1. Which of the following is not a Koch's postulate?

(a) The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue

(b) When inoculated in experimental animals, bacteria may or may not cause
disease

(c) Pure cultures can be obtained

(d) Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the
experimental animals

Ans b
2. To identify the key microorganisms in periodontal disease, Koch's criteria
have been modified by

(a) Socransky

(b) Glickman

(c) Russell

(d) Vermilion
Ans a
3. According to Glickman, maximum accumulation of plaque takes place in
approximately

(a) 7 days

(b) 15 days

(c) 30 days

(d) 60 days

Ans c
4. The bacterial density in saliva, on an average is about

(a) 500 million/ ml (b) 43 million/ml

(c) 750 million/ml (d) 87 million/ml ans c

5. After cleaning and pumicing the tooth surface, plaque formation takes place
within

(a) A few minutes (b) 1/2 to 1 hour (c) 2 to 4 hours (d) After 1 hour ans b

6. The depth of the clinical gingival sulcus is the distance between the gingival
margin to the

(a) Cementoenamel junction

(b) Alveolar crest

(c) Apical extension of the junctional epithelium

(d) Apical penetration of the probe ans d

7. The soft tissue- tooth interface that forms after flap surgery in a previously
denuded area is a

(a) Long junctional epithelium

(b) Collagen adhesion

(c) Scar tissue attachment

(d) Connective tissue attachment ans a

8. A periodontal pocket 8mm deep, having the junctional epithelium coronal

to the CE-junction is

(a) An infrabony pocket (b) A pseudopocket

(c) A true periodontal pocket (d) A furcation involvement ans b

9. The following lesions do not create gingival defects necessitating

gingivoplasty, except
(a) Erosive lichen planus (b) Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

(c) Acute herpetic

gingivostomatitis (d) Desquammative gingivitis

ans b
10. The severe alveolar bone loss seen in patients with juvenile periodontitis
is associated with

(a) Impaired osteoblastic activity

(b) Increased phagocytosis

(c) Increased macrophage migration

(d) Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis ans d

11. After enamel has been exposed to bacteria, irreversible bacterial

colonization takes place in about (a) 24 hours (b) Few minutes (c) 1-2 hours
(d) 2-4 hours

12. Which of the following organisms is NOT implicated in the etiology of

periodontal disease?

(a) Bacteriodes (b) Wolinella (c) Neisseria (d) Eikenella

13. Bacteria , which are not found in normal healthy periodontium, are

(a) Actinomyces (b) Capnocytophaga (c) Veillonella (d) Eubacterium

14. According to A.D.A., the acceptable dimensions of a tooth brush are

(a) 1-11/4 inch long, 5/16-3/8 inch wide, 2-4 rows, 5-12 tufts per row

(b) 1-11/2 inch long, 5/8-3/8 inch wide, 2-5 rows, 5-12 tkifts per row

(c) 11/2-2 inch long, 5/16-3/8 inch wide, 2-5 rows, 5-10 tufts per row

(d) 11/2-2 inch long, 5/8-3/16 inch wide, 2-5 rows, 5-10 tufts per row

15. Diameter of bristles used in soft tooth brushes is

(a) 0.007 inch (b) 0.012 inch (c) 0.014 inch (d) 0 009 inch

16. Trauma from occlusion is least likely to affect which of the following?

(a) Enamel (b) Cementum (c) Periodontal ligament (d) Epithelial attachment

17. Which of the following is not used as an abrasive in dentifrices?

(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Sodium chloride (c) Silicate (d) Amylose

18, Toothbrush abrasions are more common on the

(a) Mandibular teeth, on the right half of the arch

(b) Mandibular teeth, on the left half of the arch

(c) Maxillary teeth, on the right half of the arch

(d) Maxillary teeth, on the left half of the arch

19. Which dentifrices should be used for periodontal patients?

(a) Tooth powders with high abrasive content

(b) Tooth pastes with high abrasive content

(c) Tooth pastes with minimum abrasive content

(d) All of the above

20. The role of the plaque is most obscure in which of the following diseases?

(a) Gingivitis (b) Juvenile Periodontitis (c) Desquammative Gingivitis (d)

Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis

21. For periodontal patients, the most frequently recommended tooth

brushing technique is

(a) Scrub technique (b) Roll technique (c) Sulcular technique (d) Transverse
scrubbing technique

22. The bacterial flora associated with Juvenile Periodontitis is mainly

(a) Gram positive aerobic cocci (b) Gram positive anaerobic cocci

(c) Gram negative aerobic rods (d) Gram negative anaerobic rods

23. Dental floss should ideally be used in

(a) Type I embrasures (b) Type II embrasures (c) Type III embrasures (d) All
of the above
24. The probing depth of a clinically normal gingival sulcus is

(a) 0 or about 0 (b) 0-1 mm (c) 1-2 mm (d) 2-3 mm

25. If an osseous fill procedure is successful, the type of bone formed in the
defect is

(a) Cancellous (b) Bundle (c) Spongy (d) None of the above

26. The interdental col is more prone to periodontal disease because it

(a) Is covered with non keratinzed epithelium (b) Is difficult to clean

(c) Harbours bacterial plaque (d) All of the above

27. Apical migration of the Epithelial attachment with corresponding

recession of the marginal gingiva results in

(a) A shallow sulcus

(b) Gingival pocket formation

(c) lnfrabony pocket formation

(d) Periodontal pocket formation

28. The sulcular epithelium acts as a semipermeable membrane through

which

(a) Bacterial products pass into the gingiva

(b) Fluid from the gingiva seeps into the sulcus

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

29. "Indifferent fibers" are

(a) Elastic fibers (b) Oxytalan fibers (c) Collagen fibers (d) None of the above

30. Gingival clefts may be caused by

(a) Occlusal disharmonies (b) Faulty toothbrushing (c) Normal frenum

attachment (d) Use of dental floss
31. Tobacco chewing is thought to be a contributing/predisposing factor in
which condition?

(a) Desquammative gingivitis (b) ANUG (c) Juvenile periodontitis (d)

Erythema multiforme

32. The attached gingiva is

(a) Always stippled

(b) Non-keratinized

(c) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces

(d) Resistant to inflammatory changes

33. The type of bone present in the inter-radicular area is

(a) Cortical (b) Cancellous (c) Osteophytic (d) Exophytic

34. The type of bone present in the labial area of anterior teeth is

(a) Cortical (b) Cancellous (c) Osteophytic (d) Exophytic

35. The gingival fiber group which inserts into 2 adjacent teeth is the

(a) Horizontal group (b) Circular group (c) Trans-septal group (d) Oblique
group

36. The most common cause of dry mouth in the adult patients is

(a) Tranquzers (b) Anti-histaminics (c) Insulin (d) Birth control pills

37, The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is the presence of

(a)Wear facets (b)Tooth mobility (c) Enamel cracks (d) Cuspal fracture

38. Gingival hyperplasia may be caused by

I. Occlusal trauma

IL Dilantin sodium

III.Excessive Vitamin A
IV. Inherited traits

V. Persistent local irritation

(a) (II) only

(b) (II), (IV) and (V)

(c) (I) and (II)

(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

39. A probable etiology of gingivosis is

(a) High progesterone levels

(b) Deficiency of estrogen and testosterone

(c) Pregnancy

(d) Aldosterone deficiency

40.Supragingival plaque undergoes Which of the following changes With time?

(a) Plaque mass decreases

(b) Plaque microflora becomes more gram positive

(c) Plaque microflora becomes more gram negative

(d) Plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal

41. The difference in the color between sub and supragingival calculus is
related to

(a) pH of the saliva (b) Death of the leukocytes (c) Haemolysis of erythrocytes
(c) All of the above

42. Which is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of subgingival

plaque in humans?

(a) Motile bacteria are predominant

(b) Spirochetes are evident microscopically

(c) Gram negative bacteria are predominant

(d) Bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption

43. Delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in

patients with periodontal diseases because they often have

(a) IgG antibody reactive with plaque bacterial antigens

(b) T-lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens

(c) Soluble immune complexes within involved gingival tissues

(d) All of the above

44. Which of the following is most useful in differentiating an acute

periodontal abscess from periapical abscess?

(a) Type of exudate (b) Nature of swelling (c) Intensity of pain (d) Result of
periodontal probing

45. Which index would you use to access the severity of periodontitis in
epidemiological studies of a large population?

(a) PMA index (b) Gingival index (c) Periodontal index (d) Sulcus bleeding
index

46. Which of the following plaque indices does not use a disclosing agent?

(a) Plaque component of Periodontal disease index

(b) Debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene index

(c) Modified Quigley Hein plaque index

(d) Two of the above

47. The following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas
(a) Patient hygiene performance index

(b) Plaque index by Silness and Loe

(c) Modified Navy plaque index

(d) Glass criteria for scoring debris

48. A calculus index used for short term studies is

(a) Calculus component of Simplified Oral Hygiene index

(b) Calculus component of Periodontal disease index

(c) Probe method of calculus assessment

(d) Calculus surface index

49. Daily cleaning of the root surfaces by a patient will cause

(a) Root sensitivity

(b) Gingivitis

(c) Stimulate epithelial attachment

(d) Allow remineralization of the root surface

50. Which teeth have the maximum amount of supragingival calculus?

(a) Upper first molars

(b) Lower centrals and laterals

(c) Upper centrals

(d) Upper and lower premolars

51. An index developed by the joint FDI/WHO Working Group for

epidemiological surveys of periodontal health is

(a) P1 (b) CPITN (c) NIDR (d) NIDR-GI

52. An epidemiological index with a true biological gradient is

(a) PMA index- Schour & Maseler

(b) Periodontal index- Russell

(c) Periodontal disease index-Ramfjord

(d) Simplified oral hygiene index-Green and Vermilion

53. A Periodontometer is a device used to measure the

(a) Gingival bone count (b) Tooth mobility (c) Debris and materia alba (d)
Gingival bleeding

54. Areas of isolated recession are frequently seen on teeth that are

(a) Moderately mobile (b) Non vital

(c) Labially prominent in the arch (d) Associated with occlusal trauma

55. In gingivitis, the role of immuno-globulins is consistent with the increased

number of

(a) Fibroblasts (b) Neutrophils (c) Lymphocytes (d) Plasma cells

56. Dental flossing is not done in pedodontic patients because

(a) Patients are usually uncooperative

(b) Children usually do not suffer from periodontitis

(c) Of open contact points between adjacent teeth

(d) All of the above

57. Teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are

(a) Lower 1st molars and upper anteriors

(b) Lower premolars and upper canines

(c) Lower 1st molars and upper incisors and premolars

(d) Lower centrals, laterals, and upper molars

58. In Juvenile periodontitis, the first stage is

(a) Severe gingival inflammation of papillary gingiva

(b) Loosening of the teeth

(c) Rapid gingival recession

(d) Degeneration of principal fibers of periodontal ligament

59. Periodontosis first affects the

(a) Upper bicuspids and upper and lower incisors

(b) Bicuspids and incisors

(c) Upper anteriors and upper and lower 1st molars

(d) 1st molars and incisors

60. Which of the following organisms is not frequently found in Periodontosis?

(a) Actinobacillus actinomycetern-comitans

(b) Capnocytophaga

(c) Mycoplasma

(d) Actinomyces

Ans d

61. Which is not true about Juvenile periodontitis? (a) Rate of bone loss is
faster than normal periodontitis (b) There is predilection for female patients
(c) The inflammatory process starts about simultaneously as the bone loss (d)
Frequently bilateral symmetri-cal patterns of bone loss occur

Ans c

62. Bundle bone

(a) Is present only in the jaws (b) Is bone which does not resorb (c) Has
ligaments and muscles attached (d) Is the cancellous portion of the alveolar
bone ans c

63. To maintain the calcium level of the blood, calcium is constantly being
deposited and withdrawn from the

(a) Bone of the jaws (b) Long bones of the body • (c) Alveolar bone (d) All of
the above

ans d

64. In response to traumatic occlusal forces, alveolar bone has

(a) Osteoblasts in areas of tension and osteoclasts in areas of pressure

(b) Osteoclasts in areas of tension and osteoblasts in areas of pressure

(c) Osteoid in areas of tension and osteoblasts in areas of pressure

d) Afunctional atrophy ans a

65. Bone fill procedures successful in treating

(a) Trifurcation defects (b) Deep, two wall craters (c) Narrow, three wall
defects (d) Osseous defects with one Wall remaining ans c

66. An isolated area in which root is denuded of bone the marginal bone is
intact and covered only by periosteum and overlying gingiva is called

(a) A fenestration (b) A dehiscence

(c) Infra crestal pocket (d) A hemiseptum defect ans a

67. Fenestrations and dehiscence occur most often in the

(a) Facial bone of anterior teeth (b) Facial bone of posterior teeth (c) Lingual
bone of anterior teeth (d) Lingual bone of posterior teeth ans a

68. Which is true of alveolar bone?

(a) It is the most stable of the periodontal tissues

(b) It is in a constant state of flux.

(c) It is not regulated by systemic and local influences

(d) All of the above ans b

69. The age changes in periodontal ligament include all except

(a) Decrease in vascularity (b) Decrease in elastic fibers

(c) Decrease in mitotic activity (d) Increase in arteriosclerotic changes

ans b

70, Which of the following is not true about Chlorhexidine?

(a) It binds electrostatically to hydroxyapatite

(b) It is effective against bacteria, fungi and viruses

(c) It precipitates cytoplasmic proteins

(d) It is slowly released back into the oral cavity for several hours

ans b

71. The Community Periodontal index for Treatment Needs is recorded for

(a) Quadrants (b) Sextants (c) One arch (d) Whole dentition ans b

72. In a healthy periodontium, the total surface area of crevicular epithelium

around 28 teeth is of the order of

(a) 760 mm2 (b) 7600 mm2 (c) 360 mm2 (d) 3600 mm2 ans a

73. The predominant immunoglobulin present in gingival crevicular fluid is

(a) IgG (b) IgA

(c) IgM (d) All of the above ans a

74. Immunoglobulins found in plaque are

(a) IgG and IgA (b) IgA and IgM (c) IgE and IgG (d) IgM and IgG ans a

75. Which are the first type of organisms to be found in plaque?

(a) Gram positive rods

(b) Gram positive cocci and rods

(c) Gram negative cocci

(d) Gram negative cocci and rods ans b

76. Which of the following are the inhibitors of immune response in

periodontal disease?

(a) C3 inactivator

(b) Lipoteichoic acid and lipopolysaccharides

(c) Dextran and levan

(d) All of the above

ans d

77. In the 3rd stage of periodontal disease or the "Established lesion", the local
immune response is by

(a) Seeding of lymphocytes

(b) Change of B- lymphocytes to plasma cells

(c) Complement activation of both Classical and Alternative pathway

(d) Macrophage inactivation

ans b

78. Which of the following disclosing solutions is accepted by the FDA?

(a) Eryth rosin (b) Proflavin (c) Gentian violet (d) Potassium iodide
ans a

79. What is the minimum dose required for tetracycline staining?

(a) 5 mg/ kg body weight (b) 20 mg/ kg body weight (c) 50 mg/ kg body
weight (d) 80 mg/ kg body weight

ans b

80. Which of the following antimicrobial agents is used in dentifrices for the
control of plaque?

(a) Triclosan and zinc citrate

(b) Triclosan and chlorhexidine

(c) Chlorhexidine and hydrogen peroxide

(d) Povidine- iodine

ans a

81. Which of the following antibiotics are being used systemically for treating
periodontal disease? (a) Tetracycline and Penicillin (b) Tetracycline and
Kanamycin (c) Tetracycline and Metronidazole (d) Kanamycin and
Vancomycin

82. What is the advantage that mechanical plaque removal has over topical
antibiotics? (a) It removes plaque more effectively (b) Eliminates the flora in
the pits and fissures (c) Does not eliminate the normal oral flora (d)
Predisposes the host to infection. by antibiotic resistant pathogens

83. A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the

periodontal ligament, is (a) Lysozyme (b) Peroxidase (c) Collagenase (d)
Hyaluronidase

84. Which bacteria are generally seen in pregnancy gingivitis? (a)

Actinobacillus actinomycetem-comitans (b) Bacteriodes melaninogenicus (c)
Streptococcus sanguis (d) Fusobacterium
85. The organisms found in supra-gingival plaque upon maturation are (a)
Cocci and gram negative bacteria (b) Filamentous organisms and gram
negative bacteria (c) Filamentous organisms and gram positive bacteria (d)
Cocci and gram positive bacteria

86. One negative point of fluorescent plaque disclosing agents is (a) That clean
teeth and gingiva do not fluoresce(b) The unpleasant taste (c) That they take a
long time to disappear (c) That they can be used only at night

87, The Alternative complement pathway in plaque is by the (a) IgG and IgM
class of antibodies (b) T-helper and suppressor cells (c) Influx of PMNU3 (d)
Lipoteichoic acid and lipopolysaccharides of the gram negative bacterial wall

88. Histological examination of the tissues in Desquamative gingivitis would

reveal (a) Hyperkeratosis (b) Elongation of rete pegs (c) Loss of basement
membrane (d) Aggregation of giant cells

89. Trauma from occlusion is least likely to affect (a) Bone (b) Cementum (c)
Epithelial attachment (d) Periodontal ligament

90. Dentinal hypersensitivity results in response to what type of stimuli? (a)

Chemical (b) Thermal (c) Aromatic (d) All of the above

91. The periodontal ligament consists of (a) Keratinized epithelium (b)

Sulcular epithelium (c) Epithelial rest cells of Malassez (d) All of the above

92. Which of the following is the most accepted theory of transmission of

dentinal sensations? (a) Transducer theory (b) Modulation theory (c)
Hydrodynamic theory (d) Gate control and vibration theory

93. Dentin hypersensitivity cannot result from (a) Attrition (b) Erosion (c)
Chronic periodontal disease (d) Pulpal pathology

94. Highest density of nerve endings lies in which portion of the pulp? (a) The
apex of the tooth (b) The root canal near the cervical region (c) Pulp chamber
(d) Pulp horns
I

95. All these can be used for the treatment of dentinal hyper-sensitivity,
except (a) Sodium fluoride (b) Formaldehyde (c) Gluteraldehyde (d) Fluoride
iontophoresis

96. Primary incubation zones in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis are (a)
Suprabonv pockets (b) Pericoronal flaps (c) Fissures in the tongue (d)
Furcation areas

97. The objective of the etiotrophic phase of periodontal therapy can be

achieved by (a) Institution of a plaque control regimen (b) Correction of
deflective restorations (c) Complete removal of calculus (d) All of the above

98. The purpose of phase 1 therapy is I. Reduction / elimination of gingival

inflammation II. Elimination of periodontal pockets III. To achieve surgical
manageability of the gingiva IV. Correction of morphologic defects that favour
plaque accumulation (a) (I), (II) and (IV) (b) (I), (II) and (III) (c) (II), (III) and
(IV) (d) (I), (III) and (IV)

99. The working tip of the ultrasonic scaler should be applied to the tooth
surface at the following angle in order to be effective (a) 15° (b) 10°

(e) 45° (d) 20°

100. The total shortening of the ultrasonic tip during function is about (a)
0.002 mm (b) 0.004 mm (c) 0.04 mm (d) 0.40 mm

101. Planing of the C-E junction and periodontally involved furcation is best
done by using (a) EVA system (b) Ultrasonic scaler (c) Hand instruments (d)
Fine diamond burs

102. During scaling calculus is most commonly missed on (a) Mesial concavity
of the maxillary premolars Mesial root of the mandibular first molar (c)
Furcation areas of the molars (d) Distal groove of the mandibular canine
103. Gingival stipling, which normally stops short of the free gingival margin
may extend up to the tip of the interdental papilla (a) due to vigorously
practiced oral hygiene (b) in inflammatory conditions of the gingiva (c) in old
age(d) None of the above

104.50% of the volume of the human gingiva is made up of (a) Reticular fibers
(b) Collagen fibers (c) Elastic fibers (d) Oxytalan fibers

105, The presence of the following cells in the keratinized gingiva relate to the
protective / destructive effects of immune responses in the periodontal
disease (a) Langerhan's cells (b) Granstein's cells (c) Plasma cells (d)
Keratinocytes

106. The width of the periodontal membrane varies between (a) 0.15 to 0.38
mm (b) 0.15 to 0.26 mm (c) 0.08 to 0.17 mm (d) 0.10 to 0.30 mm

107. During root planing the face of the instrument must be at the following
angle to the root surface to be effective (a) 85° to 90° (b) 70° to 80° (c) 60° to
75° (d) 65° to 85°

108. Periodontal surgery is II I best performed (a) One month after

completion the hygienic phase of

(b) 8 weeks after the completion of the restorative phase

(c) 4 weeks before completion of occlusal adjustments

(d) Immediately after the completion of the hygienic phase

109. The reverse bevel incision is made to (a) Allow atraumatic reflection of
the gingival margins (b) Remove the infected tissue in the sulcus (c) Provide
access to the alveolar crest (d) All of the above
110. Bone blending is a technique employed for (a) Transplanting cortical
bone (b) Transplanting cancellous bone (c) Transplanting a mix of cancellous
bone and hydroxyapatite crystals (d) Transplanting resorbable
hydroxyapatite crystals only

111. Following a flap procedure, pressure is applied to the tissues for one
minute in order to (a) Achieve haemostasis (b) Facilitate suturing (c) Reduce
post-operative swelling (d) Adapt the tissue against the bone

112. Which of the following cells migrate into the sulcus, in the largest
quantity, as a result of plaque accumulation? (a) Lymphocytes (b)
Macrophages (c) Neutrophils (d) Plasma cells

113. Of the following bony conditions which is commonly encountered in

periodontitis? (a) Crater (b) Hemiseptum (c) Dehiscence (d) Fenestration

114. Indications for mucogingival surgery include the following, except (a) A
shallow vestibule (b) Insufficient attached gingiva (c) Infrabony pockets (d) A
high frenum attachment

115. Abnormal tooth mobility may be initiated by each of the following, except
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Hyperparathyroidism (c) Traumatic occlusion (d)
Periodontitis

116. In gingivitis, the role of immunoglobul ins is consistent with the

increased numbers of (a) Fibroblasts (b) Neutrophils (c) Lymphocytes (d)
Plasma cells

117. Each of the following dr-Liz is likely to influence perio.donvA treatment

planning, except (a) Dexamethasone (b) Dic-umarol (c) Diphenhydramine (d)
Nitroglycerine
 118. The role of excessive occlusal forces in the etiology disease is best
described by which of the following statements (a) Excessive occlusal forces
cause the formation of of P pockets Excessive occlusal forces cause a more
rapid horizontal bone loss (c) Excessive occlusal forces may alter the pathway
of inflammation causing an alteration in the morphology of periodontal
pockets (d) Excessive occlusal forces increase the severity of gingival
inflammation

119. In humans when oral hygiene procedures are discontinued, plaque

accumulation leads to gingivitis in (a) 10 to 21 days (b) 2 to 4 days (c) 8 to 10
days (d) 12 to 15 days

120. Gingivectomy can be performed under which of the following conditions?

I. To eliminate pockets when the bone loss is horizontal When the gingival
margins are rolled When there is an adequate zone of attached gingiva
present To eliminate three walled infra-bony defects (a) (I) and (II) (b) (I), (II)
and (III) (c) (I), (II) and (IV) (d) (II), (III) and (IV)

121. Which of the following is the most important aspect of toothbrushing? (a)
The design of the brush head (b) The method of toothbrushing (c) The
frequency of toothbrushing (d) Thoroughness on the part of the patient

122. The advantages of the modified Widman flap procedure include the
following, except (a) Adaptation of healthy tissue to the tooth surface (b) Post-
operative interproximal architecture is normal (c) The procedure is feasible
when implantation of bone is contemplated (d) Conservation of bone and
optimal coverage of root surfaces by the soft tissues

123. A two day old developing plaque consists chiefly of (a) Filamentous
organisms (b) Gram-positive cocci and rods (c) Gram-negative organisms (d)
Spirochetes
124. The major indication for splinting as part of periodontal therapy is to (a)
Immobilize excessively mobile teeth for patient comfort (b) Eliminate occlusal
trauma component of periodontitis (c) Redirect occlusal forces to supporting
bone (d) Reduce gingival ischemia that results from axial forces on the blood
vessels of the periodontium

125. Which of the following severely complicates performing a distal wedge in

the area of a mandibular molar? (a) A distal root fluting (b) An infra-bony
pocket distal to the molar (c) Less space on the distal of the molar due to the
presence of the ascending ramus (d) A long retromolar pad that is primarily
attached gingiva

126. All of the following factors must be present to successfully carry out a
laterally positioned pedicle flap, except(a) Adequate width of the gingiva at
the recipient site (b) Adequate thickness of the attached gingiva at the donor
site (c) Bone on the facial surface of the donor tooth (d) Adequate width of
gingiva at the donor site

127. The primary purpose of placing a Coe pack dressing after periodontal
surgery is to (a) Prevent post-operative bleeding (b) Accelerate healing (c)
Prevent plaque accumulation (d) None of the above

128. To reduce sensitivity to thermal change after removal of a perio-dontal

dressing, it is best to (a) Replan the roots (b) Keep the roots free of plaque (c)
Desensitize the roots by iontophoresis (d) All of the above

129. Gingivoplasty is carried out to remove clefts in the gingiva. It consists of

the following steps I. Tapering the gingival margin II. Thinning the attached
gingiva III. Creating vertical grooves in the interdental papilla IV. Creating a
scalloped marginal gingiva (a) (I) and (IV) (b) (I) and (III) (c) (I), (II), (IV)

(d) All of the above

130. At the one week post-operative visit, the epithelium of a free gingival
graft has been lost. This finding suggests (a) Th e trhecaitp ient site was
mobile (b) Donor tissue was too thin ,C.c) Graft was incorrectly sutured lTh
None of the above

131. The width of the attached gingiva is least in the (a) Incisor region (b)
Canine region (c) First premolar region (d) First molar region

132. Calculus is attached to the tooth surface in which of the following way?
(a) By means pellicle By penetration into the dentin and cementum Through
interlocking of the inorganic crystals of the calculus with the crystals of the
tooth surface (d) All of the above

133. Following periodontal surgery, the epithelial attachment heals in (a)

Two weeks (b) Four weeks (c) Six weeks (d) Eight weeks

134.major route of spread of inflammation on the buccal surface of the bone

is (a) Along the perivascular tissues 04 Directly into the bone (c) Along the
epithelium-connective tissue junction (d) Along the crestal and periodontal
fibers

135, The gingival index score of 2 means that (a) There is spontaneous
bleeding (b) Probing does not elicit bleeding (c) Probing elicits bleeding (d)
The gingiva exhibit color change

136. The "initial lesion" of gingivitis according to Page and Schroeder (1976)
(a) Develops 4-7 days without oral hygiene (b) Is dominated by polymorpho-
nuclear leukocytes (c) Is associated with gingival bleeding (d) Is associated
with destruction of the circular fibers

137. The supra-gingival calculus is abundant in the following form of

inorganic material Co":0301• Hydroxyapatite (b) Octa-calcium phosphate
fiem

(c) Brushite (d) Whitlockite

138. According to Miller's index for assessing tooth mobility, mobility of 0.75
mm represents (a) Mobility I SIP Mobility 2 c) Mobility 3 (d) Mobility 4
139. "Incubation zones" as described by Box K(I ) Are areas of necrotic gingiva
(b) Are normally occupied by spirochetes and fusiform bacteria 10 (c Are
crater like lesions of the interdental papillae seen in ANUG (d) Are associated
with herpes virus infection [ 1

140. The most permeable zone of the junctional epithelium is the (a) Apical
zone (b) Middle zone (c) Coronal zone (d) The junctional epithelium is
impermeable

141. All of the following are true for Sharpey's fibers, except (a) They make up
most of the structure of the acellular cementum (b) Most of the fibers are
inserted at right angles into the root surface (c) They are not calcified except
in a 10 to 50 micron wide zone near the CD junction where theyare partially
calcified (d) The peripheral portions of the fibers in the actively mineralizing
cementum tend to be more calcified than the interior regions

142. The most common type of cemento-enamel relationship at the CE

junction is (a) Enamel overlaps cernentum (b) Cementum overlaps enamel (c)
Edge to edge butt relation (d) Enamel and cernentum fail to meet

143. The Liie and Holm-Pedersen method of collecting gingival sulcular fluid
consists of (a) Placing a filter paper into the pocket till resistance is felt (b)
Placing an absorbent paper strip over the pocket entrance (c) Placing a
micropipet into pocket (d) Placing a micropipet into the pocket and applying
digital pressure on the facial surface

144. Gingival fluid increases with inflammation and the following conditions,
except (a) Chewing coarse foods (b) Ovulation (c) Trauma from occlusion (d)
Toothbrushing / massage
145. "Dento-alveolar ablation" refers to gingival recession caused by (a) Tooth
malposition (b) Faulty toothbrushing (c) Gingival inflammation (d) Cheek and
lip muscle action

146. "Stillman's clefts" described as (a) Apostrophe indentations margin (b)

Life saver shaped enlargerneilts of the marginal gingiva (c) Crescent shaped,
bluish red areas on the marginal gingiva (d) None of the above

147. Attached gingiva is commonly involved in this type of gingival

enlargement (a) Chronic gingival inflammation (b) Familial hyperplastic
enlargement (c) Phenytoin induced gingival hyperplasia (d) Leukemic
enlargement

148. The periodontal pocket encountered at the furcation area can be labeled
as (a) Simple pockets (b) Compound pockets (c) Complex pockets (d) Supra-
crestal pockets

149. Age changes in the gingiva include all of the following, except (a)
Decreased keratinization (b) Reduced stippling E)ecreased width of the
attached gingiva (d) Constant location of the mucogingival junction

150. By the age of 40, the average reduction in the length of the dental arch
from the midline to the third molars due to physiologic mesial migration is (a)
3 mm (b) 5 mm (c) 6 mm (d) 8mm

151. The average distance between the alveolar crest and the CE junction in
the mandibular anterior region of a young adult varies between (a) 0.96 to
1.22 mm (b) 1.53 to 1.87 mm (c) 0.48 to 0.97 mm (d) 0.75 to 1.49 mm

152. A thin ring of calculus is found in the bottom third of a deep pocket. It
may be assumed that (a) Calculus calcified before the pocket reached the
present depth (b) Calculus previously extended to the enamel, but the coronal
portion was removed (c) Bacterial plaque formed only in the deeper region of
the pocket

(d) Conditions favouring calculus formation are favourable in the pocket

depth
153. The corncob appearance in plaque is seen (a) At the salivary interface (b)
Near the tooth surface (c) In the body of plaque (d) All of the above

154. The process of accumulation and growth continues till the plaque mass is
approximately how many bacterial cells in thickness (a) 12 (b) 50 (c) 72 (d)
100

155. Which of the following organisms are usually not seen in the samples
from healthy gingival crevice (a) Non motile cocci (b) Filaments (c) Straight
rods (d) Spirochetes

156. How does the actual formation of dental plaque begin? (a) Bacteria attach
directly to the enamel (b) Bacteria attach to the salivary pellicle proteins (c)
Both of the above (d) None of the above

157. The greatest thickness of cementum is found (a) At the cemento-enamel

junction (b) In the middle third of the root (c) In the apical third of the root (d)
None of the above

158. The normal alveolar crest on bite wing radiographs is usually (a) Not
visible (b) At the cemento-enamel junction (c) 1-2 mm apical to the cemento-
enamel junction (d) 3-4 mm apical to the cemento-enamel junction

159. Frequent brushing helps to prevent calculus formation by (a)

Neutralizing local acidity (b) Breaking up the matrix of plaque (c) Removing
Calpions that attach to tooth surface (d) Removing food particles on teeth and
interproximal areas

160. Water pressure devices are useful in removing (a) Plaque (b)Pellicle
(c)Food debris (d) All of the above

161. An emotional factor is often associated with the etiology in (a) Juvenile
periodontitis (b) Chronic herpetic gingivitis (c) acute necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis (d) Acute gingivostomatitis

162. Bacterial endotoxins may play a role in development of periodontal

disease due to (a) High amounts of endotoxin plaque (b) The ability of
endotoxins to incite an inflammatory response (c) The endotoxins are similar
to the ground substance (d) The presence of endotoxins in both gram positive
and gram negative bacteria
164. If subgingival curettage is to result in reduction of the pocket depth,
which of the following should be accomplished? I. Free gingival margin should
be removed

163. The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival
inflammation is evidenced by (a) An increased number of bacteria in saliva (b)
An increase in salivary hyaluronidase (c) An increase of neutralizing
antibodies in saliva (d) A reduction of inflammatory status with antibiotic
treatment

164. The cementoenamel junction should be perfectly smooth The epithelial

attachment and the pocket lining should be removed jv. Necrotic cementum
should be removed (a) (I), (II) and (III) (b) (II) and (III) (c) (III) and (IV) (d) (I)
and (IV)

165. Which of the following is the most important sign or symptom of

marginal gingivitis? (a) Pain (b) Redness (c) Absence of stippling (d) Pocket
formation

166. Unwaxed dental floss is useful in removing plaque from which of the
following areas? 1. The area apical to the contact point II. The contact point
itself III. The sulcus interproximally IV. The sulcus facially and lingually (a) (I)
and (II) (b) (I), (I1) and (IV) (c) (I) and (III) (d) (II), (III) and (IV)

167. Cementum is completely removed during instrumentation near the

cementoenamel junction because (i) it is Usually softer than the subgingival
calculus (ii). Necrotic in the pocket III. Very thin in this region IV. Not firmly
attached to the underlying dentin in this region (a) (1), (II) and (III) (b) (I),
(III) and (IV) (c) (II), (III) and (IV) (d) (III) and (IV)

168. Clinically, the mucogingival junction in the palatal gingiva is (a) A

scalloped line (b) A straight line (c) A gentle sweeping parabolic line (d) Not
visible

169. Common manifestations of occlusal trauma include (a) Gingival

recession, attrition of teeth and resorption of alveolar bone (b) Clefts,
festoons, gingivitis and pocket formation (c) Gingival hyperplasia, widening of
the periodontal ligament and interdental crater formation (d) Tooth mobility,
drifting of teeth, widening of the periodontal ligament and resorption of
alveolar bone
170. In some periodontal surgical procedures, it is necessary to leave
interradicular bone exposed. This results in(a) Exposure of the furcation (b)
Bone loss of no clinical significance (c) Loss of strategic bone over the root
surfaces (d) Coverage of the exposed bone by alveolar mucosa

171. Which of the following factors should be considered in electing is to

perform a gingivectomy rather than a periodontal flap? I. Presence of gingival
edema II. Pocket depth Periodontia III. Presence of subgingival calculus IV.
Amount of existing attached gingiva V. Need for access to underlying bone (a)
(I), (11) and (III) (b) (II), (III) and (V) (c) (II), (IV) and (V) (d) (IV) and (V) only

172. In patients with advanced periodontitis, markedly mobile teeth should be

splinted to (a) Reduce inflammation (b) Make plaque control easier (c)
Accelerate epithelization after periodontal therapy (d) None of the above

173. Which of the following procedures may be used to increase the width of
the keratinized gingiva? I. Laterally positioned flap II.Free gingival graft
III.Apically positioned flap IV. Modified Wid man flap

A. (1), (II) and (III)

B. (II), (III) and (IV)

C.(I)and (III) only

D. All of the above

174. Which of the following factors has the least effect on the prognosis of a
periodontally diseased tooth? (a) Suppuration from the proccakte ito (b)
Degree of alveolar bone loss (c) Degree of u involvement (d) Cooperation and
motivation of the patient

175. Which of the following are common features of a gingival pocket? I.

Ulceration of the lining epithelium II. Apical migration of the epithelial
attachment III. Depth of more than 3 mm IV. Destruction of some adjacent
circular group of fibers

(a) (I), (II) and (IIII (b) (II), (III) and (IV) c) (II) and (III) only (1) and (III) only
176. The mean gingival sulcus depth for the primary dentition is: (a) 0.1 mm
0.2 mm (b) 1.1 mm + 0.2 mm (c) 2.1 mm + 0.2 mm (d) 3.1 mm + 0.2 mm

177.Which periodontal fibres are consistent and are reconstructed even after
the destruction of the alveolar bone? (a) Apical (b) Oblique (c) Alveolar Crest
(d) Transseptal

178. Punched out crater-like depressions at the crest of the gingiva, covered
by grey pseudomembranous slough, which is demarcated from the remainder
of the gingiva by linear erythemia are characteristic of : (a) ANUG (b) Vincent's
stomatitis (c) Trench mouth (d) All of the above

179. A thin bluish line around the gingival margin is due to the absorption of :-
(a) Silver (b) Lead (c) Mercury (d) Drugs like tetracyclines

180. The two bacteria that have been considered pathogens in localized
juvenile periodontitis are:-(a) Actinomycete-mcomitans and capnocytophaga
(b) A. actinomycetemcomitans and P. gingivalis (c) A. actinomycetemcomitans
and P. intermedia (d) Capnocytophaga and P. gingivalis

181. Signs of TFO are all of the following except: (a) Mobility of teeth (b)
Formation of pockets (c) Widening of periodontal ligament (d) Migration of
teeth

182. Increased in melanin-pigmentation seen in: (a) Albright's syndrome (b)

Addison's disease (c) peutz jegher's syndrome (d) All of the above

183. Gingival enlargement in pregnancy termed as : (a) Fibroma (b)

Angiogranuloma (c) Papilloma (d) Pyogenic granuloma

184. The term offset blade is used to describe gracey curettes, because they
are angled approximately at :- (a) 50-60° (b) 60-70° (c) 70-80° (d) 80-90°

185. After periodontal surgery the recommended method for removing plaque
and gingival massage is : (a) Bass (b) Modified stillman (c) charters (d) None
of the above
186. Clinical examination of furcation involvement with the help of probe is
mode by: (a) Naber's (b) DNA (c) WHO (d) Florida

187. In the absence of local irritants TFO may cause the following except : (a)
Excessive loosening of teeth (b) Gingivitis (c) Widening of periodontal
ligament (d) Vertical bone loss

188. The best indication for osseous grafts for bone regeneration is : (a) one
wall (b) two wall (c) three wall (d) All of the above

189. gracey curette no. 11-12 is used for : (a) Premolars (b) Posterior teeth
facial and lingual (c) Posterior teeth mesial (d) Posterior teeth distal

190. Curettage performed apical to the junctional epithelium in which the

connective tissue attachment is severed down to the osseous crest termed as :

(a) Gingival curettage (b) Subgingival curettage (c) Inadvertent curettage (d)
All of the above

191. After flap surgery bone reaches its peak at : (a) 1-2 weeks (b) 2-3 weeks
(c) 3-4 weeks (d) 4-5 weeks

192. If the radicular bone is apical to the interdental bone, the architecture of
bone is said to be :- (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Flat (d) Ideal

193. All are the examples of non-bone graft material except :-(a)
Hydroxiopatite (b) Cartilage (c) Tricalciurn phosphate (d) Boplant

194. Periodontal pockets in which the bottom of the pocket is coronal to the
underlying alveolar bone is called as (a) infrabony (b) Suprabony (c) Sub
crestal (d) Intra alveolar

195. Periodontal pockets in which the bottom of the pocket is apical to the
level of the adjacent alveolar bone is called as : (a) Infra bony (b) Intra bony
1otra alveolar (d) All of the above

]196. Which of the following are the predominant connective tissue cells of the
periodontal ligament:

-(a) Cementoblasts (b) Fibroblasts (c) Osteoblasts (d) Rests of Malassez

197. Chlorhexidine gluconate is used as a mouth wash in a concentration of:

(a) 0.02% (b) 0.2% (c) 1.2% (d) 2.0%

198. Which of the following group of periodontal fibers are not attached to
alveolar bone: (a) Transeptal (b) Alveolar crest (c) Horizontal (d) Oblique

199. The sulcular epithelium which lines the gingival sulcus is : (a)
Keratinized (b) Nonkeratinized (c) Para keratinized (d) Ortho keratinized

200. What is the likely dental experience for women taking oral contra-
ceptives? (a) Greater gingival inflammation in response to plaque (b)
Peridontal disease (c) Pregnancy tumors (d) Enamel hyperplasia

201. Mothers with peridontitis have an almost 8 fold greater chance of having
PLBW infants, indicating that: (a) The impact of periodontitis on PLBW could
be as strong as smoking. (b) Periodontitis is not a significant risk factor for
PLBW (c) PLBW is triggered by periodontitis (d) Impact of PLBW in
periodontitics is significant II

202. Gingival crevicular fluid levels of prostaglandin E, an agent that initiates

labour have been shown to

be:

(a) Greater than intra-amninotic levels. (b) Higher in mothers with PLBW
compared to normal birth weight cases. (c) Equivalent in mothers with PLBW
compared to normal birth weight cases. (d) Lower in mothers with PLBW
compared to normal birth weight cases.

203. Periodontitis can adversely affect glycernic control in diabetes by: (a)
Causing halitosis (b) Destroying useful enzymes (c) Increasing the bacterial
challenge to the body (d) Facilitating plaque deposits on the pancreas

204. The six classic complications diabetes can include: (a) Periodontitis (b)
Nephropa thy (c) Cardiovascular disease (d) All of the above

205. Diabetes predisposes individuals to periodontitis by: (a) Impairing the

body's resistance to bacteria (b) Increasing patients' AGEs, especially in senior
citizens (c) Restricting blood flow to the brain (d) Altering subgingival flora
206. Which of the following molecules are produced in response to
periodontal infection? (a) Prostaglandin E, and tumor necrosis factor-a (b)
Endotoxin lipopolysaccharide (c) Tumor necrosis factor — a and
lipopolysaccharide (d) Endotoxin and prostaglandin E.

207. Oral infection is associated with which of the following? ((ba) Pr ) Vaes-
ctueirm itislow birth weight (c) Atherosclerosis (-1) All of the above

208. A recent study has shown that expectant mothers of periodontitis have:
(a) A significant increased risk for preeclampsia (b) A three to seven fold
increased risk of pre-term birth than controls (c) An increased risk for
delivering babies weighing less than 2500 grams (d) All of the above

209. What is the most common oral manifestation of pregnancy? (a)

Pregnancy tumor (b) Dryness of the mouth (c) Gingivitis (d) Tetanus (lock-
jaw)

210. Massaging gingiva with a tooth brush or interdental cleaning devices

produces (a) Epitelial cleaning (b) Increased in keratinization (c) Increased
initotie acttivity in epithelium (d) All of the above

211.free gingival groove is present resent ab011t (a) 90% of cases (b) 50% of
cases (c) only sometimes (cI) all the patients

212. The width of the attached gingiva in the maxillary teeth ranges from (a)
3.3 to 3.9 mm (b) 4.2 to 4.7 mm (c) 3.5 to 4.5 mm (d) 2.5 to 3.5 mm

213. If a diastema is present, the interdental papilla is (a) Larger in size (b)
Smaller is size (c) Absent in the region (d) None of the above

214. Keratinosomes contain a large amount of (a) Acid phosphates (b)

Alkaline phosphates (c) Glucose 6 phosphates (d) All of the above

215. The junctional epithelium consists of stratified squamous non-

keratinized epithelium. The length of junctional epithelium ranges from 2.15
to 2.35 mm. (a) Both the statement are right (b) Both the statement are wrong
(c) The first statement is right and the second is wrong

(d) The first statement is right and the second statement is wrong
216. Gingival fluid performs all of the functions except (a) It cleanses the
material from the sulcus (b) Possesses antimicrobial properties (c) Provides
plasma proteins that may improve adhesion to the tooth (d) Decrease in
amount during disease to increase the phagocyte concentration.

217. The blood supply to gingiva is derived from all the below sources except
(a) Supraperiosteal (b) Vessels of the periodontal ligament (c) Arterioles
emerging from text of interdental septa (d) Arterioles from the pulpal
branches

218. The position of gingival margin in a patient is 3 mm below the CEJ the
pocket depth is 2 mm calculate the attachment loss. (a) 5 mm. (b) 2 mm (c) 3
mm (d) 1 mm

219. In stage 3 of the passive eruption the relation of junctional epithelium

and the base of the sulcus is (a) Both are on the enamel (b) The entire JE is on
the cementum and the base of the sulcus is at CEJ (c) affects the periodontal 22
6 smoking inflammation in the following ways. (a) Clinical signs of
inflammation are less pronounced (b) Increases in the GCF flow bleeding on
probing are lass pronounced (c)Clinical signs of inflammation are more
pronounced (d) Both a and b

220. The following group of fibres are absent in an incompletely formed roots.
(a) Alveolar crest group (b) Oblique group (c) Horizontal group (d) Apical
group (e) Interadicular fibres

221. Microscopic cementum resorption is extremely common. It is maximum

in the (a) Apical 3rd of the root (b) Middle 3rd of the root (c) Gingival 3rd of
the root (d) Almost equal at all levels

222. The following facts about the dehiscence and fenestration are true except
(a) They are found hole of ten on the facial bone (b) They occur on
approximately 20% of the teeth (c) They occur more commonly 011 , the
anterior then the posterior . (d) They occur on approximately 30% of the
teeth.
223. The relationship between the ascorbic acid and periodontitis is due to
following reasons except, (a) Low levels of ascorbic acid influence the
metabolism of collagen (b) Ascorbic deficiency interferes c with bone
formation (c) Deficiency of ascorbic acid increase the permeability of oral
mucosa (d) Deficiency of ascorbic acid influences the GCF levels

224. The microscopic picture of gingival disease in pregnancy is (a) Path

gnomic of the condition (b) Nonspecific, vasculizing, proliferative
inflammation. (c) Chronic inflammation with increased no of P. gingivalis (d)
Acute inflammation with preponderance of neutrophils.

225. Gingival bleeding in leukemia patients is (a) Common and on early sign
(b) Not common (c) Common but occurs late in the development (d) non of the
above

226.smoking affects the periodontal inflammation in following ways

(a)clinical signs of inflammation less pronounced (b)increase in gcf

flow,bleeding on probing is less (c) clinical signs of inflammation more
pronounced (d) both a and b

227• Gingival bleeding on probing appears. (a) Before the colour changes (b)
After the colour changes (c) At the same time as the colour changes (d) Not
related with the colour changes

228. Oral pigmentation seem in which of these conditions (a) Addison's

disease (b) Peutz — Jeghers syndrome (c) Albright's syndrome (d) Von
Recklinghausen's disease (e) All off the above (f) Only a and c.

229. In ANUG there is involvement of (a) Marginal and attached gingival and
other areas of mouth in a diffuse way. (b) Only marginal gingiva (c) Gingival
epithelium leading to patchy desquamation

(d) Marginal gingiva which may or way not be painful

230. The following may be involved with the etiology of ANUG except (a)
Nutritional deficiency (b) Leukemia's (c) AIDS (d) Hypertension (e) smoking

231. The %age of children with stippling between ages 5 and 13 years is about
(a) 50% (b) 90% (c) 35% (d) 20%

232. Lichen planus presents with the following histological findings (a)
collection of neutrophils, eosinophils and fibrin in connective tissue (b)
hyperkeratosis, hydropic degeneration of basal layer, jaw toothed rate peps, T
cell infiltration (c) hyperkeratosis, basal call degeneration epithelial atrophy
and perivascular inflammation (d) None of the above

233. In periodontitis locally produced bone resorption factors are able to

exert their action in a range of (a) 2.0 to 3.0 mm (b) 1.0 to 2.0 mm Part of JE is
on cementum and part is on the enamel. The base of the sulcus is at enamel.
The base of the sulcus is at enamel (d) JE and base of the sulcus is at cemen
turn

(c) 1.5 to 2.5 mm (d) .5 to 1 mm

234. Pathogic tooth mobility may caused by all except (a) Loss of tooth
support (b) Extension of inflammation from the gingiva (c) Pathologic
processes of jaws that destroy the alveolar bone (d) Lack of occlusal contact at
high causing increase mobility in the morning (d) Periodontal surgery

235. Biologic depth is (a) Distance between the gingival margin and the base
of the pocket (b) Distance between the JE and the alveolar crest (c) Distance
between the base of the pocket and the alveolar crest. (d) None of the above

236. Width of the attachment gingiva is (a) The distance between the MGJ and
the projection on the external surface of the bottom of the gingival sulcus or
the periodontal pocket (b) The distance between the MGJ and the gingival
margin (c) Determined by probing the pocket depth (d) Non always
keratinized
237.In periodontitis patients differentia_ lion between treated and untreated
periodontal disease radiographic ally is (a) Always possible (b) Not possible
(c) Kometimes possible (d) Not considered

238. Prognosis for patients with gingival disease depends on all except (a)
Presence of systemic modifying factors (b) Malnutrition (c) Miliary
tuberculosis (d) Diabetes mellitus

239. Conventional radiographs used for diagnosing periodontal disease are a)

Very specific but not sensitive (b) Neither specific more sensitive (c) Very
sensitive but not specific (d) Both specific and sensitive

240. BANA analysis is used to measure the activity of (a) An enzyme from
bacteria (b) A protein polysaccharide (c) Inflammatory cytokine (d) An
enzyme derived from

241. A gingival index score of 1 means that (a) The gingiva are clinically
healthy (b) Probing elicits bleeding (c)probing does not elicit bleeding (d)
There is spontaneous bleeding (e) There is no colour change

242. sub gingival calculus

(a) Forms initially in proximity to salivary ducts (b) Derives its mineral
content from saliva (c) Forms after the onset of gingival Inflammation (d)
Precedes the onset of gingival inflammation (e) Is pale cream in colour

243. Metronidazole (a) Penetrates stagnation areas well (b) Is mainly active
against Gram-positive aerobes (c) Is effective in the management of acute
ulcerative gingivitis (d) Is mainly concentrated in saliva (e) Is prescribed as
200 mg tablets to be taken 4 x per day

244. Scaling and root planning (a) Are synonymous with subgingival curettage
(b) Provoke more attachment loss than surgical procedures (c) Can prevent
further attachment loss in deep pockets (d) Are more effective than surgical
procedures in reducing pocket depth

245. An apically repositioned flap

(a) Does not preserve the attached gingiva (b) Does not increase the length of
clinical crown (c) Is the procedure of choice for palatal pockets (d) Is a pocket
elimination procedure (e) Does not require a periodontal packet
246. Periosteal sutures in periodontal flaps is used in (a) Coronally displaced
flaps (b) Apically displaced flaps (c) Undisplaced flaps (d) Any of the above (e)
None of the above

247. The modified widman flap achieves pocket depth reduction by (a)
Shrinkage only (b) Removing the pocket wall (c) Displacing the flap coronally
(d) Displacing the flap apically

248. The internal bevel incision is given to achieve all of the following except
(a) It removes the pocket lining (b) It conserves the relatively uninvolved
outer surface of the gingiva (c) It helps in displacing the flap coronally or
apically (d) It produces a sharp, thin flap margin for adaptation to the bone
tooth junction.

249. In osseous resective surgery the four steps used for shaping the bone are
vertical grooving and radicular blending, Flattening interproximal bone and
gradualizing marginal bone. Out of these, (a) First two are ostectomy and the
last two are osteoplasty (b) First and 3rd are osteotomy and 2nd and 4'h are
osteoplasty (c) First and second are ostoplasty and 3rd fourth are ostectomy
(d) 1st and 3rd are ostectorny and 2nd and 4th are osteoplasty.

250. Following are considered to be regenerative except (a) curettage (b) GTR
(c) Bone grafting (d) Gingivectomy

251. The Primary culprit in caries of the root surface of the tooth appears to
be: (a) Actinomyces (b) Streptococcus (c) Lactobacillus (d) Pneumococcus

252. A common factor in the diseases of caries and periodontal disease is (a)
Faulty restorations. (b) Disturbed hormonal balance. (c) Dental Plaque. (d)
Low Socio Economic Status.

253. In the absence of proper oral health ingival nflammation care, g i is

previously healthy tissue expected to occur in little as (a) 1 day (b) 1 week. (c)
2 week (d) > 1 month.

254. The cleansing property of a tooth paste is primarily a function of jus: (a)
Fluoride content. (b) Physical form viz. Powder/paste (c) Abrasiveness (d)
Binding agents
255. Close apposition of the gingival epithelium to the tooth surface without
complete obliteration of the pocket is called as : (a) New attachment. (b)
Reattachment. (c) Epithelial adaptation. (d) Repair.

256. Tricalcium phosphate, bone grafting material has a calcium to phosphate

ratio of : (a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 3.5 (d) 4.5

257. Collagen fibres that emerge from the supra alveolar part of the
cementum and pass outward beyond the alveolar crest in an apical direction
into the mucoperiosteum are called as : (a) Circular fibres. (b) Dentogingival
fibres. (c) Dentoperiosteal fibres. (d) Interpapillary fibres.

258, All of the following antibiotics are bacteriostatic except : (a)

Metronidazole. (b) Erythromycin. (c) Tetracycline. (d) Clindamycin.

259.junctional epithelium replaces itself approximately in

(a)7-8Days (b)14-15 days (c)21-22 days (d)none

260. In human oral cavity, the serotypes of Actinobacillus actinomycetem-

comitans which are predominantly present are : (a) a and b. (b) a and c. (c) b
and c. (d) Only c.

261. Human oral spirochetes are : (a) Gram positive and aerobic. (b) Gram
positive and strict anaerobic. (c) Gram negative and aerobic. (d) Gram
negative and strict anaerobic.

262. An automated measurement of mobility can be carried out by using a

vibrating device called : (a) Periotest. (b) Periotron. (c) Florida probe. (d)
Pressure sensitive probe.
263. Sharp instruments in periodontal arrnamentarium : (a) Enhance tactile
sensitivity. (b) Cannot remove complete calculus. (c) Cause trauma to soft
tissues. (d) Require excessive force 259. The junctional epithelium replaces
application. itself approximately every : (a) 7 - 8 days. (b) 14 - 15 days. (c) 21 -
22 days. (d) None of the above

264. The two factors of major importance in providing stability to the

instrument are : (a) Instrument grasp and sharpness of instrument. (b)
Instrument grasp and finger rest. (c) Instrument grasp and dry field. (d)
Instrument grasp and adaptation.

265. The most effective and stable grasp for all periodontal instruments is : (a)
Palm and thumb grasp. (b) Pen grasp. (c) Modified pen grasp. (d) Standard
pen grasp.

266. In a modified pen grasp, greatest control in performing intraoral

periodontal procedures is obtained by : (a) Single point force. (b) Two point
forces. (c) Three point forces. (d) Four point forces.

267. Maneuverability and tactile sensitivity during periodontal

instrumentation is greatly reduced in : (a) Pen grasp. (b) Modified pen grasp.
(c) Palm and thumb grasp. (d) None of the above.

268. For subgingival insertion of a bladed instrument such as a curette,

angulation between the blade and tooth surface should be as close as : (a) 0
degree. (b) 60 degree. (c) 90 degree. (d) 120 degree.

269. A light feeling stroke that is used with probes to evaluate the dimensions
of the pocket and to detect calculus and irregularities of the tooth surface is
called as : (a) Vertical stroke. (b) Exploratory stroke. (c) Scaling stroke. (d)
Root planing stroke.

270. To allow for shrinkage that occurs post operatively the gingival graft
Should be larger than the recipient site in all dimensions by at least

(a) 5% (b) 15% (c) 25% (d) 35%

271. Concavities in the crest of the interdental bone confined Within the facial
and lingual walls are called as: (all) Reversed architecture of bone. ca (b)
Bulbous bone contours. (c) Osseous craters. (d) Ledges.

272. The effect of occlusal forces on the periodontium is not influenced by (a)
Type of occlusal loading. (b) Duration of occlusal loading. (c) Frequency of
occlusal loading. (d) Magnitude of occlusal forces.

273. Extreme sequalae of unreplaced first molars include : (a) Decrease in

vertical dimension. (b) Increase in anterior overbite. (c) Labial movement of
maxillary incisors. (d) All of the above.

274. Clinical signs such as bluish red, thickened marginal gingiva, a bluish red
vertical zone from the gingival margin to alveolar mucosa, gingival bleeding
and/or suppura-tion, tooth mobility and diastema formation are suggestive of
:

(a) Desquamative gingivitis. (b) Trauma from occlusion. (c) Periodontal

pocket. (d) Periodontal abscess.

275. The radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include : (a) Thickening
of lamina dura. 00) Radiolucence and condensation of alveolar bone. (c) Bone
destruction in the interdental septum. (d) All of the above.

276. The characteristic findings in slowly progressive periodontitis include all

except : (a) Generalized gingival inflammation. (b) Mild angular bone loss. (c)
Generalized infra bony pockets. (d) All of the above.

277. Papillon lefevre syndrome, Down's syndrome, Chediak Higashi

syndrome are classified as forms of : (a) Juvenile periodontitis. (b) Rapidly
progressing periodonititis. (c) Prepubertal periodontitis. (d) All of the above.

278. Acetone odour is diagnostic of : (a) Gastro intestinal disorder (b)

Pneumonia. (c) Diabetes mellitus. (d) None of the above.

279. Embedding of new periodontal ligament fibres into new cementum and
attachment of the gingival epithelium to a tooth surface previously denuded is
called as : (a) Reattachment. (b) New attachment. (c) Epithelial adaptation. (d)
None of the above.
280. Healing after periodontal surgery is improved in following instances
except : (a) Immobilization of healing area. (b) Proper debridement during
surgery. (c) Pressure on wound. (d) Artificial increase in oxygen supply
beyond normal requirements.

281. An electrosurgical technique which is also called as electrotomy and is

used for incisions, excisions and tissue planing is : (a) Electrocoagulation. (b)
Electrosection. (c) Electrofulguration. (d) Electrodessication.

282. The distance between the apical edge of calculus and the bottom of
pocket usually ranges from : (a) 0.2 to 1.0 mm. (b) 1.2 to 2.0 mm. (c) 2.2 to 3.0
mm. (d) None of the above.

283. The local reversible side effects to 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate include:
(a) Brown staining of teeth and tongue. (b) Staining of silicate and resin
restorations. (c) Impairment of taste perception. (d) All of the above.

284. Tetracyclines are widely used in treatment of periodontal diseases

because: (a) They are bactcriostatic and effective against rapidly multiplying
bacteria. (b) They have anticollagenolytic effect. (c) They inhibit alveolar bone
loss. (d) All of the above.

285. Acquired coatings are the cuticular structures of exogenous origin such
as : (a) Saliva. (b) Bacteria. (c) Calculus and surface stains. (d) All of the above.

286. Collagen is a protein composed of amino acids including : (a) Glycine. (b)
Proline. (c) Hydroxyproline. (d) All of the above.

287. In single rooted tooth, the axis of rotation is located in the area between :

(a) Apical third and middle third of the root. (b) CeryicP1 third and middle
third of the root. (c) Apical third and cervical third of the root. (d) At the
middle third of the root.

288. The hydroxyapatite content of cementum, bone, enamel and dentin is

maximum and minimum respectively in : (a) Bone and dentin. (b) Enamel and
cementum. (c) Bone and cementum. (d) Enamel and dentin.
289. The newly formed cementum is demarcated from the root by a deeply
staining irregular line termed as : (a) Incremental line. (b) Reversal line. (c)
Resorption line. (d) Formative line.

290. Foci of red bone marrow occasio-nally seen in the jawsand often
accompanied by resorption of bony trabeculae are commonly located in: (a)
Maxillary tuberosity. (b) Maxillary incisor region. (c) Mandibular incisor
region. (d) Lower border of mandible.

291. In disuse atrophy all the following changes occur in the periodontium
except :

(a) Increase in thickness of trabeculae. (b) Atrophy of periodontal ligament.

(c)Thickened cementum. (d)None of the above.

292, The secretion of saliva or salivary flow is influenced by : (a) Gustatory

and masticatory reflexes. (b) Hormonal factors. (c) Psychic and emotional
factors. (d) All of the above.

293. Light calculus formers have been shown to have : (a) Increased pH. (b)
Increased concentration of homogeneous nucleators. (c) Increased levels of
parotid pyrophosphate. (d) All of the above.

294. For confirmation of antibodies to individual HIV proteins following tests

are used (a) Indirect immunofluorescene. (b) Enzyme linked immunosorbent
assay. (c) Western blot. (d) All of the above.

295• The predominant target cell of HIV is : (a) Lymphocytes. (b)

Macrophages.

(c) Helper T cell. (d) Langerhan's cell.

296. The most desirable measurement for monitoring periodontal condition
of patients over long periods of time is (a) Probing pocket depth. (b) Probing
attachment level. (c) Microbiologic examinations. (d) None of the above.

297. Cells that are responsible for regeneration of the periodontal attachment
apparatus, including cementum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligament arise
from : (a) Cementum. (b) Alveolar bone. (c) Periodontal ligament. (d) None of
the above.

298. Ultrasonic bactericidal debridement procedures result in all except : (a)

Probing attachment gain. (b) Minimal discomfort. (c) Minimal resorption. (d)
Reduction of attached gingiva.

299. One of the important diagnostic feature of acute necrotizing ulcerative

gingivitis is : (a) Fetor oris. (b) Fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy. (c) Punched
out cratered papillae. (d) Pseudomembrane.

300. Large arteriole bleeding sites during periodontal surgery can be

controlled by :

(a ) Pressure. b Vasoconstrictors. (c) Compression of vessel with suture knot.

(d) Clot enhancing gets.