Multiple Choice Questions on Oil, Gas, and Petrochemical Exploration, Refining, and Industry

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

ON
OIL, GAS, AND
PE TROCHEMICALS
Multiple Choice Questions on Oil, Gas, and
Petrochemicals contains over 1500 questions
covering the areas such as exploration of oil and
gas, refining of oil, natural gas, and petrochemical
ON
sectors. It deals with various aspects of the
OIL, GAS, AND PETROCHEMICALS

petrochemical sector and attempts to present the
subject in a simple and concise manner. The book
will help readers evaluate their understanding of the
oil and gas sector. In each chapter, the questions
are classified into three levels—easy, medium, ON
OIL, GAS, AND
and tough.
It is a unique book of its kind for students pursuing

their bachelor’s or master’s degree in petroleum
exploration, for professionals from petroleum
industry, and those who aspire to excel in various
competitive exams. The book can also be a guiding
tool for various quiz programmes organized at
PE TROCHEMICALS
school or university level.
The Energy and Resources Institute The Energy and Resources Institute
Preface
Petroleum as everyone knows consists of hydrocarbons of various molecular
weights and other organic compounds. This naturally occurring fossil fuel
is yellow-to-black liquid found in geological formations beneath the Earth’s
surface. It is commonly refined into various types of fuels. Petroleum
has mostly been recovered by oil drilling. This is done after studying
structural geology (at the reservoir scale), sedimentary basin analysis,
and reservoir characterization. After petroleum is refined and separated,
mostly by distillation, a large number of consumer products are produced
including petrol, kerosene, asphalt, and chemical reagents used in plastic
and pharmaceutical industry.
Readers can find a lot of resources on oil and gas sector. It ranges from
exploration and production, refining, petrochemical, marketing and to a
great extent on oil economics. Most of the resources are in the form of
course documents and seldom include any questions. This makes it difficult
for the readers to evaluate their understanding of the sector or refresh it on
a regular basis. In short, in the absence of a question bank on the sector,
a sector expert is unable to test his/her level of understanding of various
aspects of the sector. students are also unable to prepare for any competitive
examination relating to the sector.
With this objective, the present book has been developed. This book
attempts to present the subject in a simple and a precise manner for sector
experts, students, and aspirants of various competitive exams. Keeping in
view the present trends of various exams, the questions have been presented
in the form of multiple choice. The book covers different forms of the oil
and gas sector.
With over 1500 questions, the book has been divided into six chapters.
Chapter 1 introduces the concept of exploration, techniques for drilling,
refinery, and product specification. The remaining five chapters deal with
multiple choice questions. chapter 2 on “General questions” has been
developed to test the general understanding of the state of affair of the
sector as a whole apart from dealing with the business aspects. Chapter 3 on
“Exploration and Production”, provides questions pertaining to the processes
carried out in exploration and production. Chapter 4 on “Refining” tests the
reader’s knowledge on hydrocarbon refining. Chapter 5 “Natural Gas” as the
name suggests is about this sector. Chapter 6 on “Petrochemicals” covers
the petrochemical industry apart from including historical and general
questions. Some questions in the book test the reader’s understanding of
general terms otherwise used in the sector.
Further, the questions in each chapter are classified into easy, medium,
and tough. This classification has been undertaken based on the views of
experts consulted. It is possible that a question which has been classified
as tough may appear to a student as easy and vice versa. It is hoped that
the readers will find this book useful. Any suggestion to further improve
the content of the book will be gratefully received.
Contents
Preface v
1. Introduction 1
2. General Questions 13
3. Exploration and Production 111
4. Refining 165
5. Natural Gas 215
6. Petrochemicals 267
7. Answers 313
Chapter 1
INTRODUCTION
EXPLORATION
Hydrocarbons occur naturally in the earth crust. They may be trapped a
few metres to thousands of metres below the surface. Complex processes
are deployed to extract oil and gas from their natural environments. The
existence of oil and gas in an area can be confirmed accurately only when
they have been drawn to the surface. There have been instances where
preliminary processes have indicated the availability of oil and gas in the
area, but drilling of wells has not yield any output. Due to this uncertainty,
the cost of exploration can be staggering.
The place where hydrocarbons form and the place where they get
stored naturally can be at two different places. Hydrocarbons are stored
in reservoir rocks. Sandstones and carbonates (limestone and dolomites)
are the two most common reservoir rocks. When hydrocarbons move
from source rock to reservoir rock, it is termed primary migration. The
subsequent movement of hydrocarbons within the reservoir rock is known
as secondary migration. Hydrocarbon produced structural traps are formed
by deformation of the reservoir rock, such as a fold or fault. Stratigraphic
traps are formed by deposition of reservoir rock (for example, river channel
sandstone or limestone reef) or by an angular unconformity. A combination
trap has both structural and stratigraphic elements.
Drilling is a risky business. If a well drilled does not provide
commercially beneficial amount of hydrocarbon, it is declared as a “dry
hole”. The success rate of drilling is defined in terms of the number of
successful wells completed for commercial production divided by the total
number of wells drilled. Initially oil well drilling was confined to areas
that reported oil seepage. With the development of geological techniques
and satellite imaging, oil exploration is being successfully conducted in
areas where seepage is not reported. At present, geochemical techniques
are also being extensively employed for this purpose. The contribution
of seismic data in hydrocarbon detection has been paramount. Once the
possible availability of hydrocarbon is established to high probability, the
probability is checked against actual availability. A well drilled in a virgin
area is termed wildcat. If the well drilled produces hydrocarbon it is termed
discovery well; otherwise it is termed dry hole. Lately 3D and 4-C seismic
explorations are also been employed in oil well drilling.
The time-lapse or 3D seismic exploration involves the technique of
collecting, processing, and interpreting 3D seismic data taken from a
producing reservoir over time intervals of few years. The objective is to
help locate section from which further extraction of hydrocarbons can be
achieved. 4-C seismic exploration, on the other hand, analyses the movement
of compressional waves (P-wave) and shear waves (S-wave) to locate and
determine the orientation of subsurface fractures and composition of source
rock.
Multiple Choice Questions on Oil, gas, and petrochemicals
Wells are also drilled to establish the size of a field and are termed
delineation or appraisal wells. When wells are drilled in the already
producing fields, they are termed developmental wells. The reservoir
permeability and viscosity of oil being produced may be used as an
important factor to determine the spacing between wells. Traditionally,
cable tool rig was used for drilling wells. This method was used to drill the
first well in Pennsylvania. The speed of drilling is a major constraint in the
cable tool rig technology. A good output of cable tool rig is 60 ft (20 m) per
day with an average output of 28 ft (7.5 m) per day. The cable tool rig has
been effectively replaced by rotatory drilling rig. It is faster with a drilling
speed of several hundred to several thousand feet/day.
Rotatory drilling rig is very complex in nature. Its major systems are
power system comprising diesel engine, hosting system comprising derrick/
mast and draw work, rotating system comprising swivel, kelly, rotary table,
drill string, drill pipe, drill collar, and drill bit, and circulating system
comprising mud tanks. To make a rotatory drilling rig operational, 1000 to
3000 horse power (hp) is required. The hosting system of the rotatory rig
raises, lowers, and suspends equipment in the well. Drill floor is located
under the derrick and mast. It is the platform where most of the drilling
activities take place. The rotating system of the rotator rig is used to drill
a hole in the ground. It is the drill bit that cuts into the rock when drilling
an oil or gas well. It is located at the tip of the drill string, between the
drill collar and the drill pipe. The drill collar is attached with the drill
pipe. The entire rotator system is attached with the rotary table that is a
circular table in the derrick floor and rotates clockwise by the prime mover
to dig hole. To maximize output, various types of drill bits are used. These
include milled-teeth or steel-tooth bit, insert or bottom bit, diamond bit, and
polycrystalline diamond compact (PDC) bit. When a drilling bit wears out,
there is a change in the noise during drilling or in the rate of drilling. The
worn-out bit is changed by making a trip. It is a process during which the
drill string is pulled from the well, the bit is changed, and the drill string
is put back in the well.
During drilling, a viscous mixture of clay (usually bentonite) and
additives with either water or oil or an emulsion of water with droplets of
oil or a synthetic organic fluid is circulated in and out of the drilling hole.
This is known as drilling mud and it helps in lowering the temperature of
the drilling bit. Drilling mud is described by its weight. The mud is pumped
out from the mud pits through the drill string where it sprays out of nozzles
on the drill. It then flows back through the annular space between the outer
4
Chapter 1 INTRODUCTION
side of the pipe and the drilled hole, carrying with it chips of rocks that
are cut. Before the mud is reused, the coarser well cutting is separated.
Drilling a well is not an easy task and challenges, such as pipe sticking,
lost circulation, hole deviation, pipe failures, borehole instability, mud
contamination, formation damage, hole cleaning, H2S-bearing formation
and shallow gas, and equipment and personnel-related problems are faced.
There are also problems related to increase in temperature and pressure
with increase in depth. Oil and gas may come out at high temperature
and thus have to be handled carefully. Further, there is a possibility of
equipment breaking in or falling down in the well being drilled. This
hampers the drilling process till the affected equipment is not removed.
Continuous monitoring of well parameters, such as drill mud coming out
of the well, porosity and density of shale through well logs is necessary for
maintaining proper and smooth drilling.
Techniques for Drilling

Traditionally straight hole has been commonly followed. However,
technological improvement has enabled drilling at pre-determined direction
and deviation. Deviation is generally defined angle from the surface of oil
wellbore from the vertical. Deviated wells are generally straight-in and
S-shaped wells. The deviated well can be drilled by using down hole
assembly with a bent sub, a down hole mud motor, and a diamond bit.
Examples of deviated well include horizontal drain and extended reach well.
Moreover, air and foam can be used instead of drill mud. The entire setup
remains the same except that in place of circulating drilling mud system,
air is pumped down the bore hole’s annular space or down the drill string
itself. Similarly, a specially formulated chemical or foam is added to the
water and air mixture to create specific conditions.
During drilling, logging technique is employed to ascertain hydrocarbon
potential of the well, determine hydrocarbon type and volume, the types
of fluid will flow and at what rate, and optimize well construction and
hydrocarbon production. The data obtained from logging helps in identifying
hydrocarbon reservoirs and define total and recoverable reserves. Logging
devices deployed for collecting and analysing the fluids and rocks that
come out during drilling helps in defining the geological history and the
properties of the reservoir. Various types of logs are deployed for carrying
the analysis. These include lithologic log, drilling time log, mud log, wireline
well logs, electrical log, induction and guard logs, radioactive log, caliper
log, and so on.
5
A well is generally drilled in various stages and is called a casing

programme. A well is drilled to a certain depth, cased and cemented,
and subsequent casing for second stage of drilling to a deeper depth is
undertaken and so on. Every time the well is cased, a smaller diameter
casing is used. A well normally has three or more concentric casing strings.
These can be conductor casing, surface casing, intermediate casing, liner
string, and production casing. Well casing is a very important part of the
completed well. The casing is carried till the producing formation is reached.
In addition to strengthening the well hole, it provides a conduit to allow
hydrocarbons to be extracted without intermingling with other fluids and
formations found underground.
The bottom of the well in the producing formation section can then be
left opened (generally in the case of known reservoir whose wall do not
cave in) or can be completed by certain techniques (for example, gravel pack
completion) that allows the movement of hydrocarbons while ensuring that
the section of the well in formation section does not give in. In another
technique a casing string is cemented at the producing formation section
which is subsequently perforated with steel bullets of jet perforators.
Once the casing and bottom hole have been completed, a string of small
diameter pipe, called tubing, is placed into the well upto the bottom. This
helps the movement of the produced fluid to the surface. Tubing is an
important section of well completion process because it ensures that the
casing pipe, which is fixed with the well wall by cementing, is protected
from corrosion by the producing fluids. The completion fluid, which is
generally treated water as diesel oil, is filled between the casing pipe and
the hanging tubing string. The produced fluid is brought to the surface
through tubing string. Thus, any corrosion, due to produced fluid can
happen in tubing string only, protecting the casing from corrosion.
Subsequently, well head, a permanent steel fitting on the surface attached
to the top of the well is placed. The well head is held to the conductor pipe
or surface casing through bolts. The decision either to abandon the well
by plugging it or complete the rest of the work by casing the well and
subjecting it to hydrocarbon production is made after a well is drilled and
tested for economic viability. It has to be ensured that the thin walled,
steel pipes, used for casing has a diameter lesser than the diameter of the
well drilled. The gap between the casing pipe and the wall of the well is
filled with cement and concrete. This arrangement ensures that the casing
pipe (termed casing string) is in place and prevents the wall of the well
from collapsing. Over time, horizontal and deep-sea drilling have been
6
extensively used and these have improved recovery of oil all over the
world.
REFINERY
The development of oil well marked the beginning of competition between
hydrocarbon (kerosene) and whale oil that was primarily used for
illuminating purposes. In the early days of refinery operation, the refining
process mainly focused on refining a hydrocarbon obtained from the oil
by batch process. This involved heating the hydrocarbon and condensating
the produced vapours to obtain kerosene. Naphtha and gasoline, produced
during the process, were discarded as waste material. With time the refining
processes evolved, thereby enabling the usage of large portion of products
produced at the refining system.
Nowadays, the preliminary processing of hydrocarbon produced in an
oil well takes place at the field level itself. Associated gas, water, and oil are
separated at a field itself in the field separator. In the next step, crude oil, a
mixture of approximately 500 components, is subjected to distillation process
in order to obtain components that are mixtures of different boiling ranges.
This results in the production of various hydrocarbon cuts, such as gasoline,
kerosene, diesel, and finer hydrocarbon products. These cuts or fractions are
used for different activities. They are subjected to various processes in order
to produce products that suit the market demand. For example, catalytic
reforming and isomerization processes are used to produce products with
higher octane numbers.
When a non-associate gas is produced in a gas well, the gas sheds
heaviest hydrocarbons as associates during the field separation process. On
the other hand, if the gas does not leave behind a condensate, it is termed
dry gas. Generally dry gas is made up of methane. The gas contains heavier
hydrocarbons that may need to be removed as natural gas liquid during
processing in a gas plant. This liquid is sent to the refinery for further
processing.
The products obtained after processing in the refinery become compatible
with the laid environmental norms. The complex refinery process also
converts heavier products into much lighter higher value products. Blending
operations, whereby raw products are converted into finished marketable
products, are part of the refinery process.
The task of processing crude oil produced from the field is not simple.
Hydrocarbons or produced crude oil contain various kinds of impurities
and undesirable substances, such as sulphur, that need to be removed. High
7
sulphur content (less than 1.5% or more) crude oil is termed sour crude
while less sulphur content (less than 0.5%) crude oil is termed sweet crude.
Further, crude oil with larger number of carbon atoms is termed heavier
crude while crude oil with lesser number of carbon atoms is termed lighter
crude. During distillation, product yield and other process units depend on
crude characteristics termed crude assay. It helps to define the properties
of various fractions or cuts that would be obtained from the crude oil.
In modern refineries, crude oil is preheated to 750°F and the vapour
obtained is passed on through the distillation column. The perforation
trays vertically arranged at regular intervals help to obtain the products
of various cuts or fractions. The entire system operates on the principle of
thermodynamics and gravity.
In the process it may be possible that some heavier cuts escape the
distillation tower from the top along with the gases. The gases thus produced
are subject to refluxing, so that the heavier hydrocarbons escaping along
with gases are condensed and reinjected into the distillation chamber.
Similarly, some heavier hydrocarbons that may have been entrapped into
the crude oil are subjected to reheating or reboiling.
The temperature at which a product or cut begins to boil is termed
initial boiling point, and the temperature at which complete vaporization
of the product or cut occurs is termed end boiling point. The end point of
one cut will be the boiling point of another. As heating of hydrocarbon is
a continual process, overlapping of cuts may happen. Thus, refluxing and
reboiling become essential to obtain hydrocarbons of required purity and
nature.
Various kinds of impurities such as sand, minerals, and their oxides
and salts are present in crude oil. To remove these impurities pretreatment
of crude oil received from the field in the refinery is essential. Gravity
separation is a method by which impurities present in the crude oil are
recovered. Dissolved salts are removed by washing crude oil with water.
After desalting, crude oil so obtained is subjected to various refinery
processes to obtain final products or cuts. The various products or cuts
obtained from the distillation units are dispatched to various sections for
subsequent treatment and processing.
A refinery comprises four types of processes. Atmospheric and vacuum
distillation is the first process where various products or cuts, such as
liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), gasoline, kerosene, aviation turbine fuel
(ATF), diesel besides gas oils, are produced. The gas oil may be further
subjected to various processes in order to obtain lubricating oil which has
8
application in various industrial processes. It may not be necessary that the

refineries produce lube oil also. Refineries that produce lube oil are termed
lube refineries while the refineries that do not produce lube oil are termed
fuel refineries.
After primary separation, conversion process takes place. It results in
breaking of heavier or intermediate products in order to produce more
valuable products, that is, cracking of heavy molecules into lighter products
or upgradation of products to meet market demand. For example, gasoline
is processed to obtain higher octane number (ON) gasoline. The third
type of process in the refinery is generally termed treatment process. Final
products are produced by hydrodesulphurization of distilled products to
remove sulphur, sweetening of gasoline to remove traces of sulphur, and
hydrofinishing of lube oil. Some refineries have the facility to produce lube
oil by processing lube oil base stock and removing wax, asphalt, and so on.
It is important to note that lube oil may not be produced from all types of
crude oil.
As mentioned earlier, distillation is carried out to produce products
or cuts from crude oil. Generally crude oil, preprocessed in the refinery,
is subjected to atmospheric distillation. Here distillation is carried out at
approximately 350−370°C at atmospheric pressure. This produces light cuts,
such as gasoline, kerosene, ATF, and diesel along with heavier long residue.
The long residue is subjected to vacuum distillation carried out at a higher
temperature and in absence of air. Vacuum distillation units yield vacuum
gas oil as distillate which is the raw material for cracking units. Vacuum gas
oil is the feedstock to lube manufacturing. Bitumen residue is also generated
during process and termed short residue. It is used for the production of
bitumen or as fuel component. It may also, through cracking, lead to the
production of light oils. There are generally two types of vacuum units:
wet vacuum unit and dry vacuum unit. The wet vacuum unit uses vapour
steams in the distillation unit to decrease oil pressure partially whereas dry
vacuum unit does not use steam in the distillation column.
Feed preparation unit is another type of vacuum unit. It produces deep
cuts out of long residues produced from atmospheric distillation unit that
is subjected to cracking in fluid catalytic cracking (FCC) or hydrocracker
unit. Another type of vacuum unit termed lube base stock units are used
to produce lube stocks from heavy gas oil cuts.
The second type of process in the refinery, as already discussed, is
the conversion process that is undertaken to improve the specification of
products obtained and to produce lighter and high value products from heavy
9
residual products. Catalytic reforming is one such reforming process that

converts low-octane naphtha into high-octane gasoline blending components
called reformates. During the isomerization of paraffins, dehydrogenation of
naphtha and dehydrocyclization of paraffins result in production of high-
octane gasoline blending stock along with hydrogen. During the process,
reformates with high toluene, benzene, xylene, and other aromatics are
produced that can be used in petrochemical plants. A typical reforming
process unit consists of reaction section (heat recovery section), hydrogen
separation and recirculation section, and product recovery section.
Conversion of heavy cuts into light and valuable products is another
conversion process. Thermal cracking, fluid catalytic cracking, and
hydrocracking are the major and the most common cracking processes
adopted by the refinery industry. Thermal cracking is performed at
a temperature between 450°C and 500°C under controlled temperature
and time of reaction conditions. Based on the severity of cracking, some
unwanted products, such as olefins and tars, may also be produced.
The presence of olefins in gasoline and diesel makes it important to
hydrotreat the product to obtain stable gasoline and diesel. Based on the
severity of cracking and the nature of feedstock subjected to cracking, the
cracking process is generally of two types: visbreaking and coking. The
milder form of thermal cracking results in the production of light liquids,
such as gasoline and gas oil. Visbreaking reduces the viscosities and pour
point of distillates produced at the bottom of vacuum distillation. Gas,
gasoline, and gas oil produced by visbreaking are subjected to further
processing in order to produce final products. Visbreaking is generally of
two types: coil cracking and soaker cracking. Coil cracking takes place in
the coil, in the furnace at a higher temperature of 500°C and in the absence
of soaker drum, with reaction time up to 3 minutes. This makes the entire
operation easier. In soaker cracking, the major conversion of product occurs
in the soaker drum. The temperature of operation is lower than coil cracking
and the reaction time can last up to 5 minutes. Coking is a more severe
thermal cracking process that produces coke, gasoline, and other light
products such as gases.
An upgraded version of coking conversion process is the delayed coking
process. With delayed coking, the residual products produced from various
refinery processes can be converted into lighter products. In this process,
mild cracking takes place in the furnace tube with short-residence time.
The liquid hydrocarbon produced is “delayed” before reaching large coking
drum with large reaction time while the light products, such as gas, naphtha,
10
kerosene, and gas oil are recovered for further processing along with the
coke (short coke, sponge coke, and needle coke).
Hydrodesulphurization is the process of removing sulphur from
hydrocarbon by reacting hydrogen with sulphur bearing components of
oil. This results in the production of hydrogen sulphide which is toxic in
nature. Hydrogen sulphide thus produced is then subjected to Claus process
to produce sulphur.
Apart from the above-mentioned processes, there are other processes
carried out in the refinery to produce finished products that match the
specifications of colour, stablity, and so on. These processes include
hydrotreating, hydrofinishing, and merox sweetening of LPG and gasoline.
Further formulating and blending process gives the final finished products,
which are tested and marketed.
Lube Oil
One of the most important products of modern refinery is lubricating oil
which has wide industrial applications. The viscous nature of lube gives
stability to the machine in order to meet the high temperature generated
due to machine part friction. The production of lube oil depends on the
quality of lube feedstock used. Waxy crude oil is the most unsuitable for
the production of lube oils.
Lube oil production process starts with deasphalting unit that removes
asphalt from the lube base stock through solvent extraction process. The
solvent extraction process is used for removing aromatic hydrocarbon in
order to improve viscosity of the product. The solvent extraction process
is then employed to remove wax from lube base stock. The hydrocarbon
produced at this stage is then subjected to treatment with hydrocarbon to
improve colour of the lube and provide stability to the lube oil. The lube oil
produced is supplemented with small doses of additive chemicals to boost
certain properties of the lube oil.
PRODUCT SPECIFICATION
The standard and specifications of end hydrocarbon are determined by the
manufacturing countries themselves. A single product may have specifications
related to various aspects as discussed in subsequent sections. One of the
most important specifications of LPG is vapour pressure condition. The
vapour pressure defines the maximum pressure a cylinder is expected to
withstand under normal temperature and pressure conditions. This helps
to ensure the safety standard of an LPG cylinder.
11
Flash point of a hydrocarbon is the minimum temperature at which

it catches fire. The specifications are important from the point of view
of safe custody/storage/transportation of hydrocarbons. The flash point
specification of a hydrocarbon product varies from country to country.
The ignition quality of gasoline in automobile engines is defined by
its octane number. Octane number is generally defined as the percentage
volume of iso-octane in a mixture of iso-octane and normal heptane that
gives the same knocking as that of the fuel when tested under defined
conditions. A higher octane number ensures that the air fuel mixture
entering the internal combustion engine is ignited at right time, thereby
avoiding engine knocking. The branched chain isomers (paraffins) and
naphthenes have higher octane number than straight chain hydrocarbons.
Thus, it is desirable to have some isomers and naphthenes in the gasoline.
Though olefins also have higher octane number but are not used in blending
with gasoline as they tend to polymerize to form resins as gas in the
tank.
Due to the decrease in temperature of heavy petroleum products (fuel
oil or diesel), the wax contained in the product separates, making the oil
immobile. The temperature at which the oil becomes immobile is termed as
pour point. Smoke point is another aspect of specification prescription. It
is defined as the length of flame in a standard test condition that produces
smoke. Higher smoke points indicate that the product is less smoky.
Cetane number is an important specification for diesel fuel used in
compression engine. It is defined as the per cent by volume of n-cetane in
a mixture of n-cetane and alpha methyl naphthalene that would give the
same ignition quality and engine performance as that of the fuel under
test. Normal paraffins have higher cetane number followed by naphthanes,
iso-paraffins, olefins, and aromatics.
12
Chapter 2
General Questions
Easy
1. The term “coal oil” normally denotes
A. Kerosene B. Gasoline C. Furnace oil
2. The type of hydrocarbons that are most common in both crude oil and
natural gas are
A. Aromatics B. Paraffins C. Straight chains
3. The area accommodating one or more oil pools is called
A. Oil deposit B. Oilfield C. Oil well
4. The number of crudes in the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Countries’ (OPEC) basket is
A. 12 B. 13 C. 14
5. How many countries are regarded as the founding members of
OPEC?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6
6. In India, the fuel for electricity generation is mainly
A. Natural gas B. Diesel C. Coal
7. API stands for
A. American Petroleum Institute
B. Applied Petroleum Institute
C. Approved Petroleum Institutions
8. The API gravity of the crude oil around the world generally varies
between
A. 20 and 60
B. 10 and 50
C. 15 and 45
9. The oil crisis of 1973 was triggered by
A. Excess increase in the demand of crude oil
B. Arab–Israel war
C. Iraq–Iran war
10. Petroleum, in its initial discovery days, was more known as
A. Mud oil B. Soil oil C. Rock oil
11. Petroleum in natural form contains many elements but not
A. Nitrogen B. Helium C. Argon
12. Sweet crude has lesser amount of
A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Sulphur
13. A crude is called “sweet” if its sulphur content is less than
A. 0.50% B. 0.30% C. 0.60%
14. Saudi Arabia has the world’s largest known reserves of
A. Natural gas B. Crude oil C. Hydropower
15. In India, the integrated petroleum business is dominated by

A. Private sector
B. Public sector
C. Private joint ventures
16. The property of petroleum that defines its resistance to flow at given
operating conditions is known as
A. Viscosity B. Gravity C. Miscibility
17. In rural areas of India, the most extensively used source of energy is
A. Propane B. Biomass C. Petroleum
18. Methane is commonly termed
A. Gasoline B. Natural gas C. Biomass
19. The amount of gas dissolved in oil depends upon
A. Temperature only B. Pressure only C. Both A and B
20. The proven oil reserves of Saudi Arabia are
A. 169.6 billion barrels
B. 264.2 billion barrels
C. 245.5 billion barrels
21. The formation of petroleum takes place in the absence of
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
22. Refinery capacity is not expressed in
A. Barrels per stream day
B. Barrels per calendar day
C. Kilograms per day
23. Which of the following is not a refinery process/operation?
A. Distillation
B. Conversion
C. Oil collection at group gathering stations
24. Distillation is the separation of crude oil into groups of hydrocarbon
compounds based on molecular size and boiling point range.
A. True B. False
25. The oil companies that operate in one or more but not all segments of
the industry are called
A. Partially integrated B. Integrated C. Loosely integrated
16
Chapter 2 General Questions
26. The largest refinery in the world is

A. Paraguaná Refinery of Venezuela
B. Sunkyung Corporation of South Korea
C. Jamnagar Refinery of India
27. The OPEC basket of crude is referred to as
A. OPEC reference basket of crude
B. OPEC production basket of crude
C. OPEC consumption basket of crude
28. When was Bombay High, a major oilfield of India, discovered?
A. 1973 B. 1974 C. 1976
29. When was production in Bombay High started?
A. 1982 B. 1980 C. 1976
30. The largest oilfield of USA in terms of production is
A. Prudhoe Bay, Alaska
B. East Texas
C. Wilmington, California
31. The largest oil-producing country in the world is
A. USA B. Saudi Arabia C. Russia
32. The largest oilfield in the world, in terms of reserves, is
A. Cantarell in Mexico B. Ghawar C. Burgan in Kuwait
33. Which company is not a member of the original Seven Sisters?
A. Exxon B. Shell C. Total
34. The world’s largest oilfield, Ghawar, is located in
A. Iraq B. Mexico C. Saudi Arabia
35. Which of the following countries has the largest gas reserve?
A. Russia B. Iran C. USA
36. There has been a sharp rise in the production of high acid crude
from
A. Middle East B. West Africa C. USA
37. OPEC was created in
A. 1949 B. 1960 C. 1972
38. OPEC was created at the
A. Vienna Conference
B. Venezuela Conference
C. Baghdad Conference
17
39. OPEC’s first headquarters was in

A. Vienna B. Geneva C. Bahrain
40. Presently, the headquarters of OPEC is in
A. Vienna B. Geneva C. Bahrain
41. Which of the following is used as a feedstock for petrochemicals?
A. Naphtha B. Methane C. Ethane
42. Major fertilizer plants in India are along the Hazira–Bijaipur–Jagdishpur
gas pipeline.
A. True B. False
43. Petron, the largest petroleum company of Philippines, is a publicly held
corporation.
A. True B. False
44. Cairn Energy PLC, an oil and gas exploration and production company,
is based in
A. Edinburgh, Scotland
B. London, UK
C. New York, USA
45. CNOOC stands for
A. China National Onshore Oil Corporation
B. China Non-operational Offshore Corporation
C. China National Offshore Oil Corporation
46. In November 2003, Conoco announced its merger with Phillips
Petroleum.
A. True B. False
47. Great Wall, an oil brand, is a registered trademark of China
Petrochemical Corporation.
A. True B. False
48. Myanmar is one of the world‘s oldest oil producers.
A. True B. False
49. The Rangoon Oil Company of Burma, the first foreign oil company to
drill in the country, was established in 1871.
A. True B. False
50. The Myanmar Petroleum Products Enterprise is responsible for retail
and wholesale distribution of petroleum products.
A. True B. False
18
51. The BG Group‘s Indian subsidiary is

A. BG Exploration and Production India Limited
B. BG Exploration and Production Limited
C. BG India Limited
52. Which of the following is an oilfield in Iraq?
A. Bai Hassan B. Jambur C. Both A and B
53. Basra is Iraq’s largest oil terminal.
A. True B. False
54. What is the average efficiency of a typical commercial solar cell?
A. 30% B. 20% C. 15%
55. Stand-alone wind turbines are typically used for water pumping or
communication.
A. True B. False
56. What are flexible fuel vehicles?
A. Vehicles running with a fuel containing 50% methanol
B. Vehicles running with a fuel containing 60% methanol
C. Vehicles running with a fuel containing up to 85% ethanol
57. What is the common name of methanol?
A. Plant alcohol B. Herb alcohol C. Wood alcohol
58. UAE has the greater natural gas reserves than Saudi Arabia.
A. True B. False
59. In the USA, biodiesel is mainly derived from soya bean oil and in from
sunflower oil in Europe.
A. True B. False
60. Israel produces significant amounts of energy in the Middle East.
A. True B. False
61. Petronas Oil Company belongs to
A. Indonesia B. Thailand C. Malaysia
62. The oil company TNK-BP is an amalgamation of Tyumen Oil Company
and British Petroleum.
A. True B. False
63. Natural gas from Sakhalin-I is expected to be sent westwards to Siberia
and then Eastern Europe via a proposed pipeline.
A. True B. False
19
64. The Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC), an Indian
company, is listed on the New York Stock Exchange.
A. True B. False
65. ______ provides one of the major “benchmark” crude oils, the Brent
Crude oil marker.
A. Finland B. UK C. Spain
66. Because Brent Crude is traded on the International Petroleum Exchange
in London, fluctuations in the market are reflected in the price of
Brent.
A. True B. False
67. All of the UK’s oil reserves are located on the UK Continental Shelf in
the North Sea.
A. True B. False
68. Shetland Islands in the UK do not contain oil reserves.
A. True B. False
69. What are Bruce, Britannia, and the Brae Region in the UK?
A. Oilfields in the North Sea
B. Natural gas fields in the North Sea
C. Neither A nor B
70. The North European Gas pipeline brings natural gas from Russia to
A. United Kingdom
B. Germany
C. Both A and B
71. What is DONG Energy?
A. Denmark’s state-owned oil company
B. Denmark’s private oil company
C. Dominica’s state-owned oil company
72. What is the name of the UK energy market regulator?
A. Statfjord
B. Ofgem
C. Neither A nor B
73. In the International Energy Agency (IEA), an individual member’s share
of the total response is generally proportionate to member countries’
total consumption.
A. True B. False
20
74. The IEA takes into account the advice of industry experts through the
IEA industry advisory board.
A. True B. False
75. Different IEA member nations have the same oil stock holding system.
A. True B. False
76. The OPEC Conference elects a president and an alternate president at
its first preliminary meeting of the year.
A. True B. False
77. The regulator for gas transportation in India is
A. Directorate General of Hydrocarbons
B. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
C. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
78. The operator of Bombay High field is
A. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
B. Cairn India Limited
C. Oil India Limited
79. The major part of crude oil requirement of India is met from
A. Onshore production B. Offshore production C. Imports
80. The major part of crude oil imports for India comes from
A. West Africa
B. South America
C. Middle East Gulf region
81. ONGC Videsh Limited is a subsidiary of
A. Reliance Industries Limited
B. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
C. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
82. In India, as a result of National Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP)
rounds of bidding, the participation of private players in the exploration
and production activities has increased.
A. True B. False
83. Under the Open Acreage Licensing Policy, any exploration and
production company can bid for an exploration block of its own choice
round the year.
A. True B. False
84. Reliance India Limited has established its second refinery in India in
A. Dabhol B. Chennai C. Jamnagar
21
85. The National Auto Fuel Policy of India was launched in

A. 2000 B. 2003 C. 2006
86. S K Corporation of South Korea is involved in
A. Exploration and production
B. Refinery and marketing
C. Both A and B
87. Commercial liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinder contains mainly
A. Propane B. Butane C. Pentane
88. The Sakhalin liquefied natural gas (LNG) plant is specifically designed
to operate in cold climatic conditions.
A. True B. False
89. Italy has an LNG regasification terminal.
A. True B. False
90. China is one of the first countries to start import of LNG.
A. True B. False
91. The Kingdom of Belgium is a net exporter of natural gas.
A. True B. False
92. Which of the following countries is an exporter of natural gas?
A. Kingdom of Belgium
B. Greece
C. Republic of Trinidad and Tobago
93. None of the countries of the Asia-Pacific region has an LNG liquefaction
plant.
A. True B. False
94. The first LNG tanker of the world was
A. Liquigas Pioneer B. Methane Pioneer C. Both A and B
95. Iran is one of the major LNG exporters of the world.
A. True B. False
96. Carbon-7 molecules are termed
A. Pentane B. Hexane C. Heptane
97. The process of mixing production from two or more wells on the
surface is termed
A. Surface co-mingling
B. Open co-mingling
C. On-board co-mingling
22
98. The first underground natural gas storage facility in salt cavern was
built at
A. Buffalo B. Zoar C. Michigan
99. City gas stations are also termed
A. Town border B. Tap stations C. Both A and B
100. One of the historically dominated companies organized in Texas in
1901 was
A. Chevron B. Gulf Oil C. Standard Oil
101. A term for diesel mixed with a biodiesel cetane booster is
A. Green diesel B. Blue diesel C. White diesel
102. Greenhouse gas keeps the earth’s temperature approximately at 33°C.
A. True B. False
103. Ghawar is an offshore oilfield.
A. True B. False
104. The API of Arabian light crude oil is about
A. 28° B. 33° C. 37°
105. A volatile liquid mixture of hydrocarbon obtained by refining petroleum
and used as fuel in most internal combustion engines is
A. Gasoline B. Gas oil C. Gasohol
106. A classification of distillate fuel oil used for space heating is
A. Home heating oil B. Gasohol C. Gas oil
107. A high temperature refining method in which naphtha contacts a
catalyst in the presence of hydrogen to yield high-octane aromatics for
motor fuel or chemical manufacture is called
A. Hydrodeforming B. Hydrocracking C. Hydroforming
108. A commercial gas product that contains 10% hydrogen and about 90%
natural gas is
A. Hythane B. Hydroethane C. Hydro gas
109. Kerosene was earlier known as
A. Coal oil B. Illuminating oil C. Fuel oil
110. Methane is regarded as a noble gas.
A. True B. False
111. The national oil company of Japan is
A. Japan National Oil Corporation
B. Oil Corporation Japan
C. National Oil Corporation Company of Japan
23
112. The other name of methanol is

A. Methane alcohol B. Methyl alcohol C. Both A and B
113. The simplest alcohol, which is toxic in nature and derived from natural
gas or coal, is
A. Ethanol B. Methanol C. Propanol
114. Which two companies were merged to form the Royal Dutch Shell?
A. Royal Dutch Petroleum Company and Shell Transport and Trading
Company
B. Royal Dutch Petroleum Company and Tank Syndicate
C. Royal Dutch and Shell Energy Exports
115. The first bulk tanker was
A. Methane Pioneer B. Murex C. Suezmax
116. The Royal Dutch Petroleum Company established its first refinery at
A. Baku
B. Pangkalan Brandan
C. Borneo
117. Which of the following is not a brand of oil produced by Shell?
A. Shell Advance B. Shell Helix C. Shell Donar
118. V-Power, a brand of fuel, belongs to
A. ConocoPhillips B. Total C. Royal Dutch Shell
119. The largest oil sand deposit is found in
A. USA B. UK C. Canada
120. Canada’s oil sands are thought to be the world’s second largest source
of oil after Saudi Arabia’s.
A. True B. False
121. Minas is a major oilfield in
A. Indonesia B. Malaysia C. Vietnam
122. Minas is one of the crude of the OPEC basket.
A. True B. False
123. The company formed by the merger of Standard Oil of New York and
Vacuum Oil Company is
A. Mobil B. Total C. ConocoPhillips
124. A petroleum product used as a lubricant in an internal combustion
engine is
A. Motor spirit B. Motor oil C. Gas oil
24
125. C10H8 is the chemical formula of

A. Octalene B. Naphthalene C. Neither A nor B
126. Chemical compounds with the general formula C8H18 are called
A. Octane B. Hexane C. Heptane
127. An increase in oil prices large enough to cause a worldwide recession or
a significant reduction in global real gross domestic product is called
A. Oil problem B. Oil surge C. Oil crisis
128. Venezuela’s crude that is a part of the OPEC basket is
A. Venezuela Blend B. Minas C. Tia Juana
129. Algeria’s crude that is a part of the OPEC basket is
A. Sahara Blend B. Algeria Blend C. Tia Juana
130. Which of the following is non-OPEC oil?
A. Mexico Isthmus B. Minas C. Sahara Blend
131. A non-OPEC oil that is a part of the OPEC basket of crude is
A. Mexico Isthmus B. Minas C. Sahara Blend
132. A large, sudden increase (or less often, decrease) in energy prices,
especially the price of crude oil in the world market, is generally
termed
A. Oil shock
B. Price shock
C. Market shock
133. A highly flammable toxic gas obtained by burning coal or coke with
a restricted supply of air is termed producer gas.
A. True B. False
134. The producer gas consists mainly of
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Coke vapours
C. Carbon monoxide
135. A standard measurement of liquid vapour pressure in pounds per
square inch at 100°F, giving the tendency of a liquid to evaporate, is
called
A. Reid vapour pressure
B. Red vapour pressure
C. Rail vapour pressure
25
136. The total quantity of oil and gas added to already proven reserves
in a year as a result of drilling and changes in economic, geological,
technological, political, and statistical factors is known as
A. Oil addition
B. Reserve additions
C. Recalculated reserve
137. Natural gas from which liquid products and sometimes
non-hydrocarbons are extracted as components is termed residue gas.
A. True B. False
138. Any heavy petroleum oil, including residual asphaltic oil, used as dust
palliative and surface treatment on road is termed
A. Road oil
B. Lane oil
C. Street oil
139. Rock oil is an earlier term for petroleum.
A. True B. False
140. The largest size of fully loaded oil tanker that can navigate through
Suez Canal is termed
A. Aframax
B. Very large crude carrier
C. Suezmax
141. The largest supertanker ever built is
A. Sea Wise B. Glu Kauf C. Knock Nevis
142. The abbreviation of Standard Oil Company of California is
A. Socal B. Casoc C. Neither A nor B
143. In 2001, Texaco merged with
A. Chevron B. Royal Dutch Shell C. Aramco
144. Caltex is the brand name of
A. Royal Dutch Shell B. Chevron C. Aramco
145. The Standard Oil Company of New Jersey was formed as a subsidiary
of the Standard Oil Company.
A. True B. False
146. A refined oil used as a fuel for burning in furnaces and boilers is
A. Fuel oil B. Gasohol C. Gas oil
26
147. Energy derived from the heat inside the earth, usually obtained from
underground water, is known as
A. Thermal energy
B. Geothermal energy
C. Geographical energy
148. Electric energy produced by harnessing the potential energy of water
is called
A. Heavy electric power
B. Hydroelectric power
C. Water power
149. A non-renewable natural mineral resource found in the pore space of
some rocks is called
A. Petroleum B. Crude oil C. Both A and B
150. Which of the following is not used for abating spread or oil spills?
A. Vacuum trucks B. Skimmers C. Sheen
151. What is ULCC in petroleum industry?
A. Ultra-large crude carrier
B. Ultra-low cuckoo case
C. Ultra-look care cream
152. LNG is stored in the cargo tanks under normal atmospheric
pressure.
A. True B. False
153. _________ used to ensure the ship-handling safety measures of LNG
carriers.
A. Sophisticated radars are
B. Global positioning system is
C. Both A and B
154. On land, LNG spills are contained using a wall and beam system.
A. True B. False
155. Companies such as Royal Dutch Shell control the LNG supply chain
from start to finish.
A. True B. False
156. _______ requires the earth’s gravity to generate electricity.
A. Wind plant
B. Natural gas plant
C. Hydropower plant
27
157. The full form of CNG is.

A. Clean natural gas
B. Coal natural gas
C. Compressed natural gas
158. As per the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority,
CNG is not a clean fuel but can be regarded as environmentally
acceptable.
A. True B. False
159. Which of the following group of countries imposed the 1973/74 oil
embargo against selective countries?
A. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
B. Organization of Arab Petroleum Exporting Countries
C. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
160. What is the name of the machine that uses waves to compress the air
within a container?
A. Water column systems
B. Column systems
C. Oscillating water column systems
161. Transmission and distribution of gas in the USA is
A. Regulated
B. Fully competitive
C. Monopolized
162. According to IEA technology agreements, an implementing agreement
shall be for the initial term up to, but no more than five years.
A. True B. False
163. Net exporting member countries in the IEA do not have any stockholding
obligations.
A. True B. False
164. The USA, Czechoslovakia, and Brazil are members of the IEA.
A. True B. False
165. In 1974, the first offshore oilfield in India was discovered by
B. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
166. Which of the following is the absolute temperature scale?
A. Rankine scale B. Kelvin scale C. Both A and B
28
167. The reading of −459°F on the Fahrenheit scale is called absolute zero.
A. True B. False
168. Any energy system, such as solar, wind, or hydrogen energy, which
may be used in place of conventional energy, is termed
A. New energy
B. Alternative energy
C. Neither A nor B
169. A substance containing very little or no water is termed
A. Anhydrous B. Hydrous C. Anti-hydrous
170. Aromatics are so called because of their strong odour.
A. True B. False
171. The international standard of measure for crude oil and oil products
equivalent to 42 US gallons, is
A. Ton B. Tonne C. Barrel
172. Any liquid biofuel suitable as a substitute for diesel fuel or as an
additive or extender, typically made from soya bean, rapeseed, and
sunflower, is
A. Chemical diesel
B. Synthetic diesel
C. Biodiesel
173. Bitumen is also termed
A. Tar B. Pitch C. Both A and B
174. The process of extraction of minerals from the earth, in the form of gas
or liquid, through the use of suction pumps and boreholes, is called
A. Digging B. Boring C. Mining
175. Btu, BTU, and btu are one and the same unit.
A. True B. False
176. Wind or solar energy, which generates relatively little pollution in their
production and consumption, is called.
A. Renewable energy source
B. Clean energy source
C. Neither A nor B
177. ______ is a process of burning, especially of fuel and oxidant to
produce heat.
A. Oxidation B. Combustion C. Reduction
29
178. A fundamental law of physics and chemistry, which states that the
total energy of an isolated system is constant despite internal changes,
is known as
A. Preservation of energy
B. Conservation of energy
C. Both A and B
179 The basis of the first law of thermodynamics is—energy can neither
be created nor be destroyed.
A. True B. False
180. Natural gas obtained by the traditional method of extraction from
deep-lying geologic formations as opposed to that obtained from other
sources is termed conventional gas.
A. True B. False
181. Oil obtained by the extraction method, such as well drilling, rather
than from sources, such as shale and sands is termed
A. Ancient oil B. Conventional oil C. Both A and B
182. What is the level of India’s crude oil import dependency?
A. 50% B. 10% C. Over 70%
183. The restructuring of the UK natural gas market began in 1986, with
the privatization of British Gas.
A. True B. False
184. Ofgem was formed in the UK to
A. Regulate the industry
B. To protect the interest of customers
C. Both A and B
185. Texas and Louisiana have almost half of the US oil reserves.
A. True B. False
186. What is EIA with reference to the energy sector in the USA?
A. Energy Information Authority
B. Energy Information Administration
C. Neither A nor B
187. What are the two elements that all petroleum compounds consist of?
A. Hydrogen and oxygen
B. Nitrogen and oxygen
C. Hydrogen and carbon
30
188. Most of the energy we use originally comes from

A. Sun B. Air C. Soil
189. Which device converts solar energy into electricity?
A. Photovolt B. Photocell C. Solar cell
190. Although oil is a global commodity, the USA is not required to share
all imports during a crisis under the monitoring of the IEA.
A. True B. False
191. The governing board of the IEA, acting by majority, can take all major
decisions regarding the financial administration of the agency only
after prior approval of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and
Development.
A. True B. False
192. The Committee on Budget and Expenditures of the IEA gives
recommendations on the draft budget of the agency.
A. True B. False
193. A number of member states have withdrawn from the IEA and the
Agreement on an International Energy Programme since its inception
in 1974.
A. True B. False
194. Until recently, China has relied on domestic sources of fossil fuels,
such as the massive Daqing oilfields in the northeastern province of
Liaoning. Those wells are running dry fast, raising concerns for Beijing.
A. True B. False
195. Crooked hole is the antiquated term for a wellbore, deviated accidentally
during the drilling process.
A. True B. False
196. Live oil is the term used for crude oil that contains some gas.
A. True B. False
197. Fossil fuel began to form way before the Jurassic era.
A. True B. False
198. Natural gas is the cleanest burning fossil fuel.
A. True B. False
199. LNG weighs less than half the weight of water, so it will float if spilled
on water.
A. True B. False
31
200. A majority of the world’s LNG supply is among the Cairns Group of
countries.
A. True B. False
201. LNG is stored in insulated storage tanks.
A. True B. False
202. Natural gas will contribute to a significant degree to the energy demand
of Asia in future.
A. True B. False
203. Which is the first company under the NELP to discover oil and gas in
India?
A. Cairn Energy
B. Reliance Industries Limited
C. Niko Resources Limited
204. The production level increased in pre-NELP blocks.
A. True B. False
205. In India, the NELP has given infrastructure status to E&P.
A. True B. False
206. In India, the NELP gives freedom to sell crude oil and natural gas in
domestic market at market-determined price.
A. True B. False
207. What is the abbreviation used for barrel?
A. bbl B. bbbl C. bl
208. Bombay High was the first offshore oilfield of ONGC.
A. True B. False
209. Before OPEC, the oil industry was dominated by
A. Shell B. Total C. Seven Sisters
210. The freight rate for the transportation of crude oil is based on the
standard size of vessel.
A. True B. False
211. Term contracts for sale/purchase of crude oil are prepared on cargo-
to-cargo basis.
A. True B. False
212. Term contracts for sale/purchase of crude oil are of long duration, and
for supplies of cargoes, they are for more than a year.
A. True B. False
32
213. In the international market, crude oil is traded on volume basis.

A. True B. False
214. Normally, the currency used for oil trading is
A. Indian Rupee B. Euro C. American Dollar
215. Oil futures are not traded on the National Commodity and Derivatives
Exchange Limited (NCDEX) of India.
A. True B. False
216. Which of the following oil futures is not traded on the NCDEX of
India?
A. Brent Crude
B. Furnace oil
C. West Texas Intermediate
217. Sour Crude Oil Futures Contract is traded on NCDEX of India.
A. True B. False
218. In Indian exchange, the trading volume of oil contract is small.
A. True B. False
219. India’s commodity exchanges are loosely regulated.
A. True B. False
220. The final settlement price of Brent Crude contract on NCDEX of India
is based on Intercontinental Exchange Future Brent Index converted to
Indian rupees.
A. True B. False
221. In petroleum pricing, CIF stands for
A. Custom, insurance, and freight
B. Cost, insurance, and freight
C. Crude insured on freight
222. The unit to measure the capacity of crude/petroleum products is
A. Metric litres
B. Deadweight tonnage
C. Metric tonnes
223. For crude, the sum “freight on board (FOB) + CIF + custom duties + port-
handling charge + land transportation price to refinery” amounts to
A. Gross production worth
B. Crude oil landed cost at refinery
C. Variable operating costs of refinery
33
224. The benchmark crude oil for Europe is

A. Bonny Light
B. Brent Crude
C. West Texas Intermediate
225. Which of the following is not a component of crude oil landed cost at
refinery in India?
A. Educational cess B. Octroi C. Excise duty
226. Light crude oil from North Sea is
A. Bonny Light
B. West Texas Intermediate
C. Brent Crude
227. FCC stands for
A. Fractional catalytic cracking
B. Fluid catalytic cracking
C. Fisher catalytic cracking
228. Which of the following is not a conversion process in the petroleum
refining industry?
A. Resid fluid catalytic cracking
B. Fluid catalytic cracking
C. Atmospheric distillation unit
229. In refining, high temperature normally indicates temperature above
A. 100°C B. 250°C C. 450°C
230. The modern FCC units are extremely flexible and can accept a broad
range of feedstocks.
A. True B. False
ns
231. The objective of the main fractionator is to efficiently recover the heat
available from condensing the superheated products.
A. True B. False
232. _______ is mainly found in gas hydrates.
A. Propane B. Ethane C. Methane
233. In India, the prices of all petroleum products are decontrolled.
A. True B. False
234. The USA and many countries in Europe have been using a biodiesel
blend of
A. 5%–20% B. 20%–30% C. 30%–40%
34
235. Ethanol is regarded as an alternative to

A. Diesel
B. Gasoline
C. Aviation turbine fuel
236. In India, ethanol is mainly produced from
A. Potato B. Molasses C. Rice
Medium
1. Who drilled the first oil well in the USA?
A. Col Brown Drake
B. John D Rockefeller
C. Col Edwin Laurentine Drake
2. When was the first oil well drilled in the USA?
A. 1862 B. 1859 C. 1852
3. Where was the first oil well drilled in the USA?
A. Pennsylvania
B. Texas
C. Chicago
4. The viscosity of crude oil is mainly determined by two factors. One
of them is the amount of dissolved gas it contains. What is the other
one?
A. Temperature of the fluid
B. Pressure of the fluid
C. Volume of the fluid
5. Apart from the temperature of the fluid, what is the other factor that
determines the viscosity of petroleum?
A. Amount of dissolved gas it contains
B. Amount of dissolved nitrogen it contains
C. Amount of dissolved carbon dioxide it contains
6. The amount of gas that can be dissolved in the crude oil under the
earth does not depend on
A. The depth at which the crude occurs
B. The temperature at which crude oil is stored beneath the earth crust
C. The chemical composition of oil
35
7. The amount of gas that can be dissolved in the oil under the earth
depends on
A. Depth
B. Temperature
C. Chemical composition
8. When the natural gas is in liquid form, it exhibits a unique property
whereby the liquid evaporates continuously and draws heat from the
liquid. This process is termed
A. Refrigeration
B. Auto-refrigeration
C. Gasification
9. In the erstwhile Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR), oil was
first found in
A. Sutorminskoye Field B. Vankor Field C. Ukhta Field
10. In erstwhile USSR, oil was first found by
A. Sidorov B. William Murdoch C. Charles Peale
11. With increasing depth of drilling, the size of bit
A. Remains same B. Decreases C. Increases
12. Who was the founder of the Standard Oil Company?
A. John D Rockefeller
B. Edwin Drake
C. Benjamin Silliman
13. The utilization of a refinery is defined as
A. Gross input to crude oil distillation divided by operable capacity
B. Gross output of the distillation unit divided by operable capacity
C. Net input of the distillation unit divided by operable capacity
14. The second largest refinery in the world is
A. Paraguanáa Refinery of Venezuela
B. S K Corporation of South Korea
C. Jamnagar Refinery of India
15. The Western Europe has more of diesel and jet fuel demand and lower
gasoline and heating fuel demand due to
A. Prevalence of diesel engines
B. Use of natural gas for domestic heating
C. Both A and B
36
16. North America has the most complex refinery configuration, followed
by Asia.
A. True B. False
17. As per EIA, the world proven oil reserve at the end of 2014 stood at
approximately
A. 1655 billion barrels
B. 1475 billion barrels
C. 1000 billion barrels
18. As per EIA, in 2014 the total oil supply of the world stood at
approximately
A. 99 MBD B. 77 MBD C. 81.5 MBD
19. The demand of gasoline in Europe has decreased in the past decade
due to
A. Higher taxation rate
B. Conversion of the transportation fleet from gasoline to diesel
C. Both A and B
20. The second largest oilfield of the world, in term of reserves, is
A. Cantarell in Mexico
B. Ghawar in Saudi Arabia
C. Burgan in Kuwait
21. The largest oilfield of Venezuela is
A. Bolivar Coastal
B. Boscán Field
C. East Venezuela Field
22. The largest gas field of Saudi Arabia is
A. Ghawar B. Karachaganak C. Umm Shaif
23. How many types of crude oil are traded throughout the world?
A. Less than 100 types
B. 100–150 types
C. More than 150 types
24. The Sakhalin-I Project was declared commercial in
A. October 2000 B. October 2001 C. October 2002
25. Industrial liquid hydrocarbon utilized for removing heavier components
from the gas stream in a gas-processing plant is called.
A. Lead oil B. Plain oil C. Lean oil
37
26. _______ is pumped into a wellbore for the treatment of the well.
A. Load oil B. Prime oil C. Lead oil
27. When did the USA first face gas crisis?
A. 1976/77 B. 1950/51 C. 1973/74
28. How many active implementing agreements among the member
countries of IEA members are there at present?
A. 25 B. 40 C. 55
29. From which country does the USA import the largest amount
of crude oil?
A. Venezuela
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Kuwait
30. What is the minimum average wind speed (in miles per hour or mph)
required for an economical utility-grade wind installation?
A. 8 mph B. 13 mph C. 20 mph
31. How much more power is produced by a typical wind turbine at
15 mph than at 12 mph?
A. About the same
B. About 10% more
C. About twice as much
32. The maximum energy conversion efficiency of a wind turbine for a
given rotor collection area is
A. 25% B. 49% C. 59%
33. Which country has the largest non-associated gas field in the world?
A. Qatar B. Iran C. Russia
34. Which chemical compound is used in the dry powder to extinguish
LNG fires in open air?
A. Potassium chlorate]
B. Sodium bisulphate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
35. Iran sells its LNG at a price linked to a particular type of
crude oil called
A. Iran Light Crude oil
B. Dubai Crude oil
C. Brent Crude oil
38
36. How are Darwin and LNG related?

A. Darwin’s theory about LNG
B. Darwin discovered the hydrocarbons in LNG
C. An LNG gas plant is located in Darwin Harbour
37. Isle of Grain Facility is an LNG peak shaving facility.
A. True B. False
38. LNG was first imported in the UK in
A. 1964 B. 1966 C. 1965
39. What is the relation of Lake Charles with LNG?
A. Lake Charles is a strategic place for LNG distribution
B. Lake Charles is a place which has a threat of major terrorist
attack
C. Trunkline LNG in Lake Charles is the largest receiving terminal
in the USA
40. What do we call a place where mud is kept at the rig?
A. Mud house B. Mud store C. Mud pool
41. Alaska is estimated to have 18% of all domestic gas reserves in the
United States.
A. True B. False
42. Nevada may someday store the waste products of
A. Coal B. Geothermal C. Uranium
43. What kind of an organization the International Energy Agency
(IEA) is?
A. A part of the United Nations
B. A non-governmental organization
C. An intergovernmental body
44. When was the Energy Policy and Conservation Act passed in the
United States?
A. 1973 B. 1975 C. 1977
45. The World Energy Outlook (WEO) provides supply and demand
projections of
A. Oil, gas, and renewable energy
B. Nuclear energy and electricity
C. Both A and B
39
46. Which publication of the IEA is recognized as an authoritative

document on global long-term energy market analysis?
A. Oil Market Report
B. World Energy Outlook
C. Energy Policies of IEA Countries
47. After the United States, which country accounts for the largest share
in revenue contributions to IEA?
A. Japan B. France C. Germany
48. What is the agreement for national access for gas grid development in
Australia called?
A. Australia National Gas Pipeline Grid Agreement
B. Natural Gas Pipelines Access Intergovernmental Agreement
C. Agreement on National Strategy for Gas Access
49. Which company has a monopoly over LNG import, transmission, and
wholesale businesses in North Korea?
A. Kogas
B. Exxon Gas Company Limited
C. Korean LNG and CNG company
50. Offshore pipeline from China’s Hainan Island sends gas to which
country?
A. Singapore B. Japan C. Hong Kong
51. When was the Natural Gas Act and Federal Regulatory Authority in
the USA formed?
A. 1982 B. 1938 C. 1976
52. When was the Ship and Port Facility Security Code adopted in the
USA?
A. 2004 B. 2005 C. 2003
53. What is common between Technostroy Export of Russia, ENKA of
Turkey, and Bechtel of the USA?
A. All are LNG refining companies
B. All are LNG fractionation companies
C. All of them were given the construction contract of onshore
processing facility in Sakhalin
54. When did IEA create the Solar PACES Implementing Agreement?
A. 1974 B. 1980 C. 1977
40
55. Who was the first Executive Director of IEA?

A. Ulrich E
B. Joan McNaughton
C. Ulf Lantzke
56. First commercial discovery of crude oil in India was made in
A. 1889 B. 1879 C. 1820
57. In drilling, eccentricity is the term used to describe how off-centre a
pipe is within another pipe or the open hole.
A. True B. False
58. A streamer is a marine cable containing regularly spaced hydrophones
used for seismic survey.
A. True B. False
59. Which gas field is located in the Andaman Sea, approximately 60
kilometres offshore the nearest landfall in Myanmar?
A. Bibiyana Gas Field B. Rubhin Gas Field C. Yadana Gas Field
60. ConocoPhillips Limited is a refining and marketing company
based in
A. USA B. Canada C. UK
61. ConocoPhillips owns and markets fuels under the brand name of
A. Jet B. Sinclair C. Neither A nor B
62. Which is the largest petroleum company in the Philippines?
A. Petron B. Optron C. Phillips
63. Pakistan started using CNG in the transportation sector in
A. 1996 B. 1999 C. 2001
64. What are Khwaja Gogerdak, Djarquduk, and Yatimtaq?
A. They are oilfields in Northern Afghanistan
B. They are oilfields in Southern Afghanistan
C. Neither A nor B
65. In Iraq, which oilfield was formerly named Saddam?
A. Ajil B. Jambur C. Neither A nor B
66. The 600-mile, Kirkuk–Ceyhan (Turkey) dual pipeline is Iraq’s largest
crude oil export line.
A. True B. False
67. The oil tanker terminal of Iraq in the Persian Gulf is
A. Khor Al Amaya B. Khor Al Zubair C. Both A and B
41
68. What is added to bioethanol to convert it to ethyl tert-butyl ether

(ETBE)?
A. Isoethylene B. Isomethane C. Isobutylene
69. The Private Power Development Fund is the lending window of which
multilateral agency?
A. Asian Development Bank
B. Department for International Development
C. World Bank
70. A fuel cell vehicle is
A. A vehicle that uses a cell and battery
B. A vehicle that uses a battery
C. A vehicle that uses a fuel cell rather than a battery
71. A fuel cell is
A. An electromagnetic cell
B. A magnetic cell
C. An electrochemical device producing electricity separating the fuel
(hydrogen) via a catalyst
72. Fuel cell vehicles can be fuelled with pure hydrogen gas.
A. True B. False
73. What is the use of reformer in case of fuel cell vehicles?
A. Reforms the secondary fuel
B. Cleans and purifies the hydrogen gas used for the fuel cell
C. An on-board device that converts the secondary fuels into
hydrogen gas to be used in fuel cells
74. Which company has signed a deal with the Philippine Government to
explore for oil and gas in Northwest Palawan basin?
A. Shell
B. British Petroleum
C. Ottoman Energy Limited
75. Under the UAE’s constitution, each emirate controls its own oil
production and resource development.
A. True B. False
76. Increased consumption of electricity and growing demand from the
petrochemical industry have provided incentives for UAE to increase
its use of natural gas.
A. True B. False
42
77. The Petronet India Limited (PIL) is a holding company promoted by

A. Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) and Bharat Petroleum
Corporation Limited (BPCL)
B. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
C. Both A and B
78. What is APEC?
A. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
B. Association of Petroleum Exporting Countries
C. Neither A nor B
79. With the full decontrol of the petroleum sector from 11 April 2002,
the Oil Coordination Committee has been dismantled and has been
replaced by
A. Petroleum and Natural Gas Board
B. The Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC)
C. Neither A nor B
80. The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons was set up in India in
A. 1993 B. 2003 C. 1980
81. What is GCC?
A. Gulf Coordination Committee
B. Gulf Conservation Corporation
C. Gulf Cooperation Council
82. In which country does the Paz Oil Company mainly operate?
A. Israel B. Oman C. Syria
83. Egypt’s leading natural gas producer is
A. The International Egyptian Natural Gas Company
B. The International Egyptian Oil Company
C. Egyptian National Oil and Gas Company
84. Which of the following is a state-owned oil company in Russia?
A. Yuganskneftegaz B. Rosneft C. Yukos
85. Which of the following is an oilfield in Western Siberia?
A. Urengoy B. Gazprom C. Surgutneftegaz
86. Which of the following are LNG export facilities in Russia?
A. Urengoy, Yamburg, and Medvezh’ye
B. Murmansk, Yamal, and Shtokman
C. Neither A nor B
43
87. Which one of the following is a state-owned company?

A. Korea Gas Corporation
B. Gazprom
C. Both A and B
88. Russia holds the world’s second largest recoverable coal reserves.
A. True B. False
89. Which Indian company has interest in Sakhalin-I Project?
A. ONGC Videsh Limited
B. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
C. IOL Expo
90. The UK shares the declining Frigg Field with
A. Finland B. Norway C. Sweden
91. Which of the following countries does the interconnector connect in
Europe?
A. UK and Belgium
B. UK and France
C. UK and Denmark
92. Which of the following countries would Ormen Lange (Britpipe) natural
gas pipeline link in Europe?
A. UK and Norway
B. UK and Belgium
C. Denmark and Belgium
93. NV Nederlandse Gasunie is a
A. Dutch oil and gas company
B. Denmark oil and gas company
C. Neither A nor B
94. The UAE’s Dolphin Project is
A. A project to save dolphins in the Caspian Sea
B. An integrated natural gas pipeline grid for Qatar, UAE, and Oman,
with a possible sub-sea connection linking Oman to Pakistan
C. Neither A nor B
95. Which of the following countries was not one of the founding members
of OPEC?
A. Saudi Arabia B. Venezuela C. Libya
44
96. How many countries are members of the IEA?

A. 27 B. 32 C. 35
97. All of the member countries of the IEA are
A. Industrialized countries
B. Developing countries
C. Third World countries
98. The IEA was formed as a response to
A. Economic crisis
B. Oil crisis
C. Arab–Israel War
99. The IEA members are asked to maintain a minimum oil stock of
A. 45 days B. 60 days C. 90 days
100. The IEA emergency response measure focuses on
A. Increasing supplies of oil
B. Reducing demand of oil
C. Both A and B
101. To meet the challenges of oil crisis, the member countries of IEA are
required to
A. Implement demand restraint programmes in place
B. Release all of its stock of 90 days oil at one go
C. Reduce demand by curtailing industrialization
102. Which of the following is not a method implemented to ensure a
minimum 90 days’ oil inventory level by IEA members?
A. Government emergency reserves
B. Service of specialized stock holding agencies
C. Obtaining guarantee of supply from importing countries
103. Which of the following countries is not a member of IEA?
A. Japan B. Republic of Korea C. China
104. Which of the following countries is not a part of IEA?
A. Japan B. Russia C. Hungary
105. How many normal meetings are held by OPEC Conference in a year?
A. One B. Two C. Three
106. A quorum of _______ of member countries is necessary for holding
an OPEC Conference.
A. Half B. Quarter C. Three quarters
45
107. The application for the membership of the OPEC is decided by its
A. The Board of Governors
B. The Conference
C. The Secretariat
108. The appointment of members of the OPEC Board of Governors of OPEC
is done by
A. The Chairperson of the Board of Governors
B. The Conference
C. The Secretariat
109. The Secretary General of OPEC is appointed by
A. The Board of Governors
B. The Conference
C. Individual members on rotatory basis
110. The Board of Governors of OPEC should meet normally
A. Not more than twice in a year
B. Thrice in a year
C. Not less than twice in a year
111. The implementation of the decision of the OPEC Conference
is done by
A. The Secretary of OPEC
B. The Board of Governors
C. The Auditors
112. The Chairperson of the Board of Governors of the OPEC Conference
is appointed for one year duration from different member nations on
rotatory basis on the principle of
A. Value of voting right
B. Alphabetical order
C. Production quota of crude oil
113. Which is the largest upstream company in India, in terms of production
of crude oil and natural gas?
B. Oil India Limited
C. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
46
114. Which is the largest private refining company in India, in terms of

installed processing capacity?
A. Essar Oil
C. Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited
115. Major portion of crude oil production in India comes from
A. Krishna–Godavari Basin
B. Cambay Basin
C. Bombay High
116. The major contribution of onshore production of crude oil in India is
from
A. Assam and Nagaland
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Gujarat
117. The supreme authority of OPEC is
A. The Conference
B. The Board of Governors
C. The Secretariat
118. Over the last decade, the import of crude oil in India has
A. Doubled
B. Increased thrice
C. Increased five times
119. ONGC Videsh Limited has presence in
A. 21 countries B. 16 countries C. 33 countries
120. In terms of market capitalization in India, the largest private oil
company is
A. BP India
B. Essar Oil
C. Reliance Industries Limited
121. What was the major ambition of NELP in India?
A. Increase participation of private parties in exploration and
production activities
B. Increase participation of national oil companies in exploration and
production activities
C. Increase the coverage of explored area of the Indian sedimentary
basins
47
122. How many rounds of bidding have been undertaken until now under
NELP?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 9
123. The number of blocks offered by the government for exploration and
production activities under the NELP-VII round of bidding was
A. 57 B. 67 C. 81
124. Was two-dimensional seismic survey, mandatory for all the blocks
offered for bidding under the NELP-VII round of bidding?
A. Yes B. No
125. At present, the natural gas production in India is dominated by
B. Private players
126. India allows 100% foreign direct investment in the setting of LNG
terminals.
A. True B. False
127. The number of operational LNG terminal in India is
128. OMEL is the joint venture company of
A. ONGC Videsh Limited and Mittal Energy Limited
B. Oil India Limited and Mittal Energy Limited
C. Reliance Industries Limited and Mittal Energy Limited
129. Of the total natural gas available in India, the largest share goes to
A. Petrochemicals B. Fertilizers C. Power
130. In the energy sector, the maximum use of natural gas is as
A. Industrial fuel B. Domestic fuel C. Power generation
131. The company with the largest installed refinery capacity in India as
on 1st April 2015 is
B. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
C. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
132. The largest crude-processing single refinery of India is
A. Indian Oil Corporation Limited, Koyali
B. Reliance Industries Limited, Jamnagar
C. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited, Mumbai
48
133. In India the second largest private sector refinery as on 1 April

2015 is
A. Reliance Industries Limited, Jamnagar
B. Essar Oil, Jamnagar
C. Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited, Mangalore
134. Which of the following refineries was built first?
A. Mumbai Refinery
B. Bongaigaon Refinery
C. Digboi Refinery
135. The most complex operational refinery of India is
A. Essar Oil
C. Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited
136. From April 2005, fuel complying with ________ was introduced in 13
most polluted cities of India.
A. Euro-II B. Euro-III C. Euro-IV
137. Fuel complying with Euro-IV was introduced in India in
A. April 2009 B. April 2010 C. April 2012
138. The Digboi Refinery is being operated by
A. Assam Oil Company Ltd
B. Indian Oil Company Ltd
C. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd
139. India is an importer of liquefied petroleum gas.
A. True B. False
140. In India, the maximum number of retail outlets is of
C. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
141. The operator of all major gas pipelines of India before the sector was
opened for private players was
C. Gas Authority of India Limited
142. In India, the Royal Dutch Shell opened its first petrol station at
A. Bombay B. Hyderabad C. Bangalore
49
143. The process in which liquefied natural gas is kept at its boiling point,
so that any added heat is countered by energy cost from boil off is
A. Auto-vaporization
B. Auto-liquefiacation
C. Auto-refrigeration
144. The lowest gas pressure before a gas well must be sealed from further
production is
A. Threshold pressure
B. Bottom pressure
C. Abandonment pressure
145. The term used for the leased land for exploration and production is
A. Propriety
B. Passive ownership
C. Acreage
146. The amount of gas or oil that a regulatory agency permits a well,
lease, or field to produce during a period of time such as a month is
known as
A. Allowable B. Granted C. Producible
147. A well from which water flows to the surface under its own pressure
is termed
A. Self well B. Artersioan well C. Flow well
148. A mineral that was formed by a chemical reaction in the subsurface
is termed
A. Authigenic B. Geogenic C. Neither A nor B
149. The centre of a fold is termed
A. Axis B. Point C. Neither A nor B
150. Which company amongst the following companies doesn’t have a stake
in Sakhalin–II Project?
A. ONGC Videsh B. Mitsubishi C. Mitsui
151. The major share of LNG from the Sakhalin-II Project is meant for
A. Hiroshima Gas Company Limited
B. Shell Eastern Trading Limited
C. Tokyo Gas
152. In the USA, the LNG business is regulated by the Federal Energy
Regulatory Commission.
A. True B. False
50
153. The country Al-Mamlaka Al-Arabiya is popularly known as

A. Saudi Arabia
B. Republic of Yemen
C. United Arab Emirates
154. The Kingdom of Norway is an LNG-importing country.
A. True B. False
155. The Republic of Trinidad and Tobago is an LNG-exporting country.
A. True B. False
156. Libya is an LNG-importing country.
A. True B. False
157. The Republic of Algeria is an LNG-importing country.
A. True B. False
158. Dominican Republic is an LNG-exporting country.
A. True B. False
159. The Kingdom of Bulgaria is an LNG-exporting country.
A. True B. False
160. The first country to establish LNG import terminal is
A. USA B. Japan C. UK
161. The first country to start export of LNG was
A. Republic of Algeria B. USA C. State of Brunei
162. The only country that has both LNG exporting and importing
terminals is
A. Kingdom of Belgium B. USA C. Japan
163. In the Asia-Pacific region, the country having maximum number of
LNG regasification terminals is
A. China B. South Korea C. Japan
164. Which of the following countries of the Asia-Pacific region has the least
number of LNG regasification terminals?
A. China B. South Korea C. India
165. The Island of Philippines, where in the recent past large reserves of
natural gas have been discovered is
A. Persekutuan B. Palawan C. Neither A nor B
166. When cold LNG is exposed to warm air, it becomes a visible
vapour cloud.
A. True B. False
51
167. The first commercial natural gas liquefaction plant was built in
A. California B. Texas C. West Virginia
168. The first LNG-related explosion incident occurred at Cleveland in
A. 1936 B. 1940 C. 1944
169. In LNG transportation system, SRV stands for
A. Storage and regasification volume
B. Shuttle and storage and regasification vessel
C. Shipment of reserve volume
170. No lives have been lost in LNG-related incidents throughout the world
in the last 40 years.
A. True B. False
171. Kuwait has two LNG liquefaction terminals.
A. True B. False
172. Kuwait is to establish an LNG regasification facility.
A. True B. False
173. The benchmark crude of the United States is
A. West Texan Intermediate
B. North Sea Brent
C. Saudi Light
174. The benchmark crude of Great Britain is
A. West Texas Intermediate
B. North Sea Brent
C. Saudi Light
175. The use of microfossils to study and identify sedimentary rocks is
called
A. Stratigraphy
B. Biostratigraphy
C. Sedimentology
176. An oil that contains a relatively high percentage of long, heavy, non-
volatile hydrocarbon molecules is
A. New oil B. Black oil C. Brown oil
177. _____ oil is made available to a multinational company so as to
reimburse for its earlier expenditure.
A. Cost B. Owner C. Buy
52
178. Dry holes are also termed

A. Rubbish B. Duster C. Cluster
179. DWT in shipping industry stands for
A. Down weight tonne
B. Dead weight tonnage
C. Displaced weight tonne
180. The first underground natural gas storage field of the world is
A. Buffalo B. Zoar C. Michigan
181. Which of the following is the main function of tap station?
A. Metering of natural gas received
B. Reduction in pressure of gas received
C. Both A and B
182. There is a marked difference between the inlet gas pressure and outlet
gas pressure of tap stations.
A. True B. False
183. The gas pressure in the city distribution pipeline is ______ the
transportation pipeline.
A. Similar to B. Higher than C. Lower than
184. Gas pipeline in the premises of the consumer between the meter and
the appliance is known as
A. Service line B. Fuel line C. Link line
185. Generally, the fuel lines are the responsibility of
A. Distribution company
B. Consuming company
C. Local government
186. Gulf Oil, one of the historically dominated company, was formed in
A. Texas B. Dubai C. Abu Dhabi
187. Gulf Oil was merged in 1984 with
A. Shell B. Total C. Chevron
188. Which of the following is regarded as the “King of the Kings” oilfields
of the world?
A. Fadhili B. Ghawar C. Safaniya
189. More than half of Saudi Arabia’s cumulative daily oil production
comes from
A. Safaniya oilfield B. Ghawar oilfield C. Abqaiq oilfield
53
190. An extensive region that is characterized by a similar geological history,

or by particular structural or physiographical features throughout, for
example, a basin or delta, is termed
A. Geologic kingdom
B. Geologic province
C. Geologic town
191. A liquid petroleum distillate having a viscosity intermediate between
that of kerosene and lubricating oil and derives its name from its
original use in the manufacture of illuminating gas is known as
A. Gasified petroleum B. Gas oil C. Gasohol
192. A mixture typically containing about 90% unleaded gasoline and
10% ethyl alcohol, which can be used as an alternative fuel in some
automobiles and truck engines, is known as
A. Gasoline blending B. Gas oil C. Gasohol
193. ______ is one of the various devices employed for the producing gas,
such as a unit to produce synthesis gas from coal or to produce gaseous
fuel from solid or liquid biomass.
A. Gas former B. Converter C. Gasifier
194. A pipeline hub on the Louisiana’s Gulf Coast, the delivery point
for the natural gas future’s contract on the New York Mercantile
Exchange, is
A. Argus B. Henry hub C. Platters
195. A unit of measurement enacted by King Edward IV of England in
1482, that established 42 gallons as the standard size for a barrel of
herring is
A. Barrel B. Herring barrel C. Edward barrel
196. The largest natural gas field in North America in terms of
reserves is
A. Kansas B. Texas C. Hugoton
197. Hugoton gas field includes acreages in Kansas, Texas, and Oklahoma.
A. True B. False
198. The increase in temperature brought about when a given amount of
gas is compressed by a certain amount is called
A. Heat of compression
B. Heat of compactness
C. Compression temperature
54
199. The heat required per unit mass to change a substance from a vapour
to a liquid at its boiling point is called
A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat of compression
C. Heat of condensation
200. The full form of NYMEX is
A. New York Mercantile Exchange
B. New York Multi-product Exchange
C. New York Mineral Exchange
201. A term for light oils that distil between 30°C and 200°C is
A. Industrial spirit
B. Industrial fuel oil
C. Gasoline
202. Europe’s leading energy futures and options exchange and the second
largest in the world after NYMEX is
A. International Petroleum Exchange
B. International Products Exchange
C. International Price Exchange
203. Which of the following oilfields was developed by Dad Joiner?
A. East Texas oilfield B. Ghawar oilfield C. North Sea oilfield
204. The term light fuel oil includes kerosene and jet fuel.
A. True B. False
205. A term for liquefied petroleum gas fractionated from refinery or still
gases is
A. Liquefied refinery gas
B. Liquefied petroleum gas
C. Neither A nor B
206. Lurgi was organized in
A. Frankfurt, Germany B. London, UK C. New York, USA
207. A category of distillate oils that may require spark ignition for
combustion in marine engines is
A. Marine fuel oil
B. Marine gas oil
C. Marine gasoline oil
55
208. Who was the founder of Shell Transport and Trading Company?
A. John D Rockefellers
B. Marcus Samuel
C. J B August Kesstler
209. Royal Dutch Shell started its production in
A. Baku B. Sumatra C. Java
210. The company that introduced the first bulk tanker for the transportation
of crude oil is
A. Royal Dutch Petroleum Company
B. The Tank Syndicate
C. Standard Oil
211. Pennzoil, a major lube brand, belongs to
A. Atlantic Oil
B. Royal Dutch Shell
C. ConocoPhillips
212. The initial product of oil sand is
A. Diesel oil B. Heavy fuel oil C. Bitumen
213. A classification for gasoline having an intermediate octane rating in
the range of 88–90 is
A. Mid-grade gasoline
B. Low-grade gasoline
C. High-grade gasoline
214. The average number of miles that a vehicle can travel on a gallon
equivalent of an alternative fuel is termed miles per gallon
equivalent.
A. True B. False
215. The year in which ExxonMobil was formed by the merger of Exxon
and Mobil is
A. 1991 B. 1998 C. 2003
216. The site where the first oilfield was discovered in Iraq is
A. Basra B. Naft Khana C. Baghdad
217. A method of determining the wellhead price of oil or natural gas that
shares the end market value of the resources with all parties in the
supply chain is called
A. Cost plus B. Pay back C. Net back
56
218. A large quantity of oil spreading over a flat surface of the earth as a
result of seepage, spill, or the dumping of waste oil is known as
A. Oil pour B. Oil flat C. Oil lake
219. A hole or cavity in the earth containing waste oil and other residues
from drilling and/or refining operations is termed
A. Oil patch B. Oil pit C. Oil lake
220. An accidental or unwanted release of oil into the environment from
the receptacle in which it is being transported or stored like tanker at
sea is known as
A. Oil spill B. Oil patch C. Oil spread
221. ______ is a major oil and gas producing region in the United States,
located in West Texas and adjoining area of Southeastern New
Mexico.
A. Texas Basin B. Permian Basin C. Mexico Basin
222. _______ is a classification of gasoline having a higher octane rating,
typically above 92–93.
A. Normal gasoline
B. Mid-grade gasoline
C. Premium-grade gasoline
223. ______ is a classification of gasoline having a standard octane rating,
typically about 85–87.
A. Mid-grade gasolinem
B. Regular-grade gasoline
C. Premium-grade gasoline
224. Who popularized the term “Seven Sisters” for the seven dominant oil
companies?
A. Marcus Samuel
B. J B August Kessler
C. Anthony Sampson
225. The detonation of an explosive device in a wellbore to allow oil or gas
to flow to the surface is known as
A. Firing B. Beating C. Shooting
226. A natural gas processing plant constructed near a transmission pipeline,
downstream from the fields where the natural gas in the pipeline has
been produced is known as
A. Interim plant B. Straddle plant C. Down plant
57
227. ______ is a term for discovered natural gas that is partially or

completely isolated from markets, because of distance or insufficient
transportation infrastructure and is thus undeveloped.
A. Ignored gas B. Stand gas C. Stranded gas
228. VLCC is a supertanker for the transportation of
A. Crude oil B. Gas C. Alcohol
229. In Brazil, neat alcohol used for the automotive purposes is termed as
A. Alcool B. Alool C. Cool
230. Exxon was earlier known as
A. Standard Oil of California
B. Standard Oil of New Jersey
C. Texas Oil Company
231. The Trans-Arabian Pipeline, which was developed in 1950 to carry
crude oil, is better known as
A. Tapline B. Crudeline C. Linkline
232. The largest offshore oilfield of Saudi Arabia is
A. Ghawar B. Safaniya C. Dhahran
233. At the time of inception, the name of Texaco Oil Company was
A. Texas Fuel Company
B. Texas Petroleum Company
C. Texas Oil Company
234. The first oil company to sell its gasoline in all the 48 states of the USA
in 1928 was
A. Royal Dutch Shell
B. Texas Company
C. Standard Oil New Jersey
235. Total was earlier known as
A. Getty Oil
B. Esso
C. Elf Aquitaine
236. The time in the history of a well in which the revenue from production
equals production costs is known as
A. Net balance B. Basic limit C. Economic limit
237. KazMunaiGas is the state-owned company of
A. Kazakhstan B. Tajikistan C. Uzbekistan
58
238. Australia’s largest oil and gas producer is

A. BHP Billiton Petroleum Limited
B. Central Petroleum Limited
C. Chevron Corporation
239. A well that significantly increases the production area of a field is
termed
A. An additional well
B. An enhancement well
C. An extension well
240. A vehicle that can operate on an alternative fuel, usually something
other than gasoline or diesel fuel, is called
A. An alternative fuel vehicle
B. A hybrid fuel vehicle
C. A fuel cell vehicle
241. A solid, porous by-product of gas manufacturing that can be used for
domestic heating is called
A. Coke B. Carbon C. Fuel oil
242. A vehicle that operates only on one fuel and cannot use another fuel
is called
A. A dedicated vehicle B. A flexi vehicle C. A hybrid vehicle
243. _______ is a mixture of two liquids that are mixed with each other
such that they cannot be separated easily.
A. Emulsion B. Commission C. Aquifer
244. The gas accumulated at the top of oil in a pool, observed in almost all
oil ponds, is known as
A. Associated cap B. Gas cap C. Normal cap
245. The method of artificial lift in which gas is injected through the tubing
or casing in a well to facilitate rise of oil to the surface is known as
A. Gas flooding B. Gas lift C. Gas pressurizing
246. A lateral or vertical movement of water, oil, or gas within the reservoir
rock, through the pores or fissures, is known as
A. Shifting B. Migration C. Neither A nor B
247. A mixture of hydrocarbon compounds and small amounts of various
non-hydrocarbons existing in the gaseous phase or in solution with
crude oil in natural underground reservoir is called
A. Associated gas B. Ground gas C. Natural gas
59
248. Reserves are expressed in terms of

A. Million tonnes of oil
B. Billion of cubic metres of gas
C. Both A and B
249. The recovery of oil from a reservoir after the known secondary methods
have ceased to be effective is called
A. Residual recovery B. Tertiary recovery C. Last recovery
250. A person in charge of drilling operations is called
A. Tool collector B. Tool pusher C. Neither A nor B
251. A thick heavy oil that has specific gravity close to water is called
A. Heavy oil B. Fuel oil C. Water oil
252. The portion of a formation that is capable of producing oil or gas is
called
A. Pay zone B. Repay zone C. Catch zone
253. Recovery, that is, the amount of oil withdrawn from reservoir, is
expressed in terms of
A. Percentage B. Crude gravity C. Volume
254. Oil, gas, and water in the reservoir are called
A. Oil mix B. Reservoir fluids C. Reservoir mix
255. Oil extracted from shale or unrefined oil from coal conversion plants
is termed
A. White crude B. Syn crude C. Black crude
256. Fuels that are produced through complex chemical conversions of
natural fossil substances, such as coal and oil shale are known as
A. New fuels B. Synthetic fuels C. Producer fuels
257. Textile fibres made from petroleum are called
A. New fibres B. Synthetic fibres C. Natural fibres
258. The measure of a liquid’s internal friction or of its resistance to flow
is called
A. Viscosity B. Resistivity C. Flow control
259. Natural gas that is dissolved in oil but can be separated from it under
suitable conditions of temperature and pressure is called
A. Associated gas B. Solution gas C. Both A and B
260. Which of the following is not one of the two oil-rich countries of the
Central Asia, having the potential to export oil, but are not members
of the OPEC?
A. Turkmenistan B. Kazakhstan C. Gabon
60
261. The first Russian company to produce Jet A-1 aviation fuel is
A. Gazprom B. Yukos C. Lukoil
262. What is CATS?
A. A type of catalytic converter
B. A natural gas pipeline
C. An electricity transmission line in the United States
263. Which of the following is Mexico’s national oil company?
A. Pemex
B. ADNOC
C. Yukos Oil Company
264. In geology jargon, what is oil containing dissolved gas, that may be
released from the solution at surface conditions called?
A. Alive oil B. Reborn oil C. Live oil
265. A hydrocyclone similar to a desander, except that its design incorporates
a greater number of small cones, is called
A. Desander B. Desiccant C. Desilter
266. In well-testing jargon, the reservoir area or volume drained by the well
is called
A. Drainage area B. Oilfield C. Disarray
267. In production-testing terminology, what is the untreated gas that leaves
the well called?
A. Green gas B. Blue gas C. Red gas
268. Which oil company began its journey in 1880, when 16 refiners in
Southwestern Ontario merged?
A. Imperial Oil Company Limited
B. Western Ontario Oil
C. On Tar Oil Company
269. Which company’s chemist, Herman Frasch, developed a process for the
removal of sulphur from kerosene?
A. Imperial Oil B. Standard Oil C. ExxonMobil
270. The first successful mechanically drilled well in Asia was bored in
A. 1867 B. 1901 C. 1895
271. Up to 2 two feet of efficient insulation is needed surrounding each LNG
tanker to minimize heat gain during the voyage from the liquefaction
plant to the receiving terminal.
A. True B. False
61
272. What are moorings?

A. A kind of ring-shaped tankers
B. A kind of an equipment for clamping LNG tankers in the docks
C. A type of connector to connect the ships securely to the jetty
273. The approximate time taken for a full-sized LNG tanker to unload is
A. 6–10 h B. 2–5 h C. 12–15 h
274. What are the different types of LNG tankers?
A. Cylindrical containment, helical containment, spherical
containment
B. Single containment, double-helical containment, cubical
containment
C. Single containment, double-containment, full containment
275. To energize Kendall Motor Oil marketers throughout the USA,
the brand created the concept of “Team Kendall” as a model for
continued business growth.
A. True B. False
276. Which country was not a victim of the oil embargo by Arab oil
producers during the Middle East war crisis in 1973/74?
A. Denmark B. Japan C. Rhodesia
277. Which of the following countries is a member of the Organization of
Arab Petroleum Exporting Countries (OAPEC) but is not a member of
the OPEC?
A. Libya B. Saudi Arabia C. Egypt
278. Which of the following oil companies is a Brazilian oil company?
A. Cairns B. Petrobras C. Exxon
279. How many sedimentary basins is India endowed with?
A. 30 B. 26 C. 15
280. The EIA’s alternative definition of minimum stocks is called minimum
observed stocks. This can be defined as
A. The lowest observed stock in the last 10 years
B. The lowest observed stock in the last 5 years
C. The lowest observed stock in the last 3 years
281. Which of the following countries can be classified as a “signatory state”
with respect to the IEA?
A. Sweden B. Finland C. Norway
62
282. At international level, no institutional device has been established for

the IEA to participate in international judicial proceedings.
A. True B. False
283. Which of the following member states of the IEA was allowed several
years of acquiescence in their non-performance of the emergency
reserve commitment from the outset?
A. Austria B. Denmark C. Sweden
284. The IEP Agreement is not published in
A. English B. Spanish C. German
285. The Governing Board of the IEA consists of members from how many
member states?
A. Only 10 member states at a time
B. All participating states
C. Only the original signatories of the IEP
286. What is a lift?
A. The whirling of the wind blades
B. The whirling of the motors
C. The mechanism of turning of the rotor with the help of the low
air pressure below the blades
287. What can be the typical usage area of stand-alone wind turbines?
A. Transport B. Vehicles C. Water pumping
288. The major problem of oil production in India is in
A. Oil exploration techniques
B. Oil refining
C. Low drilling recovery rate
289. Cairn Energy has been drilling in a particular zone of India for oil
supply since 2001. Name the zone.
A. Eastern Odisha
B. Deccan Plateau
C. Western Rajasthan
290. Shell gained entry in the downstream market in India in
A. 2003 B. 2002 C. 2004
291. The gas–pressure dispensing unit on a daughter station is always
constant.
A. True B. False
63
292. In which cities was the pilot project for CNG launched in India?
A. Agra and Surat
B. Ankaleshwar, Pune, and Hazira
C. Delhi, Mumbai, and Vadodara
293. What was the main reason for introducing natural gas as a fuel source
in environementally sensitive areas of India?
A. The abundance of natural gas in the country
B. Environmental concerns
C. Driven by economic concerns
294. When was oil for the first time used as a political weapon by the
Arab oil-producing countries against Israel and the West (which many
analysts view as the beginning of oil politics)?
A. 1969 B. 1973 C. 1978
295. The refinery that has been granted the status of “Star Trading House”
by the Director General of Foreign Trade and has been exporting
products, such as furnace oil (FO), motor spirit (MS), aviation turbine
fuel (ATF), and naphtha is
A. Indian Oil Corporation Limited, Mumbai
B. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited, Mumbai
C. Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited, Mangalore
296. Who regulates the natural gas distribution in the USA?
A. State Public Utility Commission
B. Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
C. Gas Distribution Regulatory Board
297. Which sector is the largest user of gas in Australia?
A. Industry B. Power C. Fertilizer
298. When were the wellhead crude oil prices in the USA completely
deregulated?
A. 1998 B. 1993 C. 2000
299. Finland was an original member of the Organization for Economic
Cooperation and Development (OECD) group of countries.
A. True B. False
300. How many metric tonnes of strategic oil reserves may be held in
India?
A. 5 million B. 2 million C. 3 million
64
301. The OECD is associated with which organization?

A. The Energy and Resources Institute
B. International Energy Agency
C. Global Environment Facility
302. Paris is the host country of which institution?
A. International Energy Agency
B. United Nations Development Programme
C. Global Environment Facility
303. According to the World Energy Investment Outlook, which of the
following sectors will require the maximum investment in infrastructure
over the next 30 years?
A. Electricity B. Coal C. Gas
304. What is the general formula of the paraffin series of hydrocarbons?
A. C2H2n+2 B. CnH2n+2 C. CnHn+2
305. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 is named
A. Pentane B. Hexane C. Propane
306. The entropy of a substance existing at a temperature of absolute zero
is called
A. Zero entropy
B. Absolute entropy
C. Base entropy
307. Which of the following is the acidic constituent of natural gas?
A. Hydrogen sulphide B. Carbon dioxide C. Both A and B
308. A device attached to the air-intake mechanism of any automobile to
remove solid impurities from air stream is called
A. Carburettor B. Mixture C. Air filter
309. A method of expressing the composition of a mixture of fuel and air
by the measurement of either weight or volume is known as
A. Air–fuel ratio B. Air–fuel volume C. Air–fuel weight
310. A numerical index used to describe the extent to which harmful
pollutants are present in the atmosphere at any given time is called
A. Pollution index
B. Air quality index (AQI)
C. Neither A nor B
65
311. Transportation vehicles, especially vehicles that run on non-petroleum

energy sources, such as ethanol or hydrogen are known as
A. Alternative fuel vehicles
B. New fuel vehicles
C. Developed fuel vehicles
312. The primary trade association of the American oil and gas industry
that seeks to influence public policy in support of the American oil
and natural gas industry is
A. Approved Petroleum Institute
B. Applied Petroleum Institute
C. American Petroleum Institute
313. In physical chemistry, AMU stands for
A. Atomic mass unit
B. Atmospheric mechanical unit
C. Anticipated mass unit
314. The Arabian–American Oil Company, which was established in 1933
to develop the oil resources of Saudi Arabia, and was subsequently
nationalized, is
A. Saudi Shell Oil Company
B. Aramco
C. Saudi Arabian Oil Company
315. After the nationalization of Aramco in 1988, the company was
rechristened as
A. Saudi Arabian Oil Company
B. Saudi Aramco
C. Both A and B are same
316. A group of oil or gas types considered collectively is known as
A. Portfolio B. Mug C. Basket
317. In a pipeline operation, the separate pumping of different grades of oil
or gasoline that are of different densities to prevent mixing of deliveries
is known as
A. Grouping B. Batching C. Separating
318. A crude oil similar to petroleum that can be produced from biomass
under high pressure and temperature and can be further upgraded to
be used as a transportation fuel is
A. Chemical crude B. Biocrude C. Synthetic crude
66
319. Any solid, gaseous, or liquid fuel obtained from biomass, that may be
in its natural form (such as wood and peat) or a commercially produced
form (such as ethanol), is
A. Chemical fuel B. Synthetic fuel C. Biofuel
320. A general term for renewable energy produced from biomass, such as
wood and wood wastes, agricultural crops and wastes, or municipal
and industrial wastes is
A. Chemical source energy
B. Biomass energy
C. Synthetic source energy
321. The temperature at which a liquid’s vapour pressure equals the
atmospheric pressure of its environment is known as
A. Liquefaction temperature
B. Gas point
C. Boiling point
322. A crude oil type of Nigeria, which is also one of the group (basket) of
crudes used by OPEC in its pricing system, is
A. Bonny Light B. Brent Crude C. Saudi Light
323. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is sometimes referred to as
A. Piped natural gas (PNG)
B. Compressed natural gas (CNG)
C. Bottled gas
324. A facility that receives petroleum products by tankers, barge, or
pipeline and stores them for eventual shipment to refineries or other
marketing outlets is known as
A. Bulk terminal
B. Storage terminal
C. Intermediate terminal
325. Bulk terminal is also referred to as
A. Fuel station B. Storage bulk C. Bulk station
326. A term used to denote marine fuel especially for international shipping
is
A. Bulk fuel B. Bunker fuel C. Ship fuel
327. The atomic mass of carbon-12 is regarded as
A. 1 B. 12 C. 24
67
328. A method of reducing the atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide,

in response to climate change concerns, in which carbon dioxide is
collected prior to release into the atmosphere and placed in long-term
storage is
A. Carbon dioxide capture and storage
B. Carbon dioxide reduces and storage
C. Carbon dioxide extractor and storage
329. Any site as reservoir that absorbs or takes up released carbon from
another part of the carbon cycle, such as forests and other woody
vegetations, is known as
A. Carbon attractor B. Carbon sink C. Carbon capture
330. A device that is used to provide and regulate the mixture of air and
fuel that is burnt inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine
is known as
A. Carburettor B. Compressor C. Mixer
331. A term used for the feedstock supplied to a catalytic cracking
process is
A. Cat feed B. Crack cat C. Cat source
332. CDM stands for
A. Carbon development mechanism
B. Clean development mechanism
C. Coker developed machine
333. A unit of greenhouse gas reduction, which was generated and certified
under the provision of Article 12 of the Kyoto Protocol, the Clean
Development Mechanism is
A. Standard reduced certificate
B. Certified emission reduction
C. Reduced emission certificate
334. A colourless liquid hydrocarbon of the alkane series, C16 H34, used in
cetane number determinations and as a solvent is
A. Hexane B. Cetane C. Heptane
335. The difficulty in starting an internal combustion engine in cold weather
because of factors, such as slower evaporation of gasoline, restricted
flow of water, and slower chemical reactions inside the battery is
called.
A. Hot start B. Cold start C. Neutral start
68
336. A process in a power plant, involving a combination of gas and steam

turbine, which converts natural gas into electrical energy, and the
exhaust heat from the process is used to produce steam, which powers
a steam turbine to generate more energy, is called.
A. Combined cycle B. Whole cycle C. Mixed cycle
337. Natural gas that is composed primarily of methane, compressed to
pressure at or above 2400 lb/pounds per square inch, and is used to
power motor vehicles is called
A. CNG B. PNG C. LNG
338. The degradation of metal or alloys due to chemical reactions with their
environment, which is accelerated by the presence of acids or bases, is
called
A. Corrosion B. Erosion C. Fracture
339. Asphalt is sometimes termed
A. Asphalt cement B. Coal cement C. Coke cement
340. The mixture of bitumen and mineral aggregate, sand, and fillers is
termed
A. Asphalt mix B. Bitumen sand C. Asphalt cement
341. The second largest oil producer of OPEC is
A. Iran B. Iraq C. Qatar
342. What is the basis of pricing of crudes from North Sea, Nigeria, Angola,
and Libya?
A. Brent Crude
B. West Texas Intermediate (WTI)
C. Dubai Crude
343. Which country is the world’s second largest importer of liquefied
natural gas (LNG)?
A. Japan B. Korea C. Qatar
344. Until 2003/04, India was a net importer of petroleum products?
A. True B. False
345. The main sources for biodiesel in India are non-edible oils obtained
from plant species of
A. Jatropha curcas B. Pongamia pinnata C. Both A and B
346. what is the full form of Ofgem?
A. Office of Gas and Electricity Markets
B. Office of Oil and Gas
C. Neither A nor B
69
347. What are Centrica and BG?

A. They are the two new organizations formed by restructuring British
Gas
B. They are rival companies in oil business in the UK
C. Neither A nor B
348. Saudi Arabia is the key oil exporter to
A. The USA B. Europe C. Both A and B
349. Which country is the world’s largest energy producer?
A. United States B. United Kingdom C. Canada
350. The United States has over 1,000,000 producing oil wells.
A. True B. False
351. What are Ursa, Mad Dog, and Thunder Horse in the American oil
industry?
A. Oilfields B. Oil tankers C. Neither A nor B
352. Most of Alaska’s oil output comes from
A. Prudhoe Bay Oilfield
B. Kuparuk River Oilfield
C. Neither A nor B
353. What is the earlier name of the Thunder Horse Oilfield in the USA?
A. Crazy Horse B. Mad Horse C. Lightening Horse
354. Which sector of the American economy consumes most of the nation’s
petroleum?
A. Residential B. Transportation C. Industrial
355. Libya mainly exports its oil to
A. Asia B. South America C. Europe
356. Algeria is not a member of the OPEC.
A. True B. False
357. Most of the OPEC members are open to foreign investment.
A. True B. False
358. In Algeria, Hassi Messaoud is an
A. Oilfield B. Oil tanker C. Oil company
359. Rhourde-el-Baguel is the second largest oilfield in Algeria.
A. True B. False
360. Oil and Gas Development Corporation Limited belongs to
A. India B. Pakistan C. Sri Lanka
70
361. ______ is the largest oil exploration and production firm in Pakistan.
A. Pakistan State Oil
B. Pakistan Petroleum Limited
C. Bosicor Pakistan Limited
362. Crude oils are valued based on the net value realization (the refining
margin) to the refinery after accounting for various costs.
A. True B. False
363. One short tonne of crude oil is approximately equal to
A. 5.65 barrels B. 7.65 barrels C. 6.65 barrels
364. The pour point of crude oil ranges between
A. 32°C and − 57°C B. 0°C and – 57°C C. 30°C and – 20°C
365. Which entity looks after activities related to the five-year plan of the
Indian energy ministries?
A. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
B. Planning Commission, Power and Energy Division
C. Power and energy departments of state governments
366. In India, the Petroleum Act, 1934 provides for which of
the following?
A. Empowers the Central Government to make rules for importing,
transportation, and storage of petroleum
B. Empowers the Central Government to grant exploration licences,
mining leases, and regulations related to conservation and
development of petroleum products
C. Empowers the state governments for production, supply, and
distribution of all petroleum commodities
367. An airtight home can substantially cut your energy consumption. To
save energy, leaks around windows and doors should be sealed by
A. Weather stripping B. Caulking C. Both A and B
368. In India, over two-thirds of ______ is imported from other countries.
A. Natural gas
B. Crude oil
C. Petroleum products
369. What is the source of steam for the dry steam power plants?
A. Steam from volcano
B. Boiled water
C. Underground resources of steam
71
370. Hydrogen is a big source of energy and is used as a fuel. For that we
need the separation of hydrogen from the hydrocarbons by ______
process.
A. Forming B. Hydrogenation C. Reforming
371. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has
been using ______ as a fuel source since 1970 for propelling space
shuttles.
A. Gaseous hydrogen
B. Moisture-free hydrogen
C. Liquid hydrogen
372. In which year was the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons set up in
India?
A. 1992 B. 1994 C. 1993
373. Which is India’s largest oil marketing company?
A. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
B. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
C. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
374. Which of the following is true?
A. OPEC has two types of members—active and passive
B. OPEC members possess same voting power and all members are
called “full-time dedicated members”
C. OPEC has three categories of members—founder member, full
member, and associate member
375. The purpose of OPEC Fund for International Development is
A. To provide loans to poorest Middle East countries for oil
exploration
B. To promote cooperation between OPEC members and other
developing countries
C. To lend only to non-OPEC developing countries that are major
importers of petroleum from OPEC countries
376. What is called an oil slick?
A. Heavy oil that sinks in freshwater
B. Oil that spreads out rapidly across the water surface to form a thin
layer
C. The spread of oil on road or parking places that produces a rainbow-
like impression
72
377. Which body takes decisions on the structure and composition of the
Secretariat of the IEA?
A. The Governing Board of the IEA
B. The Executive Director of the IEA
C. The European Commission
378. What is the name given to the tall, main structure of a drilling rig?
A. Stand pipe B. Bridge C. Neither A nor B
379. What is the term used for a type of topography formed in areas of
widespread carbonate rocks through dissolution?
A. Carbophile B. Karst C. Carbo graph
380. Which company is a partner to Amsterdam’s first hydrogen station?
A. Shell B. Petronas C. Argus
381. What are the large tongs used to help unscrew one section of pipe
from another during drilling?
A. Breakout tongs B. Breakneck tongs C. Blowout tongs
382. What is the room on the oil rig, that the drillers use as an office
called?
A. Penthouse B. Doghouse C. Barn
383. The “leum” in petroleum means
A. Rock B. Carbon C. Oil
384. What is the name of the world’s leading magazine for the the liquefied
natural gas industry?
A. LNG Publication B. LNG Line C. LNG Journal
385. Which company monopolized the gas chain in Britain?
A. Cairn B. Shell C. British Gas
386. When was India’s Hydrocarbon Vision Report presented?
A. 1997 B. 1992 C. 2000
387. Which state in India passed a “gas act”?
A. Maharashtra B. Gujarat C. Andhra Pradesh
388. The Supreme Court’s verdict was in favour of Gujarat for the Gujarat
Gas Act.
A. True B. False
389. The Gujarat Gas Act raised a debate in India on the jurisdiction of the
state government to legislate on gas.
A. True B. False
73
390. In India, the responsibility of ensuring balanced growth in supply,

transmission, and distribution of natural gas is of
A. State government
B. Central government
C. Independent regulator
391. Which country is the world’s largest commercial energy consumer?
A. USA B. Russia C. China
392. What is the most common and economical way of transporting natural
gas over land for a distance less than 1500 km?
A. Pipelines B. Oil tankers C. Barrels
393. In 2000, OPEC introduced a ______ system to decide on
curtailing/increasing the production.
A. Price band B. Volume band C. Both A and B
394. Which of the following is the Russia’s first off shore gas project?
A. Shakhalin–II B. Shakhalin–I C. Arbuzovskoye
395. The price of oil in the pre-OPEC era was highly fluctuating.
A. True B. False
396. In post-OPEC, the oil trading evolved in a big way.
A. True B. False
397. In post-OPEC, the oil trading evolved over a big way because of large
imbalances between consuming and producing regions.
A. True B. False
398. The third oil-price shock is regarded during
A. 2000/01 B. 2002/03 C. 2003/06
399. Which of the following is not a type of oil trading market?
A. Paper market B. Physical market C. Contract market
400. Which of the following is not a factor that may affect freight costs?
A. Applicable laws (such as those related to spills)
B. Vessel condition
C. Crude price
401. Which of the following is not a type of oil contract?
A. Term contract B. Spot contract C. Hand contract
402. Spot contracts, for the trading of oil are on
A. Cargo-to-cargo basis B. Destination basis C. Neither A nor B
74
403. The contract for the tanker schedule for the transportation of crude
oil is finalized about ______ prior to the commencement of loading
month.
A. Three months B. Two months C. One month
404. Crude oils are valued based on the net value realization (the refinery
margin) to the refinery after accounting for various costs.
A. True B. False
405. Mathematically, refining margin is given by:
Gross product worth – Crude oil landed cost at refinery – variable
operating costs of refinery.
A. True B. False
406. The international oil prices are predictable.
A. True B. False
407. A petroleum contract, traded on regulated petroleum exchange, to buy
or sell a specified quantity and quality during a specified time in the
future at a location at the agreed price is termed
A. Future contract B. Forward contract C. Paper contract
408. The full form of NYMEX is
B. New York Multi-product Exchange
C. New York Mineral Exchange
409. The paper market for the trading oil contract may be the exchange
market or the OTC market.
A. True B. False
410. A ______ is a trader who seeks to transfer price risk by taking a future
position opposite to an existing position of the underlying commodity
or financial instrument.
A. Speculator B. Hedger C. Positioner
411. ______ contract gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy
or sell an underlying asset at a predetermined price within a specified
time or point of time.
A. Future B. Forward C. Option
412. The buyer of the ______ option has the right, but not the obligation,
to buy an underlying asset at a predetermined price within a specified
A. Call B. Put C. Forward
75
413. The buyer of the ______ option has the right, but not the obligation,
to sell an underlying asset at a predetermined price within a specified
A. Call B. Put C. Forward
414. To buy a call or put option, the buyer is required to pay a premium
to the seller of the option.
A. True B. False
415. Which of the following is not an OTC market of oil trading?
A. Singapore Exchange (SGX), Singapore
B. International Petroleum Exchange, London
C. New York Mercantile Exchange (NYMEX), New York
416. The largest petroleum exchange is
A. NYMEX
B. International Petroleum Exchange, London
C. Singapore Exchange (SGX)
417. The largest oil-trading OTC market of Asia is
A. Tokyo
B. Singapore
C. Hong Kong
418. A petroleum contract, traded in the unregulated over-the-counter
market, to buy or sell a specified quantity and quality during a specified
time in the future at a location at the agreed price is termed
A. Future contract B. Forward contract C. Paper contract
419. The domestic exchange in India offering oil future contract is
A. National Commodity and Derivative Exchange
B. Multi Commodity Exchange
C. Both A and B
420. Which of the following oil future is not traded on the Multi Commodity
Exchange (MCX) of India?
A. Furnance oil
B. Brent Crude oil
C. Bombay High Crude Oil
421. Which of the following is traded on MCX of India?
A. Assam Heavy Crude Oil
B. Brent Crude oil
C. Bombay High Crude Oil
76
422. The import parity price of petroleum products in India is to be linked

to the oil market of
A. West Asia B. Rotterdam C. Singapore
423. In Indian exchange, the oil contract trading is done in
A. US Dollars B. Euros C. Indian Rupees
424. The NCDEX of India is regulated by
A. Forward Market Commission and Forward Commission (Regulation)
Act
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Act
C. Neither A nor B
425. On NCDEX, a Brent Crude oil contract is treated for a period of
A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
426. The Brent Crude oil contracts on the NCDEX of India are settled by
A. Cash B. Delivery C. Both A and B
427. At the end of the day, all open positions of crude oil contracts are
marked to market at the
A. Daily settlement price
B. Weekly settlement price
C. Fortnightly settlement price
428. Which of the following is not an instrument for risk management?
A. Top B. Caps C. Swaps
429. Tankers designed to carry crude oil and having a capacity to carry
320,000 DWT and above are categorized as
A. LR-II B. VLCC C. ULCC
430. Specially designed tankers to carry crude oil having a capacity of
160,000–319,900 DWT are categorized as
A. ULCC B. VLCC C. LR-II
431. In 1998, the price of crude oil fell following
A. Meltdown of US economy
B. Overproduction in Iraq
C. Southeast Asian financial crisis
432. There is no clear relation between fluctuation of currency and the crude
oil landed cost at refinery.
A. True B. False
77
433. The full form of the IPE exchange of London is

A. Intermediate Product Exchange
B. Institution of Petroleum Exchange
C. International Petroleum Exchange
434. Which of the following is a factor that influences the demand and
supply of fuel oil prices?
A. Dollar fluctuation
B. Business cycles determining manufacturing centre
C. Both A and B
435. In the international market, the trading of crude oil is done
mainly in
A. US Dollars B. Euros C. Indian Rupees
436. The responsibility of an exchange or having crude oil contracts is to
ensure that the market is fair and in order.
A. True B. False
437. Forward crude oil contracts are exchange traded.
A. True B. False
438. Future crude oil contracts are OTC traded.
A. True B. False
439. The commodity exchange TOCOM stands for
A. Toyota Commodity Market
B. Tokyo Commodity Market
C. Toronto Commodity Market
440. One short tonne of crude oil is approximately equal to
A. 5.65 barrels B. 7.65 barrels C. 6.65 barrels
441. Which of the following crude has least amount of sulphur?
A. Bonny Light crude oil
B. West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil
C. Brent crude oil
442. Low quality fuel oil has higher levels of “unreactive carbon”, which
increases particulate emissions.
A. True B. False
443. RFCC stands for
A. Resid fluid catalytic cracking
B. Resident fluid catalytic cracking
C. Resid fractional catalytic cracking
78
444. Light distillate oil produced during FCC conversion process is also
termed as
A. Light FCC oil
B. Light cracked oil
C. Light distillate oil
445. Which of the following is not a feedstock of FCC unit?
A. Lube extracts
B. Solvent de-asphalted oils
C. Neither A nor B
446. With the increase in the contamination of the feedstock of RFCC unit,
the yield of coke decreases.
A. True B. False
447. The presence of contamination poses significant challenges for the
RFCC unit.
A. True B. False
448. The objective of the main fractionators section in a refinery is to
condense superheated reaction products to produce liquid hydrocarbon
products.
A. True B. False
449. Among all the hydrocracker configurations, single-stage once-through
hydrocracking configuration has the least costly scheme per barrel of
feed, but it is more costly per barrel of high product generated.
A. True B. False
450. Hydrocracking is an endothermic process.
A. True B. False
451. Conditions that favour the formation of gas hydrates are
A. Low temperature and high pressure
B. High temperature and low pressure
C. Low temperature and low pressure
452. Gas hydrates are normally found within
A. Sea floor B. Arctic sediments C. Both A and B
453. India’s basket of crude consists of
A. Oman/Dubai Sour and Brent Sweet
B. Bonny Light and Brent Sweet
C. Dubai Sour and Bonny Light
79
454. Different crudes (Oman/Dubai and Brent) in the Indian crude basket
are approximately in the ratio of
A. 61 : 39 B. 15 : 85 C. 50 : 50
455. A petroleum product whose price has been decontrolled in India is
A. ATF B. Kerosene C. Fuel oil
456. In India, the Administered Price Mechanism (APM) was fully
dismantled on
A. 1 April 2002 B. 1 April 2003 C. 1 April 2001
457. The price of ATF was decontrolled in India in
A. April 2000 B. April 2001 C. April 2002
458. In oil marketing, RSP stands for
A. Return on selling price
B. Retail supply price
C. Retail selling price
459. B K Chaturvedi Committee proposed the introduction of dual pricing
for high-speed diesel.
A. True B. False
460. B K Chaturvedi Committee recommended introduction of import
parity price for motor spirit, high-speed diesel, kerosene, and LPG.
A. True B. False
461. In the USA, the major portion of biodiesel comes from
A. Sunflower B. Rapeseed C. Soya bean
462. For the production of biodiesel, Thailand mainly uses
A. Soya bean B. Palm oil C. Sunflower
463. Frying oil and animal fat are used for the production of biodiesel in
A. Thailand B. USA C. Ireland
464. In India, the major source of biodiesel is
A. Jatropha curcas (Ratanjyot)
B. Pongamia pinnata (Karanj)
C. Calophyllum inophyllum (Nag champa)
465. To encourage the production and use of biodiesel in India, the
Government of India set up a committee named
A. Committee on Development of Biofuels
B. Biodiesel Development Committee
C. Neither A nor B
80
466. To encourage the production and use of biodiesel, the Government of

India launched
A. Mission Biodiesel 2010
B. Biodiesel Development Mission
C. National Mission on Biodiesel
467. India’s Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas launched the Biodiesel
Purchase Policy in
A. October 2007 B. October 2005 C. April 2003
468. Without modification, the existing engines may run on the gasoline
with an ethanol blend of
A. 5% B. 10% C. 20%
469. The use of ethanol-blended gasoline reduces vehicular emission of
hydrocarbon and carbon monoxide.
A. True B. False
470. ______ may be used to produce ethanol.
A. Soya bean B. Sunflower C. Cellulosic biomass
471. With the aim of blending gasoline with ethanol in 2002, the Government
of India launched
A. National Mission on Ethanol
B. Ethanol Blending Programme
C. Mission Ethanol 2012
472. In relation to the biofuel scheme of the Government of India, EBP
stands for
A. Ethanol Blending Programme
B. Ethanol and Biodiesel Programme
C. Both A and B
473. Ethanol production in India is lesser than the amount of ethanol
required to enhance the percentage of ethanol in gasoline.
A. True B. False
474. In India, the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)
Act came into being in
A. 2002 B. 2004 C. 2006
475. In India, the petroleum product price is regulated by
A. PNGRB
B. Government of India
C. Market
81
Tough
1. The pour point of crude oil ranges between
A. −57°C and 32°C B. –570°C and 0°C C. –200°C and 30°C
2. When was the first refinery opened in the USA?
A. 1856 B. 1861 C. 1871
3. The major new gas discovery in India is in
A. Cambay Basin
B. Krishna–Godavari Basin
C. Ganga Basin
4. How many fields across the world have a production figure of more
than 1 million barrels per day?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 4
5. The ultimate recoverable reserves of the Ghawar oilfield of Saudi
Arabia are about
A. 75–85 billion barrels
B. 90–95 billion barrels
C. 60–65 billion barrels
6. The capacity of the Paraguanáa Refinery of Venezuela is
A. 1,040,000 barrels per day
B. 940,000 barrels per day
C. 840,000 barrels per day
7. Who is the 11th member of OPEC?
A. Angola B. Nigeria C. Indonesia
8. The first summit of OPEC sovereign heads of state was held in
A. Algeria B. Venezuela C. Iraq
9. The first summit of OPEC sovereign heads of state was held in
A. 1974 B. 1975 C. 1976
10. The first offshore well was drilled in 1896 in
A. Sidorov B. Louisiana C. California
11. The use of a platform to drill an offshore well was first carried out at
12. FPSO stands for
A. Floating process system offshore
B. Floating production and storage offshore
C. Floating production and storage offloading
82
13. LPG is not used as a

A. Domestic fuel
B. Replacement of ozone-depleting chlorofluorocarbons
C. Fuel for power plants
14. Vapour pressure is a measure of the product’s volatility.
A. True B. False
15. Thermal radiation exclusion distances are determined by using a
standard for the production, storage, and handling of LNG set by an
association, named
A. National Heat Radiation Protection Association
B. National Fire Protection Association
C. National Thermal Protection Association
16. The first LNG terminal was built in Canada at
A. Vancouver
B. Columbia
C. Canso Strait in Nova Scotia
17. What is the large diameter pipe placed outside the gas anchor to
reduce the amount of solids carried by the formation liquid entering
the subsurface sucker-rod pump called?
A. Mud anchor B. Stud anchor C. Mud drainage
18. A common seismic display that shows trace amplitude versus time as
an oscillating line about a null point is known as
A. Wiggle trace B. Tricky trace C. Double-take trace
19. What is the term used to describe the forcing, by pressure, of
cement slurry into a specified location in a well, such as channels or
perforations, for the purpose of achieving zonal isolation?
A. Cemented slab
B. Squeeze cementing
C. Data coding
20. What are the two or three single joints of drill pipes or drill collars
that remain screwed together during the drilling operation called?
A. Sit B. Sit on C. Stand
21. In drilling terminology, what is the rigid metal conduit that provides
the high-pressure pathway for drilling mud to travel approximately
one-third of the way up the derrick called?
A. Stand post B. Standpipe C. Wish list
83
22. Expandable refers to

A. A well drilled to search for an undiscovered reservoir or to greatly
extend the limits of a known reservoir
B. Any of a series of systems and products based on expandable
solid tubular, which relies on forcing an expansion device through
standard oilfield tubular to permanently expand the diameter of
the pipe down hole
C. Neither A nor B
23. Beijing and Tianjin in China are developing LNG regasification plant
by getting the supply of gas from the province of
A. Xing Xiang
B. Hongshui
C. Shaanxi
24. What is the graduated cup used to take samples and to measure
volumes of mud for testing at the rig called?
A. Lead cup B. Mud cup C. Chalice
25. A floating device used in marine seismic acquisition to identify the
end of a streamer is known as
A. Tail buoy
B. Thread rule
C. Trap
26. The two seismologists after whom the zone of the upper mantle in
which earthquakes occur has been named are
A. Kiyoo Wadati and Hugo Benioff
B. Jacques Drèeze and Andre Béeteille
C. Hugo Troy and Evelyn Magdalene
27. The energy policy of industrialized countries prior to the formation
of the IEA can be characterized as “Optimistic-Active” rather than
“Optimistic-Passive”.
A. True B. False
28. The World Energy Outlook is recognized as an authoritative
document on
A. Global long-term energy market analysis
B. Oil market report
C. Energy policies of IEA countries
84
29. The blast in the Longford gas plant in Victoria (Australia) in 1998
led to
A. An agreement by a number of states on sharing gas supplies across
boarder in case of emergency
B. A steep rise in price of natural gas leading to switch back to
traditional fuels
C. The creation of a number of alternative gas transmission networks
to ensure continuous supply
30. How many countries are covered by the IEA’s Solar PACES Implementing
Agreement?
A. 26 B. 14 C. 10
31. How many barrels of oil were allowed to be released by the member
countries of IEA in the market as a part of the “contingency plan”
during the 1990/91 Gulf crisis?
A. 2.5 million barrels per day
B. 1 million barrels per day
C. 4 million barrels per day
32. Quebracho is
A. Powdered form of tannic acid extracted from the bark of quebracho
tree, used as a high-pH and lime-mud deflocculant
B. A term used to describe the initial phase of drilling operation
C. A catalyst produced from petrochemical plants
33. The official name for the BP logo is Helios, evoking a “sun” mural at BP’s
London headquarters and hinting at the flame from Amoco’s torch.
A. True B. False
34. What is Mina Al Bakr/Basra in Iraq?
A. It is an export terminal
B. It is an oil field
C. It is a power plant
35. During the Iran–Iraq War, Iraq built a pipeline via Saudi Arabia (called
Iraq Pipeline through Saudi Arabia or IPSA) to the Red Sea port of
Al-Mu’ajiz, just north of Yanbu.
A. True B. False
36. Iraq’s only non-associated natural gas production is from the ______
field in Northern Iraq.
A. Ain Zalah Field B. Al-Anfal Field C. Basra Field
85
37. How many cells are there in the module of the solar cells?
A. 30 B. 20 C. 40
38. When was the first solar cell built?
A. 1960s B. 1970s C. 1950s
39. What is the critical distance above the ground for the wind turbines
to capture wind energy?
A. 90 feet B. 80 feet C. 100 feet
40. What is a lift in the context of wind plant?
A. Turning of the wings of wind turbine
B. Turning of the blade of the wind turbine
C. Turning of the rotor of the wind turbine
41. What is a drag in the context of wind plant?
A. Wind’s force against the back rear side of the blade
B. Wind’s force against the ventral bottomside of the blade
C. Wind’s force against the front side of the wind turbine’s blade
42. In which year was the LNG Terminal Setting Act enacted in
California?
A. 1976 B. 1978 C. 1977
43. What is rapid phase transition?
A. Change in the potential energy of water when it falls from a
dam
B. Transfer of heat from water to steam in a power plant
C. Transfer of heat from water to LNG when LNG is rapidly spilled
on water at a fast rate
44. The “Dolphin Project” in the UAE aims to interconnect the natural gas
grids of Qatar, UAE, and Oman.
A. True B. False
45. In the context of UAE’s petroleum industry, what are Bab, Jebal Ali,
and Ruwais?
A. Oil companies B. Oil refineries C. Oilfields
46. What are Lukoil, Yukos, and Surgutneftegaz?
A. Names of oilfields in Russia
B. Names of Russian oil companies
C. Names of the Russian-made lubricant brands
86
47. The operator of the Sakhalin-II project is

A. Mitsubishi B. Royal Dutch/Shell C. Mitsui
48. Russian oil exports began in
A. 1893 B. 1947 C. 1978
49. Oil was first found in Iran in
A. 1908 B. 1950 C. 1801
50. IEA was established in
A. 1971 B. 1974 C. 1975
51. The IEA emergency response mechanisms were set up under
A. IEP Agreement
B. IEC Agreement
C. Oil Stock Agreement
52. The Oil Market Report issued by IEA is
A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
53. The resolutions of the OPEC Conference become effective after
A. 10 days B. 20 days C. 30 days
54. The OPEC Conference consists of
A. Delegation representing the member country
B. Head of state of the member country
C. The petroleum secretary of the member country
55. In 2014–15 the share of off shore production of crude oil to the total
production in India stood approximately at
A. 50% B. 40% C. 60%
56. Reliance Industries Limited has acquired oil blocks in Yemen.
A. True B. False
57. New Exploration and Licensing Policy was operationalized in India in
A. 1997 B. 1999 C. 2000
58. The number of blocks awarded under first six rounds of NELP is
A. 120 B. 142 C. 162
59. The extent of potential area covered under exploration till the sixth
round of NELP is
A. 0.11 B. 0.35 C. 0.41
87
60. Normally, OPEC Conference is held

A. On rotatory basis in different member countries
B. At its headquarters
C. In non-member countries
61. In 2014–15 the natural gas production in India (in billion cubic metres
or BCM) was approximately
A. 35.3 B. 25.3 C. 20.3
62. The total installed refining capacity of India in 2014–15 (in million
tonnes per annum or MTPA) was approximately
A. 250 B. 235 C. 215
63. Which of the following LNG terminals has not yet been
commissioned?
A. Dahej B. Hazira C. Dabhol
64. Initially, the Oil India Limited was a joint venture company of the
Government of India and Burmah Oil Company Limited, UK.
A. True B. False
65. Which is the longest gas pipeline in India?
A. Kakinada–Hyderabad–Uran–Ahmedabad
B. Dabhol–Bangalore
C. Hazira–Vijaipur-Jagdishpur–GREP–Dahej–Vijaipur
66. In 2013 the limit on peak production from the field put in place by the
Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (India) to classify the field as
small and isolated field is
A. 0.1 MMSCMD
B. 0.2 MMSCMD
C. 0.5 MMSCMD
67. The number of emirates in the UAE is
A. Four B. Five C. Seven
68. Which of the following places is not a part of the UAE?
A. Dubai B. Ajman C. Basra
69. Till 1971, the UAE was known as
A. Oman B. Trucial Oman C. British Oman
70. The other name of Trucial Oman is
A. Pirate Coast B. Basra C. Qatar
88
71. Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) and National Thermal Power
Corporation Limited (NTPC) acquired the assets of the defunct Dabhol
Power Project in Maharashtra.
A. True B. False
72. The Lanka IOC is a company listed in the Colombo Stock Exchange.
A. True B. False
73. The largest lubricant market share in Bangladesh is held by
A. Meghna B. Surma C. Padma
74. The longest existing product pipeline of India is
A. Mumbai–Manmad–Mangliya–Piyala–Bijwasan
B. Baravani–Panipat–Kanpur
C. Chennai–Madhurai
75. India has only two operating LPG pipelines.
A. True B. False
76. The goal of the emergency response action of IEA member countries
is to
A. Mitigate rise to crude oil price
B. Offset on actual physical shortage
C. Neither A nor B
77. Sandstone derived from the weathering of granite is known as
A. Arkosic sandstone
B. Weathered sandstone
C. Neither A nor B
78. Piltun-Astokhskoye of Sakhalin Island is predominantly
A. An oilfield B. A gas field C. A coalfield
79. Lunskoye of Sakhalin Island is
A. An oilfield B. A gas field C. A coalfield
80. The Sakhalin-II project is being managed by
A. SEICL
B. ONGC Videsh Limited
C. Both A and B
81. The production sharing agreement (PSA) for the Sakhalin-II project
was signed in
A. 1994 B. 1999 C. 2002
89
82. The crude production from Sakhalin-II started in

A. 1994 B. 1999 C. 2002
83. The species that is affected by the Sakhalin-II project is
A. Starfish B. Shark C. Grey whales
84. Which of the following countries does not export LNG?
A. Republic of Equatorial Guinea
B. State of Brunei
C. Denmark
85. India started import of LNG in
A. 2000 B. 2002 C. 2004
86. The first LNG cargo moved between
A. USA and UK
B. USA and Japan
C. Republic of Algeria and USA
87. The number of LNG terminals operational in China is
A. One B. Five C. Three
88. The country that has traditionally been an exporter of LNG and is now
proposed to have LNG regasification terminal is
A. East Timor B. Australia C. Indonesia
89. The evaporation of a small amount of LNG from the tank during the
storage results in cooling the tank and keeping the pressures inside
the tank constant and the LNG at its boiling point is called
A. Vapour off B. Heat off C. Boil off
90. There are many LNG regasification terminals on the west coast of the
USA.
A. True B. False
91. The number of LNG-receiving terminals in the USA is
A. One B. Five C. Ten
92. The first LNG cargo from the USA to Japan started from
A. Texas B. Alaska C. West Virginia
93. The first shipment of LNG to South Korea was from
A. Qatar B. United States C. Indonesia
94. The Taiwan’s first LNG terminal received its LNG shipment from
A. Qatar B. United States C. Indonesia
90
95. The largest importer of LNG is

A. China B. USA C. Japan
96. The first LNG liquefaction plant was opened in Trinidad and
Tobago in
A. 1990 B. 1994 C. 1999
97. Many countries of African continent are importers of LNG.
A. True B. False
98. A test used to measure the amount of condensate in a natural gas is
known as
A. Condensate test B. Charcoal test C. Stock oil test
99. Methane gas generated during coal formation is termed
A. Coalbed gas B. Coal seam gas C. Both A and B
100. A line depicting equal values of a property on a map is termed
A. Isovalue B. Isopath C. Contour
101. A well used to inject an unwanted fluid, usually brine, into the
subsurface is known as
A. Waste well B. Disposal well C. Fluid well
102. An informal term for a large, uncontrolled flow of oil from a well,
especially a flow that has just been exposed, is
A. Produsar B. Pushar C. Gushar
103. An area of property that has not been previously used for industrial
activity or other commercial development and is thus relatively
undisturbed from an environmental perspective is known as
A. Bluefield B. Greenfield C. Greyfield
104. Which of the following is regarded as the most productive oilfield of
the world?
A. Fadhili B. Ghawar C. Safaniya
105. The Ghawar oilfield was discovered by
A. Arabian American Oil Company
B. Shell
C. Total
106. The technique of mixing up to 15 different hydrocarbon streams to
produce a gasoline with specific characteristics, including vapour
pressure, boiling point, sulphur content, colour, and stability, to meet
governmental market restrictions is called
A. Gasoline blending B. Gas oil C. Gasohol
91
107. The estimated proven resources of Ghawar are about

A. 50–55 billion barrels
B. 60–65 billion barrels
C. 75–80 billion barrels
108. A barrel is equal to 42 gallons as a measure of quantity was
established by
A. King Edward IV
B. King Edward I
C. Queen Elizabeth II
109. The American oil wildcatter responsible for the discovery of the
enormous spindle top oilfield of Texas in 1901 was
A. Christian Huygens B. Pattillo Higgins C. M King Hubbert
110. A major advancement in the petroleum refining industry in the 1930s,
involving cracking of larger petroleum molecules into the shorter ones,
that constitute gasoline by a chemical process, as opposed to earlier
processes that relied on heat, is called
A. Houdry process B. Hugoton process C. Neither A nor B
111. The American geophysicist who accurately predicted in 1954 that the
oil production from the lower 48 states will reach at is peak within 15
years was
A. M King Luther
B. M King Hubbert
C. Christian Huygens
112 ______ is a method of curve filling , using data on oil production and
discoveries to forecast future rates.
A. Hubbert curve B. Luther curve C. Higgins curve
113. The heat absorbed by a unit mass of a solid at its melting point in order
to convert solid into liquid at the same temperature is known as the
A. Heat of formation
B. Heat of fusion
C. Heat of condensation
114. A system of pipeline constructed during World War II to carry oil from
East Texas to the Northeastern USA, a distance of about 1500 miles, to
compensate for the fact that the supply of oil by sea was threatened
by German submarines was called the
A. New lines B. Flow lines C. Inch lines
92
115. Gasoline is termed as leaded gasoline if it contains more than ______

grams of tetraethyl lead per gallon of gasoline.
A. 5.0 B. 0.5 C. 0.05
116. Marine distillate oil is also referred to as
A. Marine gasoline oil B. Marine gas oil C. Marine diesel oil
117. ______ is a collective term for all organic substances of marine origin,
such as kelp, that can be used for energy production.
A. Marine biomass B. Salt biomass C. Brine biomass
118. The initial name of the Shell Transport and Trading Company was
A. The Tanker Association
B. The Tank Transport Company
C. The Tank Syndicate
119. Which of the following regions of Canada has oil sand deposits?
A. Athabasca B. Cold Lake C. Both A and B
120. If oil sands are near the surface, the sands are dug up in open-pit
mines and then the oil is separated from sand by using
A. Hot alcohol B. Warm water C. Plain ether
121. ______ is a volatile, flammable, colourless, liquid hydrocarbon containing
18.15% oxygen, widely used as an octane booster and oxygenate for
gasoline blending.
A. Methyl secondary butyl ether
B. Methyl tertiary butyl ether
C. Both A and B
122. Naphthalene has two benzene rings.
A. True B. False
123. ______ is a natural gas liquid product that consists primarily of
pentanes and higher alkane hydrocarbons and is liquid at ambient
temperature and atmospheric pressure and has low octane number.
A. Liquefied petroleum gas
B. Liquefied natural gas
C. Natural gasoline
124. The common oxygenate added to gasoline is
A. Methyl tertiary butyl ether
B. Ethanol
C. Both A and B
93
125. The volumetric amount by which the total output from an oil refinery is
greater than the input for a given period of time, due to the processing
of crude oil into products that, in total, have a lower specific gravity
than the crude oil processed is known as
A. Crude gain
B. Processing gain
C. Product gain
126. The California Arabian Standard Oil Company was rechristened in
1944 to
A. Aramco B. Chevron C. Texaco
127. The first commercial oilfield discovery of Saudi Arabia was
A. Dhahran B. Ghawar C. Safaniya
128. Saudi Aramco was established in
A. 1934 B. 1973 C. 1988
129. Saudi Aramco’s wholly owned subsidiary company that handles
shipping to North America, Europe, and Asia is
A. Saudi International Marine
B. King International Marine
C. Vela International Marine
130. The Saudi King who forced Aramco for 50/50 profit sharing of oil
production was
A. King Fahad
B. King Abdulaziz Ibn
C. King Al-Naimi
131. Under the brand name Regent, Texaco merged its British operation
with
A. Elf Aquitaine
B. Indian Oil Company
C. Trinidad Leaseholds
132. The Angel gas field is located in
A. Northern offshore of Britain
B. Stream of western Australia
C. Neither A nor B
133. An extension well before being successful is termed
A. Outpost B. In-post C. Round post
94
134. The secondary method of recovery of oil and gas by injection of water,
steam, gases, or chemicals into a reservoir is known as
A. Enhanced oil recovery (EOR)
B. Improved oil recovery (IOR)
C. Natural recovery
135. The branch of that deals with land forms, past and present, and also
analysis of their formation is
A. Geomorphology B. Geology C. Geography
136. A portion of the drilling hole that is not cased is known as
A. Closed hole B. Open hole C. Hole
137. Porosity is expressed in terms of
A. Percentage B. Decimal C. Fraction
138. Flow of liquid without turbulence, that is, the particles move in straight
lines parallel to the walls of the channel, is called
A. Capillary flow B. Laminar flow C. Linear flow
139. The process of examining and monitoring of drilling mud and cuttings
is called
A. Electric logging B. Mud logging C. Mud inspection
140. Shale or sandstone rocks that contain various proportions of
hydrocarbons, mostly kerogen, are called
A. Kerogen shale and kerogen sand
B. Oil shale and oil sand
C. Neither A nor B
141. Sour crude present in the rock contains significant amount of
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Neither A nor B
142. A remedial measure to seal leaks casing by pumping in cement under
pressure is popularly known as
A. Formation cementing
B. Squeeze cementing
C. Leak cementing
143. The study of the major structural features of the earth’s crust or broad
structure of a region is known as
A. Tectonics B. Crust analysis C. Geology
95
144. Electrical devices installed on underground metal piping to protect

against corrosion by inhibiting electrochemical reactions between the
pipe and the soil are called
A. Grounding systems
B. Cathodic protection systems
C. Corrosion protection systems
145. A geophysical exploration tool used to evaluate underground rock
density is called
A. Pebble meter B. Gravity meter C. Rock meter
146. What is chocolate mousse?
A. A particular combination of oil and water that is sometimes formed
when oil is spilled
B. A chemical used for purifying the chocolate colour of some types
of refined oil
C. Sponges made from mouse skin, that skims spilled oil from the
water surface
147. Which entity launched several technical forums, such as “Farm out
Forums” and “Theme Forums”?
A. South East Asia Petroleum Exploration Society (SEAPEX)
B. Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
C. International Energy Agency (IEA)
148. What is the term used to replace the drilling line wrapped around the
crown block and travelling block?
A. Slip and cup B. Slip and cut C. Many a slip
149. Which of the following is a UK-registered educational charity
working to raise international public awareness and to promote better
understanding of the world’s oil depletion problem?
A. The Oil Depletion Analysis Centre (ODAC)
B. Oil Toil (OITO)
C. Life Without Oil
150. What is the surface seismic data acquired using an explosive energy
source, such as dynamite, called?
A. Explosive seismic data
B. Extended spread
C. Extensive dilatancy anisotropy
96
151. What in drilling is an inverted U-shaped section of rigid piping

normally used as a conduit for high-pressure drilling fluid called?
A. Goose bumps B. Goose neck C. Goose pimples
152. The drilling fluid described by a three-parameter rheological model is
known as
A. Haematite B. Herschel–Bulkley C. Hertz
153. The Cryo Fuel Systems (CFS) Inc. is
A. A company that deals with system analysis of the cryogenic
units
B. An American company that designs, manufactures, and services
liquefiers and purifiers
C. A company that works on the tankers carrying the LNG and on
their kinematics viscosities
154. What is the difference between an LNG docking facility and the docks
handling super tankers delivering crude oil?
A. No difference
B. LNG docks are bigger than docks handling super tankers delivering
crude oil
C. LNG docking facilities have a higher profile compared to the other
docks handling super tankers delivering crude oil
155. Rapid and safe shut down of an LNG transfer is achieved with
A. Emergency shut down system
B. Emergency shutting system
C. Emergency system
156. The Indian Oil Corporation Limited’s (IOCL) refinery, the first in Asia
and the third in the world to receive ISO 14001 accreditation in 1996
for its environmental management systems, is
A. IOCL, Digboi B. IOCL, Mathura C. IOCL, Koyali
157. An additive to petrol that supposedly prevents engine knocking
and increases the octane rating of petrol, leading to better vehicle
performance, is
A. Sulphur B. Benzene C. Tetra-ethyl lead
158. The Royal Dutch/Shell was forced out of India after its network of
retail outlets and the Mumbai Refinery was nationalized in
A. 1976 B. 1878 C. 1986
97
159. The Oil and Natural Gas Commission was rechristened as the Oil and
Natural Gas Corporation Limited in
A. 1989 B. 1991 C. 1993
160. Jointly promoted by the Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
(HPCL) and the Indian Rayon and Industries Limited (A V Birla
Group), the Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited (MRPL)
was incorporated in
A. 1998 B. 1990 C. 1998
161. Chevron Texaco markets petroleum products under which three well-
known international brands?
A. Chevron, Texaco, and Caltex
B. Chevron, Texaco, and Mobil
C. Chevron, Texaco, and Esso
162. China is self-sufficient in oil production.
A. True B. False
163. When did spot and futures pricing emerge as an alternative to fixed
prices in the oil market?
A. 2000 B. 1980 C. 1990
164. ODAC stands for
A. Oil Depletion Analysis Centre
B. Oil Development Analysis Centre
C. Oil Degradation Assessment Centre
165. The Agreement on the International Energy Programme entered into
force in
A. 1976 B. 1975 C. 1974
166. Which states are known as “acceding states” with respect to the
IEA?
A. States that joined the IEA after a date later than when it officially
came into existence
B. States that are non-members
C. States that are non-members but are members of the OECD
167. The Executive Director of the IEA is appointed on the proposal of the
Secretary General of the OECD.
A. True B. False
98
168. How many types of electricity conversion systems are there in case of
electricity generation from the ocean energy?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
169. Float systems drive a specific type of pump known as
A. Floating pump B. Rotating pump C. Hydraulic pump
170. Which of the following is the only non-member country to give a
voluntary grant to the IEA?
A. South Africa B. Venezuela C. China
171. In July 2004, Motiva was established as a limited liability company by
Shell, Texaco, and Saudi Refining Inc. (SRI) after consolidation of the
assets of Star Enterprise (a joint venture between Texaco and SRI) with
Shell.
A. True B. False
172. When did the monopoly era in the gas sector in Britain end?
A. 1982 B. 1975 C. 1996
173. How many statistical publications does the IEA publish every year?
A. 10 B. 5 C. 15
174. The King of Saudi Arabia, who is regarded as the main person
behind the oil embargo against the USA, during the first oil crisis
in 1973 was
A. King Saud B. King Faisal C. King Abdulaziz
175. A type of hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell using an electrolyte that is an
aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide, that operates at relatively
low temperature and is used in space craft, is known as
A. Space craft dedicated fuel cell
B. Oxygen fuel cell
C. Alkaline fuel cell
176. A super tanker that ran aground from the coast of Brittany, France,
in March 1978, spilling an estimated 69 million gallons of crude oil is
regarded as the second largest tanker spill in history, is
A. Methaniex B. Godzilla C. Amoco–Coadiz
177. The predecessor organization to British Petroleum founded in 1909 to
develop the oil resources of Persia (Iran) was
A. Persian Oil Company
B. Anglo–Persian Oil Company
C. British Petroleum–Persia Oil Company
99
178. Under which act of 1976 was a gas transportation pipeline established
from Alaska through Canada to the lower 48 states of the USA?
A. Natural Gas Transportation Alaska Act
B. Transportation of Natural Gas from Alaska Act
C. Alaska Natural Gas Transportation Act
179. ______ was the most widely used anti-knock compound before the
introduction of non-metallic compounds in lead-free gasoline.
A. DDT B. Pentaethyl lead
C. Tetraethyl lead
180. A major classification of light crude oil, representing, the largest crude
stream produced by Saudi Arabia, is
A. Arab Light B. Saudi Light C. Bonney Light
181. ______ are major class of unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbons characterized
by the presence of one or more rings.
A. Paraffins B. Aromatics C. Napthanes
182. The process of analysing and testing a mineral substance to determine
its commercial value is
A. Essaying B. Characterizing C. Assaying
183. A naturally occurring black to dark brown solid hydrocarbon, that
is highly soluble in carbon disulphide and less fusible than native
asphalt, is
A. Coke B. Asphaltite C. Carbon black
184. Most of the dark colour of crude is due to
A. Asphaltene
B. Aromatic content
C. Paraffin content
185. A dark, terry, bituminous material found naturally or distilled from
petroleum, that is used in paving and is highly carbon disulphide
soluble, is
A. Bitumen B. Coal C. Coke
186. An energy-efficient reforming process that uses heat generated from
combining partial oxidation and catalytic steam reformation in a single
step, thereby significantly reducing air emissions is known as
A. Reforming
B. Thermal reforming
C. Autothermal reforming
100
187. The minimum quantity of natural gas that must be retained in storage
to ensure production and deliverability at a sufficient rate and pressure
throughout the withdrawal season is known as
A. Base gas B. Retained gas C. Initial gas
188. A colourless, volatile, flammable, and toxic liquid aromatic hydrocarbon
that freezes at 55°C and boils at 80°C and used in the manufacture of
plastics, detergents, pesticides, and other chemicals is
A. Toluene B. Benzene C. Xylene
189. A gaseous fuel of medium energy content, composed of methane and
carbon dioxide, and produced from the anaerobic decomposition of
organic material in landfills is known as
A. Chemical gas B. Biogas C. Synthetic gas
190. A widely used unit of measure, generically defined as the average
amount of energy required to produce a 1°F change in temperature
of 1°F from 59–60°F in one pound of pure liquid water at standard
atmospheric pressure, is
A. 1 joule B. 1 Btu C. 1 calorie
191. A distillation tower in which the rising vapours pass through layers
of condensate, bubbling under cops on a series of plates, is known as
A. Gas tower B. Vapour tower C. Bubble tower
192. The process of closing/sealing boreholes, such as a spouting gas or oil
well, to prevent the escape of fluids is known as
A. Hat placing B. Squeezing C. Capping
193. ______ is the basis of the atomic weight of all elements.
A. Carbon-12 B. Carbon-14 C. Carbon-18
194. The law of conservation of energy and the first and second laws of
thermodynamics were given by
A. James Bradley
B. N L Carnot
C. Wernher von Braun
195. The first pipeline (1700 km long) connecting the oil-rich region of
Central Asia with significant export terminals, that is, terminals
originating in Tennis, Kazakhstan, and terminating near the port of
Novorossiysk, Russia, is
A. Pipeline Company Caspian Limited
B. Tas Pipeline Company Limited
C. Caspian Pipeline Consortium
101
196. A process in which the distillate is treated with a caustic solution to

remove impurities is known as
A. Caustic soluble separation process
B. Caustic treatment process
C. Caustic wash
197. The input or feed capacity of an oil refinery is termed as
A. Charge capacity
B. Feed capacity
C. Refinery capacity
198. The first ship to carry crude oil from the USA to Europe in iron
tank in 1869, and is thus regarded as a forerunner of the modern oil
tanker, is
A. Royal’s of Britain
B. Charles of Antwerp
C. Manthrex
199. The measuring station at which a gas distribution utility receives gas
from a gas pipeline company or transmission system is known as
A. City gate B. City station C. City unit
200. Annual meeting of the countries that have signed the Framework
Convention on Climate Change is popularly known as.
A. Conference of the Parties
B. Summit of Parties
C. Conference of Nations
201. The law of conservation of energy principle in fluid mechanics is
expressed by
A. Fluid mechanic principle
B. Bernoulli’s Principle
C. Boyle’s Law
202. Sakhalin India Inc. was incorporated in Texas, USA.
A. True B. False
203. The Dahej Terminal in Gujarat is South Asia’s fifth largest LNG
terminal.
A. True B. False
204. Oil exploration in Libya began in
A. 1955 B. 1956 C. 1960
102
205. Algeria has been producing oil since

A. 1967 B. 1956 C. 1940
206. Sonatrach is an oil company of
A. Peru
B. Ecuador
C. Algeria
207. The Dukhan oilfield is located in
A. Qatar B. Bahrain C. Oman
208. Qatar exports almost all of its oil production to
A. North America B. Asia C. South America
209. The indigenous blending of high-grade lubricants in India started at
the blending plants in
A. Mumbai and Kolkata
B. Kanpur and New Delhi
C. Baruni and Haldia
210. Flash steam power plants use geothermal reservoir of water with a
temperature greater than
A. 240ºF B. 300ºF C. 360°F
211. When was the Oilfields Development and Regulation Act passed in
India?
A. 1947 B. 1950 C. 1948
212. What is called an oil sheen?
A. Heavy oil that sinks in freshwater
B. Oil that spreads out across the water surface to form a very thin layer
C. A recently invented chemical that stops the spread of spilled oil by
making it heavy
213. The OPEC Reference Basket price data is updated at what frequency
(except for weekends and official OPEC holidays)?
A. Once in two days (at 2 pm [GMT+1])
B. Twice daily (at 2 pm [GMT+1] and 12 pm)
C. Daily at 2 pm (GMT+1)
214. When was the concept of OPEC Reference Basket price introduced?
A. On 1 January 1987
B. On 1 January 1985
C. On 1 January 1990
103
215. In well-testing jargon, what is the drop in reservoir pressure or

hydrocarbon reserves resulting from production of reservoir fluids
known as?
A. Density profile B. Departure curve C. Depletion
216. The Myanmar Oil and Gas Enterprise (MOGE), responsible for oil and
gas exploration and production, as well as domestic gas transmission
through a 1200-mile onshore pipeline grid, was created in
A. 1963 B. 1973 C. 1983
217. Which of the following is not considered as a priority activity of the
IEA?
A. Managing the emergency system
B. Long-term energy policies
C. Emergency systems in non-member countries
218. Who co-authored “World Petroleum Availability 1980–2000” with
Richard Nehring?
A. M King Hubbert B. Charles M Philip C. Hubbert Garner
219. The term used to refer to a tool run into a wellbore to retrieve junk
from the bottom is
A. Junk basket B. Basket Sub C. Both A and B
220. IO stands for
A. Isomerized olefin B. Inert olefin C. Neither A nor B
221. IPA stands for
A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Inert Petroleum Act
C. International Petroleum Association
222. According to the Bible, which fuel is called Noah’s Ark?
A. Gasoline B. Diesel C. Pitch
223. What did American Indians use to waterproof canoes and make paint
and medicines?
A. Pitch B. Petrol C. Tar
224. Who is considered as the petroleum entrepreneur of the oil industry?
A. Edwin Drake B. William Blake C. Everton Weekes
225. According to the price band system introduced by OPEC in 2000, if the
price of crude is below $22 per barrel for 10 consecutive days, then the
production of OPEC has to be decreased by
A. 100 kbd B. 200 kbd C. 500 kbd
104
226. According to the price band system introduced by OPEC in 2000, if the
price of crude is above $28 per barrel for 20 consecutive days, then the
production of OPEC has to be increased by
A. 100 kbd B. 200 kbd C. 500 kbd
227. ______ publishes annually the freight rates for voyages between various
ports in the world.
A. World Freight Board
B. International Maritime Board
C. World Scale Association
228. The trading unit of Brent Crude contracts on the NCDEX of India is
A. 10 barrels B. 50 barrels C. 100 barrels
229. Once registered on NCDEX, after contract is marked-to-market, if the
crude oil contract holder gains after the contract is marked-to-market
the exchange has to update his/her account by increasing the account
value with the profit. This is termed
A. Pay out B. Pay in C. Pay idle
230. After contract is marked-to-market on NCDEX if the crude oil contract
holder makes a loss, his or her account has to be updated by the
exchange by decreasing his or her account value with the loss. This is
termed
A. Pay out B. Pay in C. Pay idle
231. The timing of the pay in for contracts traded on exchange is
A. 1:00 am B. 11:00 am C. 1:00 pm
232. The timing of pay out for contracts traded on exchange is
A. 1:00 am B. 11:00 am C. 1:00 pm
233. Future crude oil contracts have more liquidity than forward crude oil
contracts.
A. True B. False
234. In future crude oil contracts, the clearing house becomes the counter
party to each transaction.
A. True B. False
235. The NYMEX has been trading in energy future and options since 1978.
A. True B. False
236. The oldest existing commodity exchange in the world is
A. London Metal Exchange (LME), London
B. New York Mercantile Exchange (NYMEX), New York
C. Chicago Board of Trade (CBOT), Chicago
105
237. The largest future clearing house of the world is

A. CBOT, Chicago
B. CME, Chicago
C. NYMEX, New York
238. The process of auction of oil contracts provides a readily available,
widely acceptable reference price for the underlying commodity. The
process is termed as
A. Price projection B. Price calculation C. Price discovery
239. In an exchange, the traded contracts may be customized depending
upon the size of the contract.
A. True B. False
240. Normally in OTC platform, the buyers and sellers physically meet to
sign the contract.
A. True B. False
241. Which of the following is not an exchange dealing in furnace oil
future?
A. Shanghai Futures Exchange (SHFE), China
B. Multi Commodity Exchange, India
C. Chicago Board of Trade, USA
242. The concept of organized trading in commodities evolved in
A. Chicago, USA
B. London, UK
C. Paris, France
243. The level of particulate emission is related to the intensity of combustion
and fuel quality.
A. True B. False
244. The main sources of emission of particulates from the refinery process
units are
A. Hydrotreating and hydrocracking units
B. Vacuum distillation and atmospheric distillation units
C. Cracking and coker units
245. Fugitive emission leads to the formation of photochemical smog and
ground-level ozone production.
A. True B. False
246. Which of the following is not a product of FCC?
A. Light cycle oil B. LPG C. Neither A nor B
106
247. The presence of contamination in the feedstock of RFCC may cause

A. Catalyst deactivation
B. Increase in coke formation
C. Both A and B
248. The key constituent for the manufacture of zeolites, which is used as
a catalyst in FCC, is
A. Magnesium
B. Cadmium
C. Sodium
249. Which of the following is not a method of stabilization of the sodium
content of zeolite catalyst?
A. Rare earth exchange
B. Ammonium ion exchange
C. Gravity exchange
250. In hydrocracking, it is possible to convert all the feedstock to light
products, by recycling the fractionator bottoms stream to the reactor
and co-processing it with the fresh feed.
A. True B. False
251. Breakdown of one unit volume of methane hydrate at a pressure of
1 atmosphere produces about
A. 90 units volume of gas
B. 110 units volume of gas
C. 160 units volume of gas
252. The observed density of gas hydrates is about
A. 0.9 gm/cm3 B. 0.5 gm/cm3 C. 0.2 gm/cm3
253. Which of the following is not a recommendation of B K Chaturvedi
Committee report?
A. Implementation of ad hoc windfall taxation if the price of crude
remains above $75 per barrel
B. Subsidization of LPG to maximum of six cylinders in a year
C. Increasing reach of public distribution system (PDS) kerosene
254. Ethanol is an oxygenate containing ______ oxygen.
A. 10% B. 20% C. 35%
255. Flexible fuel vehicles in Brazil are capable of using an ethanol mixture
having up to ______ ethanol.
A. 20% B. 40% C. 85%
107
256. The circulation in which mud is sent down through the annulus and
it comes up through the drill pipe is called
A. Circulation
B. Formation circulation
C. Reverse circulation
257. The well logging devise used to measure the formation resistance to
the impresses current passed through the formation is termed as
A. Gamma–Gamma log
B. Resistivity log
C. Density log
258. Crustal compression causes reverse fault, which is also called
A. Drape fault
B. Normal fault
C. Thrust fault
259. Along the edges of the mountain, we normally find
A. Drop fault B. Normal fault C. Thrust fault
260. Tension in the earth crust generates what is termed as
A. Drop fault B. Normal fault C. Thrust fault
261. Carbon-14 decay is the best method to determine the age of the
rocks.
A. True B. False
262. The decay of uranium-238 leads to the formation of
A. Uranium-235 B. Plutonium C. Lead-206
263. The rate of radioactive decay is measured in
A. Lamda B. Half-life C. Conversion rate
264. A lava flow will be ______ than any sedimentary rock that covers it.
A. Younger B. Of the same age C. Older
265. An igneous rock intrusion will be ______ than any sedimentary rock
that it intrudes.
A. Younger B. Of the same age C. Older
266. Normally, the limestone has
A. High porosity and low permeability
B. Low porosity and high permeability
C. High porosity and high permeability
108
267. Carbon dating is best used to find the age of

A. Universe
B. Rock layers in oil exploration
C. Archaeology
268. Which of the following is not a relatively abundant radioactive atom?
A. Plutonium B. Potassium C. Rubidium
109
Chapter 3
Exploration and Production
Easy
1. The boundary between two rock layers is termed
A. Contact B. Disjoint C. Separator
2. Gas lift involves injection of the gas directly to the reservoir to provide
drive to push out oil.
A. True B. False
3. Gas injection is injection of gas in the well tubing to make the density
of oil columns in the well lighter.
A. True B. False
4. In chemical flooding, water thickened with polymers is used to aid
water flooding by improving fluid-flow patterns.
A. True B. False
5. Steam drive and in-situ combustion are the same methods of viscous
oil recovery.
A. True B. False
6. Decommissioning of well is mandatory in all the countries.
A. True B. False
7. In a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rock layers, the youngest
rock is on the ________ and the oldest is on the ________.
A. Top; Bottom B. Bottom; Top C. Neither A nor B
8. Poorly sorted sandstones with significant amount of grains of the size
of silt and clay are called
A. Grained sands B. Dirty sands C. Clay sands
9. The layering of the sedimentary rocks is termed
A. Pudding B. Bedding C. Lithology
10. ________ helps to visualize the environment in which the rock was
deposited.
A. Amorphous structure
B. Sedimentary structure
C. Metamorphic structure
11. Limestone is metamorphosed to
A. Sandstone B. Quartzite C. Marble
12. ________ is metamorphosed sandstone.
A. Quartzite B. Marble C. Limestone
13. Black oil is also termed
A. Low shrinkage oil
B. High shrinkage oil
C. Neutral shrinkage oil
14. Volatile oil is also termed

A. Low shrinkage oil
B. High shrinkage oil
C. Neutral shrinkage oil
15. The API for volatile oil is
A. Up to 20 B. 20–40 C. 40 or above
16. The equation PV = nRT is followed in totality only by
A. Ideal gas B. Normal gas C. General gas
17. The percentage of the recoverable quantity of petroleum in a place is
termed
A. Shrinkage factor B. Recovery factor C. Feasibility factor
18. The state of the system characterized by the consistence of a liquid
phase with an infinitesimal quantity of gas phase in equilibrium is
termed
A. Dew point B. Critical state C. Bubble point
19. Crude oil in equilibrium with a portion of its evolved gases at standard
atmospheric conditions is termed
A. Tank oil B. Stock tank oil C. Barrel oil
20. Measure of the resistance to flow exerted by a fluid is termed
A. Viscosity B. Density C. Flow rate
21. The most used “equation of state” for petroleum engineering calculations
(in terms of volume) is based on
A. van der Waals equation
B. Standing–Katz graphical correlative
C. Mac Caff equation
22. The “equation of state” for petroleum engineering calculations is a
cubic equation proposed by
A. Mac Caff
B. Peng and Robinson
C. Heisenberg
23. One centipoise is equal to
A. 10–3 Pa s B. 10–4 Pa s C. 10–5 Pa s
24. It is very difficult to measure the viscosity of gas at reservoir conditions,
therefore, some other techniques are used to indirectly determine it.
A. True B. False
114
Chapter 3 Exploration and Production
25. The viscosity of gases decreases with temperature at low pressure.

A. True B. False
26. The viscosity of liquids increases with temperature at low pressure.
A. True B. False
27. The PVT characteristics of oilfield liquids are more complicated than
those for gases.
A. True B. False
28. Oil compressibility is strongly pressure sensitive.
A. True B. False
29. The deep ocean basins are seldom anoxic.
A. True B. False
30. Whether a kerogen generates oil or gas depends on
A. Only the type of kerogen
B. Only the level of maturity of kerogen
C. Both type and level of maturity of kerogen
31. The rate of flow of fluid through the rock is termed
A. Spore colouration B. Porosity C. Permeability
32. Permeability or the rate of flow of fluid through the rock is explained
by
A. Flash liberation B. Darcy’s law C. Terzaghi’s law
33. “The rate of flow of a homogeneous fluid in a porous medium is
proportional to the pressure gradient and is inversely proportional to
the fluid viscosity.” This law is called
A. Darcy’s law B. Jack’s law C. Terzaghi’s law
34. Porosity does not occur due to the fracturing of rocks on account of
tectonic processes if the rock layer is made of limestone-connected
sandstone.
A. True B. False
35. Immiscible gas injection is normally followed with injection of water.
A. True B. False
36. Fractured reservoirs have
C. High porosity and high permeability
115
37. Which of the following techniques is expected to have higher water

cut?
A. Gas drive
B. Water drive
C. Traditional method
38. Normally, basement crystalline mosaic has
C. Low porosity and low permeability
39. The reservoir beneath the oil zone is termed
A. Bottom reservoir B. Bottom soil C. Bottom water
40. The reservoir adjacent to the oilfield area is termed
A. Adjacent reservoir
B. Adjacent soil
C. Adjacent water
41. In any reservoir, the gross pay zone and the net pay zone are always
equal.
A. True B. False
42. A group of sedimentary rocks that were originally thought to have
formed from the evaporation of sea water is
A. Lignite B. Sandstone C. Evaporates
43. ________ are probably the commoner cap rock found, but ________
are more effective cap rock.
A. Evaporates; Shale
B. Shale; Evaporates
C. Sandstone; Evaporates
44. Traps developed due to deposition, erosion, and diagenetic processes
are termed
A. Stratigraphic traps
B. Hydrodynamic traps
C. Diapiric traps
45. Traps formed due to water flow are termed
A. Stratigraphic traps
B. Hydrodynamic traps
C. Diapiric traps
116
46. About 75% of the world’s petroleum reserves are trapped in

A. Structural traps
B. Stratigraphic traps
C. Combinational traps
47. The crude oil pipeline at the group gathering station (GGS), which is
connected with the pipelines from different wells, is termed
A. Collector pipe B. Gatherer pipe C. Header pipe
48. The header pipe of the GGS is connected directly to
A. Gas compressor
B. Three-phase separator
C. Water treater
49. The production profile of an oilfield is needed before a field comes on
stream.
A. True B. False
50. The fluid in place in a reservoir calculated by the material balance
equation (MBE) method is ________ that calculated by volumetric
method.
A. Always larger than B. Never larger than C. Always equal to
51. The MBE method for the calculation of fluid in place in the reservoir
is based on a tank model, thus taking the average values of rock and
fluid properties for the whole reservoir or segment of it.
A. True B. False
52. The MBE method may be used to identify new well locations or the
effect of well locations.
A. True B. False
53. The mobility ratio of oil in the reservoir is affected by gravity.
A. True B. False
54. In the subsurface environment, calcium carbonate is chemically less
stable than silica.
A. True B. False
55. Normally, diagenesis leads to the destruction of primary porosity. At
the same time, it may also cause the creation of secondary porosity.
A. True B. False
56. The significant total organic content is a foolproof indicator of the
presence of oil or gas.
A. True B. False
117
57. The Rock–Eval analysis gives whether the petroleum generated would
be predominately oil or gas.
A. True B. False
58. The presence of degraded or oxidized kerogen in the source rock
indicates
A. Oil presence
B. Gas presence
C. Absence of both oil and gas
59. The velocities of seismic disturbance produced in the earth range from
a few hundreds of metres per second at the surface far unconsolidated
material to 6000 m/s for very hard rock at great depth.
A. True B. False
60. The rapid pressure decrease of a seismic wavelet is referred to as
A. Compression B. Expansion C. Rarefaction
61. The resistance that the rock offers to the compressions of its particles
is termed
A. Acoustic impedance
B. Compressional resistance
C. Rock inertia
62. The law that relates the angle of incidence and the angle of transmission
of a ray, travelling from one medium to another with the velocity of
light in the two media is known as
A. Hooke’s law B. Snell’s law C. Huygens principle
63. During seismic surveys, the digital data are not recorded continuously
but are sampled at discrete times.
A. True B. False
64. During seismic surveys, the energy generated by a vibrator truck is
much higher than that produced in the dynamite explosion process.
A. True B. False
65. The arrangement of shots and receivers for a single seismic record is
called
A. Spread B. Shot C. Catch
66. ________ was the first marine seismic source for seismic survey.
A. Dynamite
B. Chemical explosion
C. Air gun
118
67. Ocean-bottom seismic survey techniques use

A. Hydrophones B. Geophones C. Both A and B
68. The seismic survey is normally done at night to increase sound–noise
ratio.
A. True B. False
69. The drill bit is connected to the bottom of
A. Bottom hole assembly
B. Hole assembly
C. Hole drilling segment
70. ________ is part of the dynamic positioning system and is oriented
such that the floating rig can be pushed back into its original position
over the well if the wind or waves push it off location.
A. Anchor B. Propeller C. Positioner
71. In jack-up drilling, unlike platform drilling, if the need be, the
conductor and all subsequent casing strings can be disconnected at
the seabed when the operations on the well are completed.
A. True B. False
72. The main component of the hoisting system is
A. Travelling block B. Draw work C. Crown block
73. The porosity left after completely drying the core sample at a
temperature of 105°C is called
A. Total porosity
B. Effective porosity
C. Exceptional porosity
74. Porosity formed by the interconnected pores, excluding hydration and
clay-bound water, is termed
A. Total porosity
B. Effective porosity
C. Exceptional porosity
75. Permeability is a directional quality.
A. True B. False
76. The tendency of one fluid to spread on, or adhere to, a solid surface
in the presence of other immiscible fluids is termed
A. Spreadability
B. Wettability
C. Slipping
119
77. Wettability of a fluid is quantified by

A. Contact angle
B. Acute position angle
C. Filling angle
78. The size of the last casing string will in turn influence the size of all
casing strings run above the production formation.
A. True B. False
79. The mud density must be less than the fracture pressure of the
formation.
A. True B. False
80. In an offshore oilfield, the well fluid from different well platforms is
gathered by subsea flowlines into a
A. Production platform
B. Central process platform
C. Neither A nor B
81. The roller cone drill bit is also called
A. Mud bit B. Rock bit C. Insert bit
82. The teeth of the roller cone bit is made of
A. Steel or tungsten carbide
B. Iron or nickel
C. Cobalt or hard aluminium
83. The use of drilling bit is costly in drilling formation where long rotating
hours are required, say, 200–300 h per bit.
A. True B. False
84. The survey of an area using seismograph, a devise to create shock wave
for prospecting for oil, is called
A. Log survey
B. Seismic survey
C. Simulation survey
85. A sedimentary rock that later transforms into an oil and gas generating
rock by diagnosis of fossils is known as
A. Pay rock B. Source rock C. Cap rock
86. A well not capable of producing more than eight barrels or a tonne of
oil per day is known as
A. Small well B. Stripper well C. Infant well
120
87. A well-logging tool measuring temperature in relation to depth in a

well is called
A. Gamma ray log B. Depth log C. Temperature log
88. Water coning is caused by
A. Low production rate
B. High production rate
C. High flooding
89. Sedimentary rock composed primarily of calcium carbonate is called
A. Sandstone B. Limestone C. Clay stone
90. The characteristics of the rock type are known as
A. Lithology B. Ecology C. Litho facies
91. Primary migration of oil and gas takes place in the
A. Vertical form B. Horizontal form C. Lateral form
92. Any artificial method used to supplement the reservoir energy in
production is known as
A. Secondary recovery B. Primary recovery C. Self-recovery
93. Name the device used for testing a well at initial stage to be accepted
as a producer well.
A. Swab B. Scrub C. Scratches
94. A geological structure characterized by curvature downwards is
called
A. Anticline B. Syncline C. Decline
95. A condition under which the water below the oil comes up and mixes
with oil is called
A. Water drive B. Water mix C. Mix drive
96. The injection of external water into a formation in the water below the
oil, to sustain the formation pressure, is called
A. Water pouring
B. Water flooding
C. Water pushing
97. The value of area of the reservoir and the thickness of the reservoir is
obtained from
A. Contour map
B. Thickness map
C. Using both A and B
121
98. If Sw is the average water saturation of the reservoir, the pore space of
a reservoir filled with hydrocarbon is given by
A. (1 − Sw)
B. (Sw − 1)
C. (1/Sw)
99. In reservoir engineering, HCPV stands for
A. Hydrocarbon pressure valve
B. Hydrocarbon pressurized vessels
C. Hydrocarbon pore volume
100. For gas cap expansion drive reservoirs, reservoir physics shows that
maintaining the reservoir pressure close to its initial pressure yields
more oil than at lower abandonment pressure.
A. True B. False
101. In a gas cap expansion drive reservoir, if the gas is produced, the gas
cap will shrink and oil will move up into the gas cap space, thereby
reducing the overall recovery.
A. True B. False
102. In a gas cap expansion drive reservoir, the positioning of well has little
effect on the productivity.
A. True B. False
103. In a gas cap expansion drive reservoir, the field has to be abandoned
if the gas–oil ratio becomes so large that the gas-handling facilities
cannot cope.
A. True B. False
104. About 30% of the world reservoirs are producing oil due to natural
water drive
A. True B. False
105. In bottom water drive reservoir, the coning problem occurs if
A. Vertical permeability is low
B. Vertical permeability is high
C. Horizontal permeability is high
106. Enhanced oil recovery has been divided into secondary oil recovery
and improved oil recovery.
A. True B. False
107. Improved oil recovery is also termed tertiary recovery technique.
A. True B. False
122
108. EOR stands for

A. Enhanced oil recovery
B. Entrapped oil recovery
C. Express oil recovery
109. The secondary recovery process involves adding external energy so
that changes fundamental to the physical prosperities of the fluids
occur.
A. True B. False
110. Lowering the interfacial tension between residual oil and the aqueous
phase is a critical stage in miscible and chemical enhanced oil
recovery.
A. True B. False
111. Gas injection is normally applied to a reservoir that has a gas cap or
a large angle of dip, where gas drive can use the effect of gravity.
A. True B. False
112. Gas injection is an effective way of disposing produced gas while
conserving it for future recovery.
A. True B. False
113. The up-arched or dome-like rock structure beneath the earth surface
that caps oil and gas is termed
A. Decline B. Hat C. Anticline
114. Huge sedimentary basins are called
A. Anticlines B. Geosynclines C. Stratified basins
115. The rock type that has altered over time due to the action of
temperature, pressure, and other chemical activities occurring inside
the earth surface is
A. Metamorphic rock
B. Igneous rock
C. Sedimentary rock
116. Which of the following is not a type of trap?
A. Structural trap B. Stratigraphic trap C. Source trap
117. A trap formed by a sedimentary sequence lying over a tilted sequence
of earlier rock is called
A. Unconformity trap B. Stratigraphic trap C. Structural trap
118. Which of the following is not a source of oil in future?
A. Oil sand B. Tar sand C. Hydrates
123
119. The country having the largest deposits of tar sand is

A. Canada B. Australia C. Thailand
120. The survival of a crude oil pool is the function of
A. Time B. Earth movement C. Both A and B
121. The cuttings of rock produced during drilling of a well are brought to
the surface by
A. Drilling mud B. Drilling clay C. Drilling sand
122. It is used to raise and lower the drill string assembly.
A. Hoist B. Derrick C. Draw work
123. The drum on which a strong cable is wound up, which raises or lowers
drill string, is termed
A. Draw work B. Hoist C. Derrick
124. The tool or device used to reach the depth where oil is expected is
A. Drilling bit B. Drilling rig C. Derrick
125. Which of the following is not a part of the drilling rig?
A. Rotary table
B. Mud pump and prime mover
C. Both A and B
126. The technical term used to denote the starting of the drilling during
oil and gas exploration is
A. Spudding a hole B. Pudding a hole C. Neither A nor B
127. The instrument used to record the rate of penetration and depth of
drilling to judge the hardness of the rock is
A. Kelly B. Bits C. Geolograph
128. Which of the following is not a function of the drilling mud?
A. To lift the rock cutting to the surface
B. To cool the bit
C. To remove water that may be produced during drilling
129. The rock cuttings produced during drilling are brought to the surface
by using
A. Water B. Compressed air C. Drilling mud
130. The first casing of a newly drilled well is also termed
A. Conductor casing
B. Maiden casing
C. Surface casing
124
131. After the first casing for all subsequent casing, the cement is made to
rise only up to a few metres inside the previous casing; the rest of the
annulus above it retains the mud.
A. True B. False
132. The term “waiting on cement” means
A. The time given to the cement to get set
B. The time elapsed while waiting for the procurement of the cement
during construction
C. Neither A nor B
133. To kill a well, a sufficient amount of ________ is pumped into the
well.
A. Mud B. Water C. Carbon dioxide
134. Clay, one of the constituents of the drilling mud, is made up of
A. Alumina silicate
B. Alumina carbonate
C. Calcium silicate
135. Materials, such as haematite, baryte, and galena, which are added to
the base of the drilling mud, are termed
A. Additive materials
B. Weight increasing materials
C. Hardening materials
136. Which of the following is not a function of lubricant used during
drilling?
A. Cooling the bit
B. Smoothening of the drill pipe assembly
C. Decreasing the water loss from the mud
137. Which of the following is not a constituent of the oil-based drilling
mud?
A. Oil sand
B. Asphalt
C. Sulphide
138. Maximum reservoirs in the USA are of
A. Sandstone B. Limestone C. Dolomite
139. It is important to clear the oil mud system after its utility ends and
should be reverted to the normal mud system.
A. True B. False
125
140. Steam drive for recovery of crude oil is regarded as

A. Primary recovery technique
B. Secondary recovery technique
C. Tertiary recovery technique
141. On an average, the employment of enhanced oil recovery techniques
targets the recovery of crude oil up to ________ of the stock tank
initially in place.
A. 30% B. 45% C. 60%
142. The state of a system at which all properties of the coexisting vapour
and liquid phases become identical is termed
A. Cricondentherm B. Critical state C. Dew point
143. To drill an oil well in the offshore area, we use
A. Well platform B. Drill ship C. Production ship
144. The water is removed from oil, before it is transported, by an equipment
called
A. Heater treater B. Dehydrator C. Vaporizer
145. The state of the system characterized by the consistence of a liquid
phase with an infinitesimal quantity of gas phase in equilibrium is
termed
A. Dew point B. Critical state C. Bubble point
146. Crude oil is stabilized
A. To meet customer specification
B. To enable oil storage
C. To separate water from crude
147. The special type of truck used for carrying seismic survey is called
A. Thumper truck B. Vibrator truck C. Block truck
148. What is the purpose of seismic survey?
A. To determine the strength of the earth’s gravity at a specific
location
B. To determine the strength of the earth’s magnetic field at a specific
location
C. To draw subsurface map using sound wave
149. What is the function of geophone?
A. To send messages to workers at different oil exploration sites
B. To generate sound waves to help in seismic waves
C. To pick up energy waves generated by thumper truck
126
150. The first exploratory well drilled in the field is termed

A. Discovery well B. Wildcat C. Dry hole
151. The first exploratory well that shows the presence of hydrocarbon is
termed
A. Discovery well B. Wildcat C. Dry hole
152. If an exploratory well does not show the presence of hydrocarbon, it
is termed
A. Discovery well
B. Wildcat
C. Dry hole
153. Logging data helps
A. In defining the geological history and the properties of the
reservoir
B. To ascertain the existence of an anticline beneath the earth
surface
C. To decide the place where wildcat may be drilled
154. Delineation is the process of
A. Drilling of additional wells after discovery of oil reserves to define
the size of the reservoir
B. Putting up of fences along the wells to define the area of operation
of the company
C. Deciding to which GGS the wellhead pipe is to be connected
155. Wells drilled to increase the production of a producing field are
termed
A. Discovery wells
B. Development wells
C. Wildcat
156. It is possible that light oil may get converted to heavy oil because of
different changing conditions in the reservoir.
A. True B. False
157. The type of bacteria that eats oil is known as
A. Anaerobic
B. Aerobic
C. Special bacteria that thrive in the presence of nitrogen
127
Medium
1. A distinctive rock layer easy to identify from another area is termed

A. Contract bed B. Marker bed C. Divider bed
2. With infill drilling, it is possible to penetrate areas that have sealed
faulted boundaries and are currently unswept.
A. True B. False
3. Radioactive age is not used primarily on
A. Igneous rocks
B. Metamorphic rocks
C. Sedimentary rocks
4. Repeating three-dimensional seismic surveys at intervals in a mature
field is being increasingly used to identify fluid contact movements
and attic oil and cellar oil.
A. True B. False
5. During drilling, the microfossils remain normally undamaged by the
drill bit and are flushed unbroken in the well cuttings up to the
surface.
A. True B. False
6. Microfossils are used in ________ to identify the rocks and their
ages.
A. Stratigraphy B. Biostratigraphy C. Leostratigraphy
7. The rock composition is also termed
A. Biothology B. Archaeology C. Lithology
8. The life of earth is expected to be
A. 3.5 billion years B. 5.5 billion years C. 4.5 billion years
9. The areas where there are no sedimentary rocks and the basement
rocks are on the surface are termed
A. Debarments B. Shields C. Open area
10. The areas having a thick cover of sedimentary rocks are termed
A. Shield B. Basin C. Basement
11. The subsurface water present in the pores of sedimentary rocks, which
contain more salt than sea water (that is, 35–300 ppm), is termed
A. Meteoric water B. Connate water C. Brines water
12. A mixture of freshwater and brines is termed
A. Meteoric water B. Brackish water C. Connate water
128
13. The subsurface boundary dividing the dry pores above and pores that
are filled with water below is termed
A. Water and divider
B. Distinguisher boundary
C. Water table
14. The fresh subsurface water is also termed
15. Dry gas is pure ________ and does not form condensate either in the
reservoir or on the surface.
A. Methane B. Ethane C. Propane
16. Shrinkage is expressed as
A. Percentage of the stock tank volume
B. Percentage of the reservoir oil volume
C. Both A and B
17. The reciprocal of formation volume factor expressed as barrels of stock
tank oil per barrels of reservoir oil is termed
A. Shrinkage B. Shrinkage factor C. Shrinkage load
18. The volume ratio obtained by dividing the amount of gas that would
be liberated from a system existing originally as a liquid by the
liquid remaining after the system is reduced to standard atmospheric
conditions is called
A. Gas-to-oil ratio
B. Oil-to-gas ratio
C. Neither A nor B
19. The maximum temperature at which liquid and vapour phases can
coexist in equilibrium for a constant composition, multi-component
system is termed
20. The state of a system at which all properties of the coexisting vapour
and liquid phases become identical is termed
21. The state of a system characterized by the coexistence of a vapour
phase with an infinitesimal quantity of liquid phase in equilibrium is
termed
A. Cricondoentherm B. Bubble point C. Dew point
129
22. The properties of a body that are directly proportional to the quality
of material making up the system are termed
A. Extensive properties
B. Intensive properties
C. Critical properties
23. The properties of a body that are independent of the quality of material,
therefore, describe its condition at a particular state are termed
A. Extensive properties
B. Intensive properties
C. Critical properties
24. Under reservoir condition, the viscosity of water ranges between
A. 0.007 cP and 0.015 cP
B. 0.01 cP and 0.05 cP
C. 0.3 cP and 1.0 cP
25. The reservoir oil density varies with pressure due to the
A. Strong sensitivity of oil density with pressure
B. Associated gas of oil, which is very sensitive to pressure
C. Neither A nor B
26. If the reservoir pressure drops below the bubble point, the production
from the reservoir becomes very easy.
A. True B. False
27. The volume of free gas at standard condition, released from the volume
of reservoir oil which results in a unit volume of stock tank oil, is
termed
A. Gas-release factor
B. Gas-compressed factor
C. Gas-solubility factor
28. The unit of gas-solubility factor (R) is
A. SCF/STB B. SCF/m3
C. No unit as it is a ratio
29. Below the bubble point pressure (Pb), the viscosity of the reservoir
liquid tends to __________ as pressure drops.
A. Increase B. Remain constant C. Decrease
30. A fluid with a constant viscosity is termed
A. Newtonian fluid B. Einsteinian fluid C. Fermi’s fluid
130
31. Crude oil that remains unswept above the production wells is
termed
A. Attic oil B. Cellar oil C. Dot oil
32. The crude oil that remains untapped below the production wells is
termed
A. Attic oil B. Cellar oil C. Dot oil
33. Thermal conductivity is ________ for fluids than for solids.
A. Higher B. Same C. Lower
34. Thermal conductivity increases with ________ porosity.
A. Increasing B. Constant C. Decreasing
35. Thermal conductivity increases as the rock density.
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
36. At any subsurface point, the overburden pressure is found by
A. Peng–Robinson equation
B. Terzaghi’s law
C. Jack’s law
37. The most widely used method in secondary recovery is
A. Immiscible gas injection
B. Chemical flooding
C. Water flooding
38. Stratification with an upper oxygenated and a lower anoxic layer of
water, developed in restricted climate lagoons, is caused due to
A. Thermal layering
B. Pressure development
C. Evaporation
39. The eastern sides of the major ocean basins’ oxygen-deficient zone
commonly occur in the depth range of
A. 100–200 m B. 200–1500 m C. 1500–3000 m
40. Type I kerogens are also termed
A. Sapropelic kerogens B. Liptinic kerogens C. Humic kerogens
41. Type II kerogens are also termed
42. Type III kerogens are also termed
131
43. Diagenesis occurs normally in shallow subsurface at normal temperature

and ________ pressure.
A. High B. Normal C. Low
44. The process of the conversion of organic matters buried inside the earth
into kerogen is termed
A. Diagenesis B. Catagenesis C. Metagenesis
45. The process of conversion of kerogen into crude oil is termed
A. Diagenesis B. Catagenesis C. Metagenesis
46. From kerogens, oil starts to precipitate beneath the surface at a
temperature above
A. 30°C B. 60°C C. 120°C
47. The product that is left behind after the kerogen has yielded all its oil
and gas is
A. Pure carbon B. Graphite C. Both A and B
48. To reveal the type of the level of maturation of the kerogen, a graph
is drawn between
A. Hydrogen:carbon ratio against D2:carbon ratio
B. Carbon against oxygen
C. Hydrogen:oxygen ratio against carbon
49. Porosity of a rock is given by
A. (Void volume/rock volume) x 100
B. (Rock volume/void volume) x 100
C. (Void volume/volume occupied by liquid) x 100
50. The unit of permeability is
A. No unit as it is a ratio
B. Stokes
C. Darcy
51. A fluid of 1 centipoise viscosity flows at a velocity of 1 cm/s for a
pressure drop of 1 atm/cm. This is equal to
A. 1 stokes B. 1 darcy C. 1 dyne
52. Most of the petroleum reservoirs commonly have permeability of
A. Less than 1 darcy
B. 1–2 darcy
C. More than 2 darcy
132
53. On an average, about 45% of world’s petroleum reserve have been

found in sandstone and about 45% in carbonates.
A. True B. False
54. The reaction for the formation of dolomite beneath the earth is
irreversible .
A. True B. False
55. During in-situ combustion, the sequence of injection of air and heat
is
A. First heat, then air
B. First air, then heat
C. Both air and heat at the same time
56. Syndepositional porosity is
A. Tertiary porosity
B. Secondary porosity
C. Primary porosity
57. The porosity that occurs if only one element of the rock is leached out
due to the action of the migrating fluid is termed
A. Moldic porosity B. Vuggy porosity C. Jam porosity
58. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Moldic porosity is smaller than vuggy porosity.
B. Moldic porosity is larger than vuggy porosity.
C. Moldic porosity and vuggy porosity care normally of the same
size.
59. The type of pore system that is typical of a dolomite reservoir is
A. Solution variety
B. Intercrystalline variety
C. Fracturing variety
60. The vertical internal from the crest of a reservoir to the lowest closing
counter on a trap is termed
A. Spill plane B. Closure C. Pay zone
61. The lowest closing contour of a trap is termed
A. Spill plane B. Closure C. Pay zone
62. During in-situ combustion, the flame in the reservoir is quenched with
injection of
A. Excess air B. Carbon dioxide C. Water
133
63. Which of the following is not a unit of dynamic viscosity ?

A. Pascal second B. Centipoise C. Stokes
64. Besides some other minerals, the cap rock normally consists of
A. Halite, anhydrite, and carnallite
B. Calcium, potassium, and phosphorus
C. Farite, halite, and hydrite
65. The trap developed due to density contrasts in sedimentary rocks,
which normally evaporates over pressured clays, is termed
A. Stratigraphic trap
B. Hydrodynamic trap
C. Diapiric trap
66. The floor of basin, developed due to tension in the earth’s crust, is
filled by sediments over time. The floor of such basins commonly splits
into a mosaic of fault blocks. This down-rapped rock of the blocks is
termed
A. Horste
B. Grabens
C. Mossar
67. The transverse movements of the crust give rise to
A. Normal fault B. Growth fault C. Wrench fault
68. The necessary oilfield processing of the crude oil produced from an
offshore field is done at
A. Well platform
B. Production platform
C. Central process platform
69. One of the simple techniques used to ascertain the presence of source
rock is
A. Carbon–oxygen ratio
B. Total organic carbon
C. Carbon–hydrogen ratio
70. The technique that is used to find the maximum quantity of petroleum
a source rock would yield if it was to become matured during burial
is termed
A. Rock–Eval analysis
B. Total organic content calculation
C. Pay zone determination
134
71. Abundant kerogen derived from aquatic organic matters in the source
rock indicates that the source rock is
A. Oil prone
B. Gas prone
C. May have condensates
72. Abundant kerogen, dominated by land plant debris, is expected to
yield
A. Oil B. Gas C. Condensates
73. Compounds that can be linked back to those synthesized by living
organisms, so that they can indicate the type of kerogen from which
oil is formed, are termed
A. Biomakers B. Molecule makers C. Both A and B
74. Gas chromatography–mass spectrometry is used to quantitatively
identify
A. Hydrogen index
B. Petroleum content of reservoir
C. Biomarkers
75. The technique that measures the carbon isotope ratios of specific
biomakers to molecular makers is termed
A. Compound-specific isotope analysis
B. Hydrogen index determination
C. Isotope ratio mass analysis
76. The technique used to study the formation of water composition is
termed
A. Oil analysis
B. Water analysis
C. Residual salt analysis
77. The lateral movement of the fluid is termed
A. Diffusion B. Advection C. Convection
78. The wave produced is explained on the basis of the combination of
A. Newton’s second law of motion and Hooke’s law
B. Terzaghi’s law and Darcy’s law
C. Hook’s law and Terzaghi’s law
79. The seismic disturbance propagating outwards from a source is a
packet of energy called
A. Wavefront B. Wavelet C. Wave part
135
80. During seismic exploration survey, a very significant complication

arises as each earth layer has a distinct velocity of wave propagation
through it. This complication is termed
A. Wave distortion
B. Ray path distortion
C. End distortion
81. Which of the following is an example of immiscible gas used in gas
injection?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Flue gas C. Propane
82. Which of the following is an example of miscible gas used in gas
injection?
A. Natural gas B. Flue gas C. Propane
83. The traditional source to generate seismic waves for the seismic surveys
has been
A. Dynamite
B. Chemical explosive
C. Both A and B
84. The device that is used to detect seismic waves on land is
A. Geophone
B. Wave catcher
C. Wave recorder
85. At present, the most popular seismic source during seismic survey is
A. Dynamite
B. Chemical explosion
C. Air gun
86. The device that generates voltages in response to the pressure
change is
A. Pressure transducer
B. Piezoelectric transducer
C. Electro pressure transducer
87. Hydrophones are sensitive to ________ whereas geophones are sensitive
to ________.
A. Pressure; Particle velocity
B. Particle velocity; Pressure
C. Water; Particle velocity
136
88. During marine seismic survey, areas where air gun use is restricted,
we may use
A. Ocean bottom vibrator
B. Marine vibrator
C. Bottom vibrator
89. The common midpoint shooting technique used in seismic survey was
originally termed
A. Common depth point
B. Common drawn point
C. Common point
90. ________ improves seismic data quality by using redundant
information.
A. Common midpoint shooting
B. Common depth point shooting
C. Both A and B
91. In floating drilling rigs, all of the casing, the well head, and blowout
preventer (BOP) are landed at the
A. Floating rig
B. Platform
C. Seabed
92. ________ is used to connect the rig with the BOP and well head in a
floating rig.
A. Jointer B. Connector C. Marine riser
93. In floating rig, the drill string and other equipment into the well and
the drilling fluid from the well to the surface of the rig are guided
by
A. Jointer B. Guider C. Marine riser
94. ________ is a 40 ft long pipe, which has an outer hexagonal cross
section and is connected to the top of the drill pipe.
A. Drill string B. Kelly C. Swivel
95. “Advanced core analysis” uses some recent advances in core analysis.
These advances include
A. Nuclear magnetic resonance measurement
B. Numerical modelling
C. Both A and B
137
96. Wet and dry weight method of porosity calculation gives

A. Fracture porosity
B. Interconnected porosity
C. Vugular porosity
97. In which of the following methods, the prepared core sample is filled
with a liquid of known density and then the increased weight of the
sample is divided by the fluid density to get the pore volume?
A. Boyle’s law porosimeter
B. Wet and dry weight method
C. Absolute porosity
98. The method used for the measurement of wettability by reservoir
engineers is
A. Amott–Harvey index
B. United States Bureau of Mines
C. Both A and B
99. The ratio of the volume of fluid displaced by spontaneous inhibition
gives
A. Amott–Harvey index
B. United States Bureau of Mines
C. Both A and B
100. The pressure difference across a curved interface between two
immiscible fluids is termed
A. Reactive pressure
B. Capillary pressure
C. Curve pressure
101. The system that replaces the functions of the rotary table and kelly
and allows the drill string to be rotated from the top, using a power
swirl instead of a kelly and rotary table, is known as
A. Bit drive system
B. Drive down system
C. Top drive system
102. A casing string made up of joints of pipe and threaded connections is
about
A. 20 ft B. 40 ft C. 60 ft
138
103. In a production well, the size of the last casing string is determined
by the size of
A. Joint casing
B. Production tubing
C. Connector casing
104. Wells that use small diameter casing are commonly known as
A. Small hole wells
B. Slim hole wells
C. Line hole wells
105. In a slim hole well, 90% of the casing is
A. Less than 20 inch diameter
B. Less than 12 inch diameter
C. Less than 7 inch diameter
106. The property of the mud that defines the suspension of cutting in the
mud is
A. Aixotropic B. Thixotropic C. Finotropic
107. The specific gravity of barite is
A. 3.2 B. 4.2 C. 5.2
108. The specific gravity of hematite is about
A. 3.6 B. 4.6 C. 5.6
109. The mud that has been treated with chemical so that the loss of water
from mud is reduced is called
A. Modified mud B. Inhibited mud C. Treated mud
110. In areas where formations are competent and impermeable, ________
is used as a drilling fluid.
A. Chemically treated mud
B. Oil-based mud
C. Air
111. To decrease the instability induced in the shale formation, because of
the action of water in water-based mud with shale formation, we use
mud containing
A. Potassium chloride
B. Partially hydrolysed polyacrylamide
C. Both A and B
139
112. ________ deviated well ensures that the formation is penetrated

vertically.
A. Build and hold profile
B. S-shaped
C. Kick-off
113. The measured depth in deviated well drilling at which a change in hole
direction (azimuth and/or inclination) should be initiated is termed
A. Build-up point
B. Kick-off point
C. Turnaround point
114. In directional drilling, the inclination from the vertical of the long
straight section of the well after the build-up section is termed
A. Tangent angle B. Inclination angle C. Bending angle
115. During drilling, due to some reasons, the drilling pipes may get stuck
in the well hole. These stuck pipes are referred to as
A. Fish B. Bird C. Octopus
116. The directional well that is drilled into a wild well to kill the wild
well is termed
A. Stop well B. Kill well C. Relief well
117. The function of drill collar is to
A. Provide compressive force on the drill bit
B. Control the direction of the bit
C. Measure while drilling
118. A well drilled to extend the known limits of a field that is just
discovered is called
A. Exploratory well-step out
B. Wildcat
C. Production well
119. A rupture in the earth’s crust that prevents movement of oil and thus
forms an oil trap is known as
A. Dome B. Trap C. Fault
120. The factor applied to convert a barrel of gas-free oil in stock tank at the
surface into an equivalent amount of oil in the reservoir is known as
A. Formation value factor (FVF)
B. Recovery factor (RF)
C. Free oil factor (FOF)
140
121. A small handy instrument for detecting seismic waves used in seismic
survey is called
A. Vibration detector B. Geophone C. Seismic phone
122. A device used in geophysical prospecting that measures changes in
magnetic field at any point, which enables to distinguish between
heavy and light rocks below and their attitude, is called
A. Magnetometer B. Lithometer C. Attitude meter
123. The volumetric method of estimating the fluid in place in the reservoir
differentiates between the connected and isolated areas.
A. True B. False
124. With enhanced oil recovery techniques, it is possible to extract 100%
of the oil from the reservoir economically.
A. True B. False
125. If the mobility ratio increases above 1, the volume of oil recovered will
be
A. More B. Equal C. Less
126. The process by which steel bullets are forced through the casing to
allow the oil to come into the well is called
A. Steel perforation
B. Gun perforation
C. Oil perforation
127. A method of improving the recovery of oil by injecting air into a
reservoir and subsequently heating or burning underground oil, which
makes it thinner and enables it to move towards the well, is called
A. In-situ combustion
B. Ground combustion
C. In fill combustion
128. A body of igneous rock, that is formed by molten magma, forcing
through the existing rock is called
A. Intrusion B. Penetration C. Proliferation
129. A situation in which the pumped-in mud does not return to the surface,
indicating that the mud is being absorbed by some formations, is
called
A. Lost circulation
B. Lost formation
C. Both A and B
141
130. Any external material added to the mud that prevents the formation
from absorbing more mud, such as cotton seeds and mica flakes, is
called
A. Low formation material
B. Loss circulation material
C. Both A and B
131. The logging process, in which a nuclear devise is used to emit neutrons
which responds to the hydrogen atoms present in the formation, and
thus helps in determining the porosity of the formation is called
A. Electric logging
B. Neutron logging
C. Hydrogen logging
132. A flat deck erected or towed to the desired location for off shore oil
activity, such as drilling or production, is called
A. Platform B. Dock C. Hanger
133. Steel or fibreglass shaft that transmits a reciprocating motion from a
surface artificial lift system to a subsurface pump is called
A. Oil rod B. Bore rod C. Sucker rod
134. A type of geologic map showing the variations in a single rock layer
is known as
A. Litholaces map
B. Lithofacies map
C. Lithological map
135. The quantity of crude oil/gas that geological and engineering data
demonstrate with reasonable certainty to be economically recoverable
in the future by the current methods at current economic values from
known oil reservoirs is called
A. Probable reserve B. Possible reserve C. Proven reserve
136. Which of the following is not a method to determine hydrocarbon in
place in a reservoir?
A. Volumetric analysis
B. Material balance method
C. Energy balance method
137. The locus of points of a particular pay thickness is termed
A. Isochore B. Isopach C. Isobar
142
138. The true bed thickness of the reservoir normal to the plane of the
reservoir is termed
A. Isochore
B. Isopach
C. Isobar
139. The vertical thickness of the reservoir normal to the plane of the
reservoir is termed
A. Isochore B. Isopach C. Isobar
140. For proven reserves, many companies believe that there is a ________%
chance that the actual quantity will be more than the amount estimated
as proven and a ________% chance that it will be less.
A. 90; 10 B. 70; 30 C. 60; 40
141. For probable reserves, many companies believe that there is a ______ %
as proven and probable and a ________% chance that it will be less
than the actual quantity.
A. 90; 10 B. 50; 50 C. 10; 90
142. The wells of solution gas drive reservoir usually require pumping of
gas at
A. Last stage of well life
B. Mid-stage of well life
C. Early stage of well life
143. The reservoir pressure of an expansion gas cap drive reservoir
A. Falls spontaneously
B. Falls continuously but rapidly
C. Falls continuously but slowly
144. In a gas cap expansion drive reservoir, the water production is
A. Absent or small
B. Present and very high
C. Moderately present
145. Enhanced oil recovery technique involves
A. Controlling the energy dissipated from the reservoir
B. Creating fundamental changes to the physio-chemical properties
of the system
C. Neither A nor B
143
146. Nowadays, water injection is often adopted much earlier in the life of
an oilfield and it is now termed as
A. Improved oil recovery
B. Enhanced oil recovery
C. Supplementary oil recovery
147. The conformance adjustment process of improved oil recovery aims at
better recovery of oil from
A. Swept zone fluid
B. Unswept zone fluid
C. Reservoir rock mechanics
148. The most extensively used enhanced oil recovery technique is
A. Miscible flood displacement technique
B. Polymer flooding technique
C. Thermal process
149. During in-situ combustion, the fuel for combustion is
A. Dry natural gas injected from outside
B. Gasoline injected from outside in small quantity
C. The underlying heavy oil of the reservoir
150. Up to a certain depth, the basin of high geothermal energy is expected
to contain rocks of
A. High porosity and permeability
B. Low porosity and permeability
C. Normal porosity and permeability
151. The dynamics of the earth surface resulting in the separation of the
continents from each other was earlier expressed as
A. Wandering continents
B. Ocean drift
C. Pressure movement
152. The process involving the physical and chemical changes that the
sediments go through is termed
A. Deformation B. Diagenesis C. Digestion
153. The movement of oil from the source rock to reservoir rock is called
A. Tertiary movement
B. Secondary movement
C. Primary movement
144
154. The movement of oil within the reservoir rock is called

A. Tertiary movement
B. Secondary movement
C. Primary movement
155. During the production stage, the characteristic of the rock which is
regarded as the least important is
A. Permeability B. Porosity C. Diagenesis
2
156. The area (in km ) covered by tar sand deposit in Canada is
approximately
A. 10,000 km2 B. 40,000 km2 C. 60,000 km2
157. The formation pressure of a well at any point of time is equal to the
A. Weight of rock column at that depth
B. Weight of air column at that depth
C. Neither A nor B
158. The rise in the formation pressure with the depth of well is about
A. 10.7 lb/inch2 B. 18.7 lb/inch2 C. 14.7 lb/inch2
159. The drilling bit is normally made of
A. Hard iron B. Hard steel C. Hard nickel
160. In pneumatic drills, the cuttings are removed from the hole by
A. Compressed air
B. Using empty barrel
C. Flushing hole with water
161. The type of the drilling bit that helps to cut the rock inside the surface
as a core, so as to retain the character of the rock intact, for further
examination is
A. Roller bit B. Coring bit C. Kelly bit
162. During drilling, the journey of the drilling mud, down and up the
hole, is termed as
A. Life cycle B. Circulation C. Journey
163. Which of the following is termed as a mud cake?
A. The mud that prevents the wall of the hole to cave in by forming
a sheath
B. The dry mud left behind once the drilling is over
C. The mud that is ready to be injected into the well
145
164. In turbo drilling,

A. The entire drill string rotates
B. Only the drilling bit at the bottom rotates
C. Both the drill string and the drilling bit at the bottom rotate
165. Which part of the derrick plays the key role of rotating the whole drill
string, enabling the bit at the bottom to cut the rock?
A. Rotary table B. Hook C. Swivel
166. The equipment that moves up and down, and facilitates hanging the
drill bit or removing the drill pipe as and when required is
A. Drill string
B. Travelling block
C. Crown block
167. What is a rat hole?
A. A special pipe to park kelly
B. The hole made during initial drilling
C. The place where the drilling pipes are kept
168. The kelly is marked at an interval of a foot or a metre and this is
watched against the time to note the rate at which the bit penetrates.
A. True B. False
169. The space between the hole size and the outer diameter of the casing
pipe is called
A. Casing space B. Wall space C. Annulus
170. The size of the drilling hole becomes slightly bigger than the size of
the drilling bit because of the
A. Action of mud on the wall of the hole
B. Caving in the wall of the hole
C. Slightly lateral movement of the bit
171. Which of the following is not a standard size of the bit used for drilling
of oil wells?
A. 26 inches B. 20 inches C. 17.5 inches
172. The system of casing in which each successive casing goes inside the
previous one is termed
A. Decreasing casing
B. Normal casing
C. Telescopic casing
146
173. “Mud Loss” means

A. Flow of the drilling mud from the hole to the formation due to low
formation pressure
B. The loss of mud due to the changes in its chemical composition
C. Loss in some quantity of the drilling mud due to the improper
handling of mud while storing it for future use
174. An equipment (similar to bottle brush), which is moved up and down
and up the hole while drilling, so as to take out the mud cake from
the hole is termed
A. Reamer B. Scratcher C. Skimmer
175. An equipment similar to drilling bit used to widen the hole to a desired
size, is called
A. Reamer B. Scratcher C. Skimmer
176. The device used to place the casing at the centre of the hole, if the size
of the hole made during drilling is much larger than the casing size,
is called
A. Mounter B. Placer C. Centralizer
177. At any point of time, the hydrostatic pressure of the drilling mud
should be
A. Slightly more than the hydrostatic pressure of the formation
B. Less than the hydrostatic pressure of the formation
C. There is no relation between the two
178. The drilling mud is a special mud made of
A. Clay, shale, and water
B. Clay and water only
C. Shale and water only
179. Often, for greater efficiency of gas dehydration, compressors are placed
after the gas dehydration facility.
A. True B. False
180. Due to the loss of water from the mud to the hole wall, plastering of
the wall with the mud takes place, which causes
A. Reduction in the diameter of the hole
B. Caving in the wall of the hole due to increased weight of the hole
wall
C. Neither A nor B
147
181. Which of the following is not used to prevent the water loss from
drilling mud?
A. Starch B. Gums C. Husk
182. Which of the following is not considered for the selection of oil-based
drilling mud?
A. Type of drilling, such as horizontal, vertical
B. The geological condition of the drilling area
C. Atmospheric condition above the drilling well
183. The attack on oil by microbes, which may lead to change in the
composition of crude oil, is popularly termed
A. Degeneration
B. Microbe stimulation
C. Biodegradation
Tough
1. The half-life of carbon-14 is about

A. 4700 years B. 5700 years C. 6700 years
2. The half-life of uranium-238 is
A. 4.5 × 109 years B. 5.5 × 109 years C. 6.5 × 109 years
3. The half-life of uranium-235 is
4. The half-life of rubidium-87 is
5. The half-life of potassium-40 is
6. A distinct plant or animal that lived for a relatively short span of
geological time is termed
A. Index fossil B. Extinct fossil C. Locus fossil
7. The unproductive rocks, that is, rocks that do not contain oil and gas are
usually igneous and metamorphic rocks, underlying the sedimentary
rocks are termed
A. Basement rocks B. Debarred rocks C. Void rock
8. Which area of Saudi Arabia is the shield area?
A. Southeast B. Northeast C. Southwest
148
9. The deep part of the basins where the gas and oil are found is
called
A. Kitchen B. Biker C. Cooker
10. The tendency of some minerals, existing inside the earth, to break
along smooth surfaces is called
A. Cleavage B. Bedding C. Pudding
11. The saline subsurface having salinity less than sea water, which has
been out of contact with the atmosphere for a long time, is termed
12. Generally, the black oil is considered to have an initial producing
gas–oil ratio of
A. Above 3300 SCF per barrel
B. Between 2000 SCF and 3300 SCF per barrel
C. Up to 2000 SCF per barrel
13. Generally, volatile oil is considered to have an initial producing gas–oil
ratio of
A. Above 3300 SCF per barrel
B. Between 2000 SCF and 3300 SCF per barrel
C. Up to 2000 SCF per barrel
14. ________ gas is a gas in the reservoir under original reservoir pressure,
but liquid condensate forms in the subsurface reservoir as the pressure
decreases with production.
A. Wet B. Dry C. Retrograde
15. The decrease in the volume of liquid petroleum caused by the release
of solution gas and/or by the thermal contraction of liquid is termed
A. Decrement B. Shrinkage C. Contractage
16. The ratio of the pressure in a system to the critical pressure (or pseudo-
critical pressure) of the system is termed
A. Reduced pressure
B. Distributed pressure
C. Column pressure
17. The ratio of the temperature in a system to the critical temperature (or
pseudo-critical temperature) of the system is termed
A. Reduced temperature
B. Distributed temperature
C. Column temperature
149
18. A liquid that is in equilibrium with vapour at a given pressure and

temperature state is termed
A. Critical liquid B. Absorbed liquid C. Saturated liquid
19. A vapour that is in equilibrium with a liquid at a given pressure and
temperature state is termed
A. Critical vapour
B. Absorbed vapour
C. Saturated vapour
20. The oil formation volume factor is generally denoted by
A. Rbbl/stbbl B. Rbbl/stm3 C. No unit
21. The value of Pb of liquid in the reservoir can be calculated
A. Directly from the solubility factor
B. By using solubility factor, reservoir temperature, and gas and oil
gravities
C. By using reservoir temperature, gas and oil gravities, and
viscosity
22. The ratio of reservoir volume at temperature (T) and pressure (P) to the
volume at stock tank (or sometimes standard) condition is termed
A. The volume factor
B. The ratio factor
C. The formation volume factor
23. If the oil compressibility above Pb in the reservoir is approximately
constant, then the oil formation volume factor (Bo)
A. Increases with the increasing pressure
B. Remains constant with changing pressure
C. Decreases with increasing pressure
24. In the reservoir, below the Pb the oil formation Bo is approximately
linear, that is, it
A. Decreases with decreasing pressure
B. Remains constant with changing pressure
C. Increases with decreasing pressure
25. Above the Pb the viscosity of the reservoir liquid tends to ________
as pressure increases.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
150
26. The viscosity of the reservoir liquid has ________ relationship with
the temperature.
A. Linear B. Parabolic C. Exponential
27. ________ measures the volume, of the oil and gas mixture as pressure
declines.
A. Pressure liberation B. Flash liberation C. Gas liberation
28. The average geothermal gradient is about
A. 15°C/km B. 26°C/km C. 36°C/km
29. In the zone of subduction, the average geothermal gradient
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
30. Mathematically, the product of the geothermal gradient of thermal
conductivity gives
A. Thermal rate B. Enthalpy rate C. Heat flow
31. At any subsurface point, the lithostatic pressure varies with
A. The fluid column laying above the point
B. Composition of rock laying above the point
C. Hydrostatic pressure gradient
32. The hydrostatic pressure gradient for a column of pure water is
about
A. 0.13 kg/cm2 B. 0.17 kg/cm2 C. 0.29 kg/cm2
33. Type IV kerogens are also termed
A. Inertinite
B. Sapropelic kerogens
C. Humic kerogens
34. Sapropelic kerogens are formed from
A. Algal matter
B. Phytoplankton and zooplankton
C. Recycling of one sedimentary formation to another
35. Liptinic kerogens are formed from
A. Algal matter
151
36. Inertinite kerogens are formed from

A. Algal matter
37. Type I kerogens are normally found in
A. Lacustrine and marine environment
B. Only marine environment
C. Swamp environment
38. Type II kerogens are normally found in
A. Forest water
B. Marine environment
39. Type III kerogens are normally found in
A. Lacustrine environment
B. Marine environment
40. Sapropelic kerogens normally produce
A. Oil B. Gas C. Both oil and gas
41. Liptinic kerogens normally produce
A. Oil B. Gas C. Both oil and gas
42. Humic kerogens are predominantly
A. Oil prone B. Gas prone C. Oil and gas prone
43. If the temperature increases above ________, the oil generation declines
and methane generation increases.
A. 60°C B. 120°C C. 200°C
44. The temperature at which the generation of methane from kerogen is
maximum is
A. 120°C B. 150°C C. 200°C
45. The temperature that marks the transition from catagenesis to
metagenesis is
A. 120°C B. 150°C C. 200°C
46. The temperature that marks the transition from diagenesis to catagenesis
is
A. 60°C B. 120°C C. 150°C
152
47. The temperature above which the generation of methane from kerogen
ceases is
A. 120°C B. 150°C C. 200°C
48. _ _______ porosity cross-cuts the fabric of the rock, grains, matrix, and
cement.
A. Moldic B. Vuggy C. Jam
49. Intraparticle pore may occur due to
A. Solution of rock particle due to migrating fluid
B. Fracturing of rock due to tectonic processes
C. Both A and B
50. Among all the trap types (that is, stratigraphic, hydrodynamic, diapiric,
structural, and combinational), the rarest trap type is
A. Diapiric trap
B. Combinational trap
C. Hydrodynamic trap
51. The oilfield of India that has very viscous fluid and hence requires
in-situ combustion is
A. Bombay High B. Shiv Sagar C. North Gujarat
52. ________ theory is used to predict the advances of the displacing fluid
(water or gas) through the reservoir.
A. Placement B. Displacement C. Movement
53. If the reservoir liquid is below the Pb and combination drive is
employed to increase the production, the maximum effect is seen
from
A. Gas cap drive B. Solution gas drive C. Water drive
54. When a normal fault moves, the strata on the downthrust side often
flow down into the space created by the fault movements. These are
termed
A. Rollover anticlines
B. Drape anticlines
C. Straligraphic anticlines
55. Which of the following is not a unit of kinetic viscosity?
A. m2/s B. Stokes C. Centipoise
56. Dynamic viscosity of a fluid is also termed as
A. Absolute viscosity B. Simple viscosity C. Both A and B
153
57. The freshly deposited sand and clay have density much less than
evaporates; but at a depth of 800 m and above, the density of sand
and clay is much more than the density of evaporates.
A. True B. False
58. Both channel and bar stratigraphic traps have linear geometries and
are, thus, referred to as
A. Shoestrings sands B. Horseshoe sands C. Line sands
59. On-lap traps are also termed
A. Subcrop traps B. Truncation traps C. Pinch-out traps
60. The subcrop traps are also termed
A. On-lap traps B. Truncation traps C. Pinch-out traps
61. A blanket sand that pinches out up dip, that is, it is sealed by
impermeable rock beneath and by an on-lapping shale (generally the
source rock, as well as the cap) is termed
A. On-lap trap B. Subcrop trap C. Neither A nor B
62. If the reservoir is saturated and is below the bubble point, to attain
higher recoveries from solution gas drive mechanism, the gas production
must be
A. Maximized
B. Maintained at a moderate level
C. Minimized
63. The hydrogen index of good oil-prone source rock is typically
A. Below 200 B. 200–400 C. 400 and above
64. The hydrogen index of gas-prone source rock is
A. Below 200 B. 200–400 C. 400 and above
65. ________ more generally provide clues to processes that have affected
oils or their source kerogens.
A. Biomakers B. Molecular makers C. Both A and B
66. A cost-effective microscopical approach of determining the maturity
of the source plant, is measuring the reflectivity of a type of organic
material derived from source plant called
A. Vitrinite B. Vigular C. Vesicular
67. Virtinite is derived from wood and the percentage of light that it can
reflect increases measurably as its maturity increases.
A. True B. False
154
68. If the source rock horizon occurs in mudrock, the downward oil
migration can occur over distance of up to
A. 300 m B. 500 m C. 1000 m
69. If the source rock horizon occurs in mudrock, the downward gas
migration can occur over distance of up to
A. 300 m B. 500 m C. 1000 m
70. The law that relates stress to strain is termed
A. Terzaghi’s law B. Darcy’s law C. Hooke’s law
71. Given the position of a wavefront at any instant of time, we can
calculate the position at a later time by using
A. Terzaghi’s law B. Hooke’s law C. Huygens principle
72. Mathematically, the acoustic impedance of rock is measured as
A. Z = P/V, where P is the pressure of associates wave and V is the
velocity
B. Z = PV, where P is the density of the rock and V is its velocity
C. Both A and B
73. The variation of phase with frequency is termed
A. Frequency spectrum
B. Phase spectrum
C. Variation spectrum
74. In seismic surveys, the useful seismic energy is usually restricted to a
band of frequencies between
A. 0 Hz and 5 Hz
B. 5 Hz and 10 Hz
C. 10 Hz and 50 Hz
75. Normally, during seismic surveys, the digital data is recorded in a time
interval of
A. 0–1 ms B. 2–4 ms C. 4–8 ms
76. The advantage of using a seismic array, instead of a single source,
during a seismic survey is
A. Source array helps to cancel noise waves
B. Source array focuses seismic energy downwards where it is
needed
C. Both A and B
155
77. Typically, during seismic survey, ________ samples of seismic data are
recorded per second.
A. 25 B. 250 C. 2500
78. Hydrophones are kept at a fixed depth by pressure-sensitive devices
known as
A. Fish B. Bird C. Octopus
79. A jack-up rig for offshore drilling is generally designed for water
depths of
A. 100 ft B. 250 ft C. 350 ft
80. A semi-submersible rig can operate in water up to a depth of
A. 1000 ft B. 2500 ft C. 3500 ft
81. A drill ship is used to drill the well in deep water up to
A. 3500 ft B. 7500 ft C. 10,000 ft
82. Which of the following is not a part of solid removal equipment used
for the removal of cutting from the used mud?
A. Centric pits B. Centrifuges C. Shaker
83. Axial cores are obtained by using a ________ attached to the bottom
of the drill pipe.
A. Core cutter B. Core grinder C. Core barrel
84. The rays which are used for scanning of whole cores of plugs to assess
core heterogeneity, filtrate invasion of any mechanical damage to core
while recovering it, are
A. Gamma rays B. Beta rays C. X-rays
85. Total porosity and effective porosity are equal in
A. Clean shell B. Clean clay C. Clean sand
86. A porosity may be termed microporosity if its diameter is less than
A. 10 mm B. 5 mm C. 1 mm
87. Which of the following is not a method to measure porosity?
C. Forchheimer inertial porosimeter
88. Which of the following is a method of measuring porosity?
A. Summation of fluids
B. Forchheimer inertial porosimeter
C. Rock fluid reaction method
156
89. The porosity calculation method that involves the expansion of a

compressed gas (normally helium) into the pores of a prepared core
sample is
B. Absolute porosity method
C. Forchheimer inertial porosimeter
90. Which of the following methods of porosity calculation is least
accurate?
C. Retort method
91. The Poisson’s ratio for sandstone generally falls within the range of
A. 0–0.1 B. 0.1–0.3 C. 0.3–0.6
92. According to Darcy’s equation, the plot of Q/A, (that is, flow rate cross-
section area) against pressure gradient (AP/L) will yield
A. A straight line
B. A parabolic curve
C. An elliptical curve
93. The region on the plot of Darcy’s velocity versus the pressure gradient,
which is non-linear, is termed
A. Darcy flow region
B. Klinkenberg flow region
C. Forchheimer flow region
94. At low mean gas pressure, gas permeability is lower than liquid
permeability.
A. True B. False
95. At high mean gas pressure, gas permeability approaches liquid
permeability.
A. True B. False
96. For neutral wettability rock, both the oil ratio and the water ratio are
equal to
A. 0 B. 1 C. ∞
97. For strong water-wet rock,
A. Oil ratio = 1, water ratio = 0
B. Oil ratio = 0, water ratio = ∞
C. Oil ratio = 0, water ratio = 1
157
98. For strong oil-wet rock,

A. Oil ratio = ∞, water ratio = 0
B. Oil ratio = 1, water ratio = 0
C. Oil ratio = 0, water ratio = 1
99. In formations where pressure is so low that massive loss may accrue
even if water is used as the drilling fluid instead of water we may
use
A. Gas–liquid mixture B. Oil-based mud C. Air
100. Solids such as clay that may react with water and chemical in mud,
thereby destroying the basic properties of mud, are termed
A. Active solids
B. Reactive solids
C. Interfering minerals
101. The other name of oil-based mud is
A. Converted oil emulsion mud
B. Invert oil emulsion mud
C. Active oil emulsion mud
102. Wells that are used to access reservoirs that are remote (up to 10 km)
from the drilling location are called
A. Satellite reach well
B. Arm reach well
C. Extended reach well
103. Basically, how many types of deviated well profiles are there?
104. During drilling, the rate at which the well deviates vertically is
called
A. Build-up ratio B. Drop-off rates C. Both A and B
105. The build-up rate of deviated well is normally measured in
A. Degrees per 100 ft
B. Degrees per 1000 ft
C. Degrees per 1000 m
106. The tangent angle in directional drilling is limited to
A. 20 degrees or less
B. 40 degrees or less
C. 60 degrees or less
158
107. Which of the following is not a type of roller cone bit?

A. Milled tooth bit
B. Insert bit
C. Polycrystalline diamond compact (PDC) bits
108. Drill collars, steering tools, MND tools, and stabilizer, are all arranged
in an assembly known as
A. Bottom hole assembly
B. Borehole assembly
C. Drill collar assembly
109. The method of stimulating a well by pumping various fluids into a
formation at such high pressure that the rock cracks, increasing the
effective porosity around the well is known as
A. Parking B. Fracturing C. Penetrating
110. A string of casing that extends from below to the surface and is run
after setting surface casing and before setting production casing is
known as
A. Secondary casing
B. Intermediate casing
C. Neither A nor B
111. Name the recently innovated device used to create shockwaves for
prospecting of oil/gas.
A. Vibrator B. Thunder C. Demarker
112. Placing of gravel opposite a producing horizon to prevent or retard the
movement of loose sand grains into the wellbore is known as
A. Husk packing
B. Gravel packing
C. Formation packing
113. Maps that indicate the thickness of subsurface formations at various
locations are known as
A. Isotherm maps B. Isopach maps C. Isobar maps
114. The Hurst and van Everdingen–Hurst method of material balance is
used to determine
A. Solution gas B. Water influx C. Neither A nor B
115. The Tarner–Tracy method of material balancing is used to determine
A. Solution gas B. Water influx C. Neither A nor B
159
116. The large plugs of salt that are pushed up through rocks and are
mushroom-shaped are known as
A. Salt domes B. Salt palace C. Salt home
117. A mechanical device such as a bottle brush that can be moved up and
down, used to scrape the sides of a well to clean the surface, as is done
before cementation, is called
A. Eraser B. Scrapper C. Scratcher
118. The issue of oil and gas through the ground due to the rapture of a
structure is called
A. Penetration B. Seepage C. Hooding
119. To drill an inclined well to bypass an obstruction such as an accidentally
dropped tool or a loosened drill bit is called
A. New track B. Base track C. Side track
120. A technology used for enhancing the analysis of bright spots in seismic
data is called
A. Seismic data verifier
B. Amplitude variation with offset (AVO)
C. Bright spot enhancer
121. In the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC),
the plateau phase is very long because of ________ to enhance
production.
A. Low cash flow during plateau phase
B. Nature of sales contract between parties, that is, lack of substantial
oil purchaser
C. Government regulations (quota in production)
122. ________, provides reliable information about the near well region,
even before drilling fluid invasion.
A. Logging while drilling
B. Drilling while logging
C. Drill steam test
123. After a reservoir has started production, reserve is mathematically
defined as
A. Estimated Ultimate Recovery – Cumulative Production
B. Cumulative Production – Estimated Ultimate Recovery
C. Cumulative Production/Recovery Factor
160
124. The ________ line will represent the plan view of the outer reservoir
boundary, even though it may not lie at constant depth.
A. Zero isopach
B. Zero isobar
C. Zero isochore
125. Hydrocarbon-filled pore volume is used in
A. Oil-testing methods
B. Material balance equation calculation
C. Energy balance equation calculation
126. For possible reserve, many companies believe that there is a ________ %
as proven, probable, and possible and ________% chance that it will
be less than the quantity estimated.
A. 90; 10 B. 50; 50 C. 10; 90
127. The recovery of oil from a solution gas drive reservoir by its own energy
is nearly always low, which is ________ of stock tank oil initially in
place (STOIIP).
A. 30%–40% B. 20%–30% C. 5%–25%
128. In a solution gas drive reservoir, the reservoir pressure
A Declines continuously and rapidly
B. Declines continuously but slowly
C. Remains approximately constant
129. In a solution gas drive reservoir, water production is usually
A. Low
B. High
C. Absent
130. In a gas cap expansion drive reservoir, the expected oil recovery is
about ________ of STOIIP.
A. 40%–60% B. 20%–40% C. 10%–20%
131. In the gas cap expansion drive reservoir, the surface gas-to-oil ratio
A. Rises continuously in up-structure wells
B. Decreases continuously in up-structure wells
C. Remains constant in up-structure wells
132. The gradient of overburden pressure in a reservoir is about
A. 10 Psi/ft B. 5 Psi/ft C. 1 Psi/ft
161
133. With decrease in reservoir pressure due to oil production, the matrix
pressure of the reservoir increases. Sometimes due to very high matrix
pressure, the grain collapses, increasing the rock pore compressibility
and expelling significant oil volume. This drive mechanism is
termed
A. Stress drive
B. Collapse drive
C. Compaction drive
134. Horizontal drain wells are described by their
A. Build angle
B. Set-up angle
C. Cut angle
135. Depending upon the sharpness of the build angles, the horizontal drain
wells are classified into ________ categories.
A. Five B. Four C. Three
136. A sudden change in the drilling rate is called
A. Drilling break
B. Jolt
C. Down movement
137. The data from the sonde are transmitted up the cable to instruments in
the logging track where they are recorded on a strip of paper called
A. Fine print B. Field print C. Tough print
138. The condition that is regarded favourable for gravity drainage is
A. Thick pay zone with high vertical continuity
B. Thin reservoir with an appreciable angle of dip (at least 10°–15°)
C. Both A and B
139. The maximum recovery of liquefiable fractions in a gas condensate
reservoir requires
A. Very high temperature in the reservoir
B. Very low pressure in the reservoir
C. Pressure maintenance in the reservoir
140. The target of improved oil recovery techniques is
A. Residual oil that can be found as capillary-trapped (microscopic)
droplets in swept areas
B. Virgin oil in (macroscopic) unswept areas
C. Both A and B
162
141. Miscible and multi-contact are the methods of

A. Recovery of oil droplets trapped in pores
B. Recovery of oil trapped in unswept areas
C. Neither A nor B
142. Who developed the first seismograph based on the movement of
mercury?
A. L Palmieri B. Agricola C. Edwin Drake
143. Polymer flooding only affects
A. Area of unswept zone
B. Reservoir rock mechanics
C. Neither A nor B
144. Of the majority of oil recovered so far, the major contribution has come
from reservoirs of
A. Paleozoic period
B. Mesozoic period
C. Cenozoic period
145. The nature of the sedimentary deposits at any point of a basin depends
upon
A. The nature of rock from which sediment was derived
B. The kind of precipitation
C. Both A and B
146. At a depth of 5000 m, the normal formation pressure of the well fluid
is about
A. 50 atm B. 500 atm C. 700 atm
147. ________ is a tall steel structure, strong enough to sustain the weight
of the drill assembly.
A. Derrick B. Dock C. Drill stand
148. There is a limit to the depth to which the open hole can sustain itself
and usually does not carve in, which is approximately
A. 500 m to 1000 m
B. 1000 m to 1500 m
C. 1100 m to 1700 m
149. The coring is achieved by using a special assembly of instruments
called
A. Surround cutter B. Round barrel C. Core barrel
163
150. The technique that is employed to do coring, even after the drilling of
the hole is over, is termed
A. After drill coring
B. Side wall coring
C. Formation clearance coring
151. At any time, the mud weight should be higher than the formation fluid
weight by
A. 5% B. 8% C. 10%
152. A special apparatus used for the segregation of the finer fractions of
the rock material from the mud is called
A. Definer B. Degenerator C. Desander
153. Who developed the first seismograph based on the movement of
mercury?
A. L Palmieri B. Agricola C. Edwin Drake
154. The principle of operation of miscible displacement process in improved
oil recovery technique is to reduce or eliminate the interfacial tension
force between
A. Displacing fluid and reservoir rock
B. Displaced fluid and reservoir rock
C. Displacing fluid and displaced fluid
155. The first offshore well was drilled in 1896 in
156. The use of offshore platform for the offshore drilling well was first
carried out in
157. In the Middle East, the crude oil was first discovered in
A. Bahrain B. Istanbul C. Baghdad
158. Biodegradation is maximum within
A. Less than 250°C B. Less than 140°C C. Less than 70°C
159. The half-life of carbon-14 isotope is about
164
Chapter 4
refining
Easy
1. Crude oil contains thousands of individual chemical compounds.
A. True B. False
2. For any crude oil, its properties are tested and documented in a
chart termed
A. Crude position chart
B. Crude assay
C. Crude index
3. There exists many types of standard modern refinery configuration.
A. True B. False
4. To achieve automobile combustion requirements, such as antiknock
quality, gasoline is blended with different compounds.
A. True B. False
5. Automotive gasoline is derived from petroleum via
A. Fractional distillation unit
B. Reforming and cracking
C. Both A and B
6. The products generated from a refinery may be termed
A. Finished
B. Intermediate
C. Both A and B
7. The term “refinery” represents only distillation of petroleum and
fractions.
A. True B. False
8. Extraction, osmosis, settling, and filtration are
A. Separation processes
B. Chemical processes
C. Neither A nor B
9. During petroleum processing, small olefinic molecules are combined
to produce heavier and longer chained paraffins.
A. True B. False
10. The major salts contained in crude oil are NaCl and MgCl.
A. True B. False
11. From the full boiling range naphtha obtained from the atmospheric
distillation unit (ADU), we extract butane and lighter gases.
A. True B. False
12. It is possible to transport more than one petroleum product through
the same product pipeline.
A. True B. False
13. In general conditions, the effective cost per barrel moved in a multi-
product pipeline is much less than a single product pipeline.
A. True B. False
14. In refineries, VDU stands for
A. Virtual distillation unit
B. Variable distillation unit
C. Vacuum distillation unit
15. In refining, FDU stands for
A. Friction distillation unit
B. Fuel distillation unit
C. Fractional distillation unit
16. In refineries, CDU stands for
A. Compressed distillation unit
B. Central distillation unit
C. Crude distillation unit
17. Which of the following is not a part of product pipeline?
A. Pig launch station
B. Pumping station
C. Desalting station
18. Refinery should always be near the consumption centre.
A. True B. False
19. The use of floating roofs in the tank minimizes the evaporation of
volatile products by largely eliminating air space above the product.
A. True B. False
20. Floating roof tanks have the advantage of preventing the release of
vapours to the outside atmosphere; thus, eliminating any detrimental
environmental effect.
A. True B. False
21. From the point of view of environment and safety, the bottom road
loading racks are considered better than top road loading racks.
A. True B. False
22. Splash loading is not permitted as it
A. Produces electrostatic charge
B. Results in spilling of product
C. Generates toxic vapours
168
Chapter 4 refining
23. Every terminal that handles petrol should be equipped to trap vapours
in the first place and then return them to a vapour recovery unit, where
they can be condensed and eventually returned to the product supply
lines.
A. True B. False
24. The term “bitumen” is generally not used in the USA.
A. True B. False
25. Aromatic compounds normally have strong odour.
A. True B. False
26. Aromatics function as solvent for the higher molecular weight
components.
A. True B. False
27. Air blowing helps to obtain lower temperature bitumen.
A. True B. False
28. Four-stroke gas engines are mostly spark ignited.
A. True B. False
29. Two-stroke gas engines have spark ignition.
A. True B. False
30. At present, there is no treatment for reducing CO2 emissions in a
refinery, and the main abatement instrument increases the efficiency
of energy use in the plant.
A. True B. False
31. LABS, a popular chemical from petroleum-based feedstock, stands
for
A. Lower alkyl benzene sulphonate
B. Large alkyl benzene sulphonate
C. Linear alkyl benzene sulphonate
32. Barrels per calendar day give the maximum number of barrels of input
that a distillation facility can process when running at full capacity
under optimal condition.
A. True B. False
33. The largest refinery of the Baltic region is
A. Saratov Refinery
B. Chiba Refinery
C. Krasnodar Refinery
169
34. The total acid number (TAN) of a petroleum stream is a measure of

its
A. Corrosive nature
B. Sulphur content
C. Flame propagation
35. Cracking refineries are considered
A. Simple B. Complex C. Very complex
36. Coking refineries are considered
A. Simple B. Complex C. Most complex
37. Which of the following types of refineries is regarded as most
complex.
A. Hydroskimming B. Cracking C. Coking
38. Generally, with the increase in molecular weight, the melting point of
hydrocarbon
A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains same
39. With the increase in molecular weight, the boiling point of
hydrocarbon
A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains same
40. With the increase in molecular weight, the specific gravity of
hydrocarbon
A. Remains the same B. Decreases C. Increases
41. The atom in the crude oil molecule that is neither hydrogen nor carbon
is called
A. Redundant atom B. Heteroatom C. Medium atom
42. The minimum temperature at which the product generates enough
vapour so as to form an explosive mixture with air is termed
A. Smoke point B. Aniline point C. Flash point
43. Pour point is the temperature at which
A. Separation of wax from fuel oil or diesel occurs
B. Water droplets in the oil precipitate
C. Viscosity of the fuel is diluted
44. According to Wilbur Nelson’s complexity factor, if the crude distillation
unit of 100,000 barrels per day (bpd) capacity costs $10 million, the unit
cost per barrel of throughput per day will be
A. $100 B. 10% of $100 C. $1000
170
Chapter 4 refining
45. Where was the first refinery established in India?

A. Nahorpung
B. Margherita
C. Digboi
46. When was the first refinery established in India?
A. 1889 B. 1866 C. 1893
47. When was the Jamnagar Refinery commissioned?
A. 2004 B. 2002 C. 1999
48. Studying the changes in the quality of crude over time is known as
A. Crude assay
B. Crude valorization
C. True boiling point assay
49. Crude is termed heavy if the American Petroleum Institute (API)
gravity is either equal to or below
A. 15 B. 18 C. 22
50. The temperature of desalter depends on the viscosity of crude.
A. True B. False
51. Cetane number has reverse characteristics of octane number.
A. True B. False
52. On the basis of sulphur content, the types of diesel sold in India is/are
53. Which oil company owns and operates the maximum number of
refineries in India?
A. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
C. Reliance India Limited
54. The principal products from catalytic cracking are high-octane gasoline,
light cycle oil, and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).
A. True B. False
55. The catalysts used in the fluid catalytic cracking (FCC) and resid fluid
catalytic cracking (RFCC) units are mainly
A. γ-Zeolites B. β-Zeolites C. α-Zeolites
56. In FCC unit, some γ-Zeolite catalysts may have been in the unit for as
long as a year.
A. True B. False
171
57. Which of the following is not a part of vapour recovery section of

FCC?
A. The primary absorber
B. The secondary absorber
C. Scrubber
58. When the flue gas of the FCC process flows through the flue gas cooler,
it generates superheated steam.
A. True B. False
59. The vapour recovery section of the FCC unit rejects C2 and lighter
components of the fuel gas system.
A. True B. False
60. The vapour recovery section of the FCC process recovers C3 and C4
LPG as liquid products.
A. True B. False
61. The separation of C3 and C4 LPG produced by the vapour recovery
section in the FCC process is carried out by
A. Separator B. Splitter C. Depropanizer
62. _______ is the only hydrocarbon that remains in the raw gas produced
due to the partial oxidation of hydrocarbon.
A. Ethane B. Methane C. Neither A nor B
63. The mildest form of thermal cracking is
A. Visbreaking B. Coking C. Breaking
64. The severest form of thermal cracking is
A. Visbreaking B. Breaking C. Coking
65. Visbreaking is a/an
A. Exothermic reaction
B. Neutral reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
66. It is possible that a condensation reaction that leads to the formation
of coke can be exothermic.
A. True B. False
67. The residence time of the hydrocarbon subjected to cracking in the
process unit varies from minutes in a visbreaking process to several
hours in delayed coking.
A. True B. False
172
Chapter 4 refining
68. In visbreaking process, the residue is rapidly heated in a furnace and

then cracked for a specified residence time.
A. True B. False
69. Visbreaking is often employed to increase refinery net distillate yield
and produce saleable black oil for industrial use.
A. True B. False
70. The severity of visbreaking is typically constrained by the stability of
the final high-sulphur residual fuel oil product.
A. True B. False
71. Initially, thermal cracking was used to produce gasoline with tar as
fuel oil products.
A. True B. False
72. Coking and visbreaking are two forms of thermal cracking.
A. True B. False
73. Delayed coking is a
A. Continuous process B. Batch process C. Neither A nor B
74. The conversion of heavy coker gas oil and coke yield is reduced as the
operating pressure is increased.
A. True B. False
75. The conversion of heavy coker gas oil and coke yield is reduced as the
operating temperature is reduced.
A. True B. False
76. The coke produced in a delayed coking unit has no economic value is
a misconception.
A. True B. False
77. Internationally, even high-sulphur coke is regarded as an economical
fuel.
A. True B. False
78. Major power plants burning pet coke utilize circulating fluid bed boiler
technology.
A. True B. False
79. The solvent de-asphalting process is flexible enough to enable the
processing of both long and short residues.
A. True B. False
80. In refining, DAO stands for
A. De-asphalted oil B. Deactivated oil C. Neither A nor B
173
81. Higher operating temperature will favour the yield of DAO extracted
overhead of the asphaltene separator.
A. True B. False
82. Polygasoline produced by catalytic polymerization can accept higher
amount of butane in blend.
A. True B. False
83. The hydrocracking process, besides breaking larger molecules, also
adds hydrogen from an external source.
A. True B. False
84. Distillate hydrocracking is normally regarded as a middle distillate
producer rather than a gasoline producer.
A. True B. False
85. The sulphur content of the products of ADU increases rapidly with the
boiling range.
A. True B. False
86. Mercaptan is insoluble in caustic soda.
A. True B. False
87. The merox unit operates at normal refinery rundown temperature and
pressure.
A. True B. False
88. The fibre-film contractor/settler of a plant provides larger surface area
for the caustic phase to contact the thin films of hydrocarbon flowing
co-currently.
A. True B. False
89. During partial oxidation, steam usually acts as a moderator.
A. True B. False
90. In partial oxidation, the complete destruction of all carbon–carbon
bond does not occur.
A. True B. False
91. The unconverted carbon present in the raw gas produced due to the
partial oxidation of hydrocarbon is termed
A. Black boot B. Soot C. White boot
92. The gasification of hydrocarbon is a commercially established
process.
A. True B. False
174
Chapter 4 refining
93. For the gasification of hydrocarbon, higher feedstock flexibility is with

boiler mode than with the quench mode.
A. True B. False
94. The quench mode of gasification of hydrocarbon is considered more
efficient than the boiler mode of gasification.
A. True B. False
95. The unconverted soot characteristic for partial oxidation is filtered out
and incinerated.
A. True B. False
96. For the generation of high-octane motor fuel components, thermally
cracked naphtha can be used but after suitable pretreatment.
A. True B. False
97. Pyrolysis gasoline _______ used for gasoline blending.
A. Can be B. Cannot be
98. The boiling point of benzene is higher than that of cyclopentene.
A. True B. False
99. The zeolite process of isomerization operates at a lower temperature
than the Penex process.
A. True B. False
100. Naphtha with high naphthene and aromatic content gives higher yield
in catalytic reforming.
A. True B. False
101. During catalytic reforming, the higher yield from naphtha with higher
naphthene and aromatic content is because aromatics pass through the
process virtually unchanged and naphthene dehydrogenates easily to
aromatics.
A. True B. False
102. The gasoline yield from catalytic reforming is less if the feed is naphtha
with high paraffin content.
A. True B. False
103. In the semi-regenerative (SR) catalytic reforming process, the rate of
catalyst deactivation is minimized by maintaining a high hydrogen-
to-hydrocarbon molar ratio in the reactors.
A. True B. False
104. The cyclic reforming system for reforming of hydrocarbon is an
improvement over the SR reforming system.
A. True B. False
175
105. The cyclic reforming system is similar to the SR reforming system with
the only difference being that an extra swing reactor is introduced
in the cyclic reforming system to keep the plant running for longer
duration.
A. True B. False
106. In the continuous catalyst regeneration (CCR) process, coking of catalyst
is not constrained as catalysts are continuously regenerated.
A. True B. False
107. The CCR process operates at a much higher pressure than the SR
reforming process.
A. True B. False
108. The purpose of recycle hydrogen during catalyst reaction is to sweep
reaction products from the catalyst and so reduce the rate of coke
formation and prolong the catalyst life.
A. True B. False
109. The alkylation process is applied to convert propylene and butylene to
form branched-chain isoparaffins of high octane number.
A. True B. False
110. The alkylation process using hydrofluoric acid as catalyst is more
widely used than the process using sulphuric acid.
A. True B. False
111. Olefin and isobutene feed to alkylation using hydrofluoric acid should
be dry and of high-sulphur content to minimize acid consumption and
ensure good alkylate quality.
A. True B. False
112. The low isobutene–olefin ratio during the alkylation process gives an
alkylate with high octane number and low end point.
A. True B. False
113. A weak acid used in the alkylation process promotes high octane
number and low end points but also causes high combined fluoride
content and high polymer production.
A. True B. False
114. If the acid-to-hydrocarbon ratio is very low in the alkylation processing
using hydrogen fluoride catalyst, the alkylate will have high content of
combined fluorides and also
A. Low octane number B. High end point C. Both A and B
176
Chapter 4 refining
115. Hydrofluoric acid leakage from the alkylation unit may cause the
formation of a cold dense aerosol.
A. True B. False
116. Gasoline production from FCC unit can be increased by changing the
operating mode, which means
A. Change in cracking temperature
B. Adding active zeolite catalyst
C. Both A and B
117. In Europe, the maximum gasoline mode of FCC operation is
preferred.
A. True B. False
118. Cetane number is routinely measured in all refineries.
A. True B. False
119. The cetane number measurement utilizes any motor expected to run
on that fuel.
A. True B. False
120. For a given level of aromatics in diesel fuel, the cetane number increases
with increasing paraffin content.
A. True B. False
121. Light crude oil has very low paraffin content and, thus, has
A. Low cetane number
B. High cetane number
C. High octane number
122. The use of single solvent in the ketone dewaxing process of crude
increases the dewaxed oil yield and its quality.
A. True B. False
123. In the propane dewaxing unit, propane acts as both diluent and
refrigerant.
A. True B. False
124. Paraffin, isoparaffin, naphthene, and aromatics are the primary solvents
that should be removed from lube oil distillates.
A. True B. False
125. The N-methyl-2-pyrrolidone (NMP) process is being gradually replaced
by the furfural extraction process.
A. True B. False
177
126. As compared to the phenol extraction process for the removal of solvents
from lube base oil, the NMP process has higher solvent losses.
A. True B. False
127. The three-way catalyst used in gasoline is capable of simultaneously
oxidizing hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide, and chemically reducing
NOx.
A. True B. False
128. The benzene content in gasoline is measured by infrared spectroscopic
method.
A. True B. False
129. It is possible to use methyl ether and diisopropyl ether as octane
booster in gasoline.
A. True B. False
130. The stability of gasoline is tested by the induction period method.
A. True B. False
131. White spirits have cuts between
A. 80°C and 120°C B. 120°C and 220°C C. 220°C and 270°C
132. Lamp oils have boiling range between
A. 80°C and 120°C B. 120°C and 180°C C. 180°C and 310°C
133. Home heating oil has a boiling range between
A. 180°C and 310°C
B. 200°C and 370°C
C. 350°C and 400°C
134. Crude feedstock selection is a less important quality criterion for jet
fuel production.
A. True B. False
135. Feedstock having extremely high normal paraffin content has better
low-temperature fluidity.
A. True B. False
136. Pure kerosene is blue in colour.
A. True B. False
137. Throughout the world, jet fuels are predominantly of straight-run
origin.
A. True B. False
138. The specifications of diesel fuel around the world
A. Are universal B. Vary and depend on state
178
Chapter 4 refining
139. The proportion of middle distillate in barrel of crude oil is often much
lower than that of gasoline.
A. True B. False
140. If stability, centane number improvement, or aromatic reduction are
targeted to meet diesel specifications, the catalyst used is
A. Co-Mo type catalyst
B. Ni-Mo type catalyst
C. Combination of Ni-Mo and noble metal type catalyst
141. The key operating condition of the hydrodesulphurization unit to meet
the sulphur specification is
A. Hydrogen partial pressure
B. Weighted average bed temperature
C. Both A and B
142. The Co-Mo type catalysts usually used in the deep high-speed diesel
(HSD) process are not sufficiently active for _______ removal.
A. Oxygen B. Lead C. Nitrogen
143. Fuel gas is produced as a waste material from crude refining.
A. True B. False
144. In European/Asian countries, petrochemical plants are normally
integrated with the refinery company.
A. True B. False
145. The capacity of a refinery is typically defined by the total capacity of
_______ operated in the refinery.
A. Cracking unit B. Hydrotreating unit
C. Crude distillation unit
146. Before being sent to CDU, the crude oil is generally passed through
A. Dewaxing unit B. Desalter unit C. Both A and B
147. The number of desalting unit that may be employed is determined by
the maximum allowable salt content for a downstream process unit.
A. True B. False
148. The dry-type VDU operates at higher temperature than the wet-type
VDU.
A. True B. False
149. CDUs are normally classified in terms of feed charge system.
A. True B. False
179
150. How many types of CDUs are there on the basis of feed charge system?
A. Two B. Three C. Four
151. The sweating of bitumen is encouraged when the bitumen is in contact
with an absorptive material.
A. True B. False
152. Industrial bitumen exhibits higher temperature susceptibility.
A. True B. False
153. In the USA, there are many grades of roofing bitumen.
A. True B. False
154. If light machine oil (LMO) is used, the corresponding slack wax is
called LMO-slack wax.
A. True B. False
155. De-oiled waxes are classified as “base paraffin waxes”.
A. True B. False
156. The normal sequence of lube oil refining is solvent dewaxing followed
by solvent extraction.
A. True B. False
157. De-oiling by sweating is not an economic and good environmental
process of de-oiling of wax.
A. True B. False
158. WMO stands for
A. White mineral oil
B. Washed mineral oil
C. White methanol oil
159. With processing, the ultraviolet absorbance of WMO approaches
zero.
A. True B. False
160. Grease may be pumped through a product pipeline with ease.
A. True B. False
161. In diesel engine, the ignition of fuel combustion is due to
A. Spark from spark plug
B. Temperature increase due to compression
C. Both A and B
162. Energy conservation in a refinery is not a cost-effective form of emission
control.
A. True B. False
180
Chapter 4 refining
Medium
1. The just prepared hot steel is plunged in a bath of _______ to increase

its hardness.
A. Fuel oil B. Quenching oil C. Neither A nor B
2. Crude oil is described by its properties and chemical composition.
A. True B. False
3. The fuel gas generated in the refinery consists primarily of
A. Methane, ethane, and hydrogen
B. Propane, butane, and sulphur
C. Butane, hydrogen, and carbon
4. LPG is stored and handled as liquid at
A. Ambient temperature and moderate pressure
B. Ambient temperature and high pressure
C. Ambient temperature and very low pressure
5. Heavy straight-run gasoline is usually the feedstock to a
A. Reforming unit B. Cracking unit C. Cooking unit
6. Kerosene-type jet fuel is a modified development of
A. Illuminating kerosene
B. Gasoline
C. HSD
7. Worldwide, how many types of jet fuel are generally used?
A. One B. Two C. Four
8. Residual fuel oils are generally classified by viscosity, gravity, and
A. Sulphur content B. Nitrogen content C. Salt content
9. Asphalt is also known as
A. Coke B. Bitumen C. Residual oil
10. _________ is used primarily for road construction, roofing, and
flooring applications.
A. Residual oil B. Asphalt C. Coke
11. Petroleum coke is the solid residue product that results as the product
of
A. Vacuum distillation unit
B. Reforming unit
C. Coking unit
181
12. Coke is essentially carbon plus metals, sulphur, and hydrocarbon

contamination.
A. True B. False
13. _________ is used for the manufacture of electrodes for aluminium
production.
A. Coal B. Coke C. Bitumen
14. High purity coke is also sold as a fuel.
A. True B. False
15. Specifications for petroleum products for marketing are based on
A. National specifications
B. Transnational specifications
C. Both A and B
16. Individual components in crude oil dictate the quantity and quality of
products that can be made by distillation.
A. True B. False
17. The hydrogen-to-carbon ratio of a molecule may be increased by
A. Addition of hydrogen
B. Removal of carbon
C. Both A and B
18. The cracking reaction produces lower-boiling light products, and the
addition of hydrogen modifies the product properties.
A. True B. False
19. Addition of hydrogen to hydrocarbon molecules, removal of carbon
from hydrocarbon molecules, and building large molecules from small
are methods of changing the size of molecules.
A. True B. False
20. _________ is the process of converting straight-chain molecules to
equivalent isomer product.
A. Isomerization B. Reforming C. Cracking
21. The simplest refinery configuration is the
A. Skimming refinery
B. Hydroskimming refinery
C. Coking refinery
22. Skimming refineries are also called
A. Topping refineries B. Tolling refineries C. Taping refineries
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Chapter 4 refining
23. In skimming refineries, the major processing step is crude oil distillation
to remove the lighter fractions from the residuum.
A. True B. False
24. The catalytic reformer is included to increase _________ and to provide
hydrogen for the hydrotreater.
A. Gasoline octane
B. High-speed diesel octane
C. Kerosene octane
25. Most regions of the world have
A. Coking refineries
B. Hydrocracking refineries
C. Catalytic cracking refineries
26. Catalytic cracking is preferred in the area of higher _________
demands.
A. Gasoline
B. HSD
C. Aviation turbine fuel (ATF)
27. In refineries, for all major activities, cooling is generally carried out by
_________ and _________.
A. Air; Water B. Water; Lubricants C. Air; Lubricants
28. In refineries, VR stands for
A. Volatile residue B. Vacuum residue C. Vacuum reduces
29. The product generated from the top section of ADU is
A. Heavy naphtha B. Light naphtha C. Off-gas
30. Besides gauging, other factors that influence the tank stock
calculation is
A. Temperature of the contents
B. Tank calibration
C. Both A and B
31. Bitumen is mainly used as binder material in road construction and
to a lesser extent in industrial applications, such as roofing.
A. True B. False
32. _________ are considered natural polymeric structures, which form
the backbone of bitumen.
A. Asphaltenes B. Resins C. Aliphatics
183
33. The maximum consumption of bitumen is for

A. Coating B. Adhesive C. Road paving
34. The major health, safety, and environment accident related to bitumen
is
A. Health problem due to the release of hydrogen sulphide
B. Skin burn resulting from handling hot bitumen
C. Explosion while heating bitumen
35. The major consumption of wax is for the manufacture of
A. Pacaking material B. Candle C. Cosmetics
36. Wax is not used for
A. Roofing B. Packing C. Adhesives
37. Diesel engines make more noise than gasoline engines.
A. True B. False
38. The fuel-burning process in a diesel engine is usually _________ than
that in a gasoline engine.
A. Slower B. Faster C. Same as
39. Modern technology for diesel engines of trucks and buses is dominated
by three geographical regions—North America, Europe, and Japan.
A. True B. False
40. The world’s first refinery was established at
A. Ploiesti, Romania
B. Titusville, Pennsylvania
C. Sidorov, USSR
41. Which of the following is not a conversion process?
A. Reforming B. Extraction C. Unification
42. Which of the following is not soluble in pentane?
A. Aromatics B. Resins C. Asphalt
43. Diesel hydrotreating removes organic sulphur from diesel.
A. True B. False
44. Residual hydrocracking is carried out to
A. Reduce the sulphur content of gasoline
B. Increase gasoline yield from residual
C. Convert gasoline to molecules with high octane number
184
Chapter 4 refining
45. What was the purpose of developing hydrotreating?

A. To remove contamination that would damage catalysts during the
extraction process
B. To increase gasoline yields and antiknock characteristics
C. To improve quality and reduce the sulphur content of gasoline
46. What is the by-product of hydrocracking?
A. Alkylation feedstocks
B. Petrochemical feedstocks
C. High-octane aviation gasoline
47. Which of the following is not a by-product of the vacuum distillation
process?
A. Asphalt
B. Residual coke feedstock
C. Naphtha
48. The molecules of heavy cuts are broken into lighter molecules to
get products, such as gasoline and diesel by the conversion process
called
A. Distillation
B. Coking
C. Cracking
49. The diesel produced in the USA is of two qualities
A. Regular and high end
B. Light and dark colour
C. High sulphur and low sulphur
50. Factors that were responsible for the shut down of refineries in the
USA between 1981 and 2004 were
A. Environmental constraints
B. Technological developments made the existence of smaller players
impossible
C. Both A and B
51. The expansion of an existing refinery is considered a better option than
constructing a new refinery because
A. Certain fixed costs associated with a new facility are avoided/
minimized
B. Economies of scale realized with existing unit
C. Both A and B
185
52. The increase in the refining capacity in the USA during the last decade
has been about
A. 130,000 barrels per day
B. 150,000 barrels per day
C. 100,000 barrels per day
53. Western Europe has more diesel and jet fuel demand. Thus, its
refineries have more
A. Hydrotreating units
B. Hydrocracking units
C. Both A and B
54. Crude oil with low carbon, high hydrogen, and high API gravity is
rich in
A. Paraffin
B. Naphthalene
C. Aromatics
55. Merox is the abbreviation of
A. Mercaptan oxidation
B. Methyl oxidation
C. Methyl reduction
56. Mercaptan is removed from hydrocarbons by
A. Washing with caustic soda
B. Washing with methyl benzene
C. Washing with glycol
57. In refineries, KMU stands for
A. Kero Merox Unit
B. Krypton Merox Unit
C. Kero mercantile Unit
58. In refineries, ATU stands for
A. Amine Treatment Unit
B. Amine truncation Unit
C. Aromatic Treatment Unit
59. The primary expansion in the refinery process in the USA has been to
A. Reduce sulphur content
B. Increase gasoline yield from residual
C. Increase diesel yield from residual
186
Chapter 4 refining
60. Butane is blended with gasoline to

A. Increase the octane number of gasoline
B. Promote better starting of engine even in cold weather
C. Prevent corrosion in the engine
61. The minimum octane number of the gasoline required for normal
engine performance in the USA is
A. 87 and above B. 93 and above C. 96 and above
62. The per cent volume of isooctane in a mixture of isooctane and normal
heptane that gives the same knocking as that of the fuel when tested
under defined conditions is termed
A. Cetane number B. Heptane number C. Octane number
63. Higher viscosity index implies
A. Less effect of temperature on viscosity
B. High effect of temperature on viscosity
C. Neither A nor B
64. Which of the following is not a unit for measuring viscosity?
A. Saybolt second unit B. Centipoise C. Pascal
65. A very simple refinery has a complexity index of
A. Less than 5 B. Less than 10 C. More than 15
66. A very complex refinery has a complexity index of
A. Less than 5 B. Less than 10 C. More than 15
67. How many functioning refineries are there in India?
A. 17 B. 18 C. 19
68. The determination of the properties of various fractions of crude oil is
termed
A. Crude assay
B. Crude valorization
C. True boiling point assay
69. Total acid number is a complete corrosion index.
A. True B. False
70. Silver corrosion test is done for
A. Gasoline B. ATF C. Diesel
71. Copper corrosion test is done for
A. Gasoline B. ATF C. All fuels
187
72. The octane number of isooctane is

A. 0 B. 10 C. 100
73. The octane number of heptane is
A. 0 B. 10 C. 100
74. n-Cetane has a cetane number of
A. 0 B. 10 C. 100
75. Alpha-methylnaphthalene has a cetane number of
A. 0 B. 10 C. 100
76. Potential gum test is applicable to
A. Diesel B. Motor gasoline C. ATF
77. Existent gum test is applicable to
A. Diesel B. Motor gasoline C. ATF
78. Cetane number is applicable to
A. Gasoline B. ATF C. Diesel
79. Smoke point test is applicable primarily to
A. Gasoline B. Kerosene C. Diesel
80. The smoke point of a fuel is directly related to its
A. Oxygen content
B. Carbon content
C. Hydrogen content
81. When different fuels are burnt with the same height of flame, the fuel
with higher smoke point will give
A. Brighter light
B. No effect on the intensity of light
C. Dim light
82. Aniline point test gives the
A. Oxygen nature of the oil
B. Carbon nature of the oil
C. Hydrogen nature of the oil
83. Which of the following has higher aniline point?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Paraffinic hydrocarbon
C. Naphthenic hydrocarbon
84. In refineries, RFO stands for
A. Residue floating oil B. Reduced fuel oil C. Residual fuel oil
188
Chapter 4 refining
85. Thermal cracking is also termed

A. Constructive distillation
B. Destructive distillation
C. Neither A nor B
86. Thermal cracking is preferred in those applications where catalysts are
rapidly fouled by contaminants or coke deposits.
A. True B. False
87. The thermal cracking process is defined in terms of
A. Complexity B. Severity C. Neither A nor B
88. The breaking of bonds in hydrocarbons also leads to the formation of
free radicals, which may lead to
A. Polymerization B. Condensation C. Both A and B
89. Some of the chemical reactions that occur in thermal cracking
include
A. Dehydrogenation, dealkylation
B. Isomerization, cyclization
C. Both A and B
90. The net effect of thermal cracking is essentially irreversible.
A. True B. False
91. The net overall rate of thermal cracking follows
A. Severity equations
B. Arrhenius equation
C. Both A and B
92. The degree of conversion in thermal cracking is a function of
A. Time B. Temperature C. Both A and B
93. In thermal cracking, if the feedstock is held in the cracker unit for a
longer time, the temperature required for cracking will be
A. Higher B. Moderate C. Lower
94. Visbreaking is a mild thermal cracking process used to
A. Reduce the viscosity of residual fuels
B. Pour point of residual fuels
C. Both A and B
95. Atmospheric residues are also termed
A. Long residues B. Short residues C. Neither A nor B
189
96. The residues from the vacuum distillation unit are also termed
A. Long residues B. Short residues C. Neither A nor B
97. In the visbreaking process, the cracked residue leaving the soaking
zone is immediately quenched with gas oil to stop the reaction and
prevent coking.
A. True B. False
98. The fluid bed-based cracking process is
A. Very discontinuous B. Semi-continuous C. Continuous
99. The coke drum-based coking process is
A. Very discontinuous B. Semi-continuous C. Continuous
100. The coke drum-based coking process is also termed
A. Elongated coking B. Disturbed coking C. Delayed coking
101. In delayed coking, the uncracked heavy liquid never leaves the soaking
or reaction zone and is, thus, completely converted to lighter products
and coke.
A. True B. False
102. The cracking process that is flexible enough to handle even the heaviest
of residues is
A. Visbreaking
B. Delayed coking
C. Fluid bed coking
103. Recently, cokers are designated to minimize _________ and produce a
heavy _________.
A. Coke; Coker gas oil
B. Coker gas oil; Coke
C. Neither A nor B
104. If the feedstock has a high heteroatom content, the sulphur and
nitrogen in cracked products are higher than in the corresponding
virgin products.
A. True B. False
105. The residual material from visbreaking from which the lighter material
is “cracked” is termed
A. Visbreaker gasoline
B. Visbreaker bottom oil
C. Visbreaker bottom tar
190
Chapter 4 refining
106. The visbreaker bottom tar is used as

A. Coke B. Heavy fuel oil C. Bitumen
107. _________ represents the heaviest fraction vaporized in the coker and,
hence, it is a distillate material.
A. Coker tar B. Coker gas oil C. Coke
108. In coking, the by-product tar is minimized to the ultimate extent and
is thus converted to
A. Petroleum coke B. Bitumen C. Neither A nor B
109. _________ is a physical separation process wherein the components of
the feed are recovered in their original state.
A. Gas oil de-asphalting
B. Hydrocarbon de-asphalting
C. Solvent de-asphalting
110. _________ being insoluble in the extraction solvent, drops out of solvent
and exits through the bottom of the asphaltene separator.
A. Gasoline B. Asphaltene C. Neither A nor B
111. Lean DAO solvent is also known as
A. Circulating solvent
B. Operating solvent
C. Reducing solvent
112. Polygasoline produced from catalytic polymerization has _________
Reid vapour pressure.
A. High B. Medium C. Low
113. The IFP dimersol process used for dimerizing C3 olefins is an extension
of the homogeneous catalysis mechanism.
A. True B. False
114. The feed for the Dimerson-G process must be largely C3 material since
C2 and C4 hydrocarbons poison the catalyst.
A. True B. False
115. The feedstock for hydrocracking is
A. Fuel oil B. Diesel C. Vacuum gas oil
116. The Mericat process for the removal of mercaptane was developed
by
A. Universal Oil Products
B. Marichem
C. Shell
191
117. The Ben Sat reaction of Universal Oil Products for the production of
cyclohexane is _________ process.
A. An exothermic B. A thermally neutral
C. An endothermic
118. Partial oxidation is
A. Endothermic B. Exothermic C. Autothermic
119. The _________ mode of heat recovery is associated with the hydrocarbon
gasification process of Lurgi and Texaco.
A. Quench B. Boil C. Neither A nor B
120. The process of non-catalytic partial oxidation of hydrocarbon followed
by direct water quench mode is available with
A. Texaco and Lurgi B. Lurgi and Shell C. Shell and Texaco
121. The multipurpose gasification (MPG) process accepts fluids of the
highest viscosities as well as emulsions and slurries with particles
sized in the millimetre range.
A. True B. False
122. Pyrolysis gasoline is usually called
A. Cracked gas B. Process gas C. PY gas
123. For gasoline, MONC stands for
A. Motor olefin number count
B. Motor octane number compressor
C. Motor octane number clear
124. The simplest process of conversion of light straight-run (LSR) naphtha
to gasoline consists of passing the LSR naphtha over a suitable catalyst
in an atmosphere of hydrogen under controlled temperature and
pressure.
A. True B. False
125. The boiling point of n-heptane is higher than that of benzene.
A. True B. False
126. In the hydrocarbon industry, isomerization TIP stands for
A. Total isopropyl pentene
B. Total isomerization process
C. Texas isomerization process
127. The isomerization of hydrocarbon takes place when the hydrocarbon
is in
A. Liquid phase B. Vapour phase C. Solid phase
192
Chapter 4 refining
128. When the zeolite process of hydrocarbon isomerization is combined

with molecular sieve system, the integrated process is known as
A. Partial isomerization process
B. Total isomerization process
C. Simple isomerization process
129. Normally, the feed to catalytic reforming is paraffin, naphthene, and
aromatic hydrocarbon with a _________ carbon number ring.
A. C3–C6 B. C6–C11 C. C17–C21
130. Dehydrogenation of naphthenes to aromatics is
A. An exothermic process
B. A thermally neutral process
C. An endothermic process
131. In the catalytic reforming process, reformate has density
A. Same as that of the feed
B. Lower than the feed
C. Higher than the feed
132. The alkylation of toluene to benzene takes place particularly at
A. High temperature and high pressure
B. High temperature and low pressure
C. Low temperature and high pressure
133. In catalytic reforming, SR stands for
A. Sequential regenerative
B. Semi-regenerative
C. Surrounded regeneration
134. The catalytic reforming process that is periodically shut down to
regenerate the catalyst is called _____________ reforming.
A. Cyclic
B. SR catalytic
C. CCR
135. In the CCR process, the reactors are stocked
A. Parallel to each other
B. Vertically above each other
C. Far apart in stacks of two
193
136. The plant type that dominates the catalytic cracking process plant
worldwide is
A. CCR plant
B. Cyclic reforming plant
C. SR plant
137. The ratio of the volume of naphtha charged per hour to the volume of
catalyst is termed
A. Velocity of space liquid
B. Space hourly liquid velocity
C. Liquid hourly space velocity
138. _________ is an indication of contact time between feed and catalyst.
A. Reaction rate
B. Space velocity
C. Hydrogen-to-hydrocarbon molar ratio
139. The light olefins produced from FCC plant are subjected to _________,
so as to produce motor fuel with high octane number.
A. Alkylation process B. Cyclic reforming C. SR reforming
140. The catalyst used for the alkylation of propylene and butylenes to
isoparaffin is
A. Sulphuric acid B. Hydrofluoric acid C. Both A and B
141. The alkylation process of olefin and isobutene, using hydrofluoric acid
catalyst, is
A. An endothermic process
B. An exothermic process
C. A neutral process
142. Heavy cycle oil produced by an FCC unit is used primarily as a
substitute for
A. Diesel B. Fuel oil C. LPG
143. Light cycle oil produced by an FCC unit is similar to
A. Diesel B. Gasoline C. Fuel oil
144. It is possible to extend an FCC unit to operate on atmospheric residue
feedstock, provided the feedstock has low metal content (Ni and V).
A. True B. False
145. The sensitivity of gasoline produced from FCC is given by
A. RONC + MONC B. RONC – MONC C. RONC × MONC
194
Chapter 4 refining
146. The catalytic polymerization of C3/C4 olefin to C6/C7/C8 olefins is

sometimes referred to as
A. Catalytic condensation
B. Oligomerization
C. Both A and B
147. The term “oligomerization” means
A. Excess polymerization
B. Absence of polymerization
C. Slight polymerization
148. The dimersol catalytic polymerization process is based on
A. Solid catalyst
B. Liquid phase catalyst
C. Gaseous catalyst
149. The dimersol process polymerizes C3/C4 olefins to hexane.
A. True B. False
150. The coke generated in a coker unit is kept in _________ condition to
minimize the escape of fine particles.
A. Dry
B. Damp
C. Heavy water
151. In an FCC unit, catalytic cracking is performed on the surface of a
fluidized solid catalyst.
A. True B. False
152. The residual carbon on the surface of catalyst of FCC is removed by
A. A flow of air at temperature above 600°C
B. A flow of steam at temperature above 600°C
C. Neither A nor B
153. The feedstock of an RFCC unit is
A. Atmospheric distillation unit residue
B. Mixture of ADU residue and gas oils
C. Both A and B
154. Compared to catalytic cracking, thermal cracking produces lesser
amounts of dry gas in the C1–C3 range.
A. True B. False
195
155. The C3 splitter of vapour recovery section in the FCC process

separates
A. C3 and C4
B. C3 and propylene
C. Propane and gasoline
156. The gasoline splitter of the vapour recovery section separates
A. Propane and gasoline
B. Butane and gasoline
C. Light and heavy gasoline
157. The modern hydrocracking process developed by Chevron in the 1950s
was termed
A. Chevron modern hydrocracking technique
B. Chevron isocracking process
C. Chevron hydrocracking process
158. The simplest configuration of hydrocracking unit is
A. Single-stage configuration
B. Single-stage recycle configuration
C. Two-stage recycle hydrocracker configuration
159. The most complex configuration of hydrocracking unit is
A. Single-stage once through
B. Single-stage recycle configuration
C. Two-stage recycle hydrocracker configuration
160. The process undertaken to improve the quality of lubricant base oils is
A. Solvent de-asphalting
B. Solvent extraction
C. Catalytic dewaxing
161. Solvent de-asphalting is carried out to improve the qualities of lubricant
base oils such as viscosity index.
A. True B. False
162. The process implied to improve the colour and stability of lubricant
base oil products is
A. Clay finishing
B. Hydrogen finishing
C. Both A and B
196
Chapter 4 refining
163. To improve the viscosity index and saturate contents of lube base oil,
the process employed is
A. Solvent extraction
B. Severe hydrotreating
C. Both A and B
164. The ketone dewaxing unit for the separation of oil and wax typically
uses two solvents
A. Methyl ethyl ketone in conjunction with methyl isobutyl ketone
B. Methyl ethyl ketone in conjunction with toluene
C. Both A nor B
165. Which of the following is a dewaxing process for crude oil?
A. Ketone dewaxing
B. Propane dewaxing
C. Both A and B
166. The pentane dewaxing process is a process of dewaxing of crude oil.
A. True B. False
167. Some of the ketone dewaxing units operate with only one solvent for
crude oil dewaxing.
A. True B. False
168. For the removal of polar compounds from lube base oils to improve
quality, the absorption process uses
A. Attapulgus clay B. Fuller’s earth C. Both A and B
169. Which of the following is a solvent extraction process for lube oil
distillates?
A. Furfural extraction process
B. N-methyl-2-pyrrolidone process
C. Both A and B
170. In the phenol extraction process for lube base oil, water is primarily
used as a/an
A. Extractor B. Refrigerant C. Solvent modifier
171. In refineries, ETP stands for
A. Environment treatment plant
B. Effluent treatment plant
C. Ethylene treatment plant
197
172. The octane quality of a fuel is measured by internationally approved

single cylinder engines known as
A. Cooperative fuel research
B. Dominant fuel research
C. Cetane fuel research
173. Research octane number is measured under severe driving conditions
akin to high speed, high load driving.
A. True B. False
174. Motor octane number is measured under relatively mild operating
conditions akin to cruising and low speed driving.
A. True B. False
175. To calculate the research octane number (RON) or motor octane number
(MON), same CFR engines are used but under different operating
conditions.
A. True B. False
176. The high paraffin content of crude tends to increase the smoke
point.
A. True B. False
177. There are some caustic-free processes for kerosene sweetening.
A. True B. False
178. The first approach to meet tighter sulphur-related specifications in
existing high-speed diesel units is to operate them at
A. Significantly higher hydrogen partial pressure
B. Significantly lower hydrogen partial pressure
C. Neither A nor B
179. If hydrodesulphurization is the only objective to meet the sulphur
specification of diesel, the catalyst mainly used is
A. Co-Mo type catalyst
B. Ni-Mo type catalyst
C. Combination of Ni-Mo and noble metal type catalyst
180. To meet diesel demand, it is a common practice to blend cracked gas
oil with straight-run gas oil.
A. True B. False
181. The cetane number of diesel can be improved to any desired
specification with single-stage hydrotreating even at high hydrogen
partial pressure.
A. True B. False
198
Chapter 4 refining
182. The cut point range of light straight-run gasoline is

A. 320°C–425°C B. 105°C–165°C C. 25°C–105°C
183. The cut point range of heavy naphtha is
A. 80°C–195°C B. 250°C–320°C C. 455°C–565°C
184. The cut point range of light gasoline is
A. 80°C–195°C B. 250°C–320°C C. 320°C–425°C
185. The cut point range of kerosene is
A. 165°C–250°C B. 250°C–320°C C. 320°C–455°C
186. The cut point range of residue is
A. Greater than 350°C B. Greater than 450°C
C. Greater than 560°C
187. The straight-run gasoline consists mainly of
A. Methane and heavier hydrocarbon
B. Propane and heavier hydrocarbon
C. Pentane and heavier hydrocarbon
188. Light straight-run gasoline can be isomerized or used as a direct
gasoline blend stock.
A. True B. False
189. Heavy straight-run gasoline can be isomerized or used as direct
gasoline blend stock.
A. True B. False
190. Kerosene is normally not used as
A. Fuel for lantern
B. Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF)
C. Blend of gasoline
191. Diesel fuels are normally straight-run products.
A. True B. False
192. The basic requirement for diesel fuels is
A. Satisfactory ignition and combustion
B. Suitability for handling by the injection equipment
C. Both A and B
193. The hardness of asphalt may be increased by
A. Blowing straight-run asphalt with hot air
B. Blowing straight-run asphalt with hot water
C. Blowing straight-run asphalt with certain additives
199
194. In the Middle East, there is a higher ratio of _________ conversion

process.
A. Catalytic cracking B. Hydrocracking C. Coking
195. In North America, for achieving higher conversion level for heavier
hydrocarbons, the catalytic cracking and hydrocracking units are
supplemented with high coking capacity.
A. True B. False
196. In the USA and Western Europe, it is traditional for petrochemical
plants to be separate from the refinery.
A. True B. False
197. In refineries, the terminology AR stands for
A. Atmospheric residue B. Atmospheric reduces
C. Alternate residue
198. In refineries, the atmospheric distillation unit typically produces output
having a boiling point, ranging up to 350°C.
A. True B. False
199. The VDU normally produces vacuum gasoline and residue.
A. True B. False
200. In a lube oil manufacturing complex, the AR from CDU is passed
through VDU to produce three or four heavy distillates besides VR.
A. True B. False
201. The unit for production of vacuum gas oil is called
A. Fuel type vacuum distillation unit
B. Vacuum flashing unit
C. Both A and B
202. The salt from crude oil is removed by water washing, and then
contaminant-laden dirty water is removed by electrostatic coalescing.
A. True B. False
203. Salt chloride content traditionally is measured in
A. Per billion barrels
B. Per million barrels
C. Per thousand barrels
204. Which of the following is not a type of CDU?
A. Non-pre-flash system
B. Triple flash system
C. Pre-flash system
200
Chapter 4 refining
205. The COCO model of retail outlet means

A. Company-owned company-operated
B. Collectively-owned collectively-operated
C. Cooperative-owned cooperative-operated
206. The CODO model of retail outlet stands for
A. Company-owned directly operated
B. Company-owned dealer-operated
C. Cooperative-owned dealer-operated
207. The DODO model of retail outlet stands for
A. Dealer-owned directly operated
B. Department-owned department-operated
C. Dealer-owned dealer-operated
208. In general, how many types of level gauges are used in the petroleum
downstream sector?
A. Two B. Three C. Five
209. The least accurate type of gauge is
A. Float gauge
B. Servo gauge
C. Hydrostatic gauge
210. The most accurate type of gauge is
A. Float gauge
B. Servo gauge
C. Hydrostatic gauge
211. In the USA, the term used for bitumen is
A. Asphalt B. Asphalt cement C. Both A and B
212. In the USA, Class B bitumen is also termed
A. Reduced bitumen
B. Catalysed bitumen
C. Oxidized bitumen
213. In the USA, Class W bitumen is also termed
A. Waxy bitumen
B. Oxidized bitumen
C. Reduced bitumen
201
214. In the lube section, LMO stands for

A. Light machine oil
B. Liquid machine oil
C. Lube machine oil
215. White mineral oil is used in
A. Moisturizer B. Adhesive C. Packing
216. White mineral oil is manufactured from selected lubricating base oils
by either severe hydrogenation or intense acid treatment with fuming
sulphuric acid.
A. True B. False
217. _________ is a material having a consistency varying between a semi-
liquid and a complete solid.
A. WMO B. Grease C. Fuel oil
218. The temperature at which liquefaction of grease occurs is known as
A. Precipitation point B. Separation point C. Dropping point
219. In gas engines, the type of gas used greatly influences lubricant
formulations.
A. True B. False
220. Two-stroke gas engines are also termed
A. Triple fuel operation engine
B. Dual fuel operation engine
C. Single fuel operation engine
221. Gas engines operating on sewage or landfill waste require lubricants
with an enhanced ability to neutralize acids and to protect metals
against corrosion while maintaining satisfactory performance reserve.
A. True B. False
222. Diesel engines operating above 1000 rpm are generally termed
A. Low-speed engines
B. Medium-speed engines
C. High-speed engines
223. TBN stands for
A. Total bromide number
B. Total benzene number
C. Total base number
202
Chapter 4 refining
224. Slow-speed marine diesel engines are also termed

A. Cross head B. Cross link C. Cross over
225. _________ is used as a fluid to transfer power in the hydraulic
system.
A. Hydraulical B. Wax C. Fuel oil
226. The formation of NOx due to the burning of oils is promoted by the
_________ of combustion, the _________ of oxygen, and the residence
time in the combustion zone.
A. Intensity; Availability
B. Intensity; Scarcity
C. Condition; Excess
227. Total base number is a measure of
A. Alkalinity B. Paraffin content
C. Aromatic content
Tough
1. The fuel gas generated in a refinery is mainly

A. Consumed in the refinery itself
B. Dissolved in crude feed
C. Sent to fields for injection in oil wells during improved oil
recovery
2. The smoke point of kerosene is improved by
A. Hydrotreating B. Catalytic cracking C. Coking
3. Jet fuels require good _________ characteristics and high _________
content.
A. Energy; Turbine combustion
B. Turbine combustion; Energy
C. Paraffin; Octane
4. Which of the following is a type of jet fuel used worldwide?
A. Kerosene type
B. Wide-cut gasoline type
C. Both A and B
5. The wide-cut gasoline type jet fuel is a wider boiling range fuel which
includes some gasoline fraction.
A. True B. False
203
6. Residual fuel oils are composed wholly or in part of _________

petroleum fractions from crude distillation.
A. Undistilled B. Distilled C. Neither A nor B
7. Lube oil should contain least amount of
A. Paraffins B. Napthenes C. Aromatics
8. Crude oils with a _________ hydrogen-to-carbon ratio are capable of
producing a greater quality of valuable distillates.
A. Higher B. Intermediate C. Lower
9. The separation of petroleum products in the distillation unit is based
on the
A. Difference in boiling points of hydrocarbons
B. Removal of carbon from hydrocarbon
C. Neither A nor B
10. Which of the following methods is typically used to convert gas oils
and residues to lighter distillates?
A. Building large molecules from small
B. Removal of carbon
C. Neither A nor B
11. Which of the following approaches is used to convert light olefins to
gasoline-range materials?
A. Removal of carbon
B. Addition of hydrogen
C. Building large molecules from small
12. In the _________ process, the molecular structure is altered to improve
the properties of a product.
A. Isomerization B. Reforming C. Both A and B
13. The _________ process converts straight-chain molecules to aromatic.
A. Isomerization B. Reforming C. Cracking
14. The most widely used process for removing contaminants, such as
sulphur and nitrogen is
A. Isomerization B. Hydrotreating C. Reforming
15. Contaminants are removed from straight-run components in topping
refineries.
A. True B. False
204
Chapter 4 refining
16. The straight-run products of topping refineries are of very high

quality.
A. True B. False
17. A _________ may be a part of a topping refinery.
A. Vacuum distillation unit
B. Reforming unit
C. Cracking unit
18. A hydroskimming refinery has _________ and _________ processes
added to it.
A. Cracking; Reforming
B. Reforming; Hydrotreating
C. Hydrotreating; Cracking
19. If more than one product is transported through the same pipeline in
“parcels”, the pipeline is termed
A. Product pipeline
B. Multi-product pipeline
C. Neither A nor B
20. Which of the following is not a type of gauge used in the petroleum
downstream sector?
A. Float gauges B. Servo gauges C. Castrol gauges
21. Paving grade bitumen is generally classified on the basis of
A. Viscosity value B. Penetration value C. Both A and B
22. The main function of a _________ is to lubricate the critical contacts
of meshing gear teeth and associated bearing.
A. Fuel oil B. Gear oil C. Gasoline
23. The oils used in electrical equipment, such as transformers, switchgears,
and cables to ensure electrical insulation and heat elimination while
having a very long application life of 20–40 years are
A. Dielectric oils B. Process oils C. Mineral oils
24. The percentage of refinery crude oil feedstock that is used as fuel at
a refinery is
A. 4%–9% B. 9%–15% C. 15%–18%
25. To decrease/eliminate the use of chlorofluorocarbons, all countries
signed the
A. Montreal Protocol B. Wall Protocol C. Kyoto Protocol
205
26. In refining, DHT stands for

A. Diesel hydrotreatment
B. Desired hydrotreatment
C. Dual hydrotreatment
27. Which of the following is the largest refinery of Russia?
A. Ukhta Refinery
B. Novo Ufa Refinery
C. Perm Refinery
28. Catalytic cracking and polymerization processes were introduced in
the mid-1930s to
A. Meet the demand of high-octane gasoline
B. Produce aviation fuels
C. Produce gasoline-blending stocks
29. What was the purpose of the development of thermal cracking?
A. Improve the octane number of gasoline
B. Increase lubricant production from the crude
C. Increase gasoline production from the crude
30. The antiknock index is not as critical for the performance of engine as
the research octane number.
A. True B. False
31. What percentage of input crude oil is converted to gasoline product in
the USA?
A. About 85%
B. About 90%
C. About 95%
32. In the USA, diesel is termed low sulphur if it has a maximum sulphur
content of
A. 20 ppm B. 15 ppm C. 25 ppm
33. Mathematically, the antiknock index is given by
A. RON + MON B. RON × MON C. (RON + MON)/2
34. The national programme that supported the establishment of a large
number of refineries in the USA by the end of the 1970s is
A. Crude Oil Entitlement Programme
B. Crude Oil Ownership Programme
C. Crude Oil Auction Programme
206
Chapter 4 refining
35. Octane number is not truly additive, that is, when used singly, the
hydrocarbon behaves in some way and when used in a mixture, it
behaves in another way.
A. True B. False
36. Crude is termed high TAN crude if its TAN is
A. >0.5 mg KOH/g B. >1 mg KOH/g C. >1.5 mg KOH/g
37. Corrosion may occur even if TAN is as low as
A. 0.3 mg KOH/g B. 0.8 mg KOH/g C. 1 mg KOH/g
38. The average octane number of all types of gasoline production is
termed
A. Final octane
B. Pool octane
C. Midway octane
39. The raw gasoline cut that comes out of distillates has a low octane
number of
A. 30–40 B. 40–60 C. 60–70
40. If a crude has a Watson characteristic factor of less than 11.8 and the
gravity is below 35 API, it is usually suitable for
A. Asphalt production
B. Gasoline production
C. LPG production
41. The Arrhenius equation, where k is the rate per time, a is the frequency
factor, e is the activation energy, t is the temperature, and r is the gas
constant, is given by
A. k = ae–e/(rt) B. k = aee/(rt) C. k = aeert
42. The activation energy for the thermal cracking of most hydrocarbons
is fairly constant and has an average value of about
A. 55,000 cal B. 35,000 cal C. 25,000 cal
43. The rate of thermal cracking of hydrocarbon increases with
A. Impurities B. Aromatic content C. Molecular size
44. The rate of thermal cracking of hydrocarbon decreases with
A. Impurities B. Aromatic content C. Molecular size
45. Visbreaking can be applied for
A. Long residues
B. Short residues
C. Both A and B
207
46. The cracked residue coming out of the soaking zone in the visbreaking
process is immediately quenched with
A. Gas oil
B. Cooled visbreaker tar
C. Both A and B
47. The products from visbreaking are
A. Gas B. Distillates C. Both A and B
48. Which of following is not a product from visbreaking?
A. Bitumen B. Gas C. Stable fuel oil
49. A _________ may be added to the visbreaking unit to increase the
production of distillate products.
A. Heat flasher B. Vacuum flasher C. Pressure flasher
50. Merox is a registered trademark of
A. Lurgi
B. Shell
C. Universal Oil Products
51. In solvent de-asphalting, typically _________ is used to separate the
components of the petroleum residue feed by molecular size.
A. Napthanic solvent
B. Aromatic solvent
C. Paraffinic solvent
52. Which of the following is not a high paraffinic solvent used in the
solvent de-asphalting process?
A. Propane B. Pentane C. Octane
53. In the solvent de-asphalting process, the solubility of charge is
_________ to the molecular weight of the solvent.
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Not related
54. In the solvent de-asphalting process, the solvent most often used for
the production of lube oil bright stock is
A. Isobutene B. Propane C. Octane
55. If DAO is to be sent to conversion process, such as fluid catalytic
cracking, the solvent is more likely to be
A. Ethane B. Methane C. Butane
208
Chapter 4 refining
56. The ROSE Process Technology is licensed by

A. Lurgi
B. Kellogg Brown & Root
C. Shell
57. The common name of dimate is
A. Propane
B. Pentane
C. Hexane
58. The homogeneous catalysis mechanism was used to produce cyclohexane
from
A. Benzene
B. Toluene
C. Xylene
59. The catalyst used for the Dimersol-G process is based on
A. Raney Nickel
B. Aluminium Alkyl
C. Neither A nor B
60. The sulphur content of the various streams making up the gasoline
pool depends on
A. Crude oil source
B. Refining process selected
C. Both A and B
61. The Merox process is mainly applicable to
A. Gas
B. Straight-run and thermal naphtha up to 100°C
C. Both A and B
62. The major source of benzene in the gasoline pool is
A. FCC product
B. Hydrocracking product
C. Catalytic reformat
63. Name the process used to remove benzene from gasoline.
A. Remove the benzene precursors charged to the reformer
B. Fractionate a benzene-rich light reformat stream for subsequent
benzene conversion or extraction
C. Both A and B
209
64. Bensat process of Universal Oil Products is used for the production of
_________ by saturating benzene with hydrogen.
A. Methyl cyclopentane
B. Cyclohexane
C. Methyl cycloheptane
65. The number of moles of hydrogen consumed per mole of benzene in
Bensat process of Universal Oil Products is
66. Partial oxidation is the reaction of hydrocarbon with an amount of
oxygen that is insufficient for complete combustion at temperature
between
A. 100°C and 400°C
B. 500°C and 800°C
C. 1000°C and 1250°C
67. The reaction 2CHn + O2 2CO + nH2 is termed
A. Oxidation B. Partial oxidation C. Reduction
68. The hydrocarbon gasification process developed by Lurgi is known as
A. MPG B. SGP C. TGP
69. The hydrocarbon gasification process developed by Shell is known as
70. The hydrocarbon gasification process developed by Texaco is known as
71. In the MPG process, MARS stands for
A. Metal Ash Recovery System
B. Metal Acid Recovery System
C. Molecular Ash Recovery System
72. Virgin LSR naphtha consists mainly of
A. C1 and C2 paraffin hydrocarbon
B. C2 and C3 paraffin hydrocarbon
C. C5 and C6 paraffin hydrocarbon
73. The primary heat recovery from the synthesis gas (syngas) produced
in the boils mode gasification process occurs at
A. Primary heat exchanges
B. Heat recovery boiler
C. Neither A nor B
210
Chapter 4 refining
74. In the Shell Hysomer process for the isomerization of LSR naphtha,
the catalyst used is
A. Cobalt-bearing zeolite
B. Iron-bearing zeolite
C. Platinum-bearing zeolite
75. The isomerization process of Universal Oil Products which favours the
formation of branches of isomers is known as the
A. Hysomer process B. Penex process C. Neither A nor B
76. The catalyst used in the Penex process of Universal Oil Products is
known as
A. Isopropylbenzene
B. Amorphous platinum-bearing chloride alumina
C. Amorphous platinum bearing zinc aluminium
77. The stabilized isomerate produced during the isomerization of
hydrocarbon from the Penex unit is fractioned in
A. De-isohexanizer B. De-isomerizer C. Isomer-separator
78. The most advanced isomerization recycle system under
commercialization is
A. De-isohexanizer recycle
B. Penex/PIH/pentane process
C. Neither A nor B
79. The _________ process was developed to convert low-octane number
straight-run naphtha to high-octane motor fuel components.
A. Catalytic reforming B. Thermal cracking C. Neither A nor B
80. In catalytic reforming, the reaction regarded to be the most difficult
is
A. Dehydrocyclization of paraffins
B. Hydrocracking of paraffins
C. Isomerization of naphthenes
81. The conditions that support hydrocracking of paraffin are
A. High temperature and high pressure
B. Low temperature and high pressure
C. Low temperature and low pressure
82. The life cycle of the straight-run reforming system is typically
A. 6 months B. 9 months C. 12 months
211
83. The base support material of catalyst used in the catalytic reforming
process is
A. Alumina B. Platinum C. Rhenium
84. Over the base material, the bimetallic catalyst used for catalytic
reforming has the waiting of
A. Platinum and alumina
B. Alumina and rhenium
C. Rhenium and platinum
85. The monometallic catalyst used for catalytic reforming has the waiting
of _________ over the base material.
A. Alumina B. Platinum C. Rhenium
86. The system whereby two different catalysts are used in the same
straight-run plant, exploiting the better features of each catalyst, is
termed
A. Dual loading B. Staged loading C. Neither A nor B
87. In the USA, the road performance of gasoline is given by
A. (RONC – MONC)/2
B. (RONC + MONC)/2
C. (RONC × MONC)/2
88. In the alkylation process of olefins and isobutene using hydrofluoric
acid as catalyst, high alkylate octane number and low alkylate end
point are obtained at
A. Low reaction temperature (around 35°C and above)
B. High reaction temperature (around 200°C and above)
C. Least reaction temperature (around 15°C approximately)
89. A hydrofluoric additive that reduces aerosol formation by 80% without
interacting with the normal operation of the HF unit is known as
A. Anti-HF B. Alkylate C. Alkad
90. Polygasoline produced from oligomerization has high
A. RONC B. MONC C. Neither A nor B
91. Polygasoline produced from oligomerization has lower
A. RONC B. MONC C. Neither A nor B
92. Lube oils are generally made from
A. Vacuum gas oil
B. Residue range material
C. Both A and B
212
Chapter 4 refining
93. In the case of the European Union, petroleum product specifications

are generally set
A. Nationally by individual countries
B. Multi-nationally by the European Union
C. May be set multi-nationally with more stringent rules set
nationally
94. In refineries, which of the following is not regarded as a part of the
utility system?
A. Electric power system
B. Boiler feed water
C. Flare system
95. The unit for production of lube base oil is called
A. Vacuum flashing unit
B. Lube-type vacuum distillation unit
C. Both A and B
96. In refining terminology, the term TBP stands for
A. True boiling point
B. Transported British Petroleum
C. Both A and B
97. How many types of vacuum distillation units are there?
98. At low temperature and short loading time, bitumen behaves as
A. Fluid B. Semi-solid C. Elastic solid
99. A data chart relating penetration, softening point, viscosity, and process
breaking point of bitumen with temperature is known as
A. Bitumen text data chart
B. Penetration index chart
C. Testing bitumen chart
100. In bitumen, we find carbon in aromatic ring system, napthenic ring
system, and paraffinic system.
A. True B. False
101. _________ are complex aromatic structure with aliphatic side chains.
They are soluble in n-heptane and have molecular weight ranging from
500 to 50,000 Dalton.
A. Saturates B. Resins C. Toluene
213
102. The separation of waxy components from bitumen is termed

A. Sweating B. Exudation C. Neither A nor B
103. The step that is equally important for the production of lube oil and
petroleum wax is
A. Distillation
B. Dewaxing/de-oiling
C. Both A and B
104. In spray de-oiling of wax, the liquid slack wax is sprayed against cooled
air or water in a cooling tower.
A. True B. False
105. _________ is the temperature at which a film of bituminous binder of
prescribed thickness, produced by melting and pressing on to a test
plate, breaks under specified conditions of cooling rate and strain.
A. Heating point B. Cracking point C. Breaking point
106. White mineral oil is also used in the manufacture of
A. Adhesive material
B. Roofing material
C. Medicinal products
107. No global classification or specification is currently available for gas
engine lubricants.
A. True B. False
108. System oils are traditionally termed
A. O + A oils B. R + A oils C. R + O oils
109. The key requirement for turbine lubricant is
A. Low lubrication
B. Long life
C. High wax content
110. The lubricants used in the turbine of a nuclear reactor are different
from the lubricants of other power turbines in that radiation in nuclear
plant affects the lubricant behaviour.
A. True B. False
214
Chapter 5
NATURAL GAS
Easy
1. What is the purpose of a docking facility in the liquefied natural gas

(LNG) terminal?
A. To accommodate LNG tankers
B. To load LNG tankers with LNG
C. To load LNG tankers with the vaporization equipment
2. At what temperature is natural gas stored as LNG?
A. −260°C B. −160°C C. −230°C
3. The volume of natural gas is measured in
A. Cubic metre
B. Cubic metre per hour
C. Standard cubic metre per day (SCMD)
4. 1 SCMD means 1 m3 of gas at a standard condition of 1 atm pressure
at a temperature of
A. 0°C B. 16°C C. 24°C
5. The approximate value of 1 SCMD in standard cubic feet per day
(SCFD) is
A. 1 SCFD
B. 24 SCFD
C. 38 SCFD
6. When converted to LNG, the volume of the gas is reduced
A. 500 times
B. 600 times
C. 700 times
7. The approximate weight of 1 SCM of natural gas is
A. 0.6 kg B. 0.8 kg C. 1.2 kg
8. The major constituent of natural gas is
9. When the gas is heavy, the calorific value per unit weight of the gas
is
A. Lower B. Same C. Higher
10. When the gas is heavy, the calorific value per unit volume of the gas
is
11. As compared to air, natural gas is
A. Lighter B. Same C. Heavier
12. The ______ -rich gas has low calorific value.
A. Hydrogen B. Nitrogen C. Sulphur
13. Natural gas has methane content of around

A. 60%–70% B. 70%–80% C. 80%–90%
14. During production and transportation of gas, heavy components, such
as pentane or hexane condense due to natural cooling and separate out
as liquid. This liquid is termed
A. Compressed natural gas
B. Liquefied natural gas
C. Natural gas liquid
15. When a well produces gas with very little liquid, the gas coming out
is termed
A. Free gas B. Sour gas C. Associated gas
16. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) contains mainly
A. Methane and propane
B. Ethane and propane
C. Butane and propane
17. In the case of associated gas, the initial separation of gas from oil and
water is done at the
A. Group gathering station
B. Group gas station
C. Gas gathering station
18. The free gas from different wells of a gas field is collected at
B. Gas collection station
C. Gas gathering station
19. The separation of different components of gas, to be used in
petrochemical plants, is done at the
B. Gas collection station
C. Gas processing plant
20. During gas sweetening, which of the following impurities is not
removed?
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide
218
Chapter 5 NATURAL GAS
21. Gas-bearing hydrogen sulphide is termed

A. Sulphuric gas B. Acid gas C. Saturated gas
22. Removal of mercury from gas before transportation is very important
because mercury
A. Damages steel pipes
B. Is carcinogenic
C. Forms ice during cryogenic process
23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of carbon dioxide
associated with natural gas?
A. Carbon dioxide corrodes pipeline
B. Carbon dioxide forms ice during cryogenic processing
C. Carbon dioxide is toxic
24. During liquefaction of natural gas, ______ are recovered separately.
A. LPG and propane
B. LPG and butane
C. Propane and methane
25. Natural gas liquids (NGL) formed during the exportation of natural
gas are removed from the pipeline by
A. Slug catcher B. Pig catcher C. NGL catcher
26. Condensates are generally not used as
A. Feedstock B. Blend in refinery C. Fuel
27. If hydrates are formed in the pipeline, they are removed by
A. Passing steam through the pipeline
B. Injecting methanol in the pipeline
C. Injecting heated natural gas in the pipeline
28. Hydrates are snow-like compounds of
A. Hydrocarbon and water
B. Carbon dioxide and water
C. Nitrogen and water
29. Bone dry gas is obtained through
A. Absorption process
B. Adsorption process
C. Adjection process
219
30. Spilled LNG can crack a steel plate like hot water hitting frozen
glass.
A. True B. False
31. Which country is the largest consumer of natural gas?
A. Russia B. USA C. Canada
32. Which of the following is not a process to chill gas?
A. Turbo expander process
B. External refrigeration
C. Engine movement process
33. Tankers carry LNG in containers resembling thermos bottles.
A. True B. False
34. The company that enjoyed monopoly in pipeline gas transportation
business in India till the industry was opened for private players is
B. Gas Authority of India Limited
35. Which of the following is not a component of LNG upstream?
A. Revaporization
B. Treatment and liquefaction of natural gas
C. Loading of LNG in marine tanker
36. Which of the following is not a component of LNG downstream?
A. Revaporization
B. Loading of LNG in marine tanker
C. Unloading of LNG
37. Propane is produced from
A. Natural gas B. Refinery operations
C. Both A and B
38. Which is the world’s largest gas company?
A. ExxonMobil B. Gazprom C. Aramco
39. Removal of mercury from natural gas is a must so that the gas can be
A. Liquefied B. Compressed C. Piped
40. Which variant of sulphur was normally removed in older acid gas
plants leaving behind the other two variants?
A. Hydrogen sulphide B. Carbonyl sulphide C. Mercaptans
220
41. ______ and ______ are acidic and are generally removed together in
acid gas plants.
A. Nitrogen; Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen sulphide; Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide; Nitrogen
42. In acid gas plants, natural gas is scrubbed with an alkaline medium
that forms ______ with the acid gas.
A. Salt
B. Stable compound
C. Neutral compound
43. A small amount of sulphur compound is added to piped natural gas
to be supplied to domestic consumers.
A. True B. False
44. Sulphur is added (in small amount) to natural gas supplied to domestic
consumer because it is
A. An odourant in natural gas
B. A liquefier of possible hydrates formed
C. For preservation of natural gas characteristics
45. Odourant levels of sulphur may be deleterious to some conversion
processes such as steam reforming and should be removed before
use.
A. True B. False
46. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Carbon dioxide is used in enhanced oil recovery (EOR) schemes
B. Carbon dioxide is used as carbonating agent
C. A small amount of carbon dioxide is important in natural gas to
maintain higher calorific value of natural gas
47. The conventional method for reporting gas composition is
A. Weight–mole percentage
B. Volume percentage
C. Molecular weight basis
48. From chemical standpoint, methane is ______ (apart from burning).
A. Very reactive B. Normally reactive C. Inert
49. It is very easy to directly convert methane into a more useful product.
A. True B. False
221
50. Synthesis gas is a mixture of

A. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
B. Carbon monoxide and nitrogen
C. Nitrogen and hydrogen
51. Natural gas has the advantage over alternative feedstocks, usually
having the lowest cost in energy terms, lower plant costs, and low
sulphur content.
A. True B. False
52. The stoichiometric ratio of synthesis gas produced by the partial
oxidation of natural gas is about
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3
53. The full form of WGS is
A. Water gas synthesis B. Waste gas shift C. Water gas shift
54. What are the products of WGS reactions?
A. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
B. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
C. Carbon dioxide and water
55. Reverse WGS reaction leads to the production of
A. Carbon monoxide and water
B. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
C. Carbon dioxide and water
56. Reverse WGS process can be used to mitigate carbon dioxide even if
the source of energy for the reaction is fossil fuel.
A. True B. False
57. Synthesis reaction is an endothermic reaction.
A. True B. False
58. Methanition (from gas) reaction is an endothermic reaction.
A. True B. False
59. The molar ratio of a product with a given carbon number to a product
with one less carbon number is a constant which is
A. Less than one B. Less than two C. Less than three
60. With rise in the value of alpha in gas synthesis, there is a rise in the
production of
A. Gaseous product B. Liquid product C. Wax product
222
61. The value of alpha of a product of gas synthesis lowers with the rise
in temperature.
A. True B. False
62. The products of Fischer–Tropsch synthesis of gas require extensive
treatment before its use as transportation fuel.
A. True B. False
63. The reducing agent used for the reduction of iron ore is
A. Propane B. Butanol C. Methane
64. In the USA, the seasonal variation in the uses of gas in industrial sector
is much higher than the seasonal variation in the uses of gas in the
domestic sector.
A. True B. False
65. Interruptible gas sales to industrial consumers bring good economic
value to industries.
A. True B. False
66. Standard temperature and pressure for gas means
A. 100°C and 1 atm B. 15°C and 1 atm C. 0°C and 1 atm
67. The ability of gas to mix spontaneously and to form a homogenous
mixture is known as
A. Diffusion B. Effusion C. Reffusion
68. ______ is a process in which a gas is allowed to escape under pressure
through a fine orifice or a small aperture made in the wall of a closed
container.
A. Diffusion B. Effusion C. Reffusion
69. Easily liquefiable gases have greater intermolecular forces.
A. True B. False
70. The total kinetic energy of 1 mol of methane at −273°C is
A. 1 kcal B. 0 kcal C. 0.1 kcal
71. Interruptible gas sale is a very effective method to improve system load
factor.
A. True B. False
72. Satellite LNG plants usually operate unattended.
A. True B. False
73. Peak load plants are often built in or near densely populated areas and
thus have to incorporate more elaborate safety precautions.
A. True B. False
223
74. The transfer of gas by converting it to Fischer–Tropsch hydrocarbon is

not normally considered a method for transportation of gas because the
process leads to a multiplicity of liquid products that are uneconomical
and difficult to reconvert to gaseous fuels.
A. True B. False
75. Because of technological and economic considerations, the transportation
of gas by converting it to Fischer–Tropsch hydrocarbon is considered
better than transportation of gas as methanol.
A. True B. False
76. Which of the following methods is not used to contain compressed
natural gas (CNG) in pressure vessels aboard ships?
A. Votrans
B. Gas transportation modules
C. Conditional test modules
77. The chemical absorption used for the removal of acidic gases from
natural gas is highly corrosive in nature.
A. True B. False
78. Gas is water or air cooled to room temperature before being heat
exchanged with the condensed refrigerant during LNG process.
A. True B. False
79. The complete downstream cycle of gas business, from the initial
pumping of gas into the holding unit to freezing, separation, and
storage, is called
A. Truck B. Ship C. Train
80. In the USA, the tariff of pipeline service is based on the principle of
A. Laid down responsibility
B. Casual responsibility
C. Wholesome responsibility
81. Agreements on LNG tend to be simpler than pipeline gas
agreements.
A. True B. False
82. Financing of LNG projects is much simpler than pipeline gas
transportation projects since LNG projects may be broken into different
modules.
A. True B. False
224
83. If gas pipeline owners are also marketing the gas, the pipeline is
termed
A. Marketing pipeline
B. Commercial pipeline
C. Merchant pipeline
84. For merchant pipeline owners, the utilization factor is very important.
A. True B. False
85. In India, the long distance gas transportation pipeline has been
unbundled.
A. True B. False
86. The adsorption capacity of coal is normally expressed in SCF of gas
per tonne of coal.
A. True B. False
87. The volume of gas produced from a coalbed always depends upon the
thickness of coal formation.
A. True B. False
88. All of Japan’s import of gas is in the form of
A. Methanol
B. Piped natural gas
C. Liquefied natural gas
89. The New York Mercantile Exchange price is based on
A. Henry Hub
B. Argus
C. Singapore Mercantile Exchange
90. In the USA, the largest gas-consuming sector has been
A. Residential B. Industrial C. Commercial
91. What is the most common and prominent form of storage of natural
gas?
A. Salt cavern
B. Depleted gas reservoirs
C. Aquifers
92. As per BP statistical Review, the total proven reserves of natural
gas (in trillion cubic feet or TCF) at the end of FY 2014 stood at
approximately
A. 5606 TCF B. 6606 TCF C. 7606 TCF
225
93. As per the BP statistical Review, the reserve to production (R/P)

ratio for natural gas of the world at the end of FY 2014 stood at
approximately
A. 34 B. 44 C. 54
94. Which geographical region has the majority of proved reserves of
natural gas?
A. South America
B. Europe and Eurasia
C. Middle East
95. As per BP Statistical Review, the production of natural gas of the
world (in billion cubic metre or BCM) at the end of FY 2014 stood at
approximately
A. 3460 BCM B. 4460 BCM C. 5460 BCM
96. Which of the following geographical regions has the highest production
of natural gas?
A. South America
C. Middle East
97. As per the BP Statistical Review, the consumption of natural gas in the
world at the end of FY 2014 stood at approximately
A. 2390 BCM B. 3390 BCM C. 4390 BCM
98. Which of the following regions has the highest consumption of natural
gas?
A. South America
C. Middle East
99. One million tonne of LNG is equivalent to how many BCM of natural
gas?
A. 1.38 BCM B. 8.68 BCM C. 0.73 BCM
100. In India, offshore natural gas production is likely to be higher than
the onshore production.
A. True B. False
101. Where are the two operating LNG import terminals located in India?
A. Dahej and Hazira
B. Dahej and Dabhol
C. Dabhol and Hazira
226
102. The Dahej LNG Terminal in India is owned by which company?

A. Petronet LNG Limited
B. Shell
103. What is the expected length of the proposed Iran–Pakistan–India gas
pipeline?
A. 2300 km B. 3400 km C. 3200 km
104. What is the approximate length of the East–West Pipeline proposed by
the Reliance Gas Transportation and Infrastructure Company Limited
(RGTIL)?
A. 800 km B. 1200 km C. 1440 km
105. What is the share of natural gas in the world energy basket?
A. 35% B. 15% C. 24%
106. What is the share of natural gas in the energy basket of India?
A. 15% B. 8% C. 20%
107. Which of the following sectors is the largest consumer of natural gas
in India?
A. Fertilizer B. Power C. Petrochemicals
108. Which among the following is the largest natural gas field in the
world?
A. South Pars
B. Novy Urengoy
C. Corrib Gas Fields
109. How much foreign direct investment is permitted in India for laying
natural gas pipelines?
A. 100% B. 75% C. 60%
110. What do you call the point where the custody of gas passes from a
gas pipeline company to a local distribution company?
A. City station B. City gate C. City door
111. One cubic feet of gas is approximately equivalent to how many Btu?
A. 1000 B. 1200 C. 1500
112. One cubic metre of gas is approximately equivalent to how many
Btu?
A. 32,500 B. 35,300 C. 29,500
227
113. The well head price determined for the gas from the Krishna–Godavari
Basin as approved by the Empowered Group of Ministers is ______
per one million British thermal units (MMBtu).
A. $4.2 B. $3.2 C. $2.9
114. Swamp gas contains almost pure methane.
A. True B. False
115. Flaring of natural gas at oil wells is a significant source of greenhouse
gas emissions.
A. True B. False
116. Which among the following is Russia’s biggest natural gas company?
A. Gazprom
B. Shell
C. Supreme Pipeline
117. Why is gas converted to liquid?
A. To reduce transportation cost
B. To increase price
C. To increase availability
118. Compressed natural gas is generally stored at a high pressure of
A. 205–275 bar B. 150–175 bar C. 305–375 bar
119. Which of the following metropolitan cities in India does not have city
gas distribution network?
A. Delhi B. Chennai C. Mumbai
120. The volume of natural gas does not change with temperature.
A. True B. False
121. What is the project economic life to be considered for a city gas
distribution network in India?
122. What is the rate of return fixed for the determination of CGD network
tariff as per Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)
regulations?
A. 14% B. 20% C. 5%
123. As per PNGRB regulations, what distance along the natural gas pipeline
constitutes one tariff zone?
A. 300 km B. 200 km C. 100 km
124. What is the ratio of air volume to gas volume called?
A. Air–gas ratio B. Gas ratio C. Air ratio
228
125. Which of the following companies was the first in India to set up a
city gas distribution network?
B. Gas Authority of India Limited
126. The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) of the USA does
not regulate the interstate transmission of natural gas.
A. True B. False
127. The FERC regulates the natural gas sold to consumers.
A. True B. False
128. Which country has the largest number of LNG import terminals in the
world?
A. Argentina B. Algeria C. USA
129. Does LNG contain any amount of sulphur?
A. Yes B. No
130. Compressed natural gas (CNG) has a larger quantity of methane in it
than LNG.
A. True B. False
131. The natural gas fields that have been discovered but remain unusable
for either physical or economic reasons are called?
A. Waste reserves
B. Stranded gas reserves
C. Surplus reserves
132. What is gas at atmospheric pressure called?
A. Sour gas
B. Zero gas
C. Unconventional gas
133. What is natural gas that cannot be economically produced using
current technology called?
A. Unconventional gas B. Illuminating gas C. Zero gas
134. What is the gas containing relatively large amounts of unsaturated
and/or heavy hydrocarbon gases that burn with a luminous flame
called?
A. Illuminating gas
B. Zero gas
C. Unconventional gas
229
135. After meeting expenses, the amount left in the gas pool account of
India is transferred to the Central Exchequer.
A. True B. False
136. In the case of fallback allocation, there is a firm take-or-pay principle
in place with consumers.
A. True B. False
137. In India, the gas from the New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP)
blocks and private/joint venture sectors is not the subject of allocation
for GIC.
A. True B. False
138. Underground gas storage entails utilizing the resources and properties
of subsoil, wherever found suitable, without altering point qualities in
any way.
A. True B. False
139. It is possible to economically store LPG in salt caverns.
A. True B. False
140. Aerial patrols can help in the detection of gas leak through the
pipeline.
A. True B. False
141. In aerial patrol of gas pipeline, if an area of yellow vegetation is seen,
it indicates leakage of gas.
A. True B. False
142. The gas pipeline is internally coated with epoxy film to reduce absorption
of gas odorants during the initial operation of the pipeline.
A. True B. False
143. Directional drilling allows the gas pipeline to be installed underneath
rivers, highways, and railroads.
A. True B. False
144. The compression ratio of centrifugal compressor is more than that of
the reciprocating compressor.
A. True B. False
145. The capacity of reciprocating gas compressor is much higher than that
of the centrifugal compressor.
A. True B. False
146. Normally, two-stroke reciprocating compressors are used against four-
stroke reciprocating compressors.
A. True B. False
230
147. At partial loads, the energy efficiency of two-stroke gas engine-based

reciprocating gas compressor is higher than that of gas engine-based
centrifugal compressor.
A. True B. False
148. The installed cost per horsepower of a reciprocating gas compressor is
much higher than that of a centrifugal compressor.
A. True B. False
149. Air pollutants emitted by the compressor station engine are one of the
primary concerns of the gas pipeline industry.
A. True B. False
150. A compound of natural gas with the formula C2H6 is
A. Propane B. Methane C. Ethane
151. Spilled LNG would disperse faster in the ocean than on land.
A. True B. False
152. The cleanest burning fossil fuel is
A. Natural gas B. LPG C. Coal
153. To heat more than half of the nation’s homes, the USA depends on
A. Natural gas B. Solar energy C. Biomass
154. In UK, the gas transmission pipelines are held by Transcos, which have
traditionally been private companies.
A. True B. False
155. The bulk of natural gas demand representing normal levels of gas
consumption is called
A. Pay load B. Base load C. Trigas load
156. A vehicle that can operate on either natural gas or conventional fuel
(gasoline or diesel) is called
A. Bi-fuel vehicle B. Flexi vehicle C. Hybrid vehicle
157. The first village to be connected with natural gas pipeline is
A. Titusville, Pennsylvania
B. Fredonia, New York
C. Greenwich village, New York
158. After World War II, welding techniques, pipe rolling, and metallurgical
advances resulted in a boom of gas pipeline construction.
A. True B. False
231
159. Of any hydrocarbon, methane has the highest hydrogen-to-carbon

ratio.
A. True B. False
160. On combustion, methane forms soot.
A. True B. False
161. The combustion products of methane have a high ratio of inert water
relative to carbon dioxide.
A. True B. False
162. Gaz de France is the leading public gas company of France.
A. True B. False
163. In the UK, gas transmission pipelines are held by Transcos which have
traditionally been private companies.
A. True B. False
164. In Germany, local gas distribution is done by local government
companies.
A. True B. False
165. Which state of India has a well-developed gas economy?
A. Gujarat B. Madhya Pradesh C. Uttar Pradesh
166. The principle of making all pipelines available for transportation of
gas, irrespective of ownership of pipeline, gas supplier, and consumer,
is termed
A. Open access principle
B. Common carrier principle
C. Ready to use network principle
167. Before developing a new gas transportation pipeline, it is important to
judge the spare capacity of the existing pipeline between the demand
and supply centre.
A. True B. False
168. Intelligent robotic devices that are propelled down a gas transportation
pipeline to evaluate interior of the pipeline are called
A. Rats B. Dogs C. Pigs
3
169. At 21°C, 1 m of natural gas weighs about
A. 0.698 kg B. 1.698 kg C. 0.1698 kg
170. Liquefied natural gas or its vapour can explode.
A. True B. False
232
171. Worldwide, Natural Gas Regulators have the authority to fix consumer
gas price.
A. True B. False
172. In India, the transportation and distribution business of natural gas
has not been unbundled.
A. True B. False
173. As per the Gas Utilization Policy of the Government of India, even the
NELP contractors have to sell gas according to the marketing priorities
determined by the government.
A. True B. False
174. As per the Gas Utilization Policy of India, the sector on the top of the
priority list is
A. Power B. LPG C. Fertilizer
175. As per the National Gas Utilization Policy of India, the sector with
least priority among fertilizer, idle power plant, and CGD network is
A. Fertilizer B. Idle power plant C. CGD
176. The process of adding an artificial odour to natural gas is called
A. Odourization B. Smelting C. Both A and B
177. Pakistan is the net exporter of natural gas.
A. True B. False
178. In India ______ is the largest oil and gas exploration company.
C. Reliance Industries Limited
179. Russia is the net importer of natural gas.
A. True B. False
180. Pakistan has an operational LNG regasification terminal in Lahore.
A. True B. False
Medium
1. Why does asphyxiation happen if an individual is exposed to the centre
of a vapour cloud of LNG?
A. Because of the absence of clean air
B. Because of the presence of methane
C. Because of the absence of oxygen
233
2. Natural gas is stored as CNG at a pressure of

A. 100 bar B. 200 bar C. 300 bar
3. The specific gravity of natural gas is generally
A. 0.6 B. 0.7 C. 0.8
4. The specific gravity of butane is normally
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
5. Gas stored in a pipeline under pressure can be used to a limited extent
to follow a fluctuating gas demand by allowing pressure change in the
line, which is termed
A. Pressure pack B. Line pack C. Gas pack
6. The stoichiometric ratio of natural gas (air-to-natural gas ratio) by
volume for complete combustion is approximately
A. 8:01 B. 10:01 C. 12:01
7. The octane number of natural gas is
A. 92 B. 105 C. 130
8. Most racing cars use natural gas as fuel because natural gas has
A. Higher octane rating
B. Higher specific gravity
C. Better vapour pressure
9. Before natural gas is transported through pipeline, the gas is chilled
to the minimum temperature. This is termed
A. Dew point dipping
B. Dew point control
C. NGL point recovery
10. Dew point control is carried out to
A. Recover the NGL that may be formed during the transportation of
gas through pipeline
B. Recover ethane before gas is transported through pipeline
C. Decrease the volume of the gas
11. For gas dehydration, adsorption process uses
A. Molecular sieve
B. Glycol and water mixture
C. Triethylene glycol
12. For gas dehydration, adsorption process does not use
A. Molecular sieve B. Triethylene glycol C. Alumina
234
13. The turbo expander process is a process to chill natural gas.

A. True B. False
14. What is a rollover?
A. Rolling over of LNG within tankers
B. Rolling effect of the layers of LNG within tankers
C. Stratification of LNG into layers of different densities within a
storage tank
15. The chemical compound used in the dry powder to extinguish LNG
fire is
A. Potassium chlorate
B. Sodium bisulphate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
16. The regeneration of molecular sieve is normally done by passing heated
dry natural gas through the bed of the dryer.
A. True B. False
17. The octane number of propane is lower than that of
A. Gasoline B. Butane C. Natural gas
18. In a reservoir, the transformation of crude oil to natural gas occurs at
a depth of
A. 15,000 ft B. 18,000 ft C. 21,000 ft
19. The glycol dehydration process is more difficult to operate compared
to the dry bed dehydration process.
A. True B. False
20. In gas-sweetening process, lean amine is an
A. Amine solution of high concentration and free of hydrogen sulphide
and carbon dioxide
B. Amine solution containing hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide
C. Amine solution containing high concentration of water vapour
21. Dew point control is alternatively termed
A. NGL point recovery
B. Dew point recovery
C. Dew point depression
22. Which of the following is not true for natural gas?
A. Heavy concentration of natural gas may cause drowsiness and
suffocation
B. Natural gas does not contain any toxic substance
C. Natural gas is heavier than air
235
23. Higher concentration of helium in natural gas is due to the

A. Gas reservoir located over buried granite
B. Gas reservoir located in shallow water
C. Gas reservoir located over buried lignite
24. Which of the following is not true?
A. Helium is radioactive decay from minerals surrounding the
deposit
B. Helium is radioactive decay occurring deep within the earth from
where it permeates to the surface
C. Helium is mixed in petroleum due to the interaction between lava
and natural gas
25. Helium extraction from natural gas is commercially viable if its
concentration is greater than
A. 0.10% B. 0.20% C. 0.30%
26. What is the boiling temperature of carbonyl sulphide at normal
pressure?
A. 30°C B. 40°C C. 50°C
27. To produce elementary sulphur through the Claus process, hydrogen
sulphide is reacted with
A. Molecular sieves B. Sulphur dioxide C. Carbon dioxide
28. Which of the following is not a process of extraction of hydrogen
sulphide from sour gases?
A. Claus process
B. Solvent extraction process (flexi sort)
C. Liquefaction process
29. Gas fields with poor marketability due to carbon dioxide content may
be used for the production of
A. Propanol B. Ethanol C. Methanol
30. A weight-based analysis of gas is important in estimating potential
______ emission.
A. Hydrogen sulphide B. Carbon dioxide C. Mercury
31. The higher heating value of methane is about
A. 800 Btu/SCF B. 1000 Btu/SCF C. 1200 Btu/SCF
32. The higher heating value of ethane is
33. The higher heating value of propane is
236
34. The calorific value of ethane is

A. 61 MJ/m3 B. 65 MJ/m3 C. 70 MJ/m3
35. The calorific value of propane is
A. 91 MJ/m3 B. 94 MJ/m3 C. 97 MJ/m3
36. The thermal efficiency of single-cycle gas turbines is improved if
A. The inlet air temperature is high
B. The inlet air temperature is ambient
C. The inlet air temperature is low
37. To improve the thermal efficiency of a single-cycle gas turbine in hot
environment, a heater is placed at the air inlet.
A. True B. False
38. Many gas turbines are capable of using any fuel, which can be delivered
as a gas or a volatile liquid, such as naphtha or kerosene.
A. True B. False
39. In a cogeneration gas turbine plant, the steam generated by heating
water with the exchange of heat from exhausted gas and water is used
for generating electricity.
A. True B. False
40. In a cogeneration plant, where steam is generated by heating water,
the exhausted gas is used for
A. Electricity generation
B. Raising the temperature of fuel
C. Unit consumptions
41. Which of the following is not a method of production of synthesis
gas?
A. Natural gas reaction with water at high temperature
B. Partial combustion of natural gas
C. Reaction of natural gas with hydrogen peroxide
42. Feed for the production of synthesis gas can be any hydrocarbon, but
the feed should be free of
A. Water B. Oxygen C. Sulphur
43. Synthesis gas can be produced from any carbon source.
A. True B. False
44. The use of promoter to suppress the carbon deposit ______ the steam-
reforming activity.
A. Increases B. Does not effect C. Decreases
237
45. ______ is used with a special catalyst to promote gasification of carbon

during the steam-reforming process to produce synthesis gas.
A. Promoter B. Transformer C. Converter
46. Steam reforming for the production of synthesis gas uses solid
feedstock.
A. True B. False
47. Partial oxidation from the production of synthesis gas can use solid
feedstock.
A. True B. False
48. Partial oxidation produces a synthesis gas containing ______ carbon
dioxide and ______ methane slippage.
A. High; Low B. Low; High C. Low; Low
49. The partial oxidation of hydrocarbon feedstock may lead to the
production of synthesis gas with no methane slippage.
A. True B. False
50. The total elimination of methane in the gasifier during the production
of synthesis gas from hydrocarbon feedstock may lead to the formation
of a/an ______ mixture within the gasifier.
A. Inert B. Neutral C. Explosive
51. For the reaction CO + H2O Æ CO2 + H2, driving the reaction to the
right will
A. Increase the stoichiometric ratio
B. Decrease the stoichiometric ratio
C. Not affect the stoichiometric ratio
52. For the reaction CO + H2O Æ CO2 + H2, driving the equilibrium to
the left will
A. Increase the stoichiometric ratio
B. Decrease the stoichiometric ratio
C. Not affect the stoichiometric ratio
53. The molar ratio of a product with a given carbon number to a product
with one less carbon number is a constant termed
A. Gamma value B. Beta value C. Alpha value
54. The alpha value is an important indicator of the nature of products
formed in the synthesis.
A. True B. False
238
55. The value of alpha (in a gas synthesis) depends on all the independent
variables in the synthesis, such as temperature and pressure.
A. True B. False
56. As the value of alpha rises, there is a fall in the production of
A. Gaseous products B. Liquid products C. Solid products
57. Over a greater range of alpha value, the ______ product remains
essentially constant at about 55% to 60% of the total products.
A. Gaseous B. Liquid C. Solid
58. The zeolite ZSM-5 sieve used in the production of gasoline from
methanol was discovered by
A. Mobil Oil Corporation
B. Shell
C. British Petroleum
59. Reducing gas produced from natural gas is used for the reduction of
A. Raw zinc B. Iron ore C. Copper ore
60. The most effective short-term means of matching the capacity of supply
of gas with the surge in seasonal demand are called
A. Interruptible sales B. Short sales C. Window sales
61. Which of the following is not a gas storage method practised by
industries?
A. Low pressure storage in gas holders
B. Storage of LNG in heat-insulated vessels at atmospheric pressure
C. Storage in large numbers of small LPG cylinders
62. An equipment that absorbs heat at the low temperature of a refrigerated
system and dissipates heat at or above the environment temperature is
known as
A. Heat exchanger B. Heat pump C. Heat dissolver
63. The liquid or gas required to operate the process of absorption of heat
at the low temperature of a refrigerated system and dissipation of the
heat at above environment temperature is termed
A. Liquefying fluid B. Working fluid C. Exchanger fluid
64. If we have 1 mol of gas at 1 atm pressure and 0°C, its volume will be
A. 15.13 L B. 22.41 L C. 35.05 L
239
65. At a given temperature, the total pressure exerted by two or more non-
reacting gases occupying a definite volume is equal to the sum of the
partial pressures of the component gases. This law is termed
A. Graham’s law of partial pressure
B. Amagal’s law of partial pressure
C. Dalton’s law of partial pressure
66. The total volume of a mixture of gases that do not react at constant
temperature and pressure is equal to the sum of individual volumes
of the constituent gases. This law is called
A. Graham’s law of partial pressure
B. Amagal’s law of partial pressure
C. Dalton’s law of partial pressure
67. The simplest method to measure vapour pressure is
A. Barometric method
B. Clausius–Clapeyron equation
C. Kelvin’s method
68. The temperature above which gases behave like ideal gases is
termed
A. Avogadro’s temperature
B. Boyle’s temperature
C. Charles’ temperature
69. At 0°C and 1 atm pressure, the volume occupied by 1 mol of methane
will be same as the volume occupied by 1 mol of ethane.
A. True B. False
70. In free irreversible adiabatic expansion, ΔT = 0, ΔE = 0, w = 0, and
ΔH = 0, where ΔT is the change in temperature, ΔE is the change
in energy, w is the work, and ΔH is the change in enthalpy of the
system.
A. True B. False
71. ______ is not used in the manufacture of light bulbs.
A. Argon B. Krypton C. Methane
72. Normally, ______ or ______ is liquefied at the point of natural gas
use and can be shipped back to the source of the LNG, where it is
vaporized to pre-cool the incoming natural gas before liquefaction.
A. Nitrogen; Helium B. Air; Nitrogen C. Air; Helium
240
73. At normal temperature and a pressure of 70 atm, methane gas is

compressed by a factor of
A. 40 B. 70 C. 100
74. For an LNG distributor, the ratio of send out volume to send out
capacity is termed
A. Output factor B. Load factor C. Capacity factor
75. Which of the following is the method of storing gas for interruptible
sales for industry?
A. High pressure storage in gas holders
B. Low pressure storage in underground cavities
C. As LNG in heat-insulated vessels at atmospheric pressure
76. Which of the following metals is not used to make tanks for the
transportation of LNG?
A. Iron alloy
B. 5% nickel steel
C. Aluminium alloy
77. Which of the following is not a physical absorbent for acidic gases from
natural gas?
A. Propylene carbonate
B. N-methyl-2-pyrrolidone
C. Diethanolamine
78. Anhydrous propylene carbonate is also called
A. Purisol B. Stretford solution C. Fluor solvent
79. Absorption is better if gas pressure increases.
A. True B. False
80. Which of the following is not a method for gas dehydration?
A. Turbo expander process
B. Use of concentrated glycol solution
C. Use of heater
81. ______ are compounds used by conventional LNG cascades as
intermediate refrigerants.
A. Propane, ethylene, and methane
B. Propylene, ethylene, and methane
C. Butane, propane, and ethylene
82. Sensible heat of a gas is lower than its latent heat.
A. True B. False
241
83. The volume of gas adsorbed per unit mass of coal is termed
A. Adsorption capacity of coal
B. Carrying capacity of coal
C. Holding capacity of coal
84. ______ is a province in Canada that is expected to have the maximum
coalbed methane (CBM) content.
A. British Columbia B Alberta C. Neither A nor B
85. The major challenge in the production of CBM is
A. Lack of relevant exploration technology
B. Extremely high cost involved in the project
C. The disposal of large quantities of water produced with the gas
86. By 2020, it is projected that the share of natural gas in the total energy
mix of world will be
A. 20% B. 26% C. 35%
87. Till 1998, all of North America’s gas trade was done through
pipelines.
A. True B. False
88. Which of the following countries of Europe is the net exporter of
natural gas?
A. France B. Britain C. Norway
89. Which principle is involved in the separation of gas hydrocarbon from
the heavier oil?
A. Gravity separation
B. Catalytic separation
C. Water separation
90. In gas processing, NRU stands for
A. Normal rejection unit
B. Nitrogen regasification unit
C. Nitrogen rejection unit
91. The world’s supply of ______ comes exclusively from natural gas.
A. Nitrogen B. Sulphur C. Helium
92. The single largest source of helium is
A. Russia B. Saudi Arabia C. USA
242
93. ______ is a type of payment agreement between the owner of natural

gas and its processor where the processor retains the NGL recovered
during natural gas processing as payment of natural gas, while the
natural gas owner keeps the whole delivery received at the tailgate
of the plant (equal on a Btu basis to the natural gas received at the
plant intel).
A. Percentage-of-proceeds contract
B. Percentage-of-index contract
C. Keep whole contract
94. The transportation and delivery cost is a minor component of the cost
of delivery of natural gas.
A. True B. False
95. The major gas supply of the USA comes from
A. Domestic sources B. Canada C. Saudi Arabia
96. The volume of gas that must remain in the storage facility to provide
the required pressure to extract the remaining gas is called
A. Base gas B. Associated gas C. Free gas
97. The volume of natural gas in the storage reservoir that can be extracted
during the normal operation of the storage facility is called
A. Associated gas B. Base gas C. Working gas
98. Depleted reservoirs constitute the majority of working gas capacity and
deliverability.
A. True B. False
99. Which of the following arrangements for underground storage of
natural gas requires the least amount of the cushion/base gas?
A. Salt cavern
C. Aquifers
100. ______ is the process by which the capacity available in a pipeline is
distributed to parties when the requests for volume are in excess of
the available space.
A. Allocation capacity
B. Distribution capacity
C. Assignment capacity
101. What is the permitted rate of production from a well or from a group of
wells that is allowed by a particular state or governing body termed?
A. Allowable B. Valid C. Justified
243
102. Which financial exchange launched the first Natural Gas Futures?
B. International Petroleum Exchange
C. Kansas City Board of Trade
103. Who owns the Henry Hub?
A. Shell
B. Sabine Pipe Line LLC
104. How many interstate and intrastate pipelines are connected at the
Henry Hub?
A. 9, 4 B. 4, 9 C. 4, 4
105. What is the density of LNG?
A. 8.3 lb per gallon B. 3.9 lb per gallon C. 4.3 lb per gallon
106. Is LNG toxic in nature?
A. Yes B. No
107. What is the flash point of LNG?
A. −306°F B. −206°F C. −350°F
108. Where was the first commercial LNG facility built?
A. West Virginia B. Cleveland, Ohio C. Washington
109. What is the lowest temperature at which a gas will ignite after an
extended time of exposure called?
A. Auto-flame temperature
B. Auto-ignition temperature
C. Self-ignition temperature
110. In India, for how many years are the guidelines set under the Gas
Utilization Policy valid?
111. What is the system design methodology called that permits natural
gas pipeline to meet short-term customer demands with minimal
infrastructure?
A. Short shaving
B. Demand shaving
C. Peak shaving
244
112. What are pipelines that move natural gas from the well head to the
natural gas processing plant or to an interconnection with a larger
mainline pipeline called?
A. Gathering pipelines B. Long pipelines C. First pipelines
113. What is the gas that contains varying amount of carbon monoxide and
hydrogen called?
A. Syngas B. Sour gas C. Abiogenic gas
114. What is the process of converting synthesis gas to liquid hydrocarbons
called?
A. Claus process
B. Fischer–Tropsch process
C. Thermogenic process
115. What is the tariff methodology used for natural gas pipeline in the
USA?
A. RPI-X
B. Cost of service plus return based on weighted average cost of
capital
C. Entry load – exit load
116. What is the capacity of the natural gas pipeline that carries risk of
curtailment under peak load conditions with settlement of tariff at
commodity charge based on utilization called?
A. Firm capacity
B. Interruptible capacity
C. Operating capacity
117. Who is the current president of the International Gas Union?
A. David Caroll B. Torsten Indrebe C. Roberto Brandt
118. What is the gas that mainly contains methane and carbon monoxide
called?
A. Abiogenic gas B. Sour gas C. Town gas
119. How many countries are involved in the International Gas Union?
A. 91 B. 81 C. 71
120. In India, the gas pool account was formed in
A. 1992 B. 1995 C. 2001
245
121. On behalf of the Government of India, the gas pool account was
maintained by
122. The amount in the gas pool account of India was not meant for
A. Exploration and development of big fields
B. Compensation to Oil India Limited for subsidizing price in North
East
C. Compensation to Oil India Limited and Gas Authority of India
Limited for increases in operating cost
123. The committee set up in 1995 in India to review the pricing of natural
gas was
A. T L Shankar Committee
B. Kelkar Committee
C. R Group Committee
124. In India, gas prices were based on ______ between 1980 and 1990.
A. Market-determined price
B. Recommendations given by the expert committee
C. Fixed by individual companion
125. The committee set up by the Government of India in the mid-1990s
to make recommendations on the future structure of the petroleum
industry was
A. T L Shankar Committee
B. Kelkar Committee
C. R Group Committee
126. The R Group Committee suggested the establishment of
A. Regulator of petroleum sector
B. Gas pipeline grid
C. Product pipeline grid
127. The regime of gas allocation in India is based on the premise that
A. Gas is in short supply
B. Economic prioritization of gas is necessary
C. Both A and B
246
128. The firm allocation of gas is normally made to a consumer with the
arrangement of
A. Pay for gas supplied B. Take or pay C. Neither A nor B
129. In ______ of gas, consumers are expected to have dual-fuel capability
and option to use alternative fuels.
A. Firmed allocation
B. Fallback allocation
C. In-principle allocation
130. ______ allocation of gas is subject to the consumer establishing the
viability of the project.
A. Firmed B. Fallback C. In-principle
131. The majority of underground natural gas storage facilities are held
by
A. Europe B. USA C. Canada
132. The main reason behind the development of underground natural gas
storage facilities is
A. Load balancing
B. Optimizing natural gas network operations
C. Both A and B
133. In Europe, ______ is mainly used for heating homes during winter.
A. Fuel oil B. Natural gas C. Gasoline
134. Aquifers to be developed for underground storage of gas should have
______ hydrostatic pressure for gas containment.
A. Low B. Medium C. High
135. In India, the first caverns for the storage of LPG were developed by
136. The Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited has developed caverns
for the storage of LPG at
A. Kandla B. Jamnagar C. Vizag
137. Salt caverns are used for the underground storage of natural gas
because salt caverns are
A. Impermeable B. Non-porous C. Both A and B
247
138. To develop salt caverns for the underground storage of natural gas, it is
important to drill a hole of depth ______ in the salt deposit, depending
on the thickness.
A. Less than 500 m B. 500–700 m C. 1000–1500 m
139. After welding, the outside surface of the gas pipe is cleaned, coated,
and wrapped to inhibit
A. Further leakage B. External corrosion C. Both A and B
140. Internal coating of gas pipeline is done with
A. Silver film B. Copper film C. Epoxy film
141. The internal coating of gas pipeline with epoxy film helps in
A. Improving reflection of light to facilitate internal inspection of pipe
before welding
B. Minimizing water retention after hydrostatic testing
C. Both A and B
142. To cross a gas pipeline across a river, the technique used is
A. Directional drilling
B. Carrying gas pipeline over a bridge
C. Both A and B
143. Usually, compressor stations for gas transportation are located at
intervals of
A. 5–10 km B. 20–60 km C. 80–160 km
144. The capacity to carry gas through a pipeline is normally increased
by
A. Installing more compressor stations
B. Increasing the width of the pipeline
C. Both A and B
145. In gas pipelines, the compressor used to boost carrying capacity is
A. Centrifugal compressor
B. Reciprocating compressor
C. Both A and B
146. The compression ratio of a gas compressor is defined as
A. Outlet/inlet pressure
B. Inlet/outlet pressure
C. Mid-space pressure
248
147. The electric device used to prevent corrosion is called

A. Cathode protection system
B. Anode protection system
C. Earthing protection system
148. A type of natural gas burner that adjusts its heat output gradually,
instead of cycling on and off, is
A. Continuous burner
B. Neon burner
C. Modulating burner
149. A method of recovering sulphur from natural gas based on reduction/
oxidation is called
A. Liquid redox process
B. Gas-oxidized process
C. Gas redox process
150. A type of natural gas burner, either metallic or ceramic that uses
infrared heat for industrial drying process is
A. Modulating burner B. Infrared burner C. Neon burner
151. A percentage of the revenue from gas production that is paid to the
mineral right owner or others, free and clear of production costs, is
called
A. Lease amount B. Royalty C. Revenue
152. A device used to reduce the pressure of natural gas at various points
throughout the distribution system is
A. Pressure regulator B. Pressure reducer C. Both A and B
153. The Sakhalin-I Project is an oil and gas development project on the
northeast shelf of Sakhalin Island. It was declared commercial in
A. October 2001 B. October 2002 C. October 2003
154. The burning of natural gas at a well site or at processing facilities is
known as
A. Flaring B. Glaring C. Combustioning
155. The price of natural gas, including the cost of transmission and
distribution, is known as
A. Selling price B. Acquisition price C. Burner tip price
249
156. The method used by gas traders and brokers on the financial market
based on the difference in the price of natural gas at different locations
on the pipeline is called
A. Commodity trading B. Load trading C. Basis trading
157. A natural gas water heater designed to raise the temperature of water
for commercial dishwashing is called
A. Main water heater
B. Booster water heater
C. End water heater
158. The purchase of gas directly from producers and marketers rather than
through a pipeline company is called
A. By-pass B. In-pass C. Co-pass
159. City gate station is also known as
A. Town border B. Tap station C. Both A and B
160. The point where natural gas is received by the distribution company
to distribute in a city through pipelines is called
A. City supply station
B. City gate station
C. City point station
161. The type of power plant that uses a mix of gas and steam turbines is
called
A. Integrated cycle B. Combined cycle C. Whole cycle
162. The piping network that carries natural gas to its customers from
various sources of gas supply is called
A. Distribution system B. Collector system C. Line system
163. A network of flow lines collecting gas from several wells is called
A. Flow station
B. Gathering station
C. Intermediate station
164. The first long pipeline to transport natural gas was built from
A. Central Indiana to Chicago
B. Chicago to New York
C. Pennsylvania to Chicago
250
165. Which of the following is a type of conventional natural gas wells?

A. Condensate wells
B. Associated gas wells
C. Both A and B
166. Which of the following is a non-regenerative gas treatment process?
A. Chemical sweet process
B. Giammarco–Vetrocoke process
C. Strafford process
167. In Russia, the gas transmission grid is owned by
A. Private players B. Ruhrgas C. Gazprom
168. In India, Mahanagar Gas Limited is a joint venture between
A. British Gas and Indian Oil Corporation Limited
B. British Gas and Gujarat State Company
C. Gas Authority of India Limited and British Gas
169. Gujarat Gas Company Limited is a joint venture between
A. Gas Authority of India Limited and British Gas
B. Indian Oil Corporation Limited and British Gas
C. British Gas and state companies
170. In common carrier principle of gas transmission, the priority of gas
transportation is determined by
A. The gas-transporting company
B. The price being paid for the transportation
C. Regulator/government
171. The process of sending a pig down a gas pipeline is known as
A. Digging B. Pigging C. Both A and B
172. In India, administered price mechanism (APM) gas is being supplied
to the market through
173. The APM gas price is fixed by the Government of India on the basis
of the recommendations of the
A. Tariff Commission
B. Regulatory Commission
C. Ministry of Finance
251
174. In the petroleum sector, GSPA stands for

A. Gas Supply Permission Act
B. Gas Sales and Purchase Agreement
C. Gas Selling and Purchasing Association
175. A computer program that helps geologists imaging underground
structures and conditions is called
A. MIS B. Modelling C. Computing
176. A contractual operation in which gas customers inform the pipeline
company in a short span of time in advance, say, 24 h exactly how
much gas should be delivered and where to deliver. This operation is
termed
A. Nomination B. Firmed up C. Fallback
177. The instances when the demand for energy is normal or low as opposed
to the peak demand period is called
A. Off peak B. Share peak C. Sham peak
178. The generation of electricity at the manufacturing plant is called
A. Distributed generation
B. On-site power generation
C. Off-peak generation
179. The amount of gas that might be found in addition to the proved
reserves is known as
A. Potential reserves
B. Proven reserves
C. Probable reserves
180. The amount of natural gas that is economically recoverable using
current technology is called
A. Proven gas reserves
B. Proved gas reserves
C. Both A and B
181. A process in which natural gas is used as a supplementary fuel in
power plant boilers, which use coal to reduce emissions of nitrogen
oxides is called
A. Re-burning
B. Off-burning
C. Nitrogen fuel burning
252
182. A type of natural gas burner in pairs that fire in an alternative on/off
sequence is called
A. Generative burner
B. Regenerative burner
C. Contentious burner
183. A type of compressor generally used by pipelines to maintain gas
pressure during transportation is called
A. Centrifugal compressor
B. Reciprocating compressor
C. Centripetal compressor
184. A small-diameter plastic piping that delivers natural gas from the main
to the customer’s meter is termed
A. Main line B. Service line C. Loop line
185. A rooftop unit, based on natural gas, used for heating/cooling of
buildings is also known as
A. Unitary system B. Packaged unit C. Both A and B
186. The pipe that receives natural gas at the city gate station and carries
it into the distribution system is called
A. Loop main B. Supply main C. City main
187. Pipeline contract provisions that required companies to pay producers
for the full contractual quantities of gas even if they could not sell it,
were known as
A. Full back provisions
B. Take or pay provisions
C. Owner bears principle
188. Natural gas in the storage reservoir that can be produced and delivered
when needed, as opposed to cushion gas that must remain in place to
maintain reservoir pressure, is called
A. Working gas B. Need gas C. Production gas
189. In India, the price of marketing natural gas is determined by
A. Gas Authority of India Limited
B. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
C. Neither A nor B
253
Tough
1. Where was the first LNG terminal built in Canada?
A. Vancouver B. Columbia C. Nova Scotia
2. The absorber used for dehydration of natural gas is also termed
A. Contractor B. Drier C. Squixer
3. Which city is termed “the helium capital of the world”?
A. Urengoy B. Amarillo C. Colorado
4. The concentration of helium in natural gas is maximum in the gas
produced in
A. Urengoy, Russia
B. San Juan, New Mexico
C. Hugoton Panhandle, USA
5. To test the abiogenic theory of origin of gas, the first well was
drilled in
A. San Juan, New Mexico
B. Hugoton Panhandle, USA
C. Siljan Ring, Sweden
6. The largest incremental growth in terms of consumption of natural gas
in 2014 was recorded from
A. USA B. China C. India
7. The total proven reserve of gas in North America at the end of 2014
(in trillion cubic metre) was
A. 229 B. 429 C. 629
8. Which is the only company in Russia to produce and export LNG?
A. Gazprom B. Rosneft C. Novatek
9. What is the contribution of Gazprom to the world gas market?
A. 29% B. 22% C. 17%
10. Mercury present in natural gas is partially deleterious to ______
process because it corrodes the ______ temperature of aluminium
alloy heat exchangers.
A. Evaporation; High
B. Dilution; Low
C. Gynogenic; Low
254
11. In the Claus process, the sulphur dioxide required is produced

A. By burning a large amount of hydrogen sulphide
B. By burning a small amount of fresh sulphide
C. By reacting sulphide with oxygen in the presence of cobalt as
catalyst
12. Which of the following is not a turbine generator?
A. Open cycle gas turbine
B. Combined cycle gas turbine
C. Closed cycle gas turbine
13. The open cycle gas turbine is also referred to as
A. Half-cycle gas turbine
B. Single cycle gas turbine
C. Exhaust-based gas turbine
14. The thermal deficiency of a single turbine plant is approximately
A. 20%–25% B. 25%–30% C. 30%–40%
15. Newer technologies of single cycle gas turbines have efficiency as
high as
A. 45% B. 55% C. 65%
16. Typically, the thermal efficiency of combined cycle gas power plant is
about
A. 50% B. 60% C. 70%
17. The thermal efficiency of a cogeneration gas plant is about
A. 70% B. 80% C. 90%
18. Which of the following is not a principal method for producing
synthesis gas?
A. Steam reforming
B. Partial oxidation
C. Catalytic reforming
19. Methane present in synthesis gas during production is referred to as
A. Methane slip B. Methane voyage C. Methane escape
20. The steam reforming process for the conversion of natural gas to
synthesis gas is
A. An endothermic process
B. An exothermic process
C. A partial exothermic process
255
21. The percentage of methane slippage within synthesis gas is generally

A. 4%–8% B. 10%–11% C. 17%–18%
22. The steam reforming process of natural gas to synthesis gas is best
performed at
A. Low pressure B. Ambient pressure C. High pressure
23. The major problem in the use of a heavy hydrocarbon in the production
of synthesis gas is
A. Lower carbon deposition
B. No carbon production
C. Higher carbon deposition
24. Up to what percentage methane slippage is purposely kept in the
gasifier during the production of synthesis gas from natural gas to
prevent explosion?
A. Less than 0.1% B. Less than 0.3% C. Less than 0.5%
25. The alpha value of a product of gas synthesis may change with the
type and age of the catalyst.
A. True B. False
26. The alpha value of a product of gas synthesis may change with the
stoichiometric ratio of the synthesis gas.
A. True B. False
27. The alpha value is a good predictor of the components produced in
the range of
A. C5 to C30 B. C10 to C40 C. C1 to C25
28. The amount of methane that may be produced in gas synthesis is
______ that predicted on the basis of its alpha value.
A. Less than B. More than C. Equal to
29. A typical Fischer–Tropsch process operates in an alpha value range
of
A. 0.1–0.6 B. 0.7–0.9 C. 0.5–1.1
30. The first working model of cascade refrigeration and liquefaction was
built by
A. Kamerlingh Onnes B. Kleemenko C. Haselden
31. The first laboratory demonstration of LNG plant was given by
A. Kleemenko
B. Haselden
C. Kamerlingh Onnes
256
32. The company that incorporated the first full-scale natural gas
liquefaction plant is
A. Total B. French Technip C. Shell
33. The first successful liquefaction of permanent gases on laboratory scale
was carried out by
A. Michael Faraday B. Carl von Linde C. Joule–Thomson
34. The liquid density of typical LNG is approximately
A. 0.5 g/cm3 B. 0.7 g/cm3 C. 0.9 g/cm3
35. In general, losses due to LNG evaporation during transportation of fuel
and processing losses during liquefaction is taken to be
A. 5% B. 10% C. 15%
36. Purisol is the common name of the physical absorbent
A. Polyethylene glycol
B. Anhydrous propylene carbonate
C. N-methylpyrrolidone
37. At 7 bar pressure, which of the following gases will have a boiling
point above 0°C?
A. Ethane B. Propane C. Ethylene
38. The European Union Gas Directive made it mandatory that at least
______ of the gas market of each member country be opened to
competition, with effect from 10 August 2000.
A. 5% B. 10% C. 20%
39. In the USA, the Natural Gas Policy Act was passed in
A. 1978 B. 1983 C. 1988
40. The type of contract in which the processor takes ownership of
a percentage of the NGL mix extracted from a producer’s natural
gas stream, while the producer either retains title or receives the
value associated with the remaining percentage of the NGL mix is
known as
A. Percentage-of-proceeds contract
B. Percentage of index contract
C. Keep whole contract
41. What is the auto-ignition temperature of natural gas in the case of
natural gas vehicles?
A. 842°F B. 703°F C. 1512°F
257
42. What is the peak flame temperature of natural gas in the case of
natural gas vehicles?
A. 842°F B. 3432°F C. 1512°F
43. What was the main issue of the Russia–Ukraine gas dispute?
A. Political
B. Shortage of supply
C. Pricing issue
44. Who owns the title “Transfer Facility” in the Netherlands?
A. Kansas City Board of Trade
B. Sabine Pipe Line LLC
C. Gasunie Transport Services B V
45. What was the reason for the major LNG accident in Cleveland, Ohio?
A. Faulty design of tanker
B. Corruption among officials handling the LNG facility
C. Fault at the liquefaction facilities
46. What is the name of the first LNG tanker?
A. Gas Filler B. Methane Pioneer C. Gas Pioneer
47. What equipment surround the LNG tankers to contain LNG in the case
of any spill?
A. Dikes B. Brims C. Drums
48. Name the project undertaken by GAIL (India) Limited to implement
CNG stations in five cities?
A. Project CNG
B. Project Blue Sky
C. Project Green Sky
49. A CNG station connected to pipeline and having high compression
capacity is called
A. Mother station
B. Daughter station
C. Online station
50. A CNG station with a small capacity compressor, which compresses
low pressure pipeline gas to the pressure of 250 bar for dispensing
CNG to the vehicle cylinder is called
A. Mother station B. Online station C. Daughter station
258
51. A CNG station that dispenses CNG using mobile cascades is called
A. Mother station B. Online station C. Daughter station
52. The time required to pass one cubic foot of gas through a given orifice
in base conditions is called
A. Basic gas time
B. Beam loading time
C. Cubic gas time
53. What is the cooling effect that occurs when a compressed gas is allowed
to expand without any external work called?
A. Joule–Thomson effect
B. Haynesville effect
C. Marcellus effect
54. What is the estimated reserve potential of the South Pars field of
Iran?
A. 350 tcf B. 450 tcf C. 300 tcf
55. What is the formal proceeding with the Federal Energy Regulatory
Commission for construction or abandonment of natural gas facilities
or for making changes in rates and rule-making called?
A. Clearing process
B. Docket
C. Modification process
56. In what kind of vessels is LNG transported?
A. Cryogenic vessels
B. Absorption vessels
C. Low temperature vessels
57. What kind of separator is used for wells that produce high-pressure
gas along with light crude oil or condensate?
A. Low-temperature separator
B. Medium-temperature separator
C. High-temperature separator
58. What is the process of extraction of lighter hydrocarbon in natural gas
called?
A. Absorption method
B. Cryogenic expansion process
C. None of these
259
59. Which of the following drilling techniques is used to drill deeper

wells?
A. Cable drilling B. Rotary drilling C. Neither A nor B
60. What is the technical maximum available capacity, assuming maximum
pressure and uninterrupted flow in natural gas pipeline called?
A. Design capacity
B. Firm capacity
C. Commercial capacity
61. What is the maximum throughput possible under normal operating
conditions in natural gas pipeline called?
A. Operating capacity
B. Firm capacity
62. What is the capacity guaranteed by a pipeline operator to shippers on
a contractual basis called?
A. Operating capacity
B. Firm capacity
63. The country having the largest number of natural gas vehicles is
A. Argentina B. USA C. Iran
64. What is the share of offshore production in the total production of
natural gas in India?
A. 72% B. 54% C. 45%
65. Which of the following arrangements for underground storage of
natural gas has the highest deliverability?
A. Salt cavern
C. Aquifers
66. Who is the supplier of LNG to the Dahej LNG Terminal?
A. RasGas B. Shell C. Gazprom
67. Which of the following was the first Indian company to start sale of
natural gas in Assam, India?
A. Oil India Limited
C. Assam Gas Company
260
68. Which of the following is regarded as the major exporter of LNG?

A. Algeria B. Iran C. Taiwan
69. Which of the following is regarded as the major importer of LNG?
A. Japan B. Korea C. Australia
70. The import of natural gas in the world through pipeline during 2014
was approximately
A. 664 BCM B. 964 BCM C. 1200 BCM
71. Total export of natural gas in the world recorded during 2015 was
approximately
A. 663 BCM B. 997 BCM C. 1200 BCM
72. A homogeneous mix of gases obtained from various physical and
contractual supply sources is called
A. Commingled gas B. Gas mixture C. Heavy gas
73. According to the US Department of Energy, LNG imports must increase
more than 500% to meet USA’s natural gas demand in 2030.
A. True B. False
74. Curb valve is a shut-off valve in a gas service line, usually between
the curb and the customer’s property line.
A. True B. False
75. What is the unprocessed natural gas produced from an oil well
called?
A. Casinghead gas B. Gas cap C. Gas bag
76. What is the inflatable bag that can be inserted in a gas pipe to seal off
the flow of gas called?
A. Gas cap B. Gas bag C. Casinghead gas
77. What is the layer of free gas on the top of the oil zone in an underground
reservoir called?
A. Gas cap B. Gas bag C. Casinghead gas
78. What is the petroleum recovery process where the gas produced with
condensate is injected back into the reservoir to extract more condensate
called?
A. Gas cycling B. Gas casing C. Gas lift
79. What is the effect of gas pressure in an oil well that causes the oil to
flow from the well called?
A. Gas lift B. Gas cycling C. Gas casing
261
80. The pressure regulator converts the natural gas from storage pressure
to metering pressure.
A. True B. False
81. The New Domestic Natural Gas Pricing Guidelines was issued by
MoPNG, India in the year
A. 2012 B. 2013 C. 2014
82. The method used by producers to extract more natural gas from a well
by opening up rock formations using hydraulic or explosive force is
called
A. Fracturing
B. Claus process
C. Sweetening process
83. As per the New Domestic Natural Gas Pricing Guidelines 2014 issued
by the MoPNG, India, the gas price is to be revised
A. Quarterly B. Half yearly C. Yearly
84. The process of transportation of gas in a direction opposite to the
aggregate physical flow of gas in the pipeline is called
A. Back fill B. Back haul C. Back fire
85. Apart from gas well, natural gas can be obtained from which of the
following wells?
A. Oil well B. Condensate well C. Both A and B
86. What type of gas is produced from the natural gas processing that
separates all hydrocarbons and fluids from the pure natural gas?
A. Dry gas
B. Non-associated gas
C. Free gas
87. Which country has the largest in-ground LNG storage tank?
A. USA B. Japan C. Argentins
88. What is the pricing point of natural gas traded on the New York
Mercantile Exchange?
A. Title Transfer Facility B. Henry Hub C. Trading Point
89. What is the trading point for natural gas in the Netherlands?
A. Title Transfer Facility
B. Henry Hub
262
90. When a uniform tariff is charged irrespective of the distance over

which gas is transported, it is called
A. Postalized tariff
B. Point-to-point tariff
C. Neither A nor B
91. The capacity made available on “take or pay” with the settlement of
tariff on capacity charge in the case of lower utilization for natural gas
pipeline is called
A. Interruptible capacity
B. Firm capacity
C. Operating capacity
92. What is the liquid desiccant used to remove water from natural gas?
A. Mercaptan B. Acid C. Glycol
93. What do we call natural gas produced by non-biological processes?
A. Abiogenic gas B. Acid gas C. Sour gas
94. What is the length of the Hazira–Bijaipur–Jagdishpur gas pipeline?
A. 2800 km B. 1600 km C. 3200 km
95. What is the capacity (in million standard cubic metre per day or
MSCMD) of the Hazira–Bijaipur–Jagdishpur gas pipeline?
A. 60 MSCMD B. 80 MSCMD C. 50 MSCMD
96. Which company has the highest production of natural gas in India
during FY 2014–15?
97. Natural gas with high level of sulphur content is called
A. Sour gas B. Abiogenic gas C. Sweet gas
98. The process of removal of hydrogen sulphide from natural gas is
called
A. Sweetening of gas
B. Filtering of gas
C. Purification of gas
99. What is the share of natural gas in the energy basket of Asia?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 15%
263
100. During 2014–15 the approximate natural gas production in India under
PSC regime was
A. 8900 MMSCMD B. 1400 MMSCMD C. 1800 MMSCMD
101. What are the inflatable bags and stoppers called, which are placed to
seal off gas flow?
A. Gas cap B. Bag off C. Baffles
102. When was the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board set up?
A. October 2007 B. March 2007 C. May 2006
103. The recommendation of the T L Shankar Committee, set up in 1995 to
review gas pricing, was brought into effect in
A. 1995 B. 1996 C. 1997
104. The committee set up by the Government of India in 1991 to establish
the priority of gas supply to projects, given the limited availability of
gas, was
A. R Group Committee
B. Kelkar Committee
C. Gas Linkage Committee
105. The internal coating of gas pipeline helps to improve gas efficiency
by
A. 1%–2% B. 4%–5% C. 10%–12%
106. ______ is a heavy liquid hydrocarbon that can exist underground as
gas and re-liquefy, or condense, when gas is produced.
A. Natural fuel oil B. Natural gasoline C. Natural diesel
107. Which place in Australia is the largest exporter of LNG?
A. Sydney
B. Canberra
C. North West Shelf of Western Australia
108. The South Asia LPG Company Private Limited was formed
A. To construct underground cavern storage for LPG
B. To construct new refinery for the production of LPG
C. To construct cross-border LPG pipeline
109. A gas-powered equipment used to air condition commercial buildings
through absorption process is called
A. Electric chiller B. Absorption chiller C. Thermal chiller
264
110. ______ is a region caused by intense reflection on a seismic profile,

which usually indicates the location of natural gas reservoirs and caps
of gas lying over oilfields.
A. Pay zone spot B. Natural gas spot C. Bright spot
111. A process using natural gas as a supplementary fuel in power plant
boilers to reduce emissions of sulphur dioxide and particulates is
called
A. Co-firing
B. Natural gas firing
C. Eco-firing
112. The practice of cutting off certain customers when gas supply cannot
meet demand is called
A. Curtailment B. Chopping C. Debarring
113. A permanent volume of gas kept in a storage reservoir to maintain
sufficient pressure for gas production is called
A. Production gas B. Cushion gas C. Fusion gas
114. The piping that transports gas from the supply main or pressure
regulator to the distribution main is called
A. Line main B. Supply main C. Feeder main
115. The process of creating natural gas storage caverns by pumping water
underground to dissolve the rock is called
A. Leaching B. Bleaching C. Breaking
116. The burner that mixes natural gas with air in the right proportion,
creating a flame that can be safely used for cooking and heating, was
invented by
A. Colonel Edwin Drake
B. William Hart
C. Robert Bunsen
117. The offshore field in Myanmar from where gas will be supplied to
China is
A. Mukaung B. Rakhine C. Nyaungdon
118. Nakilat is a wholly owned subsidiary of
A. Qatar Gas Transport Company
B. Shell Gas Transport Company
C. Saudi Aramco Gas Transport Company
265
119. The company that built the world’s first LNG carrier with spherical
tanks is
A. Lurgi
B. Leif Höegh & Company
C. Shell
120. The first Australian LNG was shipped from
A. Sydney B. Perth C. Karratha
121. To address the risk of a terrorist attack to LNG transportation, the
member countries of the International Maritime Organization adopted
the ______ in 2003.
A. LNG transportation code
B. LNG ship security code
C. Ship and port facility security code
266
Chapter 6
Petrochemicals
Easy
1. Ethylene, propylene, and butadiene are the three most important olefins
for petrochemicals.
A. True B. False
2. Ethylene, propylene, and butadiene are produced in various proportions
by the cracking of the same feedstock.
A. True B. False
3. Ethylene is completely soluble in water.
A. True B. False
4. Ethanol is used as a solvent for cooling and shellac.
A. True B. False
5. Polyvinyl acetate is directly made from
A. Vinyl acetate B. Cellulose acetate C. Vinyl chloride
6. Ethanol may be produced by hydration of ethylene over phosphoric
acid on Celite catalyst.
A. True B. False
7. Under pressure, the boiling points of butane-butylene and butadiene
are far apart.
A. True B. False
8. Ethylene dichloride helps in the production of tetramethyl lead which
has a high octane number.
A. True B. False
9. Vinyl chloride may be manufactured by a reaction between ethylene
dichloride and caustic soda.
A. True B. False
10. Ethylene dichloride can be manufactured by the acetylene–hydrochloric
acid reaction.
A. True B. False
11. In ethylene dichloride thermal pyrolysis process for the manufacture
of vinyl chloride, carbon is produced, which causes a pressure drop in
the reactor.
A. True B. False
12. Even in the presence of water, the equipment of ethylene dichloride
thermal pyrolysis process do not allow the formation of corrosion.
A. True B. False
13. If appropriate antioxidants are not used to stabilize vinyl chloride
monomer produced by dichloride thermal pyrolysis, the antioxidant
may interfere with the polymerization process.
A. True B. False
Multiple Choice Questions on Oil, Gas, and Petrochemicals
14. Ethylene glycol is used as antifreeze for automobile radiator.

A. True B. False
15. Ammonolysis is a/an
A. Endothermic process
B. Exothermic process
C. Thermally neutral process
16. The traditional method for the production of acetaldehyde involves
hydration of acetylene.
A. True B. False
17. It is possible to make propylene from secondary sources other than
petroleum.
A. True B. False
18. It is not possible to prepare ethylene from any source other than
petroleum.
A. True B. False
19. Propylene is produced by the pyrolysis of propane.
A. True B. False
20. Cumene and acetaldehyde may be manufactured from propylene.
A. True B. False
21. Acrylonitrile and allyl chloride may be directly manufactured from
propylene.
A. True B. False
22. Polyvinyl acetate is used as an adhesive.
A. True B. False
23. Glycerine may be produced by the hydrolysis of fatty materials or from
the synthesis of propylene.
A. True B. False
24. Glycerine is a yellow distillate.
A. True B. False
25. Glycerine may be used for the manufacture of explosives.
A. True B. False
26. Glycerine has its use in the food and pharmaceutical industry.
A. True B. False
27. The acrolein route is used to produce acetone co-product which in turn
is used to prepare glycerine.
A. True B. False
270
Chapter 6 Petrochemicals
28. Glycerol is produced as a by-product of soap and fatty acids.

A. True B. False
29. Synthetic glycerine may be manufactured from propylene via allyl
chloride.
A. True B. False
30. Pyrolysis is regarded as a refinery conversion process.
A. True B. False
31. Sulphur removal is a conversion process in refinery and petrochemical
plants.
A. True B. False
32. Free radicals generated by pyrolysis are terminated only when free
radical species react with each other or the surface of the reactor or
coke.
A. True B. False
33. Higher molecular weight feed cracks more readily but has less coking
tendency.
A. True B. False
34. The use of catalyst lowers the temperature and pressure requirement
for cracking.
A. True B. False
35. In terms of heat economy, a moving-bed catalytic cracking unit is better
than a fluidized-bed unit.
A. True B. False
36. Catalytic naphtha has very little olefins content.
A. True B. False
37. Fermentation of molasses is one of the methods for production of
acetone.
A. True B. False
38. Acetone and phenol from cumene are regarded as serious competitors
for the isopropanol dehydrogenation process.
A. True B. False
39. The Raschig process for the production of phenol from benzene has
two vapour phase catalytic stages.
A. True B. False
271
40. Almost all petrochemicals are derived from three sources: (i) carbon
monoxide/hydrogen/synthesis gas (syngas) obtained from reforming
natural gas, (ii) olefins from pyrolysis of ethane, propane-butane, or
distillates, and (iii) aromatics from catalytic reforming.
A. True B. False
41. Syngas is a general term used to designate various mixtures of carbon
monoxide and hydrogen.
A. True B. False
42. The cryogenic separation process is used to purify carbon monoxide.
A. True B. False
43. Pure hydrogen is produced from
A. Refinery off-gas
B. Syngas
C. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)
44. Anhydrous hydrazine is used as rocket fuel.
A. True B. False
45. Most of the methanol produced is oxidized to formaldehyde.
A. True B. False
46. Syngas is the common source of both carbon monoxide and
methanol.
A. True B. False
47. Hydrogen cyanide is produced directly from methane.
A. True B. False
48. Methane can be chlorinated both thermally and photochemically, with
photochemical chlorination being the important commercial process.
A. True B. False
49. Carbon disulphide is produced from
A. Methane and sulphur
B. Carbon and sulphur
C. Both A and B
50. Alkanes with lower molecular weight are oxidized to various products,
such as acetic acid, maleic anhydride, and acetaldehyde and chlorinated
to perchloroethylene.
A. True B. False
51. Trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene are produced by using
ethylene.
A. True B. False
272
52. The oxidation of hydrocarbons in general proceeds by a free radical

chain reaction.
A. True B. False
53. Trichloroethylene is used for metal degreasing.
A. True B. False
54. Acetylene is used in welding of metals.
A. True B. False
55. Leather may be made from acrylonitrile.
A. True B. False
56. Phenolic resin is used as laminates.
A. True B. False
57. Mercaptans are used for soil fumigation.
A. True B. False
58. Methacrylates are used in textile treatment.
A. True B. False
59. Esters are used as coating solvents.
A. True B. False
60. It is possible to run automobiles on methanol-blended fuel.
A. True B. False
61. In automobiles, use of methanol is considered better than ethanol.
A. True B. False
62. –COOH is termed carboxyl group.
A. True B. False
63. Functional groups are generally non-polar in nature.
A. True B. False
64. It is not possible to calculate average degree of polymerization in
polycondensate reactions.
A. True B. False
65. There is a marked change in the viscosity of any monomer due to
polymerization.
A. True B. False
66. During polymerization, propagation reaction occurs between free
radicals already formed and the monomer.
A. True B. False
67. TiCl4 is an example of Ziegler catalyst used in polymerization.
A. True B. False
273
68. The use of different monomers to prepare polymer is termed

co-polymerization.
A. True B. False
69. Polymerization occurs even in absolute dry condition.
A. True B. False
70. By how many processes is acetic acid is produced commercially?
71. The process of carbonylation of methanol for the production of acetic
acid was developed by
A. Lurgi B. Monsanto C. Shell
72. Azane is the term used for
A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Synthesis gas
73. The full form of MMA is
A. Methyl methacrylate
B. Monomethylamine
C. Monomethylase acetic acid
74. ExxonMobil’s methanol-to-gasoline process starts with
A. Natural gas B. Coal C. Neither A nor B
75. The process used for producing gasoline from methanol is
A. ExxonMobil process
B. Monsanto’s process
C. Puck process
76. Which of the following compounds can be used as hydrogen carrier?
A. Ammonia B. Methanol C. Methane
77. Methanol can be used for the production of
A. Alcohol B. Motor fuel C. Both A and B
78. Chlorination of methane gives
A. Methyl chloride
B. Tetrachloromethane
C. Both A and B
79. Chlorodifluoromethane is used in
A. Refrigerant
B. Aerosol propellant
C. Both A and B
274
80. The chemical formula of chlorodifluoromethane is

A. CHClF2 B. CH2ClF2 C. CH3ClF2
81. The compound used in the aerosols of products, such as colognes and
perfumes, deodorants, hair sprays, and shaving creams is
A. Mercaptan
B. Toluene
C. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
82. The corrosion inhibitor in the ammonia-handling system is
A. Ammonia
B. Ammonium thiocyanate
C. Neither A nor B
83. Which compound is used in the production of methyl methacrylate,
acrylonitrile, adiponitrile, acrylates, chelates, and sodium cyanide?
A. Hydrogen cyanide
B. Oxamide
C. Carbon disulphide
84. The paraffin hydrocarbons used to produce olefins are
A. Lower molecular weight hydrocarbons
B. Higher molecular weight hydrocarbons
C. Neither A nor B
85. Paraffin hydrocarbons, alkanes that can be chlorinated, sulphonated,
or fed to microorganisms to produce single-cell proteins, are
C. Neither A nor B
86. Paraffin hydrocarbons recovered from natural gas and liquefied
petroleum gas are
C. Neither A nor B
87. The most desirable feedstock for ethylene production when a minimum
amount of by-product is desired is
275
88. The commercial process of production of vinyl chloride is

A. Oxychlorination followed by hydro chlorination and distillation
B. Oxychlorination followed by hydro chlorination, distillation and
pyrolysis process
C. Both A and B
89. The chemical formula of perchloroethylene is
A. CCl=CCl B. CCl2=CHCl C. CCl2=CCl2
90. Propane is mainly extracted from
A. Natural gas B. Naphtha C. Gas oil
91. n-Butane is obtained from
A. Natural gas B. Refinery streams C. Both A and B
92. The main feedstock for the production of butadiene by the
dehydrogenation process is
A. Propane B. Ethane C. n-Butane
93. Which of the following compounds is produced as a bi-product in
considerable amount by the steam cracking of ethylene?
A. Butadiene
B. n-Butane
C. Perchloroethylene
94. The catalytic oxidation of n-butane produces
A. Acids
B. Aldehydes
C. Acids or aldehydes depending on the catalyst
95. The non-catalytic oxidation of n-butane produces
A. Acids
B. Aldehydes
C. Mixture of aldehydes, acids, ketones, and alcohols
96. The most important carboxylic acid produced industrially is
A. Acetic acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Neither A nor B
97. The most rising process or the process with the brightest future for
the production of acetic acid is
A. Oxidation of LPG
B. Oxidation of acetaldehyde
C. Carbonylation of methanol
276
98. The chemical formula of isopropyl acid sulphate is

A. (CH3)3CH(OSO3H)
B. (CH3)2CH(OSO3H)
C. CH3CH(OSO3H)
99. Dry ice is made from
A. Methane B. Ethane C. Carbon dioxide
100. Polymers are classified on the basis of
A. Physico-chemical structure
B. Mode of preparation
C. Both A and B
101. The side chains of a polymer are also termed
A. Raft B. Craft C. Graft
102. Xylene is from
A. A-R-X group B. B-T-X group C. R-D-X group
103. Basic benzene ring contains
A. 7 atoms B. 6 atoms C. 5 atoms
104. Which of the following is not a primary petrochemical?
A. Polystyrene B. Benzene C. Xylene
105. Gasoline, diesel oil, and lube oil are
A. Chemical compounds
B. Heterogeneous mixture of hydrocarbons
C. Homogenous mixture of hydrocarbons
106. Ethyl alcohol is made from
A. Petroleum
B. Fermentation of molasses
C. Both A and B
107. Benzene is made/recovered from
A. Naphtha B. Coal tar C. Both A and B
108. Which of the following compound represents the bulk of
petrochemicals?
A. Aliphatic B. Aromatics C. Inorganic
109. The petrochemical which is considered as the lowest in terms of value
as a petrochemical product is
A. Aliphatic petrochemical
B. Aromatic petrochemical
C. Inorganic petrochemical
277
110. The major source of petrochemicals is

A. Light hydrocarbons
B. Heavy hydrocarbons
C. Inorganic chemicals
111. Which of the following is not a member of the aromatics group?
A. Benzene B. Toluene C. Butylene
112. Which of the following is not the basis of a butadiene plant?
A. Co-polymerization of butadiene and styrene
B. Co-polymerization of butadiene and acrylonitrile
C. Co-polymerization of butadiene and acetic anhydride
113. The major source of methane to butane (with the isomers of butane)
is
A. Natural gas
B. Gases from the refinery, particularly gases produced in cracking
C. Both A and B
114. Before World War I, nitrotoluene was produced from
A. Borneo distillates
B. Naphthenic acid
C. Nonylphenol sulphonic acid
115. The only hydrocarbon that does not have any olefin is
A. Propane B. Ethane C. Methane
116. Benzene, toluene, and xylene are obtained mainly from
A. Natural gas
B. Crude oil
C. Natural gas from refinery, particularly cracking
117. Aromatics occur
A. Rarely in crude oil as natural compound
B. Abundantly in crude oil as natural compound
C. Quite fairly in crude oil as natural compound
118. Non-aromatics can be converted into aromatics by
A. Dehydrogenation B. Cyclization C. Both A and B
119. Acetaldehyde can be made from ethane by
A. Dehydrogenation of ethyl alcohol
B. Oxidation of ethyl alcohol
C. Both A and B
278
120. Acetaldehyde can be prepared from

A. Methane
B. Propane and butane
C. Both A and B
121. Hydrogen cyanide is directly used to produce
A. Acrylonitrile
B. Carbon tetrachloride
C. Methyl chloride
122. Nitric acid is prepared directly from
A. Carbon black B. Ammonia C. Acetylene
123. The commercial production of petrochemicals was commenced in the
USA in
A. 1896 B. 1918 C. 1945
124. Trichloroethylene is produced directly from
A. Adiponitrile B. Perchloroethylene C. Acrylonitrile
125. Same petrochemical products can be prepared from different raw
materials.
A. True B. False
126. The choice of the raw materials for a particular petrochemical plant
depends upon
A. The economic viability of the raw materials
B. Other petroleum products to be prepared in the plant
C. Both A and B
127. Chloroform is prepared from
A. Ethane B. Methane C. Propane
128. Acetic acid is prepared from
129. Which of the following is the single largest tonnage petrochemical
prepared from methane?
A. Acetic acid B. Neoprene rubbers C. Ammonia
130. Ammonium sulphate is prepared by the reaction of sulphuric acid
with
A. Acrylonitrile B. Ammonia C. Adiponitrile
131. Reacting ammonia with carbon dioxide gives
A. Fertilizers B. Urea C. Explosives
279
132. Ammonium nitrate is prepared by the reaction of nitric acid with

A. Ammonia
B. Ammonium sulphate
C. Acrylonitrile
133. The single largest raw material for making petrochemicals is
A. Methane B. Propane C. Ethane
134. Propane is produced mainly from
A. Natural gas
B. Refinery operations
C. Both A and B
135. Which of the following is made from ethylene?
A. Adiponitrile B. Triethylene glycol C. Chloroform
136. Which of the following is the major product of ethylene?
A. Polyethylene
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Triethylene glycol
137. Only heavy concentrations of any impurities may act as chain transfer
agents or inhibitors.
A. True B. False
138. Metal alkyls are examples of cationic initiators in ionic
polymerization.
A. True B. False
139. Anionic polymerization is pictured as an electrophilic attack on
monomer molecules.
A. True B. False
140. Cationic polymerization is pictured as a nucleophilic attack on monomer
molecules.
A. True B. False
141. Carbonium ions are generally non-reactive particles.
A. True B. False
142. Cationic polymerization is more useful than anionic polymerization in
controlling the polymer structure.
A. True B. False
143. The polymerization of dienes with cationic initiators gives low
molecular weight polymers and cyclic compounds.
A. True B. False
280
144. Organometallic compounds such as n-butyllithium are effective as

anionic polymerization catalyst.
A. True B. False
145. Free radical polymerization gives only linear polymers.
A. True B. False
146. Coordination polymerization permits stereochemical control of
polymerization.
A. True B. False
147. The most extensively used thermo plate is
A. n(CH3–CH3)n B. n(CH2–CH2)n C. n(CH–CH)n
148. Polymerization of ethylene was being carried out even before the
discovery of titanium catalyst.
A. True B. False
149. Low-density polyethylene (LDPE) is predominantly linear in nature.
A. True B. False
150. High-density polyethylene (HDPE) is predominantly a branched
chain.
A. True B. False
151. HDPE is more flexible than LDPE because of its lower crystallinity.
A. True B. False
152. Polyethylene is attacked even by dilute acids and alkalis.
A. True B. False
153. Generally, the impact resistance of polyethylene is very low.
A. True B. False
154. Polymerization of ethylene is an endothermic reaction.
A. True B. False
155. Decomposition of ethylene at high temperature, if not properly
controlled, may cause explosion.
A. True B. False
156. During the production of LDPE in the stirred autoclave reactor, the
heat of reaction is absorbed by the cold ethylene feed, which is mixed
with the reacting polymer.
A. True B. False
157. The crystallinity of LDPE can be adjusted by adding co-monomers,
such as vinyl acetate or ethyl acrylate.
A. True B. False
281
158. LDPE polymers produced using a tube reactor are better suited for
coating.
A. True B. False
159. LDPE polymers produced from a stirred autoclave reactor are more
suitable for film manufacture.
A. True B. False
160. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) has poor chemical and abrasion resistance.
A. True B. False
Medium
1. Some rubber goods are produced from
A. S-type latex B. S-type rubber C. Polystyrene
2. Industrial glycerine, which is yellow in appearance, has a minimum
purity of
A. 85% B. 93% C. 99%
3. The colour of 100% pure glycerine is
A. Reddish yellow B. Water white C. Sky blue
4. The most important process for the production of acetic acid is
A. Catalytic liquid phase reduction of n-butane
B. Catalytic liquid phase oxidation of n-butane
C. Neither A nor B
5. In Europe, the major production of ethylene is done by the cracking of
A. Gas oil B. LPG C. Naphtha
6. The traditional major feedstock of ethylene production in the USA has
been
A. Natural gas B. Naphtha C. Both A and B
7. Chlor-alkali plants are used for the manufacture of
A. Caustic B. Chlorine C. Both A and B
8. Ethylene may be produced from
A. Fermentation of molasses
B. Refinery off-gas
C. Both A and B
9. Ethylene may not be directly formed from
A. Fermentation of alcohol
B. Refinery off-gas
C. Calcium chloride
282
10. Ethylene may be manufactured by hydrocarbon steam cracking.

A. True B. False
11. Acetylene is manufactured from
A. Partial oxidation of petroleum fraction
B. Hydrocarbon steam cracking
C. Both A and B
12. Acetylene is not manufactured directly from
B. Full oxidation of petroleum fraction
C. Both A and B
13. The method used for the production of both ethylene and acetylene is
B. Calcium carbide route
C. Hydrocarbon steam cracking
14. Lacquers are made from
A. Polyethers B. Styrene C. Esters
15. Which of the following is the main ingredient of shampoo?
A. Glycol B. Acrylonitrile C. Ethanolamine
16. Polyether is used for the manufacture of polyurethanes.
A. True B. False
17. Esters used for the manufacture of cooling agents are from
A. Ethanol B. Ethylene oxide C. Ethyl chloride
18. Cellulose acetate is obtained from
A. Butyraldehyde B. Acetaldehyde C. Both A and B
19. Which of the following petrochemicals is used for the manufacture of
maximum type of end products?
A. Benzene B. PVC C. Toluene
20. Synthetic fibres made for the manufacture of clothes are made from
A. Acrylonitrile B. PVC C. S-type latex
21. Polyesters are used for the manufacture of
A. Polyester fibres
B. Shampoo
C. Reinforced plastics
22. Fibre, film, and modelling materials are made of
A. Cellulose acetate B. Vinyl acetate C. Polyether
283
23. Flooring materials are made from

A. PVC B. Polystyrene C. S-type latex
24. Vinyl acetate is made from
A. Ethyl chloride B. Ethylene oxide C. Acetic acid
25. Polyether is made from
A. Ethanol B. Ethyl chloride C. Ethylene oxide
26. Acetic acid is made from
A. Ethanol B. Ethyl chloride C. Ethylene oxide
27. Polyurethane is manufactured directly from ethylene dichloride.
A. True B. False
28. In petrochemical industry, C2 and C4 feeds are pyrolysed in a separate
furnace because
A. Different time–temperature conditions are required
B. Both produce different products
C. Neither A nor B
29. Synthetic ethanol is made by the ________ of ethylene.
A. Hydration B. Fermentation C. Polymerization
30. Which of the following is the method of production of ethanol?
A. Fermentation of sugar
B. Fermentation of corn
C. Both A and B
31. For industrial purposes, ethanol is mainly produced by the
A. Hydration of ethylene
B. Fermentation of sugar
C. Fermentation of corn
32. Ethylene dichloride is produced as a by-product of
A. Direct chlorination of ethylene
B. Chlorinated hydrocarbon
C. Both A and B
33. Normally, for the manufacture of vinyl chloride, ethylene dichloride
thermal pyrolysis and acetylene–hydrochloric acid reactions are
combined to maintain
A. Energy balance B. Chlorine balance C. Lead balance
284
34. In the ethylene dichloride thermal pyrolysis reaction, increasing

conversion beyond 50% causes
A. Increase in lead formation
B. Decrease in carbon formation
C. Increase in carbon formation
35. Ethylene oxide is obtained by
A. Direct oxidation of ethylene
B. Chlorohydrination of ethylene
C. Both A and B
36. Initially, ethylene oxide was made by ________ aqueous process
wherein Cl2 was ultimately disposed as CaCl2.
A. Chlorohydrin B. Catalytic oxidation
C. Both A and B
37. Monoethanolamine is soluble in
A. Water B. Chloroform C. Both A and B
38. Monoethanolamine is insoluble in benzene.
A. True B. False
39. Ethanol amines are used in the manufacture of detergents by reaction
with
A. Fatty acids B. Sodium chloride C. Both A and B
40. The traditional process of production of vinyl acetate involves the
reaction of acetylene and
A. Tetramethyl lead B. Fatty acids C. Acetic acid
41. The process that does not yield propylene is
A. Steam cracking of hydrocarbons
B. Direct pyrolysis of propane
C. Direct chlorination of propane
42. Methanol may be manufactured from
A. Methane B. Propylene C. Both A and B
43. Isoprene and cumene are manufactured directly from
A. Ethylene B. Propylene C. Both A and B
44. Acetaldehyde may be manufactured from
45. Esters, used for the manufacture of coating solvents, are prepared from
285
46. Hydrogen peroxide is prepared from

A. Epichlorohydrin B. Isopropanol C. Polyisoprene
47. The major feedstock for the manufacture of dodecyl benzene sulphonate
is
A. Methane B. Ethylene C. Propylene
48. Caprolactam is used
A. To manufacture nylon
B. To manufacture Glycerol
C. In dry cleaning
49. Phenols are manufactured from
A. Isopropanol B. Cumene C. Both A and B
50. Acrylonitrile is used in the manufacture of
A. Fibres B. Resins C. Both A and B
51. On industrial scale, it is not possible to economically produce glycerine
from propylene with the available technologies.
A. True B. False
52. Isopropanol is soluble in
A. Alcohol B. Water C. Both A and B
53. (CH3)2 CHOH is the chemical formula of
A. Isoprene B. Isopropanol C. Neither A nor B
54. Glycerine is also termed
A. Glycerol B. Glycol C. Both A and B
55. Glycerine is soluble in
A. Water B. Alcohol C. Both A and B
56. Glycerol is used in the manufacture of
A. Alkyl resins and plastics
B. Tobacco humidification
C. Both A and B
57. Through petrochemical processing, glycerol is manufactured from
A. Methane B. Propylene C. Neither A nor B
58. Which of the following is not an intermediate product formed during
the manufacture of glycerine from propylene?
A. Glycerol dichlorohydrin
B. Epichlorohydrin
C. Acetone
286
59. Synthetic glycerine may be manufactured from propylene via the

acrolein route.
A. True B. False
60. Free radicals are electrically neutral, highly reactive particles formed
by the rupture of C–C or C–H bonds.
A. True B. False
61. The thermal pyrolysis process started in
A. Early twentieth century
B. Mid-twentieth century
C. Later part of twentieth century
62. High pressure increases the rate of polymerization of hydrocarbons
and its throughput in refineries and petrochemical plants.
A. True B. False
63. Quenching of products made in refineries and petrochemical plants
is done to avoid back or side reaction of the products made under the
condition of ________ contact time and ________ temperature.
A. High; High B. Low; High C. Low; Low
64. Reduction in the surface area of catalyst due to continued steam
reactivation is termed
A. Poisoning B. Ageing C. Neither A nor B
65. A greater quantity of aromatics is formed in catalytic cracking than in
thermal cracking.
A. True B. False
66. Catalytic cracking has ________ ability to tolerate high-sulphur
feedstocks than thermal cracking.
67. In catalytic cracking, there is relatively ________ polymerization of
product than in thermal cracking.
A. Less B. Same C. High
68. The major demand of acetone is from
A. Chemical industry B. Explosives C. Pesticides
69. Acetone may be obtained as a co-product of glycerine–H2O2 process.
A. True B. False
70. Acetone is produced by
A. Oxidation of butane
B. Oxidation of propylene
C. Both A and B
287
71. Catalyst dehydrogenation of isopropanol is used for the production of

A. Acetone B. Glycerine C. Both A and B
72. Which of the following processes is termed Wacker process?
A. Oxidation of propylene
B. Oxidation of butane
C. Fermentation of molasses
73. Methyl/ethyl ketone has demand as a solvent.
A. True B. False
74. Cumene is another name of
A. Dodecyl benzene
B. Acetone
C. Isopropyl benzene
75. Cumene is soluble in
A. Water B. Alcohol C. Both A and B
76. Cumene is soluble in both water and ether.
A. True B. False
77. Acrylonitrile is insoluble in most organic solvents.
A. True B. False
78. Which of the following is not a process for production of
acrylonitrile?
B. Ethylene cyanohydrin pyrolysis
C. Acetaldehyde–hydrogen cyanide reaction
79. Acetaldehyde–hydrogen cyanide reaction is used for the production of
A. Glycerine B. Isoprine C. Acrylonitrile
80. Which of the following is not a product generated in the propylene
ammonia air oxidation process?
A. Acetonitrile
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Polyisopropyl benzene
81. In the propylene ammonia air oxidation reaction for the production
of acrylonitrile, the reaction is carried out in a fluidized-bed catalytic
reactor.
A. True B. False
288
82. The contact time for the propylene ammonia air oxidation reaction for
the production of acrylonitrile is about
A. Several hours B. Several minutes C. Several seconds
83. Isoprene is miscible with water.
A. True B. False
84. Isoprene is miscible with
A. Alcohols and ether
B. Ether and water
C. Alcohol and water
85. Polyisoprene has chemical resemblance to
A. Natural fibre B. Cotton C. Natural rubber
86. The acetone–acetylene reaction produces isoprene.
A. True B. False
87. ________ is generated as a by-product of isopentane or isopentene
dehydrogenation.
A. Cumene B. Isoprene C. Both A and B
88. Of all the processes for the production of isoprene, the most economical
reaction that produces high purity grade isoprene for polymerization
is
A. Propylene dimmer
B. Isobutylene formaldehyde reaction
C. Thermal cracking of naphtha or oil
89. The only use of isoprene is production of polyisoprene.
A. True B. False
90. The process for the production of propylene oxide is
A. Chlorhydrination of propylene
B. Direct oxidation of propylene
C. Both A and B
91. Chlorhydrination of propylene for the formation of propylene oxide is
a/an
A. Endothermic process
B. Exothermic process
C. Neutral process
92. Isoprene may be manufactured from
A. Propylene B. Pentane C. Both A and B
289
93. The process of dehydrogenation of butanes is called

A. Houdry process B. Sohio process C. Wacker process
94. Butadiene is not produced in the steam cracking of hydrocarbons.
A. True B. False
95. Butadiene is prepared by
A. The dehydrogenation and dehydration of ethanol
B. Steam cracking of hydrocarbons
C. Both A and B
96. Dehydrogenation of butylene leads to the formation of
A. Toluene B. Butadiene C. Neither A nor B
97. Aromatic raw materials are obtained from petroleum by
A. Solvent extraction of distillate fraction
B. Hydrodealkylation
C. Both A and B
98. Maleic anhydride is prepared from benzene.
A. True B. False
99. 6, 6-nylon fibre is produced by the oxidation of chlorobenzene.
A. True B. False
100. The oxidation of cyclohexane produces
A. Maleic anhydride
B. Adipic acid
C. Neither A nor B
101. A major portion of benzene is used to upgrade motor fuel.
A. True B. False
102. Aniline may be derived from benzene.
A. True B. False
103. Sodium benzoate is used as
A. Nylon
B. Foam
C. Food preservative
104. Naphthalene is used as
A. Insect repellent
B Foam
C. Neither A nor B
290
105. Which of the following is used in the preparation of disinfectants?

A. Dichlorotoluene
B. Metal naphthenate
C. Cresylic acid
106. Benzene hexachloride (BHC) is used for the preparation of
insecticides.
A. True B. False
107. Maleic anhydride is prepared directly from
A. Benzene
B. Xylene
C. Copper naphthenate
108. Benzoic acid is made from
A. Benzene B. Toluene C. Xylene
109. Benzoic acid is used for the preparation of
A. Food preservative B. Phenol C. Both A and B
110. p-Xylene stands for
A. Place xylene B. Pure xylene C. Para-xylene
111. m-Xylene stands for
A. Meta-xylene B. Most xylene C. Metallic xylene
112. Copper naphthenate is used to make antifouling paint.
A. True B. False
113. C6H4(CH3)2 is the chemical formula of
114. The number of isomers of xylene is
115. Terephthalic acid is made from
A. p-Xylene B. m-Xylene C. o-Xylene
116. o-Xylene stands for
A. Other xylene B. Ortho-xylene C. Neither A nor B
117. Tolune is made directly from
A. p-Xylene B. m-Xylene C. Neither A nor B
118. The chemical formula C10H8 represents
A. Toluene B. Xylene C. Naphthalene
291
119. The principal source of toluene is

B. Catalytic reforming of refinery streams
C. Neither A nor B
120. The major source of naphthalene in India is
A. Crude oil B. Natural gas C. Coal
121. Hydrodealkylation is the method of converting toluene and
dialkylbenzenes to
A. Xylene B. Benzene C. Naphthalene
122. Cumene peroxidation hydrolysis leads to the formation of
A. Benzene B. Toluene C. Phenol
123. Benzene sulphonate caustic fusion forms
A. Benzene B. Toluene C. Phenol
124. Phenol may be produced by
A. Direct oxidation of benzene
B. Two-stage oxidation of toluene
C. Both A and B
125. Phenol can be formed by
A. Benzene sulphonate caustic fusion
B. Chlorobenzene caustic hydrolysis
C. Both A and B
126. Cumene peroxide should be handled carefully because it is
A. Very acidic in nature and may cause burn
B. An explosive and may cause damage
C. Very volatile and evaporates easily
127. Which of the following is a method for production of phenol?
A. Raschig process B. Sohio process C. Wacker process
128. The by-product obtained with phenol in Raschig process is
A. Polychlorobenzene B. Hydrochloric acid C. Neither A nor B
129. Carbon monoxide is purified by
A. Copper liquid absorption method
B. Lead liquid absorption method
C. Neither A nor B
292
130. Ammonia is produced by

A. The partial oxidation of methane in the presence of nitrogen
B. The combination of hydrogen with atmospheric oxygen
C. Neither A nor B
131. What is the parent compound in fertilizers?
A. Hydrogen sulphide B. Ammonia C. Nitrogen oxide
132. Hydroformylation reactions (oxo reactions) are used for the production
of
A. o-Xylene B. m-Xylene C. Oxo alcohols
133. The most widely used process for ammonia production is
A. Puck process
B. Haber process
C. Le Chatelier’s process
134. The Pullman–Kellogg process is used for the production of
A. Acetone B. Dodecyl benzene C. Ammonia
135. The reaction of ammonia and carbon dioxide forms
A. Urea B. Carbo nitrate C. Neither A nor B
136. The most important solid fertilizer that contains about 45% nitrogen is
urea.
A. True B. False
137. The element used for the lining of reactor in urea process is
A. Selenium B. Uranium C. Titanium
138. Which of the following is used for the production of ammonium
nitrate?
A. Acetic acid B. Sulphuric acid C. Nitric acid
139. Diazine is a
A. Reducing agent B. Oxidizing agent C. Neutral agent
140. The carbon dioxide produced during the production of hydrogen for
the preparation of ammonia is
A. Vented to the atmosphere
B. Used for the preparation of dry ice
C. Both A and B
141. Methane was used during World War II mainly for the production of
A. Urea
B. Fertilizer
C. Ammonium nitrate
293
142. Syngas produced as an intermediate product during the manufacture

of methanol is a special mixture of
A. Hydrogen and carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen and carbon monoxide
C. Hydrogen and methane
143. Methanol is prepared
A. From syngas produced from methane
B. By direct oxidation of methane
C. Neither A nor B
144. The largest use of methanol is to prepare
A. Formaldehyde
B. Non-permanent antifreezes
C. Isobutyl alcohol
145. The by-product of methanol synthesis is
A. Formaldehyde
B. Non-permanent antifreezes
C. Isobutyl alcohol
146. A relatively newcomer to the methane-derived petrochemical family is
A. Ammonia B. Methanol C. Acetylene
147. Acetylene is prepared by
A. Controlled oxidation of natural gas
B. Combustion of natural gas
C. Dehydrogenation of natural gas
148. Which of the following is not prepared from acetylene?
A. Perchloroethylene
B. Acrylonitrile
C. Ammonium nitrate
149. Carbon black is prepared by
A. Oxidation of methane
B. Controlled combustion of methane
C. Dehydrogenation of natural gas
150. Which of the following is not used as a source of carbon black?
A. LPG
B. Petroleum distillate
C. Residual oil
294
151. Which of the following does not use hydrogen cyanide?

A. Ammonium nitrate B. Adiponitrile C. Acrylonitrile
152. Which of the following is not made from ethylene?
A. Polystyrene B. Ethylene diamine C. Acetaldehyde
153. Ethylene glycol is used for the production of
A. Chloroform B. Acetic acid C. Antifreeze
154. The second largest ethylene derivative is
A. Ethyl alcohol B. Polyethylene C. Ethylene oxide
155. Ethyl alcohol is not used as
A. Antifreeze
B. Solvent and extraction agent
C. Adiponitrile
156. Tetraethyl lead is used as
A. Antifreeze B. Antiknock C. Chloroform
157. Ethylene dichloride is produced
A. By the catalytic reaction of ethylene and chlorine
B. As a by-product in the manufacture of ethylene oxide by the
chlorohydrin route
C. Both A and B
158. Ethylene dichloride is used in the production of
A. Vinyl chloride B. Ethylene diamine C. Acetic acid
159. Ethylene diamine is produced by heating ethylene dichloride with
A. Carbon black
B. Ammonia
C. Ethylene dibromide
160. The term “petrochemicals” was first used in
A. Petroleum Products Handbook
B. Oil and Gas Journal
C. Neither A nor B
161. The commercial production of petrochemicals was started in
A. UK B. Germany C. USA
162. During World War II, acetone was used mainly for
A. Making airplane dope
B. Making gasoline
C. Making detergents
295
163. The oldest synthetic rubber is

A. Ethylene propylene rubber
B. Polychloroprene
C. Nitrile rubber
164. In petrochemical industry, SBR stands for
A. Supreme butadiene rubber
B. Synthetic butadiene rubber
C. Styrene butadiene rubber
165. Elastomers are
A. Low molecular weight unsaturated hydrocarbons
B. High molecular weight saturated hydrocarbons
C. High molecular weight unsaturated hydrocarbons
166. Polymers formed by the combination of same monomers are termed
A. Co-polymers
B. Homopolymers
C. Block co-polymers
167. Polymers formed from more than one type of monomer, but joined in
a regular sequence, are termed
A. Co-polymers
B. Homopolymers
C. Block co-polymers
168. Additional polymerization is not used for the formation of
A. Polyethylene B. Polystyrene C. Polytrioxane
169. _______ is a long chain, high-weight molecule of carbon which when
mixed with water forms a thick viscous fluid.
A. Polyester B. Polymer C. Polythene
170. _______ are compounds that react with free radicals during
polymerization to produce new free radicals which are not reactive
enough to add a new monomer thus resulting in the termination of
polymerization process.
A. Disproportionators B. Inhibitors C. Convertors
171. Compounds that can transfer an atom to the growing polymer chain
and themselves become free radicals with the ability to start a new
polymerization chain are termed
A. Accelerators
B. Inhibitors
C. Chain transfer agents
296
172. _______ are chemical compounds that possess a weak covalent bond
which easily breaks into two free radicals when subjected to heat.
A. Free radical initiators
B. Free radical inhibitors
C. Free radical propagators
173. Which of the following is not a free radical initiator?
A. Peroxide B. Hydroperoxide C. Phenols
174. Oxygen and ultraviolet light may be used as free radical initiators.
A. True B. False
175. Which of the following is not an example of ionic initiator in ionic
polymerization?
A. Protonic acid B. Lewis acids C. Metal alkyls
176. A carbonium ion is a group of atoms that contain a carbon atom
bearing only ________ electrons and ________ positive charge.
A. 6; 1 B. 5; 2 C. 4; 3
177. Polyethylene made by the coordination catalyst is essentially
A. Unbranched B. Branched C. Ring
178. Which of the following terms is used as a measure of the extent of
polymerization?
A. Melt viscosity B. Melt flow index C. Both A and B
179. A polymer with a high melt flow index has _______ melt viscosity.
A. Low B. Moderate C. High
Tough
1. Ethylene glycol is not obtained by
A. Direct oxidation of ethylene
B. Chlorohydrination of ethylene
C. Acetylene-hydrochloric acid reaction
2. Glycerine is known mainly for its
A. Moistening property
B. Lubrication property
C. Both A and B
3. As compared to all other processes based on ethylene or acetylene for
the production of acrylonitrile, the process regarded to be the most
economical is the
A. Wacker process B. Sohio process C. Raschig process
297
4. Which market is the biggest consumer of hydrazine?

A. Blowing agents
B. Agricultural chemicals
C. Water treatment
5. The yield of ethylene decreases with the ________ in the molecular
weight of feedstock.
A. Increase B. Decrease C. Neither A nor B
6. If 1 unit of heavy gas oil is cracked and 1 unit of ethane is cracked,
the ethylene yield from the heavy gas oil will be
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Approximately same
7. Acetylene is manufactured directly from
A. Alcohol fermentation
B. Calcium carbide
C. Neither A nor B
8. Gasoline is produced directly from
A. Ethanol B. Ethylene oxide C. Neither A nor B
9. Glycol is not extensively used in the manufacture of
A. Antifreeze B. Humectants C. Foam
10. The main ingredient in the manufacture of shoe sole is
A. S-type rubber
B. Reverse ratio rubber
C. PVC
11. The type of rubber mainly used in the manufacture of luggage is
A. S-type rubber
B. Reverse ratio rubber
C. Neither A nor B
12. Polystyrene is not used in the manufacture of
A. Housewares B. Mouldings C. Tiles
13. ________ is the ingredient of packaging material.
A. S-type rubber B. Polyether C. Polystyrene
14. ________ is used in the manufacture of proprietaries.
A. Ethanol B. Ethylene oxide C. Ethyl chloride
298
15. Proprietaries are made mainly from

A. Denatured alcohol B. Vinyl acetate C. Cellulose acetate
16. Vinyl chloride is produced directly from
A. Acrylonitrile
B. Ethylene dichloride
C. Polyethylene
17. Fibres, films, and mouldings are made from
A. Vinyl acetate
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Neither A nor B
18. Fire insulations are made from
A. Ethylene dichloride B. Polyethylene C. Both A and B
19. Adhesives and paint emulsions are made from
A. Acrylonitrile
B. Polyvinyl acetate
C. Cellulose acetate
20. ________ is used to manufacture pipes for the wellbore.
A. Vinyl chloride B. PVC C. Neither A nor B
21. Floor wax is made from
A. Emulsifiers B. Glycol C. PVC
22. S-type latex is made directly from
A. Styrene
B. Polyethylene
C. Ethylene dichloride
23. S-type rubber is manufactured from
A. Styrene
B. Polyethylene
24. Reverse ratio rubber is made from
A. Polyethylene
B. Styrene
25. Denatured alcohol is prepared from
A. Ethyl chloride B. Ethanol C. Ethyl oxide
299
26. Initially ethanol was formed by the fermentation of sugarcane juice.

A. True B. False
27. Vinyl chloride is manufactured directly by
A. Ethylene dichloride thermal pyrolysis
B. Direct chlorination of ethane to ethyl alcohol
C. Both A and B
28. For the direct oxidation of ethylene in order to produce ethylene oxide,
the catalyst used to expedite the process is
A. Ferric chloride B. Pumice C. Silver oxide
29. Ethylene oxide helps in the production of ethylene glycol by the
________ process.
A. Dehydration B. Hydration C. Neither A nor B
30. The chemical formula of monoethanol amine is
A. HOCH2CH2NH2 B. HOCH2NH2 C. CH2NH2
31. The principal reaction for the manufacture of ethanol amines is the
reaction between
A. Ethylene oxide and calcium
B. Ethylene oxide and sodium
C. Ethylene oxide and ammonia
32. The catalyst used for the production of acetaldehyde is
A. Fatty acid
B. Liquid copper salt catalyst
C. Neither A nor B
33. Propylene tetramer is produced directly from
A. Ethylene B. Propylene C. Butylene
34. Polyurethane used in making foams is manufactured from
A. Propylene B. Ethylene C. Both A and B
35. 2,4,D-pentachlorophenol is made from
A. Methane B. Ethylene C. Propylene
36. The petrochemical compound used in the manufacture of silicones is
A. Methacrylates B. Methyl chloride C. Ethylene oxide
37. Polymethacrylates are manufactured from
A. Methanol B. Acetone C. Both A and B
38. Dodecyl benzene sulphonate is used in the manufacture of
A. Adhesives B. Foams C. Detergents
300
39. Isoprene is used in the manufacture of

A. Explosives
B. Synthetic rubber products
C. Plasticizers
40. Glycerol produced from propylene may be used in the manufacture of
A. Explosives B. Synthetic rubber C. Foams
41. 2-ethylhexanol–DOP is used in the manufacture of
A. Plasticizers B. Rubbing alcohol C. Both A and B
42. 2-ethylhexanol–DOP is prepared from
A. Acetone B. Dodecyl benzene C. Butyraldehyde
43. Allyl chloride is also known as
A. Dichlorohydrin
B. Chlorohydrin
C. Epichlorohydrin
44. Which of the following is not a part of the process of manufacturing
glycerine from propylene?
A. Via allyl chloride
B. Via acrolein
C. Via aryl benzene sulphonate
45. Which of the following is not an intermediate product generated during
the manufacture of glycerine from propylene via acrolein.
A. Epichlorohydrin B. Acrolein C. Allyl alcohol
46. The treatment of hydrocarbon at high temperature to change its weight
is termed
A. Polymerization B. Cracking C. Pyrolysis
47. Catalytic cracking produces ________ quality of petrol from any crude
than thermal cracking.
A. Inferior B. Same C. Better
48. In refinery and petrochemical plants, for moving-bed reactors,
the requirement of steam is ________ compared to fluidized-bed
reactors.
A. Extremely low B. Excessive C. Somewhat more
49. The chemical formula of cumene is
A. C6H5CH(CH3)2 B. C6H5CHCH3 C. C6H5CH3
301
50. Cumene is produced by

A. Catalytic dehydrogenation of isopropanol
B. Propylene alkylation of benzene
C. Thermal cracking of benzene
51. Cumene was first developed as an octane additive for engine fuel.
A. True B. False
52. Phenol production from the cumene process is associated with the
production of acetone.
A. True B. False
53. Acetylene–hydrogen cyanide reaction results in the formation of
A. Glycerine B. Acrylonitrile C. Cumene
54. Propylene–ammonia air oxidation reaction results in the formation of
A. Glycerine B. Acrylonitrile C. Cumene
55. Ethylene cyanohydrin pyrolysis is the process of production of
cumene.
A. True B. False
56. The effluent from fluidized-bed catalytic reactor for the production
of acrylonitrile using propylene–ammonia air oxidation reaction is
scribbled with water to remove the desired products in an aqueous
solution, which is further fractionated to give wet acrylonitrile and
acetonitrile.
A. True B. False
57. Acetonitrile by-products are regarded as good solvents for the solvent
extraction of butadiene and other dienes.
A. True B. False
58. CH2=CH–CH=CH2 is the chemical formula of
A. Acetone B. Cumene C. Isoprene
59. Which of the following is not a reaction for the production of
isoprene?
A. Isobutylene–formaldehyde reaction
B. Acetone–acetylene reaction
C. Acetylene–hydrogen cyanide reaction
60. Methyl ethyl ketone–formaldehyde reaction is used for the production
of cumene.
A. True B. False
302
61. Isomerization of propylene dimmer leads to the production of

isoprene.
A. True B. False
62. The catalyst used in the propylene dimmer process for the production
of isoprene is
A. Maleic anhydride B. Tripropyl aluminium
C. Acrylonitrile
63. The pyrolysis of 2-methyl-2-pentene leads to the formation of
A. Isoprene B. Cumene C. Fatty acid
64. The pyrolysis of 2-methyl-2-pentene to isoprene is done in the presence
of the catalyst
A. Tripropyl aluminium
B. Hydrogen bromide
C. Neither A nor B
65. The residence time of reactants in the pyrolysis of 2-methyl-2-pentene
to isoprene is
A. Fraction of second
B. Fraction of minute
C. About an hour
66. Although polyisoprene has many properties of natural rubber, it lacks
good adhesion required for tire building.
A. True B. False
67. Both isoprene and butadiene can be polymerized with a stereospecific
catalyst in the same equipment to manufacture a range of cis-4-
polybutadiene–polyisoprene elastomer blends.
A. True B. False
68. Which of the following is directly prepared from butane?
A. Butane epoxide B. Butadiene C. Both A and B
69. Butanolamines are produced directly from
A. Butane epoxide B. Butadiene C. Butanol
70. Methyl ethyl ketone is made directly from
A. Butadiene B. Butanol C. Amyl alcohol
71. Amyl alcohol may be prepared from
A. Pentene B. Pentane C. Both A and B
72. Butyl acetate is prepared directly from
A. Butadiene B. Butanol C. Butane epoxide
303
73. The major use of butadiene is in the manufacture of

A. Synthetic rubber B. Synthetic fibres C. Both A and B
74. Naphtha cracking is used for the production of aromatics.
A. True B. False
75. Benzene is mostly used
A. As solvent
B. For motor fuels
C. For production of phenol
76. The major use of benzene is in
A. Phenol B. Styrene C. Both A and B
77. Benzene is used as a feedstock for the manufacture of sulphonated
detergents.
A. True B. False
78. Cyclohexane is predominantly formed from petroleum by
A. Catalytic hydrogenation of benzene
B. Direct fractionation of reforming stock
C. Both A and B
79. To produce 6,6-nylon fibre, adipic acid is condensed with
A. Aniline
B. Maleic anhydride
C. Hexamethylenediamine
80. Cyclohexane is an important intermediate in synthetic fibre
preparation.
A. True B. False
81. C6H6 is the chemical formula of
A. Toluene B. Xylene C. Benzene
82. Caprolactam is prepared directly from
A. Styrene B. Phenol C. Benzoic acid
83. Metal naphthenate is used as
A. Paint drier B. Nylon C. Both A and B
84. Alkyds are prepared from
A. Phthalic anhydride B. Isophthalic acid C. Both A and B
85. Polyesters are prepared from
A. Reverse ratio rubber
B. Dodecyl benzene sulphonate
C. Terephthalic acid
304
86. Benzene is used for the production of DDT.

A. True B. False
87. Isophthalic acid is made from
88. Phthalic anhydride is prepared from
89. C6H5CH3 is the chemical formula of
90. It is possible to obtain benzene from toluene and dialkylbenzenes.
A. True B. False
91. Naphthalene can be made from alkyl naphthalene by
A. Alkylation
B. Hydrodealkylation
C. Both A and B
92. Conversion of toluene to benzene is considered economic degradation
of toluene.
A. True B. False
93. The largest use of phenol is in
A. Plastic industry B. Insecticides C. Plywood
94. The chief product made from phenol is cheap thermosetting resin.
A. True B. False
95. Chlorobenzene–soda ash hydrolysis is a commercially feasible method
for the production of benzene.
A. True B. False
96. During the production of phenol by the oxidation of toluene, the
intermediate product obtained is benzoic acid.
A. True B. False
97. Which acid is commercially produced by oxidizing ammonia over a
platinum–rhodium wire gauze catalyst?
A. Acetic acid B. Nitric acid C. Sulphuric acid
98. The chemical used as nitrating agent for paraffin and aromatic
compounds is
A. Nitric acid B. Aniline C. Cumene
99. Hydrazine is produced by the
A. Raschig process B. PCUK process C. Both A and B
305
100. The anti-corrosion inhibitor in synthetic rubber is

A. Hydrazine B. Acrylonitrile C. Acetone
101. In the plastic industry, hexamethylenetetramine (HMTA) is known as
A. Urotropin B. Hexamine C. Cumene
102. In the pharmaceutical industry, HMTA is known as
A. Urotropin B. Hexamine C. Glycerine
103. Methyl chloride is predominantly produced by the
A. Chlorination of methane
B. Reaction between methanol and hydrogen chloride (vapour
phase)
C. Reaction between methanol and hydrochloric acid (liquid phase)
104. ________ is a compound that may be used for the production of
gasoline in the future.
A. Ammonia
B. Methanol
C. Monomethylamine
105. The research octane number (RON) of gasoline-produced natural gas
or coal is between
A. 60 and 70 B. 75 and 90 C. 90 and 100
106. Methanol can be used for the
A. Production of hydrogen
B. Production of single-cell proteins
C. Both A and B
107. The chemical formula of tetrafluoroethylene is
A. CF3=CF3 B. CF2=CF2 C. CHF=CHF
108. Carbon disulphide is used for the production of
A. Regenerated cellulose
B. Carbon tetrachloride
C. Both A and B
109. The process used for the production of hydrogen cyanide from methane,
ammonia, and air (oxygen) is called
A. Puck process
B. Andrussow process
C. Sohio process
306
110. A process developed in Germany to produce hydrogen cyanide that

uses only methane and ammonia over a platinum catalyst at 1200°C
to 1300°C is called
A. Degussa process
B. Andrussow process
C. Sohio process
111. The yield of hydrogen cyanide produced in the Degussa process is
about
A. 76% B. 79% C. 83%
112. The high molecular weight n-paraffins (C8–C30) are extracted from the
appropriate refinery streams by the
A. Transcat process
B. Molecular sieve process
C. Sohio process
113. The process of production of vinyl chloride from ethane is called
A. Oshio process B. Haber process C. Transcat process
114. The chemical formula of trichloroethylene is
A. CHCl=CCl2 B. CHCl2=CCl2 C. CHCl=CCl
115. The compound used as an additive in fuels of racing cars is
A. Nitropropane B. Nitromethane C. Nitroethane
116. The compound proposed as an alternative for propylene in the
production of acrylonitrile is
A. Ethane B. Propane C. Nitropropane
117. The process used for the production of acetic acid is
A. Celanese process
B. Haber process
C. Andrussow process
118. ________ is relatively a slow, stepwise reaction in which functional
group reactions occur repeatedly to build up a polymer.
A. Thermocondensate
B. Polycondensate
C. Hydrocondensate
119. The chemical formula of hydrofluoric acid is
A. HF B. H2F C. H2F2
307
120. The polymers in which monomers alternate in a regular manner as in

the polymers formed between styrene and butadiene are termed
A. Cross-linked polymers
B. Random co-polymers
C. Alternating co-polymers
121. Styrene and butadiene are examples of
A. Alternating co-polymers
B. Random co-polymers
C. Cross-linked polymers
122. Which of the following is an example of inhibitor of free radical
polymerization?
A. Amines
B. Quinones
C. Cumene hydroperoxide
123. ________ can be polymerized using cationic initiators.
A. Vinyl monomers
B. Dienes
C. Both A and B
124. The most widely used polymerization process on the basis of formation
reaction is
A. Anionic polymerization
B. Cationic polymerization
C. Free radical polymerization
125. In the 1950s, the discovery of titanium catalyst opened a new era for
the polymerization of ethylene at lower pressures. Who discovered
titanium catalyst?
A. Inhausen
B. Knutsson and Berglund
C. Karl Ziegler
126. The impact tensile strength of a polymer ________ with increasing
melt flow index (MFI).
A. Increases B. Remains same C. Decreases
127. The Arco process for the production of LDPE uses
A. Tubular reactor B. Stirred reactor C. Neither A nor B
308
128. The free radical initiator used in the Arco process for the production
of LDPE is
A. Oxygen B. Peroxide C. Both A and B
129. In the Arco process for the production of LDPE, the degree of branching
and molecular weight distribution of the product depends on
A. Pressure B. Temperature C. Both A and B
130. In the Arco process for the production of LDPE, increasing the pressure
and decreasing the temperature in the reactor produces a polymer
with
A. Low density and broad molecular weight distribution
B. High density and a narrow molecular weight distribution
C. Low density and a narrow molecular weight distribution
131. Direct oxidation of propane will not produce
A. Urea B. Acetone C. Acetaldehyde
132. Propylene is more important in actual petrochemical process than
propane.
A. True B. False
133. Isopropyl alcohol is the most important chemical derived from
propylene.
A. True B. False
134. Isopropanol is derived from propylene by
A. Oxidation B. Hydration C. Polymerization
135. The most important use of isopropanol is
A. The conversion of acetone by dehydrogenation
B. As an antifreeze
C. For rubbing alcohol
136. Which of the following is not a function of acetone?
A. Manufacture of plastic
B. Extractant
C. Artificial gasoline
137. Chlorohydrination of propylene gives
A. Isopropylene B. Propylene oxide C. Propylene trimer
138. Hydration of propylene does not give
A. Propylene glycol
B. Diethylene glycol
C. Dipropylene glycol
309
139. Chlorination of propylene gives

A. Allyl alcohol
B. Epichlorohydrin
C. Both A and B
140. The petrochemical that is not an intermediate for the manufacture of
synthetic glycerine is
A. Acrylonitrile B. Epichlorohydrin C. Allyl alcohol
141. Acrolein is prepared by
A. Direct oxidation of propylene
B. Alkyl alcohol oxidation
C. Both A and B
142. Cumene is produced by the alkylation of propylene with
A. Benzene B. Toluene C. Para-xylene
143. Polypropylene is a competitor of
A. Polyethylene B. Styrene resins C. Both A and B
144. Cumene is used to produce
A. Phenol B. Methyl styrene C. Both A and B
145. Butane and propane are the major constituents of
A. LPG B. PNG C. CNG
146. Butane is blended with gasoline to
A. Increase volatility
B. Decrease engine corrosion
C. Increase octane number in gasoline
147. Which of the following is not a feedstock of polygasoline?
A. Propylene B. Methane C. Butane
148. Which of the following is not a feedstock of alkylate?
A. Propylene B. Methane C. Butane
149. During catalytic dehydrogenation, butane may be converted to
butadiene without the separation of the intermediate butylene.
A. True B. False
150. There can be butylenes other than 1-butene, 2-butene, and isobutylene.
A. True B. False
310
151. GR-S stands for

A. Government rubber-synthetic base
B. Government rubber-styrene base
C. Government rubber-system base
152. GR-N stands for
A. Government rubber-normal base
B. Government rubber-nitrile base
C. Government rubber-national base
153. Which of the following is not a major constituent of GR-S synthetic
rubber?
A. Carbon tetrachloride
B. Styrene
C. Butadiene
154. MEK stands for
A. Methyl ethyl ketone
B. Methyl ether ketone
C. Methanol ether ketone
155. Which of the following has the highest molecular weight?
A. Para-xylene B. Toluene C. Benzene
156. Petro Alcohol was developed by
A. John D Rockefeller
B. Carlton Ellis
C. Benjamin Silliman
157. Which company developed Petro Alcohol?
A. Elco Chemicals Inc.
B. Standard Oil Company
C. Total Oil Company
158. Standard Oil Company formed its New Jersey plant in 1919 for the
production of
A. Aromatics B. Isopropyl alcohol C. Benzene
159. In 1920, Standard Oil Company started marketing of isopropyl alcohol
with the trade name
A. Chemicohol B. Petroleum alcohol C. Petrohol
160. The second most important product derived from methane is
A. Ammonia B. Methyl alcohol C. Isobutyl alcohol
311
Answers
Answers
Chapter 2: GENERAL

Easy
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B)
9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (C)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (A)
17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (A)
25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (B)
33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B)
37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (A)
45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (B)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (A) 52. (C)
53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (C)
57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B)
65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B)
69. (B) 70. (C) 71. (A) 72. (B)
73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (A)
77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (C)
85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (B) 91. (B) 92. (C)
93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (B) 96. (C)
97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (C) 100. (B)
101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (B)
105. (A) 106. (A) 107. (C) 108. (A)
109. (B) 110. (A) 111. (A) 112. (C)
113. (B) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B)
117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (C) 120. (A)
121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B)
315
125. (B) 126. (A) 127. (C) 128. (C)

129. (A) 130. (A) 131. (A) 132. (B)
133. (A) 134. (C) 135. (A) 136. (B)
137. (A) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (C)
141. (A) 142. (A) 143. (A) 144. (B)
145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B)
149. (C) 150. (C) 151. (A) 152. (A)
153. (C) 154. (A) 155. (B) 156. (C)
157. (C) 158. (C) 159. (A) 160. (B)
161. (C) 162. (A) 163. (A) 164. (A)
165. (B) 166. (A) 167. (C) 168. (A)
169. (B) 170. (A) 171. (A) 172. (C)
173. (C) 174. (B) 175. (B) 176. (A)
177. (B) 178. (B) 179. (A) 180. (A)
181. (B) 182. (C) 183. (A) 184. (C)
185. (A) 186. (B) 187. (C) 188. (A)
189. (C) 190. (B) 191. (B) 192. (A)
193. (B) 194. (A) 195. (A) 196. (A)
197. (A) 198. (A) 199. (A) 200. (A)
201. (A) 202. (A) 203. (A) 204. (A)
205. (A) 206. (A) 207. (A) 208. (A)
209. (C) 210. (A) 211. (B) 212. (A)
213. (A) 214. (C) 215. (B) 216. (C)
217. (B) 218. (A) 219. (B) 220. (A)
221. (B) 222. (B) 223. (B) 224. (B)
225. (C) 226. (C) 227. (B) 228. (C)
229. (C) 230. (A) 231. (A) 232. (C)
233. (B) 234. (A) 235. (B) 236. (B)
Medium
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B)
9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (A)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (A)
17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A)
316
Answers
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B)

25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (C)
33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C)
37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (B)
45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (B)
49. (A) 50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (C)
53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (A)
57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (A)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (C)
69. (C) 70. (C) 71. (C) 72. (A)
73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (A) 76. (A)
77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A)
81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (B)
85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (B) 91. (A) 92. (A)
93. (A) 94. (B) 95. (C) 96. (A)
97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (A) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (B)
105. (B) 106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (B)
109. (B) 110. (C) 111. (B) 112. (B)
113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (C) 116. (C)
117. (A) 118. (B) 119. (B) 120. (C)
121. (C) 122. (C) 123. (A) 124. (B)
125. (A) 126. (A) 127. (B) 128. (A)
129. (C) 130. (C) 131. (B) 132. (B)
133. (B) 134. (C) 135. (B) 136. (B)
137. (B) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (B)
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (C) 144. (C)
145. (C) 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (A)
149. (A) 150. (A) 151. (B) 152. (A)
153. (C) 154. (B) 155. (A) 156. (B)
317
157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (B) 160. (B)

161. (B) 162. (B) 163. (C) 164. (A)
165. (B) 166. (A) 167. (C) 168. (C)
169. (B) 170. (A) 171. (B) 172. (A)
173. (A) 174. (B) 175. (B) 176. (B)
177. (A) 178. (B) 179. (B) 180. (A)
181. (C) 182. (A) 183. (C) 184. (B)
185. (C) 186. (A) 187. (C) 188. (B)
189. (B) 190. (B) 191. (B) 192. (C)
193. (C) 194. (B) 195. (B) 196. (C)
197. (A) 198. (A) 199. (C) 200. (A)
201. (A) 202. (A) 203. (A) 204. (A)
205. (A) 206. (A) 207. (B) 208. (B)
209. (B) 210. (B) 211. (B) 212. (C)
213. (A) 214. (A) 215. (B) 216. (B)
217. (C) 218. (C) 219. (B) 220. (A)
221. (B) 222. (B) 223. (C) 224. (C)
225. (B) 226. (B) 227. (C) 228. (A)
229. (A) 230. (B) 231. (A) 232. (B)
233. (A) 234. (B) 235. (C) 236. (C)
237. (A) 238. (A) 239. (C) 240. (A)
241. (A) 242. (A) 243. (A) 244. (B)
245. (B) 246. (B) 247. (C) 248. (C)
249. (B) 250. (B) 251. (A) 252. (A)
253. (A) 254. (B) 255. (B) 256. (B)
257. (B) 258. (A) 259. (C) 260. (C)
261. (C) 262. (B) 263. (A) 264. (C)
265. (C) 266. (A) 267. (A) 268. (A)
269. (A) 270. (A) 271. (A) 272. (C)
273. (C) 274. (C) 275. (A) 276. (B)
277. (C) 278. (A) 279. (C) 280. (C)
281. (A) 282. (A) 283. (A) 284. (B)
285. (B) 286. (C) 287. (C) 288. (C)
289. (C) 290. (C) 291. (B) 292. (C)
318
Answers
293. (B) 294. (B) 295. (C) 296. (A)

297. (A) 298. (B) 299. (B) 300. (A)
301. (B) 302. (A) 303. (A) 304. (B)
305. (B) 306. (B) 307. (C) 308. (C)
309. (A) 310. (B) 311. (A) 312. (C)
313. (A) 314. (B) 315. (C) 316. (C)
317. (B) 318. (B) 319. (C) 320. (B)
321. (C) 322. (A) 323. (C) 324. (A)
325. (C) 326. (B) 327. (B) 328. (A)
329. (B) 330. (A) 331. (A) 332. (B)
333. (B) 334. (B) 335. (B) 336. (A)
337. (A) 338. (A) 339. (A) 340. (A)
341. (A) 342. (A) 343. (B) 344. (B)
345. (C) 346. (A) 347. (A) 348. (C)
349. (A) 350. (B) 351. (A) 352. (A)
353. (A) 354. (B) 355. (C) 356. (B)
357. (B) 358. (A) 359. (A) 360. (B)
361. (B) 362. (A) 363. (C) 364. (A)
365. (B) 366. (A) 367. (C) 368. (B)
369. (C) 370. (C) 371. (C) 372. (C)
373. (C) 374. (C) 375. (B) 376. (B)
377. (A) 378. (C) 379. (B) 380. (A)
381. (A) 382. (B) 383. (C) 384. (C)
385. (C) 386. (C) 387. (B) 388. (B)
389. (A) 390. (B) 391. (A) 392. (A)
393. (A) 394. (B) 395. (B) 396. (A)
397. (A) 398. (C) 399. (C) 400. (C)
401. (C) 402. (A) 403. (C) 404. (A)
405. (A) 406. (B) 407. (A) 408. (B)
409. (A) 410. (B) 411. (C) 412. (A)
413. (B) 414. (A) 415. (C) 416. (A)
417. (B) 418. (C) 419. (C) 420. (C)
421. (B) 422. (A) 423. (C) 424. (A)
425. (C) 426. (C) 427. (A) 428. (A)
319
429. (C) 430. (B) 431. (C) 432. (B)

433. (C) 434. (C) 435. (A) 436. (A)
437. (B) 438. (B) 439. (B) 440. (C)
441. (B) 442. (A) 443. (A) 444. (C)
445. (C) 446. (B) 447. (A) 448. (A)
449. (A) 450. (B) 451. (A) 452. (C)
453. (A) 454. (A) 455. (C) 456. (A)
457. (B) 458. (C) 459. (A) 460. (A)
461. (C) 462. (B) 463. (C) 464. (A)
465. (A) 466. (C) 467. (B) 468. (C)
469. (A) 470. (C) 471. (B) 472. (A)
473. (A) 474. (C) 475. (B)
Tough
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C)
5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A)
9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C)
17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (B)
25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A)
29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (A)
33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (B)
37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (A)
45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A)
49. (A) 50. (B) 51. (A) 52. (A)
53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (A)
57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A)
65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (C)
69. (B) 70. (A) 71. (A) 72. (A)
73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (B)
77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A)
81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (C) 84. (C)
320
Answers
85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (C)

89. (C) 90. (B) 91. (B) 92. (B)
93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (C) 96. (C)
97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (B) 102. (C) 103. (B) 104. (B)
105. (A) 106. (A) 107. (C) 108. (A)
109. (B) 110. (A) 111. (B) 112. (A)
113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (C) 116. (C)
117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (C) 120. (B)
121. (B) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (C)
125. (B) 126. (A) 127. (A) 128. (C)
129. (C) 130. (B) 131. (C) 132. (B)
133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (A) 136. (B)
137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (B)
141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (A) 144. (B)
145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (A) 148. (B)
149. (A) 150. (A) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (A) 156. (B)
157. (C) 158. (A) 159. (C) 160. (A)
161. (A) 162. (B) 163. (B) 164. (A)
165. (A) 166. (A) 167. (A) 168. (C)
169. (C) 170. (B) 171. (B) 172. (A)
173. (A) 174. (A) 175. (C) 176. (C)
177. (C) 178. (C) 179. (C) 180. (A)
181. (B) 182. (C) 183. (B) 184. (A)
185. (A) 186. (C) 187. (A) 188. (B)
189. (B) 190. (B) 191. (C) 192. (C)
193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (C) 196. (C)
197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (A) 200. (A)
201. (B) 202. (A) 203. (A) 204. (A)
205. (B) 206. (C) 207. (A) 208. (B)
209. (A) 210. (C) 211. (C) 212. (B)
213. (C) 214. (A) 215. (C) 216. (A)
217. (C) 218. (A) 219. (C) 220. (A)
321
221. (A) 222. (C) 223. (A) 224. (A)

225. (C) 226. (C) 227. (C) 228. (C)
229. (A) 230. (B) 231. (B) 232. (C)
233. (A) 234. (A) 235. (A) 236. (C)
237. (B) 238. (C) 239. (B) 240. (B)
241. (C) 242. (A) 243. (A) 244. (C)
245. (A) 246. (C) 247. (C) 248. (C)
249. (C) 250. (A) 251. (C) 252. (A)
253. (C) 254. (C) 255. (C) 256. (C)
257. (B) 258. (C) 259. (C) 260. (B)
261. (B) 262. (C) 263. (B) 264. (C)
265. (A) 266. (A) 267. (C) 268. (A)
Chapter 3: EXPLORATION AND PRODUCTION

Easy
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A)
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (B)
9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (A)
13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (A)
17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A)
25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (C) 32. (B)
33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (B)
37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (A)
45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B)
49. (A) 50. (B) 51. (A) 52. (B)
53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (B)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (A)
69. (A) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (B)
73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (A) 76. (B)
322
Answers
77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (C)

81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (B)
85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (B)
89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (A)
93. (A) 94. (B) 95. (A) 96. (B)
97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (A)
101. (A) 102. (B) 103. (A) 104. (A)
105. (B) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (B) 110. (A) 111. (A) 112. (A)
113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (A) 116. (C)
117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (A) 120. (C)
121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B)
125. (C) 126. (A) 127. (C) 128. (C)
129. (C) 130. (A) 131. (A) 132. (A)
133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (B) 136. (C)
137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (C)
141. (C) 142. (B) 143. (B) 144. (A)
145. (C) 146. (B) 147. (A) 148. (C)
149. (C) 150. (B) 151. (A) 152. (C)
153. (A) 154. (A) 155. (B) 156. (A)
157. (A)
Medium
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C)
9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (C)
17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (C)
25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (A)
29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B)
33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B)
37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (A)
45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (A)
323
49. (A) 50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (A)

53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C)
57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A)
65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (C)
69. (B) 70. (A) 71. (A) 72. (B)
73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (A) 76. (C)
77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A)
85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (B)
89. (A) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (C)
93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (C) 96. (B)
97. (B) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (B)
101. (C) 102. (B) 103. (B) 104. (B)
105. (C) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (C)
109. (B) 110. (C) 111. (C) 112. (B)
113. (B) 114. (A) 115. (A) 116. (C)
117. (A) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)
121. (B) 122. (A) 123. (B) 124. (B)
125. (C) 126. (B) 127. (A) 128. (A)
129. (A) 130. (B) 131. (B) 132. (A)
133. (C) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (C)
137. (B) 138. (B) 139. (A) 140. (A)
141. (B) 142. (C) 143. (C) 144. (A)
145. (B) 146. (C) 147. (B) 148. (C)
149. (C) 150. (A) 151. (A) 152. (B)
153. (C) 154. (B) 155. (C) 156. (B)
157. (A) 158. (C) 159. (B) 160. (A)
161. (B) 162. (B) 163. (A) 164. (B)
165. (A) 166. (B) 167. (A) 168. (A)
169. (C) 170. (C) 171. (B) 172. (C)
173. (A) 174. (B) 175. (A) 176. (C)
177. (A) 178. (A) 179. (B) 180. (A)
181. (C) 182. (C) 183. (C)
324
Answers
Tough
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C)
5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C)
9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (C)
13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (B)
17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (A)
25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (B)
29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (B)
33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (C)
37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (B)
45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B)
49. (C) 50. (C) 51. (C) 52. (B)
53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (C) 56. (C)
57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A)
65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B)
69. (A) 70. (C) 71. (C) 72. (C)
73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (C)
77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (C)
85. (C) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (C) 91. (B) 92. (A)
93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (A) 96. (A)
97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (A) 100. (A)
101. (B) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (C)
105. (A) 106. (C) 107. (C) 108. (A)
109. (B) 110. (B) 111. (A) 112. (B)
113. (B) 114. (B) 115. (A) 116. (A)
117. (B) 118. (B) 119. (C) 120. (B)
121. (C) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (A)
125. (B) 126. (C) 127. (C) 128. (A)
129. (A) 130. (B) 131. (A) 132. (C)
325
133. (C) 134. (A) 135. (C) 136. (A)

137. (B) 138. (C) 139. (C) 140. (C)
141. (A) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (B)
145. (C) 146. (B) 147. (A) 148. (B)
149. (C) 150. (B) 151. (C) 152. (C)
153. (A) 154. (C) 155. (C) 156. (B)
157. (A) 158. (C) 159. (B)
Chapter 4: Refining

Easy
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A)
9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (C)
17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A)
25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A)
29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (B)
33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (C)
37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B)
45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (C)
49. (C) 50. (A) 51. (A) 52. (B)
53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (A)
57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)
61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (C)
65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (A)
69. (A) 70. (A) 71. (A) 72. (A)
73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (A)
77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (A) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (B) 91. (B) 92. (A)
93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (A) 96. (A)
326
Answers
97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (A)

101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (A)
105. (A) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (A) 110. (A) 111. (B) 112. (B)
113. (A) 114. (C) 115. (A) 116. (C)
117. (B) 118. (B) 119. (B) 120. (A)
121. (A) 122. (B) 123. (A) 124. (A)
125. (A) 126. (B) 127. (A) 128. (A)
129. (A) 130. (A) 131. (B) 132. (C)
133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (B) 136. (B)
137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (B)
141. (C) 142. (B) 143. (A) 144. (A)
145. (C) 146. (B) 147. (A) 148. (B)
149. (A) 150. (C) 151. (A) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (A) 155. (A) 156. (B)
157. (B) 158. (A) 159. (A) 160. (B)
161. (B) 162. (B)
Medium
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A)
9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (A)
13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A)
17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A)
25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (C) 30. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A)
33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A)
37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (B)
45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (C)
49. (C) 50. (C) 51. (C) 52. (A)
53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (A)
57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (C)
327
65. (A) 66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (A)

69. (B) 70. (B) 71. (C) 72. (C)
73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (A) 76. (B)
77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (C)
85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C)
89. (C) 90. (A) 91. (B) 92. (C)
93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (A) 96. (B)
97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (C)
101. (A) 102. (B) 103. (B) 104. (A)
105. (C) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (C) 110. (B) 111. (A) 112. (C)
113. (A) 114. (A) 115. (C) 116. (B)
117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (A) 120. (A)
121. (A) 122. (C) 123. (C) 124. (A)
125. (A) 126. (B) 127. (B) 128. (B)
129. (B) 130. (C) 131. (C) 132. (A)
133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (B) 136. (C)
137. (C) 138. (B) 139. (A) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (B) 144. (A)
145. (B) 146. (C) 147. (C) 148. (B)
149. (A) 150. (B) 151. (A) 152. (A)
153. (C) 154. (B) 155. (B) 156. (C)
157. (B) 158. (A) 159. (C) 160. (B)
161. (B) 162. (C) 163. (C) 164. (C)
165. (C) 166. (A) 167. (A) 168. (C)
169. (C) 170. (C) 171. (B) 172. (A)
173. (B) 174. (B) 175. (A) 176. (A)
177. (A) 178. (A) 179. (A) 180. (A)
181. (B) 182. (C) 183. (A) 184. (B)
185. (A) 186. (C) 187. (C) 188. (A)
189. (A) 190. (C) 191. (A) 192. (C)
193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (A) 196. (A)
197. (A) 198. (A) 199. (A) 200. (A)
328
Answers
201. (C) 202. (A) 203. (C) 204. (B)

205. (A) 206. (B) 207. (C) 208. (B)
209. (B) 210. (C) 211. (C) 212. (C)
213. (A) 214. (A) 215. (A) 216. (A)
217. (B) 218. (C) 219. (A) 220. (B)
221. (A) 222. (C) 223. (C) 224. (A)
225. (A) 226. (A) 227. (A)
Tough
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C)
5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A)
9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C)
13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (B)
17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A)
25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A)
29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (B) 32. (B)
33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (B)
37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B)
45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (A)
49. (B) 50. (C) 51. (C) 52. (C)
53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (C)
61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (B)
65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A)
69. (B) 70. (C) 71. (A) 72. (C)
73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (B)
77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (A) 80. (A)
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (C)
85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (A)
89. (C) 90. (A) 91. (B) 92. (C)
93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (A)
97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (A)
101. (B) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (A)
329
105. (C) 106. (C) 107. (A) 108. (C)

109. (B) 110. (A)
Chapter 5: NATURAL GAS

Easy
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A)
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C)
17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A)
29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (C)
33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (B)
37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (A)
45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (C)
49. (B) 50. (A) 51. (A) 52. (B)
53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (A) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (B)
65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B)
69. (A) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (A)
73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (C)
77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (C) 84. (A)
85. (A) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C)
89. (A) 90. (B) 91. (B) 92. (B)
93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (B)
97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (A) 100. (A)
101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (C)
105. (C) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (A) 110. (B) 111. (A) 112. (B)
113. (A) 114. (A) 115. (A) 116. (A)
330
Answers
117. (A) 118. (A) 119. (B) 120. (B)

121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (A)
125. (B) 126. (B) 127. (B) 128. (C)
129. (B) 130. (B) 131. (B) 132. (B)
133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (A) 136. (A)
137. (A) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (A)
141. (A) 142. (A) 143. (A) 144. (B)
145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (A) 148. (A)
149. (A) 150. (C) 151. (A) 152. (A)
153. (A) 154. (B) 155. (B) 156. (A)
157. (A) 158. (A) 159. (A) 160. (B)
161. (A) 162. (A) 163. (A) 164. (A)
165. (A) 166. (B) 167. (A) 168. (C)
169. (A) 170. (B) 171. (B) 172. (B)
173. (A) 174. (C) 175. (C) 176. (C)
177. (B) 178. (A) 179. (B) 180. (B)
Medium
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A)
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A)
9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (A)
17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (C)
29. (C) 30. (B) 31. (B) 32. (A)
33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (C)
37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (C)
45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (B)
53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (A)
57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (A)
61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (B)
65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (B)
331
69. (A) 70. (A) 71. (C) 72 (B)

73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C) 76. (A)
77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (C)
89. (A) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (C)
93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (A) 96. (A)
97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (A)
101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (A)
105. (B) 106. (B) 107. (A) 108. (B)
109. (B) 110. (A) 111. (C) 112. (A)
113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B) 116. (B)
117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (C) 120. (A)
121. (C) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B)
125. (C) 126. (A) 127. (C) 128. (B)
129. (B) 130. (C) 131. (B) 132. (C)
133. (B) 134. (C) 135. (B) 136. (C)
137. (C) 138. (C) 139. (B) 140. (C)
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (C) 144. (A)
145. (C) 146. (A) 147. (A) 148. (C)
149. (A) 150. (B) 151. (B) 152. (A)
153. (A) 154. (A) 155. (B) 156. (C)
157. (B) 158. (A) 159. (C) 160. (B)
161. (B) 162. (A) 163. (B) 164. (A)
165. (C) 166. (A) 167. (C) 168. (C)
169. (C) 170. (C) 171. (B) 172. (C)
173. (A) 174. (B) 175. (B) 176. (A)
177. (A) 178. (B) 179. (A) 180. (B)
181. (A) 182. (B) 183. (B) 184. (B)
185. (C) 186. (B) 187. (B) 188. (A)
189. (C)
Tough
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C)
5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A)
332
Answers
9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C)

13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (A)
17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A)
25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B)
33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (C)
37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (C)
45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (B)
49. (A) 50. (B) 51. (C) 52. (A)
53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A)
57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (A)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (A)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (A)
69. (A) 70. (A) 71. (B) 72. (A)
73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (B)
77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (B)
85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (B)
89. (A) 90. (A) 91. (B) 92. (C)
93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (A) 96. (B)
97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (A)
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (C)
105. (B) 106. (B) 107. (C) 108. (A)
109. (B) 110. (C) 111. (A) 112. (A)
113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (A) 116. (C)
117. (B) 118. (A) 119. (B) 120. (C)
121. (C)
Chapter 6: PETROCHEMICALS

Easy
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (A)
5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A)
333
9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)

13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (A)
17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A)
25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A)
29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (A)
33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (B)
37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A)
45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (B)
49. (C) 50. (A) 51. (A) 52. (A)
53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (A)
57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B)
65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (A)
69. (B) 70. (C) 71. (B) 72. (B)
73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (A) 76. (B)
77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C)
89. (C) 90. (A) 91. (C) 92. (C)
93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (C) 96. (A)
97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (B) 103. (B) 104. (B)
105. (B) 106. (B) 107. (C) 108. (A)
109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (C) 112. (C)
113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (C) 116. (C)
117. (A) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (C)
121. (A) 122. (B) 123. (B) 124. (B)
125. (A) 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (A)
129. (C) 130. (B) 131. (B) 132. (A)
133. (B) 134. (C) 135. (B) 136. (B)
137. (B) 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (B)
141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (B) 144. (A)
334
Answers
145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (A)

149. (B) 150. (B) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (B) 155. (A) 156. (A)
157. (A) 158. (B) 159. (B) 160. (B)
Medium
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C)
5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B)
9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (C)
13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (A)
17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A)
29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (A) 32. (C)
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (A)
37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C)
45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (A)
49. (B) 50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (C)
53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (C) 56. (C)
57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (A)
61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B)
65. (A) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (A)
69. (A) 70. (C) 71. (A) 72. (A)
73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (B)
77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (C)
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (A)
85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C)
89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (B) 92. (C)
93. (A) 94. (B) 95. (C) 96. (B)
97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (B)
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (A)
105. (C) 106. (A) 107. (A) 108. (B)
109. (C) 110. (C) 111. (A) 112. (A)
113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (A) 116. (B)
335
117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (B) 120. (C)

121. (B) 122. (C) 123. (C) 124. (C)
125. (C) 126. (B) 127. (A) 128. (A)
129. (A) 130. (C) 131. (B) 132. (C)
133. (B) 134. (C) 135. (A) 136. (A)
137. (C) 138. (C) 139. (A) 140. (C)
141. (C) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (A)
145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (A) 148. (C)
149. (B) 150. (A) 151. (A) 152. (C)
153. (C) 154. (A) 155. (C) 156. (B)
157. (C) 158. (C) 159. (B) 160. (B)
161. (C) 162. (A) 163. (B) 164. (C)
165. (C) 166. (B) 167. (B) 168. (C)
169. (B) 170. (B) 171. (C) 172. (A)
173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (C) 176. (A)
177. (A) 178. (C) 179. (A)
Tough
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (C)
9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B)
17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B)
25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C)
29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (B)
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (B)
37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C)
45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (B)
49. (A) 50. (B) 51. (A) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A)
57. (A) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (B)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (C)
336
Answers
69. (A) 70. (B) 71. (C) 72. (B)

73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (C) 76. (C)
77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (C)
85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C)
89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (B) 92. (B)
93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (A)
97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (A)
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (B)
105. (C) 106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (C)
109. (B) 110. (A) 111. (C) 112. (B)
113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B)
117. (A) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (C)
121. (A) 122. (C) 123. (C) 124. (C)
125. (C) 126. (C) 127. (A) 128. (C)
129. (C) 130. (C) 131. (C) 132. (A)
133. (A) 134. (B) 135. (A) 136. (C)
137. (B) 138. (B) 139. (C) 140. (A)
141. (C) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (C)
145. (A) 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B)
149. (A) 150. (B) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (A) 154. (A) 155. (A) 156. (B)
157. (A) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (B)
337
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Petrochemicals contains over 1500 questions
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

OIL, GAS, AND PETROCHEMICALS

It is a unique book of its kind for students pursuing

Techniques for Drilling

A well is generally drilled in various stages and is called a casing

application in various industrial processes. It may not be necessary that the

residual products. Catalytic reforming is one such reforming process that

Flash point of a hydrocarbon is the minimum temperature at which

15. In India, the integrated petroleum business is dominated by

26. The largest refinery in the world is

39. OPEC’s first headquarters was in

51. The BG Group‘s Indian subsidiary is

85. The National Auto Fuel Policy of India was launched in

112. The other name of methanol is

125. C10H8 is the chemical formula of

157. The full form of CNG is.

188. Most of the energy we use originally comes from

213. In the international market, crude oil is traded on volume basis.

224. The benchmark crude oil for Europe is

235. Ethanol is regarded as an alternative to

36. How are Darwin and LNG related?

46. Which publication of the IEA is recognized as an authoritative

55. Who was the first Executive Director of IEA?

68. What is added to bioethanol to convert it to ethyl tert-butyl ether

77. The Petronet India Limited (PIL) is a holding company promoted by

87. Which one of the following is a state-owned company?

96. How many countries are members of the IEA?

114. Which is the largest private refining company in India, in terms of

133. In India the second largest private sector refinery as on 1 April

153. The country Al-Mamlaka Al-Arabiya is popularly known as

178. Dry holes are also termed

190. An extensive region that is characterized by a similar geological history,

227. ______ is a term for discovered natural gas that is partially or

238. Australia’s largest oil and gas producer is

248. Reserves are expressed in terms of

272. What are moorings?

282. At international level, no institutional device has been established for

301. The OECD is associated with which organization?

311. Transportation vehicles, especially vehicles that run on non-petroleum

328. A method of reducing the atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide,

336. A process in a power plant, involving a combination of gas and steam

347. What are Centrica and BG?

390. In India, the responsibility of ensuring balanced growth in supply,

422. The import parity price of petroleum products in India is to be linked

433. The full form of the IPE exchange of London is

466. To encourage the production and use of biodiesel, the Government of

13. LPG is not used as a

22. Expandable refers to

47. The operator of the Sakhalin-II project is

60. Normally, OPEC Conference is held

82. The crude production from Sakhalin-II started in

95. The largest importer of LNG is

107. The estimated proven resources of Ghawar are about

115. Gasoline is termed as leaded gasoline if it contains more than ______

144. Electrical devices installed on underground metal piping to protect

151. What in drilling is an inverted U-shaped section of rigid piping

196. A process in which the distillate is treated with a caustic solution to

205. Algeria has been producing oil since

215. In well-testing jargon, what is the drop in reservoir pressure or

237. The largest future clearing house of the world is

247. The presence of contamination in the feedstock of RFCC may cause