Practice Test 9

Document # 6973555
MCAT
Practice Test 9 - CBT
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Document # 6973555
Physical Sciences
Time: 70 minutes
Questions: 1-52
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
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1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
e
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
t
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
u
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
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Passage I
2. If the speed of the charged particle described in the
Students constructed the electrical circuit shown passage is increased by a factor of 2, the electrical
below to study capacitors. A battery with a voltage of force on the particle will:
10 V is connected through a switch to a capacitor and
a 500-Ω resistor. The capacitor is constructed from A) decrease by a factor of 2.
two flat metal plates, each with a surface area of 5.0 × B) remain the same.
10–5 m2. The plates are separated by 1.0 × 10–3 m, and
the space between the plates is a vacuum. The C) increase by a factor of 2.
connecting wires have no resistance. After the switch D) increase by a factor of 4.
is closed and the capacitor is fully charged, a particle
with a charge of 8.0 × 10–19 C and a speed of 1.0 m/s
3. Making which of the following changes to a circuit
is injected midway between the capacitor plates.
element will increase the capacitance of the
capacitor described in the passage?
A) Replacing the 500-Ω resistor with a 250-Ω resistor
B) Replacing the 10-V battery with a 20-V battery
C) Increasing the separation of the capacitor plates
D) Increasing the area of the capacitor plates
Figure 1 Circuit
i b ut e 4. A charged particle with a mass of m and a charge

of q is injected midway between the plates of a
r
1. Which of the following graphs best illustrates how
t
capacitor that has a uniform electric field of E.
s
charge accumulates on the plates of the capacitor
i
What is the acceleration of this particle due to the
after the switch is closed?
D
electric field?
t
A) A) Eq/m
N o B) Em/q
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C) mq/E
D) Emq
B)
5. Another capacitor, identical to the original, is
added in series to the circuit described in the
passage. Compared to the original circuit, the
equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is:
C) A) 1/2 as great.
B) the same.
C) 2 times as great.
D) 4 times as great.
D)
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6. Which of the following best describes the motion

of a negatively charged particle after it has been
injected between the plates of a charged, parallel-
plate capacitor? (Note: Assume that the area
between the plates is a vacuum.)
A) It moves with constant speed toward the positive
plate.
B) It moves with constant speed toward the negative
plate.
C) It accelerates toward the positive plate.
D) It accelerates toward the negative plate.
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Passage II 8. The formation of one mole of which oxygenate

shown in Table 1 releases the most energy?
Gasoline is a mixture of nonpolar hydrocarbons
that reacts with oxygen in an automobile engine to A) ETOH
produce energy, carbon dioxide, and water vapor. If B) MTBE
the gasoline burns too rapidly, a metal piston can be
slammed against a metallic part, resulting in a C) ETBE
―knocking‖ sound and a reduction in engine D) TAME
efficiency. The octane rating of a gasoline is a
measure of its antiknock qualities. The higher the
9. What are the coefficients for oxygen and carbon
octane rating of a hydrocarbon mixture, the slower it
dioxide, respectively, if the equation shown below
burns and the smoother the piston operates.
is balanced?
The octane rating scale derives its name from
isooctane (C8H18), a hydrocarbon with good 1CH3OCH3(ℓ ) + ? O2(g) __ H2O(g) + ? CO2(g)
antiknock qualities. A 90:10 mixture of isooctane and A) 2 and 1
heptane (C7H16) has an octane rating of 90.
B) 2 and 2
Oxygenates are oxygen-containing compounds that
can be added to a gasoline to increase the octane C) 3 and 1
rating. Two oxygenates currently in use are MTBE D) 3 and 2
and ETOH. Data for these oxygenates and two other
potential additives are shown in Table 1. A
disadvantage of MTBE is that it has a strong and
offensive odor that humans can smell even at
i b ut e 10. Which of the following nonoxygenated analogs

of MTBE is most likely to mimic MTBE in its
t r
concentrations below 0.26 ppm in air. antiknock properties?
Table 1 Data for Gasoline Additives
t D is A) C4H9Si(CH3)3
B) C4H9N(CH3)2
N oVapor
pressure
Heat of
formation
C) C4H9SCH3
D) C4H9P(CH3)2
Do
Octane (torr, 25°C) (kJ/mole)
Additive Formula rating
MTBE C4H9OCH3 110 25 –580
11. The entropy change for the combustion reaction
ETOH C2H5OH 115 58 –278
of gasoline is always greater than zero because
ETBE C4H9OC2H5 112 20 –675
the:
TAME C5H11OCH3 111 15 –680
A) number of gaseous molecules in the products
always exceeds the number of gaseous molecules
7. Consider the pure substances. What type of
intermolecular interaction can ETOH undergo with in the reactants.
water that MTBE can NOT? B) enthalpy change is always positive.
A) van der Waals C) temperature of the combustion is always more
B) Dipole–dipole than 100°C.
C) Hydrogen bonding D) free energy change is always positive.
D) Covalent bonding

Document # 6973555
12. Which compound shown in Table 1 evaporates 13. If one mole of each additive shown in Table 1
fastest at 30°C? undergoes complete combustion, which
compound requires the least amount of oxygen?
A) MTBE
A) MTBE
B) ETOH
B) ETOH
C) ETBE
C) ETBE
D) TAME
D) TAME
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These questions are not based on a descriptive

passage and are independent of each other. 16. If the second floor and the top floor of a building
are separated by a distance of 100 m, what is the
14. H2O is liquid at room temperature, whereas H2S, approximate difference between the air pressures
H2Se, and H2Te are all gases. Which of the of the two levels? (Note: Air density = 1.2
following best explains why H2O is liquid at kg/m3 and gravitational acceleration = 10 m/s2.
room temperature? Neglect the compressibility of air.)
A) Hydrogen bonds form between H2O molecules. A) 600 N/m2
B) Oxygen lacks d orbitals. B) 800 N/m2
C) H2O has a lower molecular weight. C) 1000 N/m2
D) H2O is more volatile. D) 1200 N/m2
15.
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How do the pressures Pw and Pm compare,
measured at the bottom of two identical
D is t
containers filled to the levels shown in the figure r
N
with water and mercury? (Note: Density of
ot
water = 1 g/cm3; density of mercury = 14 g/cm3.)
Do
A) Pm = 2Pw
B) Pm = 7Pw
C) Pm = 14Pw
D) Pm = 28Pw

Document # 6973555
Passage III
18. Which of the following equations correctly
The compounds nitric acid (HNO3), nitrous acid represents the dissolution of NH4NO3(s) in
(HNO2), acetic acid (CH3COOH), hypochlorous acid water?
(HClO), and ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3), are all H2O
water soluble and produce acidic solutions. The Ka
values for these compounds are given in Table 1. A ) NH4NO3(s) NH4(aq) + NO3(aq)
Table 1 Ka Values H2O

Compound Ka, 25°C B ) NH4NO3(s) NH4–(aq) + NO3+(aq)
HNO3 Large
HNO2 4.5 × 10–4 H2O
CH3COOH 1.8 × 10–5 C ) NH4NO3(s) NH2+(aq) + NO2–(aq) + H2O
HClO 3.2 × 10–8
NH4NO3 5.6 × 10–10 H2O
The titration of these acids with sodium hydroxide D ) NH4NO3(s) NH4+(aq) + NO3–(aq)
can be done using an indicator to signal the endpoint.
Table 2 contains information about some common
acid-base indicators.
Table 2 Indicator Properties
i b ut e 19. When 2.0 mL of 0.1 M NaOH(aq) is added to

100 mL of a solution containing 0.1 M HClO(aq)
t r
Acidic Basic and 0.1 M NaClO(aq), what type of change in the
Indicator pH range
is
color color pH of the solution takes place?
D
Methyl A) A slight (<0.1 pH unit) increase
0.15–3.2 yellow violet
t
violet
o
Methyl red 4.4–6.2 red yellow B) A slight (<0.1 pH unit) decrease
N
Phenol red 6.4–8.2 colorless purple C) A significant (>1.0 pH unit) increase
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10.8–
Nitramine colorless brown D) A significant (>1.0 pH unit) decrease
13.0
17. Which of the following mixtures, with each 20. What is the best explanation for the fact that a
component present at a concentration of 0.1 M, solution of NaNO2(aq) is basic?
has a pH closest to 7? A) NO2– is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH –
A) HClO(aq) and NaClO(aq) (aq) ions.
B) HNO2(aq) and NaNO2(aq) B) Na+ is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH –(aq)

ions.
C) CH3COOH(aq) and NaCH3COO(aq)
C) NaNO2(aq) decreases the Ka of HNO2(aq).
D) HNO3(aq) and NaNO3(aq)
D) NaNO2(aq) increases the Ka of HNO2(aq).

Document # 6973555
Passage IV 21. Suppose that the atmospheric pressure suddenly

dropped at one end of a large lake, inducing a
One can sometimes obtain a fairly good seiche like that shown in Figure 1. The
description of a phenomenon by focusing on a few atmospheric pressure differential between the two
key characteristics of a system and ignoring the ends of a lake is directly proportional to the:
subtleties. For example, in the flow of a liquid, fairly
decent results can sometimes be obtained by ignoring A) frequency of the oscillations.
the viscosity of the liquid. (Physicist Richard B) period of the oscillations.
Feynman called the approximation of viscousless
water ―dry water.‖) C) wave speed.
D) amplitude of the oscillations.
An approximate expression for the fundamental
frequency f of liquid sloshing in a tank (as in Figure
1) is given by 22. The principal restoring force responsible for
maintaining the sloshing oscillations in a body
f = (3gH)1/2/πL of ―dry water‖ for which surface tension is very
small is the:
where H is the height of the liquid, L is the length of
the tank, and g denotes the acceleration due to A) gravitational force.
gravity, 10 m/s2. This equation assumes that the liquid B) viscosity of the water.
lacks viscosity and surface tension, and that the liquid
C) atmospheric pressure above the water.
e
surface is always flat throughout the sloshing cycle.
Calculations using these simplifying assumptions
result in uncertainties of about 10%.
ri b ut D) hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the

container.
t
The sloshing modes are called seiches. They have
is
been observed in lakes, bays, and swimming pools. 23. Compute the period of oscillation for the
D
Amplitudes of seiches in Lake Geneva in Switzerland fundamental mode of a seiche induced in a lake
t
have been observed as large as 5 ft. A seiche in Lake that averages a depth of 30 m, with a length of
o
Michigan in 1954 had an amplitude of some 10 ft and 6000 m over which the wave propagates.
Do N
swept away several people who were fishing from
piers. Such seiches can be caused by seismic
disturbances or sudden changes in the atmospheric
pressure above one region of a lake.
A) 50π s
B) 200π s
C) 300π s
D) 400π s
24. The actual oscillating surface in Figure 1 would

not remain precisely flat; it would have a half-
sine-wave shape. Use this fact to determine the
wavespeed v of the fundamental mode of
oscillation.
A) v = (2gH)1/2
Figure 1 The fundamental sloshing mode of a tank B) v = (3gH)1/2
of liquid. The sloshing occurs between C) v = (3gH)1/2/π
extremes I and III, while II denotes the
equilibrium level. D) v = 2(3gH)1/2/π

Document # 6973555
25. Assume that a pan of ―dry water‖ is 26. Regarding Figure 1, which velocity profile
momentarily disturbed. Which of the following depicted below best shows the variation in
concepts best explains why the resulting sloshing velocities across the air–liquid interface of II just
oscillations persist for a fairly long time? after I has occurred?
A) Energy conservation A)
B) Momentum conservation
C) Newton’s third law
D) Archimedes’ principle
B)
C)
i b ut e D)
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These questions are not based on a descriptive 29. Which action involves more work: lifting a
passage and are independent of each other. weight from A to B or lowering the weight from
B to A?
27. In which of the following does sound travel most
rapidly?
A) Air (0°C)
B) Water (10°C)
C) Iron (20°C)
D) Sound travels at approximately the same speed in
all of the above.
28.
A) A) Lifting from A to B
e
B) Lowering from B to A
t
B)
u
C) Equal work in both actions
C)
is t ri b D) No work is required using a pulley.
D
D) 30. What is the standard emf for the galvanic cell in
t
which the following overall reaction occurs?
N o 2Na(s) + Cl2(g) 2Na+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq)
Do
E° red
Half-reaction (V)
Na (aq) + e– Na(s)
+
–2.71
Cl2(g) + 2e– 2Cl–(aq) +1.36
A) –1.35 V
B) +1.35 V
C) +4.07 V
D) +6.78 V

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31. Which of the following shows the electron

configuration of chlorine in NaCl?
A) 1s22s22p63s23p4
B) 1s22s22p63s23p5
C) 1s22s22p63s23p6
D) 1s22s22p63s23p44s2
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Passage V 32. Which of the following statements could explain

the frequently bluish color of EQLs?
Earthquake lights (EQLs) have been reported for
centuries. These lights are seen in association with A) Sodium salts are common in the earth’s crust, and
seismic activity and have been reported at distances sodium emissions can be quite bright.
hundreds of kilometers from the earthquake, and B) In transparent substances, dispersion effects are in
often at sea or near large bodies of water. EQLs are general greater for longer wavelengths.
usually blue or bluish-white, but yellow lights have
occasionally been reported. The source of EQLs has C) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecules
not been identified, but it has recently been suggested that then fluoresce at yet shorter wavelengths.
that they are produced by sonoluminescence (SL), the D) The ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by molecules
production of light by sound waves in a liquid. that then fluoresce at yet longer wavelengths.
SL occurs when bubbles form in the liquid during
the rarefaction phase of a sound wave and are then 33. During their compression, little heat is lost by
rapidly compressed during the compressional phase conduction from the hot vapor bubbles
of the wave. The rapid compression causes a large responsible for SL effects because:
increase in the temperature of the gas inside the A) the process occurs too rapidly for heat loss to be
bubble, causing light to be emitted. Both continuum appreciable.
emission, with a blackbody spectrum, and line
emission from atoms and molecules have been B) the heat is carried on the advancing wavefront.
observed in the laboratory from SL in water.
SL has been produced in water in the laboratory
i b ut e C) the surrounding liquid is subjected to the same

compressional force.
r
D) convection predominates over other processes in
t
by sound waves carrying an energy density of about
s
10 erg/cm3. Advancing seismic wavefronts carry a liquids at ordinary temperatures.
kinetic energy density e, given by
e = 2π2 (A/τ)2
ot D i 34. Heating of the vapor bubbles occurs during the

compression phase of the passing waves in SL
N
because:
in which is the density of the ambient medium, A is
Do
the wave amplitude, and τ is the wave period. A) the heat of vaporization of water is high and
Estimates of these quantities obtained from ground- serves as a barrier to the effect.
motion records of earthquakes give values for e that B) constructive interference in the wave motion is
are often consistent with the SL hypothesis. greater than at other times.
The SL spectrum of pure water peaks at a C) work is being done on the vapor bubbles by
wavelength of 3.10 × 10–7 m in the ultraviolet. forces external to them at that time.
Dissolved salts might contribute to the yellow color.
D) energy propagates primarily by means of
Sodium has, in fact, a particularly strong
transverse waves at that time.
characteristic emission at 5.89 × 10–7 m.

Document # 6973555
35. Atomic hydrogen has a characteristic spectral

emission at a wavelength of 6.56 × 10–7 m that
might contribute to EQLs. What color is this
characteristic H emission?
A) Violet
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Red
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Passage VI
37. What is the oxidation number of aluminum in
Aluminum is obtained commercially by the Na[Al(OH)4](aq)?
electrolysis of Al2O3, which is the major compound in
the ore bauxite. Pure Al2O3 is obtained from bauxite A) +1
by the Bayer process. B) +2
The finely ground ore is treated with concentrated C) +3
NaOH (35–38%) for 6–8 hours at a high temperature
D) +4
and pressure, converting Al2O3 into Al(OH)3(aq),
which then reacts with NaOH(aq) to produce
Na[Al(OH)4] as shown in Equation 1. 38. What is the geometry of the hexafluoroaluminate
ion (AlF63–)?
Al(OH)3(aq) + NaOH(aq) Na[Al(OH)4](aq) A) Octahedral
Equation 1
B) Tetrahedral
The aqueous base converts the major impurity in the C) Trigonal bipyramidal
ore, Fe2O3, into the insoluble Fe(OH)3, which is
removed by filtration. D) Hexagonal
After the impurity is removed, carbon dioxide is 39. Approximately how much Al2O3 is required to
e
passed through the mixture to precipitate Al(OH)3,
t
make 100 kg of Al?
u
which is collected and dehydrated at 1000°C to yield
A) 500 kg
b
pure Al2O3 (equations 2 and 3).
2Na[Al(OH)4](aq) + CO2(g) Na2CO3(aq) +

2Al(OH)3(s) + H2O(ℓ)
is t ri B) 200 kg
C) 80 kg
N
2Al(OH)3(s) + heat
Equation 2
ot D
Al2O3(s) + 3H2O(g)
D) 50 kg
40. In the reaction shown in Equation 1, Al(OH)3
Do
Equation 3 acts as what kind of acid or base?
The Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6, a compound A) Lewis acid
that lowers the melting point of Al2O3 from over B) Lewis base
2000°C to about 950°C, making the electrolysis of the
molten salt commercially viable. Pure aluminum is C) Brønsted acid
produced by the reaction shown in Equation 4. D) Brønsted base
2Al2O3(ℓ) 4Al(s) + 3O2(g)

41. At which electrode is aluminum produced in a
Equation 4 galvanic cell and in an electrolytic cell?
A) At the anode in both cells
36. Aluminum belongs to what block of elements in
the periodic table? B) At the cathode in both cells
A) s C) At the anode in the galvanic cell and cathode in
the electrolytic cell
B) p
D) At the cathode in the galvanic cell and anode in
C) d
the electrolytic cell
D) f

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42. In the reaction shown in Equation 2, three moles

of Al(OH)3 is chemically equivalent to what
volume of CO2(g) measured at 1 atm and 0°C?
A) 11.2 L
B) 16.8 L
C) 22.4 L
D) 33.6 L
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Passage VII
An experimental system is assembled to measure
the focal lengths of lenses and mirrors. The system
consists of objects, lenses, mirrors, and devices for
locating images. It is placed on a metered optical
bench. The system is operated in several Figure 3 Diverging lens
configurations.
Converging Lens 43. Changing which of the following will change the
To measure the focal length of a converging lens, focal length of the convex mirror in Figure 2?
an object is placed at A, the 0-cm mark of an optical A) Index of refraction of the mirror
bench, and a converging lens is placed at B, the 30-
cm mark of the bench. This situation forms an image B) Radius of curvature of the mirror
at D, the 90-cm mark as shown in Figure 1. C) Position of the lens at B
D) Focal length of the lens at B
44. As the light passes from the air into the glass, it
makes an angle a in air and an angle l in the
lens material, relative to the normal at the
Figure 1 Optical bench
i b ut e surface. What equation relates the angles l and

a?
r
Convex Mirror A) =
t
a l
s
A convex mirror is inserted between the
i
converging lens (B) and the image position (D). B) 1/ a = 1/ l
When the mirror is located at C (50-cm mark), the
ot D
light rays are reflected back along the incoming path,
N
as shown in Figure 2. The dashed lines between
points C and D indicate the path of light rays before
C) nasin
D) na/sin
a = nlsin
a = nl/sin
l
Do
the convex mirror is inserted. 45. The converging lens in Figure 1 is removed and
the diverging lens is placed in position B, as
shown in the figure below. Which of the
following best describes the light rays from the
diverging lens in this configuration?
Figure 2 Convex mirror

Diverging Lens
The convex mirror is removed from the setup, and
a diverging lens is placed at position C (50-cm mark)
A) Converging rays
so that the new image is observed at E (110-cm
mark), as shown in Figure 3. B) Parallel rays in and out
C) Reflected rays diverging
D) Diverging rays

Document # 6973555
46. If a very bright light source shines on a mirror, 47. Visible light travels more slowly through an
the mirror may become warm because: optically dense medium than through a vacuum.
A possible explanation for this could be that the
A) all of the light is reflected, and, by momentum
light:
conservation, the molecules in the mirror move,
producing heat energy. A) is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structure
of the optically dense medium.
B) some of the light passes through the mirror, and,
by energy conservation, potential energy is B) is absorbed and re-emitted by the nucleus of the
produced. material in the optically dense medium.
C) some of the light is absorbed by the mirror, and, C) bounces around randomly inside of the optically
by energy conservation, thermal energy is dense medium before emerging.
produced. D) loses amplitude as it passes through the optically
D) none of the light is reflected, and, by energy dense medium.
conservation, mass is converted to energy.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 51.

passage and are independent of each other.
48. If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled,

what is the ratio of the original value of the
electric field at a point to the new value of the
electric field at that same point?
A) 1:2
B) 1:3
C) 1:6
D) 1:9
A block of weight W is pulled across a rough
floor by a rope that exerts a force T on the block.
49. A 7-N force and an 11-N force act on an object at
the same time. Which of the following CANNOT The frictional force between the floor and the
be the magnitude of the sum of these forces? block is F. Which of the following expressions
equals the frictional force F when the block
A) 2 N moves with a constant speed?
B) 8 N A) T
C) 12 N
D) 18 N
i b ut e B) W – T
C) T sin
50. A student plans to add HCl to a solution

containing Pb(NO3)2(aq). To determine how
D is t r D) T cos
52. When an element undergoes β decay, a nuclear
t
much Pb2+ will precipitate from solution when
o
the HCl is added, the student needs to know neutron is converted to a nuclear proton as the
N
which of the following? nucleus emits an electron. What happens to the
atomic number and atomic mass of an element
Do
A) Ka for HCl that undergoes β decay?
B) Ka for HNO3 A) The atomic number increases, but the atomic
C) Ksp for PbCl2 mass stays approximately the same.
D) Keq for the reaction Pb2+ + 2 e– Pb B) The atomic number stays the same, but the atomic
mass decreases.
C) Both the atomic number and the atomic mass
decrease.
D) The atomic number decreases, but the atomic
mass stays approximately the same.

Document # 6973555
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 60 minutes
Questions: 53-92
There are seven passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an
answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
(202-828-0690).
24 of 62

Document # 6973555
Passage I an object, living out others’ sense of her experience,

not her own, and becoming mad as the sole way of
A phenomenon such as ―female fiction‖ does not breaking through an unyielding situation. In this view,
exist, but in the 1960s there began to appear novels Bertha’s plight is more archetypically female than
about the ―female experience‖ by both male and Jane’s, by far, since Jane is moving in a fairy tale of
female writers. It is necessary to separate these books sorts in which elements yield to her, whereas Bertha
from anything called ―female fiction,‖ which would has moved in the real world of power. There is, I feel,
suggest that the culture bifurcates into two distinct no male novelist who could have picked up the thread
experiences, one male and one female. That such of Bertha’s existence and turned it into an emblem, as
experiences differ, there can be no disagreement; but Jean Rhys did; and here alone we note the way the
that such experiences overlap, there should also be no female novelist can perceive aspects of experience
disagreement. I concur with Elaine Showalter’s that remain (at least in our era) outside the reach of
statement: the male writer. Reading back from Rhys, we
experience Jane Eyre differently.
Women writers should not be studied
as a distinct group on the assumption that More recently, Virginia Woolf has become a
they write alike, or even display stylistic powerful influence in analyses of the female
resemblances distinctively feminine. But experience by U.S. writers. Not only her fiction and
women do have a special literary history literary essays but a book such as A Room of One’s
susceptible to analysis, which includes Own (1929) have served to reinforce what many
such complex considerations as the women writers were already saying. Woolf offered,
economics of their relation to the literary
marketplace, the effects of social and
political changes in women’s status upon
i b ut e also, something of an aesthetic, in that she asserted

women had to develop a prose of their own. After
r
mentioning Newman, Sterne, Dickens, Thackeray,
t
individuals, and the implications of among others, she says: ―The weight, the pace, the
stereotypes of the woman writer and
restrictions of her artistic autonomy.
t D is stride of a man’s mind are too unlike her own.‖ She

quotes a typical early-nineteenth-century sentence and
adds: ―That was a man’s sentence; behind it one can
o
There is by now a sizable body of fiction that
see Johnson, Gibbon, and the rest. It was unsuited for
N
focuses on female experiences or conditions, in which
a woman’s use.‖ She sums up: ―There is no reason to
Do
women must find their way personally,
think that the form of the epic or of the poetic play
professionally, socially, in what is basically a
suits a woman any more than the sentence suits her.
patriarchy. This term we may define as any society in
But all the older forms of literature were hardened
which men control authority and determine the roles
and set by the time she became a writer. The novel
women should or should not play.
alone was young enough to be soft in her hands.‖
An example of the female imagination at work
comes in the following way. In Jane Eyre, Bertha, the 53. The passage discussion of male and female
―madwoman in the attic,‖ is presented as the element experience assumes that:
that must be eliminated in order for Rochester and A) female experience is entirely different from male
Jane to complete their destiny together. Imprisoned in experience.
the upper reaches of Thornfield, she is a threat to
foreground order and stability, a principle of chaos, in B) there is a degree of similarity between female and
fact. Since Charlotte Brontë was writing a romance, male experience.
Bertha could become expendable. C) male experience is inferior to female experience.
In a society more oriented to the overall female D) female experience almost always influences male
experience, Jean Rhys in Wide Sargasso Sea experience.
perceived in Bertha the characteristic victim of a
male-dominated society, a woman moved around as

Document # 6973555
54. According to the author, a characteristic of many 56. The author suggests that Bertha’s imprisonment
novels of female experience is that they: in the upper reaches of Thornfield:
A) portray women struggling to achieve identity in a
I. could have been explored equally well by
patriarchy.
male or female novelists.
B) display a distinctively feminine prose style. II. provided Jean Rhys with an archetypal
C) present female characters from a male point of symbol of the plight of women.
view. III. functioned for Charlotte Brontë primarily
as a plot device.
D) portray female characters as emblems.
A) I only
55. In the second to last paragraph, the author asserts B) I and II only
that the novelist Jean Rhys: C) I and III only
A) reworked the character of Bertha in a way no D) II and III only
male writer could have.
B) created a new literary form based on adaptations 57. According to the passage, Virginia Woolf
of older works. believed the novel was more suitable to women
C) created a distinctively feminine prose style that is writers than was the epic or the poetic play
difficult for male writers to imitate. because the:
D) misunderstood Brontë’s novel Jane Eyre.
i b ut e A) novel was a more recent and thus more flexible

genre.
r
B) novel did not depend on ―a man’s sentence‖ for
D is t its effect.
C) epic and poetic play were newer genres.
N ot D) epic and poetic play required that women develop

a prose of their own.
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage II We are therefore led to two interesting questions:

What are the giant nuclei, and where do they come
What makes clouds turn into rain? More from? First, there can be no doubt that winds blowing
specifically, the question is: How do the tiny droplets over the oceans pick up a substantial load of salt
of a cloud coalesce into water drops big enough to fall particles. Second, it is equally plain that the winds
as rain? transport a great deal of salt from the sea over the
land. Systematic surveys have verified that salt
The beam of a searchlight pointed upward at night
particles, large and small, are spread through the
shows that even apparently clear air is actually a
atmosphere, from the ground up into high altitudes.
―soup‖ of particles. The air may contain anywhere
from 10,000 to 100,000 particles per cubic inch. Next, there is statistical evidence of a relationship
When the relative humidity is high, water vapor between the amount of salt carried inland from the sea
condenses on many particles and begins to form and the amount of salt in our rainfall. Salt greedily
droplets; this condensation accounts for the haziness takes up water from the air, as anyone who has dealt
of the air on a muggy day and for the poor visibility with a salt shaker on a humid morning is well aware.
you may have noticed while flying in an airplane A salt crystal kept in damp air collects enough water
below a cloud. An actual cloud materializes when the to dissolve completely into a droplet. All of this
humidity reaches a certain critical value which turns certainly seems to indicate that salt particles act as
most of the dust particles into water droplets. Under nuclei to produce raindrops and precipitation. The
the right conditions, the cloud droplets combine idea gains further support from the finding that the
rapidly into raindrops; a concentration of 10,000 number of drops per unit volume in rain over the sea
cloud droplets per cubic inch yields one raindrop per
10 cubic inches. There are two general theories about
the way this takes place.
i b ut e is about the same as the number of salt particles in

ocean air.
One is the ice-crystal theory. In the cold upper
D
regions of a high cloud, the droplets are supercooled.
is t r 58. In order for the process described in paragraph

3 to occur, the temperature of ice crystals in a
cloud must be higher than that of:
t
If ice crystals are present, they evaporate the droplets
o
and then absorb the vapor, much as crystals of A) calcium chloride crystals.
N
calcium chloride and other drying agents absorb
B) the upper regions of the cloud.
Do
moisture. The ice crystals, feeding on the cloud
droplets, may grow to a large size and either fall as C) the lower regions of the cloud.
snow or melt into rain. But rain can fall from warm
D) the supercooled droplets.
clouds as well as cold. How is it generated in clouds
that lack ice crystals and supercooled droplets?
59. On the sole basis of the passage, one could
We must find some other mechanism that can conclude that it might be possible to reduce the
combine droplets into big drops, bringing us to the rainfall in a region by:
second theory, which suggests that large particles
A) warming the clouds.
grow into raindrops by sweeping up the smaller
droplets. The big particles form comparatively large B) decreasing the number of particles in the air.
cloud droplets, which, as they move through the C) cooling the clouds.
cloud, pick up the smaller droplets in their path, just
as a rolling drop of mercury gathers up any mercury D) increasing the amount of salt in the clouds.
drops it encounters. Thus the larger dust nuclei in a
cloud can grow to the size of a raindrop. A cloud will
produce rain, according to this theory, when it
contains sufficient moisture and a suitable number of
giant nuclei.

Document # 6973555
60. The passage assertion that salt is largely 61. Which of the following statements most strongly
responsible for rainfall from warm clouds is challenges the author’s assertions about the way
based on evidence that: raindrops are formed in clouds at subfreezing
temperatures?
I. salt particles are spread throughout the A) Humidity in a region must be extremely high in
atmosphere. order to turn most of its dust particles to water
II. the amount of salt in rainfall is related to droplets.
the amount of salt carried inland from the
sea. B) A concentration of 10,000 cloud droplets per
III. the number of drops per unit volume in cubic inch yields one raindrop per 100 cubic
rain over the sea is similar to that of salt inches.
particles in ocean air. C) No ice crystals are present in the upper regions of
A) III only clouds at high altitudes.
B) I and III only D) Calcium chloride crystals do not absorb as much
moisture as do ice crystals.
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III 62. Assume that a particular inland region in a warm
climate receives a great deal of rain. Given the
information in the passage, which of the
t e
following proposed explanations of this
u
phenomenon is the LEAST plausible?
is t ri b A) There is very little wind over the region.

B) There is an especially high percentage of salt
particles in the region’s atmosphere.
N ot D C) The region is located near an ocean.

D) There is an especially high percentage of large
particles in the clouds over the region.
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage III agricultural life. There were commercial elements in

colonial agriculture almost from the earliest days, but
Americans were raised with a sentimental there were also large numbers of the kind of
attachment to rural living and with a series of notions independent yeomen idealized in the myth.
about rural people and rural life that I have chosen to
designate as the agrarian myth. The agrarian myth Between 1815 and 1860, the character of
represents a kind of homage that Americans have paid American agriculture was transformed. The
to the fancied innocence of their origins. independent yeoman, outside of exceptional or
isolated areas, almost disappeared before the
Like any complex of ideas, the agrarian myth relentless advance of commercial agriculture. The
cannot be defined in a phrase, but its component cash crop converted the yeoman into a small
themes form a clear pattern. Its hero was the yeoman entrepreneur, and the development of horse-drawn
farmer, its central conception the notion that he is the machinery made obsolete the simple old agrarian
ideal man and the ideal citizen. Unstinted praise of symbol of the plow. Farmers ceased to be free of what
the special virtues of the farmer and the special values the early agrarian writers had called the ―corruptions‖
of rural life was coupled with the assertion that of trade. They were, to be sure, still ―independent,‖ in
agriculture, as a calling uniquely productive and the sense that they owned their own land. They were a
uniquely important to society, had a special right to hardworking lot in the old tradition. But no longer did
the concern and protection of government. The they grow or manufacture what they needed: They
yeoman, who owned a small farm and worked it with concentrated on the cash crop and began to buy more
the aid of his family, was the incarnation of the and more of their supplies from the country store.
simple, honest, independent, healthy, happy human
being. Because he lived in close communion with
beneficent nature, his life was believed to have a
i b ut e The triumph of commercial agriculture not only

rendered obsolete the objective conditions that had
wholesomeness and integrity impossible for the
depraved populations of cities.
D is t r given to the agrarian myth so much of its original

force, but also showed that the ideal implicit in the
myth was contesting the ground with another, even
t
In origin the agrarian myth was not a popular but stronger ideal—the notion of opportunity, of career,
o
a literary idea, a preoccupation of the upper classes, of the self-made man. The same forces in American
N
of those who enjoyed a classical education, read life that had given to the equalitarian theme in the
Do
pastoral poetry, experimented with breeding stock, agrarian romance its most compelling appeal had also
and owned plantations or country estates. It was unleashed in the nation an entrepreneurial zeal
clearly formulated and almost universally accepted in probably without precedent in history, a rage for
America during the last half of the eighteenth century. business, for profits, for opportunity, for
advancement.
By the early nineteenth century it had become a
mass creed, a part of the country’s political folklore
and its nationalist ideology. The roots of this change 63. The central argument of the passage is that the
may be found as far back as the American agrarian myth:
Revolution, which, appearing to many Americans as A) has no factual basis in the realities of American
the victory of a band of embattled farmers over an agricultural life.
empire, seemed to confirm the moral and civic
superiority of the yeoman, made the farmer a symbol B) is a sentimental representation of the role that
of the new nation, and wove the agrarian myth into its agriculture played in American life.
patriotic sentiments and republican idealism. C) accurately reflects the nature of American
agriculture, both in the past and today.
To what extent was the agrarian myth actually
false? When it took form in America during the D) understates the negative aspects of life on the
eighteenth century, its stereotypes did indeed farm in America.
correspond to many of the realities of American

Document # 6973555
64. The passage suggests that the agrarian myth

originated: 67. According to the passage, the agrarian myth
implied that yeoman farmers were:
A) in literature.
A) honest entrepreneurs.
B) on country estates in Europe.
B) classically educated.
C) on small farms owned and worked by yeoman
farmers. C) sentimentally patriotic.
D) among the urban elite who romanticized the D) happy and industrious.
virtues of the simple life of the farmer.
68. Which of the following assertions, if true,
65. Based on the passage, the agrarian myth assumes would most weaken the main point of the
that: passage?
A) The contribution made by American farmers to
I. yeoman farmers are wholesome and victory in the Revolutionary War has been greatly
honest. exaggerated.
II. yeoman farmers are morally superior to
most citizens. B) The agrarian myth was what might be called ―a
III. agriculture deserves special treatment noble lie‖: it was false but generally beneficial.
from the government. C) The agrarian myth played a part in the thinking of
A) I only
B) I and II only
i b ut e only a handful of Americans during the

eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.
r
D) American farmers during the eighteenth and
t
C) II and III only
s
nineteenth centuries had very little in common
D) I, II, and III
66. Based on the passage, the agrarian myth
ot D i with the idealized yeoman farmer of the agrarian

myth.
N
became part of a mass creed because: 69. What does the passage suggest about whether
Do
or not the agrarian myth was false?
A) the country’s nationalist ideology stood in need of
the kind of patriotic sentiments that the agrarian A) It was clearly false, because it bore little
myth could provide. resemblance to actual farm life in America at the
time.
B) farmers were credited with having played a major
role in the American victory in the Revolutionary B) Very few people lived the life idealized in the
War. myth.
C) most of the American population lived on family C) It conformed to reality only in its commercial
farms during the late eighteenth century. elements.
D) the yeoman farmer, as an ideal, corresponded to D) Its stereotypes corresponded to many of the
many of the realities of American life in the late realities of early American agricultural life.
eighteenth century.

Document # 6973555
Passage IV nations of history have founded on aggression the

civilization that then supported for a time, but for a
Nature is extraordinarily fertile and ingenious in time only, great periods of human culture, that
devising means, but it has no ends that the human flourished at their height just as the substructure
mind has been able to discover or comprehend. crumbled. Animals made humans possible, and
Perhaps, indeed, the very conception of an end or conquerors prepared the way for poets and
ultimate purpose is exclusively human; but at least it philosophers, but neither poet nor philosopher can
must be said that the most characteristically human survive long after the conquest.
effort is to transform a means into an end.
Nor need we be surprised to see nations enfeebled
Sensibility and intelligence arose in the animal in by civilization as though by vice. That detachment
order to serve animal purposes, for through the first, it of mind from its function which makes philosophy
was able to distinguish those things that favor the possible and which encourages dispassionate analysis
survival of it and its race, and through the second, it is exactly parallel to the detachment of the sexual
was able to go about in a more efficient manner to functions from their purposes, which results in the
secure them. Both were, like all things in nature, cult of the senses. Thought for thought’s sake is a
merely means toward the achievement of that kind of perversion. Civilizations die from
humanly incomprehensible end, mere survival. But philosophical calm, irony, and the sense of fair play
the philosopher-artist has detached both from their quite as surely as they die of debauchery.
natural places.
Nor can it be said that to understand this paradox
e
When sensibility has been detached from its
t
of humanism helps us in any way to solve it. The
u
animal setting, it may develop into a quest for that analysis that we perform is, indeed, itself an example
i b
self-justifying beauty which is humanly valuable but of one of those exercises of the mind that is perverse
t r
biologically useless. When intelligence is detached, it because it does not serve as a means toward a natural
is
not only tends to paralyze natural impulse by end. And when we have admitted that the human
D
criticizing natural aims but develops certain ideal is one that the human animal cannot even
t
intellectual virtues which are biological vices. We are, approach without tending to destroy itself, we have,
o
for example, inclined to regard skepticism, irony, and by that very admission, diminished our biological
N
above all, the power of dispassionate analysis as the fitness.
Do
marks of the most distinctly human intelligence. We
admire anyone whose reason is capable of more than
scheming, whose logic is not the mere rationalization 70. Which of the following statements best
of desires. summarizes the central problem addressed by the
passage?
But intelligence as detached as this is a vital
liability. It puts its possessor at a disadvantage in A) Truth and beauty are unattainable illusions.
dealing with those whose intelligence faithfully B) Sensibility and intelligence are biologically
serves their purpose by enabling them to scheme for useless.
their ends and to justify to themselves their desires.
Such is the animal function of intelligence, and C) Unbiased thought is inconsistent with human
whenever it develops beyond this level, it inhibits survival.
rather than aids that effective action in the pursuit of D) We are most fully human when we behave like
natural ends which was the original function of mind. animals.
The same process occurs in every nation that has
developed a national mind capable of detachment and
has passed beyond that stage of invigorating delusion
which could make it fancy itself master by right of an
inherent superiority. One after another, the great

Document # 6973555
71. Which of the following statements, if true, 73. Which of the following passage contentions
would most directly undermine the author’s might it be possible to refute by clear
central argument? counterexamples?
A) Some highly developed civilizations are I. The intelligence of poets tends to paralyze
peaceable. natural impulse.
II. Transforming means into ends is the most
B) Aggressive people are often much admired. characteristically human effort.
C) Nonhuman animals often behave altruistically. III. The great nations of history were founded
on aggression.
D) Logic is not always the mere rationalization of
desires. A) II only
B) III only
72. Suppose that persons of average intelligence C) I and II only
tend to have higher incomes than those of very
intelligent persons. The author would be most D) I and III only
likely to argue that this difference exists
because: 74. Some research into unconscious motivation
A) competitive success reduces one’s interest in art suggests that even apparently impartial thought
and philosophy. processes may be deeply self-serving. What is
the relevance of this consideration to the
e
B) intelligence and competitive success are
t
author’s argument?
u
unrelated.
b
A) It weakens the distinction drawn between
i
C) the more intelligent one is, the more one despises
r
―animal‖ and ―human‖ uses of intelligence.
t
material success.
D) a highly developed intelligence inhibits
competitive action.
t D is B) It challenges the assumption that humans value

dispassionate analysis.
o
C) It supports the observation that intellectual
N
detachment is biologically useless.
Do
D) It strengthens the contention that some uses of
intelligence are biological vices.

Document # 6973555
Passage V person who had been synesthetic lost that experience

after suffering brain damage that also resulted in color
The perception of a color when one hears words is blindness. These findings suggest that color-
the most common example of the phenomenon of grapheme synesthesia depends on activity within the
synesthesia. Synesthesia can be visual-tactile, visual- visual cortex that is initiated by the responding of
gustatory, tactile-visual, or almost any combination of certain cells specialized to integrate such features as
two senses, but reports are dominated by visually color and shape.
related synesthesias, and olfactory and gustatory
synesthesias are less common. Two possible reasons A different view suggests that subcortical limbic
for this difference are the proximity in the cortex of areas are more important for synesthesia. A crucial
the visual areas to the auditory and motor areas, the part of the reasoning behind this hypothesis lies in the
areas implicated in taste and olfaction being relatively argument that only humans can make cross-modal
distant, and the fact that vision dominates normal associations. This argument is mistaken. It is widely
behavior and is therefore more likely to form known that monkeys can make cross-modal
associations with the other senses. associations, and it is by no means clear that the
cortex is not involved. For example, Haenny recorded
The nature of the color-word associations made from neurons in cortical visual area V4 while
by synesthetes is surprising. The link is not between monkeys were performing orientation discrimination
meaning and color, or sound and color, but between tasks and found that many neurons responded to the
the visual appearance of the first letter of the word visual orientation of the stimuli, as one might expect
and color. Thus, a subject reporting the perception of from this visual area, but that many were also
red on hearing the word photograph would also report
perceiving red on hearing the word palladium but a
different color on hearing the word fish. The
i b ut e sensitive to the tactile orientation of a grooved plate if

its orientation was relevant to the task. Further
r
evidence implicating visual areas in cross-modal
t
experience is described more accurately, then, as a transfer comes from a study in which monkeys were
color-grapheme association than as a color-word
association. This association is not so far removed
t D
from the normal experience of linking the letters of a
is impaired in the learning of tactile-visual associations
following lesions of the cortical area dedicated to the
processing of tactile sensations.
N
decide that enough and bough do not rhyme than to
o
word with its sound. For example, it takes longer to
75. Which of the following research findings would
Do
make this decision about rough and how. undermine the argument about the development
The finding that the association is graphemic in of color-word synesthesia?
color-word synesthesia greatly constrains the possible A) Left-handed children are especially likely to be
explanations of the experience. Grapheme perception synesthetic.
is not present at birth and only begins to develop
when a child is learning to write. This fact opens up B) Color-word synesthesia can develop in literate
the possibility that color-grapheme synesthesia adults.
emerges during a critical period of maximum C) Color-word synesthesia can accompany the
plasticity in the visual system, when it is involved in earliest attempts to read.
learning to link letters with sounds and strings of
D) Damage to the visual cortex seldom results in
letters with objects.
synesthesia.
Evidence from neuropsychological studies also
points to the visual system. In 1893, Phillipe reported
that 30 out of 150 blind subjects reported colored
hearing after losing the sense of sight, a finding that is
consistent with the remedial plasticity that occurs
following cortical damage. In another case, a seeing

Document # 6973555
76. According to the author’s explanation, one pair 78. As the word is used in the passage, a grapheme
of words that would be likely to evoke the same is best described as:
synesthetic experience is: A) the synesthetic element of a letter.
A) know and no. B) the written representation of a syllable.
B) knit and kit. C) one of the units of a spoken word.
C) snuff and enough. D) one of the units of a written word.
D) cite and site.
79. Which of the following phenomena is an example
77. The author implies that visual synesthesia can of synesthesia?
occur because certain neurons respond to the A) Thinking of the sound of words while silently
co-occurrence of a particular color and shape. reading
A plausible hypothesis is that such cells
evolved because they increased processing B) Hearing a loud note when seeing the word
speed in the identification of: trumpet
A) dangerous predators on the basis of incomplete C) Mentally generating a tune while following
visual information. written notes
B) group members by either their appearance or their D) Visualizing a scene while listening to a
e
vocalizations. description
C) appropriate foods by any combination of
characteristics.
ri b ut
D) environmental forms and patterns associated with
the home territory.
D is t
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage VI When read according to the rules of Latin

grammar (―Even in Arcady, there am I‖), the phrase
Poussin had come to Rome one or two years after had been consistent and easily intelligible as long as
Guercino had left it. And a few years later the words could be attributed to a death’s-head and as
(presumably about 1630), he produced the earlier of long as the shepherds were suddenly and
his two Et in Arcadia ego compositions. Being a frighteningly interrupted in their walk. These
classicist, Poussin revised Guercino’s composition by conditions are manifestly true of Guercino’s painting,
adding the Arcadian river god Alpheus and by and they are also true, if in a considerably lesser
transforming the decaying masonry into a classical degree, of Poussin’s earlier picture.
sarcophagus.
When facing the Louvre painting, however, the
But in spite of these improvements, Poussin’s beholder finds it difficult to accept the inscription in
picture does not conceal its derivation from its literal, grammatically correct, significance. In the
Guercino’s. In the first place, it retains to some extent absence of a death’s-head, the ego in the phrase might
the element of drama and surprise: The shepherds seem to refer to the tomb itself. But it is infinitely
approach as a group from the left and are more natural to ascribe the words to the person buried
unexpectedly stopped by the tomb. In the second therein. Such is the case with 99 percent of all
place, there is still the actual skull, placed upon the epitaphs.
sarcophagus above the word Arcadia, although it has
become quite small and inconspicuous and fails to Thus Poussin himself, while making no verbal
attract the attention of the shepherds, who seem to be change in the inscription, invites, almost compels, the
more intensely fascinated by the inscription than they
are shocked by the death’s-head.
i b ut e beholder to mistranslate it by relating the ego to a

dead person and by connecting the et with ego instead
of with Arcadia. The development of his pictorial
t r
After another five or six years, however, Poussin vision had outgrown the significance of the literary
is
produced a second and final version of the Et in formula, and we may say that those who, under the
D
Arcadia ego theme, the famous picture in the Louvre. influence of the Louvre picture, decided to render the
t
And in this painting we can observe a radical break phrase Et in Arcadia ego as ―I, too, lived in Arcady,‖
o
with the medieval, moralizing tradition. The element rather than as ―Even in Arcady, there am I,‖ did
N
of drama and surprise has disappeared. Instead of two violence to Latin grammar but justice to the meaning
Do
or three Arcadians approaching from the left in a of Poussin’s art.
group, we have four, symmetrically arranged on
either side of a sepulchral monument. Instead of being 80. As used in the passage, the term elegiac is closest
checked in their progress by an unexpected and in meaning to:
terrifying phenomenon, they are absorbed in calm
discussion and pensive contemplation. The form of A) piously hopeful.
the tomb is simplified into a plain rectangular block, B) serenely reflective.
and the death’s-head is eliminated altogether.
C) profoundly grieving.
Here, then, we have a basic change in D) poetically praising.
interpretation. The Arcadians are not so much warned
of an implacable future as they are immersed in
mellow meditation on a beautiful past. In short,
Poussin’s Louvre picture no longer shows a dramatic
encounter with Death but a contemplative absorption
in the idea of mortality. We are confronted with a
change from thinly veiled moralism to undisguised
elegiac sentiment.

Document # 6973555
81. Suppose that a painting contained words with 84. According to the author, which details of
no apparent relevance to the scene depicted. Poussin’s Louvre painting support the belief
The passage suggests that in discussing this that it reveals his decision to reject the
painting, the passage author would be most moralizing tradition in art?
likely to:
I. A classical tomb
A) assume that the artist intended to puzzle the
II. A pagan river god
viewer.
III. A symmetrical composition
B) interpret the scene on the basis of the words.
A) II only
C) interpret the words on the basis of the scene.
B) III only
D) discuss the scene without reference to the words.
C) I and II only
82. By the end of the eighteenth century, the D) I and III only
inscription on Poussin’s second Arcadia
painting was translated as ―Even in Arcady, 85. What is the significance to the passage
there am I‖ only in England. In conjunction argument of the information that the shepherds
with passage information, this fact most are already at the tomb rather than approaching
strongly implies that in comparison with other it?
Europeans, the English were: A) It shows that they are not surprised by the
A) less familiar with Latin grammar.
B) less receptive to medieval moralizing.
i b ut e reminder of death.
B) It indicates the classicism of Poussin’s vision.
C) more sophisticated in their response to art.
D) more influenced by the Guercino painting.
D is t r C) It ensures that the viewer interprets the inscription

as an epitaph.
t
D) It emphasizes the simplicity of the tomb.
o
83. Suppose that when Poussin’s Louvre painting is
N
cleaned, a skull is discovered on the tomb. This 86. Which of the following statements, if true,
Do
discovery means that the author’s thesis about would most weaken the author’s reasoning
this painting: about the historical significance of the changes
introduced in Poussin’s second Arcadia
A) has been confirmed.
painting?
B) is more plausible.
A) Guercino’s Arcadia painting contains as many
C) is less plausible. classical elements as do either of Poussin’s
D) has been disproved. versions.
B) The skull in Guercino’s Arcadia painting is small
and inconspicuous.
C) The painting was completed by one of Poussin’s
students.
D) Many of Poussin’s later paintings have strongly
moralistic themes.

Document # 6973555
Passage VII account for this acceptance. In any case, the tendency
during recent decades has been to limit planning to
Chemistry and physics began with the observation the here and now. The future is imagined not as a
of gross phenomena, such as those relevant to really new venture but as a mere extension of the past.
cooking, distillation, medicine, falling bodies, and
celestial movements. These sciences reached the level To escape from this static and paralyzing view of
of mathematical abstraction only after a long period civilized life, it will be necessary to construct multiple
of detailed familiarity with concrete phenomena. The models of possible futures different from the present
behavioral and social sciences must now pass through state of affairs and to imagine courses of action that
a phase in which a core of concrete facts relevant to would bring such futures into being. Since
the mind and to society slowly accrue before they can anticipations govern the policies of change, they
arrive at meaningful abstract formulations of their paradoxically, but very effectively, become the
problems. When that stage has been reached, they causative agents of change. Causative anticipations
may reexamine their relation to the natural sciences differ from predictions in that the future they describe
and perhaps become partly anchored in physiology, must not only be ―possible‖ but also embody
ecology, and other biological sciences. considerations of the ―desirable.‖ They imply value
judgments as to what is desirable or not, good or bad,
Science and the technologies derived from it can and thus inevitably give a direction to the social and
best contribute to civilization not through a further scientific enterprise.
expansion of the mega-machine but by helping in the
maintenance of the ecological balance and in the Contemporary humanity seems to be poised
development of human potentialities. This change
will be made difficult by attitudes inherited from the
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. We have
i b ut e between passive acceptance of scientific technology

for its own sake, violent rejection of it, and conscious
use of it for some ultimate concern. The social
trained our social reflexes for technological
―advances,‖ however trivial their goals and
deleterious their long-range effects. Instead of
D is t r ferment that is beginning to agitate the community of

scientists gives hope that humanity still has a chance
to control its destiny by imposing a direction on the
t
conveying a teleological quality, the word progress scientific endeavor and, in particular, by consciously
now means just moving on, even though the forward
N o
motion is on a road that leads to disaster or despair.
planning the scientific technology that will shape the
modern world.
Do
Worthwhile goals for social progress must be
formulated before planning can provide a desirable 87. Which of the following statements, if true,
and enjoyable structure for the human effort. would most weaken the author’s argument
about the way society should plan for the
Concern with the future used to be expressed in future?
the form of literary exercises, or at best of purely
social utopias, formulated on the basis of certain A) Having a goal firmly in mind decreases the
theological, political, or economic beliefs, shared by chances of achieving that goal.
the members of the utopian group. Utopias are no B) People tend to be less happy living in societies
longer fashionable today, partly because we lack a with planned economies.
stable ground of generally accepted values to provide
C) People tend to be less happy living in
the hard foundation on which to construct viable
technologically advanced societies.
social systems. It may be also that the eclipse of
human beings’ normative functions results from the D) People tend to be happier living in
acceptance by many scientists and sociologists of the technologically advanced societies.
view that the world of science and technology sets its
own ―arising ends.‖ A tired resignation to the
imperatives of economics and scientific technology
along with the collapse of the old metaphysics may

Document # 6973555
88. Which of the following factors is NOT part of 90. The author expresses hope that society will
the author’s explanation of the reason that impose pressure on the scientific community to
utopian thinking is now unfashionable? create a better future as a result of:
A) The lack of consensus about what is desirable A) the restructuring of political systems.
B) The idea that science will furnish itself with goals B) a greater trust in the ability of the scientific
community.
C) The collapse of the old metaphysics
C) the failure of the behavioral and social sciences.
D) The failure of utopian social experiments in the
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries D) greater focus on science as an agent of change.
89. Implicit in the author’s ideas about the future 91. As used in the passage, teleological most nearly
and the role of science is the belief that means:
judgments about what is good or bad are:
A) religious.
A) best decided democratically.
B) purposive.
B) inappropriate for scientists to make. C) innovative.
C) best decided by historical research. D) unorthodox.
D) an appropriate part of scientific planning.
t e
92. According to the passage, a precondition for
u
effective scientific planning is the:
is t ri b A) formulation of desirable social goals.

B) suspension of value judgments.
D
C) formulation of a single, unified plan for success.
N ot D) acceptance and trust of the scientific community

by society.
Do

Document # 6973555
Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each
This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly
written as you can make it in the time allotted.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
(202-828-0690).

Document # 6973555
93. Consider this statement:
The primary goal of every business should be to maximize profits.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which maximizing profits might not be the
primary goal of a business. Discuss what you think determines whether or not the primary goal of
a business should be to maximize profits.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright

Document # 6973555
94. Consider this statement:
A politician’s lifestyle should reflect his or her political views.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a politician’s lifestyle might not reflect his
or her political views. Discuss what you think determines whether or not a politician’s lifestyle
should reflect his or her political views.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright

Document # 6973555
Biological Sciences
Time: 70 minutes
Questions: 95 – 146
Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
(202-828-0690).
42 of 62

Document # 6973555
1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
43 of 62

Document # 6973555
Passage I 95. A researcher studies sections of embryonic

agnathan brains and discovers a transitory stage
A classic example of a negative feedback control in which a pituitary portal system develops. In
system in mammals is the regulation of hypothalamic regard to the evolution of the vertebrate
and pituitary secretions by hormones from the gonads neuroendocrine axis, this finding best supports
(ovaries or testes). the hypothesis that adult agnathans:
The adult reproductive system is ultimately A) represent a degenerative state.
regulated by the neuropeptide gonadotropin-releasing B) represent an ancestral state.
hormone (GnRH). GnRH is released from the
hypothalamus of the brain and transported via a C) resemble adult mammals.
portal-vessel system to the anterior pituitary. Here D) resemble embryonic mammals.
GnRH stimulates pituitary cells to secrete the two
gonadotropins, luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-
96. Suppose a newly discovered fossil agnathan
stimulating hormone (FSH), which then act on the
skull (with its enclosed fossilized brain) shows
gonads, causing them to produce steroid hormones.
a fully vascular connection between the
When the sex steroids enter the circulation, they ―feed
hypothalamus and the pituitary. This finding
back‖ to the hypothalamus and pituitary, inhibiting
supports which of the following statements
further release of GnRH and gonadotropins.
about the evolution of the vertebrate
All living vertebrates except the Agnatha (the hypothalamic-pituitary axis?
jawless fishes) have a functional hypothalamic-
pituitary axis (a portal-vessel system connecting the
two structures) that is similar to the mammalian
i b ut e A) Ancient agnathans possess degenerate axes.

B) Ancient agnathan axes are similar to existing bird
t r
system. The Agnatha have no direct vascular axes.
connection between the hypothalamus and the
hypothalamus secretes hormones that regulate
t D
anterior pituitary, and there is no evidence that the
is C) Existing agnathan axes are similar to ancient

vertebrate axes.
o
D) Mammals are more similar to existing agnathans
pituitary function. Two hypotheses have been
N
than to ancient agnathans.
suggested to explain this difference.
Do
Agnathans represent an ancestral state, and a 97. Which of the following is a negative feedback
vascular connection evolved later in the system involving the anterior pituitary?
vertebrate lineage.
A) LH suppression of estrogen release
Agnathans represent a degenerative state, and
a previously existing vascular connection was B) LH stimulation of GnRH release
lost in this specialized group. C) GnRH suppression of estrogen release
D) Estrogen suppression of LH release

Document # 6973555
98. In the year 2010, a paleontologist provides 99. In the adult female rat, cyclical changes in sex
convincing evidence that existing agnathans steroids secreted by the developing follicle
have been incorrectly classified and should switch to a positive feedback mechanism
belong to an earlier and previously undescribed around the time of ovulation. The positive
vertebrate class. Fossils of this newly described feedback mechanism by which LH secretion is
class lack a pituitary portal system. This finding affected can best be described as:
suggests that the new class of vertebrates A) an inhibition of LH by progesterone.
(including agnathans):
B) an inhibition of LH by GnRH.
A) represents a degenerative state.
C) a stimulation of LH by LH.
B) represents an ancestral state.
D) a stimulation of LH by estrogen.
C) represents a newly derived state.
D) is similar to other classes of living vertebrates. 100. In an adult female mammal, a greatly decreased
production of FSH will most likely result in a
decrease in all of the following factors
EXCEPT:
A) progesterone production.
B) estrogen production.
i b ut e C) GnRH production.
D) follicle maturation.
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage II 102. Which of the following compounds could

contribute to the nitrogen requirement in the
A patient had a persistent skin abscess. To growth medium?
determine what microbial organism was responsible
and to choose an appropriate antibiotic treatment A) Glucose
path, the wound was cultured. After isolation of a B) Glycerol
predominant microbial colony, a study of the
C) Glycine
organism’s growth was initiated. The data collected
from this growth rate study are shown in Figure 1. D) n-Hexanoic acid
Nutrient culture medium was inoculated with the
microbes at point A and allowed to grow for several 103. If antibiotic Z acts by inhibiting translation, its
hours. Standard culture plate counts were made every cellular site of action would most likely be the:
hour for 17 hours, and all incubations took place
under the same conditions of temperature, moisture, A) nucleus.
and oxygen concentration. Antibiotic Z was added to B) cell membrane.
the culture at point B.
C) lysosomes.
D) ribosomes.
104. The approximate generation time (doubling
t e
time) observed between points A and B in
u
Figure 1 is:
is t ri b A) 30 min.
B) 1 h.
D
C) 2 h.
N ot D) 5 h.
Do
Figure 1 Results of growth study
101. Which of the following organelles is(are) found

in both bacterial and eukaryotic cells?
I. Plasma membrane
II. Mitochondrion
III. Endoplasmic reticulum
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) I and III only

Document # 6973555
105. A semilogarithmic plot of the data used to

generate Figure 1 would look like which of the
following graphs?
A)
B)
i b ut e
C)
D is t r
N ot
DoD)

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 108. Compound A is shown below.
passage and are independent of each other.
106. When a biological membrane separates two

fluid compartments with different solute
concentrations, an osmotic pressure differential
between the two compartments can arise Compound A
because the membrane:
Which of the following structures has a
A) dissolves only nonpolar substances. configuration that is identical to that of
B) allows the passage of solute molecules only. Compound A?
C) allows the passage of solvent molecules but not
most solute molecules. A)
D) has electrical charges that attract some solute
particles while repelling others.
107. B)
i b ut e C)
D is t r D)
N ot
The above graph represents an action potential
recorded from the cell body of a neuron. What
Do
type of ion movement is causing the
depolarization of the neuronal membrane at the
time denoted by the arrow?
A) Sodium ions are moving into the neuron down a
concentration gradient.
B) Sodium ions are being moved out of the neuron
via active transport.
C) Potassium ions are moving out of the neuron down
a concentration gradient.
D) Potassium ions are being moved into the neuron
via active transport.

Document # 6973555
Passage III large to diffuse through the membrane. After the

solutes have passed through the membrane, they are
Healthy kidneys function to excrete toxic washed away in the dialysate fluid; excess fluid and
metabolic byproducts and return needed substances to waste products are thus removed from the patient’s
the bloodstream, thereby maintaining a relatively bloodstream. Table 1 lists concentrations of various
constant blood plasma solute concentration. For solutes in normal plasma, in plasma from a typical
people with chronic renal failure, hemodialysis is a renal failure patient before dialysis, and the range of
life-sustaining procedure. Figure 1 shows features of solute concentrations used in dialysate solutions.
an early hemodialysis unit design. Figure 2 shows a
more recent, improved hemodialysis unit. Table 1 Solute Concentrations
Dialysate range
Normal Renal
Solute Low High
plasma failure
140 138 128 140
Sodium
mEq/L mEq/L mEq/L mEq/L
100 92 95 110
Chloride
4.0 5.0 1.0 2.0
Potassium
e
24 18 35 40
t
Bicarbonate
s t ri b u Urea
nitrogen
20
mg/100
mL
60
mg/100
mL
0 0
i
Figure 1 Early hemodialysis unit 1 4
N ot D Creatinine
Solution pH
mg/100
mL
7.40
mg/100
mL
7.35
0
6.80 7.80
0
Do
109. The osmotic concentration of plasma proteins
in the venous side of capillaries helps reduce
the amount of interstitial fluid in tissues by
inducing:
A) passive H2O diffusion along a concentration
gradient.
B) passive ion diffusion along an electrochemical
Figure 2 Improved hemodialysis unit gradient.
Blood from the patient is pumped through a C) facilitated ion transport along an electrochemical
dialysis filter, which is bathed in dialysate fluid that is gradient.
continuously pumped out of the dialyzing chamber.
D) active H2O transport mediated by an
After passing through the dialyzing chamber, the
ATP-dependent pump.
blood is returned to the patient. The dialysis
membrane is made of a thin semiporous material,
which allows diffusion of solutes with molecular
weights up to 1000–2000 daltons, depending on the
size of the membrane pores. Protein molecules are too

Document # 6973555
110. Capillaries in the kidney and elsewhere in the 113. Why are high concentrations of sodium
body maintain fluid homeostasis by balancing included in the dialysate (Table 1)?
hydrostatic and osmotic pressures. Which of the A) To induce water movement from the blood into
following is the initial effect of a blood clot the dialysate fluid
forming on the venous side of a capillary bed?
B) To maintain a high osmotic pressure in the
A) Net fluid flow in the direction of interstitial spaces dialysate solution
will increase.
C) To maintain isotonicity of the dialysate solution
B) Net fluid flow in the direction of interstitial spaces with blood
will decrease.
D) To compensate for the urea nitrogen and
C) Capillary osmotic pressure will increase. creatinine in the blood
D) Capillary osmotic pressure will decrease.
111. Which of the following changes in flow rate or

in solute concentrations would NOT occur if
the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing
the pressure in the dialysis chamber?
A) The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per
unit time would increase.
B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the
dialysate fluid would increase.
i b ut e
C) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the
blood outflow would increase or remain
unchanged.
D is t r
ot
D) The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane
N
would increase.
Do
112. Bicarbonate ions in the blood and the dialysate
are important for maintaining physiological
levels of:
A) water.
B) chloride.
C) hydrogen ions.
D) glucose.

Document # 6973555
114. Which of the following figures (A–D) shows

expected solute filtration rates (mEq/mL-min)
as a function of molecular weight for two
dialysis membranes: Membrane 1 with large
pores and Membrane 2 with small pores?
A)
B)
i b ut e
C)
D is t r
N ot
DoD)

Document # 6973555
Passage IV
The bromination of 2,2-dimethylbutane IV was
A group of students investigated the free radical attempted under the same conditions without success.
halogenation of 2,3-dimethylbutane I, Reaction 1.
Reaction 2
Finally, the students carried out a competitive
bromination experiment using a mixture of II and V
(Reaction 3). The product of the bromination of
Compound II was the only product observed.
Reaction 1
The reaction was monitored by gas
chromatography, which showed the initial formation
of the monobromo product II followed by the rapid
i b ut e
r
conversion to the dibromo product III. Data obtained
t
at one point in the reaction are given in Table 1. The
in Table 2.
t D
at equal concentrations, used as standards, are given
i
retention times of authentic samples of I, II, and III,
s
N
Table 1
o
Do
Reaction mixture Retention Peak area Reaction 3
from Reaction 1 time (s) (cm2)
Peak 1 60 5 115. Compound II can also be prepared by treatment
Peak 2 74 10 of 2,3-dimethyl-2-butanol with:
Table 2 A) Br2/light.
B) Br2/CCl4.
Compound Retention Peak area
(standards) time (s) (cm2) C) NaBr.
I 40 10 D) HBr.
II 60 10
III 75 10

Document # 6973555
116. Which of these cycloalkanes will undergo free 118. What stereochemical outcome is expected in
radical bromination most rapidly? the formation of Compound II?
A) A) It would be formed as a pair of enantiomers,
because invasion of the bromine radical can
approach from either side.
B) It would be formed as a pair of enantiomers,
B)
because inversion is faster than carbon–bromine
bond formation.
C) It would be formed as a pair of diastereomers,
C) because the bromine radical can approach from
either side.
D) It is an optically inactive compound, because it
has no chiral carbon.
D)
119. The 1H NMR of Compound II would consist
of:
A) two singlets.
e
B) a doublet and a septet.
117. According to the gas chromatographic data in
Table 1, what is the composition of the reaction
ri b ut C) a singlet, a doublet, and a septet.

D) two singlets, a doublet, and a septet.
t
mixture from Reaction 1?
A) 33% II and 67% III
B) 33% III and 67% II
t D is
C) 45% II and 55% III
N o
Do
D) 45% III and 55% II

Document # 6973555
Passage V 120. Which of the following compounds is the

precursor for the oxygen atoms in the
During metabolism, carbohydrates are converted glycolysis intermediates?
into many other biologically important oxygen-
containing compounds. A) Glucose
In glycolysis, phosphate esters and anhydrides are B) Atomic oxygen (O)
particularly important. A phosphate ester can be C) Molecular oxygen (O2)
thought of as the product of the reaction between an
alcohol and phosphoric acid (Equation 1). D) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
121. Which of the following classifications apply to

dihydroxyacetone?
I. Alcohol
II. Ketone
III. Carbohydrate
Equation 1 IV. Acetal
A phosphate anhydride is the product of the A) I and II only
reaction of an organic acid and phosphoric acid B) III and IV only
e
(Equation 2).
t
C) I, II, and III only
s t ri b u D) I, II, and IV only
i
122. Which of the following structures is the enol
D
form of pyruvate?
N
Equation 2
ot A)
Do
The intermediates of the citric acid cycle are
carboxylic acids or their α-keto derivatives. One key
intermediate, pyruvate, is a molecular link between
glycolysis, the pathway in which it is produced from B)
the carbohydrate glucose, and the citric acid cycle, the
pathway in which it is metabolized to CO2.
Figure 1 shows the structures of some
intermediates in carbohydrate metabolism.
C)
D)
Figure 1 Intermediates in carbohydrate metabolism

Document # 6973555
123. A reaction in the citric acid cycle is shown 124. The four five-carbon carbohydrates shown
below. (The equation is not balanced.) below
illustrate principles of carbohydrate
nomenclature.
This reaction would be described as:
I. oxidation–reduction.
II. decarboxylation.
III. isomerization.
A) I only Another five-carbon carbohydrate is xylulose.
Which of the following statements
B) II only apply(applies) to xylulose?
C) Both I and II
I. It is an isomer of deoxyribose.
D) Both I and III II. It is an isomer of ribose.
III. It is an isomer of xylose.
i b ut e A) I only
B) II only
D is t r C) I and III only

D) II and III only
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Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 128. Which of the compounds shown below can
passage and are independent of each other. form hydrogen bonds with water?
125. One characteristic common to arteries, veins, CH3–CH2–CH3 CH3–CH2–NH2

and capillaries is the: Compound 1 Compound 2
A) presence of a layer of endothelial cells. A) Compound 1 only
B) presence of numerous valves that prevent the B) Compound 2 only
backflow of blood.
C) Both compounds
C) ability to actively dilate or constrict in regulating
D) Neither compound
blood flow.
D) ability to supply surrounding tissues with 129. The term α-helix refers to what kind of protein
nutrients by filtration and diffusion. structure?
A) Primary
126. Tissue that is very active metabolically, such as
skeletal muscle, contains large numbers of: B) Secondary
A) nuclei. C) Tertiary
B) fat deposits. D) Quaternary
C) blood capillaries.
D) lymphatic vessels.
i b ut e
127. The finches observed by Darwin on the
Galapagos Islands are an example of adaptive
D is t r
t
radiation. In order to set up conditions that
o
would produce adaptive radiation, it would be
N
necessary to place members of:
Do
A) one species in one rapidly changing environment.
B) one species in several different environments.
C) several very similar species in the same
environment.
D) several unlike species in one environment to
compete for the same resources.

Document # 6973555
Passage VI Table 1 Effects of Peptide A
Bone remodeling is a cyclic process involving OB OC

bone resorption by osteoclasts (OC), followed by activity activity [Osteoblatin]
bone formation by osteoblasts (OB). How this event Group (units) (units) (ng/mL)
is triggered is uncertain. A new drug, Peptide A, 1. OB only 10 NA 0
binds to specific sites on the plasma membranes of 2. OB + Peptide A 9 NA 9
OB, the bone-forming cells. Two experiments were 3. OC only NA 1 NA
done to study Peptide A. 4. OC + Peptide A NA 2 NA
5. OB + OC 11 1 0
Experiment 1
6. OB + OC +
Peptide A was added to the growth medium of 2 23 50
Peptide A
cultured OB. The medium and cells were analyzed 24
(NA = not applicable)
hours later. The only apparent effect of Peptide A on
OB was an increase in the production and secretion of Peptide B competes with Peptide A for the same
a peptide called osteoblatin. Figure l shows these plasma membrane receptors; however, Peptide B has
results. Upon further investigation, osteoblatin was no effect on the OB, does not stimulate osteoblatin
found to be 97% homologous to osteoactivin, a production, and competitively inhibits Peptide A.
peptide that markedly stimulates osteoclastic bone
resorption. 130. Which conclusion about Peptide A receptor
e
binding can be reached from Figure 1?
ri b ut A) Peptide A requires 100% receptor binding to

produce the most osteoblatin.
D is t B) Peptide A produces the most osteoblatin possible

at less than 100% receptor binding.
t
C) At 50% binding to its receptors, Peptide A
N o produces 50% of the maximal amount of

osteoblatin.
Do
D) Peptide A continues to stimulate increasing levels
of osteoblatin production at over 50% receptor
binding.
Figure 1 Effect of Peptide A on osteoblatin
Experiment 2 131. When OB is incubated with a constant
Growth medium with and without Peptide A (25 concentration of Peptide A (25 ng/mL) and
ng/mL) was then incubated with OB only, OC only, increasing concentrations of Peptide B,
or OB plus OC. After 24 hours, the medium and cells osteoblatin concentration:
were tested for the amount of osteoblatin secreted, for A) increases exponentially.
bone-forming activity (OB activity), and for bone-
resorbing activity (OC activity). The results are B) increases linearly.
shown in Table 1. C) remains constant.
D) decreases.

Document # 6973555
132. What can be concluded about Peptide A from 134. To most effectively study the effect of Peptide
Experiment 2? A on transcription of the osteoblatin gene, a
scientist should determine the:
A) It is ineffective in stimulating osteoclastic
activity. A) sequence of the osteoblatin gene.
B) It acts directly on OC to increase bone resorption. B) amount of osteoblatin mRNA in the cell.
C) It acts indirectly through OB to increase bone C) amount of osteoblatin peptide in the cell.
resorption. D) total RNA in the cell.
D) It acts directly on OB to increase bone formation.
135. The overall effect of Peptide A on bone is to:
133. In Experiment 2, which three groups A) increase bone mass.
demonstrated cell line viability and allowed the
determination of basal cellular activities? B) decrease bone mass.
A) Groups 1, 2, and 3 C) narrow haversian canals.
B) Groups 1, 3, and 5 D) maintain constant bone mass.
C) Groups 2, 4, and 6
D) Groups 4, 5, and 6
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
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Document # 6973555
Passage VII 137. To be an effective therapy, an antisense gene

that is incorporated into a genome that contains
A new strategy of drug design uses nucleic acid the target gene must be:
macromolecules to prevent the expression of a gene.
The target of the drug can be a gene in a bacterial cell, A) on the same chromosome as the target gene but
a cancer cell, or a virus-occupied eukaryotic cell; the not necessarily be physically adjacent.
macromolecular drug can be either produced within a B) on the same chromosome as the target gene and
biological system or added to it. Normally produced must be physically adjacent.
messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules are known as the
sense RNA. Antisense nucleic acids, which are C) regulated in a similar manner as the target gene.
complementary to a portion of the sense mRNA, can D) coded on the same strand of DNA as the target
be synthesized. The antisense molecules will bind gene.
specifically to the sense mRNA and prevent the
production of the natural gene product. 138. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder caused by
A problem encountered in the design of antisense a mutation in the gene for the enzyme
drugs was that oligonucleotides may only persist for a phenylalanine hydroxylase, which eliminates its
matter of minutes before they are degraded by cellular enzymatic activity. Could an antisense drug
processes. Antisense drugs became feasible when help individuals with this disorder?
phosphorothioate analogs of the oligonucleotides A) Yes, if it binds to the mRNA of the phenylalanine
were developed; these analogs can exist for days or hydroxylase gene and prevents its translation
weeks within the cell.
Genes that produce an antisense sequence can also
i b ut e B) Yes, if it is incorporated into the chromosome and

prevents the expression of the phenylalanine
r
hydroxylase gene
t
be synthesized and added to the genome of
is
organisms. In this manner antisense and sense RNA C) No, because mRNA does not persist in the
D
molecules could be produced simultaneously—in cytoplasm of the cell
t
effect, preventing the production of the gene product
o
permanently. D) No, because blockage of phenylalanine
N
hydroxylase gene expression will not remedy the
original disorder
Do
136. When used as described in the passage,
antisense drugs prevent:
139. Which of the following nucleotide sequences
A) DNA replication. describes an antisense molecule that can
B) RNA transcription. hybridize with the mRNA sequence
C) RNA translation. 5 -CGAUAC-3 ?
D) cell replication. A) 5 -GCTATG-3

B) 5 -GCUAUG-3
C) 3 -GCUAUG-5
D) 3 -GCAUAG-5

Document # 6973555
140. An effective and efficient method for the 141. If oligonucleotides such as mRNA were not
delivery of an antisense gene could be: degraded rapidly by intracellular agents, which
of the following processes would be most
A) orally as an emulsified product.
affected?
B) microinjection into individual body cells.
A) The production of tRNA in the nucleus
C) intravenously as a nonantigenic, blood-stable
B) The coordination of cell differentiation during
product.
development
D) infection of an embryo by a virus modified to
C) The diffusion of respiratory gases across the cell
carry the gene.
membrane
D) The replication of DNA in the nucleus
i b ut e
D is t r
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Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 144. If chromosomal duplication before tetrad
passage and are independent of each other. formation occurred twice during
spermatogenesis, while the other steps of
142. When muscles in the skin contract and cause meiosis proceeded normally, which of the
the hair of an animal to ―stand on end,‖ the skin following would result from a single
could be functioning as a regulator of: spermatocyte?
A) pH. A) One tetraploid sperm
B) salt excretion. B) Four diploid sperm
C) body temperature. C) Four haploid sperm
D) skeletal muscle tone. D) Eight haploid sperm
143. Of the isomeric alcohols (compounds 1–4),

which is most reactive in an SN1 reaction with 145. All of the following occur during normal
HBr? inspiration of air in mammals EXCEPT:
A) elevation of the rib cage.
B) relaxation of the diaphragm.
C) reduction of pressure in the pleural cavity.
i b ut e D) contraction of the external intercostal rib muscles.
r
146. Radioactively labeled uracil is added to a
D is t culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. In

which of the following cell structures will the
t
uracil be incorporated?
o
A) Compound 1 A) Chromosomes
Do N
B) Compound 2
C) Compound 3
D) Compound 4
B) Ribosomes
C) Lysosomes
D) Nuclear membrane

Document # 6973555
Physical Sciences 39 (A) (B) (C) (D) 76 (A) (B) (C) (D) 111 (A) (B) (C) (D)
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 40 (A) (B) (C) (D) 77 (A) (B) (C) (D) 112 (A) (B) (C) (D)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D) 90 (A) (B) (C) (D) 125 (A) (B) (C) (D)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D) Verbal Reasoning 91 (A) (B) (C) (D) 126 (A) (B) (C) (D)
17 (A) (B) (C) (D) 54 (A) (B) (C) (D) 128 (A) (B) (C) (D)
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 55 (A) (B) (C) (D) Writing Sample 129 (A) (B) (C) (D)
19 (A) (B) (C) (D) 56 (A) (B) (C) (D) 93 130 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 (A) (B) (C) (D) 57 (A) (B) (C) (D) 94 131 (A) (B) (C) (D)
21 (A) (B) (C) (D) 58 (A) (B) (C) (D) 132 (A) (B) (C) (D)
22 (A) (B) (C) (D) 59 (A) (B) (C) (D) Biological Sciences 133 (A) (B) (C) (D)
e
t
u
i b
t r
s
29 (A) (B) (C) (D)
30 (A) (B) (C) (D)
31 (A) (B) (C) (D)
32 (A) (B) (C) (D)
ot D i
66 (A) (B) (C) (D)
67 (A) (B) (C) (D)
68 (A) (B) (C) (D)
69 (A) (B) (C) (D)
101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
102 (A) (B) (C) (D)
103 (A) (B) (C) (D)
104 (A) (B) (C) (D)
140
141
142
143
(A)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)
N
Do
36 (A) (B) (C) (D) 73 (A) (B) (C) (D) 108 (A) (B) (C) (D)
37 (A) (B) (C) (D) 74 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
38 (A) (B) (C) (D) 75 (A) (B) (C) (D) 110 (A) (B) (C) (D)
62 of 62

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Document # 6973555

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i b ut e 4. A charged particle with a mass of m and a charge

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6. Which of the following best describes the motion

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Passage II 8. The formation of one mole of which oxygenate

i b ut e 10. Which of the following nonoxygenated analogs

Table 1 Data for Gasoline Additives

C) Hydrogen bonding D) free energy change is always positive.

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These questions are not based on a descriptive

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Table 1 Ka Values H2O

i b ut e 19. When 2.0 mL of 0.1 M NaOH(aq) is added to

B) HNO2(aq) and NaNO2(aq) B) Na+ is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH –(aq)

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Passage IV 21. Suppose that the atmospheric pressure suddenly

ri b ut D) hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the

24. The actual oscillating surface in Figure 1 would

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is t ri b D) No work is required using a pulley.

N o 2Na(s) + Cl2(g) 2Na+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq)

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31. Which of the following shows the electron

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Passage V 32. Which of the following statements could explain

i b ut e C) the surrounding liquid is subjected to the same

ot D i 34. Heating of the vapor bubbles occurs during the

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35. Atomic hydrogen has a characteristic spectral

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2Na[Al(OH)4](aq) + CO2(g) Na2CO3(aq) +

40. In the reaction shown in Equation 1, Al(OH)3

2Al2O3(ℓ) 4Al(s) + 3O2(g)

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42. In the reaction shown in Equation 2, three moles

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Figure 1 Optical bench

i b ut e surface. What equation relates the angles l and

When the mirror is located at C (50-cm mark), the

Figure 2 Convex mirror

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 51.

48. If the magnitude of a positive charge is tripled,