OF ARCHITECTURE
PM9/19/2014Assimilation ExamSheet2 Page 1
Assimilation Exam
Assimilation
The style of the order with massive and tapering columns resting on a base ofExam
3 steps. Doric
Tomb of the pharaohs. Pyramid
Earthen burial mounds containing upright and lintel stones forming chambers for Tumuli
consecutive burials for several to a hundred persons.
A semi-circular or semi-polygonal space, usually in church, terminating in axis and Apse
intended to house an altar.
Temples in Greece that have a double line of columns surrounding the naos. Dipteral
Senate house for chief dignitaries in Greek architecture Prytaneion
Architect of the Einstein Tower. Erich Mendelsohn
Founder of the Bauhaus School of Art. Walter Gropius
Architectural term is termed to be free from any historical style Art Noveau
Chrysler building Van Alen
Another term for crenel or intervals between merlon of a battlement. Embrasures
Egyptian architecture, who consolidate the administrative Amenemhat I
system, made a survey of the country, set boundaries to the provinces, and other helpful works
earliest known obelisk at Heliopolis. Senusret I
Jubilee festivals of the pharaohs. Heb-sed
The world's first large-scale monument in stone. Pyramid of Zoser
highest sloped pyramid in Gizeh Pyramid of Khufu
A vault created when two barrel vaults intersect at the right angles. Groin Vault
Sarimanok is a décor reflecting the culture of the ___. Visayan
Caryatid porch is from what architecture? Greek
Female statues with baskets serving as columns. Canephora
A small tower usually corbelled at the corner of the castle. Bartizan
A hall built in Roman Empire for the administration of justice. Basilica
The Parthenon is from what architecture. Greek
A roof in which 4 faces rests diagonally between the gables and converge at the roof. Helm Roof
A compound bracket or capital in Japanese architecture. Masu-gumi
A concave molding approximately quarter round. Cavetto
Architect of Iglesia ni Cristo. Carlos Santos Viola
A Filipino architect whose philosophy is 'the structure must be well oriented'. Ceasar Homer Concio
not required as a feature in modern Muslim mosque. Pinnacle
Architect of Robinson's Galleria William Cosculluela
Major contribution of the Renaissance Architecture. Baroque for of Ornamentation
A house is like a flower pot Richard Josef Neutra
Richly carved coffins of Greece and Mesopotamia. Sarcophagus
King Zoser's architect who was deified in the 26th dynasty. Imhotep
The council house in Greece. Bouleuterion
Elizabethan Architecture is from what architecture. U.S. / English Renaissance
Art Noveau style first appeared in what structure. Tussel House
A faced without columns or pilaster in renaissance architecture. Astylar
Art Noveau is known as the international style, in Germany it is known as ___. Jugendstijl
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Less is more.
TRIGGERMAN Ludwig Mies Van Der Rohe
Architect, UAP
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First school PM9/19/2014Assimilation
which offered ExamSheet2
architecture in the Philippines. Liceo de Manila Page 3
The oldest and most important forum in Rome. Assimilation Exam Forum Romanum
Who commenced the 'hall of hundred columns'? Xerxes
Who completed the 'hall of hundred columns'? Artaxerxes
Architects of the Parthenon. Callicrates and Ictinus
Master sculptor of the Parthenon. Phidias
In Roman fountains, the large basin of water. Lacus
Spouting jets in Roman fountain. Salientes
The oldest circus in Rome. Circus Maximus
The colosseum in Rome also known as the "flavian amphitheater" was commenced by Vespasian / Domitian
whom and completed by whom?
Architect of the Erechtheion. Mnesicles
A water clock or an instrument for measuring time by the use of water. Clepsydra
The finest of Greek Tombs, also known as the 'tomb of Agamemnon'. Treasury of Atreus
Architect of the Temple of Zeus, Agrigentum Theron
Architect of the Temples of Zeus, Olympia. Libon
Roman architect of the Greek Temples of Zeus, Olympius. Cossutius
Both the regula and the mutule has guttae numbering a total of ___. 18
A quadrigas is a ___. 4-horse Chariot
The water-leaf and tongue is a usual ornament found in the ___. Cyma Reversa
The Corona is usually painted with the ___. Key Pattern
Greek sculptures may be classified as "architectural sculpture, free standing statuary, Sculptured Reliefs
and the ___".
One of the best examples of a surviving megaron type of Greek domestic building. House #33
The molding that is often found in the Doric Order. Bird's Beak
The wall or colonnade enclosing the Temenos Peribolus
The private house of the Romans. Domus
Roman rectangular temples stood on a ___. Podium
Roman large square tiles. Bepidales
A type of Roman wall facing with alternating courses of brickworks. Opus Mixtum
A type of Roman wall facing which is made of small stone laid in a loose pattern roughly Opus Incertum
resembling polygonal work.
A type of Roman wall facing with a net-like effect. Opus Recticulatum
A type of roman wall facing with rectangular block with or without mortar joints. Opus Quadratum
A Roman structure used as hall of justice and commercial exchanges. Basilica
A type of monument erected to support a tripod, as a prize for athletic exercises or Choragic Monument
musical competitions in Greek festivals.
A type of ornament in classic or renaissance architecture consisting of an assemblage Fret
of straight lines intersecting at right angles, and of various patterns.
Figures of which the upper parts alone are carved, the rest running into a parallelopiped Termini
or diminishing pedestal.
Marble mosaic pattern used on ceilings of vaults and domes. Opus Tesselatum
Conceptualized the Corinthian capital. Callimachus
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
The sleeping room of the 'megaron'.
TRIGGERMAN Thalamus Architect, UAP
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The origin PM9/19/2014Assimilation
of the door architrave. ExamSheet2 Timber-enframed PortalPage 7
The atrium type of house originated with the ___. Assimilation Exam Etruscans
Roman apartment blocks. Insula
A building in classic architecture decorated with flowers and plants with water for the Nymphaeum
purpose of relaxation.
!5th to 18th century architecture. Renaissance
Form follows function. Louis Sullivan
The dominating personality who became an ardent disciple of the Italian renaissance Iñigo Jones
style.
A pillared hall in which the roofs rests on the column in Egyptian temples. Hypostyle Hall
Who began the building of the Great Hypostyle Hall at Karnak? Thothmes I
Architect of the Great Serapeum at Alexandria. Ptolemy III
He created the Dymaxion House, "the first machine for living". Buckminster Fuller
Tombs built for the Egyptian nobility rather than the royalty. Rock-Hewn Tombs
Architect of the Lung Center of the Philippines. George Ramos
The warm room in the Thermae. Tepidarium
The Hot room of the Thermae. Calidarium
The cold or unheated pool in the Thermae. Frigidarium
The dry or sweating room in the Thermae. Sudatorium
The dressing room of the Thermae. Apodyteria
The room for oils and unguents in the thermae. Unctuaria
Orientation of the Roman temple is towards the ___. Forum
Orientation of the Greek temple is towards the ___. East
Orientation of the Etruscan temple is towards the ___. South
Orientation of the Medieval Church. West
The space for the clergy and choir is separated by a low screen wall from the body of the Cancelli
church called ___.
On either side of the choir, pulpits for the reading of the epistle and the gospel are Ambo
called.
In some churches, there is a part which is raised as part of the sanctuary which later Bema
developed into the transept, this is the ___.
In early Christian churches, the bishop took the central place at the end of the church Apse
called ___.
The iconoclastic movement during the Byzantine period forbade the use of ___. Statues
Type of plan of the Byzantine churches. Centralized
Architects of the Hagia Sophia. (St. Sophia, Constantinople) Anthemius and Isidorus
The supreme monument of Byzantine architecture. St. Sophia, Constantinople
Smallest cathedral in the world. (Byzantine period) Little Metropole Cath., Athens
One of the few churches of its type to have survived having a square nave and without Nea Moni
cross-arms, roofed by a dome which spans to the outer walls of the building.
A tower raised above a roof pierced to admit light. Lantern
the covered passage around an open space or garth, connecting the church to the chapter Cloisters
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
house, refectory
TRIGGERMANand other parts of the monastery. Architect, UAP
The prominent feature
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PM9/19/2014Assimilation ExamSheet2 Central Italy. Ornamental Arcades Page 8
Assimilation
The best example of a German Romanesque church with Exam
apses at both east and west Worms Cathedral
ends.
The term applied to the Episcopal church of the diocese and also the important structure Cathedral
of the Gothic period.
The first plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Bramante. Greek Cross
The final plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Carlo Maderna. Latin Cross
He erected the entrance Piazza at St. Peter's Basilica. Bernini
Used as food storage in the Bahay na Bato. Dispensa
The granary in traditional Bontoc House. Falig
Architect of the World Trade Center. Minoru Yamasaki
The Erechtheion of Mnesicles is from what architecture? Greek
The part of the Corinthian capital without flower. Balteus
The Pantheon is from what architecture. Roman
The architect of the Pantheon. Agrippa
The senate house of the Greeks. Prytaneion
Architect of the Bi-Nuclear House, the H-Plan. Marcel Lajos Breuer
Mexican Architect/Engineer who introduced thin shell construction. Felix Outerino Candela
In the Doric Order, the shaft terminates in the ___. Hypotrachelion
In what Order is the Parthenon. Doric
In what Order is the temple of Nike Apteros, Athens. Ionic
This temple is dedicated to 'Wingless Victory'. Temple of Nike Apteros, Athens
This structure in Greece was erected by Andronikos Cyrrhestes for measuring time by Tower of the Winds, Athens
means of a clepsydra internally and sun dial externally.
In the Cyma Reversa molding of the Romans, what ornaments are usually found? Acanthus and Dolphin
From what architecture is the Stoa? Greek
The Egyptian Ornament symbolizing fertility. Papyrus
Egyptian Temple for popular worship of the ancient and mysterious gods. Cult Temple
A small private bath found in Roman houses or palaces. Balneum
Corresponds to the Greek naos. Cella
The large element in the frieze. Triglyph
A is a machine to live in. Le Corbusier
Architect of the Chicago Tribune Tower. Eliel Saarinen
Architecture is Organic. Frank Lloyd Wright
Invented reinforced concrete in France. Hennevique
First elected U.A.P. president. Jose Herrera
Designer of the Bonifacio Monument. Juan Nakpil
Sculptor for the Bonifacio Monument. Guillermo Tolentino
Designer of the Taj Mahal. Shah Jahan
Male counterpart of the Caryatids. Telamones or Atlantes
Like Caryatids and Atlantes, this is a three-quarter length figures. Herms
This is a pedestal with human, animal, or mythological creatures at the top. Terms
A small payer house in Egyptian architecture. Madrassah
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Where "Constructivism"
TRIGGERMAN originated? Moscow Architect, UAP
Expressionist Architect.
414193:05 PM9/19/2014Assimilation ExamSheet2 Erich Mendelsohn Page 9
Founders of the "Art Noveau". Assimilation Exam John Ruskin and William Moris
Combination of the new art and the graphing of the old art. Eclecticism
Return in the use of Roman Orders in modern age. Neo-Classism
Scheme or solution of a problem in architecture. Parti
Architect of the Batasang Pambansa. Felipe Mendoza
Architect of the Philippine Heart Center. George Ramos
Architect of the Rizal Memorial Stadium. Juan Nakpil
The architect of the Quiapo Church before its restoration. Juan Nakpil
Built by the Franciscan priest Fr. Blas dela Madre, this church in Rizal whose design Morong Church
depicts the heavy influence of Spanish Baroque, was declared a national treasure.
This church, 1st built by the Augustinian Fr. Miguel Murguia, has an unusually large bell Panay Capiz
which was made from approximately 70 sacks of coins donated by the towns people.
Architect of SM Megamall. Antonio Sin Diong
Central Bank of the Philippines, Manila. Gabriel Formoso
G.S.I.S. Building, Roxas Boulevard. George Ramos
The tower atop the torogan where the princess and her ladies in waiting hide during Lamin
occasions.
Found in the ground floor of the bahay na bato, it is where the carriages and floats are Zaguan
kept.
The emergency hideout found directly behind the neadboard of the Sultan's bed. Bilik
The flat, open terrace open to the toilet, bath, and kitchen areas and also used as a Azotea
laundry and drying space and service area for the servants.
In the kitchen of the bahay kubo, the table on top of which is the river stone, shoe-shaped Dapogan
stove or kalan is known as ___.
ARCHITECTURAL PLANNING
Assimilation Exam
land use plans and enact them through zoning ordinances. R.A. 7160
Reason for planning. Promote Human Growth
Phrase used to characterize development that meets the needs of the present Sustainable Development
generation without compromising the needs of the future generations.
First Planner and developed the Gridiron. Hippodamus of miletus
A locale with a sizeable agglomeration of people having characteristics of an urban being. City
The main reason why the nomadic existence of early man metamorphosed to village Agricultural Surplus
settlement and later to the birth of cities.
The rough equivalent of the present tenement cities that existed in ancient Rome, which Insula
resulted from the population growth of the city and the congestion that existed in streets.
In urban geography, a concept where urban settlement is confined to the area within the Truebounded City
legal limits of the city and the congestion and virtually all of this area is occupied by
urban residents.
A Land Development Decision is also what kind of decision. Traffic.
The orderly arrangement of urban streets and public spaces. City Planning
He conceptualized the 'City Beautiful Movement'. Daniel Burnham
A tool used to control the manner in which raw kind is subdivided and placed on the Subdivision Regulations
marker for residential development.
A profession which falls between planning and architecture. It deals with the large-scale Urban Design
organization and design of the city, with the massing and organization and the space
between them, but not with the design of the individual buildings.
The science of human settlement. Ekistics
By definition, settlement inhabited by man. Human Settlement
Planning for roads, bridges, schools, parking structures, pubic buildings, water supply, Capital Facilities Planning
and waste disposal facilities.
The container of man, which consists of both the natural and man-made or artificial Physical Settlement
element.
A spatial organization concept a general view of the pattern of land use in a city Concentric Zone Concept
developed by Ernest W. Burgess. The city is conceived as a series of five concentric
zones with the cores as the central business district and fanning out from which are the
residential and commuter zones.
The remaining space in a lot after deducting the required minimum open spaces. Buildable Area
A habitable room for 1 family only with facilities for living, sleeping, cooking, and eating. Dwelling Unit
This is a type of a retaining wall made of rectangular baskets made of galvanized steel Gabion Wall
wire or pvc coated wire hexagonal mesh which are filled with stones to form a wall.
A very steep slope of rock or clay. Cliff
A piece of grassy land, especially one used for growing hay or as pasture for grazing Meadow
animals; low grassy land near a river or stream.
A long, narrow chain of hills or mountains. Ridge
A long, deep, narrow valley eroded by running water. Ravine
On land, an encumbrance limiting its use, usually imposed for community or mutual Restriction
protection.
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Of land,TRIGGERMAN
a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, which is subject to a Parcel Architect, UAP
single ownership,
4141113:05and which is legally recorded
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In landscaping, ground cover is represented by ___. Assimilation Exam Grass and Plants
The art of arranging buildings and other structures in harmony with the landscape. Site Planning
The study of the dynamic relationship between a community of organisms and its habitat. Ecology
Preparations of an accurate base map for urban planning starts with ___. Accurate Aerial Mosaic
Appraisal of adequacy of a city's water and sewer systems needs of future land uses are Comprehensive Plan
embodied in the ___.
Also called the blood-stream of a city. Transportation System
A form of absence of all the principles and organized development of a community. Urban Blight
The city of Washington conforms to the plan type of ___. Star
An efficient and rapid transport system for automobiles to circulate across urban to urban Freeways
areas.
A monument, fixed object, or marker used to designate the location of a land boundary on Landmark
the ground.
A narrow passageway bordered by trees, fences, or other lateral barrier Lane
The projection of a future pattern of use within an area, as determined by development Land-use Plan
goals.
The part of the surface of the earth not permanently covered by water. Land
A line of demarcation between adjoining parcels of land. Land Boundary
A survey of landed property establishing or reestablishing lengths and directions of Land Survey
boundary line.
The study of an existing pattern of use, within an area, to determine the nature and Land-use Analysis
magnitude of deficiencies which might exist and to assess the potential of the pattern
relative to development goals.
A study and recording of the way in which land is being used in an area. Land-use Survey
In surveying, the North-South component of a traverse course. Latitude
An open space of ground of some size, covered with grass and kept smoothly mown. Lawn
A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed Lease
period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'.
A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. Leasehold
BUILDING UTILITIES
The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of a substance Latent Heat
without changing its temperature.
A system of devices, usually installed below ground level, to scatter or spray water Lawn Sprinkler System
droplets over a lawn, golf course, or the like.
Minimum width of a septic tank. 90 cms.
Minimum length of a septic tank. 1.50 mts.
Minimum liquid depth for a septic tank. 60 cms.
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Maximum liquid depth for septic tank.
TRIGGERMAN 1.80 mts. Architect, UAP
Minimum capacity, PM9/19/2014Assimilation
4141133:05 in cubic meters, of the secondary compartment of a septic tank.
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Minimum dimension of a manhole access to a septic tank. 508 mm.
Minimum length of the secondary compartment of a septic tank with a capacity of more 1.50 mts.
than 6 cubic meters.
Wooden septic tanks are allowed, true or false. FALSE
Minimum distance of a water supply well from a septic tank. 15.20 mts.
Minimum distance of a water supply well from a seepage pit or cesspool. 45.70 mts.
Minimum distance of a water supply well from a disposal field. 30.50 mts.
Minimum Gauge of galvanized sheet used for downspouts. 26
Minimum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. 51 mm.
Maximum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. 102 mm.
Maximum length of the tailpiece from any fixture. 60 cms.
Minimum extension of the VSTR above the roof. 15 cms.
Minimum extension of the VSTR above an openable window, door opening, air intake, 0.90 mtr.
or vent shaft.
Minimum trap diameter for a bathtub 38 mm. (11/2")
Minimum trap diameter for a shower stall. 51 mm. (2")
Required number of water closets for females for an auditorium serving 16-35. 3
Required number of water closets for males for an auditorium serving 16-35. 2
Required number of urinals for an auditorium serving 10-50. 1
Required number of water closets for females for a theater serving 51-100. 4
Classifications of copper pipes. Rigid and Flexible
A rough or sharp edge left on metal by a cutting tool. Burr
Two types of passenger elevator. Electric and Hydraulic
Minimum elevator width of single slide door elevator for small commercial or residential 0.60 mtr.
building.
A device that is basically a double throw switch of generally 3-pole connection that will Automatic Transfer Switch (ATS)
automatically transfer the power from the standby generator to the building circuitry
during electrical power failure.
Term applied to the interconnection of the same fixtures in one soil or waste branch with Battery of Fixtures
one branch vent.
A single vent that ventilates multiple traps in the case of a back to back vent. Common Vent
Minimum size of a standpipe for a building in which the highest outlet is 23 meters or less 4" (102mm)
from the fire service connection.
Minimum size of a wet standpipe for a riser of more than 15 meters from the source. 4" (102mm)
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Single lever valves used in kitchen sink and lavatory faucets or at shower valves works by
TRIGGERMAN Ball Valve Architect, UAP
the principle of a ___.
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Heat rating for a fixed temperature heat detector. Assimilation Exam 135-197˚F
Reference in measuring the depth of a trap seal of a trap. Top Dip to Crown Weir
A pipe fitting shaped like 'S'. Double Bend
Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a shower stall. 2"
Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a pedestal urinal. 3"
Ratio of water closets for male population for elementary and secondary school. (1:30)
Ratio of water closets for female population for elementary and secondary school. (1:25)
Ratio of urinals for elementary school. (1:75)
Ratio of water closets for female population for Principal Worship Places. (1:75)
Minimum required number of water closets for female for office and public buildings 4
serving 55 occupants for employees.
Where there is exposure to skin contamination due to poisonous materials, what is the (1:5)
ratio of lavatory to number of occupants.
Minimum head of water, in meters, required for each section of plumbing for water test. 3
How many days, at least, shall be given before any plumbing work inspection is done 3
after written notice for inspection.
Minimum time, in minutes, required for water to stay in the system or pipes for a water 15 minutes
test without any leaks to satisfy said testing.
Consist of a body, a checking member, and an atmospheric opening. Atmospheric Vacuum Breaker
Minimum lead content in percent for pipes and fittings safe for humans. 8%
Minimum vertical distance from the bottom of water pipes to the top of sewer or drain pipe 300 mm
if laid in the same trench on top of the other.
Minimum distance of water pipings from any regulating equipment, water heater, 300 mm
conditioning tanks, and similar equipment requiring union fittings.
Maximum spacing of pipe supports at intervals. 4'
Equivalent of 1/6 bend in degrees. 60˚
True or false, 60˚ branches or offsets may be used only when installed in a true vertical TRUE
position.
Cleanouts may be omitted on a horizontal drain less than 1.5 meters in length unless TRUE
such line is serving sinks or urinals, true or false.
Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes 51mm or less in diameter. 0.305 mtr. / 305 mm
Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes larger than 51 mm. Dia. 0.45 mtr. / 450 mm
Maximum distance of any underfloor cleanout from any access door, crawl space, or 6.10 mts.
crawl hole.
Maximum length of a tailpiece. 600 mm
Minimum length of any branch requiring separate venting. 4.60 mts.
True or false, no galvanized wrought iron or galvanized steel pipe shall be used TRUE
underground and shall be kept at least 15 cms above ground.
Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above the roof. 150 mm / 15 cms.
Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above any other vertical surface. 300 mm
Minimum vertical distance of VSTR from above of any openable window or opening. 0.90 mtr.
Minimum vertical extension of VSTR from any roofdeck where it is protruded. 2.10 mts.
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Minimum horizontal distance of any VSTR from a roofdeck used for other purposes aside
TRIGGERMAN 3.00 mts. Architect, UAP
from protection from
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Minimum number of stories served by a waste stack requiring a parallelExam
ventstack. 10
The rate of flow of light through a surface. Luminous Flux
The luminous intensity of any surface in a given direction per unit of projected area. Luminance
A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square foot. Foot-Candle
A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square meter. Lux
Type of lighting system where 90-100% of light output is directed to the ceiling and upper Indirect Lighting
walls of the room.
The material used for filament in an incandescent bulb. Tungsten
The equivalent of filament in a fluorescent lamp. Cathode
An automatic device used for converting high, fluctuating inlet water pressure to a lower Pressure Regulating Valve
constant pressure.
An air-operated device used to open or close a damper or valve. Air Motor
In theater stage house, a weight usually of iron or sand used to balance suspended Counterweight
scenery, or the like.
On elevators, a gear-driven machine having a drum to which the wire ropes that hoist the Winding-Drum Machine
car are fastened, and on which they wind.
Vertical tracks that serves as a guide for the car and the counterweight. Guiderails
Under NBC, the clearance between the underside of the car and the bottom of the pit 600 mm
shall not be less than ___.
Under NBC, the minimum diameter of hoisting and counterweight rope. 30 mm
Under NBC, the minimum width between balusters in an escalator. 558 mm
Under NBC, the maximum rated speed of an escalator along the angle of travel. 38 Meters/Min
The effective room temperature in air-conditioning. 68-74 ˚F
A private telephone system that interconnects with public telephone systems. PABX
Resistance in alternating current system. Impedance
The reciprocal of conductance. Resistance
The rate of flow of sound energy Sound Intensity
Lighting used primarily to draw attention to particular points of interest. Accent Lighting
A means of producing light from gaseous discharge. Fluorescense
A type of High-Intensity-Discharge lamp (HID). High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
Sound system input device that reacts to and converts variable sound pressure into Microphone
variable electrical current.
A rate of rise type detector. Thermal Detector
Light originating from sources not facing each other, as from windows in adjacent walls. Cross Light
The process of removing calcium and magnesium deposits in water. Softening
A lighting unit consisting of one or more electrical lamps. Luminaire
A louvered construction divided into cell-like areas and used for redirecting the light Eggcrate
emitted by an overhead source.
A graph used in air-conditioning and showing the properties of air-system mixtures. Psychrometric Chart
Heat that raises air temperature. Sensible Heat
The transmission of heat energy from one place to another by circulatory movement of a Convection
mass of fluid.
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
A lamp designed to project and diffuse a uniform level of illumination over a large area.
TRIGGERMAN Floodlight Architect, UAP
In boilers, they function
4141183:05 only when exceeds prescribed
PM9/19/2014Assimilation ExamSheet2 unsafe operating conditions. Limit Controls and Interlocks
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Assimilation Exam
What type of sound absorbent is best for lower band frequencies. Porous Absorbents
The bending of sound wave when traveling forward changes direction as it passes through Refraction
different densities.
True or false, number of fixture unit is one parameter in sizing a drainage pipe. TRUE
Water distribution system which constantly rely its pressure from the main water pipe Upfeed System / Direct Method
applied only if the highest fixture is supplied continuously with the flow rate and minimum
required working pressure.
What combination of pipe fittings is installed at the base of a soil stack? Wye and 1/8 Bend
What is the rating index of an air-conditioning/refrigeration system which rates the unit for Energy Efficiency Rating (EER)
the number of BTU's of heat removed per watt of electrical input energy?
What mechanical equipment, coupled with a central air-conditioning system, is used to Fan Coil Unit
to dehumidify and cool the air stream injected to a conditioned space.
A rigid metal housing for a group of heavy conductors insulated from each other and the Busway
enclosure, also called Busduct.
A heavy conductor, usually in the form of a solid copper bar, used for collecting, carrying, Bus
and distributing large electric currents, also called a busbar.
An approved assembly of insulated conductors with fitting and conductor terminations in Busway
completely enclosed ventilated protective metal housing where the assembly is designed
to carry fault current and to withstand the magnetic forces of such current.
A type of perimeter detector which detects object in heat range of body temperature. Passive Infrared
A type of perimeter detector which detects interruption of light beam. Light Beam
A type of perimeter detector which detects change in sound wave pattern. Ultrasonic
Women's urinal fixture. Washdown
True or false, brass and cast iron body cleanouts shall not be used as a reducer or TRUE
adapter.
A box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining one different runs of Pull Box
raceways or cables and provided with sufficient space for connection and branching of the
enclosed conductors.
A type of water closet that is least efficient, subject to clogging, noisy, and use a simple Washdown (WD)
washout action through a small irregular passageway.
This type of water closet is similar to that of the siphon-jet except that it has a smaller Reverse Trap (RT)
trap passageway and smaller water surface area, moderately noisy.
A type of water closet that is noisy but highly efficient. Strong jet into up leg forces Blowout (BO)
contents out. Use only with flush valve, requires higher pressure.
Water closet that is quiet, extremely sanitary, water is directed through the rim. It scours Siphon Vortex (SV)
bowl, folds over into jet; siphon.
A water closet that is sanitary, efficient, and very quiet. Water enters through the rim and Siphon Jet (SJ)
through the down leg.
A toilet bowl similar to the siphon-jet, but having the flushing water directed to the rim to Siphon Vortex (SV)
create circular motion or vortex which scours the bowl.
A toilet bowl in which the flushing water enters through the rim and a siphonic action Siphon Jet (SJ)
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
initiatedTRIGGERMAN
by a water jet draws the contents of the bowl through the trapway. Architect, UAP
A water 4141193:05
closet similar to that of the siphon jetExamSheet2
PM9/19/2014Assimilation but with a smaller water surface and Reverse Trap (RT) Page 19
This type of water closet is prohibited by some health codes. Washdown (WD)
The concussion and banging noise that results when a volume of water moving in a pipe Water Hammer
suddenly stops or loses momentum.
The length of a pipeline measured along the centerline of the pipe and pipe fittings. Developed Length
A shutoff valve closed by lowering a wedge-shaped gate across the passage. Gate Valve
A valve closed by a disk seating on an opening in an internal wall. Globe Valve
Liquid sewage that has been treated in a septic tank or sewage treatment plant. Effluent
The centerline of pipe. Spring Line
The interior top surface of a pipe. Crown
The interior bottom surface of a pipe. Invert
A type of perimeter detector which is subject to false alarm from aircraft radar and from Microwave
movement outside building through window, wood doors, and the like. It uses radio waves.
This type of perimeter detector uses both the Passive infrared and Ultrasonic or Passive Infrared with
Microwave system. Ultrasonic (or Microwave)
This type of perimeter detector detects a change in capacitance of the area covered, Proximity / Capacitance
caused by intrusion.
Color code for pipes containing acid. Black
A high intensity discharge lamp in which the light is produced by the radiation from a Metal Halide Lamp
mixture of a metallic vapor, similar to that of a mercury lamp in construction.
A type of lamp popular for lighting commercial interiors, uses argon gas to ease starting, Mercury Lamp
it produces light by means of an electric discharge in mercury vapor.
A type of lamp which produces light by means of the reaction of halogen additive in the Tungsten Halogen Lamp
bulb reacts with chemically with tungsten.
A type of lamp generally used for roadways and sidewalks, uses sodium gas. High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
Building with fire alarm and suppression system. Intelligent Building
This shows the vertical relationships of all panels, feeders, switches, switchboards, and Riser Diagram
major components are shown up to, but not including, branch circuiting, it is an electrical
version of a vertical section taken through the building.
In elevator, it detects the obstacles during the door closing, and reopens the door if there Safety Shoe
is something. Photocell can be used together with this.
It prevents passengers from falling into the hoistway when they try to get out Fascia Plate
of the car which is stopped between the floors.
In elevator, it makes the buzzer alarm when the car is overloaded and the door remains Weighing Device
open until overloading is eliminated.
In elevator, it protects the equipment from over current. Circuit Breaker
In elevator, these prevent the excessive car travel at the highest and lowest floor. Limit Switches
In escalators, these stop the escalator if a foreign object becomes wedged at the guard. Handrail Guard Switches
In escalators, this is located at the bottom truss of the escalator and provided with on and Disconnect Switch
off positions to stop or prevents the escalator from starting during maintenance service.
This device, in escalators, is provided at the drive unit location to protect against Mechanical
accidental movement of the escalator during inspection of the drives or during general Maintenance
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
maintenance.
TRIGGERMAN Locking Device Architect, UAP
This device, in escalators,
4141203:05 stops the escalator
PM9/19/2014Assimilation automatically if an abnormal current is
ExamSheet2 Current Overload Safety
Page Switch
20
This switch cuts off all current supply to the escalator for inspection, maintenance, or Knife Switch
repairs.
In a lightning protection system, the combination of a metal rod and its brace or footing, Air Terminal
on the upper part of a structure.
One of the earlier plastic to be developed in 1938, a du pont trade name for the white, Teflon
soft, waxy, and non-adhesive polymer of tetrafluoroethylene.
The number of cycles per unit time of a wave or oscillations expressed in hertz of cycles Frequency
per second.
Of a partition, the number of decibels by which sound is reduced in transmission through Transmission Loss
it; a measure of the sound insulation value of the partition, the higher the number, the
greater the insulation value.
The cooling effect obtained when 1 ton of ice at 32 oF (0 oC) melts to water at the same Ton of Refrigeration
tmeperature in 24 hrs. (equivalent to 12,000 Btu/hr)
AS - STRUCTURAL
Assimilation Exam
parallel to the direction of resistance under consideration.
The secondary effect on shears and moments of frame members induced by the P-delta Effect
vertical loads acting on the laterally displaced building frame.
Material other than water, aggregate, or hydraulic cement, used as an ingredient of Admixture
concrete and added to concrete before or during its mixing to modify its properties.
Concrete that does not conform to definition of reinforced concrete. Plain Concrete
Upright compression member with a ratio of unsupported height to average least lateral Pedestal
dimension of less than three.
Ratio of normal stress to corresponding strain for tensile or compressive stresses below Modulus of Elasticity
proportional limit of material.
In prestressed concrete, temporary force exerted by device that introduces tension into Jacking Force
prestressing tendons.
Length of embedded reinforcement provided beyond a critical section. Embedment Length
Stress remaining in prestressing tendons after all losses have occurred, excluding effects Effective Prestress
of dead load and superimposed loads.
Length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of Development Length
reinforcement at a critical section.
Friction resulting from bends or curves in the specified prestressing tendon profile. Curvature Friction
Concrete containing lightweight aggregate. Structural Lightweight Concrete
prestressing tendon that is bonded to concrete either directly or through grouting. Bonded Tendon
ASTM A36 Structural Steel
High-Yield Strength Quenched and Tempered Alloy Steel Plate, Suitable for Welding. ASTM A514
True or False, Bar larger than 32mm in diameter shall not be bundled in beams. TRUE
Minimum concrete cover for a Prestressed concrete for beams and columns for 40 mm
primary reinforcements.
In a material under tension or compression, the absolute value of the ratio of transverse Poisson's Ratio
strain to the corresponding longitudinal strain.
In column, the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration. Slenderness Ratio
A quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line. Torsion
A type of concrete floor which has no beam. Flat Slab
The tendency for one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an adjacent part. Shear
A change in shape of a material when subjected to the action of force. Deformation
The maximum value of tension, compression, or shear respectively the material sustain Yielding Stress
without failure.
It means that by which a body develops internal resistance to 'stress'. Stress
The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without permanent Allowable Stress
deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress.
Intensity of force per unit area. Stress
Loop of reinforcing bar or wire enclosing longitudinal reinforcement. Tie / Stirrup
The measure of stiffness of a material. Stiffness Ratio
The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through it. Punching Shear
The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting on it. Deflection
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
NominalTRIGGERMAN
thickness of of a timber. 6 inches Architect, UAP
The sum4141233:05
of forces in the othorgonal directions
PM9/19/2014Assimilation and the sum of all moments about any
ExamSheet2 Equilibrium Page 23
The complete records of tests conducted (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be 2 years
preserved and made available for inspection during the progress of construction and after
completion of the project for a period of not less than.
Wood board should have a thickness specification of. not less than 1"X4"
The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight. Run
A high-speed rotary shaping had power tool used to make smooth cutting and curving Portable Hand router
on solid wood.
The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system. Girder
Wood defects are: heart shake, cup shake, star shake, and___. Knots
Dressed lumber is referred to ___. Smoothed or planed lumber
The other kind of handsaw other than rip-cut saw. Cross-cut saw
It refers to the occupancy load which is either partially or fully in place or may not be Live load
present at all.
The distance between inflection points in the column when it breaks. Effective length
The amount of space measured in cubic units. Volume
In the formula e=PL/AE, E stands for___. Modulus of Elasticity
An expansion joint of adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected movements Contraction joint
between them.
the total of all tread widths in a stair. Total run
The force adhesion per unit area of contact between two bonded surfaces. Bond Stress
A structural member spanning from truss to truss or supporting a rafter. Purlin
Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. Size of Dead Load Defelection
A connector such as a welded strut, spiral bar, or short length of channel which resists Shear Connector
horizontal shear between elements.
The force per unit area of cross section which tends to produce shear. Shear Stress / Shearing Stress
Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. Size of Dead Load Defelection
The law that relates the linear relationship between stresses and strains Hook's Law
Minimum spacing of Bolts in timber connectionn measured from center of bolts parallel 4 X diameter of bolt
for parallel to grain loading is equal to ___.
According to the provisions of the NSCP on timber connections and fastenings, the 4 X diameter of bolt
lodaed edge distance for perpendicular to grain loading shall be at least ___.
NSCP specifies spacing between rows of bolts for perpendicular to grain loading shall be 2.5
at least ___ times bolt diameter for L/d ratio of 2.
Minimum diameter of bolts to be used in timber connections and fastening in accordance 12 mm
with NSCP specifications.
Simple solid timber columns have slenderness ratio not exceeding ___. 50
Nails or spikes for which the wire gauges or lengths not set forth in the NSCP 11 diameters
specifications shall have a required penetration of not less than ___.
Notches in sawn lumber bending members in accordance with the NSCP specifications 1/6 depth of member
shall not exceed.
Notches in sawn lumber shall not be located in the ___. Middle Third Span
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
NotchesTRIGGERMAN
in the top and bottom of joists shall not exceed ___. 1/4 the depth Architect, UAP
Allowable stresses PM9/19/2014Assimilation
4141243:05 for tension in structural steel in terms of gross area.
ExamSheet2 0.60 of specified min.Page
yield
24stress
Assimilation
Allowable tensile stress of structural steel based on effective area. Exam 0.50 of specified minimum
tensile strength
Allowable stress for tension on pin connected members based on net area. 0.45 Fy
Allowable shear stress on structural steel on the cross sectional area effective in 0.40 Fy
resisting shear.
For structures carrying live loads which induce impact, the assumed live load shall be 100%
increased sufficiently to provide for same, for supports of elevators the increase shall be.
The slenderness ratio of compression members shall not exceed ___. 200
The slenderness ratio main members in tension shall not exceed ___. 240
Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete 40 mm
exposed to earth or weather.
Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete 20 mm
not exposed to earth or weather.
Curing of concrete (other than high-early strength) shall be maintained above 10°C and 7
in moist condition for at least the first ___ days after placement.
If concrete in structure will dry under service conditions, cores shall be air-dried for ___ 7
days before test and shall be tested dry.
Curing for high-early strength concrete shall be maintained above 10°C and in moist 3
condition for at least the ___ days after palcement.
The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in layer shall be db (diameter of bar) 25 mm
but not less than ___.
Standard hooks used in reinforced concrete beam shall mean. 180° bend + 4db extension
but not less than 65mm at free
end of bar
Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 16mm bar and smaller. 90° bend + 6db extension
at free end
Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 20-25mmbar. 90° bend + 12db extension
at free end
Allowable tolerance on minimum concrete cover for depths greater than 200mm –12 mm
Allowable tolerance for longitudinal location of bends and ends of reinforcement. ± 50 mm
Individual bars with a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall 40db
teminate at different points with a stagger of at least ___.
Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less 3db
than ___ for strands.
Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less 4db
than ___ for wire.
Minimum concrete cover provided for reinforcement of cast in place against permanently 75 mm
exposed to earth or weather using bars larger than 36mm.
Assimilation Exam
Minimum open space requirement for a corner lot. Assimilation Exam 10% of lot area
Minimum size of thread for an entrance or exit step. 300 mm
Maximum slope for an entrance or exit ramp. One is to ten (1:10)
Minimum number of steps for an entrance or exit stair. 2
Standard turn circle of a wheelchair. 1.50 mts.
Office building parking ratio. 1:125 sqm. Of gross floor area
Standard size of a perpendicular parking slot. 2.40 X 5.00 mts.
Hotel building parking ratio. 1:10 bedrooms
Hospital building parking ratio. 1:25 beds
Maximum distance of a handicapped parking from the facility being served. 60.00 mts.
Colleges and university parking ratio. 1:5 classrooms
Theaters, cinemas, auditoria, and stadia parking ratio. 1:50 sqm. Of spectators' area
Minimum number of wheelchair seating space for 51-300 seating capacity for auditoriums. 4
Minimum width of a dropped curb. 0.90 mtr.
Minimum Dimensions of an accessible elevator. 1.10 X 1.40 mts.
Maximum distance of an accessible elevator from the entrance of a building. 30.00 mts.
Minimum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortable. 1.40 mts.
Minimum door width for an accessible elevator. 0.80 mtr.
Minimum dimensions for an accessible water closet stall. 1.70 X 1.80 mts.
Maximum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortably. 1.60 mts.
Minimum width of a parking slot for the disabled. 3.70 mts.
Minimum run of a stair for Group A dwellings (residential) 200 mm
Minimum ceiling height from 3rd floor to succeeding floors with artificial ventilation. 2.10 mts.
Minimum area of rooms for human habitation. 6.00 sqm.
Least dimension of rooms for human habitation. 2.00 mts.
Least dimension of an air duct. 300 mm
Maximum encroachment into a public sidewalk of a foundation at least 600 mm below 500 mm
the grade line.
Minimum width of an exit door. 0.90 mts.
Maximum width reduced by handrails and doors fully opened to balconies and 200 mm
corridors
Minimum width of stairs serving more than 50 occupants. 1.10 mts.
Minimum width of stairs serving less than 10 occupants. 750 mm
Maximum reduction in width of a stair due to trims and handrails. 100 mm
Minimum run of a winding stair. 150 mm
Maximum run of a winding stair. 300 mm
Allowable tolerance in the rise and run of every step. 5 mm
Width of stair requiring an intermediate handrail. 3.00 mts.
Minimum width of an aisle serving both sides. 1.00 mts.
Maximum number of seats between the wall and the aisle. 7
Maximum distance between the back of each seat to the front of the seat behind it. 300 mm
Maximum width of seat in a stand. 480 mm
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Maximum projection of a penthouse or other projections above the roof.
TRIGGERMAN 8.40 mts Architect, UAP
Maximum ratio of aPM9/19/2014Assimilation
4141283:05 penthouse area to that of the supporting roof.
ExamSheet2 one third (1/3) Page 28
Assimilation
Unit area per occupant for stores - retail sales rooms upper floors. Exam 5.60 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for nurseries for children. 3.25 sqm.
Unit area for stores -retail sales room for basement and ground floor. 2.80 sqm.
Unit area for hospitals and sanitaria. 8.40 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for aircraft hangars without repairs. 46.50 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for warehouses and mechanical equipment room. 28.00 sqm.
Unit area per occupant for theaters and the like. 0.65 sqm.
Parking requirement for Hotels. 1 slot/5 rooms
Parking requirement for public assembly buildings such as cinemas, auditoria, theaters, 1 slot/50 sqm. Of spectators' area
and the like.
Parking requirement for multi family living unit of 50 sqm floor area. 1slot/8 units
Parking requirement for multi family living unit above 100 sqm floor area. 1 slot/unit
Parking requirement for multi family living unit for 50-100 sqm floor area. 1 slot/4 units
Parking requirement for clubhouses, beach houses, and the like. 1 slot/100 sqm of gross flr.area
Parking requirement for motels. 1 slot/unit
Minimum parking requirement for the handicapped. 1 slot/50 parking slots
Parking requirement for colleges and universities. 1 slot/5 classrooms
Parking requirement for elementary, secondary, and vocational schools. 1 slot/10 classrooms
In BP344, the required width of a corridor. 1.20 mts.
Maximum slope of a drop curb towards the street. 1:20
Maximum slope of a drop curb towards adjoining curb. 1:12
Maximum spacing for wheelchair turnabouts. 12.00 mts.
Maximum slope of a ramp. 1:12
Maximum distance of handicapped parking from the structure served. 60.00 mts.
Preferred width of corridor for the disabled. 1.50 mts.
Maximum height of a water closet from the floor. 0.50 mts.
Preferred height of switches from the floor. 1.10 mts.
Minimum height of a switch from the floor. 0.90 mts.
Maximum height of a switch from the floor. 1.20 mts.
Least dimension for a parking slot for the disabled. 3.70 mts.
In BP344, the minimum height of a handrail. 0.70 mtr.
Maximum length of a ramp for wheelchair. 6.00 mts.
Minimum length of a ramp landing for wheelchairs. 1.50 mts.
One or more habitable rooms which are occupied or which are intended or designated to Dwelling unit
be occupied by one family with facilities for cooking , sleeping, living, and eating.
That portion of the foundation of a structure which spreads and transmits loads directly Footing
to the ground or soil.
A continuous horizontal layer of masonry units. Course
A room or suite of two or more rooms, designed and intended for , or occupied by one Apartment
family for living, sleeping, eating, and cooking purposes.
A stationary open hearth or brazier, either fuel-fired or electric, used for food preparation. Barbecue
A portion of the seating space of an assembly room, the lowest part of which is raised Balcony
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
1.20 mtsTRIGGERMAN
or more above the level of the main floor. Architect, UAP
The pipe4141303:05
which connects a flue-burning appliance
PM9/19/2014Assimilation to a chimney.
ExamSheet2 Chimney connector Page 30
Assimilation
Percentage required for number of parking if parking garages Exam
are available within 200 20%
meters of structure.
Parking requirement for amusement centers. 1/50 sqm of gross floor area
Parking requirement for markets. 1/150 sqm of shopping flr area
Parking requirement for neigborhood shopping centers. 1/100 sqm of shopping flr area
Parking requirement for multi-family living units of more than 100 sqm of living unit area. 1/living unit
Parking requirement for multi-family living units of up to 50 sqm of living unit area. 1/8 living units
Parking requirement for places of worhip. 1/50 sqm of congregation are
Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of over 3 meters but not more than 6 mts. 0.60 mtr.
Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of 10 mts to less than 11 mts in width. 1.00 mtr.
Maximum height of 1st the floor for a 2-story wood structure with a height of 7 mts. 4.50 mts.
Maximum spacing of posts for 2-story wooden structure with a height of 8 mts. 4.50 mts.
Under what classification of occupancy does fences of over 1.80 mts in height fall? Accessory
Under what classification of occupancy does Aircraft repair hangars fall? Storage and hazardous
Under what classification of occupancy does factories and workshops using Industrial
incombustible and non-explosive materials.
Under what classification of occupancy does wood working establishements fall? Storage and hazardous
Under what classification of occupancy does police and fire stations fall? Business and mercantile
Standard length of a Wheelchair. 1.10 - 1.30 mts.
Standard width of a wheelchair. 0.60 - 0.75 mts.
How many meters above the floor is the comfortable reach of persons confined to a 0.70 - 1.20 mts.
wheelchair.
How many meterd is the comfortable clearance for knee and leg space under tables for 0.74 mts.
wheelchair users.
Accessibility, reachability, usability, orientation, workability and efficiency, and ___ are Safety
the basic planning requirements of BP344.
Number of wheelchair seating for an assembly seating capacity of 51-300. 4
R.A. 7277 Magna Carta for Disabled
Persons
A long interior passageway providing access to several rooms. Corridor
A raised rim of concrete, stone or metal which forms the edge of street, sidewalk, etc. Curb
Assimilation Exam
Number of exits for place of assembly for 1000 occupants 4
Travel distance to an exit without fire sprinkler system. 46.00 mts.
Travel distance to an exit with fire sprinkler system. 61.00 mts.
Minimum spacing of rows of seats from back to back for a public assembly building. 0.83 mtr.
Maximum number of seats in a row in between aisles. 14
Maximum number of seats in a row opening on to an aisle at one side. 7
Standard width of a seat without dividing arms for places of assembly. 60 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60. 91 cms.
Minimum headroom created by any projection from the ceiling. 2.00 mts.
Minimum clear width of turnstiles. 56 cms.
Minimum dimension of landings in direction of travel for class A & B stairs. 112 cms.
Minimum number of risers in any one (1) flight of stairs. 3
Minimum height of a handrail above the upper surface of the tread. 76 cms.
Minimum clearance of a handrail from any wall. 38 mm.
Minimum height of a guard rail. 91 cms.
Maximum height of a guard rail. 106 cms.
Minimum inner radius of a monumental stair. 7.50 mts.
Minimum width of any balcony or bridge. 112 cms.
Minimum width of a class A ramp. 112 cms.
Maximum rise of any floor from the balcony floor to which an access door leads. 20.3 cms
Maximum vertical height in floors for an escalator. 1floor
Minimum width of a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
Minimum width of landing for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 15.25 cms.
Maximum rise of fire escape stair for a small building. 30.5 cms.
Maximum rise of fire escape stair for existing stairs. 22.9 cms.
Maximum height between landings for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 3.66 mts.
Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 2.13 mts.
Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 1.98 mts.
Number of exits for place of assembly for 600-1000 occupants. 3
Maximum occupant load for a class C public assembly. 50-300
Minimum number of exit for an Institutional type of structure. 2
Maximum travel distance between room door intended as exit access and exit with 30 mts.
sprinkler system for institutional use.
Maximum travel distance from the door of any room to exit for hotels with sprinkler. 30 mts.
Maximum travel distance from the main entrance door to exit for apartments with sprinkler. 31 mts.
Minimum increase in width for an aisle per linear meter. 2.5 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving one side for a 91 cms.
public assembly building.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving two sides for a 1.00 mtr.
public assembly building.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of below 60 for a public assembly building. 76 cms.
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Minimum width of an aisle for an educational use building.
TRIGGERMAN 1.80 mts. Architect, UAP
Minimum width of an
4141333:05 aisle for hospitals or nursing
PM9/19/2014Assimilation homes.
ExamSheet2 2.44 mts. Page 33
Minimum width of an aisle for custodial care institutions.Assimilation Exam 1.83 mts.
Minimum width of an aisle for business use structure. 112 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle for an industrial building. 112 cms.
Occupant load per person for laboratories. 4.60 sqm.
Jails are classified under what classification of occupancy. Institutional
Courtrooms with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what Assembly
classification of occupancy.
Armories with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification Assembly
of occupancy
Libraries are classified under what classification of occupancy. Business
Rooms where baled, bundled or piled materials segregated into desired sizes or groups. Picking rooms.
Buildings or structures 15 meters or more in height. High rise building
Buildings or structures used for the storage of explosives, shells, projectile, etc. Explosive magazine
An air compartment or chamber to which 1 or more ducts are connected and which form Plenum
part of an air distribution system.
A kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by percussion. Fulminate
Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air. Phyrophoric
A material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support Oxidizing material
combustion.
A process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its shape and dimension. Forging
The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from the less Distillation
volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the result vapor so as to produce a nearly
purified substance.
A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the proper proportion and Dust
ignited will cause an explosion.
Temperature rating at flash point. 37.8 oC (100 oF)
A class of fire with flammable liquid and gasses. Class B
The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted into vapor. Boiling Point
Minimum fire resistance rating for a firewall. 4 hrs.
A continuous passageway for the transmission of air. Duct System
The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient Flash Point
concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air.
A gas, fume or vapor used for the destruction or control of insects, fungi, vermin, germs, Fumigant
rodents or other pests.
Minimum width of any driveway in and around a lumber yard / piles. 4.50 mts.
Minimum height of fence for a lumber yard for exterior storage of lumbers. 1.80 mts.
Maximum width of sumps for the retention of oil and petroleum products. 3.70 mts.
For Refineries, distilleries, and chemical plants, the minimum height for a fence. 1.50 mts.
Minimum travel distance from any individual room subject to occupancy by not more 15.00 mts.
6 persons.
Maximum distance of travel from the high hazard area to an exit. 23.00 mts.
Minimum distance of an incinerator from any structure used other than a single family 3.00 mts.
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
dwelling.TRIGGERMAN Architect, UAP
Maximum reductionPM9/19/2014Assimilation
4141343:05 in width of a stair by a handrail.
ExamSheet2 9 cms. Page 34
Minimum door width of a single door in a door way. Assimilation Exam 71 cms.
Maximum change in elevation between the interior of a door to the outside of it other than 20.5 cms.
a balcony.
Maximum force in kilograms required for a panic hardware. 7 kgs.
Maximum height required for a panic hardware installation. 112 cms.
Minimum height required for a panic hardware installation. 76 cms.
Maximum number of occupant for a subdivided room or space by a folding partition. 20
Minimum width of a door for family day care homes. 61 cms.
Minimum stair width for a class B stair serving an occupant load of less than 50. 91 cms.
Length of a nosing or effective projection over the level immediately below it for tread 25 mm
below 25 cms in dimension.
Maximum height of a handrail. 86.5 cms.
A combustible liquid is any liquid having a flash point at or above. 37.8 oC (100 oF)
The time duration that a material or construction can withstand the effect of standard Fire resistance rating
fire test is known as.
Any material which by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements Cryogenic
produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surrounding.
Classified as mercantile occupancies, the travel distance from exits shall be. 30.50 mts.
Under what classification of occupancy does pool rooms fall. Assembly
Under what classification of occupancy does home for the aged fall. Institutional
Under what classification of occupancy does court houses fall. Business
Under what classification of occupancy does refineries fall. Industrial
Under what classification of occupancy does drugstores fall. Mercantile
Minimum width of an aisle in a store for mercantile occupancies. 71 cms.
Minimum number of aisles for Class 'A' stores. 1
Minimum clear width of aisles for a Class 'A' store. 1.50 mts.
Minimum clear width of an exit access through a covered mall. 3.66 mts.
Minimum height of buildings requiring automatic sprinkler protection. 15 mts.
Standard inner radius of a curved stair in business occupancies. 763 cms.
Maximum height of riser for Class 'A' stairs. 19 cms.
Maximum height of riser for Class 'B' Stairs. 20 cms.
Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving more than 50 persons. 112 cms.
Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving 50 persons and below. 91 cms.
Maximum horizontal projection of a handrail over a stair. 38 mm.
Minimum width of a stair width for Class 'A' stairs. 25 mm.
Maximum height between landings for a Class 'B' stairs. 3.70 mts.
Minimum width of landings in direction of travel for Class 'A / B' stairs. 112 cms.
Minimum width of Class 'A' ramp. 112 cms.
Minimum width of Class 'B' ramp. 76 cms.
Standard slope of Class 'B' ramp in percentage. 10-17%
Maximum height between landings for Class 'A' ramp. No limit
Maximum height between landings for Class 'B' ramp. 3.66 mts.
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
Minimum width of ramps of 3 stories or more in height.
TRIGGERMAN 1.20 mts. Architect, UAP
Minimum width for fire
4141353:05 escape for existing stairs.
PM9/19/2014Assimilation ExamSheet2 55.9 cms. Page 35
Assimilation Exam
PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should the former fail to 2%
pay the latter beyond 30 days from receipt of billing?
What code holds the architect responsible for the building/structure he designed for a Civil Code
certain period of time.
What type of compensation is applied to cases where the architect's personal time is Per Diem+Reimb. Expenses
required, such as conferences, joint venture activities, etc.?
What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from the contract? Payment Bond
What type of compensation is applied to most of Gov't projects and entails more paper Lump Sum / Fixed Fee
works and is advantageous to both client and architect.
Professional Fee for the Project Manager. 2-5%
If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the responsibility of hiring Project Manager
the Construction Manager?
True or false, based on the Civil Code, the Project Manager has no legal responsibility TRUE
insofar as design and construction is concerned.
His primary responsibility is the exercise of overall cost control which relieves the owner Project Manager
of many of the anxieties that usually beset , particularly those concerned with forecasting
cost and completion dates.
In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has responsibility to seek Public / People
opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs?
What PD created the PRC which regulates the practice of various professionals. PD 223
Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional consensus and People / Public
years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom?
Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding. Bid Bulletin
The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract documents when made Proposal
out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed.
The cashier's check or surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the bidder, Proposal Bond
as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into a contract with the owner for the construction
of the work, if the contract is awarded to him.
Instructions which may be issued prior to the bidding to supplement and/or modify Special Provisions
drawings, specifications, and/or general conditions of the contract.
Written or printed description of work to be done describing qualities of material and mode Specifications
of construction.
Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or Written Notice
sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or corporation at the last known business
address of such individual, firm or corporation.
Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or other facilities Work
necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract.
Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for the Install
intended use.
Means to purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to jobsite. Furnish
Means to furnish and install. Provide
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when how many percent
TRIGGERMAN 50% Architect, UAP
of the contract has PM9/19/2014Assimilation
4141393:05 been completed? ExamSheet2 Page 39
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No payment shall be made on contracts in excess of how Exam
many percent of the contract 65%
price.
The guarantee bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price? 30%
How many percent of the architect's fee is payable to the architect upon completion of the 30%
preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development phase?
Standard factor computed for changes and/or revisions made on completed contracts. 2.5
Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the architect is built by the 12 sqm.
contractor as temporary facilities for the project.
All trees and other plants that need to be transplanted elsewhere within ___ meters 50 / Contractor
shall be done by the ___ at his own expense.
If there is a variance/discrepancy between the drawings and specifications, what shall Specifications
be followed?
How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect's 15 Days
clarification as to the particular areas of work which requires evaluation of the architect?
How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a contract with a valid 15 Days
reason?
Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public authority through 90 Days
no act or fault of the contractor gives the him the right to terminate contract.
True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to pay the False (30 days)
contractor any sum within 15 days after its award by arbitration
True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to act upon False (15 days)
any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect.
Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a contract? Contractor
True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision of the architect that TRUE
materials and equipment left by the contractor which do not belong to him can be used
and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor.
True or false, in case of suspension of work, all unpaid work executed including expenses TRUE
incurred during suspension shall be evaluated by the architect and charged to the owner.
True or false, the owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if he takes over the FALSE
work from the contractor for failure to complete the project.
How many days prior to canceling an insurance be given to the owner stipulating the 10 days
intention to cancel?
How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond? 15%
How many percent of the contract amount is the Payment Bond? 15%
A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of his breach. Penalty Clause
Basic Fee for Physical Planning Type 1 or site such as industrial estates, commercial 5,000 for First 50 Hectares
centers, sports complex, resorts, etc.
Predecessor of PD 1096 R.A. 6451
What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of environmental planning? PD 1308
It is a right enfoeceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation. Liens
Minimum basic fee for simple projects. 6%
Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations. 150%
by: Reyen C. Buenavista
When the architect is engaged to render opinion or advise, clarification or explanation
TRIGGERMAN 200 / hr Architect, UAP
on technical matters
4141403:05 pertaining to his profession,
PM9/19/2014Assimilation the minimum basic fee shall be ___.
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When rendering service as an expert witness, the architect Exam___/ hr.
is compensated 500
Minimum basic fee for Group 5 Projects (monumental). 12%
What is Group 6 Project classification? Repetitive Construction
Minimum Basic fee for housing projects. 10% of 1st unit
60% 2nd-10th Unit
30% 11th and above
Under what classification of Project does Hospitals and Medical Buildings fall? Group 3 (Exceptional Character)
Under what classification of Project does Stadium fall? Group 3 (Exceptional Character)
Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From office. PHP 750.00
On the remaining 15% work fee of the architect, where does the 5% go. Construction Phase Service
Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should be done within how 5 days
many days after written notice by owner?
Failure on the part of the contractor to remove condemned work shall give the owner right 10 days
to remove said work at contractor's exepense and contractor shall pay the owner the
expenses incurred within how many days from removal by the owner of said work?
Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___ from receipt of ___. 7th day / Notice to Proceed
An area of a city where municipal buildings are grouped. Civic Center
Any article of property not consisting of or affixed to land plus any interest in land that is Chattel
less than a freehold.
No person who is not a citizen of the Philippines may take the board exams or practice Reciprocity
the profession unless the country of his relation allows the same ___.
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by: Reyen C. Buenavista
TRIGGERMAN 1 Architect, UAP
4141413:05 PM9/19/2014Assimilation ExamSheet2 Page 41
Assimilation Exam
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