. starting switch
220. The value of Is in capacitor-start motor shown
in Fig. 2 is ____ the current Im.
A. equal to 230. The single-phase shaded pole motor has
B. less than that of A. squirrel cage rotor
C. more than that of B. wound rotor
D. none of the above C. high power factor
D. high starting torque
221. The capacitor C used in the capacitor-start
motor shown in Fig. 2 is always a ____ 231. The direction of rotation of shaded pole motor
capacitor. depends upon
A. supply frequency
B. number of poles on the stator
C. which half of the pole is shaded
A. paper C. mica D. supply voltage
B. ceramic D. electrolytic
232. The full-load efficiency of a shaded pole motor
222. At starting, the line current of a capacitor-start is about
induction motor is ____ normal full-load current. A. 70 to 80% C. 30 to 35%
A. 8 to 10 times B. 60 to 70% D. 5 to 10%
B. 4 to 5 times
C. equal to
D. 7 to 8 times 233. The single-phase series motor can operate on
A. ac only
B. dc only
223. In a capacitor-start, capacitor-run motor, ____ C. both ac and dc
winding is cut-out after starting. D. none of these
A. starting
B. main
C. neither A or B 234. For the same rating, a dc series motor costs
D. none of these ___ single phase series motor.
A. about the same as
B. more than
224. A capacitor-start, capacitor-run motor has C. less than
A. low power factor D. none of these
B. high power factor
C. low efficiency
D. high starting torque 235. A 2 HP dc series motor will weigh ___ 2 HP
single-phase series motor.
A. about the same as
B. less than B. reversing connections of starting winding
C. more than C. using a reversing switch
D. none of these D. reversing supply connections
236. A vacuum cleaner employs ____ motor. 246. If a single-phase induction motor runs slower
A. resistance split-phase than normal, the more likely defect is
B. capacitor start A. improper fuses
C. shaded-pole B. shorted running winding
D. single-phase series C. open starting winding
D. worn bearing
237. The best suited motor to drive a 1/4 HP fan in a
hospital would be ____ motor. 247. The capacitor in a capacitor-start induction run
A. shaded pole ac motor is connected in series with ____
B. single-phase series winding.
C. capacitor run A. starting
D. hysteresis B. squirrel-cage
C. running
238. The washing machine generally employs ____ D. compensating
motor.
A. single-phase series motor 248. A permanent-split single-phase capacitor motor
B. resistance split-phase does not have
C. shaded-pole A. centrifugal switch
D. hysteresis B. starting winding
C. squirrel-cage rotor
239. The best suited motor to drive a 3/4 HP air D. high power factor
compressor would be ____ motor.
A. capacitor start 249. The starting torque of a capacitor-start
B. single-phase series induction-run motor is directly related to the
C. shaded pole angle or between its two winding currents by
D. resistance split-phase the relation
A. cos C. tan
240. The least expensive fractional horsepower B. sin D. sin /2
motor is
A. shaded pole C. split phase 250. In a two-value capacitor motor, the capacitor
B. capacitor-start D. ac series used for running purposes is a/an
A. dry-type ac electrolytic capacitor
241. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is B. paper-spaced oil filled type
placed in the C. air-capacitor
A. rotor C. armature D. ceramic type
B. stator D. field
251. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor
242. One of the characteristics of a single-phase motor using two capacitors fails to open, then
motor is that it A. electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability,
A. is self-starting suffer breakdown
B. is not self-starting B. motor will not carry the load
C. requires only one winding C. motor will draw excessively high current
D. can rotate in one direction only D. motor will not come up to the rated speed
243. After the starting winding of a single phase 252. Each of the following statements regarding a
induction motor is disconnected from supply, it shaded-pole motor is true except
continues to run only on ____ winding. A. its direction of rotation is from un-shaded
A. rotor to shaded portion of the poles
B. field B. it has very poor efficiency
C. compensating C. it has very poor p.f.
D. running D. it has high starting torque
244. If starting winding of a single-phase induction 253. Compensating winding is employed in an ac

motor is left in the circuit, it will series motor in order to
A. draw excessive current and overheat A. compensate for decrease in field flux
B. run slower B. increase the total torque
C. run faster C. reduce the sparking at brushes
D. spark at light loads D. reduce effects of armature reaction
245. The direction of rotation of a single-phase 254. A universal motor is one which
motor can be reversed by A. is available universally
A. reversing connections of both windings B. can be marked internationally
C. can be operated either on de or ac supply C. stepper motor
D. runs at dangerously high speed on no-load D. shaded-pole motor
255. In a single-phase series motor the main 264. Usually, large motors are more efficient than
purpose of inductively-wound compensating small ones. The efficiency of the tiny motor is
windings is to reduce the used in a wrist watch is approximately ____ per
A. reactance emf of commutation cent.
B. rotational emf of commutation A. 1 C. 50
C. transformer emf of commutation B. 10 D. 80
265. For production of a rotating magnetic field
256. A repulsion motor is equipped with A. a single-phase supply is to be connected
A. a commutator across a single-phase winding
B. slip-rings B. a two-phase supply should be connected
C. a repeller across a two-phase winding
D. neither A nor B C. a dc supply is to be connected across a
single-phase winding
257. A repulsion-start induction-run single-phase D. the polarities of a dc supply connected
motor runs as an induction motor only when across a single-phase winding should be
A. brushes are shifted to neutral plane continuously reversed through a suitable
B. short-circuiter is disconnected switching-device
C. commutator segments are short-circuited
D. stator winding is reversed 266. When a single-phase supply is connected
across a single-phase winding, the nature of
258. If a dc series motor is operated on ac supply, it magnetic field produced is
will A. pulsating in nature
A. have poor efficiency B. rotating in nature
B. have poor power factor C. constant in magnitude but rotating at
C. spark excessively synchronous speed
D. all of the above D. constant in magnitude and direction
259. An outstanding feature of a universal motor is 267. In a resistance split-phase type single-phase
its induction motor, a time-phase difference
A. best performance at 50 Hz supply between the currents in the main and auxiliary
B. slow speed at all loads winding is achieved by
C. excellent performance on d.c. supply A. placing the two-windings at an angle of 90
D. highest output kW/kg ratio degrees electrical in the stator slots
B. applying two-phase supply across the two
windings
260. The direction of rotation of a hysteresis motor is
C. having different ratio of resistance to
determined by the
inductive reactance for the two windings
A. retentivity of the rotor material
supplied from a single-phase supply
B. amount of hysteresis loss
system
C. permeability of rotor material
D. connecting the two windings in series
D. position of shaded pole with respect to the
across a single phase supply
main pole
261. Speed of the universal motor is 268. In a split-phase capacitor-start induction motor,
a time-phase difference between the currents in
A. dependent on frequency of supply
the main and auxiliary winding is achieved by
B. proportional to frequency of supply
A. placing the two-windings at an angle of 90
C. independent of frequency of supply
degrees electrical in the stator slots
B. applying two-phase supply across the two
windings
262. In the shaded pole squirrel cage-induction C. introducing capacitive reactance in the
motor, the flux in the unshaded part always auxiliary winding circuit
A. leads the flux in the unshaded pole D. connecting the two windings in series
segment across a single phase supply
B. is in phase with the flux in the unshaded
pole segment
C. lags the flux in the unshaded pole segment
269. The direction of rotation of an ordinary shaded
pole single-phase induction motor
A. can be reversed by reversing the supply
terminal connections to the stator winding
263. Which of the following motor is an interesting B. cannot be reversed
example of beneficially utilizing a phenomenon C. can be reversed by open-circuiting the
that is often considered undesirable? shading rings
A. hysteresis motor D. can be reversed by short-circuiting the
B. reluctance motor shading rings
A three-phase synchronous motor is measured
270. Direction of rotation of split-phase type single- by two wattmeters A and B. Wattmeter A reads
phase induction motor can be reversed by 28.6 kW and wattmeter B reads 46.5 kW. The
A. reversing the supply terminals connections input power of the motor is under excited and
B. reversing the connection of only the assumed constant. What are the readings of
auxiliary winding across the supply wattmeters A and B if the power factor is 85%
C. reversing the connections of either the and the motor is over-excited?
main winding or the auxiliary winding A. 48.6 kW, 26.5 kW
terminals B. 42.5 kW, 32.6 kW
D. reversing the connections of only the main C. 52.6 kW, 22.5 kW
winding across the supply terminals D. 51 kW, 24.1 kW
271. In a single-phase repulsion motor, torque is 277. EE Board Exam October 1991
developed on the rotor when the brush axis is A 3,600 volts three-phase star connected turbo
fixed synchronous generator of synchronous
A. at 90 degrees electrical with the stator field reactance of 0.5 ohm per phase and negligible
axis resistance is supplying 30,000 kVA at 0.8 pf
B. in alignment with the stator field axis lagging to a large power system. If the steam
C. at an acute angle with the stator field axis supply is cut-off, calculate the amount of
D. at 90 degrees mechanical with the stator current that the generator will then carry
field axis assuming negligible losses.
A. 3901 A C. 3094 A
B. 3823 A D. 3870 A
272. If the centrifugal switch of a resistance split-
phase induction motor fails to close when the
motor is de-energized, then 278. REE Board Exam October 1994
A. no starting torque will be developed when A wye-connected turbo alternator having a
supply is connected again across the motor synchronous reactance of 0.5 ohm and
terminals negligible resistance is connected to a large
B. a dangerously high current will flow through power system having a busbar voltage of 13.8
the main winding when supply is connected kV supplying a load of 15,000 kVA at 0.80
again across the motor terminals lagging power factor. If the steam supply is cut-
C. starting torque developed may not be off, the armature current will the machine carry
sufficient to enable the motor to restart assuming negligible losses?
D. the motor will develop high starting torque A. 256.55 A C. 384.26 A
when an attempt is made to restart B. 525.62 A D. 627.55 A
273. A dc series motor when connected across an 279. REE Board Exam October 1994
ac supply will A 1,000 kVA, 6,600 V wye-connected three-
A. develop torque in the same direction phase alternator having a reactance of 8.8
B. not develop any torque ohms and a negligible resistance is supplying
C. draw dangerously high current power to a constant frequency bus bar. The
D. develop a pulsating torque open-circuit emf at this instance is 4,311 V per
phase. If steam supply is suddenly cut-off, the
armature current in amperes is nearest to
274. To enable a dc series motor work satisfactorily
A. 57 C. 59
with an ac supply, the following modifications
B. 60 D. 56
should be done
A. The yoke and the poles should be
completely laminated 280. EE Board Exam October 1985
B. Only the poles should be made of An inductive load consumes 10 kW at 0.75 pf
laminated steel lagging. A synchronous motor with a pf of 0.9
C. The air-gap between the stator and the leading is connected in parallel with the
rotor be reduced inductive load. What is the minimum required
D. Compensating poles should be introduced kW size of the synchronous motor so that the
combined load will have a pf of 0.8 lagging?
SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS A. 1.068 kW C. 1.075 kW
B. 1.203 kW D. 1.109 kW
A single phase synchronous motor gives an
output of 9.46 kW at 0.9 lagging p.f. at 600- 281. EE Board Exam April 1980, April 1992
volts. If the stray power loss is 600 watts and An industrial plant draws 500 kW at 0.6 power
the field loss is 900 watts, while the effective factor from a 3-phase system. In order to raise
armature resistance is 0.6-ohm, calculate the the power factor to 0.866 lagging and to supply
efficiency of the synchronous motor. needed additional power, a synchronous motor
A. 82.35% C. 85.25% is added. This motor draws 300 kW, bringing
B. 81.24% D. 84.64% the new total plant load to 800 kW. Neglecting
the losses of the synchronous motor, calculate
its exact required kVA rating.
A. 363.24 kVA
B. 345.23 kVA 289. An electric motor in which both the rotor and
C. 393.34 kVA stator fields rotate with the same speed is
D. 307.35 kVA called a/an ____ motor.
A. d.c.
282. EE Board Exam April 1988 B. Schrage
An existing industrial plant has an average load C. synchronous
of 900 kW at 0.6 pg lagging. To raise the D. universal
overall power factor to 0.92, a synchronous
motor driving a DC generator is to be installed. 290. While running, a synchronous motor is
If the input of the synchronous motor will be compelled to run at synchronous speed
250 kW, calculate its kVA input rating. because of
A. 753 kVA C. 723 kVA A. damping winding in its pole faces
B. 788 kVA D. 715 kVA B. magnetic locking between stator and rotor
poles
283. EE Board Exam October 1994 C. included e.m.f. in rotor field winding by
Power factor improvement may be achieved by stator flux
the use of D. compulsion due to Lenz’s law
A. synchronous motor
B. synchronous converter 291. The direction of rotation of a synchronous
C. long transmission line motor can be reserved by reversing
D. induction motor A. current to the field winding
B. supply phase sequence
284. EE Board Exam October 1993 C. polarity of rotor poles
A synchronous motor D. none of the above
A. will have a low power factor when run
below rated speed 292. When running under no-load condition and with
B. may have its speed varied by inserting a normal excitation, armature current Ia drawn by
rheostat in the DC field current a synchronous motor
C. will slow down with an increase in load A. leads the back e.m.f. Eb by a small angle
within the limits of its pull out torque B. is large
D. will take minimum line current at any load C. lags the applied voltage V by a small angle
when operating at unity power factor D. lags the resultant voltage ER by 90˚
285. EE Board Exam October 1990 293. The angle between the synchronously rotating
In starting a 500 HP, 2,300 volts, 3-phase stator flux and rotor poles of a synchronous
synchronous motor the field winding is initially motor is called ____ angle.
short circuited so as to A. synchronizing
A. provide better flux distribution in the air gap B. torque
B. increase induced voltage in fild winding C. power factor
C. produce much larger starting torque D. slip
D. lower voltage produced between layers of
the field 294. If load angle of a 4 pole synchronous motor is
8˚ (elect.), its value in mechanical degree is
286. EE Board Exam April 1990 ____.
A synchronous motor running without load is A. 4 C. 0.5
A. synchronous converter B. 2 D. 0.25
B. synchronous condenser
C. capacitor motor 295. The maximum value of torque angle in a
D. induction motor synchronous motor is ____ degrees electrical.
A. 45
287. In a synchronous motor, damper winding is B. 90
provided in order to C. between 45 and 90
A. stabilized rotor motion D. below 60
B. suppressed rotor oscillations
C. develop necessary starting torque 296. A synchronous motor running with normal
D. both B and C excitation adjusts to load essentially by
increases in its
288. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of A. power factor
stator back e.m.f. Eb depends on B. torque angle
A. speed of the motor C. back e.m.f.
B. load on the motor D. armature current
C. both the speed and rotor flux
D. d.c. excitation only 297. When load on a synchronous motor running
with normal excitation is increased, armature
current drawn by it increases because
A. back e.m.f. Eb becomes less than applied B. over-excited
voltage V C. under-excited
B. power factor is decreased D. all of the above
C. net resultant voltage ER in armature is
increased 306. If main field current of a salient-pole
D. motor speed is reduced synchronous motor fed from an infinite bus and
running at no-load is reduced to zero, it would
298. When load on a normally-excited synchronous A. come to a stop
motor is increased, its power factor tends to B. continue running at synchronous speed
A. approach unity C. run at sub-synchronous speed
B. become increasingly lagging D. run at super-synchronous speed
C. become increasingly leading
D. remain unchanged 307. In a synchronous machine when the rotor
speed becomes more than the synchronous
299. The effect of increasing load on a synchronous speed during hunting, the damping bars
motor running with normal excitation is to develop
A. increase both its Ia and p.f. A. synchronous motor torque
B. decrease Ia but increase p.f. B. d.c. motor torque
C. increase Ia but decrease p.f. C. induction motor torque
D. decrease both Ia and p.f. D. induction generator torque
300. Ignoring the effects of armature reaction if 308. In a synchronous motor, the rotor Cu losses are
excitation of a synchronous motor running with met by
constant load is increased, its torque angle A. motor input
must necessarily B. armature input
A. decrease C. supply lines
B. increase D. d.c. source
C. remain constant
D. become twice the no-load value 309. A synchronous machine is called a doubly-
excited machine because
301. If the field of a synchronous motor is under- A. it can be overexcited
excited, the power factor will be B. it has two sets of rotor poles
A. lagging C. both its rotor and stator are excited
B. leading D. it needs twice the normal exciting current
C. unity
D. more than unity 310. Synchronous capacitor is
A. an ordinary static capacitor bank
302. Ignoring the effects of armature reaction, if B. an over-excited synchronous motor driving
excitation of a synchronous motor running with mechanical load
constant load is decreased from its normal C. an over-excited synchronous motor
value it leads to running when mechanical load
A. increase in but decrease in Eb D. none of the above
B. increase in Eb but decrease in Ia
C. increase in both Ia and p.f. which is lagging Unsolved problems
D. increase in both Ia and 311. REE Board Exam September 2004
What is the percent slip of the synchronous
303. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus- motor when running?
bars at constant full-load, 100% excitation and A. 3 C. 1
unity p.f. On changing the excitation only, the B. 2.5 D. 0
armature current will have
A. leading p.f. with under-excitation 312. The speed regulation of as synchronous motor
B. leading p.f. with over-excitation is
C. lagging p.f. with over-excitation A. unity
D. no change of p.f. B. zero
C. infinity
304. The V-curves of a synchronous motor show D. always less than one
relationship between
A. excitation current and back emf 313. Synchronous motors are to be used in situation
B. field current and p.f. where
C. dc field current and ac armature current A. the load is constant
D. armature current and supply voltage B. the load is required to be driven at very
high speeds
305. When a load on a synchronous motor is C. the load is to be driven at constant speed
increased, its armature currents is increased D. the starting torque requirement of the load
provided it is is very high
A. normally excited
SYNCHRONOUS CONVERTERS 322. One unique advantage of employing induction
314. EE Board Exam April 1994 regulator method for controlling the dc output
In a three phase synchronous converter, the voltage of a rotary converter is that it
ratio of the AC voltage to DC voltage is A. is extremely simple and relatively cheaper
A. 0.612 C. 0.50 B. responds instantaneously to changes in
B. 1.0 D. 0.707 load
C. can be used for inverters
315. EE Board Exam April 1992 D. gives voltage changes in exact jumps
A 500 kW, 600-V DC, 12-phase synchronous
converter operates as a direct converter at a full 323. The most commonly used connection for
load efficiency of 92% and a power factor of joining the six secondaries of a transformer
0.93. Calculate the AC voltage between slip used for 3-phase to 6-phase conversion is
rings and the AC current drawn from a 12- A. diametrical
phase transformer fed supply. B. zig-zag
A. 112 V, 229 A C. double star
B. 112 V, 215 A D. double-delta
C. 110 V, 229 A
D. 110 V, 215 A 324. The function of a cycloconverter is to convert
A. ac power into dc power
316. EE Board Exam April 1992 B. direct current into alternating current
A generator is rated 600 kVA, 240 V, 60 cycles, C. high ac frequency directly to low ac
3-phase, 6 poles and wye-connected. What will frequency
be the speed of the driving pulley if the driven D. a sine wave into a rectangular wave
and driving pulleys are 1 ft and 2 ft in diameter
respectively? 325. Major disadvantage of using three sets of
A. 2400 rpm C. 600 rpm SCRs for variable voltage speed control of a
B. 1200 rpm D. 900 rpm SCIM is the
2
A. considerable I R loss
317. REE Board Exam October 1998 B. poor power factor
The pulley of an old gen-set has a diameter of C. long delay of thyristor firing pulses
20 inches. The belt exerts a pull of 353 pounds D. necessity of using a processor
on the pulley. The gen-set runs at 900 rpm.
What is the approximate kW rating of the gen- 326. In the current fed frequency converter
set? arrangement for controlling the speed of an
A. 75 C. 200 individual SCIM, the direction of rotation can be
B. 250 D. 37.5 reversed by
A. changing the output frequency of the
318. The speed of a motor-generator set consisting inverter
of a 6-pole induction motor and a 4-pole dc B. altering the phase sequence of pulses that
generator fed from a 3-phase. trigger the d.c link current
A. 1000 C. 1500 C. interchanging any two line leads
B. 600 D. 3000 D. reversing the d.c link current
319. A rotary converter generally 327. In the chopper uses speed control method for a
A. combines the functions of an induction WRIM the motor speed inversely depends on
motor and a d.c. generator A. fixed resistor across the rectifier
B. has a set of slip – rings at both ends B. chopper switching frequency
C. has one armature and two fields C. chopper ON time TON
D. is a synchronous motor and a d.c. D. both B and C
generator combined
328. In the synchronous motor drive using current
320. The a.c. line current at slip-rings in a 6-phase, fed dc link
6-ring, rotary converter having 100% efficiency A. converter-2 functions as a self commutated
and unity p.f. is ____ times the d.c. current. inverter
A. 0.943 C. 0.236 B. converter-1 works as uncontrolled rectifier
B. 0.472 D. 1.414 C. converter-3 is a controlled rectifier
D. gate triggering of converter 2 is done at
321. A 3-phase supply can be converted into a 6- motor frequency
phase supply by joining the secondaries of the
3-phase transformer in 329. In the three cycloconverter drive of a
A. double delta synchronous motor
B. double star A. each cycloconverter produces a 3-phase
C. diametrical output
D. any of the above B. all cycloconverters act as voltage sources
C. a 3-phase controlled rectifier produces
field-exciting current
D. air-gap flux is kept constant by controlling 340. The rotor of a stepper motor has no
stator currents only A. windings
B. commutator
SPECIAL MACHINES C. brushes
330. A single – stack, 4 – phase, 6 – pole VR stepper D. all of the above
motor will have a step angle of
A. 15º C. 45° 341. Wave excitation of a stepper motor results in
B. 30º D. 90º A. microstepping
B. half – stepping
331. In a three-stack 12/8 pole VR motor, the rotor C. increased step angle
pole pitch is D. reduced resolution
A. 15º C. 45°
B. 30º D. 60º 342. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300
steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a pulse
332. A three-stack VR stepper motor has a step rate of ____ pps.
angle of 10º. What is the number of rotor teeth A. 4000 C. 6000
in each stack? B. 8000 D. 10,000
A. 36º C. 18°
B. 24º D. 12° 343. The torque exerted by the rotor magnetic field
of a PM stepping motor with unexcited stator is
333. If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36º called ____ torque.
and a step angle of 9º, the number of its A. reluctance
phases must be B. detent
A. 4 C. 3 C. holding
B. 2 D. 6 D. either B or C
334. What is the step angle of a permanent-magnet 344. A variable reluctance stepper motor is
stepper motor having 8 stator poles and 4 rotor constructed of ____ material with salient poles.
poles? A. paramagnetic
A. 60º C. 30° B. ferromagnetic
B. 45º D. 15º C. diamagnetic
D. non–magnetic
335. A stepping motor is a ____ device.
A. mechanical 345. Though structurally similar to a control
B. electrical transmitter, a control receiver differs from it in
C. analogue the following way
D. incremental A. it has 3-phase stator winding
B. it has a rotor of dumbbell construction
336. Operation of stepping motors at high speed is C. it has a mechanical damper on its shaft
referred to as D. it has a single-phase rotor excitation
A. fast forward C. inching
B. slewing D. jogging 346. The control ____ synchro has three-phase
winding both on its stator and rotor
337. Which of the following phase switching A. differential C. receiver
sequence represents half-step operation of a B. transformer D. transmitter
VR stepper motor?
A. A, B, C, A ……… 347. Regarding voltages induced in the three stator
B. A, C, B, A ………. windings of a synchro, which statement is
C. AB, BC, CA, AB ……… false?
D. A, AB, B, BC ……. A. they depend on rotor position
B. they are in phase
338. The rotational speed of a given stepper motor C. they differ in magnitude
is determined solely by the D. they are polyphase voltages
A. shaft load
B. step pulse frequency 348. The low-torque synchros cannot be used for
C. polarity of stator current A. torque transmission
D. magnitude of stator current B. error detection
C. instrument servos
339. A stepper motor may be considered as a ____ D. robot arm positioning
converter.
A. dc to ac 349. Which of the following synchros are used for
B. ac to ac error detection in a servo control system?
C. dc to ac A. control transmitter
D. digital-to-analogue B. control transformer
C. control receiver
D. both A and B
350. For torque transmission over a long distance 359. Squirrel-cage induction motor is finding
with the help of electrical wires, which of the increasing application in high-power servo
following two switches are used? systems because new methods have been
A. CX and CT found to
B. CX and CR A. increased its rotor resistance
C. CX and CD B. control its torque
D. CT and CD C. decrease its inertia
D. decouple its torque and flux
351. The arrangement required for producing a
rotation equal to the sum or difference of the 360. A six-pole, three-phase squirrel-cage induction
rotation of two shafts consist of the following motor is connected to a 60-cps supply. At full-
coupled synchros. load, the rotor’s induced emf makes 72
A. control transmitter complete cycles in 1 minute. Find the rotor
B. control receiver speed.
C. control differential transmitter A. 1176 rpm C. 1054 rpm
D. all of the above B. 1200 rpm D. 1124 rpm
352. Which of the following motor would suit 361. A 50 HP, 440 V, 3-phase, 60 Hz, 6-pole squirrel
applications where constant speed is cage induction motor is operating at full-load
absolutely essential to ensure a consistent and 0.8 pf. The full-load efficiency is 85% and
product? the percentage slip is 5%. Determine the full-
A. brushes dc motor load torque.
B. disk motor A. 214.55 N-m
C. permanent-magnet synchronous motor B. 206.72 N-m
D. stepper motor C. 312.47 N-m
D. 323.24 N-m
353. A switched reluctance motor differs from a VR
stepper motor in the sense that it 362. A synchronous motor is drawing 60 kW is
A. has rotor poles of ferromagnetic material connected in parallel with a load drawing 250
B. rotates continuously kW at a lagging power factor of 0.8. If the
C. is designed for open – loop operation only combined load has a power factor of 0.9, at
D. has lower efficiency what power factor is the synchronous motor
operating?
354. The electrical displacement between the two A. 0.862 leading
stator windings of a resolver is B. 0.849 leading
A. 120º C. 60° C. 0.868 leading
B. 90º D. 45º D. 0.874 leading
355. Which of the following motor runs from a low dc 363. A three-phase Y-connected synchronous motor
supply and has permanently magnetized with a line-to-line voltage of 440 V and a
salient poles on its rotor? synchronous speed of 900 rpm operates with a
A. permanent magnet dc motor power of 9 kW and a lagging power factor of
B. disk dc motor 0.8. The synchronous reactance per phase is
C. permanent magnet synchronous motor 10 ohms. Determine the torque angle in
D. brushless dc motor electrical degrees.
A. 36.33° C. 35.51°
B. 33.51° D. 38.46°
356. A dc servomotor is similar to a regular dc motor
except that its design is modified to cope with
A. electronic switching 364. A 10-hp, 230-V, three-phase Y-connected
B. slow speeds synchronous motor has a reactance of 3 ohms
C. static conditions per phase and a negligible resistance. To what
D. both B and C voltage must the motor is excited in order to
deliver full load at unity power factor and 90%
efficiency?
357. One of the basic requirements of a servomotor
A. 262 V C. 248 V
is that it must produce high torque at all
B. 254 V D. 242 V
A. loads C. speeds
B. frequencies D. voltages
365. A three-phase, star connected synchronous
motor takes 50 kW at 660 V, the power factor
358. The most common two-phase ac servomotor
being 0.8 lagging. This machine has a
differs from the standard ac induction motor
synchronous reactance of 1 ohm per phase
because it has
with a negligible resistance. If the emf is
A. higher rotor resistance
increased by 30%, the power taken remaining
B. higher power rating
the same, find the new leading current.
C. motor stator windings
A. 94.1 A C. 90.3 A
D. greater inertia
B. 85.2 A D. 88.6 A B. 85.30% D. 83.20%
366. A 6.6 kV, Y-connected synchronous motor has 373. A 15-hp, 230 V, single phase synchronous
a synchronous reactance per phase of 10 ohms motor is taking a current of 50 A at a power
and a negligible resistance. For a certain load, factor of 0.85 leading. Effective resistance is
the motor draws 990 kW at normal voltage. At 0.2 ohm. If this motor drives a mechanical load
this load, the induced emf per phase is 5160 V. of 12 hp, determine its rotational losses.
Determine operating pf. A. 323 W C. 376 W
A. 0.478 C. 0.462 B. 340 W D. 314 W
B. 0.502 D. 0.518
374. A single-phase rotary converter has an output
367. A 75-hp, 600-volt, 1000-rpm, three-phase Y- voltage of 110 volts. Determine the line current
connected synchronous motor has an armature in the AC side when the machine delivers a DC
resistance of 0.05 ohm per phase and a output of 50 A. Assume the machine is
leakage reactance of 0.45 ohm per phase. The operating with a pf of 0.85 and efficiency of
efficiency at rated load, 80% pf leading is 92%. 95%.
Determine mechanical power developed within A. 70.71 A C. 87.57 A
the armature. B. 90.34 A D. 82.23 A
A. 64 kW C. 60 kW
B. 62 kW D. 67 kW 375. Three single-phase transformers connected
delta-delta fed a three-phase rotary converter
368. A 230 V, 60 Hz, 3-phase, Y-connected at 2,300 V. This converter supplies power to a
synchronous motor draws a current of 20 A and DC load that draws 100 kW at 250 V. If the
delivers 8 bhp. Armature resistance per phase rotary converter operates at an efficiency of
is 0.5 Ω. If the iron and friction losses amount 95% at unity pf, calculate the current in the
to 300 W, determine the operating power factor secondary windings of the transformer bank.
of the motor. A. 397 A C. 229 A
A. 0.809 C. 0.866 B. 355 A D. 249 A
B. 0.807 D. 0.862
376. A 4-phase star connected rotary converter
369. A 2200 V, 200 hp, 3-phase mesh connected operating at 0.90 efficiency and 0.85 power
synchronous motor is working on full load at an factor is connected across a 220 V, 60 Hz
efficiency of 0.88 and 0.8 pf leading. The mains and draws 50 A. Determine the DC load
armature reactance per phase is 5 ohms. current.
Determine the induced emf per phase. Neglect A. 208.46 A C. 216.37 A
resistance. B. 220.54 A D. 212.25 A
A. 2377 V C. 2380 V
B. 2345 V D. 2307 V 377. The dc output of a six-phase star-connected
converter is 500 kW at 400 V. If the pf and
370. A 500-hp, 2200 V, 3-phase, star-connected efficiency of the machine is 0.866 and 0.92
synchronous motor has a synchronous respectively, determine the ac current drawn
impedance of 0.3 + j3 Ω per phase. Determine from the supply.
the induced emf per phase if the motor works A. 762 A C. 732 A
on full load with an efficiency of 94% and a B. 740 A D. 729 A
power factor of 0.8 leading.
A. 1360 V C. 1402 V 378. A 600 kW, 6-phase, Y-connected, 18-pole,
B. 1354 V D. 1522 V synchronous converter has simplex lap wound
armature with 1000 conductors. The flux per
371. An alternator rated 530-kVA, is operating at pole is 60 mWb. The machine runs at 600 rpm
0.60 pf lagging. A synchronous condenser is in at rated load. Determine the ac current in the
parallel to improve the pf to 90% lagging. slip rings. Assume the operating power factor
Determine the operating power factor of the and efficiency of the machine equal to 1.0 and
synchronous condenser. Assume the alternator 0.9 respectively.
is not supposed to be overloaded. A. 496.21 A C. 462.25 A
A. 0.546 leading B. 488.42 A D. 472.07 A
B. 0.447 leading
C. 0.643 leading 379. A 4-pole 230-V, 60 Hz, three-phase induction
D. 0.593 leading motor directly drives a 6-pole alternator.
Determine the output frequency. Assume a slip
372. A 230-V, 60-Hz, single-phase synchronous of 3% in the motor.
motor is taking a current of 20 A at 0.866 A. 90.0 Hz C. 86.6 Hz
lagging p.f. Effective armature resistance is 0.3 B. 88.4 Hz D. 87.3 Hz
ohm. Iron and friction losses amount to 450 W.
Determine the efficiency of the motor at this 380. A three-phase rotary converter delivers 150 A
load. Neglect losses in the excitation. at 500 V dc. Determine the current on the AC
A. 86.15% C. 88.52%
side if the operating power factor of the and a reactance of 25 ohms per phase.
machine is 0.8 and the efficiency is 90% Determine the induced emf when fully loaded at
A. 179 A C. 189 A 0.8 power factor lagging.
B. 157 A D. 196 A A. 5521 V C. 5475 V
B. 5362 V D. 5582 V
381. An open delta bank is serving a three-phase
rotary converter. The converter supplies 175 A 389. If Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip,
of current to 1.4 ohm dc resistive load. If the then actual running speed of an induction motor
machine draws an AC current of 100 A at 0.8 pf will be
lagging, determine minimum size of A. Ns C. (1 – s)Ns
transformer needed. B. sNs D. (Ns – 1)s
A. 15.0 kVA C. 25.9 kVA
B. 24.7 kVA D. 19.4 kVA 390. When the synchronous motor has a leading
power factor, the generated emf is ____ than
382. The percent slip of an induction motor is the the applied voltage.
ratio A. equal
A. rotor copper loss / rotor power input B. greater
B. stator copper loss / stator power input C. lesser
C. stator copper loss / rotor power output D. none of these
D. rotor copper loss / stator copper loss
391. The word TEFC stands for
383. An 80 kW, 440 volts, 3-phase Y connected, 60 A. totally enclosed frequency controlled
Hz, 4-pole synchronous motor has a B. torque, energy, frequency controlled
synchronous reactance of 3-ohm per phase. C. totally enclosed fused cooled
Calculate the torque in Newton-meter if it is D. totally enclosed fan cooled
operating at rated condition at 92% efficiency.
A. 714 C. 571 392. Synchronous motor are
B. 135 D. 461 A. self-starting
B. not self-starting
384. A 220 volts single phase induction motor draws C. essentially self-starting
current of 10 amps at 0.75 pf. A capacitor of 50 D. none of these
F is connected in order to improve the power
factor. What is the new power factor? 393. The motor in which stator and rotor magnetic
A. 0. 866 leading field rotate at the same speed is
B. 0.866 lagging A. induction motor
C. 0.95 lagging B. universal motor
D. 0.95 leading C. reduction motor
D. synchronous motor
385. A test is performed on a 230 volts, delta
connected synchronous motor having 92% 394. An over-excited synchronous motor takes
efficiency and 85% power factor. With 6 volts A. lagging current
dc impressed across its terminals, the current B. leading current
reading is 90 amperes. Determine the ohmic C. lagging and leading current
resistance per phase. D. none of these
A. 0.067 /phase
B. 0.44 /phase
395. In a synchronous motor, which loss does not
C. 0.1 /phase
vary with load?
D. 0.15 /phase
A. copper losses
B. hysteresis losses
386. A synchronous motor operates continuously on C. windage losses
the following duty cycle: 50 hp for 10 sec, 100 D. none of the above
hp for 10 sec, 150 hp for 5 sec, 120 hp for 20
sec, idling for 14 sec. What would be the size of
396. Squirrel cage induction motor differs from the
motor to be used?
slip ring type in that it has no
A. 90 hp C. 150 hp
A. slip rings
B. 100 hp D. 120 hp
B. windings on the stator
C. rotor winding
387. A polyphase motor may be protected against D. rotating part
reversal of rotation by using a
A. reverse speed relay
397. A 3- synchronous motor runs at full-load speed
B. reverse power relay
of 1200 rpm. If the load is reduced to one-half
C. reverse phase relay
of rated, calculate its speed regulation.
D. reverse current relay
A. 100% C. 0%
B. 50% D. 86.6%
388. A 1000 kVA, 11 kV, 3-phase, Y-connected
synchronous motor has a resistance of 3 ohms
398. An industrial load is taking 500 kW at 0.6 A. 7.5 ohms
lagging p.f. is desired to raise the p.f. to 0.866 B. 9 ohms
lagging using a synchronous machine whose C. 15 ohms
power input is 300 kW. Calculate the kVA rating D. none of these
of the motor required for such operation and
the power factor at whuch the motor will 409. EE Board Exam April 1990
operate. A 6-pole, 3-phase, 60 cycle alternator has 12
A. 365 kVA, 0.826 leading slots per pole and four conductors per slot. The
B. 365 kVA, 0.778 leading winding is 5/6 pitch. There are 2,500,000
C. 305 kVA, 0.826 leading Maxwells entering the armature from each
D. 380 kVA, 0.866 leading North Pole, and this flux is sinusoidally
distributed along the air gap. The armature coils
399. A 3–phase, 440-volts, 50 Hz induction motor are all-connected in series. The winding is wye-
has 4% slip. What is the frequency of the rotor connected. Determine the open circuit emf of
induced emf? the alternator.
A. 200 Hz C. 2 Hz A. 532.1 V C. 512.4 V
B. 50 Hz D. 0.2 Hz B. 504.2 V D. 572.4 V
400. What is the ratio of maximum to full-load torque 410. EE Board Exam April 1995
in a motor having a slip of 5% at full-load and A 1200 kVA, 6600 volt, 3-phase, Y-connected
25% at maximum torque? alternator has an effective resistance of 0.40
A. 15 C. 3 ohm and a reactance of 6 ohms per phase. It
B. 2.6 D. 5.2 delivers full load current of 0.80 lagging power
factor at rated voltage. What will be the terminal
401. A 3Φ 6-pole induction motor has a nameplate voltage for the same excitation and load current
speed of 1160 rpm, what is its full-load slip? if the power factor is 0.80 leading?
A. 2.58% C. 3.59% A. 4560 V C. 7898 V
B. 3.3% D. 1.4% B. 9878 V D. 4250 V
402. A 3Φ, induction motor is wound for 4 poles and 411. REE Board Exam March 1998
is supplied from a 50 Hz system. What is the A generator is rated 100 MW, 13.8 kV and 90%
rotor frequency when rotor runs at 1410 rpm? power factor. The effective resistance is 1.5
A. 3 Hz C. 2.9 Hz times the ohmic resistance. The ohmic
B. 2.5 Hz D. 3.5 Hz resistance is obtained by connecting two
terminals to a DC source. The current and
voltage are 87.6 A and 6 V respectively. What
403. is the effective resistance per phase?The
A. C. generator is wye-connected.
B. D. A. 0.0513 ohm C. 0.342 ohm
B. 0.0685 ohm D. 0.0617
404. ohm
A. C.
B. D. 412. REE Board Exam October 1997
To get the armature resistance of a 100 MW,
405. 13.89 kV and 90% power factor generator, two
A. C. terminals are connected to a DC source. The
B. D. measured current and voltage are 87.6
amperes and 6 volts respectively. What is the
DC resistance per phase?
Question Bank in AC GENERATORS A. 0.0223 ohm C. 0.0685
ohm
406. EE Board Exam October 1990 B. 0.0342 ohm D. 0.0617
What is the speed of a 100 kW, 230-volt, three- ohm
phase, four-pole, 60 Hz alternator?
A. 450 rpm C. 1200 rpm 413. EE Board Exam October 1991
B. 900 rpm D. 1800 rpm Determine the efficiency of a 1500 kVA, 2300
V, 3-phase, Y-connected alternator, which
407. REE Board Exam April 1997 operates at rated output with a power factor of
A six-pole, 3-phase AC generator has 72 slots, 80%. The DC armature resistance at 70°C
the coil span is 12. What is the pitch factor? between terminals is 0.08 ohm. The field takes
A. 1.000 C. 0.985 70 A at 120 V from the exciter equipment.
B. 0.939 D. 0.966 Friction and windage losses are 15 kW, iron
loss is 35 kW and stray load losses are 1.5 kW.
Assume the effective armature winding
408. REE Board Exam October 1994 resistance is 1.5 times the DC value.
A 30 MVA, 15 kV three-phase alternator will A. 94.56% C. 93.35%
have a per phase nominal impedance of ____. B. 90.31% D. 92.62%
414. EE Board Exam April 1994 420. EE Board Exam October 1981
A three-phase, 11-kV wye-connected Two alternators are operating in parallel
synchronous alternator has a synchronous supplying a common load of 425 kW at 0.85
reactance of 8 ohms per phase but negligible power factor lagging. Alternator A contributes
resistance. If the excitation is such that the 600 kVAR at 0.92 power factor lagging. Solve
open circuit voltage is 14 kV, determine the for the power factor of alternator B.
power factor at the maximum output. A. 0.813 lagging
A. 0.786 C. 0.793 B. 0.834 lagging
B. 0.772 D. 0.708 C. 0.804 lagging
D. 0.820 lagging
A three-phase AC generator is supplying power 421. EE Board Exam April 1988
to a load of 3200 kW at 230 volts and a power SipalayMines, has two 3-phase, 60 H AC
factor of 60%. Assume that the loss of the line, generators operating in parallel. The first unit
the generator armature and the load is equal to has a capacity of 1000 kVA and the second unit
the 10% of the load, what would be the savings has a capacity of 1500 kVA. The first is driven
in watts if the power factor were raised to 80%? by a prime mover so adjusted that the
A. 100,000 C. 80,000 frequency falls from 61 Hz at no-load to 59.6 Hz
B. 140,000 D. 230,000 at full-load. The second has a different speed-
load characteristics, the frequency falls from
416. EE Board Exam April 1992 61.4 Hz at no-load to 59.2 Hz at full-load. When
A three-phase turbo alternator has a reactance these alternators are jointly delivering 2000 kW,
of 15 ohms and negligible resistance, the what is the load of each generator?
machine draws an armature current of 250 A. 884 kW, 1116 kW
amperes at 0.8 pf lagging when running on B. 867 kW, 1133 kW
12,000 volts infinite bus-bars. If the steam C. 915 kW, 1085 kW
admission is constant but the emf is raised by D. 804 kW, 1196 kW
20%, calculate the new operating pf.
A. 0.547 C. 0.509 422. REE Board Exam March 1998
B. 0.586 D. 0.575 Two alternators are driven by shunt motors.
The shunt motors have speed-load droop
417. EE Board Exam April 1980 characteristics of 3% and 4% respectively. The
A standby Diesel generator set will have the alternators are in parallel and each carrying 50
following loads: inductive load drawing 50 kVA kW. There is no automatic speed-load control.
at 0.8 power factor; Lighting load drawing 20 An additional 50 kW is switched on. What are
kVA at 1.0 power factor. At what power factor the resulting loads of the alternators assuming
will the generator operate? that the speed-load control of each is not
A. 0.855 lagging adjusted?
B. 0.872 lagging A. 78.57 kW, 71.43 kW
C. 0.821 lagging B. 82.51 kW, 67.49 kW
D. 0.894 lagging C. 75 kW, 75 kW
D. 80.31 kW, 69.69 kW
A 250 V, 30 Hz generator supplies power to a 423. EE Board Exam April 1989
parallel circuit consisting of a 20 hp motor There are two alternators, 100 kW, 3-phase in
whose efficiency is 90% at 0.80 pf lagging and parallel are driven by shunt motors whose
a second load that draws an apparent power of speed-load droop characteristics are as follows:
7 kVA at unity pf. Determine the system Alternator no. 1: no-load speed 600 rpm and
reactive power. the full-load speed 530 rpm; while alternator no.
A. 23.582 kVAR C. 10.341 2: no-load speed 590 rpm and the full-load 550
kVAR rpm. For what load will the alternators divide
B. 12.435 kVAR D. 20.384 the load equally?
kVAR A. 62.45 kW C. 67.54 kW
B. 68.78 kW D. 64.67 kW
Two alternators A and B are operating in 424. EE Board Exam April 1989
parallel supplying a load drawing 1000 kVA at There are two alternators, 100 kW, 3-phase in
0.80 power factor lagging. If alternator A parallel are driven by shunt motors whose
contributes 500 kVA at 0.60 power factor speed-load droop characteristics are as follows:
lagging, determine the power factor of Alternator no. 1: no-load speed 600 rpm and
alternator B. the full-load speed 530 rpm; while alternator no.
A. 0.928 lagging 2: no-load speed 590 rpm and the full-load 550
B. 0.852 lagging rpm. What is the greatest load that can be
C. 0.901 lagging delivered without overloading either alternator?
D. 0.977 lagging A. 171.43 kW C. 177.54 kW
B. 168.78 kW D. 164.67 kW
425. ECE Board Exam April 1998 431. The frequency of voltage generated by an
Find the frequency in kilocyles per second in alternator having 4-poles and rotating at 1800
the armature of a 10 pole, 1,200 rpm generator. r.p.m. is ____ Hertz.
A. 1000.0 C. 10.00 A. 60 C. 120
B. 100.0 D. 0.100 B. 7200 D. 450
426. A certain 3-phase, star-connected, 1,000 kVA, 432. A 50-Hz alternator will run at the greatest
11,000 volt alternator has rated current of 52.5 possible speed if it is wound for ____ poles.
amperes. The dc resistance of the winding per A. 8 C. 4
phase is 0.3 ohm. The test results are given B. 6 D. 2
below:
Field current Line voltage 433. The main disadvantage of using short-pitch in
OC Test 12.5 A 422 volts alternators is that it
SC Test 12.5 A 52.5 A A. reduces harmonics in the generated
Determine the full-load voltage regulation at voltage
unity power factor B. reduces the total voltage around the
A. 0.44% C. 0.64% armature coils
C. produces asymmetry in the three phase
B. 0.54% D. 0.74% windings
D. increases Cu of end connections
427. A 10 MVA, 10 kV, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 1,500 rpm 434. Three-phase alternators are invariably Y-
alternator is parallel with each other much connected because
greater capacity. The moment of inertia of the A. magnetic losses are minimized
5 2
rotor is 2 x 10 kg-m and the synchronous B. less turns of wire are required
reactance of the machine is 40%. Calculate the C. smaller conductors can be used
natural time of oscillation. D. higher terminal voltage is obtained
A. 8.3 ms C. 10.3 ms
435. The winding of a 4-pole alternator having 36
B. 9.3 ms D. 11.3 ms slots and a coil span of 1 to 8 is short-pitched
by ___ degrees.
A. 140 C. 20
B. 80 D. 40
428. A 6.6 kV, Y-connected, 3-phase alternator has
a synchronous reactance of 6 ohms per phase
and a negligible resistance. At a certain field 436. If an alternator winding has a fractional pitch of
current the armature is known to induce 5.8 kV 5/6, the coil span is ____ degrees.
per phase. At this excitation, calculate the A. 300 C. 30
maximum power that can be produced. B. 150 D. 60
A. 12 MW C. 11 MW
437. The harmonic which would be totally eliminated
B. 10 MW D. 9.8 MW from the alternator e.m.f. using a fractional
pitch of 4/5 is
rd th
A. 3 C. 5
th th
B. 7 D. 9
and a negligible resistance. At a certain field 438. For eliminating 7th harmonic from the e.m.f.
current the armature is known to induce 5.8 kV wave of an alternator, the fractional-pitch must
per phase. At this excitation, calculate the be ____.
maximum current. A. 2/3 C. 7/8
A. 2.83 kA C. 4.83 kA B. 5/6 D. 6/7
B. 3.83 kA D. 5.83 kA 439. If, in an alternator, chording angle for

th
fundamental flux wave is α, its value for 5
harmonic is
A. 5α C. 25α
430. A 6.6 kV, Y-connected, 3-phase alternator has B. α/5 D. α/25
and a negligible resistance. At a certain field
current the armature is known to induce 5.8 kV 440. Regarding distribution factor of an armature
per phase. At this excitation, calculate the winding of an alternator which is statement is
power factor at maximum power. false?
A. 0.853 C. 0.873 A. it decreases the distribution of coils
(slot/pole) increases
B. higher its value, higher the induced e.m.f
B. 0.863 D. 0.843 per phase
C. it is not affected by the type of winding 2400 V and rated terminal voltage of 3000 V is
either lap or wave ____.
D. its not affected the number of turns per coil A. 20 C. 150
B. -20 D. -26.7
441. When speed of alternator is changed from 3600
r.p.m. to 1800 r.p.m. the generated 450. If, in a 3-Ф alternator, a field current of 50 A
e.m.f./phase will become produces a full-load armature current of 200 A
A. one-half C. four times on short-circuit and 1730 V on open circuit,
B. twice D. one-fourth then its synchronous impedance is ____ ohm.
A. 8.66 C. 5
442. The magnitude of the three voltages drops in B. 4 D. 34.6
an alternator due to armature resistance,
leakage reactance and armature reaction is 451. The power factor of an alternator is determined
solely determined by by its
A. load current, Ia A. speed
B. p.f. of the load B. load
C. whether it is a lagging or leading p.f. load C. excitation
D. field construction of the alternator D. prime mover
443. Armature reaction in an alternator primarily 452. For proper parallel operation a.c. polyphase
affects alternators must have the same
A. rotor speed A. speed C. kVA rating
B. terminal voltage B. voltage rating D. excitation
C. frequency of armature current
D. generated voltage per phase 453. Of the following conditions, the one which does
NOT have to be met by the alternators working
444. Under no-load condition, power drawn by the in parallel is
prime mover of an alternator goes to A. terminal voltage of each machine must be
A. produce induced e.m.f in armature winding the same
B. meet no load loss B. the machine must have the same phase
C. produce power in the armature rotation
D. meet Cu losses both in armature and rotor C. the machine must operate at the same
windings frequency
D. the machine must have equal rating
445. As load p.f of an alternator becomes more
leading, the value of generated voltage 454. After wiring up two 3-Ф alternators, you
required to give rated terminal voltage checked their frequency and voltage and found
A. increases them to be equal. Before connecting them in
B. remains unchanged parallel, you would
C. decreases A. check turbine phase
D. varies with rotor speed B. check phase rotation
C. lubricate everything
446. With a load p.f. of unity, the effect of armature D. check steam pressure
reaction on the main-field flux of an alternator is
A. distortional 455. Zero power factor method of an alternator is
B. magnetizing used to find its
C. demagnetizing A. efficiency
D. nominal B. voltage regulation
C. armature resistance
447. At lagging loads, armature reaction in an D. synchronous impedance
alternator is
A. cross-magnetizing 456. Some engineers prefer ‘lamps bright’
B. demagnetizing synchronization to ‘lamps dark’ synchronization
C. non-effective because
D. magnetizing A. brightness of lamps can be judged easily
B. it gives sharper and more accurate
448. At leading p.f., the armature flux in an alternator synchronization
____ the rotor flux. C. flicker is more pronounced
A. opposes D. it can be performed quickly
B. aids
C. distorts 457. It is never advisable to connect a stationary
D. does not affect alternatorto live bus-bars because it
A. is likely to run as synchronous motor
449. The voltage regulation of an alternator having B. will get short-circuited
0.75 leading p.f. load, no-load induced e.m.f of C. will decrease bus-bar voltage through
momentarily
D. will disturb generated e.m.fs. of other B. ac
alternators connected in parallel C. both dc and ac
D. none of these
458. Two identical alternators are running in parallel
and carry equal loads. If excitation of one 467. The ac armature winding of an alternator
alternator is increased without changing its operates at ____ the field winding.
steam supply , then A. the same as
A. it will keepsupplying almost the same load B. much lesser voltage than
B. kVAR supplied by it would decrease C. much higher voltage than
C. its p.f. will increase D. none of the above
D. kVA supplied by it would decrease
468. The salient-pole construction for field structure
459. Keeping its excitation constant, if steam supply of an alternator is generally used for ____
of an alternator running in parallel with another machine.
identical alternator is increased, then A. 2-pole
A. it would over-run the other alternator B. 4-pole
B. its rotor will fall back in phase with respect C. 8-pole
to the other machine D. none of these
C. it will supply greater portion of the load
D. its power factor would be decreased 469. An alternator is sometimes called ____
generator.
460. The load sharing between two steam-driven A. synchronous
alternators operating in parallel may be B. asynchronous
adjusted by varying the C. Rosenberg
A. field strengths of the alternators D. none of these
B. power factors of the alternators
C. steam supply to their prime movers 470. A turbo-alternator uses
D. speed of the alternators A. salient-pole field structure
B. non-salient-pole field structure
461. Squirrel-cage bars placed in the rotor pole C. rotating ac armature winding
faces of an alternator help reduce hunting D. none of the above
A. above synchronous speed only
B. below synchronous speed only 471. The non-salient pole field construction is used
C. above and below synchronous speed both for ____ generator.
D. none of the above A. low-speed
B. medium-speed
462. For a machine on infinite bus active power can C. high-speed
be varied by D. none of these
A. changing field excitation
B. changing of prime mover speed 472. The ac armature winding of an alternator is
C. both A and B above A. always star-connected
D. none of the above B. generally delta-connected
C. star-delta connected
463. Majority of alternators in the use have D. none of the above
A. revolving ac armature winding
B. stationary field type construction 473. Low-speed alternators are driven by
C. revolving field type construction A. hydraulic turbines
D. none of the above B. steam engines
C. steam turbines
464. The stator of an alternator is identical to that of D. none of these
a
A. dc generator 474. High-speed alternators are driven by
B. 3-phase induction motor A. diesel engines
C. 1-phase induction motor B. hydraulic turbines
D. Rosenberg generator C. steam turbines
D. none of these
465. The stator of an alternator rarely uses ____
slots. 475. The air-gap in an alternator is ____ in an
A. wide-open type induction machine.
B. semi-closed type A. much shorter than
C. closed type B. much longer than
D. none of these C. about the same as
D. none of these
466. The field winding of an alternator is ____
excited. 476. The stator of an alternator is wound for ____ on
A. dc the rotor.
A. more number of poles than
B. less number of poles than 486. The synchronous reactance of an alternator
C. the same number of poles as ____ as the iron is saturated.
D. none of the above A. decreases
B. increases
477. Turbo-alternators have rotors of C. remains unchanged
A. small diameter and long axial length D. none of the above
B. large diameter and long axial length
C. large diameter and small axial length 487. In an alternator, the effect of armature reaction
D. same diameter and axial length is minimum at power factor of ____.
478. The rotor of a turbo-alternator is made A. 0.866 lagging C. 0.5 lagging

cylindrical in order to reduce ____. B. 0.866 leading D. unity
A. eddy current loss
B. hysteresis loss 488. If the lagging load p.f. of an alternator is
C. windage losses decreased, the demagnetizing effect of
D. none of these armature reaction ____.
A. remains the same
479. The number of cycles generated in a 6-pole B. is decreased
alternator in one revolution is C. is increased
A. 3 D. none of these
B. 6
C. 50 489. A 3-phase alternator generates an open-circuit
D. none of these phase voltage of 4000 V when exciting current
is 50 A; the short-circuit current for the same
480. The speed at which a 6-pole alternator should excitation being 800 A. The synchronous
be driven to generator 50 cycles per second is reactance per phase is
A. 1,500 rpm A. 80 ohms
B. 1,000 rpm B. 5 ohms
C. 500 rpm C. 15 ohms
D. none of these D. none of these
481. The frequency of emf generated in an 8-pole 490. A 30 MVA, 15 kV alternator will have a per
alternator running at 900 rpm is phase nominal impedance of
A. 50 Hz A. 9 ohms
B. 60 Hz B. 15 ohms
C. 120 Hz C. 7.5 ohms
D. none of these D. none of these
482. In case of a 4-pole machine, 1 mechanical 491. When load on an alternator is increased, the
degree corresponds to ____ electrical degree. terminal voltage increases if the load pf is
A. 2 A. unity C. leading
B. 4 B. lagging D. zero
C. 8
D. none of these 492. The efficiency of the turbo-alternator ____ with
increase in speed.
483. For the same rating, the size of low-speed A. decreases
alternator is ____ that of high-speed alternator. B. increases
A. about the same C. remains unchanged
B. more than D. none of the above
C. less than
D. none of these 493. The full-load efficiency of the alternator ____
with the size of the machine.
484. The synchronous reactance of an alternator is A. increases
due to ____. B. decreases
A. leakage flux C. remains unchanged
B. d.c. field excitation D. none of the above
C. armature reaction
D. none of the above 494. For the same power rating, an alternator is
____ that of a dc generator.
485. The synchronous reactance of an alternator is A. larger in size than
generally ____ armature resistance. B. smaller in size than
A. 5 times smaller than C. of the same size as
B. 5 times greater than D. none of the above
C. 10 to 100 times greater than
D. 10 times smaller than
495. In the armature winding of an alternator, the C. output kW will change
coil span falls short of full-pitch by 60° D. none of the above
(electrical). The pitch factor is
A. 0.866 505. The distribution of load between two alternators
B. 0.5 operating in parallel can be changed by
C. 0.25 changing
D. none of these A. phase sequence
B. field excitation of alternators
496. A 3-phase alternator has 3 slots per pole. The C. driving torques of prime movers
distribution factor of the winding is D. none of the above
A. 0.866
B. 0.5 506. When a number of alternators are operating in
C. 1 parallel, the power factor at which each
D. none of these operates is determined by
A. power factor of the load
497. The disadvantage of a short-pitched coil is that B. driving torque of the prime mover
A. harmonics are introduced C. its field excitation
B. waveform becomes non-sinusoidal D. none of the above
C. voltage round the coil is reduced
D. none of the above 507. If the excitation of an alternator operating in
parallel with other alternators is increased
498. The voltage regulation of an alternator for a pf above the normal value of excitation, its
of 0.8 lagging is ____ at unity pf.
A. greater than A. pf becomes more lagging
B. smaller than B. pf becomes more leading
C. the same as C. output current decreases
D. none of these D. output kW decreases
499. The voltage regulation of an alternator is larger 508. The voltage of the bus-bar to which several
than that of a dc generator because of alternators are paralleled may be raised by
A. larger armature resistance simultaneously ____ of all alternators.
B. large leakage reactance A. increasing field excitation
C. complex effects of armature reaction B. decreasing field excitation
D. none of the above C. increasing input to prime movers
D. decreasing input to prime movers
500. The per phase dc armature resistance of an
alternator is 0.5 ohm. The effective ac armature 509. The frequency of the system with which several
resistance would be about alternators are paralleled can be increased by
A. 0.5 ohm C. 4 ohms simultaneously ____ of all generators.
B. 0.75 ohm D. 0.25 ohm A. increasing field excitation
B. decreasing field excitation
501. The dc armature resistance of a Y-connected C. increasing the speed of prime movers
alternator measured across its two terminals is D. decreasing the speed of prime movers
0.5 ohm. The per phase resistance is
A. 0.5 ohm C. 0.25 ohm 510. The alternators driven by ____ do not have a
B. 1 ohm D. 1.5 ohms tendency to hunt.
A. diesel engines
502. The dc armature resistance of a delta- B. water turbines
connected alternator measured across its two C. steam turbines
terminals is 1 ohm. The per phase dc D. none of these
resistance is
A. 3 ohms 511. Damper windings are used in alternators to
B. 1.5 ohms A. prevent hunting
C. 0.33 ohm B. reduce windage losses
D. none of these C. achieve synchronism
503. The under excited alternator supplies ____.
A. lagging VAR 512. The rating of an alternator is expressed in
B. leading VAR A. kW C. kVA
C. no reactive power B. HP D. kVAR
Unsolved problems
504. If the excitation of an alternator operating in 513. REE Board Exam September 2004
parallel with other alternators is decreased, its A 3,600 V, 500 kVA, 60 Hz, 3-phase Y-
A. pf becomes more leading connected generator on test yields the following
B. pf becomes more lagging results: Mechanical and iron losses is 10 kW;
field current at full load 100% p.f. is 50 A; field A. 750 rpm C. 3000 rpm
current at full-load 80% p.f. is 70 A; resistance B. 1500 rpm D. 1440 rpm
per phase of armature winding is 0.4 ohm. The
exciter voltage is constant at 120 volts and
voltage current is control is done by means of 523. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic field
rheostat. Determine the full-load armature produced by a three-phase current flowing
current at 80% lagging p.f. through a three-phase winding is equal to
A. 96.5 A C. 64.2 A A. the maximum value of flux due to any one
B. 99.8 A D. 80.2 A phase
B. 1.5 times the maximum value of flux due to
514. A 4-pole, 1200 rpm alternator will generate emf any one phase
at C. half the value of maximum flux due to any
A. 50 Hz C. 60 Hz one phase
B. 40 Hz D. 25 Hz D. twice the maximum value of flux due to any
one phase
515. The span for a full-pitch coil wound for six poles 524. Voltage regulation of an alternator may be
is negative when
A. 180 degrees mechanical A. the load power factor is lagging
B. 90 degrees mechanical B. the load power factor is leading
C. 60 degrees mechanical C. it is loaded beyond its full-load capacity
D. 45 degrees mechanical D. the machine is run at very low speeds
516. The pitch factor for a two-thirds short-pitch coil

is 525. Pitch factor for 5/6 short pitch coil is
A. 0.5 C. 0.866 A. 0.966 C. 1.0
B. 0.66 D. 0.707 B. 0.833 D. 3.454
517. The armature flux opposes the main field flux 526. Distribution factor for a winding having 3
when the load power factor is slots/pole/phase and a slot angle of 20 degrees
A. unity C. zero is
leading A. 0.96 C. 0.5
B. zero lagging D. 0.8 leading B. 1.0 D. 0.707
518. The armature flux helps the main field flux 527. Armature reaction in an electrical machine is
when the load power factor is the effect of
A. unity C. 0.8 lagging A. armature flux on the main flux
B. zero lagging D. zero B. heat produced on the armature windings
leading
C. armature current on the output
519. A commercial alternator has D. armature flux on the output
A. rotating armature and stationary field
528. An infinite bus-bar should maintain
B. stationary armature and rotating field A. infinite frequency and infinite voltage
C. both armature and field rotating B. constant frequency and constant voltage
D. both armature and field stationary C. constant frequency but variable voltage
D. variable frequency and variable voltage
520. The stator core of a synchronous machine is
made up of laminated sheets to
A. increase the magnitude of flux produced 529. ______ refers to an AC generator.
A. Commutator C. Rotor
B. make the machine lighter in weight B. Motor (AC) D. Alternator
C. minimize the eddy current loss
D. minimize the hysteresis loss
530. In huge alternators, the moving part is
521. In alternators damper windings are used to A. brushes
A. reduce eddy current loss B. armature
B. prevent hunting C. poles
C. make the rotor dynamically balanced D. none of the above
D. reduce armature reaction
531. In case of alternator, the stator frame serves
522. A 4 –pole 50-Hz synchronous machine runs at A. to protect the whole machine
B. as a return path for the flux
C. to hold the armature stampings 541. Steam turbo-alternators are much smaller in
D. to ventilate the armature size than water-turbine alternators for a given
output. This is so because
532. Alternators mostly wotk on rotating field type A. steam turbo alternators are built with
principle which is different from d.c. machines smaller capacities
where the field is stationary. Therefore B. steam turbo alternators run at high speed
alternators C. steam turbo alternators have long rotors
A. don’t obey Faraday’s law D. all of these
B. work on Faraday’s law
C. do not obey Lenz’s law 542. For a coil having a span of 2/3 or pole pitch, the
D. obey Lenz’s law coil span factor is
A. 0.8 C. 0.786
533. High speed alternators have a rotor B. 0.866 D. 0.966
construction
A. similar to d.c. machines
B. of non-salient type 543. Distributing the armature winding in alternators
C. of salient-type is more than one number of slots per pole per
D. none of the above phase results in
A. reduction of irregularities produced in the
534. The voltage applied to the field of a rotating waveform
cylindrical rotor type alternators is B. economy of materials used in the winding
A. high d.c. voltage
B. high a.c. voltage C. less weight of the entire armature
C. low d.c. voltage D. increased of generated emf per phase
D. low a.c. voltage
544. When the power factor of load is unity, the
535. Alternators are generally designed to generate armature flux of an alternator will be
A. variable frequency A. demagnetizing
B. definite currents B. square wave form
C. definite frequencies C. cross-magnetizing
D. definite power factor D. none of the above
536. The standard practice, nowadays in alternators 545. An alternator is capable of delivering power at a
is to have particular frequency. The frequency can be
A. rotating field increased by
B. rotating armature A. increasing armature speed
C. either rotating field or rotating armature B. reversing the armature rotation
D. none of the above C. increasing the current supplied in the field
electromagnets
537. In power generating stations (thermal stations) D. reversing the field polarity
the usual number of poles employed in
alternators are 546. If the input of the prime mover of an alternator
A. twenty four is kept constant but the excitation is increased
B. forty eight then
C. thirty two A. kVA will be leading
D. none of the above B. kVA will be lagging
C. kW will be changed
538. The diameter of high speed turbo alternators as D. the power factor of the load will remain
compared to hydroelectric ones are constant
A. smaller because speed is high
B. smaller because speed is less 547. For two alternators operating in parallel, if the
C. larger because speed is high load shared by one of them is to be increased,
D. none of the above its field excitation is
A. to be strengthened keeping input torque
539. The slip rings employed in a three-phase same
alternators in hydrostation are insulated for B. to be weakened keeping input torque same
A. extra high tension voltage
B. low voltage C. to be kept constant but input torque should
C. full armature voltage increase
D. very high voltage D. none of the above
540. When the speed of alternator increases, the 548. A four-pole, three-phase, 50-Hz star connected
frequency AC generator has 24 stator slots. There are 6
A. decreases C. increases conductors per slot and a sinusoidally
B. remains the same D. changes distributed flux per pole of 65mWb. Find the
terminal voltage on open circuit, if the coil span 555. A 100 MVA 10 kV turbo-alternator has a current
factor is unity. limiting reactor of 0.162 ohms in its neutral. The
A. 546.05 V C. 568.48 V per unit voltage of the reactor reactance based
B. 579.44 V D. 558.62 V on the generator rating is
A. 0.05 C. 0.025
B. 0.5 D. 0.25
549. A 2,500 kVA, three-phase, 60-Hz, 6.6 kV wye-
connected alternator has a field resistance of 556. A three-phase, 6-pole, 72-slot armature of a
0.45 Ω and an armature resistance of 0.05 Ω synchronous generator is wound using a two
per phase. The field current at full load 0.85 layer lap coil having 20 conductors per coil with
power factor is 200 A. The stray power losses a pitch of 83.33%. The flux per pole is
amount to 82 kW. Calculate the efficiency of 4,800,000 Maxwells. If the rotor of the
the alternator at full-load, 0.85 power factor generator is driven at a speed of 1200 rpm,
lagging. calculate the induced emf per phase. Note:
A. 93.7% C. 95.2% There are 2 coils in 1 slot.
B. 94.8% D. 96.3% A. 5,680 V C. 5,564 V
B. 5,390 V D. 5,854 V

a synchronous reactance of 6 Ω per phase and 557. A 2-pole three phase 50 Hz Y-connected AC
a negligible resistance. At a certain field current generator has 9 slots per pole and 6
the armature is known to induce 5.8 kV per conductors per slot. What is the flux per pole if
phase. Calculate the maximum power that can the voltage on open circuit is 1.1 kV line-to-
be developed by the alternator at this line? Assume a coil span of unity.
excitation. A. 0.1657 Wb C. 0.1507 Wb
A. 12 MW C. 9.8 MW B. 0.1742 Wb D. 0.1728 Wb
B. 11 MW D. 10 MW
558. A 1 MVA, 11 kV, three-phase Y-connected

551. A three-phase alternator has 6 slots per pole synchronous generator has a synchronous
per phase. Determine the distribution factor. reactance of 5 ohms and a negligible
A. 0.977 C. 0.963 resistance per phase. At a certain field current
B. 0.956 D. 0.948 the generator delivers rated load at 0.9 lagging
power factor at 11 kV. For the same excitation,
what is the terminal voltage at 0.9 leading
552. A three-phase star connected AC generator is power factor full-load?
rated at 2.5 MVA, 11 kV, 60 Hz. The generator A. 11.6 kV C. 11.3 kV
has a negligible resistance and a synchronous B. 11.4 kV D. 11.5 kV
reactance of 20 ohms per phase. To what value
will the terminal voltage rise when full load at
80% pf lagging is switched-off? 559. A 2500 kVA, 6600 V synchronous turbo
A. 14.2 kV C. 15.3 kV alternator is operating at full load and 0.8 pf
B. 13.5 kV D. 12.7 kV lagging. This machine has a synchronous
reactance per phase of 10.4 ohms and
negligible resistance. Calculate the percentage
553. A 5000 kVA, 3-, 10 kV, 50 Hz alternator runs at voltage regulation.
1500 rpm connected to constant frequency, A. 48.56% C. 45.84%
constant voltage busbars. If the moment of B. 42.35% D. 43.96%
4
inertia of entire rotating system is 1.5 x 10 kg-
2
m and the steady short circuit current is 5
times the normal full load current. Calculate the 560. Two alternators are connected in parallel. The
natural time period of oscillation. total load is 4250 kW at 0.85 power factor
A. 1.5 sec C. 1.3 sec lagging. Alternator operates with a load of 2125
B. 1.4 sec D. 1.2 sec kW at 0.707 power factor lagging. Determine
the kVA load of alternator B.
A. 2245 kVA C. 2185 kVA
554. A three phase wye connected ac generator is B. 2078 kVA D. 2410 kVA
rated 1500 kVA, 11000 V. The effective
resistance and synchronous reactance per
phase are 1.5 ohms and 30 ohms respectively. 561. The best and the most accurate method for
To what value will the terminal voltage rise determining the voltage regulation is
when full-load at 0.8 pf lagging is switch off. A. synchronous impedance method
A. 14 kV C. 15 kV B. mmf method
B. 13 kV D. 12 kV C. emf method
D. Pottier triangle method
562. A 3-phase, 8-pole generator is delta connected.
The terminal voltage is 2400 V while the line
current is 500 amperes. If the machine is
converted to wye, what will be the terminal
voltage in volts?
A. 4800 V C. 4600 V
B. 4157 V D. 3800 V
563. A 3-phase, 8-pole delta connected generator

has a line current of 500 amperes. If converted
in wye, what is the tolerable current?
A. 371.5 A C. 245.1 A
B. 288.7 A D. 315.2 A
564. A single-phase alternator gives 250 amperes at

1,200 volts. What is the output of the machine
in KVA?
A. 300 C. 400
B. 450 D. 350
565.
A. C.
B. D.
566.
A. C.
B. D.
567.
A. C.
B. D.
Question 1
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The per phase dc armature resistance of an alternator is 0.5 ohm. The effective ac armature resistance would be about
Select one:
a. 0.5 ohm
b. 0.25 ohm
c. 0.75 ohm
d. 4 ohms
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.75 ohm
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the force that will be exerted on the scale in a prony brake test when a 20 HP, 1,400 rpm motor is operating at full-load.
The length of the brake arm is 3 ft and the tare weight of the brake is 3.75 lbs.
Select one:
a. 26.86 lbs
b. none of these
c. 62.76 lbs
d. 28.76 lbs
Feedback
The correct answer is: 28.76 lbs
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 4 pole, 50 Hz single-phase induction motor has a slip of 5%. The speed of the motor will be
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 1500 rpm
c. 1425 rpm
d. 1200 rpm
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1425 rpm
Question 4
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc generator has a mechanical efficiency at 98.2% and an electrical efficiency of 95.9%. Find the commercial efficiency.
Select one:
a. 97.4%
b. 96.5%
c. 98%
d. 94.2%
Feedback
The correct answer is: 94.2%
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The net cross section of a transformer is 20 square inches. The maximum flux density is 11 kilogausses. The frequency is 60 Hz. If
there are 1,000 turns in the primary, determine the primary induced emf.
Select one:
a. 3945 V
b. 3850 V
c. 3590 V
d. 3780 V
Feedback
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3,600 volts three-phase star connected turbo synchronous generator of synchronous reactance of 0.5 ohm per phase and
negligible resistance is supplying 30,000 kVA at 0.8 pf lagging to a large power system. If the steam supply is cut-off, calculate the
amount of current that the generator will then carry assuming negligible losses.
Select one:
a. 3823 A
b. 3870 A
c. 3901 A
d. 3094 A
Feedback
The correct answer is: 3870 A
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 4-pole 230-V, 60 Hz, three-phase induction motor directly drives a 6-pole alternator. Determine the output frequency. Assume a
slip of 3% in the motor.
Select one:
a. 90.0 Hz
b. 86.6 Hz
c. 88.4 Hz
d. 87.3 Hz
Feedback
The correct answer is: 87.3 Hz
Question 8
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 50-kW 46-volt shunt generator has a voltage regulation of 8.7 percent. Calculate the no-load terminal voltage.
Select one:
a. 475
b. 490
c. 505
d. 500
Feedback
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Find the value to voltage regulation having a dc voltage of 67 V without load and with full load current drawn the output voltage
drops to 42 V.
Select one:
a. 32.5%
b. 15.9%
c. 59.5%
d. 62.6%
Feedback
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6 pole lap wound shunt motor takes 300 A when the speed is 500 rpm. The flux per pole is 0.06 Wb and the armature has a 870
conductors. Neglecting the shunt field current, calculate the output horsepower of the motor. Assume a constant loss of 4%.
Select one:
a. 168 hp
b. 172 hp
c. 165 hp
d. 175 hp
Feedback
The correct answer is: 168 hp
Question 11
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The induced emf in each coil side of a certain alternator winding is calculated as 10 volts, if the measured voltage across the coil is
19.32 volts, the winding is short by how many electrical degrees?
Select one:
a. 20 deg
b. 30 deg
c. 60 deg
d. 50 deg
Feedback
The correct answer is: 30 deg
Question 12
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A short shunt compound generator delivers 150 A at a terminal voltage of 230 V. The shunt field current is 2.5 A. The resistance of
the armature, series field and diverter are 0.032 ohm, 0.015 ohm and 0.03 ohm, respectively. Calculate the electrical efficiency of
the generator at this load.
Select one:
a. 95.7%
b. 94.2%
c. 93.8%
d. 96.4%
Feedback
Question 13
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 500-hp, 2200 V, 3-phase, star-connected synchronous motor has a synchronous impedance of 0.3 + j3 ohm per phase.
Determine the induced emf per phase if the motor works on full load with an efficiency of 94% and a power factor of 0.8 leading.
Select one:
a. 1360 V
b. 1354 V
c. 1402 V
d. 1522 V
Feedback
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-hp, 4-pole, 25-Hz, 3-phase induction motor is taking 9,100 watts from the line. The core loss is 290 watts; stator copper loss is
568 watts; rotor copper loss is 445 watts; and the friction and windage loss is 121 watts. Determine the output torque in Newton-
meter.
Select one:
a. 103.32
b. 190.32
c. 178.76
d. 150.56
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A simplex lap wound armature has 580 conductors and carries a current of 125 ampere per armature current path. If the flux per
pole is 20 mWb, calculate the electromagnetic torque developed by the armature.
Select one:
a. 207.63 N-m
b. 230.77 N-m
c. 252.72 N-m
d. 210.64 N-m
Feedback
The correct answer is: 230.77 N-m
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The pulley of an old gen-set has a diameter of 20 inches. The belt exerts a pull of 353 lbs on a pulley. The gen-set runs at 900 rpm.
What is the approximate rating of the gen-set?
Select one:
a. 250
b. 75
c. 200
d. 38
Feedback
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-kVA, 2000/400 V, single-phase transformer has primary and secondary winding impedances of 5.0 + j10 and 0.2 + j0.45 ohms,
respectively. Calculate the voltage across the secondary terminals at full load, 80% power actor lagging, when the primary is
supplied with 2,000 volts.
Select one:
a. 400 V
b. 379 V
c. 394 V
d. 385 V
Feedback
Question 18
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A shunt generator supplies a load of 5,500 kW, 220 volts, shunt generator in the FEU laboratory is 232 volts and rated load voltage
is 220 volts. The armature resistance including brushes is 0.026 ohm and the resistance of the shunt field resistance is 52 ohms.
What is the induced electromagnetic force at rated load?
Select one:
a. 224.56 V
b. 221.36 V
c. 226.02 V
d. 227.05 V
Feedback
The correct answer is: 226.02 V
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 15 hp 220 volt, 1200 rpm shunt motor takes 50 Amperes. Its armature resistance is 0.1 ohm and field resistance is 220 ohms.
Brush contact voltage drop is 2 volts. Friction and windage loss is 400 watts and stray load loss of 1% of the output. Calculate the
efficiency.
Select one:
a. 92.4%
b. 91.8%
c. 9.4%
d. 94.6%
Feedback
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Synchronous impedance test is taken on a 3-phase generator. Under short circuit condition, the current is the three lines are 26.2 A,
23.7 A, and 27.4 A. What current should be used for the test?
Select one:
a. 26.3 A
b. 25.4 A
c. 24.6 A
d. 25.7 A
Feedback
The correct answer is: 25.7 A
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The span for a full-pitch coil wound for six poles is
Select one:
a. 90 degrees mechanical
b. 180 degrees mechanical
c. 45 degrees mechanical
d. 60 degrees mechanical
Feedback
The correct answer is: 60 degrees mechanical
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A single-phase transformer is rated 4,160-V primary and 250-V secondary. It has 1,500 turns in the primary and voltage regulation
of 8%. What should be the number of turns in the secondary winding?
Select one:
a. 88 turns
b. 92 turns
c. 86 turns
d. 90 turns
Feedback
The correct answer is: 90 turns
Question 23
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A shunt generator delivers 195 A at a terminal voltage of 250 V. The armature resistance and the shunt field resistance are 0.02 and
0.05 ohm respectively. The iron and the friction losses are equal to 950 W. Find the commercial efficiency of the generator.
Select one:
a. 95.9%
b. 98.2%
c. 93.5%
d. 94.2%
Feedback
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A six-pole, 3-phase AC generator has 72 slots, the coil span is 12. What is the pitch factor?
Select one:
a. 0.966
b. 0.939
c. 1.000
d. 0.985
Feedback
Question 25
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the step angle of a permanent-magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles and 4 rotor poles?
Select one:
a. 45 degrees
b. 60 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 15 degrees
Feedback
The correct answer is: 45 degrees
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 400 V series motor has a field resistance of 0.2 ohm and an armature resistance of 0.1 ohm. The motor takes 30 A of current at
1000 rpm while developing full-load torque. What is the motor speed when this motor develops 60% of full load torque?
Select one:
a. 1135.5 rpm
b. 1302.4 rpm
c. 1257.2 rpm
d. 1297.6 rpm
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1297.6 rpm
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 200-kVA transformer has an impedance of 15% and the power factor of the load is 85%. The primary voltage is 6,000 volts while
the copper loss is 15 kW. Find the percentage voltage regulation.
Select one:
a. 8.91%
b. 23.67%
c. 15.78%
d. 13.49%
Feedback
Question 28
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A single phase generator with full load current of 450 amperes at 2400 volts has 0.08 ohm resistance and synchronous reactance is
2.8 ohms. Determine the voltage regulation in percent at 75% power factor lagging.
Select one:
a. 75
b. 41
c. 55
d. 64
Feedback
Question 29
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A separately excited generator generates 230 volts when driven at 1200 rpm. If the flux is decrease by 10%, what is the new emf
with speed remains the same?
Select one:
a. 253 volts
b. 207 volts
c. 230 volts
d. 256 volts
Feedback
The correct answer is: 207 volts
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Neglecting saturation, if current taken by a series motor is increased from 10 A to 12 A, the percentage increase in its torque is ___
percent.
Select one:
a. 44
b. 30.5
c. 16.6
d. 20
Feedback
Question 31
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 30 MVA, 15 kV three-phase alternator will have a per phase nominal impedance of ____.
Select one:
a. 7.5 ohms
b. 9 ohms
c. 15 ohms
d. none of these
Feedback
The correct answer is: 7.5 ohms
Question 32
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 500 kVA, 13200/2400 volts 60 Hz single phase transformer has a 4% reactance and 1% resistance. The leakage reactance and
resistance of the low voltage winding are 0.25 and 0.055 ohm, respectively. Calculate the leakage reactance and resistance in ohms
of the HV winding.
Select one:
a. 6.53 & 1.87
b. 6.38 & 1.82
c. 4.86 & 1.56
d. 6.23 & 1.85

Feedback
The correct answer is: 6.38 & 1.82
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a transformer, the iron loss is found to be 42 W at 30 Hz and 90 W at 60 Hz measured at the same flux density. What is the
hysteresis and eddy current loss at 60 Hz?
Select one:
a. 78 W & 12 W
b. 60 W & 30 W
c. 30 W & 68 W
d. 12 W & 78 W
Feedback
The correct answer is: 78 W & 12 W
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 25-kVA distribution transformer operates at 120% load, 0.3 pf lagging for 1 hour; at full-load, 0.9 lagging pf for 3 hours; 50% load
at unity pf for 8 hours; and 10% load at 0.8 leading pf for the rest of the day. If core loss is 150 watts and full load copper loss is 500
W, what is the all-day efficiency of the transformer?
Select one:
a. 97.14%
b. 94.23%
c. 96.68%
d. 92.86%
Feedback
Question 35
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3-phase alternator has 3 slots per pole. The distribution factor of the winding is
Select one:
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. none of these
d. 0.866
Feedback
Question 36
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An open-delta connected transformer bank serves a balanced 3-phase load of 40 kVA at 230 V and 0.866 pf lagging. Solve for the
real power and pf at which each transformer is operating.
Select one:
a. 11.54 kW at 0.5 pf and 23.09 kW at unity pf
b. 11.54 kW at 0.866 pf and 23.09 kW at 0.707 pf
c. 12.22 kW at 0.866 pf and 22.429 kW at 0.707 pf
d. 12.22 kW at 0.5 pf and 22.42 at unity pf

Feedback
The correct answer is: 11.54 kW at 0.5 pf and 23.09 kW at unity pf
Question 37
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
An ac generator 1500 kVA capacity has a full load efficiency of 91% at 100% power factor and 86% efficiency at 80% power factor
lagging. What engine drive in Hp is required if the genset is to supply entirely incandescent lamp?
Select one:
a. 3125
b. 2210
c. 1980
d. 2525
Feedback
Question 38
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A squirrel cage induction motor with nameplate data of 150 HP, 3-phase, 460 V, 60 Hz, 6-pole, 0.85 p.f. was subjected to certain
performance tests. The test result readings were as follows: Full-load current = 202 A, Full-load torque = 676.8 lb-ft, Solve for the
percentage slip.
Select one:
a. 4.15%
b. 3.28%
c. 2.25%
d. 3.05%
Feedback
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The input current to a 220 V, short shunt compound motor at no-load is 6 A. The shunt field circuit resistance is 220 ohms, the
armature resistance is 0.10 ohm and the series field resistance is 0.08 ohm. What is the stray power loss?
Select one:
a. 1232.54 W
b. 1153.31 W
c. 1073.25 W
d. 1066.22 W
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1073.25 W
Question 40
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The armature of a 4-pole, 128 slots shunt generator is lap wound with four conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 50 mWb. The
armature and shunt field resistances are 0.04 ohm and 50 ohms respectively. Determine the speed of the machine when supplying
400 A at a terminal voltage of 250 V.
Select one:
a. 624 rpm
b. 622rpm
c. 634 rpm
d. 615 rpm
Feedback
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A DC shunt motor runs at 600 rpm on a 240-volt supply while drawing a line current of 30 A. Its armature and field resistances are
0.5 ohm and 120 ohms respectively. What resistance should be placed in series with the armature circuit in order to reduce the
speed to 400 rpm. Assume no changes in the armature or field current.
Select one:
a. 2.41 ohms
b. 2.69 ohms
c. 2.83 ohms
d. 2.07 ohms
Feedback
Question 42
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A long shunt compound generator delivers 100 A, 250 V at rated load. The resistances of the various windings are: armature = 0.1
ohm, interpole = 0.02 ohm, shunt field = 100 ohms and series field = 0.025 ohm. If the stray power losses amount to 1.8 kW, solve
for the overall efficiency of the generator.
Select one:
a. 88.32%
b. 90.52%
c. 87.43%
d. 86.36%
Feedback
Question 43
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A power transformer rated 50,000 kVA, 34.5 kV/13.8 kV is connected wye-wye. What are the line currents at full load?
Select one:
a. 483.1 A, 1207.7 A
b. 525.5 A, 1725.4 A
c. 836.7 A, 2092 A
d. 1449.3 A, 3623.2 A
Feedback
The correct answer is: 836.7 A, 2092 A
Question 44
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A transformer when supplying a load maintained 11 kV across terminals. When the load was switched off, the terminal voltage
became 11550 V. What is the voltage regulation of the load?
Select one:
a. 55%
b. 5.5%
c. 11.55%
d. 5%
Feedback
Question 45
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Find the voltage regulation power supply with 400 V without load and 200 V with full load.
Select one:
a. 100%
b. 5%
c. 50%
d. 10%
Feedback
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5-hp, three-phase, 400-V star-connected squirrel-cage induction motor meant to drive a milling machine, at starting takes about
Select one:
a. 150 A
b. 200 A
c. 40 A
d. 100 A
Feedback
Question 47
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In a 5 Hp, 230 Volt, 1500 rpm shunt motor, the resistance of the armature including brushes is 0.175 ohm and that of the shunt field
is 610 ohms. The stray power losses when the motor delivers rated load at rated voltage is 305 watts. The efficiency at rated load is
nearest to
Select one:
a. 89%
b. 90%
c. 98%
d. 85%
Feedback
Question 48
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase synchronous motor is measured by two wattmeters A and B. Wattmeter A reads 28.6 kW and wattmeter B reads 46.5
kW. The input power of the motor is under excited and assumed constant. What are the readings of wattmeters A and B if the power
factor is 85% and the motor is over-excited?
Select one:
a. 42.5 kW, 32.6 kW
b. 51 kW, 24. 1 kW
c. 48.6 kW, 26.5 kW
d. 52.6 kW, 22.5 kW

Feedback
The correct answer is: 51 kW, 24. 1 kW
Question 49
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6.6 kV, Y-connected, 3-phase alternator has a synchronous reactance of 6 ohm per phase and a negligible resistance. At a
certain field current the armature is known to induce 5.8 kV per phase. Calculate the maximum power that can be developed by the
alternator at this excitation.
Select one:
a. 11 MW
b. 9.8 MW
c. 12 MW
d. 10 MW
Feedback
The correct answer is: 11 MW
Question 50
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-HP, 550 volts, 60 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a starting torque of 160% of full-load torque and starting current of 425% of
full-load current. What will be the voltage in order that the starting current be limited to the full-load value?
Select one:
a. 125.52 V
b. 129.41 V
c. 132.47 V
d. 136.75 V
Feedback

Question 1
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The voltage applied to the h.v. side of a transformer during short-circuit test is 2% of its rated voltage. The
core loss will be ____ percent of the rated core loss.
Select one:
a. 0.25
b. 0.4
c. 4
d. 0.04
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An open delta bank, consisting of two-single phase transformers is operating with balanced three-phase
load of 50 kVA, 440 V at 0.8 pf lagging and a single phase load of 10 kW resistive connected across c-a
leg. Determine the minimum ratings of the transformers. Assume a phase sequence of a-b-c.
Select one:
a. 35.48 kVA, 36.34 kVA
b. 30.83 kVA, 39.52 kVA
c. 38.80 kVA, 34.06 kVA
d. 34.32 kVA, 33.40 kVA

Feedback
The correct answer is: 38.80 kVA, 34.06 kVA
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc resistance test is conducted on a 3-phase 200 kVA, 240 volts, delta connected generator. When the
two terminals are connected from 6 volts dc source, the ammeter inserted in the lines reads 150
amperes. The effective resistance to ohmic resistance is 1.25. What is the percent resistance?
Select one:
a. 4.5%
b. 6%
c. 7.5%
d. 6.9%
Feedback
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 20 kW, 200 V shunt generator is operated at rated load. If the driving engine is developing 30 HP,
determine the iron and friction losses. Armature resistance is 0.05 ohm and field resistance is 50 ohms.
Select one:
a. 1039 W
b. 954 W
c. 1340 W
d. 934 W
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An open delta, three-phase transformer consisting of two single-phase transformers is operating with a
balanced three-phase load of 50 kVA, 440-V at a lagging pf of 0.8. Determine the operating pf of each
transformer.
Select one:
a. 0.393 lagging, 0.993 lagging
b. 0.383 lagging, 0.887 lagging
c. 0.393 lagging, 0.887 lagging
d. 0.383 lagging, 0.993 lagging

Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.393 lagging, 0.993 lagging
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 50 HP, 550 V shunt-wound motor draws a line current of 4.5 A at no-load. The shunt field resistance is
275 ohms and the armature resistance exclusive of the brushes is 0.3 ohm, the brush drop at full-load is 2
V. At full-load, the motor draws a line current of 84 A. Calculate the efficiency at full-load.
Select one:
a. 91.2%
b. 88.5%
c. 89.9%
d. 92.0%
Feedback
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A squirrel cage induction motor with nameplate data of 150 HP, 3-phase, 460 V, 60 Hz, 6-pole, 0.85 p.f.
was subjected to certain performance tests. The test result readings were as follows: Full-load current =
202 A, Full-load torque = 676.8 lb-ft, Solve for the percentage slip.
Select one:
a. 3.05%
b. 3.28%
c. 2.25%
d. 4.15%
Feedback
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The iron loss of a transformer at 400 Hz is 10 W. Assuming that eddy current and hysteresis losses vary
as the square of flux density, the iron loss of the transformer at rated voltage but 50 Hz would be ____
watt.
Select one:
a. 640
b. 80
c. 1.25
d. 100
Feedback
Question 9
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In a 4 pole, 35 slot d.c. armature, calculate the coil span.
Select one:
a. 9 slots
b. 7 slots
c. 8 slots
d. 10slots
Feedback
The correct answer is: 8 slots
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36 degrees and a step angle of 9 degres, the number of its
phases must be
Select one:
a. 6
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
Feedback
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3-phase induction motor is running at 2% slip. If the input to rotor is 1000 W, then mechanical power
developed by the motor is
Select one:
a. 980 W
b. 200 W
c. 20 W
d. 500 W
Feedback
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
At rated load, a shunt motor draws an armature current of 50 A from a 230 V dc mains while running at
1000 rpm. At no-load the armature current drops to 5 A. If the effect of armature reaction has weaken the
flux by 2% from no-load to full-load, determine speed of the motor at no-load. Assume the armature
resistance to be 0.15 ohm.
Select one:
a. 1010 rpm
b. 1221 rpm
c. 1122 rpm
d. 1202 rpm
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A resistor assembly for a wound rotor consists of 20 elements of cast iron grid elements. The rating of
each is 0.10 ohm. When joined in series and tested across 220 volts, the measured current was 100 A.
How much power was lost in the joints?
Select one:
a. 2.1 kW
b. 2.0 kW
c. 1.9 kW
d. 1.8 kW
Feedback
The correct answer is: 2.0 kW
Question 14
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 10-pole, 400-kW, 250-V dc generator has a lap-wound armature with 75 slots each having 12
conductors. The section of each conductor is 2 x 17.5 mm^2. If the average length of one turn is 150 cm,
find the resistance of the armature. Assume the specific resistance per copper as 2 micro-ohm-cm.
Select one:
a. 0.009643 ohm
b. 0.002571 ohm
c. 0.003857 ohm
d. 0.007714 ohm
Feedback
Question 15
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A single phase generator with full load current of 450 amperes at 2400 volts has 0.08 ohm resistance and
synchronous reactance is 2.8 ohms. Determine the voltage regulation in percent at 75% power factor
lagging.
Select one:
a. 64
b. 75
c. 55
d. 41
Feedback
Question 16
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A d.c. motor develops a torque of 200 N-m at 25 rps. At 20 rps, it will develop a torque of ___ N-m.
Select one:
a. 250
b. 128
c. 160
d. 200
Feedback
Question 17
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Two shunt generators A and B, with ratings of 150 kW and 100 kW respectively having identical straight-
line voltage vs. percent kW output characteristic, are connected in parallel. The no-load and full-load
voltage of 255 and 230 volts, calculate the kW output of each when the total load shared is 200 kW.
Select one:
a. 110 kW & 90 kW
b. 125 kW & 75 kW
c. 150 kW & 50 kW
d. 120 kW & 80 kW
Feedback
The correct answer is: 120 kW & 80 kW
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase wound rotor induction motor, 440 V, 60 cycles, 4 poles is connected to a pump that
delivers 1000 cfm of water against an effective head of 8 ft. Under this load, the motor draws 15 kW at a
power factor of 0.90. When operated without load, the motor draws 800 watts. The stator resistance per
phase is 0.21 ohm and the rotor resistance per phase is 0.022 ohm. The turns ratio between stator and
rotor is 4:1. Determine the efficiency of the pump.
Select one:
a. 83.62%
b. 84.65%
c. 83.16%
d. 84.24%
Feedback
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A DC generator has no-load output voltage of 120 volts. Its armature circuit resistance is 0.95 ohm and its
field coils are separately energized. If the load is rated 2 kW at 115 V. Neglecting the effect of armature
reaction, what power could be delivered to the load?
Select one:
a. 2,000 W
b. 1,670 W
c. 2,180 W
d. 1,518 W
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1,670 W
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A long shunt compound motor takes a current of 42 A from a 230 V source. Armature, series field and
shunt field resistances are 0.1 ohm, 0.2 ohm and 50 ohms respectively. If the friction and windage losses
amount to 400 W, determine the over-all efficiency of the machine.
Select one:
a. 80.55%
b. 82.24%
c. 81.22%
d. 79.53%
Feedback
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A six-pole, three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor is connected to a 60-cps supply. At full-load, the
induced emf of the rotor makes 72 complete cycles in 1 minute. Find the rotor speed.
Select one:
a. 1200 rpm
b. 1176 rpm
c. 1054 rpm
d. 1124 rpm
Feedback
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The per phase dc armature resistance of an alternator is 0.5 ohm. The effective ac armature resistance
would be about
Select one:
a. 0.5 ohm
b. 4 ohms
c. 0.25 ohm
d. 0.75 ohm
Feedback
Question 23
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The Utility Company supplies two single-phase transformers banked in open delta. If each transformer is
rated 75 kVA capacity, what is the maximum 3-phase load in kilowatts that the bank can carry without
suffering overload considering that the load has a lagging power factor of 0.80.
Select one:
a. 104 kW
b. 130 kW
c. 112 kW
d. 114 kW
Feedback
The correct answer is: 104 kW
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 100-kVA, 1100/440-V, 50-Hz single-phase transformer has 100 turns on the secondary winding. The
number of turns in the primary will be
Select one:
a. 2750
b. 275
c. 550
d. 5500
Feedback
Question 25
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 4-pole, 12-slot lap wound d.c. armature has 2 coil sides/slot. Assuming single turn coils and progressive
winding, the back pitch would be
Select one:
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 7
Feedback
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 4 poles lap work, dc machine has 728 active conductors running at 1800 rpm. The flux per pole is 30
mWb. The armature current is 120 A, what is the electromagnetic power developed in the armature in
kW?
Select one:
a. 72.4
b. 78.6
c. 62.4
d. 65.5
Feedback
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An induction motor of 30-hp, 220-volts, 3-phase draws 450 percent of the rated current with the rated
voltage and delivers during the starting period 130 percent of the rated torque. The full-load efficiency and
full-load power factor of this motor is 80% and 70% respectively. If an autotransformer is used as a
starting unit and starting torque of the load is only 50 percent of the rated torque of the motor, find the
starting voltage.
Select one:
a. 132.36 volts
b. 130.65 volts
c. 136.44 volts
d. 134.20 volts
Feedback
The correct answer is: 136.44 volts
Question 28
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5-hp, three-phase, 400-V star-connected squirrel-cage induction motor meant to drive a milling
machine, at starting takes about
Select one:
a. 200 A
b. 150 A
c. 40 A
d. 100 A
Feedback
Question 29
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the force that will be exerted on the scale in a prony brake test when a 20 HP, 1,400 rpm motor
is operating at full-load. The length of the brake arm is 3 ft and the tare weight of the brake is 3.75 lbs.
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 26.86 lbs
c. 62.76 lbs
d. 28.76 lbs
Feedback
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If, in a 3-phase alternator, a field current of 50 A produces a full-load armature current of 200 A on short-
circuit and 1730 V on open circuit, then its synchronous impedance is ____ ohm.
Select one:
a. 4
b. 34.6
c. 5
d. 8.66
Feedback
Question 31
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two alternators are operating in parallel supplying a common load of 425 kW at 0.85 power factor
lagging. Alternator A contributes 600 kVAR at 0.92 power factor lagging. Solve for the power factor of
alternator B.
Select one:
a. 0.813 lagging
b. 0.834 lagging
c. 0.804 lagging
d. 0.820 lagging
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.813 lagging
Question 32
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6.6 kV, Y-connected, 3-phase alternator has a synchronous reactance of 6 ohms per phase and a
negligible resistance. At a certain field current the armature is known to induce 5.8 kV per phase. At this
excitation, calculate the power factor at maximum power.
Select one:
a. 0.853
b. 0.873
c. 0.863
d. 0.843
Feedback
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A synchronous motor is drawing 60 kW is connected in parallel with a load drawing 250 kW at a lagging
power factor of 0.8. If the combined load has a power factor of 0.9, at what power factor is the
synchronous motor operating?
Select one:
a. 0.849 leading
b. 0.874 leading
c. 0.862 leading
d. 0.868 leading
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.849 leading
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5 Hp, 230 V shunt motor takes 18 Amperes when operating at full load. The shunt field resistance is
115 ohms and the armature resistance is 0.25 ohm. Calculate the starter resistance if the starting torque
is limited to 1.5 times the full torque (take a 3-V brush drop).
Select one:
a. 9.2 ohms
b. 9.46 ohms
c. 9.33 ohms
d. 13.94 ohms
Feedback
Question 35
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Two 250 HP, 2400-volt-3-phase motor of 90% power factor 93% efficiency are supplied from 34500 volt
transmission line by 3-single phase transformer connected delta-delta. Specify the bank KVA.
Select one:
a. 400
b. 500
c. 446
d. 550
Feedback
Question 36
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three phase wye connected ac generator is rated 1500 kVA, 11000 V. The effective resistance and
synchronous reactance per phase are 1.5 ohms and 30 ohms respectively. To what value will the terminal
voltage rise when full-load at 0.8 pf lagging is switch off.
Select one:
a. 12 kV
b. 14 kV
c. 15 kV
d. 13 kV
Feedback
The correct answer is: 14 kV
Question 37
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the total magnetic flux in a 60-cycle transformer in which the induced emf per turn of the
winding is equal to 2 V.
Select one:
a. 7.42 mWb
b. 7.50 mWb
c. 7.02 mWb
d. 7.60 mWb
Feedback
The correct answer is: 7.50 mWb
Question 38
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 4 pole, lap-wound dc armature, the back pitch is 17. If the winding is progressive what is the front pitch?
Select one:
a. 16
b. 17
c. 15
d. 13
Feedback
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Sipalay Mines, has two 3-phase, 60 H AC generators operating in parallel. The first unit has a capacity of
1000 kVA and the second unit has a capacity of 1500 kVA. The first is driven by a prime mover so
adjusted that the frequency falls from 61 Hz at no-load to 59.6 Hz at full-load. The second has a different
speed-load characteristics, the frequency falls from 61.4 Hz at no-load to 59.2 Hz at full-load. When these
alternators are jointly delivering 2000 kW, what is the load of each generator?
Select one:
a. 884 kW, 1116 kW
b. 804 kW, 1196 kW
c. 915 kW, 1085 kW
d. 867 kW, 1133 kW

Feedback
The correct answer is: 884 kW, 1116 kW
Question 40
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A six-pole dynamo, with interpoles, requires 360 inductors on its armature with 3 turns per coil and 2 coil
sides per slot. Determine the number of coils, slots and commutator bars.
Select one:
a. 60, 60, 120
b. 60, 60, 60
c. 120, 120, 120
d. 120, 60, 60
Feedback
The correct answer is: 60, 60, 60
Question 41
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 50-kW 46-volt shunt generator has a voltage regulation of 8.7 percent. Calculate the no-load terminal
voltage.
Select one:
a. 505
b. 500
c. 475
d. 490
Feedback
Question 42
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5000 kVA, 3-phase, 10 kV, 50 Hz alternator runs at 1500 rpm connected to constant frequency,
constant voltage busbars. If the moment of inertia of entire rotating system is 1.5 x 10^4 kg-m^2 and the
steady short circuit current is 5 times the normal full load current. Calculate the natural time period of
oscillation.
Select one:
a. 1.4 sec
b. 1.3 sec
c. 1.2 sec
d. 1.5 sec
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1.4 sec
Question 43
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 20-hp, 110 V DC shunt motor has an efficiency of 88% and the exciting current of 4 amperes and an
armature resistance of 0.04 ohm. What starting resistance is required for full-load torque?
Select one:
a. 0.94 ohm
b. 0.69 ohm
c. 0.98 ohm
d. 0.95 ohm
Feedback
Question 44
Correct
Flag question
Question text
For three single phase transformers, a 600 HP 2,400 volts three phase 60 Hz motor with an efficiency of
90% and power factor of 90% supplied from 34,500 volts utility. For delta-delta connection, what is the
primary and secondary voltage rating of each transformer?
Select one:
a. 34,500/2400
b. 35,000/2500
c. 34,000/2500
d. 32,500/2500
Feedback
The correct answer is: 34,500/2400
Question 45
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
An 8-pole dc shunt generator with 778 wave connected armature conductors and running at 500 rpm
supplies a load of 12.5 ohms resistance at a terminal voltage of 50 V. The armature resistance is 0.24
ohm and the field resistance is 25 ohms. Find the flux per pole in mWb.
Select one:
a. 6.18
b. 9.83
c. 1.96
d. 2.31
Feedback
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 240 volt d.c. motor on brake test took 52 Amp when running at 1500 rpm. The spring balance at the
end of the 76 cm brake arm reads 93.5 N. What is the efficiency of the motor at this load?
Select one:
a. 0.85
b. 0.95
c. 0.90
d. 0.86
Feedback
Question 47
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If maximum torque of an induction motor is 200 kg-m at a slip of 12%, the torque at 6% slip would be
____ kg-m.
Select one:
a. 100
b. 160
c. 40
d. 50
Feedback
Question 48
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Distribution factor for a winding having 3 slots/pole/phase and a slot angle of 20 degrees is
Select one:
a. 1.0
b. 0.96
c. 0.707
d. 0.5
Feedback
Question 49
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The net cross section of a transformer is 20 square inches. The maximum flux density is 11 kilogausses.
The frequency is 60 Hz. If there are 1,000 turns in the primary, determine the primary induced emf.
Select one:
a. 3945 V
b. 3850 V
c. 3780 V
d. 3590 V
Feedback
Question 50
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A shunt motor with armature resistance of 0.12 ohm and designed to operate at 115 V, is taking 60 A in
armature current at full-load. Determine the value of the external resistance to be inserted in the armature
circuit so that the armature current shall not exceed twice its full-load value at starting.
Select one:
a. 0.808 ohms
b. 0.883 ohms
c. 0.838 ohms
d. 0.788 ohms
Feedback
Question 1
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A short-shunt compound generator delivers a load current of 50 A at a terminal voltage of 250 volts. The
armature, series field, shunt field resistances are 0.05 ohm, 0.03 ohm and 250 ohms respectively. What is
the generated emf of the machine?
Select one:
a. 254.05 V
b. 260.45
c. 250 V
d. 257.34 V
Feedback
Question 2
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 440 volt shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.8 ohm and field resistance of 200 ohms. What is
the armature power developed when giving an output of 7.46 kW at 85% efficiency?
Select one:
a. 7.23kW
b. 8.46 Kw
c. 7.46 kW
d. 7.56 kW
Feedback
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 4-pole DC generator with duplex lap winding has 48 slots and four elements per slot. The flux per pole
is 2.5 x 10^6 Maxwell and it runs at 1500 rpm. What is the output voltage?
Select one:
a. 360 V
b. 120 V
c. 225 V
d. 60 V
Feedback
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An industrial load is taking 500 kW at 0.6 lagging p.f. is desired to raise the p.f. to 0.866 lagging using a
synchronous machine whose power input is 300 kW. Calculate the kVA rating of the motor required for
such operation and the power factor at which the motor will operate.
Select one:
a. 380 kVA, 0.866 leading
b. 305 kVA, 0.826 leading
c. 365 kVA, 0.826 leading
d. 365 kVA, 0.778 leading

Feedback
The correct answer is: 365 kVA, 0.826 leading
Question 5
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 3,300/230 V, 50 kVA, single phase transformer is found to have impedance of 4% and a copper loss of
1.8% at full load. What is the percent reactance?
Select one:
a. 3.74%
b. 3.83%
c. 3.57%
d. 3.79%
Feedback
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3-phase, 8-pole delta connected generator has a line current of 500 amperes. If converted in wye, what
is the tolerable current?
Select one:
a. 288.7 A
b. 245.1 A
c. 315.2 A
d. 371.5 A
Feedback
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. none of these
d. 0.866
Feedback
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 4-poles and rotating at 1800 r.p.m. is ____
Hertz.
Select one:
a. 450
b. 60
c. 7200
d. 120
Feedback
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5 hp, 3-phase motor draws current when connected to 230 V. Determine the current drawn by the
motor if the power factor is 0.90 and efficiency of 83%.
Select one:
a. 13.25 A
b. 12.53 A
c. 14.05 A
d. 15.13 A
Feedback
Question 10
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The voltage of a 100-kW, 250-volt shunt generator rises to 260 volts when the load is removed. What is
the full-load current does the machine deliver, and what is its percent regulation?
Select one:
a. 500 A, 5%
b. 400 A, 2%
c. 385 A, 3.85%
d. 400 A, 4%
Feedback
The correct answer is: 400 A, 4%
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 15 ohms
c. 9 ohms
d. 7.5 ohms
Feedback
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A wye-connected turbo alternator having a synchronous reactance of 0.5 ohm and negligible resistance is
connected to a large power system having a busbar voltage of 13.8 kV supplying a load of 15,000 kVA at
0.80 lagging power factor. If the steam supply is cut-off, the armature current will the machine carry
assuming negligible losses?
Select one:
a. 384.26 A
b. 525.62 A
c. 627.55 A
d. 256.55 A
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a brake test the effective load on the branch pulley was 38.1 kg, the effective diameter of the pulley is
63.5 cm and the speed is 12 r.p.s. The motor took 49 ampere at 220 volts. What is the efficiency at this
load?
Select one:
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 80%
d. 86%
Feedback
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
How much is the secondary voltage of a power transformer whose parameters are as follows, primary
voltage is 240 volts, 140 turns in the primary and 7 turns in the secondary.
Select one:
a. 12 V
b. 36 V
c. 24 V
d. 6 V
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 30-kVA, 2,400/240 volts, 60-Hz transformer has a full-load power of unity over the period of 24 hrs. The
maximum efficiency is 95% and it occurs at full-load. Calculate the all-day efficiency if loaded 6-hours at
full-load.
Select one:
a. 78.90%
b. 92.45%
c. 88.38%
d. 89.67%
Feedback
Question 16
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the electromagnetic torque developed in the armature of a 4-pole, lap-wound dc machine
having 728 active conductors and running at 1800 rpm. The flux per pole is 30 mWb. The armature is
designed to carry a maximum current of 100 A.
Select one:
a. 3.476 N-m
b. 34.76 N-m
c. 3476 N-m
d. 347.6 N-m
Feedback
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Determine the speed in rpm of the motor at full load with the following circuit elements per phase: Rotor
leakage reactance = 0.65, Stator leakage reactance = 1.12, Rotor resistance = 0.10, Stator resistance =
0.25, Connection = Y-Y. This motor is 500 HP, 3-phase, 2200 volt, 60-cycle, 6- pole induction motor with
additional core loss of 2,000 watts and the friction and windage losses total is 10,000 watts.
Select one:
a. 1196 rpm
b. 1190 rpm
c. 1200 rpm
d. 1188 rpm
Feedback
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-HP, 550 volts, 60 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a starting torque of 160% of full-load torque and
starting current of 425% of full-load current. If the motor is used on a 440 volt, 60 Hz system, what will be
the starting torque expressed in percent of full-load value?
Select one:
a. 101.8%
b. 103.5%
c. 102.4%
d. 104.2%
Feedback
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two separately excited dc shunt generators are connected in parallel and carry a total load current of 500
amperes. Generator A has an armature resistance of 0.03 ohm and is generating a voltage of 230 volts.
Generator B has an armature resistance of 0.04 ohm and is generating a voltage of 230 volts also.
Calculate the terminal voltage.
Select one:
a. 230 volts
b. 221.44 volts
c. 215.56 volts
d. 210.50 volts
Feedback
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 20-kW 220-volts shunt generator has an armature resistance of 0.07 ohm and a shunt resistance of
200 ohms. Determine the power developed in the armature when it delivers its rated output.
Select one:
a. 20.83 kW
b. 25.7 kW
c. 27.9 kW
d. 19.2 kW
Feedback
Question 21
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The armature of a motor has of 400 active conductors, the flux density in the field being 3000 gauss. The
axial length of the armature is 20.32 cm. The current is 30 amperes. Determine the total force exerted in
the armature.
Select one:
a. 439.2 N
b. 645.9 N
c. 0.07 N
d. 731.5 N
Feedback
The correct answer is: 731.5 N
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A simplex lap wound armature has 580 conductors and carries a current of 125 ampere per armature
current path. If the flux per pole is 20 mWb, calculate the electromagnetic torque developed by the
armature.
Select one:
a. 230.77 N-m
b. 252.72 N-m
c. 207.63 N-m
d. 210.64 N-m
Feedback
Question 23
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc generator has a mechanical efficiency at 98.2% and an electrical efficiency of 95.9%. Find the
commercial efficiency.
Select one:
a. 98%
b. 94.2%
c. 96.5%
d. 97.4%
Feedback
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Find the frequency in kilocyles per second in the armature of a 10 pole, 1,200 rpm generator.
Select one:
a. 100.0
b. 1000.0
c. 10.00
d. 0.100
Feedback
Question 25
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 3
b. 6
c. 5
d. 7
Feedback
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-kVA, 2,400/240 V single-phase transformer has the following resistances and leakage reactances.
Find the primary voltage required to produce 240-V at the secondary terminals at full-load when the load
power factor is 0.8 lagging. r1 = 3 ohms, x1 = 15 ohms, r2 = 0.03 ohm, x2 = 0.15 ohm
Select one:
a. 2,450 volts
b. 2,632 volts
c. 2,496 volts
d. 2,575 volts
Feedback
The correct answer is: 2,496 volts
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A short circuit test was performed upon a 10-kVA, 2300/230 volt transformer with the following results:
Esc = 137 volts; Psc = 192 W; Isc = 4.34 A. Calculate in primary terms the reactance of the transformer.
Select one:
a. 29.88 ohms
b. 12.45 ohms
c. 31.56 ohms
d. 10.19 ohms
Feedback
Question 28
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In a 10-pole, lap-wound d.c. generator, the number of active armature conductors pole is 50. The number
of compensating conductors per pole required is
Select one:
a. 500
b. 5
c. 10
d. 50
Feedback
Question 29
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 4,400 volt, 60 Hz transformer has a core loss of 840 Watts, of which one-third is eddy-current loss.
Determine the core loss of this transformer when it is connected to a 4,600 Volts, 50 Hz.
Select one:
a. 779 Watts
b. 977 Watts
c. 679 Watts
d. 879 Watts
Feedback
The correct answer is: 977 Watts
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The number of cycles generated in a 6-pole alternator in one revolution is
Select one:
a. 6
b. 50
c. 3
d. none of these
Feedback
Question 31
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A d.c. shunt motor develops 7.8 hp at 120 volt, the armature efficiency is 93%. What is the armature
effective resistance?
Select one:
a. 0.06 ohm
b. 0.05 ohm
c. 0.16 ohm
d. 0.1 ohm
Feedback
Question 32
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 7.42 mWb
b. 7.50 mWb
c. 7.02 mWb
d. 7.50 mWb
Feedback
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An 80 kW, 440 volts, 3-phase, Y-connected, 60 Hz, 4-pole synchronous motor has a synchronous
reactance of 3-ohm per phase. Calculate the torque in Newton-meter if it is operating at rated condition at
92% efficiency.
Select one:
a. 714
b. 461
c. 135
d. 571
Feedback
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The input and output powers of a 220 V, shunt motor are 30 and 28 kW respectively. The field and
armature circuit resistances are 40 ohms and 0.0125 ohm respectively. Determine the efficiency of the
motor if the output power is reduced to 10 kW.
Select one:
a. 84.93%
b. 88.67%
c. 86.48%
d. 83.56%
Feedback
Question 35
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 69/13.8 kV, 10 MVA three-phase transformer is connected wye-grounded delta. What is the kV rating of
the secondary winding?
Select one:
a. 23.9
b. 7.97
c. 13.8
d. 15
Feedback
Question 36
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase AC generator is supplying power to a load of 3200 kW at 230 volts and a power factor of
60%. Assume that the loss of the line, the generator armature and the load is equal to the 10% of the
load, what would be the savings in watts if the power factor were raised to 80%?
Select one:
a. 230,000
b. 80,000
c. 100,000
d. 140,000
Feedback
Question 37
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a three phase synchronous converter, the ratio of the AC voltage to DC voltage is
Select one:
a. 0.612
b. 1.0
c. 0.50
d. 0.707
Feedback
Question 38
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two single-phase distribution transformers are banked in V-V (open delta). If each transformer is rated
37.5 kVA, solve for the maximum 3-phase load that the bank can carry without overloading, considering
that the load has a power factor of 0.85 lagging.
Select one:
a. 55.2 kW
b. 49.5 kW
c. 52.5 kW
d. 53.6 kW
Feedback
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 2500 kVA, 6600 V synchronous turbo alternator is operating at full load and 0.8 pf lagging. This
machine has a synchronous reactance per phase of 10.4 ohms and negligible resistance. Calculate the
percentage voltage regulation.
Select one:
a. 48.56%
b. 43.96%
c. 42.35%
d. 45.84%
Feedback
Question 40
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 400-kW, 600 volt, d-c shunt generator has an armature resistance of 0.03 ohm. The field resistance is
48 ohms. The stray power loss for this machine at rated voltage and speed is 7200 watts. What is the
maximum efficiency?
Select one:
a. 95.3%
b. 93.4%
c. 98.5%
d. 96.3%
Feedback
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two single phase transformers with equal ratings and turns ratio are operated in parallel to supply a load
of 180 kW at a lagging pf of 0.90. Transformer A has a resistance of 1% and a reactance of 6%.
Transformer B has a resistance of 2% and a reactance of 5%. Calculate the power delivered by each
transformer.
Select one:
a. 88 kW, 92 kW
b. 80 kW, 100 kW
c. 79 kW, 92 kW
d. 83 kW, 97 kW
Feedback
Question 42
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the force that will be exerted on the scale in a pony brake test when a 20-hp, 1,400 rpm motor
is operating at full load. The length of the brake arm is 3 ft and the tare weight of the brake is 3.75 lbs.
Select one:
a. 21.54 lbs
b. 30.45 lbs
c. 36.33 lbs
d. 28.76 lbs
Feedback
Question 43
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A piece of conductor 10 cm long moves across a magnetic field of 10,000 gauss at a velocity of 120
cm/sec. What voltage appears across the conductor?
Select one:
a. 120 V
b. 0.24 V
c. 60 V
d. 0.12 V
Feedback
Question 44
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 500 kW, 600-V DC, 12-phase synchronous converter operates as a direct converter at a full load
efficiency of 92% and a power factor of 0.93. Calculate the AC voltage between slip rings and the AC
current drawn from a 12-phase transformer fed supply.
Select one:
a. 110 V, 229 A
b. 112 V, 215 A
c. 110 V, 215 A
d. 112 V, 229 A
Feedback
The correct answer is: 110 V, 229 A
Question 45
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A four-pole, three-phase, 50-Hz star connected AC generator has 24 stator slots. There are 6 conductors
per slot and a sinusoidally distributed flux per pole of 65 mWb. Find the terminal voltage on open circuit, if
the coil span factor is unity.
Select one:
a. 579.44 V
b. 546.05 V
c. 568.48 V
d. 558.62 V
Feedback
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase induction motor is rated 50 hp, 220 volts and 1745 rpm and 78% power factor. What is the
percent slip?
Select one:
a. 4.0%
b. 3.5%
c. 2.5%
d. 3.1%
Feedback
Question 47
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The current drawn by a 120-V d.c. motor of armature resistance 0.5 ohm and back e.m.f. 110 V is _____
ampere.
Select one:
a. 240
b. 20
c. 5
d. 220
Feedback
Question 48
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 6-pole, 50-Hz, 3-phase induction motor is running at 950 rpm and has rotor Cu loss of 5 kW. Its rotor
input is ____ kW.
Select one:
a. 95
b. 10
c. 100
d. 5.3
Feedback
Question 49
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In a 5 Hp, 230 Volt, 1500 rpm shunt motor, the resistance of the armature including brushes is 0.175 ohm
and that of the shunt field is 610 ohms. The stray power losses when the motor delivers rated load at
rated voltage is 305 watts. The efficiency at rated load is nearest to
Select one:
a. 89%
b. 90%
c. 98%
d. 85%
Feedback
Question 50
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
oscillation.
Select one:
a. 1.5 sec
b. 1.4 sec
c. 1.2 sec
d. 1.3 sec
Feedback
YEN
The field current of a 100 kW, 250-volt shunt generator is 5 amperes when delivering power at rated
terminal voltage and rated load current. The combined armature and brush resistance is 0.01 ohm.
Determine the efficiency of the generator.
Select one:
a. 94.3%
b. 98.2%
c. 94.7%
d. 97.2%
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3,300/230 V, 50 kVA, single phase transformer is found to have impedance of 4% and a copper loss of
1.8% at full load. What is the percent reactance?
Select one:
a. 3.83%
b. 3.57%
c. 3.79%
d. 3.74%
Feedback
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc shunt motor develops 15 hp at 120 volts. The armature resistance is 0.061 ohm. What is the
armature current?
Select one:
a. 95.81 Amperes
b. 96.15 Amperes
c. 98.15 Amperes
d. 91.85 Amperes
Feedback
The correct answer is: 98.15 Amperes
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6 pole lap wound shunt motor takes 300 A when the speed is 500 rpm. The flux per pole is 0.06 Wb
and the armature has a 870 conductors. Neglecting the shunt field current, calculate the output
horsepower of the motor. Assume a constant loss of 4%.
Select one:
a. 175 hp
b. 172 hp
c. 165 hp
d. 168 hp
Feedback
Question 5
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Each of the series-field coils of a 4-pole 50-kW, 250-volt short shunt compound generator has 6 1/2 turns
of wire. The resistance of the entire series field is 0.012 ohm and the diverter resistance is 0.036 ohm.
What is the number of ampere-turns of each series-field coil at full-load?
Select one:
a. 1300 AT
b. 975 AT
c. 2275 AT
d. 325 AT
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1300 AT
Question 6
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
A 4 pole dc generator with simplex lap winding has 48 slots and four elements per slot. The flux per pole
is 2.5 x 10^6 maxwells and it runs at 1500 rpm. What is the output voltage?
Select one:
a. 225 volts
b. 120 volts
c. 60 volts
d. 360 volts
Feedback
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 220 V shunt motor develops a torque of 54 N-m at armature current of 10 A. The torque produced when
the armature current is 20 A, is
Select one:
a. 108 N-m
b. 81 N-m
c. 54 N-m
d. none of the above
Feedback
The correct answer is: 108 N-m
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 400-V, 50-Hz three-phase induction motor rotates at 1440 rpm on full-load. The motor is wound for
Select one:
a. 8-poles
b. 2-poles
c. 6-poles
d. 4-poles
Feedback
The correct answer is: 4-poles
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A shunt motor, which has a field resistance of 220 ohms and an armature resistance of 0.8 ohm takes 26
A from a 260 V supply when running at 500 rpm on full load. In order to control the speed of the motor a
1.2-ohm resistor is connected in series with the armature. Calculate the speed at which the motor will run
when supplying full load torque.
Select one:
a. 472 rpm
b. 438 rpm
c. 445 rpm
d. 424 rpm
Feedback
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The rotor of a 220 V, 60 Hz, 4 pole induction motor has a power input of 80 kW is observed that the rotor
emf makes 90 cycles per minute. Calculate the mechanical power developed.
Select one:
a. 77 kW
b. 72 kW
c. 75 kW
d. 78 kW
Feedback
Question 11
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A shunt generator delivers 195 A at a terminal voltage of 250 V. The armature resistance and the shunt
field resistance are 0.02 and 0.05 ohm respectively. The iron and the friction losses are equal to 950 W.
Find the mechanical efficiency.
Select one:
a. 93.5%
b. 95.9%
c. 98.2%
d. 97.35%
Feedback
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 50 kVA, 2300/230 volts, 60 cycle transformer is tested in the laboratory so that its characteristics maybe
determined. The standard test requires an open circuit test and short circuit test. Open Circuit Test: I =
6.5 A, E = 230 V, P = 187 W; Short Circuit Test: I = 21.7 A, E = 115 V, P = 570 W. Determine the
efficiency of the transformer at half load, unity pf.
Select one:
a. 98.45%
b. 97.55%
c. 97.80%
d. 98.70%
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 5500
b. 2750
c. 550
d. 275
Feedback
Question 14
Correct

Flag question
Question text
Find the frequency in kilocyles per second in the armature of a 10 pole, 1,200 rpm generator.
Select one:
a. 1000.0
b. 0.100
c. 10.00
d. 100.0
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A delta-connected load induction motor draws 100 A from each line of a three-phase source and
develops 40 lb-ft torque at standstill. Find the torque when connected to the same source if the motor is
reconnected in wye.
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 13.3 lb-ft
c. 40 lb-ft
d. 120 lb-ft
Feedback
The correct answer is: 13.3 lb-ft
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 25 kVA, 220 volt three phase alternator delivers rated kVA at 0.84 power factor. The effective ac
resistance between the armature winding terminals is 0.18 ohm. The field takes 9.3 amperes at 115 volts.
If the friction and windage loss is 460 watts and the core loss is 610 watts. What is the HP delivered by
the prime mover?
Select one:
a. 28.15
b. 31.54
c. 32.6
d. 33.23
Feedback
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 30 HP, 4 poles, 3-phase, 230 volts, 60 Hz squirrel cage induction motor operating at 90% efficiency,
85% power factor and 2.5% slip drives a water pump for a reservoir. Find the current and speed at which
the motor is operating.
Select one:
a. 62.4 A, 1755 rpm
b. 62.4 A, 1800 rpm
c. 73.4 A, 1755 rpm
d. 73.4 A, 1800 rpm
Feedback
The correct answer is: 73.4 A, 1755 rpm
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6-pole, 3-phase, 60 cycle alternator has 12 slots per pole and four conductors per slot. The winding is
5/6 pitch. There are 2,500,000 Maxwells entering the armature from each North Pole, and this flux is
sinusoidally distributed along the air gap. The armature coils are all-connected in series. The winding is
wye-connected. Determine the open circuit emf of the alternator.
Select one:
a. 512.4 V
b. 504.2 V
c. 572.4 V
d. 532.1 V
Feedback
Question 19
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 1202 rpm
b. 1221 rpm
c. 1122 rpm
d. 1010 rpm
Feedback
Question 20
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 120/180 volt auto-transformer draws power at 120 Volt and supplies power to a 2 kW load at 180 Volts
with a p.f. of 0.80 lagging. An additional load of 1 kW is supplied at unity p.f. from the 60 Volt Winding.
What is the current drawn from the 120 Volt supply line?
Select one:
a. 28
b. 30
c. 26
d. 32
Feedback
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 1200 rpm
c. 1425 rpm
d. 1500 rpm
Feedback
Question 22
Correct

Flag question
Question text
A DC shunt motor has a full load rating of 15 hp, 230 volts, 57.1 amperes, 1400 rpm. The armature circuit
resistance is 0.13 ohm and the field circuit resistance is 115 ohms. Neglecting the effect of armature
reaction, determine the no-load speed.
Select one:
a. 1392 rpm
b. 1264 rpm
c. 1441 rpm
d. 1380 rpm
Feedback
Question 23
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
What is the ratio of capacity of open delta bank to the capacity of close delta bank?
Select one:
a. 63.2%
b. 66.7%
c. 57.5%
d. 72%
Feedback
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A shunt motor draws current of 40 A from a 120 V source and runs at 1200 rpm at rated load. The
armature and field circuit resistances are 0.1 ohm and 60 ohms, respectively. Determine the speed of the
motor at half load. Assume a brush drop of 2 V rated load and 1 V half load.
Select one:
a. 1230 rpm
b. 1026 rpm
c. 1238 rpm
d. 1180 rpm
Feedback
Question 25
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase, 6-pole, 72-slot armature of a synchronous generator is wound using a two layer lap coil
having 20 conductors per coil with a pitch of 83.33%. The flux per pole is 4,800,000 Maxwells. If the rotor
of the generator is driven at a speed of 1200 rpm, calculate the induced emf per phase. Note: There are 2
coils in 1 slot.
Select one:
a. 5,680 V
b. 5,390 V
c. 5,564 V
d. 5,854 V
Feedback
The correct answer is: 5,680 V
Question 26
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A separately excited generator generates 230 volts when driven at 1200 rpm. If the flux is decrease by
10%, what is the new emf with speed remains the same?
Select one:
a. 253 volts
b. 230 volts
c. 207 volts
d. 256 volts
Feedback
Question 27
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
When a closed-delta bank is converted into an open-delta bank each of the two remaining transformer
supplies ____ percent of the original load.
Select one:
a. 57.7
b. 50
c. 73.2
d. 66.7
Feedback
Question 28
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-kVA, 2000/400 V, single-phase transformer has primary and secondary winding impedances of 5.0
+ j10 and 0.2 + j0.45 ohms, respectively. Calculate the voltage across the secondary terminals at full
load, 80% power actor lagging, when the primary is supplied with 2,000 volts.
Select one:
a. 379 V
b. 385 V
c. 394 V
d. 400 V
Feedback
Question 29
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 2,500 kVA, three-phase, 60-Hz, 6.6 kV wye-connected alternator has a field resistance of 0.45 ohm and
an armature resistance of 0.05 ohm per phase. The field current at full load 0.85 power factor is 200 A.
The stray power losses amount to 82 kW. Calculate the efficiency of the alternator at full-load, 0.85 power
factor lagging.
Select one:
a. 95.2%
b. 93.7%
c. 94.8%
d. 96.3%
Feedback
Question 30
Correct

Flag question
Question text
A 100-volt shunt motor is developing 6 hp while operating at an over-all efficiency of 86%. The armature
and shunt field resistances are 0.06 and 50 ohms respectively. Determine the stray power losses.
Select one:
a. 364 W
b. 392 W
c. 367 W
d. 378 W
Feedback
Question 31
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The speed of a motor-generator set consisting of a 6-pole induction motor and a 4-pole dc generator fed
from a 3-phase.
Select one:
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 600
d. 3000
Feedback
Question 32
Correct
Flag question
Question text
starting current of 425% of full-load current. What will be the voltage in order that the starting current be
limited to the full-load value?
Select one:
a. 132.47 V
b. 136.75 V
c. 125.52 V
d. 129.41 V
Feedback
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Pitch factor for 5/6 short pitch coil is
Select one:
a. 1.0
b. 0.833
c. 0.966
d. 3.454
Feedback
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase induction motor is rated 50 hp, 220 volts and 1745 rpm and 78% power factor. What is the
percent slip?
Select one:
a. 4.0%
b. 2.5%
c. 3.1%
d. 3.5%
Feedback
Question 35
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
For a 4-pole, 2-layer d.c. lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer, the number of
commutator bars is
Select one:
a. 80
b. 40
c. 20
d. 160
Feedback
Question 36
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 120, 120, 120
b. 120, 60, 60
c. 60, 60, 120

d. 60, 60, 60
Feedback
Question 37
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 5
b. 4
c. 8.66
d. 34.6
Feedback
Question 38
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the electrical displacement between adjacent slots of a 16 pole alternator with 144 slots.
Select one:
a. 60 deg
b. 30 deg
c. 20 deg
d. 180 deg
Feedback
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The pulley of an old gen-set has a diameter of 20 inches. The belt exerts a pull of 353 lbs on a pulley. The
gen-set runs at 900 rpm. What is the approximate rating of the gen-set?
Select one:
a. 38
b. 75
c. 250
d. 200
Feedback
Question 40
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
A three phase, 318.75 kVA, 2300 V alternator has an armature resistance of 0.35 ohms per phase and
synchronous reactance of 1.2 ohms per phase. Determine the voltage regulation at full load 0.6 power
factor leading.
Select one:
a. 6.12%
b. -6.12%
c. 4.33%
d. -4.33%
Feedback
The correct answer is: -4.33%
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In the armature winding of an alternator, the coil span falls short of full-pitch by 60 degrees (electrical).
The pitch factor is
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 0.866
c. 0.25
d. 0.5
Feedback
Question 42
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the normal secondary current rating of current transformer in amperes?
Select one:
a. 20
b. 15
c. 5
d. 10
Feedback
Question 43
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 500 kW, 600-V DC, 12-phase synchronous converter operates as a direct converter at a full load
efficiency of 92% and a power factor of 0.93. Calculate the AC voltage between slip rings and the AC
current drawn from a 12-phase transformer fed supply.
Select one:
a. 110 V, 229 A
b. 112 V, 229 A
c. 112 V, 215 A
d. 110 V, 215 A
Feedback
The correct answer is: 110 V, 229 A
Question 44
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The nameplate rating of a shunt motor is 150 hp, 600 volts, 205 A, 1700 rpm. The resistance of the shunt
field circuit is 240 ohms and the total armature circuit resistance is 0.15 ohm. If the motor is to be deliver
full-load torque at 1,200 rpm, what value of resistance must be added to the armature circuit?
Select one:
a. 0.802 ohm
b. 0.833 ohm
c. 0.827 ohm
d. 0.862 ohm
Feedback
Question 45
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
The eddy current and hysteresis losses of a 4,400-V, 60-Hz single-phase distribution transformer are 280
and 560 watts, respectively. Determine the core loss when the transformer is connected across a 4,600-
volt, 50-Hz source.
Select one:
a. 967 W
b. 983 W
c. 994 W
d. 977 W
Feedback
Question 46
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 0.4
b. 4
c. 0.04
d. 0.25
Feedback
Question 47
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Three single-phase transformers connected delta-delta fed a three-phase rotary converter at 2,300 V.
This converter supplies power to a DC load that draws 100 kW at 250 V. If the rotary converter operates
at an efficiency of 95% at unity pf, calculate the current in the secondary windings of the transformer
bank.
Select one:
a. 249 A
b. 229 A
c. 397 A
d. 355 A
Feedback
Question 48
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Two separately excited dc shunt generators are connected in parallel and carry a total load current of 500
amperes. Generator A has an armature resistance of 0.03 ohm and is generating a voltage of 230 volts.
Generator B has an armature resistance of 0.04 ohm and is generating a voltage of 230 volts also.
Calculate the terminal voltage.
Select one:
a. 221.44 volts
b. 210.50 volts
c. 215.56 volts
d. 230 volts
Feedback
Question 49
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The field current of a 180 kW, 250 volts DC shunt generator is 6 A when running full-load at rated terminal
voltage. If the combined armature and brush resistance is 0.02 ohm, solve for the mechanical efficiency
of the generator.
Select one:
a. 94.05%
b. 93.73%
c. 91.87%
d. 92.13%
Feedback
Question 50
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 2,180 W
b. 1,518 W
c. 1,670 W
d. 2,000 W
Feedback
Harvey
Question 1
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 0.25
b. 0.4
c. 4
d. 0.04
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An open delta bank, consisting of two-single phase transformers is operating with balanced three-phase
load of 50 kVA, 440 V at 0.8 pf lagging and a single phase load of 10 kW resistive connected across c-a
leg. Determine the minimum ratings of the transformers. Assume a phase sequence of a-b-c.
Select one:
a. 35.48 kVA, 36.34 kVA
b. 30.83 kVA, 39.52 kVA
c. 38.80 kVA, 34.06 kVA
d. 34.32 kVA, 33.40 kVA

Feedback
The correct answer is: 38.80 kVA, 34.06 kVA
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc resistance test is conducted on a 3-phase 200 kVA, 240 volts, delta connected generator. When the
two terminals are connected from 6 volts dc source, the ammeter inserted in the lines reads 150
amperes. The effective resistance to ohmic resistance is 1.25. What is the percent resistance?
Select one:
a. 4.5%
b. 6%
c. 7.5%
d. 6.9%
Feedback
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 20 kW, 200 V shunt generator is operated at rated load. If the driving engine is developing 30 HP,
determine the iron and friction losses. Armature resistance is 0.05 ohm and field resistance is 50 ohms.
Select one:
a. 1039 W
b. 954 W
c. 1340 W
d. 934 W
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An open delta, three-phase transformer consisting of two single-phase transformers is operating with a
balanced three-phase load of 50 kVA, 440-V at a lagging pf of 0.8. Determine the operating pf of each
transformer.
Select one:

Feedback
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 50 HP, 550 V shunt-wound motor draws a line current of 4.5 A at no-load. The shunt field resistance is
275 ohms and the armature resistance exclusive of the brushes is 0.3 ohm, the brush drop at full-load is 2
V. At full-load, the motor draws a line current of 84 A. Calculate the efficiency at full-load.
Select one:
a. 91.2%
b. 88.5%
c. 89.9%
d. 92.0%
Feedback
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A squirrel cage induction motor with nameplate data of 150 HP, 3-phase, 460 V, 60 Hz, 6-pole, 0.85 p.f.
was subjected to certain performance tests. The test result readings were as follows: Full-load current =
202 A, Full-load torque = 676.8 lb-ft, Solve for the percentage slip.
Select one:
a. 3.05%
b. 3.28%
c. 2.25%
d. 4.15%
Feedback
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The iron loss of a transformer at 400 Hz is 10 W. Assuming that eddy current and hysteresis losses vary
as the square of flux density, the iron loss of the transformer at rated voltage but 50 Hz would be ____
watt.
Select one:
a. 640
b. 80
c. 1.25
d. 100
Feedback
Question 9
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In a 4 pole, 35 slot d.c. armature, calculate the coil span.
Select one:
a. 9 slots
b. 7 slots
c. 8 slots
d. 10slots
Feedback
The correct answer is: 8 slots
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36 degrees and a step angle of 9 degres, the number of its
phases must be
Select one:
a. 6
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
Feedback
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3-phase induction motor is running at 2% slip. If the input to rotor is 1000 W, then mechanical power
developed by the motor is
Select one:
a. 980 W
b. 200 W
c. 20 W
d. 500 W
Feedback
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 1010 rpm
b. 1221 rpm
c. 1122 rpm
d. 1202 rpm
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A resistor assembly for a wound rotor consists of 20 elements of cast iron grid elements. The rating of
each is 0.10 ohm. When joined in series and tested across 220 volts, the measured current was 100 A.
How much power was lost in the joints?
Select one:
a. 2.1 kW
b. 2.0 kW
c. 1.9 kW
d. 1.8 kW
Feedback
Question 14
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 10-pole, 400-kW, 250-V dc generator has a lap-wound armature with 75 slots each having 12
conductors. The section of each conductor is 2 x 17.5 mm^2. If the average length of one turn is 150 cm,
find the resistance of the armature. Assume the specific resistance per copper as 2 micro-ohm-cm.
Select one:
a. 0.009643 ohm
b. 0.002571 ohm
c. 0.003857 ohm
d. 0.007714 ohm
Feedback
Question 15
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A single phase generator with full load current of 450 amperes at 2400 volts has 0.08 ohm resistance and
synchronous reactance is 2.8 ohms. Determine the voltage regulation in percent at 75% power factor
lagging.
Select one:
a. 64
b. 75
c. 55
d. 41
Feedback
Question 16
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 250
b. 128
c. 160
d. 200
Feedback
Question 17
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 110 kW & 90 kW
b. 125 kW & 75 kW
c. 150 kW & 50 kW
d. 120 kW & 80 kW
Feedback
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase wound rotor induction motor, 440 V, 60 cycles, 4 poles is connected to a pump that
delivers 1000 cfm of water against an effective head of 8 ft. Under this load, the motor draws 15 kW at a
power factor of 0.90. When operated without load, the motor draws 800 watts. The stator resistance per
phase is 0.21 ohm and the rotor resistance per phase is 0.022 ohm. The turns ratio between stator and
rotor is 4:1. Determine the efficiency of the pump.
Select one:
a. 83.62%
b. 84.65%
c. 83.16%
d. 84.24%
Feedback
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 2,000 W
b. 1,670 W
c. 2,180 W
d. 1,518 W
Feedback
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A long shunt compound motor takes a current of 42 A from a 230 V source. Armature, series field and
shunt field resistances are 0.1 ohm, 0.2 ohm and 50 ohms respectively. If the friction and windage losses
amount to 400 W, determine the over-all efficiency of the machine.
Select one:
a. 80.55%
b. 82.24%
c. 81.22%
d. 79.53%
Feedback
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A six-pole, three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor is connected to a 60-cps supply. At full-load, the
induced emf of the rotor makes 72 complete cycles in 1 minute. Find the rotor speed.
Select one:
a. 1200 rpm
b. 1176 rpm
c. 1054 rpm
d. 1124 rpm
Feedback
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The per phase dc armature resistance of an alternator is 0.5 ohm. The effective ac armature resistance
would be about
Select one:
a. 0.5 ohm
b. 4 ohms
c. 0.25 ohm
d. 0.75 ohm
Feedback
Question 23
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The Utility Company supplies two single-phase transformers banked in open delta. If each transformer is
rated 75 kVA capacity, what is the maximum 3-phase load in kilowatts that the bank can carry without
suffering overload considering that the load has a lagging power factor of 0.80.
Select one:
a. 104 kW
b. 130 kW
c. 112 kW
d. 114 kW
Feedback
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 2750
b. 275
c. 550
d. 5500
Feedback
Question 25
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 7
Feedback
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 4 poles lap work, dc machine has 728 active conductors running at 1800 rpm. The flux per pole is 30
mWb. The armature current is 120 A, what is the electromagnetic power developed in the armature in
kW?
Select one:
a. 72.4
b. 78.6
c. 62.4
d. 65.5
Feedback
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An induction motor of 30-hp, 220-volts, 3-phase draws 450 percent of the rated current with the rated
voltage and delivers during the starting period 130 percent of the rated torque. The full-load efficiency and
full-load power factor of this motor is 80% and 70% respectively. If an autotransformer is used as a
starting unit and starting torque of the load is only 50 percent of the rated torque of the motor, find the
starting voltage.
Select one:
a. 132.36 volts
b. 130.65 volts
c. 136.44 volts
d. 134.20 volts
Feedback
Question 28
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5-hp, three-phase, 400-V star-connected squirrel-cage induction motor meant to drive a milling
machine, at starting takes about
Select one:
a. 200 A
b. 150 A
c. 40 A
d. 100 A
Feedback
Question 29
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the force that will be exerted on the scale in a prony brake test when a 20 HP, 1,400 rpm motor
is operating at full-load. The length of the brake arm is 3 ft and the tare weight of the brake is 3.75 lbs.
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 26.86 lbs
c. 62.76 lbs
d. 28.76 lbs
Feedback
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 4
b. 34.6
c. 5
d. 8.66
Feedback
Question 31
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two alternators are operating in parallel supplying a common load of 425 kW at 0.85 power factor
lagging. Alternator A contributes 600 kVAR at 0.92 power factor lagging. Solve for the power factor of
alternator B.
Select one:
a. 0.813 lagging
b. 0.834 lagging
c. 0.804 lagging
d. 0.820 lagging
Feedback
Question 32
Correct
Flag question
Question text
excitation, calculate the power factor at maximum power.
Select one:
a. 0.853
b. 0.873
c. 0.863
d. 0.843
Feedback
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A synchronous motor is drawing 60 kW is connected in parallel with a load drawing 250 kW at a lagging
power factor of 0.8. If the combined load has a power factor of 0.9, at what power factor is the
synchronous motor operating?
Select one:
a. 0.849 leading
b. 0.874 leading
c. 0.862 leading
d. 0.868 leading
Feedback
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5 Hp, 230 V shunt motor takes 18 Amperes when operating at full load. The shunt field resistance is
115 ohms and the armature resistance is 0.25 ohm. Calculate the starter resistance if the starting torque
is limited to 1.5 times the full torque (take a 3-V brush drop).
Select one:
a. 9.2 ohms
b. 9.46 ohms
c. 9.33 ohms
d. 13.94 ohms
Feedback
Question 35
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Two 250 HP, 2400-volt-3-phase motor of 90% power factor 93% efficiency are supplied from 34500 volt
transmission line by 3-single phase transformer connected delta-delta. Specify the bank KVA.
Select one:
a. 400
b. 500
c. 446
d. 550
Feedback
Question 36
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three phase wye connected ac generator is rated 1500 kVA, 11000 V. The effective resistance and
synchronous reactance per phase are 1.5 ohms and 30 ohms respectively. To what value will the terminal
voltage rise when full-load at 0.8 pf lagging is switch off.
Select one:
a. 12 kV
b. 14 kV
c. 15 kV
d. 13 kV
Feedback
Question 37
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 7.42 mWb
b. 7.50 mWb
c. 7.02 mWb
d. 7.60 mWb
Feedback
Question 38
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 4 pole, lap-wound dc armature, the back pitch is 17. If the winding is progressive what is the front pitch?
Select one:
a. 16
b. 17
c. 15
d. 13
Feedback
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Sipalay Mines, has two 3-phase, 60 H AC generators operating in parallel. The first unit has a capacity of
1000 kVA and the second unit has a capacity of 1500 kVA. The first is driven by a prime mover so
adjusted that the frequency falls from 61 Hz at no-load to 59.6 Hz at full-load. The second has a different
speed-load characteristics, the frequency falls from 61.4 Hz at no-load to 59.2 Hz at full-load. When these
Select one:
a. 884 kW, 1116 kW
b. 804 kW, 1196 kW
c. 915 kW, 1085 kW
d. 867 kW, 1133 kW

Feedback
Question 40
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 60, 60, 120
b. 60, 60, 60
c. 120, 120, 120
d. 120, 60, 60
Feedback
Question 41
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 50-kW 46-volt shunt generator has a voltage regulation of 8.7 percent. Calculate the no-load terminal
voltage.
Select one:
a. 505
b. 500
c. 475
d. 490
Feedback
Question 42
Correct
Flag question
Question text
oscillation.
Select one:
a. 1.4 sec
b. 1.3 sec
c. 1.2 sec
d. 1.5 sec
Feedback
Question 43
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 20-hp, 110 V DC shunt motor has an efficiency of 88% and the exciting current of 4 amperes and an
armature resistance of 0.04 ohm. What starting resistance is required for full-load torque?
Select one:
a. 0.94 ohm
b. 0.69 ohm
c. 0.98 ohm
d. 0.95 ohm
Feedback
Question 44
Correct
Flag question
Question text
For three single phase transformers, a 600 HP 2,400 volts three phase 60 Hz motor with an efficiency of
90% and power factor of 90% supplied from 34,500 volts utility. For delta-delta connection, what is the
primary and secondary voltage rating of each transformer?
Select one:
a. 34,500/2400
b. 35,000/2500
c. 34,000/2500
d. 32,500/2500
Feedback
The correct answer is: 34,500/2400
Question 45
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
An 8-pole dc shunt generator with 778 wave connected armature conductors and running at 500 rpm
supplies a load of 12.5 ohms resistance at a terminal voltage of 50 V. The armature resistance is 0.24
ohm and the field resistance is 25 ohms. Find the flux per pole in mWb.
Select one:
a. 6.18
b. 9.83
c. 1.96
d. 2.31
Feedback
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 0.85
b. 0.95
c. 0.90
d. 0.86
Feedback
Question 47
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If maximum torque of an induction motor is 200 kg-m at a slip of 12%, the torque at 6% slip would be
____ kg-m.
Select one:
a. 100
b. 160
c. 40
d. 50
Feedback
Question 48
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Distribution factor for a winding having 3 slots/pole/phase and a slot angle of 20 degrees is
Select one:
a. 1.0
b. 0.96
c. 0.707
d. 0.5
Feedback
Question 49
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The net cross section of a transformer is 20 square inches. The maximum flux density is 11 kilogausses.
The frequency is 60 Hz. If there are 1,000 turns in the primary, determine the primary induced emf.
Select one:
a. 3945 V
b. 3850 V
c. 3780 V
d. 3590 V
Feedback
Question 50
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 0.808 ohms
b. 0.883 ohms
c. 0.838 ohms
d. 0.788 ohms
Feedback
OPENA
Question 1
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The per phase dc armature resistance of an alternator is 0.5 ohm. The effective ac armature resistance would be about
Select one:
a. 0.5 ohm
b. 0.25 ohm
c. 0.75 ohm
d. 4 ohms
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Calculate the force that will be exerted on the scale in a prony brake test when a 20 HP, 1,400 rpm motor is operating at full-load.
The length of the brake arm is 3 ft and the tare weight of the brake is 3.75 lbs.
Select one:
a. 26.86 lbs
b. none of these
c. 62.76 lbs
d. 28.76 lbs
Feedback
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 1500 rpm
c. 1425 rpm
d. 1200 rpm
Feedback
Question 4
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc generator has a mechanical efficiency at 98.2% and an electrical efficiency of 95.9%. Find the commercial efficiency.
Select one:
a. 97.4%
b. 96.5%
c. 98%
d. 94.2%
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The net cross section of a transformer is 20 square inches. The maximum flux density is 11 kilogausses. The frequency is 60 Hz. If
there are 1,000 turns in the primary, determine the primary induced emf.
Select one:
a. 3945 V
b. 3850 V
c. 3590 V
d. 3780 V
Feedback
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3,600 volts three-phase star connected turbo synchronous generator of synchronous reactance of 0.5 ohm per phase and
negligible resistance is supplying 30,000 kVA at 0.8 pf lagging to a large power system. If the steam supply is cut-off, calculate the
amount of current that the generator will then carry assuming negligible losses.
Select one:
a. 3823 A
b. 3870 A
c. 3901 A
d. 3094 A
Feedback
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 4-pole 230-V, 60 Hz, three-phase induction motor directly drives a 6-pole alternator. Determine the output frequency. Assume a
slip of 3% in the motor.
Select one:
a. 90.0 Hz
b. 86.6 Hz
c. 88.4 Hz
d. 87.3 Hz
Feedback
The correct answer is: 87.3 Hz
Question 8
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 50-kW 46-volt shunt generator has a voltage regulation of 8.7 percent. Calculate the no-load terminal voltage.
Select one:
a. 475
b. 490
c. 505
d. 500
Feedback

Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Find the value to voltage regulation having a dc voltage of 67 V without load and with full load current drawn the output voltage
drops to 42 V.
Select one:
a. 32.5%
b. 15.9%
c. 59.5%
d. 62.6%
Feedback
Question 10
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6 pole lap wound shunt motor takes 300 A when the speed is 500 rpm. The flux per pole is 0.06 Wb and the armature has a 870
conductors. Neglecting the shunt field current, calculate the output horsepower of the motor. Assume a constant loss of 4%.
Select one:
a. 168 hp
b. 172 hp
c. 165 hp
d. 175 hp
Feedback
Question 11
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The induced emf in each coil side of a certain alternator winding is calculated as 10 volts, if the measured voltage across the coil is
19.32 volts, the winding is short by how many electrical degrees?
Select one:
a. 20 deg
b. 30 deg
c. 60 deg
d. 50 deg
Feedback
Question 12
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A short shunt compound generator delivers 150 A at a terminal voltage of 230 V. The shunt field current is 2.5 A. The resistance of
the armature, series field and diverter are 0.032 ohm, 0.015 ohm and 0.03 ohm, respectively. Calculate the electrical efficiency of
the generator at this load.
Select one:
a. 95.7%
b. 94.2%
c. 93.8%
d. 96.4%
Feedback
Question 13
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 500-hp, 2200 V, 3-phase, star-connected synchronous motor has a synchronous impedance of 0.3 + j3 ohm per phase.
Determine the induced emf per phase if the motor works on full load with an efficiency of 94% and a power factor of 0.8 leading.
Select one:
a. 1360 V
b. 1354 V
c. 1402 V
d. 1522 V
Feedback
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-hp, 4-pole, 25-Hz, 3-phase induction motor is taking 9,100 watts from the line. The core loss is 290 watts; stator copper loss is
568 watts; rotor copper loss is 445 watts; and the friction and windage loss is 121 watts. Determine the output torque in Newton-
meter.
Select one:
a. 103.32
b. 190.32
c. 178.76
d. 150.56
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A simplex lap wound armature has 580 conductors and carries a current of 125 ampere per armature current path. If the flux per
pole is 20 mWb, calculate the electromagnetic torque developed by the armature.
Select one:
a. 207.63 N-m
b. 230.77 N-m
c. 252.72 N-m
d. 210.64 N-m
Feedback
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The pulley of an old gen-set has a diameter of 20 inches. The belt exerts a pull of 353 lbs on a pulley. The gen-set runs at 900 rpm.
What is the approximate rating of the gen-set?
Select one:
a. 250
b. 75
c. 200
d. 38
Feedback
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-kVA, 2000/400 V, single-phase transformer has primary and secondary winding impedances of 5.0 + j10 and 0.2 + j0.45 ohms,
respectively. Calculate the voltage across the secondary terminals at full load, 80% power actor lagging, when the primary is
supplied with 2,000 volts.
Select one:
a. 400 V
b. 379 V
c. 394 V
d. 385 V
Feedback
Question 18
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A shunt generator supplies a load of 5,500 kW, 220 volts, shunt generator in the FEU laboratory is 232 volts and rated load voltage
is 220 volts. The armature resistance including brushes is 0.026 ohm and the resistance of the shunt field resistance is 52 ohms.
What is the induced electromagnetic force at rated load?
Select one:
a. 224.56 V
b. 221.36 V
c. 226.02 V
d. 227.05 V
Feedback
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 15 hp 220 volt, 1200 rpm shunt motor takes 50 Amperes. Its armature resistance is 0.1 ohm and field resistance is 220 ohms.
Brush contact voltage drop is 2 volts. Friction and windage loss is 400 watts and stray load loss of 1% of the output. Calculate the
efficiency.
Select one:
a. 92.4%
b. 91.8%
c. 9.4%
d. 94.6%
Feedback
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Synchronous impedance test is taken on a 3-phase generator. Under short circuit condition, the current is the three lines are 26.2 A,
23.7 A, and 27.4 A. What current should be used for the test?
Select one:
a. 26.3 A
b. 25.4 A
c. 24.6 A
d. 25.7 A
Feedback
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The span for a full-pitch coil wound for six poles is
Select one:
a. 90 degrees mechanical
b. 180 degrees mechanical
c. 45 degrees mechanical
d. 60 degrees mechanical
Feedback
The correct answer is: 60 degrees mechanical
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A single-phase transformer is rated 4,160-V primary and 250-V secondary. It has 1,500 turns in the primary and voltage regulation
of 8%. What should be the number of turns in the secondary winding?
Select one:
a. 88 turns
b. 92 turns
c. 86 turns
d. 90 turns
Feedback
The correct answer is: 90 turns
Question 23
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A shunt generator delivers 195 A at a terminal voltage of 250 V. The armature resistance and the shunt field resistance are 0.02 and
0.05 ohm respectively. The iron and the friction losses are equal to 950 W. Find the commercial efficiency of the generator.
Select one:
a. 95.9%
b. 98.2%
c. 93.5%
d. 94.2%
Feedback
Question 24
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A six-pole, 3-phase AC generator has 72 slots, the coil span is 12. What is the pitch factor?
Select one:
a. 0.966
b. 0.939
c. 1.000
d. 0.985
Feedback
Question 25
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the step angle of a permanent-magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles and 4 rotor poles?
Select one:
a. 45 degrees
b. 60 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 15 degrees
Feedback
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 400 V series motor has a field resistance of 0.2 ohm and an armature resistance of 0.1 ohm. The motor takes 30 A of current at
1000 rpm while developing full-load torque. What is the motor speed when this motor develops 60% of full load torque?
Select one:
a. 1135.5 rpm
b. 1302.4 rpm
c. 1257.2 rpm
d. 1297.6 rpm
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1297.6 rpm
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 200-kVA transformer has an impedance of 15% and the power factor of the load is 85%. The primary voltage is 6,000 volts while
the copper loss is 15 kW. Find the percentage voltage regulation.
Select one:
a. 8.91%
b. 23.67%
c. 15.78%
d. 13.49%
Feedback
Question 28
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A single phase generator with full load current of 450 amperes at 2400 volts has 0.08 ohm resistance and synchronous reactance is
2.8 ohms. Determine the voltage regulation in percent at 75% power factor lagging.
Select one:
a. 75
b. 41
c. 55
d. 64
Feedback
Question 29
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A separately excited generator generates 230 volts when driven at 1200 rpm. If the flux is decrease by 10%, what is the new emf
with speed remains the same?
Select one:
a. 253 volts
b. 207 volts
c. 230 volts
d. 256 volts
Feedback
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Neglecting saturation, if current taken by a series motor is increased from 10 A to 12 A, the percentage increase in its torque is ___
percent.
Select one:
a. 44
b. 30.5
c. 16.6
d. 20
Feedback
Question 31
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 7.5 ohms
b. 9 ohms
c. 15 ohms
d. none of these
Feedback
Question 32
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 500 kVA, 13200/2400 volts 60 Hz single phase transformer has a 4% reactance and 1% resistance. The leakage reactance and
resistance of the low voltage winding are 0.25 and 0.055 ohm, respectively. Calculate the leakage reactance and resistance in ohms
of the HV winding.
Select one:
a. 6.53 & 1.87
b. 6.38 & 1.82
c. 4.86 & 1.56
d. 6.23 & 1.85

Feedback
The correct answer is: 6.38 & 1.82
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a transformer, the iron loss is found to be 42 W at 30 Hz and 90 W at 60 Hz measured at the same flux density. What is the
hysteresis and eddy current loss at 60 Hz?
Select one:
a. 78 W & 12 W
b. 60 W & 30 W
c. 30 W & 68 W
d. 12 W & 78 W
Feedback
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 25-kVA distribution transformer operates at 120% load, 0.3 pf lagging for 1 hour; at full-load, 0.9 lagging pf for 3 hours; 50% load
at unity pf for 8 hours; and 10% load at 0.8 leading pf for the rest of the day. If core loss is 150 watts and full load copper loss is 500
W, what is the all-day efficiency of the transformer?
Select one:
a. 97.14%
b. 94.23%
c. 96.68%
d. 92.86%
Feedback
Question 35
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. none of these
d. 0.866
Feedback
Question 36
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An open-delta connected transformer bank serves a balanced 3-phase load of 40 kVA at 230 V and 0.866 pf lagging. Solve for the
real power and pf at which each transformer is operating.
Select one:
a. 11.54 kW at 0.5 pf and 23.09 kW at unity pf
b. 11.54 kW at 0.866 pf and 23.09 kW at 0.707 pf
c. 12.22 kW at 0.866 pf and 22.429 kW at 0.707 pf
d. 12.22 kW at 0.5 pf and 22.42 at unity pf

Feedback
The correct answer is: 11.54 kW at 0.5 pf and 23.09 kW at unity pf
Question 37
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
An ac generator 1500 kVA capacity has a full load efficiency of 91% at 100% power factor and 86% efficiency at 80% power factor
lagging. What engine drive in Hp is required if the genset is to supply entirely incandescent lamp?
Select one:
a. 3125
b. 2210
c. 1980
d. 2525
Feedback
Question 38
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A squirrel cage induction motor with nameplate data of 150 HP, 3-phase, 460 V, 60 Hz, 6-pole, 0.85 p.f. was subjected to certain
performance tests. The test result readings were as follows: Full-load current = 202 A, Full-load torque = 676.8 lb-ft, Solve for the
percentage slip.
Select one:
a. 4.15%
b. 3.28%
c. 2.25%
d. 3.05%
Feedback
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The input current to a 220 V, short shunt compound motor at no-load is 6 A. The shunt field circuit resistance is 220 ohms, the
armature resistance is 0.10 ohm and the series field resistance is 0.08 ohm. What is the stray power loss?
Select one:
a. 1232.54 W
b. 1153.31 W
c. 1073.25 W
d. 1066.22 W
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1073.25 W
Question 40
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The armature of a 4-pole, 128 slots shunt generator is lap wound with four conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 50 mWb. The
armature and shunt field resistances are 0.04 ohm and 50 ohms respectively. Determine the speed of the machine when supplying
400 A at a terminal voltage of 250 V.
Select one:
a. 624 rpm
b. 622rpm
c. 634 rpm
d. 615 rpm
Feedback
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A DC shunt motor runs at 600 rpm on a 240-volt supply while drawing a line current of 30 A. Its armature and field resistances are
0.5 ohm and 120 ohms respectively. What resistance should be placed in series with the armature circuit in order to reduce the
speed to 400 rpm. Assume no changes in the armature or field current.
Select one:
a. 2.41 ohms
b. 2.69 ohms
c. 2.83 ohms
d. 2.07 ohms
Feedback
Question 42
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A long shunt compound generator delivers 100 A, 250 V at rated load. The resistances of the various windings are: armature = 0.1
ohm, interpole = 0.02 ohm, shunt field = 100 ohms and series field = 0.025 ohm. If the stray power losses amount to 1.8 kW, solve
for the overall efficiency of the generator.
Select one:
a. 88.32%
b. 90.52%
c. 87.43%
d. 86.36%
Feedback
Question 43
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A power transformer rated 50,000 kVA, 34.5 kV/13.8 kV is connected wye-wye. What are the line currents at full load?
Select one:
a. 483.1 A, 1207.7 A
b. 525.5 A, 1725.4 A
c. 836.7 A, 2092 A
d. 1449.3 A, 3623.2 A
Feedback
The correct answer is: 836.7 A, 2092 A
Question 44
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A transformer when supplying a load maintained 11 kV across terminals. When the load was switched off, the terminal voltage
became 11550 V. What is the voltage regulation of the load?
Select one:
a. 55%
b. 5.5%
c. 11.55%
d. 5%
Feedback
Question 45
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Find the voltage regulation power supply with 400 V without load and 200 V with full load.
Select one:
a. 100%
b. 5%
c. 50%
d. 10%
Feedback
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 5-hp, three-phase, 400-V star-connected squirrel-cage induction motor meant to drive a milling machine, at starting takes about
Select one:
a. 150 A
b. 200 A
c. 40 A
d. 100 A
Feedback
Question 47
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In a 5 Hp, 230 Volt, 1500 rpm shunt motor, the resistance of the armature including brushes is 0.175 ohm and that of the shunt field
is 610 ohms. The stray power losses when the motor delivers rated load at rated voltage is 305 watts. The efficiency at rated load is
nearest to
Select one:
a. 89%
b. 90%
c. 98%
d. 85%
Feedback
Question 48
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase synchronous motor is measured by two wattmeters A and B. Wattmeter A reads 28.6 kW and wattmeter B reads 46.5
kW. The input power of the motor is under excited and assumed constant. What are the readings of wattmeters A and B if the power
factor is 85% and the motor is over-excited?
Select one:
a. 42.5 kW, 32.6 kW
b. 51 kW, 24. 1 kW
c. 48.6 kW, 26.5 kW
d. 52.6 kW, 22.5 kW

Feedback
The correct answer is: 51 kW, 24. 1 kW
Question 49
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6.6 kV, Y-connected, 3-phase alternator has a synchronous reactance of 6 ohm per phase and a negligible resistance. At a
certain field current the armature is known to induce 5.8 kV per phase. Calculate the maximum power that can be developed by the
alternator at this excitation.
Select one:
a. 11 MW
b. 9.8 MW
c. 12 MW
d. 10 MW
Feedback
Question 50
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 10-HP, 550 volts, 60 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a starting torque of 160% of full-load torque and starting current of 425% of
full-load current. What will be the voltage in order that the starting current be limited to the full-load value?
Select one:
a. 125.52 V
b. 129.41 V
c. 132.47 V
d. 136.75 V
Feedback
Valenzuela
Question 1
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 0.85
b. 0.86
c. 0.90
d. 0.95
Feedback
Question 2
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 0.883 ohms
b. 0.788 ohms
c. 0.838 ohms
d. 0.808 ohms
Feedback
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 6
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
Feedback
Question 4
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 50-kW, 250-V short-shunt compound generator has the following data: Ra = 0.06 ohm, Rse = 0.04 ohm
and Rf = 125 ohms. Calculate the induced armature voltage at rated load and terminal voltage. Take 2 V
as the total brush-contact drop.
Select one:
a. 274.12 V
b. 272.12 V
c. 268.24 V
d. 270.12 V
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3-phase induction motor is wound for 4 poles and is supplied from a 50 Hz system. What is the rotor
frequency when rotor runs at 1410 rpm?
Select one:
a. 3 Hz
b. 3.5 Hz
c. 2.9 Hz
d. 2.5 Hz
Feedback
The correct answer is: 3 Hz
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The secondary current of a 20 kV/7.97-kV autotransformer is 100 amperes. Determine the current that
flows through the common winding.
Select one:
a. 100 amperes
b. 50 amperes
c. 70 amperes
d. 60 amperes
Feedback
The correct answer is: 60 amperes
Question 7
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An AC squirrel cage induction motor has a speed rating of 1,750 rpm. If the leads are such that they could
be reconnected for consequent winding, what would be the resulting speed?
Select one:
a. 3,500 rpm
b. 875 rpm
c. 3,450 rpm
d. 1,780 rpm
Feedback
Question 8
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The input and output powers of a 220 V, shunt motor are 30 and 28 kW respectively. The field and
armature circuit resistances are 40 ohms and 0.0125 ohm respectively. Determine the efficiency of the
motor if the output power is reduced to 10 kW.
Select one:
a. 88.67%
b. 83.56%
c. 86.48%
d. 84.93%
Feedback
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 200 V, 10 A motor could be rewound for 100 V, 20 A by using ____ as many turns per coil of water
having ____ cross-sectional area.
Select one:
a. twice, half
b. half, twice
c. four times, one-fourth
d. thrice, one-third
Feedback
The correct answer is: half, twice
Question 10
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 10-hp, 230-V shunt motor takes a full-load line current of 40 A. the armature and field resistances are
0.25 ohm and 230 ohms, respectively. The total brush-contact drop is 2 V and the core and friction losses
are 380 W. calculate the efficiency of the motor. Assume that stray-load loss is 1% of output.
Select one:
a. 83.5%
b. 78.6%
c. 96.4%
d. 87.6%
Feedback
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The core loss of a 5 kVA single-phase transformer with normal voltage applied to the primary is 75 watts.
The maximum efficiency occurs at 60% of full-load kVA. What is the full-load efficiency of the transformer
at 0.80 power factor?
Select one:
a. 91.36%
b. 93.38%
c. 89.52%
d. 95.16%
Feedback
Question 12
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If Cu loss of a transformer at 7/8th full-load is 4900 W, then its full-load Cu loss would be ____ watt.
Select one:
a. 375
b. 6400
c. 5600
d. 429
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If a 4-pole induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1500 rpm, then supply frequency is
Select one:
a. none of these
b. 25 Hz
c. 60 Hz
d. 50 Hz
Feedback
Question 14
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A compound dynamo supplies a load of 20 kW at 400 V through a feeder having a resistance equal to 0.1
ohm. The shunt and series field resistances are 85 ohms and 0.06 ohm respectively. Determine the total
electromotive force when the generator is connected short-shunt. Assume a brush contact drop of 1 V per
brush and an armature resistance of 0.1 ohm.
Select one:
a. 416.23 V
b. 411.42 V
c. 412.42 V
d. 415.48 V
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An industrial load is taking 500 kW at 0.6 lagging p.f. is desired to raise the p.f. to 0.866 lagging using a
synchronous machine whose power input is 300 kW. Calculate the kVA rating of the motor required for
such operation and the power factor at which the motor will operate.
Select one:
a. 305 kVA, 0.826 leading
b. 380 kVA, 0.866 leading
c. 365 kVA, 0.826 leading
d. 365 kVA, 0.778 leading

Feedback
The correct answer is: 365 kVA, 0.826 leading
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The winding of a 4-pole alternator having 36 slots and a coil span of 1 to 8 is short-pitched by ___
degrees.
Select one:
a. 40
b. 140
c. 80
d. 20
Feedback
Question 17
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Two 3-phase alternators operation in parallel delivers power at a line potential of 2200 Volts to an
inductive load of 150 kW at 80% p.f. If the armature currents of the two alternators be equal one be
operating at unity p.f. How much power does each alternator supply to the load?
Select one:
a. both 75 kW one at unity p.f.
b. 100 kW for unity & 50 kW
c. 112.7 kW for unity p.f. & 38.2 kW
d. 117.2 kW for unity p.f. & 32.8 kW

Feedback
The correct answer is: 117.2 kW for unity p.f. & 32.8 kW
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The field current of a 180 kW, 250 volts DC shunt generator is 6 A when running full-load at rated terminal
voltage. If the combined armature and brush resistance is 0.02 ohm, solve for the mechanical efficiency
of the generator.
Select one:
a. 93.73%
b. 94.05%
c. 91.87%
d. 92.13%
Feedback
Question 19
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 2200 V, 200 hp, 3-phase mesh connected synchronous motor is working on full load at an efficiency of
0.88 and 0.8 pf leading. The armature reactance per phase is 5 ohms. Determine the induced emf per
phase. Neglect resistance.
Select one:
a. 2380 V
b. 2307 V
c. 2377 V
d. 2345 V
Feedback
Question 20
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 60 MVA, 69.3-kV, three phase synchronous generator has a synchronous reactance of 15 ohms per
phase and negligible armature resistance. The generator is delivering rate power at 80% power factor
lagging at rated terminal voltage to an infinite bus-bar. If the generated emf is 36 kV per phase, what is
the maximum three phase power that the generator an deliver before losing its synchronism.
Select one:
a. 120 MW
b. 320 MW
c. 96 MW
d. 288 MW
Feedback
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 128
b. 250
c. 200
d. 160
Feedback
Question 22
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A three phase customer has a maximum demand of 85 kVA. What transformer rating shall be used if
connected open-wye-open delta?
Select one:
a. 45 kVA
b. 100 kVA
c. 33 kVA
d. 50 kVA
Feedback
The correct answer is: 50 kVA
Question 23
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A shunt motor with an armature resistance of 0.15 ohm is running at 1200 rpm for a load which requires
of armature current of 50 ampere from a 230 volt source. At no load, the armature current is 5 ampere. If
the effect of armature reaction has reduced the air gap flux 2% from no load to full load, what is the no
load speed?
Select one:
a. 1268 rpm
b. 1,209 rpm
c. 1215 rpm
d. 1,212 rpm
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1,212 rpm
Question 24
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A long shunt compound generator delivers 100 A, 250 V at rated load. The resistances of the various
windings are: armature = 0.1 ohm, interpole = 0.02 ohm, shunt field = 100 ohms and series field = 0.025
ohm. If the stray power losses amount to 1.8 kW, solve for the overall efficiency of the generator.
Select one:
a. 88.32%
b. 90.52%
c. 87.43%
d. 86.36%
Feedback
Question 25
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The armature of a 4-pole dc generator is required to generate an e.m.f. of 520 V on open circuit when
revolving at a speed of 660 rpm. Calculate the magnetic flux per pole required if the armature has 144
slots with 2 coil sides per slot, each coil consisting of three turns. The armature is wave-wound.
Select one:
a. 27.4 mWb/pole
b. 54.8 mWb/pole
c. 41.1 mWb/pole
d. 13.7 mWb/pole
Feedback
The correct answer is: 27.4 mWb/pole
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
excitation, calculate the maximum current.
Select one:
a. 2.83 kA
b. 3.83 kA
c. 5.83 kA
d. 4.83 kA
Feedback
The correct answer is: 2.83 kA
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
For supplying is a balanced 3-phase load of 40-kVA, rating of each transformer in V-V bank, should be
nearly ____ kVA.
Select one:
a. 23
b. 20
c. 25
d. 34.6
Feedback
Question 28
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
An 8-pole, 250 V, wave-wound generator has 400 conductors. If the generator is to be lap-wound, the
number of conductor required is
Select one:
a. 3200
b. 100
c. 800
d. 1600
Feedback
Question 29
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc shunt motor runs at 900 rpm from a 460 V supply when taking an armature current of 25 A.
Calculate the speed of which it will run from a 230 V supply when taking an armature current of 15 A. The
resistance of the armature circuit is 0.8 ohm. Assume flux per pole at 230 V have to decrease to 75% of
its value at 460 V
Select one:
a. 595
b. 495
c. 485
d. 585
Feedback
Question 30
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The nameplate rating of a shunt motor is 150 hp, 600 volts, 205 A, 1700 rpm. The resistance of the shunt
field circuit is 240 ohms and the total armature circuit resistance is 0.15 ohm. If the motor is to be deliver
full-load torque at 1,200 rpm, what value of resistance must be added to the armature circuit?
Select one:
a. 0.802 ohm
b. 0.827 ohm
c. 0.833 ohm
d. 0.862 ohm
Feedback
Question 31
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two single phase transformers with equal ratings and turns ratio are operated in parallel to supply a load
of 180 kW at a lagging pf of 0.90. Transformer A has a resistance of 1% and a reactance of 6%.
Transformer B has a resistance of 2% and a reactance of 5%. Calculate the power delivered by each
transformer.
Select one:
a. 79 kW, 92 kW
b. 83 kW, 97 kW
c. 80 kW, 100 kW
d. 88 kW, 92 kW
Feedback
Question 32
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-stack VR stepper motor has a step angle of 10 degrees. What is the number of rotor teeth in each
stack?
Select one:
a. 36 degrees
b. 18 degrees
c. 12 degrees
d. 24 degrees
Feedback
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 220-V shunt motor delivers 40 hp on full-load at 950 rpm and has an efficiency of 88%. The armature
and field resistances are 0.2 ohm and 110 ohms, respectively. Determine the starting resistance such that
the starting armature current does not exceed 1.6 times the full-load current.
Select one:
a. 0.712 ohm
b. 0.739 ohm
c. 0.704 ohm
d. 0.732 ohm
Feedback
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The ratio of the primary to secondary voltage of a transformer is 2:1. The saving in terms of weight of
copper required if an autotransformer is used instead of a two-winding transformer will be
Select one:
a. 66.67%
b. 33.33%
c. 97%
d. 50%
Feedback
Question 35
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Synchronous impedance test is taken on a 3-phase generator. Under short circuit condition, the current is
the three lines are 26.2 A, 23.7 A, and 27.4 A. What current should be used for the test?
Select one:
a. 25.4 A
b. 25.7 A
c. 24.6 A
d. 26.3 A
Feedback
Question 36
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 15-hp, 230 V, single phase synchronous motor is taking a current of 50 A at a power factor of 0.85
leading. Effective resistance is 0.2 ohm. If this motor drives a mechanical load of 12 hp, determine its
rotational losses.
Select one:
a. 314 W
b. 376 W
c. 323 W
d. 340 W
Feedback
Question 37
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
In a transformer, the iron loss is found to be 42 W at 30 Hz and 90 W at 60 Hz measured at the same flux
density. What is the hysteresis and eddy current loss at 60 Hz?
Select one:
a. 30 W & 68 W
b. 12 W & 78 W
c. 60 W & 30 W
d. 78 W & 12 W
Feedback
Question 38
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. 120 kW & 80 kW
b. 150 kW & 50 kW
c. 110 kW & 90 kW
d. 125 kW & 75 kW
Feedback
Question 39
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A short shunt compound generator delivers 150 A at a terminal voltage of 230 V. The shunt field current
is 2.5 A. The resistance of the armature, series field and diverter are 0.032 ohm, 0.015 ohm and 0.03
ohm, respectively. Calculate the electrical efficiency of the generator at this load.
Select one:
a. 94.2%
b. 93.8%
c. 96.4%
d. 95.7%
Feedback
Question 40
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase, star connected synchronous motor takes 50 kW at 660 V, the power factor being 0.8
lagging. This machine has a synchronous reactance of 1 ohm per phase with a negligible resistance. If
the emf is increased by 30%, the power taken remaining the same, find the new leading current.
Select one:
a. 88.6 A
b. 90.3 A
c. 85.2 A
d. 94.1 A
Feedback
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 120/180 volt auto-transformer draws power at 120 Volt and supplies power to a 2 kW load at 180 Volts
with a p.f. of 0.80 lagging. An additional load of 1 kW is supplied at unity p.f. from the 60 Volt Winding.
What is the current drawn from the 120 Volt supply line?
Select one:
a. 32
b. 28
c. 30
d. 26
Feedback
Question 42
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase AC generator is supplying power to a load of 3200 kW at 230 volts and a power factor of
60%. Assume that the loss of the line, the generator armature and the load is equal to the 10% of the
load, what would be the savings in watts if the power factor were raised to 80%?
Select one:
a. 80,000
b. 230,000
c. 140,000
d. 100,000
Feedback
Question 43
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 6-pole, 3-phase, 60 cycle alternator has 12 slots per pole and four conductors per slot. The winding is
5/6 pitch. There are 2,500,000 Maxwells entering the armature from each North Pole, and this flux is
sinusoidally distributed along the air gap. The armature coils are all-connected in series. The winding is
wye-connected. Determine the open circuit emf of the alternator.
Select one:
a. 572.4 V
b. 504.2 V
c. 512.4 V
d. 532.1 V
Feedback
Question 44
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An alternator rated 530-kVA, is operating at 0.60 pf lagging. A synchronous condenser is in parallel to
improve the pf to 90% lagging. Determine the operating power factor of the synchronous condenser.
Assume the alternator is not supposed to be overloaded.
Select one:
a. 0.593 leading
b. 0.643 leading
c. 0.546 leading
d. 0.447 leading
Feedback
Question 45
Correct
Flag question
Question text
If the armature of an eight-pole machine were wound with a simplex wave winding, how many parallel
paths would there be?
Select one:
a. 16 paths
b. 8 paths
c. 4 paths
d. 2 paths
Feedback
The correct answer is: 2 paths
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The number of cycles generated in a 6-pole alternator in one revolution is
Select one:
a. 3
b. 50
c. none of these
d. 6
Feedback
Question 47
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 500 kVA, 3,600 volts, 3-phase, 60 Hz alternator has an effective armature resistance per phase 0.40
ohm. Mechanical and iron losses is 10 kW, field current at full load unity pf is 70 A. The exciter voltage is
constant at 120 V. What is its efficiency when supplying incandescent lamp at rated load?
Select one:
a. 89.7%
b. 92.3%
c. 95.0%
d. 93.4%
Feedback
Question 48
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Find the primary voltage of a power transformer under the following conditions 3 turns for primary, 6 turns
for secondary and 120 volts for secondary voltage.
Select one:
a. 12 volts
b. 8 volts
c. 6 volts
d. 60 volts
Feedback
Question 49
Correct
Flag question
Question text
There are two alternators, 100 kW, 3-phase in parallel are driven by shunt motors whose speed-load
droop characteristics are as follows: Alternator no. 1: no-load speed 600 rpm and the full-load speed 530
rpm; while alternator no. 2: no-load speed 590 rpm and the full-load 550 rpm. For what load will the
alternators divide the load equally?
Select one:
a. 67.54 kW
b. 62.45 kW
c. 68.78 kW
d. 64.67 kW
Feedback
Question 50
Correct
Flag question
Question text
starting current of 425% of full-load current. What will be the voltage in order that the starting current be
limited to the full-load value?
Select one:
a. 125.52 V
b. 136.75 V
c. 129.41 V
d. 132.47 V
Feedback
Blastique
Three (3) 1-phase, 75 kVA transformers in delta-delta bank supplying a balanced load 160 kVA (3-phase) at 0.80 p.f. lagging. If one (1)
transformer is removed for repair, the V-V bank was overloaded, then to prevent overloading of the remaining units, capacitor bank is
connected across the 3-phase load. What is the minimum capacitive kVAR required?
Select one:
a. 73.86
b. 114.18
c. 86.73
d. 118.14
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 250 V, 30 Hz generator supplies power to a parallel circuit consisting of a 20 hp motor whose efficiency is 90% at 0.80 pf lagging and a
second load that draws an apparent power of 7 kVA at unity pf. Determine the system reactive power.
Select one:
a. 20.384 kVAR
b. 12.435 kVAR
c. 10.341 kVAR
d. 23.582 kVAR
Feedback
The correct answer is: 12.435 kVAR
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The armature of a dc machine running at 1200 rpm carries 45 A in current. If the induced armature voltage is 130 V, what is the torque
developed by the armature?
Select one:
a. 4.65 N-m
b. 46.5 N-m
c. 45.6 N-m
d. 456 N-m
Feedback
Question 4
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A single phase 60 Hz transformer has its core value of 1.5 x 10^-3 cu m. The maximum flux density is 1.0 Tesla and the hysteresis constant
of the core is 7500. Find the hysteresis loss.
Select one:
a. 755 Watts
b. 675 Watts
c. 255 Watts
d. 355 Watts
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
Flag question
Question text
An industrial plant draws 500 kW at 0.6 power factor from a 3-phase system. In order to raise the power factor to 0.866 lagging and to supply
needed additional power, a synchronous motor is added. This motor draws 300 kW, bringing the new total plant load to 800 kW. Neglecting
the losses of the synchronous motor, calculate its exact required kVA rating.
Select one:
a. 363.24 kVA
b. 393.34 kVA
c. 307.35 kVA
d. 345.23 kVA
Feedback
The correct answer is: 363.24 kVA
Question 6
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A V-V (open delta) connected transformer bank serves a balanced 3-phase load of 40 kVA at 230 V and 0.866 pf lagging. Solve for the
minimum kVA of each transformer needed to accommodate the load without overloading.
Select one:
a. 25
b. 23
c. 20
d. 24
Feedback
Question 7
Correct

Flag question
Question text
A shunt generator has an external characteristic whose terminal voltage is given by the equation VT = (250 - 0.4*IL), where IL is the load
current. What current and power will be supplied by the machine to a load resistor of 5.85 ohms?
Select one:
a. 2.5 A, 36.56 W
b. 10 A, 585 W
c. 40 A, 9360 W
d. 40 A, 936 W
Feedback
The correct answer is: 40 A, 9360 W
Question 8
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A DC shunt motor has a full load rating of 15 hp, 230 volts, 57.1 amperes, 1400 rpm. The armature circuit resistance is 0.13 ohm and the
field circuit resistance is 115 ohms. Neglecting the effect of armature reaction, determine the no-load speed.
Select one:
a. 1392 rpm
b. 1380 rpm
c. 1441 rpm
d. 1264 rpm
Feedback
Question 9
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a 5 Hp, 230 Volt, 1500 rpm shunt motor, the resistance of the armature including brushes is 0.175 ohm and that of the shunt field is 610
ohms. The stray power losses when the motor delivers rated load at rated voltage is 305 watts. The efficiency at rated load is nearest to
Select one:
a. 98%
b. 90%
c. 89%
d. 85%
Feedback
Question 10
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 75 kVA single phase, 240 volts, 60 Hz alternator has an effective armature resistance of 0.02 ohm per phase and an armature leakage
reactance of 0.08 ohm. Calculate the induced emf when supplying rated load at unity pf.
Select one:
a. 250.4 volts
b. 245.5 volts
c. 247.5 volts
d. 249.2 volts
Feedback
Question 11
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A test is performed on a 230 volts, delta connected synchronous motor having 92% efficiency and 85% power factor. With 6 volts dc
impressed across its terminals, the current reading is 90 amperes. Determine the ohmic resistance per phase.
Select one:
a. 0.067 ohm/phase
b. 0.1 ohm/phase
c. 0.15 ohm/phase
d. 0.44 ohm/phase
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.1 ohm/phase
Question 12
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A generator is rated 100 MW, 13.8 kV and 90% power factor. The effective resistance is 1.5 times the ohmic resistance. The ohmic
resistance is obtained by connecting two terminals to a DC source. The current and voltage are 87.6 A and 6 V respectively. What is the
effective resistance per phase? The generator is wye-connected.
Select one:
a. 0.0685 ohm
b. 0.0617 ohm
c. 0.342 ohm
d. 0.0513 ohm
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase AC generator is supplying power to a load of 3200 kW at 230 volts and a power factor of 60%. Assume that the loss of the
line, the generator armature and the load is equal to the 10% of the load, what would be the savings in watts if the power factor were raised
to 80%?
Select one:
a. 140,000
b. 80,000
c. 230,000
d. 100,000
Feedback
Question 14
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
An open delta, three-phase transformer consisting of two single-phase transformers is operating with a balanced three-phase load of 50 kVA,
440-V at a lagging pf of 0.8. Determine the operating pf of each transformer.
Select one:
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 1200 kVA, 6600 volt, 3-phase, Y-connected alternator has an effective resistance of 0.40 ohm and a reactance of 6 ohms per phase. It
delivers full load current of 0.80 lagging power factor at rated voltage. What will be the terminal voltage for the same excitation and load
current if the power factor is 0.80 leading?
Select one:
a. 7898 V
b. 4250 V
c. 4560 V
d. 9878 V
Feedback
Question 16
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 50 HP, 3-phase, 4-pole, 60 Hz, 230 volt squirrel cage induction motor has an efficiency of 90%, a power factor of 85% and a slip of 2% at
full-load. Find the torque in lb-ft at full-load.
Select one:
a. 152.45
b. 121.34
c. 150.56
d. 148.87
Feedback
Question 17
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A three-phase star connected AC generator is rated at 2.5 MVA, 11 kV, 60 Hz. The generator has a negligible resistance and a synchronous
reactance of 20 ohms per phase. To what value will the terminal voltage rise when full load at 80% pf lagging is switched-off?
Select one:
a. 12.7 kV
b. 15.3 kV
c. 13.5 kV
d. 14.2 kV
Feedback
The correct answer is: 14.2 kV
Question 18
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two shunt generators running in parallel delivers a total current of 3,600 A. Each machine has a field resistance of 60 ohms and an armature
resistance of 0.01 ohm. The emfs generated by each machine are 455 and 460 V, respectively. Calculate the kW share of each machine.
Select one:
a. 641 kW, 1098 kW
b. 682 kW, 1057 kW
c. 652 kW, 1087 kW
d. 670 kW, 1069 kW
Feedback
Question 19
Correct

Flag question
Question text
Calculate the force that will be exerted on the scale in a pony brake test when a 20-hp, 1,400 rpm motor is operating at full load. The length
of the brake arm is 3 ft and the tare weight of the brake is 3.75 lbs.
Select one:
a. 30.45 lbs
b. 21.54 lbs
c. 36.33 lbs
d. 28.76 lbs
Feedback
Question 20
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two transformers are connected in parallel supplying a load of 2,500 kVA. The first transformer has an impedance of 3% and a rating of
1,250 kVA while the second has an impedance of 3% and a rating of 1,500 kVA. Calculate the load shared by the second transformer.
Select one:
a. 1792.51 kVA
b. 1453.19 kVA
c. 1363.64 kVA
d. 1227.53 kVA
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1363.64 kVA
Question 21
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a three phase synchronous converter, the ratio of the AC voltage to DC voltage is
Select one:
a. 0.50
b. 0.612
c. 0.707
d. 1.0
Feedback
Question 22
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 50 HP, 550 V shunt-wound motor draws a line current of 4.5 A at no-load. The shunt field resistance is 275 ohms and the armature
resistance exclusive of the brushes is 0.3 ohm, the brush drop at full-load is 2 V. At full-load, the motor draws a line current of 84 A. Calculate
the efficiency at full-load.
Select one:
a. 91.2%
b. 88.5%
c. 89.9%
d. 92.0%
Feedback
Question 23
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Sipalay Mines, has two 3-phase, 60 H AC generators operating in parallel. The first unit has a capacity of 1000 kVA and the second unit has
a capacity of 1500 kVA. The first is driven by a prime mover so adjusted that the frequency falls from 61 Hz at no-load to 59.6 Hz at full-load.
The second has a different speed-load characteristics, the frequency falls from 61.4 Hz at no-load to 59.2 Hz at full-load. When these
Select one:
a. 884 kW, 1116 kW
b. 867 kW, 1133 kW
c. 915 kW, 1085 kW
d. 804 kW, 1196 kW
Feedback
Question 24
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
A 100-kW, 230-V, shunt generator has Ra = 0.05 ohm and Rf = 57.5 ohms. If the generator operates at rated voltage, calculate the induced
voltage at half full-load. Neglect brush-contact drop.
Select one:
a. 241 V
b. 252 V
c. 238.2 V
d. 23 V
Feedback
Question 25
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The rotor of a 220 V, 60 Hz, 4-pole induction motor has a power input of 80 kW is observed that the rotor emf makes 90 cycles per minute.
Calculate the rotor copper loss.
Select one:
a. 4 kW
b. 2 kW
c. 3 kW
d. 5 kW
Feedback
Question 26
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A long-shunt compound generator supplies 50 kW at 230 V. the total field- and armature-circuit resistances are 46 ohms and 0.03 ohm,
respectively. The brush-contact drop is 2 V. Determine the percent voltage regulation. Neglect the armature reaction.
Select one:
a. 3.57%
b. 3.77%
c. 3.97%
d. 2.9%
Feedback
Question 27
Correct
Flag question
Question text
What is the frequency of the generated emf of a 10 pole alternator driven at 720 rpm?
Select one:
a. 60 Hz
b. 25 Hz
c. 55 Hz
d. 50 Hz
Feedback
Question 28
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 3-phase, 8-pole delta connected generator has a line current of 500 amperes. If converted in wye, what is the tolerable current?
Select one:
a. 371.5 A
b. 288.7 A
c. 245.1 A
d. 315.2 A
Feedback
Question 29
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 4 pole, 12 slot lap-wound dc armature has two coil sides/slot. Assuming single turn coil, calculate the back pitch for progressive and
retrogressive winding.
Select one:
a. 3 & 5
b. 6 & 4
c. 7 & 5
d. 5 & 3
Feedback
The correct answer is: 7 & 5
Question 30
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
If three transformers in a delta-delta are delivering their rated load and one transformer is removed, then overload and each of the remaining
transformer is ____ percent.
Select one:
a. 58
b. 73.2
c. 173.2
d. 66.7
Feedback
Question 31
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
A three-phase Y-connected synchronous motor with a line-to-line voltage of 440 V and a synchronous speed of 900 rpm operates with a
power of 9 kW and a lagging power factor of 0.8. The synchronous reactance per phase is 10 ohms. Determine the torque angle in electrical
degrees.
Select one:
a. 35.51 degrees
b. 38.46 degrees
c. 33.51 degrees
d. 36.33 degrees
Feedback
The correct answer is: 35.51 degrees
Question 32
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 4,400 volt, 60 Hz transformer has a core loss of 840 Watts, of which one-third is eddy-current loss. Determine the core loss of this
transformer when it is connected to a 4,600 Volts, 50 Hz.
Select one:
a. 679 Watts
b. 879 Watts
c. 779 Watts
d. 977 Watts
Feedback
Question 33
Correct
Flag question
Question text
Two shunt generators operating in parallel are giving a total output of 320 kW. Generator A: Armature resistance = 0.02 ohm, Induced emf =
450 V; Generator B, Armature resistance = 0.025 ohm, Induced emf = 460 V. Find the bus bar voltage. Neglect shunt field current.
Select one:
a. 446.5 V
b. 450.3 V
c. 446.5 V
d. 464.2 V
Feedback
Question 34
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 30-kVA, 2,400/240 volts, 60-Hz transformer has a full-load power of unity over the period of 24 hrs. The maximum efficiency is 95% and it
occurs at full-load. Calculate the all-day efficiency if loaded 6-hours at full-load.
Select one:
a. 88.38%
b. 92.45%
c. 78.90%
d. 89.67%
Feedback
Question 35
Correct
Flag question
Question text
When a 400-V, 50-Hz, 6-pole induction motor is rotating at 960 rpm on no-load, its slip is
Select one:
a. 3 per cent
b. 4 per cent
c. 2 per cent
d. 1 per cent
Feedback
The correct answer is: 4 per cent
Question 36
Correct

Flag question
Question text
Find the primary voltage of a power transformer under the following conditions 3 turns for primary, 6 turns for secondary and 120 volts for
secondary voltage.
Select one:
a. 8 volts
b. 12 volts
c. 60 volts
d. 6 volts
Feedback
Question 37
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 240 volts dc shunt motor has an armature current of 50 ampere, armature resistance of 0.25 ohm running at 1200 rpm. If it is run at 220
volts, what value of armature current when driving the same load. The field is adjusted so that the speed remains at 1200 rpm.
Select one:
a. 60
b. 55
c. 50
d. 57.5
Feedback
Question 38
Correct
Flag question
Question text
In a brake test the effective load on the branch pulley was 38.1 kg, the effective diameter of the pulley is 63.5 cm and the speed is 12 r.p.s.
The motor took 49 ampere at 220 volts. What is the efficiency at this load?
Select one:
a. 86%
b. 83%
c. 85%
d. 80%
Feedback
Question 39
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 220 volts single phase induction motor draws current of 10 amps at 0.75 pf. A capacitor of 50 micro-F is connected in order to improve the
power factor. What is the new power factor?
Select one:
a. 0.95 leading
b. 0. 866 leading
c. 0.866 lagging
d. 0.95 lagging
Feedback
Question 40
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 4-pole motor is lap wound with 728 conductors, and has a flux of 25 mWb per pole. The armature takes 50 A in current; the resultant
demagnetizing effect due to armature reaction reduces the air-gap flux by 5%. Calculate the developed torque.
Select one:
a. 167.3 N-m
b. 137.6 N-m
c. 144.8 N-m
d. 176.3 N-m
Feedback
Question 41
Correct
Flag question
Question text
The armature of a motor has of 400 active conductors, the flux density in the field being 3000 gauss. The axial length of the armature is
20.32 cm. The current is 30 amperes. Determine the total force exerted in the armature.
Select one:
a. 0.07 N
b. 439.2 N
c. 731.5 N
d. 645.9 N
Feedback
The correct answer is: 731.5 N
Question 42
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A short-shunt compound generator delivers a load current of 50 A at a terminal voltage of 250 volts. The armature, series field, shunt field
resistances are 0.05 ohm, 0.03 ohm and 250 ohms respectively. What is the generated emf of the machine?
Select one:
a. 254.05 V
b. 260.45
c. 257.34 V
d. 250 V
Feedback
Question 43
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A three phase wye connected ac generator is rated 1500 kVA, 11000 V. The effective resistance and synchronous reactance per phase are
1.5 ohms and 30 ohms respectively. To what value will the terminal voltage rise when full-load at 0.8 pf lagging is switch off.
Select one:
a. 13 kV
b. 12 kV
c. 15 kV
d. 14 kV
Feedback
Question 44
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
Two separately excited dc shunt generators are connected in parallel and carry a total load current of 500 amperes. Generator A has an
armature resistance of 0.03 ohm and is generating a voltage of 230 volts. Generator B has an armature resistance of 0.04 ohm and is
generating a voltage of 230 volts also. Calculate the terminal voltage.
Select one:
a. 210.50 volts
b. 215.56 volts
c. 230 volts
d. 221.44 volts
Feedback
Question 45
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A dc series generator is supplying a current of 5 A to a series lighting system through a feeder of total resistance, 1 ohm. The terminal
voltage is 2500 volts. The armature and series field resistances are 18 and 15 ohms, respectively. A 30 ohm diverter resistance is shunted
across the series field. Determine the generated power of the generator.
Select one:
a. 12.329 kW
b. 13.680 kW
c. 13.225 kW
d. 13.750 kW
Feedback
Question 46
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 500 kVA, 13200/2400 volts 60 Hz single phase transformer has a 4% reactance and 1% resistance. The core loss under rated condition is
1800 watts. Calculate the percent efficiency of this transformer at full load and 85% power factor.
Select one:
a. 96.8
b. 98.4
c. 97.6
d. 96.2
Feedback
Question 47
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
The dc output of a six-phase star-connected converter is 500 kW at 400 V. If the pf and efficiency of the machine is 0.866 and 0.92
respectively, determine the ac current drawn from the supply.
Select one:
a. 732 A
b. 729 A
c. 762 A
d. 740 A
Feedback
Question 48
Incorrect

Flag question
Question text
What is the average voltage generated in a moving conductor if it cuts 2.5 x 10^6 maxwells in 1/40 second?
Select one:
a. 2 volts
b. 10 volts
c. 1 volt
d. 100 volts
Feedback
The correct answer is: 1 volt
Question 49
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
A 400-V, 50-Hz three-phase induction motor rotates at 1440 rpm on full-load. The motor is wound for
Select one:
a. 4-poles
b. 8-poles
c. 6-poles
d. 2-poles
Feedback
The correct answer is: 4-poles
Question 50
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A dc shunt motor develops 15 hp at 120 V. The armature efficiency is 95%. What is the back emf?
Select one:
a. 117 volts
b. 118 volts
c. 114 volts
d. 122 volts
Feedback
VILLANO
Question 1
Incorrect
Question text
A 4-pole, simplex, wave-wound generator has 57 slots, what is the coil pitch?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 14.25
c. 14
d. 7
Feedback
Question 2
Incorrect
Question text
For a 4-pole, 2-layer d.c. lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer, the number of
commutator bars is
Select one:
a. 40
b. 160
c. 20
d. 80
Feedback
Question 3
Correct
Flag question
Question text
A 1200 kVA, 6600 volt, 3-phase, Y-connected alternator has an effective resistance of 0.40 ohm and a
reactance of 6 ohms per phase. It delivers full load current of 0.80 lagging power factor at rated voltage.
What will be the terminal voltage for the same excitation and load current if the power factor is 0.80
leading?
Select one:
a. 9878 V
b. 4250 V
c. 4560 V
d. 7898 V
Feedback
Question 4
Incorrect

Titan QB 1 457 PDF

Diunggah oleh

Informasi Dokumen

Deskripsi Asli:

Judul Asli

Hak Cipta

Format Tersedia

Bagikan dokumen Ini

Bagikan atau Tanam Dokumen

Opsi Berbagi

Apakah menurut Anda dokumen ini bermanfaat?

Apakah konten ini tidak pantas?

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

Titan QB 1 457 PDF

Diunggah oleh

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

1.

In an open loop control system

(a) Output is independent of control input

2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?

5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?

(a) Field controlled D.C. motor

7. In open loop system

8. __________ has tendency to oscillate.

9. A good control system has all the following features except

12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.

16 is a part of the human temperature control system.

18 is a closed loop system.

21 increases the steady state accuracy.

22. A.C. servomotor resembles

24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

26 is an open loop control system.

27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from

28. Zero initial condition for a system means

30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.

32. The transient response, with feedback system,

40. A controller, essentially, is a

41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?

42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.

43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to

47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to

50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to

55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?

56. ___________ is the reference input minus the primary feedback.

57. The term backlash is associated with

58. With feedback _____ increases.

60. In a system zero initial condition means that

61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates

62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of

63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to

67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at

68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.

69. The type 1 system has ______ at the origin.

71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are

73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is

76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?

77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?

78. __________________ technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?

80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays

82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator ?

83 ____________ is not a final control element.

84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?

87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?

88. The effect of error damping is to

89 technique gives quick transient and stability response

90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output

92 can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?

94. Which of the following is an electromechanical device ?

95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it

98. With feed back _____ reduces.

99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?

100. Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?

101 directly converts temperature into voltage.