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400-101 questions from January 2019

1. Which two options are valid IPv6 extension header types? (Choose two)

• Mobility===>Correct
• Encapsulating Security Payload===>Correct
• Version
• Flow Label
• Traffic Class

2. Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements ===>Correctly describe the route reflector's behavior? (Choose two.)

• The route reflector will not reflect routes from R3 to R1===>Correct


• The route reflector will reflect routes from R3 to R1===>Correct
• The route reflector will not reflect routes from R1 to R3
• The route reflector will reflect routes from R1 to R2
• The route reflector will reflect routes from R1 to R3===>Correct
• The route reflector will not reflect routes from R1 to R2===>Correct

3. Which two operating modes does VPLS support, (choose two).

• dynamic mode===>Correct
• transport mode
• strict mode
• port mode===>Correct
• VLAN mode===>Correct
• loose mode

4. What command can you enter on a Cisco router so that it can both poll a time server and be
polled by a

time server?
• ntp server===>Correct
• ntp broadcast destination
• ntp peer
• ntp broadcast client

5. Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives
the identical

LSA before the interval is set?

• The LSA is ignored===>Correct


• The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA
packet updates
• The LSA is added to the OSPF database
• The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to
slow down its LSA packet updates

6. R1 is performing mutual redistribution, but OSPF routes from R3 are unable to reach R2.

Which three options are possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose three.)

• R1 requires a seed metric to redistribute RI===>Correct


• The RIP version supports only classful subnet masks.===>Correct
• R1 is filtering OSPF routes when redistributing into RI
• R3 and R1 have the same router I===>Correct
• R1 and R3 have an MTU mismatch.
• R2 is configured to offset OSPF routes with a metric of 16.

7. Which two statements about the passive-interface command issued under EIGRP are true?
(Choose two)

• It configures the interface to use unicast messages to establish EIGRP neighbor


relationships
• It allows incoming routing updates to be received but disables outgoing routing updates
• It disables processing of incoming hello messages===>Correct
• It configures the device to advertise only connected Interfaces to neighbors with EIGRP
• If it is enabled globally under EIGRP on the device, it can be disabled for individual
interfaces to allow those interfaces to remain active===>Correct

8. Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true?

• They determine whether a destination is reachable


• They are transmitted unreliably===>Correct
• They are transmitted via broadcast
• They are sent in response to queries

9. Which statement about the BGP scope of the cost community is true?

• It is shared with IBGP neighbors only.


• It is shared with EBGP neighbors only.
• It is shared with IBGP and confederation peers.===>Correct
• It is shared with IBGP and EBGP neighbors.
• It is shared with IBGP neighbors and route reflectors.

10. Drag and drop each IPv6 tunnel type from the left onto the matching description on the right.
• wrong

11. A cloud service provider is designing a large multitenant data center to support thousands of
tenants. The provider is connected about the scalability of the Layer 2 network and providing
Layer 2 segmentation to potentially thousands of tenants.

Which Layer 2 technology is best suited in this scenario?

• Extended VLAN ranges


• LDP
• VRF
• VXLAN===>Correct

12. Refer to the exhibit.


Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?

• It permits host 10.1.1.2 to establish a Telnet connection to R1.


• It limits remote hosts to two SSH connection attempts.
• SSH connections to R1 will log out after a 5-minute idle interval.
• Hosts that reside on network 10.0.0.0/8 can SSH to R1.
• The R1 timeout for outgoing SSH connection attempts is 30 seconds.===>Correct

13. Which IEE wireless standard is predominantly used for smart object for communication?

• 802.11
• 802.22
• 802.15.1
• 802.15.4===>Correct

14. What are two features that distance-vector routing protocols can use to address the count-to-
infinity problem? (Choose two.)

• triggered updates
• route poisoning===>Correct
• split horizon===>Correct
• route tagging
• adjacency dead timers
15. Which statement about PMTUD is true?

• It is supported by TCP and UD===>Correct


• GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
• It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection.
• It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link
between two endpoints.
• It increases the connection's send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.

16. Refer to the exhibit.

Which option is the state of the OSPF adjacency between routers R1 and R2?

• EXCHANGE
• LOADING
• ATTEMPT
• 2 WAY===>Correct
• FULL

17. Refer to the exhibit.

To which undesirable condition can router R1 be vulnerable?


• Denial of service attacks===>Correct
• Unicast flooding
• Man-in-the-middle attacks
• Asymmetric routing
• IP address spoofing

18. Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its, corresponding description on the right

• wrong

19. How many address families can a single 0SPFv3 instance support?

• 5
• 2
• 1===>Correct
• 10

20. Which condition must be true to allow an access port to trust QoS markings on an incoming
frame?

• The switch must be configured globally with the mls qos trust cos command.
• The port must be configured with the mls qos cos command.
• The port must be configured with the mls qos trust dscp command.===>Correct
• The switch must be configured globally with the vlan dot1q tag native command.

21. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)

• This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 1


• Setting the priority of this switch to 0 for VLAN 1 would cause it to become the new
root.===>Correct
• Spanning-tree PortFast should not be enabled on GigabitEthernet2/1===>Correct
• Spanning tree PortFast is enabled on GigabitEthernetl/1
• 802.1 w spanning tree is being used

22. Which router on an IS-IS network generates the IS-IS pseudonode?

• DIS===>Correct
• Level 1/ Level 2 Router
• ABR
• ASBR

23. Refer to the exhibit, which two options are problems that can occur with this configuration?
(Choose two)
• The label for the R5 loopback address is filtered from other MPLS routers===>Correct
• MPLS traffic from R1 to R5 takes a suboptimal path
• The MPLS path from R1 to R5 becomes unreachable===>Correct
• The label for the R1 loopback address is filtered from MPLS routers
• R1 and R5 are unable to establish an LDP relationship

24. Which configuration can you implement on PE-1 to allow CE-1 to receive delegated IPv6
prefixes?

===>Correct

25. When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?

• It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface


• Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to
peers on the same interface
• Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates
were received===>Correct
• Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network
26. Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)

• The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state.


• PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally.
• By default, the router uses it hostname to identify itself to the peer.===>Correct
• The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed.
• The LCP phase must be complete and in open state.===>Correct
• PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface.===>Correct

27. Which IPv6 tunneling mechanism requires a service provider to use one of its own native
IPv6 blocks to guarantee that its IPv6 hosts will be reachable?

• automatic 4to6 tunneling


• NAT-PT tunneling
• ISATAP tunneling
• 6rd tunneling===>Correct
• automatic 6to4 tunneling
• manual ipv6ip tunneling

28. Which two statements about EIGRP wide metrics are true? (Chose two)

• It requires named configuration===>Correct


• It supports interface bandwidth up to 10 terabits per second
• It supports interface bandwidth up to 4.2 terabits per second===>Correct
• It is supported in both named mode configuration and classic mode
• It uses a 21-bit metric calculation

29. Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?

• It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that
describes a route to the AB
• It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that
describes a route to ASBR
• It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that
describes a route to the ASBR
• It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that
describes a route to the ASBR===>Correct
• It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that
describes a route to the ASBR
30. You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms.

Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)

• The bandwidth delay product is 50Mb.


• The bandwidth delay product is 2Mb.===>Correct
• The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.===>Correct
• The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
• The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.

31. Refer to the exhibit.

Which EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2?

• 2001:12::1/64
• 2001:12::1/128===>Correct
• 2001:112::/64,2001:12::1/64
• 2001:112::/64,2001:12::1/128

32. In which way does the Bridge Assurance mechanism modify the default spanning tree
behavior in an effort to prevent bridging loops?

• Received BPDUs are looped back toward the sender to ensure that the link is
bidirectional.
• If BPDUs are no longer received on a port, the switch immediately sends out a TCN BPD
• Extended topology information is encoded into all BPDUs.===>Correct
• BPDUs are sent bidirectional on all active network ports, including blocked and alternate
ports.
33. Refer to the exhibit.

After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2.

Which networks does R2 advertise to R1?

• 172.16.0.0/16 only===>Correct
• Both 172.16.32.0/20 and 172.16.33.0/24
• 172.16.32.0/20 only
• 172.16.33.0/24 only

34. Which two statements about PPP PAP are true? (Choose two.)

• It can protect against playback attacks.


• It is vulnerable to trial-and-error attacks.===>Correct
• It requires two-way authentication.
• It is supported only on synchronous interfaces.
• Login attempts are controlled by the remote node.===>Correct

35. Which options lists the cloud service models?

• Infrastructure as a service, Platform as a service, and storage and storage as a service


• Infrastructure as a service, Platform as a service, and storage and software as a
service===>Correct
• Internet as a service, Platform as a service, and storage as a service
• Internet as a service, Product as a service, and storage as a service
• Internet as a service, Platform as a service, and software as a service

36. Refer to the exhibit.

Which effect of this configuration is true?

• It configures a PPPoE server===>Correct


• It configures a PPPoE neighbor relationship with a Layer 3 switch
• It configures a PPPoE client
• It configures a PPPoE session with an ISP

37. What are the two major requirements for configuring an extended VLAN with VTPv2?
(Choose two)

• The reduced MAC address feature must be disabled


• VLAN pruning must be enabled
• The VLAN must be configured in VLAN database mode===>Correct
• The configuration must be in global configuration mode
• The device must be operating in VTP transparent mode===>Correct

38. Which two options are restrictions of BGP Outbound Route Filtering? (Choose two)

• It can be used only with eBGP===>Correct


• Multicast is not supported===>Correct
• It can be used only with IPv4 multicast
• It requires access list to match to routes
• I can be used only with iBGP
39. When you implement redistribution on your network, which feature can you enable to
prevent suboptimal routing?

• route tagging===>Correct
• authentication
• VRFs
• NBAR

40. Refer to the exhibit, how can you configure R6 so that traffic returns to subnet 172.16.6.0/24
via R5?

• Configure the neighbor 10.5.6.5 send-community standard command===>Correct


• Advertise prefix 172.16.6.0/24 to neighbor R5 with metric 80
• Set the local preference for all prefixes received from neighbor R5 to 200
• Advertise prefix 172.16.6.0/24 to neighbor R5 with AS 65006 prepended.

41. What is a requirement for BFD static route support?

• All routers that will carry traffic must be the same model.
• All routers that will carry traffic must have the same software version.
• BFD must be configured on all Ethernet, virtual-template, and dialer interfaces that will
carry traffic.
• CEF must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.===>Correct

42. Which two statements about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two)

• It requires an RP
• It forwards multicast packets to neighbors that have required the data
• It forwards multicast packets on a shared distribution tree
• It forwards multicast packets on a source tree===>Correct
• It floods multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data
• It floods multicast packets throughout the network===>Correct

43. Refer to the exhibit.

If you apply this configuration to a device on your network, which class map cannot match
traffic?

• CM-EXAMPLE-2
• CM-EXAMPLE-1
• CM-EXAMPLE-5
• CM-EXAMPLE-3===>Correct
• CM-EXAMPLE-4

44. Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)

• IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.===>Correct


• IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
• IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and
reassembly.===>Correct
• IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.

45. A user is presented with the underlying hardware and software needed to develop and offer
applications via the internet from a cloud service provider.

Which cloud model is this user consuming?

• Application as a service
• Software as a service
• Platform as a service===>Correct
• Infrastructure as a service

46. Refer to the exhibit.

Which additional configuration statement is required on R3 in order to allow multicast traffic


sourced from 192.168.13.3 to flow along the shared-tree?

• ip mroute 10.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 Tunnel 0===>Correct


• ip route 10.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 Tunnel 0
• ip route 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0
• ip mroute 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0

47. Which statement about Control Plane Policing is true?


• It applies to packets that are punted to the route processor===>Correct
• It queues egress packets that would otherwise be discarded
• It queues ingress packets that would otherwise be discarded
• It applies to packets that are generated locally

48. Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two.)

• Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.===>Correct


• Spanning tree is extended from CE to C
• IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
• PE routers dynamically associate to peers.===>Correct
• VPLS extends a Layer 2 broadcast domain.

49. Which two options are 802.15.4 node types? (Choose two)

• Limited Function Device===>Correct


• Reduced Function Device===>Correct
• Expanded Function Device
• Mesh Function Device
• Full Function Device===>Correct

50. Which two statements about IPv6 RA guard are true?

• It is applied only on the egress interface


• It is applied only on the ingress interface===>Correct
• It can be applied on ingress and egress interfaces
• It must be applied individually to specific interfaces
• It can be applied globally to all interfaces on the device
• It supports global polices that match an ACL based on the source IP address===>Correct

51. Which way to influence path selection with EIGRP is preferred?

• changing the delay, even if it must be done on multiple interfaces===>Correct


• changing the bandwidth, because that is what Cisco recommends
• changing the bandwidth, because it does not have any impact on other router features
• changing the bandwidth, because it must be done only on one interface along the path
52. Which technology, implemented on aggregation-edge nodes at the aggregation layer,
provides per-tenant isolation at Layer 3, with separate dedicated per-tenant routing and
forwarding tables on the inside interfaces of firewall context?

• VRF-Lite===>Correct
• VLAN
• VDC
• VXLAN

53. Which three values are used to generate a unique bridge ID for each VLAN in PVST+?
(Choose three.)

• port cost
• spanning-tree MAC address===>Correct
• port priority
• max age
• extended system ID===>Correct
• switch priority===>Correct

54. Which aspect is a significant disadvantage of containers?

• Security===>Correct
• Resource consumption
• Time to delay
• Inefficiency
• Reduce operational overhead

55. Drag and drop each IPv6 address type from the left onto the ===>Correct link-local multicast
address on the right
• wrong

56. Drag each IPv4 host address on the left to the matching broadcast address on the right

• wrong

57. What are the two EEM event subscribers? (Choose two)

• applet===>Correct
• script===>Correct
• syslog
• CLI
• none

58. What is a major disadvantage of virtual machines versus containers?

• Boot time===>Correct
• Security
• Operational Management
• Limited management tools
• Vendor lock-in

59. Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three.)

• NHRP
• DVMRP
• HSRP===>Correct
• GLBP===>Correct
• IPv6 NA
• IPv6 RA===>Correct

60. Which IPv6 first-hop security feature blocks traffic sourced from IPv6 addresses that are
outside the prefix gleaned from router advertisements?

• IPv6 source guard.


• IPv6 RA guard.
• IPv6 prefix guard.===>Correct
• IPv6 DHCP guard.

61. Company A has two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each
site, Company A

is using the same autonomous system number.

Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two sites?

• communities
• allowas-in===>Correct
• AS path prepending
• Peer groups

62. Which prefix list matches and permits all RFC 1918 network 10.0.0.0 routes that have masks
of /16 through /24?

• ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 ge 15 le 25


• ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 15 le 25
• ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16 le 24===>Correct
• ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24

63. Drag and drop the BGP feature on the left to the corresponding function it performs on the
right

• wrong

64. Which three terms are used to describe an OS-level virtualization method for deploying and
running distributed applications? (Choose three)

• Containerization===>Correct
• Container networking
• Container-based virtualization===>Correct
• Virtualized networking===>Correct
• Application containerization===>Correct
• Container Stack
• Shared Kernel
Explanation:

https://searchservervirtualization.techtarget.com/quiz/VMs-vs-containers-Do-you-know-the-
differences? q0=3&q1=2&q2=0&q3=0&q4=3&q5=2&q6=3&q7=2&q8=2&q9=0&x=88&y=9

65. Which two statements about GETVPN are true? (Choose two)

• It supports non-IP protocols===>Correct


• It is supported on MPLS networks===>Correct
• It uses stateless failover for high availability
• It can use GRE or DMVPN to support private IP addressing
• It supports only hub-spoke topologies

66. Which value does EIGRP use to determine the metric for a summary address?

• The average of the component metrics


• The highest metric among the component routes
• A default fixed value
• The lowest metric among the component routes===>Correct

67. Which value is the maximum segment size if you start with an MTU of 1500 bytes and then
remove the overhead of the Ethernet header, IP header, TCP header, and the MAC frame check
sequence?

• 1434 bytes
• 1460 bytes===>Correct
• 1458 bytes
• 1464 bytes

68. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel
interface0?

• There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address.


• 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address.
• 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address.
• 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address.===>Correct
69. Which two methods do IPsec VTIs used to identify and transmit encrypted traffic through the
tunnel? (Choose two)

• static routing===>Correct
• dynamic routing===>Correct
• object groups
• ACLs
• NAT

70. Which two statements about VTPv3 are true? (Choose two)

• Extended VLANs prevent VTPv3 switches from becoming VTPv2===>Correct


• VTPv3 must receive VTPv2 packets before it can send VTPv2 packets===>Correct
• VTPv3 accepts configuration information only from VTPv2 devices
• VTPv3 sends VTPv2 packets when they are detected on a trunk port
• VTPv3 regions can communicate in server mode only over a VTPv2 region

71. Drag and drop each statement about LISP devices from the left onto the ===>Correct LISP
device type on the right.

• wrong

72. How dose having an EIGRP feasible successor speed up convergence?

• EIGRP sends quires only if there is a feasible successor, which decreases the number of
routers that are involved in convergence.
• EIGRP immediately installs the loop-free alternatives path in the RIB===>Correct
• EIGRP preinstalls the feasible successor in the RIB in all cases which traffic to switch
more quickly
• EIGRP sends queries only if there is not a feasible successor which causes less control
traffic to complete with data.

73. Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the ===>Correct category of timers on
the right.

• wrong

74. How does MSTP maintain compatibility with RSTP?

• RSTP encodes region information from an MSTP BPDU into a single instance.
• M7STP supports five port states in the same way as RST
• MSTP sends all spanning-tree information in one BPD
• RSTP implements a TTL that is compatible with the MSTP max age timer

75. When is it most important to implement multiple synonymous area addresses on an IS-IS
network?
• when integrating an IS-IS Layer 2 router with another routing protocol
• when merging or splitting areas in the IS-IS domain===>Correct
• when an IS-IS router is merging routing information
• when splitting areas in the IS-IS domain

76. How does MSTP maintain compatibility with RSTP?

• RSTP encodes region information from an MSTP BPDU into a single instance.
• MSTP supports five port states in the same way as RST
• MSTP sends all spanning-tree information in one BPD
• RSTP implements a TTL that is compatible with the MSTP max age timer

77. When is it most important to implement multiple synonymous area addresses on an IS-IS
network?

• when integrating an IS-IS Layer 2 router with another routing protocol


• when merging or splitting areas in the IS-IS domain===>Correct
• when an IS-IS router is merging routing information
• when splitting areas in the IS-IS domain

78. Which option is a core event publisher for EEM?

• Policy Director
• Timer===>Correct
• Script
• Applet

79. Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)

• The interface is Ethernet.===>Correct


• The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.===>Correct
• The interface is PP
• The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
• The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

80. Refer to the exhibit.


Which configuration must you apply to a router so that it can generate a log message in this
format?

• service timestamps log datetime msec localtime service sequence-numbers


• service timestamps log datetime msec localtime show-timezone service alignment
logging
• service timestamps log datetime msec localtime show-timezone service sequence-
numbers===>Correct
• service timestamps log datetime localtime show-timezone service sequence-numbers
• service timestamps log datetimemsec localtime show-timezone service linenumber

81. Which statement about Auto-RP is true?

• All interfaces must be configured in dense mode


• All interfaces must be configured in sparse-dense mode.
• All interfaces must be configured in sparse mode.
• An RP that it tied to a loopback address must be configured===>Correct

82. Which statement about the EIGRP SRTT is true?

• It is the time that it takes to receive a reply to a query


• It is six times the RTO
• It is the average time that it takes for a reliable packet to be acknowledged===>Correct
• It is the time that it takes for an update to be received by a peer

83. Which two statements about scheduling multiple IP SLA operations are true? (Choose two)

• The IP SLA monitor group schedule command must be configured on the


device===>Correct
• The IP SLA operations must be scheduled at a minimum interval of 30 seconds
• You must configure the frequency of each IP SLA operation before it can start
• Every IP SLA operation in a single group must start at the same time
• You must configure IP SLA operations before you can schedule a group of
operations===>Correct
84. Which three options are three of the valid message types for DHCPv6? (Choose Three)

• Discover
• Solicit===>Correct
• Request===>Correct
• Leave
• Offer
• Advertise===>Correct

85. In which scenario can you host the most instances on a server?

• Using virtual machines in containers


• Using containers in virtual machines
• Using microservices application
• Using only containers===>Correct
• Using only virtual machines

86. Which feature prevents the formation of inter area routing loops?

• the backbone area===>Correct


• stub areas
• redistribution
• shortest-path trees

87. Which two OSPF network types require the use of a DR and BDR? (Choose two.)

• non-broadcast networks===>Correct
• point-to-point networks
• point-to-multipoint networks
• broadcast networks===>Correct
• point-to-multipoint non-broadcast networks

88. Which two statements about DMVPN are true?

• It is a tunnel-less VPN technology===>Correct


• It supports multicast and QoS within tunnels
• It provides a routetable interface for terminating IPsec tunnels
• It uses automatic IPsec triggering to build IPsec tunnels===>Correct
• It allows both the hub and the spokes to use dynamic IP address===>Correct
• It is an open standard

89. Refer to the exhibit.

After observing that an OSPF neighbor relationship failed to form, you executed a debug that
returned the given output.

Which configuration issue prevented the OSPF neighbor relationship from Forming?

• The hello and hold timers are mismatched.===>Correct


• The area IDs are mismatched
• The devices are on different subnets.
• The Stub flag is set on the neighboring device.

90. Which three management protocols does MPP support? (Choose three.)

• SSH===>Correct
• SMTP
• NetFlow
• Telnet===>Correct
• SCP
• SNMP===>Correct

91. Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two)

• They are used to forward untagged traffic only===>Correct


• They are used to forward both tagged and untagged traffic.
• They are configured in V
• AN database mode
• They are used to forward tagged traffic only.===>Correct
• They are configured under the trunk interface
• They require VTPv3

92. You are configuring a DMVPN hub to perform CBWFQ on a per-spoke basis.

Which information is used to identify the spoke?

• the NHRP network ID


• the spoke tunnel source IP
• the spoke tunnel interface IP address
• the NHRP group===>Correct

93. Which three options are capabilities of queuing and scheduling? (Choose three)

• PBR
• CAR
• bandwidth limitation===>Correct
• queue buffers===>Correct
• weighted tail drop===>Correct
• policing

94. What are two pieces of information that can be transmitted via Multiprotocol BGP? (Choose
two)

• Level 2 routes set the attached bit


• MPLS VPN routes===>Correct
• Multicast sources===>Correct
• IS-IS LSAs
• Level 1/level 2 routers set the overload bit
• OSPF routes

95. For which feature is the address family "rtfilter" used?

• Enhanced Route Refresh


• MPLS VPN filtering
• Route Target Constraint===>Correct
• Unified MPLS

96. Which two authentication options were new in SNMPv3? (Choose two.)

• noAuth===>Correct
• authPriv===>Correct
• Priv
• Auth
• authNoPriv===>Correct
• noAuthNoPriv

97. What are two differences between IPv6 ISATAP tunneling and IPv6 6to4 tunneling? (Choose
two)

• Only ISATAP tunneling can transfer IPv6 multicast packets


• Only 6to4 tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets within a site
• Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets between sites
• Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets within a site===>Correct
• Only 6to4 tunneling requires 2002::/16 addresses===>Correct

98. Which two options are valid IPv6 extension header types? (Choose two)

• Mobility===>Correct
• Encapsulating Security Payload===>Correct
• Version
• Flow Label
• Traffic Class

99. Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)

• It requires multicast sources to be in the same domain.===>Correct


• It uses 32-bit anycast RP addresses.
• It uses loopback interfaces for anycast RP addresses.
• It uses UDP to establish peering sessions.
• All MSDP domains on a given network can share a common R===>Correct
• It requires multicast receivers to be in the same domain.
100. Which routing protocol type prevents routing loops by recording each autonomous system
that a route traverses?

• Path-vector routing
• Link-state routing
• Distance-vector routing
• Hybrid routing===>Correct

101. If you configure the set ip default next-hop command on a device and the device receives a
packet whose destination is missing from the routing table, how does the device route the
packet?

• The packet is policy routed===>Correct


• The packet is policy routed to the destination address in the routing table that is closed to
the destination address in the packet
• The packet is dropped
• The packet is forwarded using the normal routing table

102. Which two statements about 802.1 x authentications with EAP are true? (Choose two)

• The supplicant and authenticator server send a one-time password to the


authenticator===>Correct
• The authenticator server translates frames from the supplicant into a RADIUS message
• The authenticator can cache the username and password from the authentication server to
reduce traffic
• The interface passes only EAPOL traffic until the client is authenticated===>Correct
• It uses EAPOL frames between the supplicant and the authenticator===>Correct

103. Which two statements about STP are true? (Choose two)

• To support load-balancing across redundant paths, the VAN-to-instance mapping must


match on all switches in each path===>Correct
• MST configurations are propagated throughout the VTP domain
• Only one version of STP can be active on a device at one time===>Correct
• Rapid PVST+ and MST can be active on a device simultaneously
• MST supports up to four MST instances, including instance 0
104. Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a
trunk port?

• It sends a special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packet information
• It sends VTPv2 packets only
• It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets===>Correct
• It sends VTPv3 packets only

105. Which are three basic elements of Cisco Performance Monitor? (Choose three)

• Master controller===>Correct
• SLA
• Flow record===>Correct
• Border router
• Policy===>Correct
• Class===>Correct

106. Which two statements about route redistribution are true? (Choose two)

• Redistributing the entire BGP table from the internet works well using multiple OSPF
areas
• IS-IS does not support Layer 2 routes that leak into a Layer 1 domain
• Mutual redistribution at multiple points can create a routing loop===>Correct
• IBGP is used within the AS to carry EBGP attributes that otherwise would be lost if
EBGP was redistributed into IG===>Correct
• The unequal cost multipath load-balancing characteristic is lost when redistributing OSPF
into EIGRP

107. Refer to the exhibit.


Refer to the exhibit, assuming that all devices are running CDP in default configuration, which
of them appear in the R1 show cdp neighbors table?

• Router 2, Router 3, Router 5 and Switch A only===>Correct


• Router 2, Router 3, Router 4 and router 5 only
• Router 2, and Switch A only
• Router 3 and Router 5 only

108. Refer to the exhibit.

What will happen to the 10.100.100.0/24 BGP route when the bgp nexthop route-map command
is applied as shown?

• The route will fall back from iBGP to eBGP


• The route will be removed from the routing table===>Correct
• The route will remain unhanged
• The route will no longer advertise a next-hop attribute
109. Drag and drop the set commands from the left into the order in which they are evaluated in
a route-map for policy-based routing on the right

• wrong

110. Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effects of the given configuration? (Choose two)

• The router will manually summarize the 192.168.12.0/27 network


• Auto-summarization will be enabled on the F0/0/ interface
• The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies over interface F0/0===>Correct
• The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies all EIGRP interfaces except F0/0
• The router will install the 192.168.12.0/27 network into its EIGRP topology
table.===>Correct

111. Which two statements about WRED are true? (Choose two)

• It is a congestion-avoidance mechanism===>Correct
• It is a packet-classification mechanism
• It is a congestion-management mechanism
• It drops IP traffic before non-IP traffic
• It can be configured on the same interface as WFQ
• It is most useful with adaptive traffic===>Correct

112. Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

• Stub===>Correct
• Neighbor
• Offset-list
• Address-family

113. Refer to the exhibit.

Which router on the given network generates the IS-IS pseudocode?

• R1===>Correct
• R4
• R2
• R3

114. If router R1 is running two OSPF processes, A and B, how can you configure 1 to prefer the
A internal routes over the B internal routes?

• Configure the preferred OSPF process with a lower router ID


• Change the administrative distance of one of the OSPF process===>Correct
• Change the OSPF cost for the interfaces assigned to one of the OSPF processes
• Mutually redistribute the OSPF process into one another
• Configure the preferred OSPF process with a higher router ID

115. Refer to the exhibit.

The OSPF adjacency between two routers cannot be established.

What is the root cause of the problem?

• Area type mismatch===>Correct


• Authentication error
• Mismatched OSPF network types
• Different area ID
• Both routers are designated routers.

116. Refer to the exhibit.


What type of IS-IS is configured on R1?

• VRF-aware IS-IS
• Multi-process IS-IS
• IS-IS version 2
• Single-topology IS-IS===>Correct

117. What mechanism should you choose to prevent unicast flooding?

• Make sure that all end systems are connected to the network with a single physical
connection.
• Use control plane policing (CPP) to limit unicast flooding.
• Configure the ARP cache timers to be longer than the switch forwarding cache (CAM)
timers.
• Configure the switch forwarding cache (CAM) timers to be longer than the ARP cache
timers.===>Correct

118. How is a targeted LDP session different from a standard LDP session?

• Targeted LDP requires SDP to be enabled


• Targeted LDP requires RSVP to be enabled
• Targeted LDP uses unicast hello messages to peer with other devices===>Correct
• Targeted LDP is used only for neighbors on different segments
119. Which two application protocols require application layer gateway support when using
NAT on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

• SIP===>Correct
• HTTP
• FTP===>Correct
• SMTP
• POP3

120. What command can you configure on a router so that traffic generated from the router is
policy-router?

• Ip route-map
• Ip policy
• Ip local policy===>Correct
• Ip route-cache policy

121. In which order of magnitude (time) is delay/ latency measured when you use wide metrics
in EIGRP?

• tens of microseconds
• picoseconds===>Correct
• nanoseconds
• microseconds

122. In RSTP, which event would cause a topology change?

• Edge ports transitioning to the forwarding state


• Non-edge ports transitioning to the forwarding state===>Correct
• Non-edge ports transitioning to the discarding state
• Edge ports transitioning to the discarding state

123. Refer to the exhibit.


Which two statements about the given MPLS VPN ate true? (Choose two.)

• It includes four CE routers.===>Correct


• Router A and router 1 must be BGP neighbors.
• It includes four P routers.===>Correct
• It includes two CEs and two Pes.===>Correct
• Only one connection is outside the ISP network.

124. Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose Three)

• Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation===>Correct


• Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation===>Correct
• Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address
• Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPV4 address===>Correct
• Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address
• Enable NAT-PT globally

125. Which two statements about PPP CHAP authentication are true? (Choose two)

• It is a one-way authentication method===>Correct


• It uses a secret password, which is sent across the link for authentication
• It supports clear-text passwords
• It is configurable only on PPP callout links
• It uses a configured username and password to authenticate a host===>Correct

126. Which escape sequence must you use to enter special characters as part of a key string?
• CTRL+S
• CTRL+P
• CTRL+K
• CTRL+V===>Correct

127. Drag and drop each IS-IS PDU type from the left onto its purpose on the right

• wrong

128. Which two statements about route summarization are true? (Choose two.)

• RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP can automatically summarize routing information at network
address boundaries.===>Correct
• EIGRP can automatically summarize external routes.
• The area range command can aggregate addresses on the ASB
• The summary-address command under the router process configures manual
summarization on RIPv2 devices.===>Correct
• The ip classless command enables classful protocols to select a default route to an
unknown subnet on a network with other known subnets.

129. In which two modes do IPv6-in-IPv4 tunnels operate? (Choose two.)

• tunnel mode
• transport mode
• 6to4 mode===>Correct
• 4to6 mode
• ISATAP mode===>Correct
130. Which PIM multicast type is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within
individual PIM domains?

• PIM-DM
• Bidir-PIM===>Correct
• PIM-SM
• SSM

131. Drag and drop EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the
router on the right

• wrong

132. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must you apply to R2 so that it ===>Correctly translates the Internal
to a public IP address? (Choose two.)

===>Correct

===>Correct

133. Which interface configuration task enables MLD on the interface?

• Setting an IPv6 address


• Enabling IGMPv3
• Configuring SSM
• Configuring PIM6===>Correct
134. Which three configuration settings must match for switches to be in the same MST region?
(Choose three)

• Region name===>Correct
• Password
• VLAN-to-instance assignment===>Correct
• Domain name
• Revision number===>Correct
• VLAN names

135. Refer to the exhibit.

If router R1 is configured to run IS-IS with given configuration and all interfaces are up/up, what
action must you take so that the Ethernet 0/0 netwrok can be advertised to potential IS-IS
neighbors on the E0/1 interface?

• Configure the ip router isis command on R1's interface E0/1.===>Correct


• Configure an NSAP address on R1.
• Add the network 10.10.30.1 0.0.0.0 command to the R1 IS-IS process.
• Add the network 10.10.20.1 0.0.0.0 command to the R1 IS-IS process.

136. Drag and drop each step in the uRPF packet-forwarding from the left into the ===>Correct
order of operations on the right
• wrong

137. Drag and drop each Cisco Performance Monitor component from the left onto the matching
statement on the right

• wrong

138. Drag and drop the OSPFv3 LSA type on the left to the functionality it provides on the right
• wrong

139. Which two statements about root guard are true? (Choose two)

• It allows unknown devices to participate in STP


• It automatically re-enables blocked ports
• It requires the administrator to manually re-enable ports that have been
blocked===>Correct
• It supports the errdisable-timeout command===>Correct
• It automatically error-disables a port when PortFast is enabled
• It blocks BPDUs from unknown devices

140. Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by
the router on the right
• wrong

141. How should voice traffic be marked for DSCP in a standard QoS policy?

• AF21
• EF===>Correct
• CS3
• AF41

142. Which two statements about BGP best-path selection are true? (Choose two)

• The weight attribute is advertised to peers


• A route that originates from iBGP peers is preferred
• The route with the highest local preference is preferred===>Correct
• A route that originates from a router with a higher BGP router ID is preferred
• The route with the lowest MED is preferred===>Correct
• The lowest weight advertised is preferred

143. Which statement about BGP synchronization rule is true?

• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to
its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through a
IGP
• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to
its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an
IGP
• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its BGP learned routes to
its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an
iGP
• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to
its eBGP peers
unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table an IGP===>Correct

144. Drag and drop each description from the left onto the corresponding IP multicast protocol
on the right.

• wrong

145. Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the ===>Correct category on the right. Not
all options will be used.
• wrong

146. Which two statements about Management Plane protection are true? (Choose two.)

• It can handle management traffic when IP Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled.


• It supports in-band and out-of-band management interfaces.===>Correct
• It is enabled by default, but it allows all management protocols to pass freely through all
interfaces until it is configured.
• It supports the SNMP, SSH, TFTP, and HTTP management protocols.===>Correct
• It provides granular control over the management protocols that are allowed on an
interface.
• It works only on out-of-band management interfaces.

147. Drag and drop the implementation steps on the left to the corresponding order on the right
when configuring a L3 VxLAN gateway.
• wrong

148. Drag and drop statement about QoS features on the left to the matching QoS feature on the
right

• wrong
149. Drag and drop the PPPoE packet type on the left to the corresponding description on the
right.

• wrong

150. Drag and Drop the NAT operations on the left to the ===>Correct sequential order on the
right.
• wrong

151. Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two)

• MLD protocol messages can be sent in both IGMPv4 and ICMPv4 formats.
• It supports private VLANs.===>Correct
• It limits the Layer 2 multicast traffic that is generated by routing protocols.
• PFC modes support MLD version 2 only.
• The MLD snooping querier requires the VLAN interface to be configured with an IPv6
address.===>Correct

152. Which metric vectors are stored but are not used by default in EIGRP?

• Bandwidth and delay


• Load and reliability===>Correct
• Load and bandwidth
• Reliability and delay

153. Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the ===>Correct priority order in which
the attributes are

preferred when determining the best path on the right.

• wrong
154. How can you prevent routing loops when performing mutual redistribution between two
OSPF domains on multiple routes?

• No action is required, OSPF prevents routing loops by design


• Prevent routes from being redistributed into their original OSPF domain===>Correct
• Redistribute only external routes between OSPF domains
• Make sure that the redistributing routes are members of Area 0 in both OSPF domains

155. What are two effects of migration a network from PVST+ to MST? (Choose two)

• BPDU filter is automatically enabled


• BPDU guard is automatically disabled
• PortFast is automatically disabled
• UplinkFast is automatically disabled===>Correct
• Root guard is automatically enabled
• BackboneFast is automatically disabled===>Correct

156. Drag and drop the IPv6 discovery message on the left to the corresponding description on
the right.

• wrong

157. Drag and drop each EIGRP packet type from the left onto the matching description on the
right.
• wrong

158. Which two options are two problems that Bridge Assurance can protect against? (Choose
two)

• Ports being put into a root-inconsistent state.===>Correct


• The forwarding of data traffic after the spanning tree algorithm is stopped.===>Correct
• Slow convergence time after a topology change.
• Unidirectional link failures.===>Correct
• BPDU flooding.

159. Which command can you enter to disable logging for VTY lines?

• no logging console
• no logging trap
• no logging buffer
• no logging count
• no logging monitor===>Correct

160. Drag and Drop the OpenStack projects from the left onto their function on the right
• wrong

161. Which statement best describes IPv6 RA Guard?

• It blocks unexpected IPv6 router announcements on a link===>Correct


• It filters authorized IPv6 device advertisements on a link
• It redirects authorized device hello messages
• It validates ingress hello messages on a port

162. Which statements about IGMP filtering are true?

• It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS===>Correct


• It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ip igmp access-list
command===>Correct
• It eliminates the need for a multicast RP
• It can be implemented on Layer-2 switching using IGMP profiles
• It supports IGMPv3 traffic only

163. Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)

• It interconnects PIM-SM domains===>Correct


• It is supported both for IPv4 and IPv6 multicast deployments
• It is encapsulated into PIM packets
• MPLS is required to establish MSDP peering
• MSDP peers are established using multiprotocol BGP===>Correct
• It is encapsulated into UDP segments

164. Which statement about shaped round robin queuing is true?


• Queues with higher configured weights are serviced first.===>Correct
• The device waits a period of time, set by the configured weight, before servicing the next
queue.
• The device services a single queue completely before moving on to the next queue.
• Shaped mode is available on both the ingress and egress queues.

165. Which statement about BGP synchronization rule is true?

• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to
its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through a
IGP===>Correct
• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to
its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an
IGP
• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its BGP learned routes to
its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an
iGP
• A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to
its eBGP peers
unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table an IGP

166. Which two statements about HDLC operations in asynchronous balanced mode are true?
(Choose two)

• Each device must negotiate with its neighbors before sending frames
• Each device must negotiate with its neighbors to recover framing errors
• The initiating device sends a DTE frame
• Either device can initiate transmission of frames===>Correct
• Either device can send frames at any time===>Correct

167. Which two statements about the VPN solution are true? (Choose two.)
• Customer A and customer B will exchange routes with each other.
• R3 will advertise routes received from R1 to R2.
• Customer C will communicate with customer A and===>Correct
• Communication between sites in VPN1 and VPN2 will be blocked.===>Correct
• R1 and R2 will receive VPN routes advertised by R3.

168. Which GET VPN component maintains security policies?

• P
• PE
• GDOI
• group member
• key server===>Correct
• CE

169. How can you prevent routing loops when performing mutual redistribution between two
OSPF domains on multiple routers?

• No action is required, OSPF prevents routing loops by design


• Make sure that the redistributing routers are members of Area 0 in both OSPF domains
• Redistribute only external routers between the OSPF domains
• Prevent routers from being redistributed into their original OSPF domain===>Correct
170. Which two statements about IPv6 PACLs are true? (Choose two)

• They are supported only on ingress


• They are supported only for L2===>Correct
• They are supported only for L3
• They require an IPv6 access list to be configured first===>Correct
• They are supported only on egress

171. Drag and drop each SNMP feature from the left onto the ===>Correct SNMP version on the
right

• wrong

172. Which two conditions can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two)

• multiple MAC addresses in the Layer 2 forwarding table


• recurring TCNs===>Correct
• RIB table overflow
• symmetric routing
• forwarding table overflow===>Correct
173. Which protocol is the encapsulating protocol for mtrace packets?

• ICMP
• IGMP===>Correct
• PIM
• GRE

174. When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key
ciscotest address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0?

• It is configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering


• It is configured on hub to set the pre-shared key for the spoke routers===>Correct
• It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router
• It is configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core

175. What two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configuration? (Choose two.)

• virtual-instance-name===>Correct
• address-family===>Correct
• router-id
• subnet-mask
• process-id

176. Which two statements about CEF polarization are true? (Choose two)

• The AND operation is performed on the higher-order bits of the source and destination IP
address
• A single link is chosen for all flows===>Correct
• The AND operation is performed on the lower-order bits of the source and destination IP
address
• After the XOR process, the flow is processed in the distribution Layer with a different
hashing algorithm
• It can be prevented by alternating the hashing inputs===>Correct
• When enabled, it allows all links to be used efficiently for different traffic flows

177. Which three device roles does 802.1x require? (Choose three)
• An endpoint device that verifies network credentials===>Correct
• A server that facilitates authentication
• A network device that grants client authentication===>Correct
• A server that assigns network-level access
• An endpoint device that sends authentication credentials===>Correct
• A network device that relays authentication credentials

178. What is the current order of the VSS initialization process?

Drag and drop the actions on the left to the ===>Correct initialization step on the right

• wrong

179. Drag each statement about Cisco EEM policies on the left to the matching type of EEM
policy on the right.
• wrong

180. Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring Router 1 and Router 2 for L2TPv3 tunneling.

Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router 2 to established
the tunnel? (Choose two)

• Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the


pseudowire-class R1 to R2===>Correct
• Cisco Discovery Protocol must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on router1
• An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on router1
• Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2===>Correct
• Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1

181. Drag and drop the description on the ===>Correct EIGRP term in the right

• wrong

182. How does Control Plane Policing protect the route processor?

• It disables access to the control plane during an attack.


• It treats the route processor as a separate entity within MQ===>Correct
• It dynamically enables ingress ACLs on selected interfaces.
• It marks non-essential traffic and moves it to the Scavenger class.

183. Which two options describe the effect of configuring an interface as passive under OSPF?
(Choose two)

• The interface process OSPF hello packets and also sends hello packets
• An adjacency cannot be established, and the interface is included in the routing protocol
update===>Correct
• An adjacency cannot be established, and the interfaces is not included in the routing
protocol update
• An adjacency can be established, and the interface is not included in the routing protocol
update
• The interface processes OSPF hello packets but does not send hello packets===>Correct
184. Which feature can you implement to most effectively protect customer traffic in a rate-
limited WAN Ethernet service?

• Q-in-0
• OiffServ
• HCBWFQ===>Correct
• lntServ with RSVP
• The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command

185. Which queuing strategy ignores packet markings?

• CQ
• FIFO===>Correct
• LLQ
• WFQ
• WRED
• CBWFQ

186. Which two statements are true about VPLS? (Choose two.)

• It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.===>Correct


• It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.===>Correct
• It includes automatic detection of multihoming.
• It provides integrated mechanisms to maintain First Hop Resiliency Protocols such as
HSRP, VRRP, or GLB
• It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.

187. Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the
static default route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?

• Default-information originate===>Correct
• Redistribute static
• Redistribute static subnets
• Redistribute static metric 1 subnets
188. Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature?
(Choose two)

• MPLS must be enabled.


• The next-hop routers must be the same.
• The next-hop routers must be different.===>Correct
• Route reflectors must be enabled.
• All attributes must have the same values.===>Correct

189. How does an IPv6 host automatically generate a global address?

• It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation
messages.
• It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router
Advertisement messages.===>Correct
• It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation
messages.
• It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router
Advertisement messages

190. Drag and drop the multiprotocol BGP feature on the left to the corresponding description on
the right.

• wrong

191. Refer to the exhibit.


What happens to a TCP packet that is received on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.100, which has
DF bit set to 1, and packet has a valid destination?

• The packet is matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is set to 0


• The packet is not matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is left as it was===>Correct
• The packet is matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is left as it was
• The packet is not matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is set to 0

192. Which two statements about MLD are true? (Choose two.)

• There are three subtypes of MLD query messages.


• When a single link supports multiple interfaces, only one interface is required to send
MLD messages.===>Correct
• MLD is a subprotocol of PIMv6.
• When a single link supports multiple interfaces, all supported interfaces are required to
send MLD messages.
• The code section in the MLD message is set to 1 by the sender and ignored by receivers
• MLD is a subprotocol of ICMPv6.===>Correct

193. Which two statements about the host address 10.88.100.10/13 are true (choose two)

• The network address is 10.64.0.0


• The network address is 10.88.100.0
• The broadcast address is 10.64.255.255
• The broadcast address is 10.88.255.255
• The network address is 10.88.0.0===>Correct
• The broadcast address is 10.95.255.255===>Correct
194. Which statement about OSPF multiaccess segments is true?

• The designated router is elected first.


• The designated and backup designated routers are elected at the same time.
• The router that sent the first hello message is elected first.
• The backup designated router is elected first.===>Correct

195. What terminal line command can you enter to prevent a router from attempting a Telnet
connection in response to an in===>Correct host name entry at the EXEC prompt?

• Transport preferred none===>Correct


• Transport output none
• No ip domain-lookup
• Transport input none
• Logging synchronous

196. When you implement CoPP on your network, what is its default action?

• Rate-limit bidirectional traffic to the control plane.


• Permit all traffic===>Correct
• Block all traffic
• Drop management ingress traffic to the control plane.
• Monitor ingress and egress traffic to the control plane by using access groups that are
applied to the interface

197. Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch? (Choose three.)

• lowest MAC address===>Correct


• Vl.AN revision number
• longest uptime===>Correct
• user-selected priority===>Correct
• highest MAC address
• IOS version number

198. Which two statements about marking fields are true? (Choose two)
• The 3 priority bits are in 802.10/===>Correct
• The Frame Relay OE field is in the IP header and is 1 bit long.===>Correct
• The IP DSCP field is in the IP header and is 6 bits long.
• The ToS 6 bits are in the IP header
• The IP Precedence field is in the IP header and is 4 bits long.

199. Which two statements about 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two.)

• They support point-to-multipoint traffic===>Correct


• They support point-to-point traffic
• They generate an Pv6 prefix using a common IPv4 address.
• They allow IPv4 packets to travel over IPv6 infrastructure without modification
• They encapsulate IPv6 packets, which allows the packets to travel over IPv4
infrastructure.===>Correct
• They support OSPF and EIGRP traffic

200. Which two statements about the client-identifier in a DHCP pool are true? (Choose two.)

• It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for BOOTP requests.


• It specifies a hardware address for the client
• It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client===>Correct
• It requires that you specify the hardware protocol.
• It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP requests.===>Correct

201. Which three options describe characteristics of a link state routing protocol? (Choose three)

• It provodes faster convergence as opposed to distance vector routing


protocols===>Correct
• It uses hop count in the metric calculation to detrmine the best path
• It uses cost in the metric calculation to determine the best path===>Correct
• It only has a neighbor routing table
• It is topology driven and has an overall overview of the network===>Correct
• It is better in detecting suboptimal routing

202. In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root port, and the designated port(s)
elected?

• Forwarding
• Learning
• Listening===>Correct
• Blocking
• Disabled

203. What characteristic of OSPFv3 LSAs enables support for prefix suppression?

• Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are flooded into the entire OSPF domain.
• Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs do not contain prefix information.===>Correct
• Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs do not contain topology information.
• Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are flooded only on the local link.

204. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions can you take to allow the network 1 72.29.224.0/24 to be reachable from peer
192.168.250.53? (Choose two)

• Modify the outbound route map to permit all additional traffic.===>Correct


• Configure soft reconfiguration to peering 192.168.250.53
• Modify the community list to match community 64513:64090 attached to
172.29.224.0/24.===>Correct
• Configure additional address families to peering 192.168.250.53
• Modify the inbound route map to permit all additional traffic

205. Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)

• It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.===>Correct


• It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
• It supports only one address family per instance.===>Correct
• It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
• It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
• It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only.

206. Which three configuration settings must match for switches to be in the same MST region?
(Choose three)

• Region name===>Correct
• Password
• VLSN-to-instance assignment===>Correct
• Domain name
• Revision number===>Correct
• VLAN names

207. Which two options are restrictions of BGP Outbound Route Filtering? (Choose two.)

• It requires access lists to match routes.


• It can be used only with eBG===>Correct
• It can be used only with iBG
• It can be used only with IPv4 multicast.
• Multicast is not supported.

208. Which attribute is not part of the BGP extended community when a PE creates a VPN-IPv4
route while running OSPF between PE-CE?

• OSPF domain identifier


• OSPF route type
• OSPF router ID
• MED
• OSPF network type===>Correct