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[2] Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis?

it is given to treat surgery associated infections


it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection
should always be given regardless type of surgery
should be continued for 7 days after surgery
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[3] A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:


hydroxychloroquine
methotrexate
gold preparations
all of the above
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[4] Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab


IL-1 blocker
may increase risk of infections
administered as IV infusion
post administration reactions include fever
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[5] Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are:


lethargy
skin rash
fluid retention hypotension
ringing in the ears
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[6] Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?


allopurinol
indomethacin
colchicine
probencid
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[7] Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?


minimal exercise
male gender
family history
minimal exposure to sunlight
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[8] Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be advised not to consume food
containing tyramine because this combination causes:
postural hypotension
anaphylactic shock

1/28
muscle weakness and tremor
acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertension
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[9] The amount of water in adult male is about:


25%
60%
80%
10%
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[10] which of the following is released by bacterial infection? (...by bacterial cell wall during their growth
endotoxin
exotoxin
antibiotics
cytotoxin
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[11] 7- Which of the following drugs is a systemic amoebicide?


Diloxamide furoate
Pyrimethamine
Emetin
Sodium Stibogluconate
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[12] Which of the following drugs is the drug may cause discolouration of nail beds and mucus membranes?
Tetracycline
Chloroquine
Doxycycline
Rifampicin
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[13] Which of following drugs is the drug of choice for the treatment of all forms of Schistosomiasis?
Praziquantel
Mebendazole
Niclosamide
Thiabendazole
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[14] Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of influenza A infection ?
Zidovudine(AZT)
Amantadine
Ribavarin
Vidarabine
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2/28
[15] Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of Leishmaniasis?
Pyrimethamine
Diloxamide
Sodium Stibogluconate
Emetin
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[16] Which one of the following statements about tetracycline is not correct?
It is useful for the treatment of resistant strains
It is contraindicated in pregnancy
It is safe in infections caused by Chlamydia
It can lead to discolouration of teeth if given to children
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[17] Which of the following drug will antagonize Methotrexate?


Thiamine
Folic acid
Biotin
Cyanocobalamin
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[18] lodine is found in all of the following except:


Cod liver oil
Sea food
Kelp
Iodized salt
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[19] Pyridoxine requirements may increase during administration of all the following except:
Isoniazid
Cycloserine
Oral contraceptives
Levodopa
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[20] All of the following preparations contain alcohol except:


Syrup simplex
Aromatic ammonia spirit USP
Terpin hydrate elixir USP
Belladona tincture B.P
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[21] Wich of the following solutions is used as an astringent?


Strong iodine soluotin USP
Aluminium acetate topical solution USP
Acetic acid NF

3/28
Benzalkonium chloride solution NF
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[22] anextrapyramidal adverse effects is caused by the blocking of:


Serotonin receptors in the brain
Acetylcholine receptors in the brain
Dopamine receptors in the brain
Dopamine receptors outside the brain
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[23] A rare side effect of some anticonvulsants is Stevens-Johnson syndrome.this is a severe:


Skin reaction
Bone marrow toxicity
Renal failure
CNS suppression
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[24] If a women,receiving carbamazepine becomes pregnant,it is important that she receives daily
supplements of :
Vit A
Vit B6
Folic acid
Riboflavin
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[25] Which of the following are side effects of phenytoin treatment?


Acne
Hirsuitism
Gingival hyperplasia
a,b,and c
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[26] Which drug is considered as Alpha-1- Adrenergic blocker :


Hydralazine
Minoxidil
Prazosin
Guanethidin
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[27] 26-Nitroglycerin-all the following are true except :i a- Can be dispensed in hospital pack of 500 and 1000
tabs b- ----l c- d- Tablets must be stored at controlled R.T e-
Can be dispensed in hospital pack of 500 and 1000 tabs
Containers must be made of glass and be covered with a tight-fitting
Close tightly after use
Tablets not to be refrigerated
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4/28
[28] For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use :
salbutamol
acetazolamide
epinephrine
aminophylline
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[29] Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect ?


hypoglycemia
skeletal muscle weakness
sodium retention
lowered resistance to infections
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[30] A disease which is due to viral infection :


poliomyelitis
rabies
chicken pox
all of the above
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[31] 16- Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :


inotropy
automaticity
contractility
none of the above
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[32] The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :


AV node
SA node
pukinje fiber
internodal pathways
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[33] Adenosine is used for :


ventricular arrythmias
atrial bradycardia
supraventricular tachycardia
supraventricular bradycardia
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[34] Adenosine P produces which of the following :


facial flushing
dyspnea c-marked tachycardia
a and b

5/28
a , b and c
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[35] Respiratory acidosis is due to :


O2 removal
O2 retention
CO2 removal
CO2 retention
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[36] Which of the following is NOT colloid solution ?


dextran
ringer`s solution
beta starch
albumin 20%
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[37] The term shock signifies :


hypoperfusion
tachycardia
bradycardia
non of the above
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[38] In treatment of shock , which of the following should be considered?


airway control
dopamine to support blood pressure
monitor heart rhythm
all of the above
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[39] 25- Which of the following is released by bacterial infection?(…. by bacterial cell wall during there
growth)
endotoxin
exotoxin
antibiotics
cytotoxin
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[40] the amount of water in adult male is about:


25%
60%
80%
17%
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6/28
[41] Which of the following are causes of oedema?
increase hydrostatic pressure
decrease oncotic pressure
increase capillary permeability
all of the above
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[42] Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be advised not to consume food
containing tyramine because this combination causes:
postural hypotension
anaphylactic shock
muscle weakness and tremor
acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertention
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[43] Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true?


they have lower risk gastric adverse reactions
good evidence about their effectiveness
cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class
they usually administrated twice daily
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[44] combination with non selective agents give more effective action 30- In the treatment of osteoporosis
which of the following is NOT true?
alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast
Ca and vit. D are essential
hormone replacement therapy should be considered
outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
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[45] Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?


allopurinol
indomethacin
colchicine
probencid
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[46] Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?


low calcium intake
male gender
family history
minimal exposure to sunlight
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[47] Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are :


skin rash & headache

7/28
throbbing headache & dizziness
fluid retention hypotension
ringing in the ears & blurred vision
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[48] Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab


IL-1 blockerb-used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis
may increase risk of infections
administered as IV infusione-postadministration reactions include fever & chills
all of the above
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[49] Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?


it is given to treat surgery associated infections
it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site
infectionc-should always be given regardless type of surgery
should be continued for 7 days after surgery
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[50] What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2 ?
glyburinid
insulin
metformin
repaglinid
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[51] The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:


300-600
15-60
300-600
1-2 mg
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[52] The major action of sodium chromoglycate is :


mast cell stabilization
bronchodilator
prostaglandins modifier
leukotrienes modifier
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[53] The action of histamine is :


capillary constriction
elevation of blood pressure
stimulation of gastric secretion
skeletal muscle paralysis
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8/28
[54] One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase :
penicillin V
penicillin G
floxapen ( flucloxacillin)
amoxicillin
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[55] Inderal is:


similar in action to ergotamine
similar in action to tubocurarine
used as an antihistamine
pure b -adrenergic receptor blocker
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[56] Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of :


impaired fat absorption
tuberculosis
neoplastic disorders
psoriasis
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[57] Which of the following is selective b1 blocker ?


labetalol but it is non selective b blocker
clonidine
captopril
verapamil
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[58] The latabbreviation for " After Meals " is :


a.c.
a.a.
p.c.
i.c.
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[59] The latin abbreviation for " Four Times Daily " is :
a.c.
c.c.
p.c.
q.i.d
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[60] The latin abbreviation for " Every Night " is :


o.n.
c.c.
i.c.

9/28
q.i.d
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[61] Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?


minimal exercise
low calcium intake
male gender
family history
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[62] Goals of diabetes mellitus management include:


reduce onset of complications
control symptoms of diabetes
near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
a, b and c
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[63] When dosing insulin which of the following is true?


initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m
regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
dose may need to be increased during acute illness
a, b and c
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[64] What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2?
insulin
metformin
nateglinid
repaglinid
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[65] When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered:


WBC count with differential
oral glucose tolerance test
HBA1c
b and c
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[66] A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to an adult will act as:


analgesic
hypnotic
antihistaminic
antiulcerant
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10/28
[67] The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:
300-600 g
1-5 mg
15-60 mg
300-600 mg
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[68] The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction is:
naloxone
morphine
naproxen
celecoxib
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[69] What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC sympathomimetic drug


uncontrolled hypotension
severe asthma
rheumatoid arthritis
hypertension
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[70] Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy:


controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the trimester and there is no evidence of risk in
later trimester
fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no controlled studies in pregnant women or
animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in controlled studies in
women during trimester
either animal study have revealed adverse effect on the fetus and there are no controlled human studies or
studies in animal and women are not available
There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use in pregnant woman may be acceptable
despite the risk
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[71] What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin?


take this medication with food or milk
avoid multivitamin preparations during treatment
avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
this medication may cause discolouration of urine
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[72] Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is:


fast I.V. injection
slow I.V. injection
I.M. injection
IP(intraperitoneal) injection
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11/28
[73] Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant pharmaceutical therapeutic doses?
phenytoin
Na valproate
quinidine
carbamazepine
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[74] Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of action response to morphine?
oral
S.C.
I.M.
I.V.
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[75] The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires:


K+
Na+
Ca++
acetate
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[76] Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to


prevent the accumulation of hydralazine
reduce the reflex tachycardia
prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine
increase absorption of hydralazine
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[77] Fifty micrograms equals:


50000 ( nanogrames )h g
0.05 ( micrograms )m g
0.0005 g
a and b
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[78] The ability of a liquid to dissolveis:


hydrophilicity
immiscibility
miscibility
solvation energy
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[79] These are non aqueous pharmaceutical solutions:


essences, collodions and elixirs
gargles, douches and irrigation soln.
syrups , mucillages and collodions

12/28
enemas , liniments and spirits
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[80] A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl in exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution?
3.33
0.15
1.60 x 10-4
0.30
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[81] Which of the following is NOT correct?


glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks
life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to be started
lispro is a rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals
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[82] In CHFmanagement the following is not correct:


ACEIs such as lisinopril improve left ventricular function and reduces mortality
b-blockers such as Carvedilol may have beneficial effect in selected patients
spironolactone should be avoided because of the great risk of hypokalemia
non drug therapy includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-restriction
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[83] When considering drug therapy for hypertension, which is true?


combination of drugs always preferred
hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
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[84] Which of the following is NOT a primary literature


journal of pharmacy practice
applied therapeutic & clinical use of drugs
new England Journal of medicine
Loncet
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[85] Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity management:


activated charcoal to enhance elimination
b-blocker for tachycardia
control vomiting with metoclopramide
methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation
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13/28
[86] Regarding the use of ACEIs:
associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement
most common side effect is chronic dry cough
a good first line treatment for hypertensive diabetic
dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need
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[87] References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral administration:


micromidex
MERCK Index
handbook on injectable drugs
b and c
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[88] Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:


verify time of last time
check Mg and K levels and correct if needed
monitor ECG
no antidote for digoxin
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[89] When a CNS depressant is prescribed, which of the following is NOT taken at the same time?
vanalgesic
verapamil
aspirin
diphenhydramine
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[90] The following is NOT characteristic of solution:


thermodynamically stable
composed of two or more components that exist in one phase
homogenous
the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration
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[91] Inderal is:


similar in action to ergotamine
similar in action to tubocurarine
used as an antihistamine
pure β-adrenergic receptor blocker
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[92] One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase:


penicillin G
floxapen (flucloxacillin
ampicillin

14/28
amoxicillin
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[93] The action of histamine is:


capillary constriction
elevation of blood pressure
stimulation of gastric secretion
slowing the heart rate
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[94] most of drugs are :


Weak electrolyte
Non ionic
Strong electrolyte
BC
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[95] The term shock signifies:


hyperperfusion
hypoperfusion
tachycardia
bradycardia
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[96] Which of the following is NOT colloid solution?


albumin 5%
ringer's solution
dextran
beta starch
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[97] Adenosine is used for:


atrial bradycardia
supraventricular tachycardia
supraventricular bradycardia
none of the above
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[98] Which of the following is responsible for buffering


chloride
bicarbonate
potassium
troponin
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15/28
[99] The heart's dominant pacemaker is:
AV node
SA node
purkinje fiber
nternodal pathways
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[100] Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is:


inotropy
chronotropy
automaticity
contractility
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[101] The mechanism of action of atropine is


muscarinic antagonist
muscarinic agonist
nicotinic antagonist
nicotinic agonist
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[102] Erythroped A:
is effective against G ve Cocci and G –ve bacteria
is a macrolide antibiotic
-could be used in pregnant women if need
all of the above
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[103] The Latin abbreviation for "Every Night" is:


o.n. omni nocte
p.c
i.c
c.c
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[104]
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[105]
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[106] th
dsf
dfs
sdfs

16/28
sdfs
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[107] Ondansetron HCL is used for :


a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migraine
d- Anti-emetic
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[108] All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except :


a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
d- iron deficiency anemia
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[109] Ticlopidine is used for :


a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- anticholinergic
d- Antiplatelets
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[110] All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :


a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase
d- NONE
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[111] All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :


a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
e- Cyclophosphamide
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[112] All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except :


a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa
c- Pergolide
d- Nedocromil Sod.
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17/28
[113] all These cases not cure with thiazides except :
a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia
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[114] Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except :


a- Ephedrine
b- LIdocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline
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[115] Insulin which can be given I.V. is :


a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above
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[116] Drug is used for Leishmania :


a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
c- Mebendazole
d- Non of the above
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[117] All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :


a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone
d- Non of the above
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[118] All These are natural Estrogens except :


a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol
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[119] Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :


a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase

18/28
d- Vit. A
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[120] One of the following is not from Quinolone group :


a- Nalidixic acid
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin
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[121] One of the following is not for Epilepsy :


a- Clorizepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
d- Imipramine
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[122] All of these can be used for Leprosy except :


a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
d- INH
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[123] Sumatriptan is used for :


a- Hypertension
b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy
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[124] Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :


a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C
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[125] All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :


a- Ketotifen
b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol
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19/28
[126] All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistamine ] except :
a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
d- Azotodin
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[127] All of the following are controlled drugs except :


a- Rivotril
b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam
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[128] All These drugs are anti-viral except :


a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Aluerin
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[129] Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine :
a- Diarrhea
b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting
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[130] Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :
a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
d- Prednisolone
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[131]
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[132]
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[133] Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxodema


a- Carbimazole
iodine
thyroxin sod.

20/28
propyl thiouracil
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[134] The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :


Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
Gentamycin
Metronidazole
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[135] To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :


a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
d- Charcoal
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[136] Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :


a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
c- Three times / Year
None of the above
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[137] Which one is OTC drug :


a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin
None of the above
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[138] Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :


a- Rifampcin
b- Aspirin
c- Vit. K
d- Verapamil
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[139] One of the following is given once daily


a- Amorphous Insulin
b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin
d- Regular Insulin
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[140] The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma depends on :
a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration
b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination
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[141] All these are Anti-Coagulants except :


a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
d- Dipyridamol
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[142] All these are Anti-Platelets except :


a- Dipyridamol
b- Aspirin
c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
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[143] Ferrograde is :
a- Ferrous Sulphate
b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous Fumarate
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[144] Procainamide is :
a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
d- Qunidine
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[145] Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :


a- Hypokalamia
b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
f- Hypernatremia
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[146] Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on except :


a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
c- Patient sex

22/28
d-None of the aboveÂ
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[147] Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :


a- Kidney
b- Liver
c- Both
d- None of the above
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[148] Dobutamine is given I.V. because :


a- It is not stable in the gastric PH
b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route
c- It is eliminated very quickly
d- None of the above
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[149] Amiloride as trimetren causes :


a- CNS disturbances
b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]
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[150] What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC ?
a- Captopril
b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin
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[151] Cefaclor is :
a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin
b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above
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[152] Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?


a- Gentamycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin
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[153] Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram positive as :
a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
d- Kanamycin
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[154] Which one is not Tetracycline


a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
d- Clindamycin
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[155] Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?


a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
d- Cinnarzine
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[156] All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :


a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin
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[157] all of following are side effects of methotrexate except :


Bone marrow depression
Alopecia
Nausea and vomiting
Drive sex gland
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[158] 6-digoxin differ from digitoxin :


Half life
Excreted hepatically
1 Excreted unchanged in urine
None of the above
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[159] 2-90% of substance X solution , 50% of substance X solution , how mixing both to give 80% of
substance X solution ?
3: 1
1:3

24/28
10:30
5: 9
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[160] most of drugs are :


Weak electrolyte
Non ionic
Strong electrolyte
BC
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[161] Which of the following is NOT true about infiximab


IL-1 blocker
may increase risk of infections
administered as IV infusion8
postadministration reactions include fever
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[162] about cardioglycosidic effect :


ve inotropic
Hypertension
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
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[163] all factors affect on distribution of drug except :


Tissue solubility
Protein binding
Type enzyme response of metabolism
Molecular weight of drug
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[164] all factors affect on renal clearance except :


Age
Sex
Both
Disease state
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[165] ointment used for :


Carrier of drug
Emollient
Both
Increase distribution
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[166] charcol used as antidote due to :
Adsorption activity
Absorption activity
Non toxic
None of the above
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[167] in hypodynamic shock treatment :


Use aspirin
Use dopamine
Use nicotine
None of the above
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[168] lady take chronic warfarin , which is not true


avoid aspirin containing prepration
avoid doubling dose from herself
balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis
if she pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT
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[169] Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?


it is given to treat surgery associated infections
it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection
should always be given regardless type of surgery
should be continued for 7 days after surgery
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[170] infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause :


shriniking of blood cell
hemolysis
hyperglycemia
hypoglycemia
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[171] which of following is least sedative action ?


Diazepam
Estazolam
Triazolam
Temazepam
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[172] Which of the following is NOT predinsolone side effect ?


cataract
hypoglycemia
skeletal muscle weakness

26/28
lowered resistance to infections
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[173] When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?


hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption
skeletal muscle weakness
ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
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[174] The mechanism of action of dopamine


nicotinic antagonist
muscarinic antagonist
muscarinic agonist
nicotinic agonist
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[175] dosage form of nitroglycren when used in malignant hypertension ?


IV
S.C
infusion
transdermal
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[176] solutions are better than solid dosage form because:


Accurate dose
Easy to handle
Morestable
Faster action
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[177] ONE OF FOLLOWING NOT USED TO COVER BITTER TASTE :


Grinding of tablet
Film coat
Enteric coat
None of the above
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[178] GMP mean :


Good Manufactor Protocol
Good Manufactor Product
General Manufactor Protocol
General Manufactor Product
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[179] when you know the preservative used with anti biotic is not suitable you make
use another one
add another to increase it is activity
use tow or more presrvative
a+c
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[180] deltiazem act as


block Ca to intracellular
stimulateCa to intracellular
Na channel blocker
None of the above
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