Comprehensive Viva 342

“COMPREHENSIVE VIVA”
Submitted to
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad
In the partial fulfillment of the requirement for
The award of the degree
BACHELOR OF TECHNOLOGY
IN
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
BY
G. SHESHASAIBABA 157Y1A0342
1
FILL IN BLANKS
1. 1. The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as BLEEDING
2. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical when viewed from the front of the car is called
CAMBER
3. The petrol engines are also known as SPARK IGNITION (S.I) engines.
4. The main task of a battery in automobiles is to supply a large amount of power to turn the starter
motor when engine is being started.
5. The connecting rods are generally made of I -shaped cross-section.
6. The closed cycle in gas turbines Provides greater flexibility.
7. The overall thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is (where r = Pressure ratio)1 - (1/r) ɣ-1/ɣ
8.Gas turbine's blade will appear as impulse section at the hub and as a reaction section at tip.
9. The degree of reaction is usually kept 0.5for all types of axial flow compressors.
10. Ram compression in turbojet involves Reduction of speed of incoming air and conversion of
part of it into pressure energy
11. A compressor mostly used for supercharging of I.C. engines is Radial flow compressor
12. In jet engines, for the efficient production of large power, fuel is burnt in an atmosphere of
Compressed air
13. The work-done on a compressor will be minimum if air is taken from A source of low
temperature air
14. In the aircraft propellers The propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
15. In a jet propulsion unit, the products of combustion after passing through the gas turbine are
discharged into Discharge nozzle
16. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is K cal m/hr m² °C
17. Thermal diffusivity is a Physical property of a substance
18 The exhaust gas from petrol engine contains are petrol vapours, water vapours and carbon
monoxide.
19. The connecting rod is attached to the piston by the piston pin.
20. The torque converter uses automatic transmission fluid(ATF) to transfer torque.
21. In a diesel engine, the function of a fuel injector is to spray atomized fuel in the cylinder.
22. The two kinds of piston rings are compression and oil-control rings.
23. According to Dalton's law of partial pressures, (where pb = Barometric pressure, pa = Partial
pressure of dry air, and pv = Partial pressure of water vapour) is Pb = pa + pv
24. Heat transfer takes place as per Second law of the thermodynamics
25. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is given by Q = 4πkr1 r2 (T1 - T2)/ (r2 - r1)
2
26. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated
particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by Conduction
27. Fourier's law of heat conduction is (where Q = Amount of heat flow through the body in unit
time, A = Surface area of heat flow, taken at right angles to the direction of heat flow, dT =
Temperature difference on the two faces of the body, dx = Thickness of the body, through which the
heat flows, taken along the direction of heat flow, and k = Thermal conductivity of the body) is k. A.
(dT/dx)
28. When heat is transferred from hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the
intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by Radiation
29. Reynolds number (RN) is given by (where h = Film coefficient, l = Linear dimension, V = Velocity
of fluid, k = Thermal conductivity, t = Temperature, ρ = Density of fluid, cp = Specific heat at constant
pressure, and μ = Coefficient of absolute viscosity) is RN = ρ V l /μ
30. Sensible heat is the heat required to Increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
31. Thermal conductivity of glass wool varies from sample to sample because of variation in
Composition, Density and Porosity
32. According to Stefan Boltzmann law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area
is directly proportional to the Fourth power of the absolute temperature
33. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the Quantity of heat flowing in one
second through one cm cube of material when opposite faces are maintained at a temperature
difference of 1°C
34. In case of liquids and gases, the heat transfer takes place according to Convection
35.Aluminiumhas maximum value of thermal conductivity
36. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (t m) is given by (where Δt1 and Δt2 are temperature
differences between the hot and cold fluids at entrance and exit) is tm = (Δt1 - Δt2)/ loge (Δt1/Δt2)
37. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is prevented by A vapour
seal
38. The radiation emitted by a black body is known as Black radiation, Full radiation and Total
radiation
39. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz. conduction, convection and radiation in
Boiler
40. According to Newton's law of cooling, the heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body is directly
proportional to the surface area and also proportional to the difference of temperatures between
the two bodies
41. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
42. Reynolds number is the ratio of Inertia force to viscous force
43. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon) Its temperature, Nature of the body and Kind
and extent of its surface.
3
44. In counter current flow heat exchanger, the logarithmic temperature difference between the fluids
is Greater as compared to parallel flow heat exchanger.
45. Thermal diffusivity is a physical property of the material
46. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to Control absorption of neutron
47. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to return the neutrons back into the core
48. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by increasing the contents of U₂₃₅ and By
slowing down fast neutrons so that U₂₃₅ fission continues by slow neutron
49.In a heterogeneous or solid fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a regular pattern within moderator
50. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to Cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce
their speed
51. U₂₃₃ is produced When thorium is irradiated by neutrons
52. Solid fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various small shapes such as Pallets
53. In fast breeder reactors Moderator is dispensed with
54. Uranium has isotopes U232, U234 and U238
55. Each fission of U232 produces following number of fast neutrons per fission2 neutrons
56. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by Slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz
fission continues by slow motion neutrons
57. The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium 235 in million electron volts is
about200
58. Boiling water reactor employs Direct cycle of coolant system
60. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a conventional thermal power plant is
less
61. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve Opens at 20° before top
dead centre and closes at 35° after the bottom dead centre
62. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure into the engine cylinder is known as
Supercharging
63. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression
stroke and after compression stroke
64. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ =
Ratio of specific heats)1 - (1/rγ - 1)
65.Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
66. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine areOne-half the speed of the
engine in r.p.m.
67. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of15: 1
68. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the burnt gases from the combustion
chamber of the engine cylinder is known as Scavenging
69. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located between the pistons
4
70. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine before the passage of spark is
called Pre-ignition
71. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine Fuel injection starts at 10° before top
dead centre and ends at 20° after top dead centre
72.30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m. engines will have heavier flywheel
than the remaining ones
73.Gasolineis the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel
74. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is
Very high as compared to a steam engine.
75. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet temperature, will Decrease linearly
76. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the work-done per cycle is called Coefficient of
fluctuation of energy
77. A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by two masses placed at a fixed
distance apart. The two masses form an equivalent dynamical system, if The sum of the two masses
is equal to the total mass of body
78. The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a slider crank chain when the
Coupler link is fixed
79. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle Moved by the cam from the instant the follower
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
80. A completely constrained motion can be transmitted with. 4 links with pin joints
81. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and frequency
is equal to One
82. The centrifugal tension in belts Have no effect on power transmitted
83. In a spring controlled governor, when the controlling force Increases as the radius of rotation
increases, it is said to be a stable governor.
84. The mechanism in which two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs, is called a Scotch yoke
mechanism
85. A rotor supported at A and B carries two masses as shown in the below figure. The rotor
isstatically and dynamically balanced
5
86. The minimum periodic time of a compound pendulum is2π. √(2kG/g)
87. Idler pulley is used For applying tension
88. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a cosine curve represents Acceleration diagram
89. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will giveA large value of
pressure angle
90. The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zeroat the mean position.
91. When a gas is heated, change takes place inTemperature, Pressure and Volume
92. One molecule of oxygen consists of2atoms of oxygen.
93. Pressure, Volume, and Temperature variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
94. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the lowest boiling point is first
evaporated and re-condensed, then the liquid with the next higher boiling point is then evaporated and
re-condensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are separately recovered in the sequence of
their boiling points. Such a process is called Fractional distillation
95. Work done in a free expansion process is Zero
96.Boyle's law, Charles ‘law and Gay Lussa’s law laws is applicable for the behaviour of a perfect
gas
97. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is Kelvin
98. A cycle consisting of Two constant volumes and two isothermal processes is known as Stirling
cycle
99. A tri-atomic molecule consists of three atoms.
100. The unit of mass in S.I. units is Kilogram
6
1. ENGINEERING MECHANICS
1. According to principle of conservation of energy, the total momentum of a system of masses in
any direction remains constant unless acted upon by an external force in that direction.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option B
2. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as

A
rolling friction
.
B. dynamic friction
C
limiting friction
.
D
static friction
.
Answer: Option B
3. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the ball
with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a
velocity
A
v
.
B. v/2
C
v/4
.
D
v/8
.
Answer: Option B
4. The term 'force' may be defined as an agent which produces or tends to produce, destroys or tends
to destroy motion.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
5. The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one.

A
Correct
.
7
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
6. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle θ to the horizontal and weight
being pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort is
A
sin θ
.
B. cos θ
C
tan θ
.
D
cosec θ
.
Answer: Option A
7. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range on upward
inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
A
less than
.
B. more than
C
equal to
.
Answer: Option B
8. The angle of inclination of a vehicle when moving along a circular path __________ upon its
mass.
A
depends
.
B. does not depend

Answer: Option B
9. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of inclination
with the horizontal is α. The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by(where μ = tanφ =
Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.)
A
P = W tanα
.
B. P = W tan(α + φ)
C
P = W (sinα + μcosα)
.
D
P = W (cosα + μsinα)
.
Answer: Option C
10. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle
8
between the two forces is
A
30°
.
B. 60°
C
90°
.
D
120°
.
Answer: Option D
11. A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains in __________ equilibrium.
A
stable
.
B. unstable
C
neutral
.
Answer: Option B
12. Coefficient of friction is the ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction between the two
bodies.
A
Yes
.
B. No
Answer: Option A
13. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is
A
πd3/16
.
B. πd3/32
C
πd4/32
.
D
πd4/64
.
Answer: Option C
14. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on an upward inclined plane is(where u = Velocity of
projection, α = Angle of projection, and β = Inclination of the plane with the horizontal.)
9
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
15. The unit of angular acceleration is

A
N-m
.
B. m/s
C
m/s2
.
D
rad/s2
.
Answer: Option D
16. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing through
its C.G. and parallel to the base, is
A
bh3/4
.
B. bh3/8
C
bh3/12
.
D
bh3/36
.
Answer: Option D
17. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are reduced to 50 percent, then
tension in the string will be
10
A
same
.
B. half
C
double
.
Answer: Option B
18. Which of the following is an equation of linear motion?(where, u and v = Initial and final velocity
of the body, a = Acceleration of the body, and s = Displacement of the body in time t seconds.)
A
v = u + a.t
.
B. s = u.t + 1/2 a.t2
C
v2 = u2+2a.s
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
19. If a number of forces are acting at a point, theirresultant will be inclined at an angle θ with the
horizontal, such that
A
tan θ = ∑H/∑V
.
B. tan θ = ∑V/∑H
C
tan θ = ∑Vx∑H
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
20.
The above figure shows the two equal forces at right angles acting at a point. The value of force R
acting along their bisector and in opposite direction is
A
P/2
.
11
B. 2P
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
21. The force required to move the body up the plane will be minimum if it makes an angle with the
inclined plane __________ the angle of friction.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
Answer: Option A
22. In the shown figure, if the angle of inclination of the plane is increased, then acceleration of the
system will
A
increase
.
B. decrease
C
remain the same
.
Answer: Option B
23. The total time taken by a projectile to reach maximum height and to return back to the ground, is
known as time of flight.
A
Yes
.
B. No
Answer: Option A
24. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is

A
.
12
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option D
25. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle of projection is

A
30°
.
B. 45°
C
60°
.
D
90°
.
Answer: Option B
2.HYDRAULICS AND FLUID MECHANICS

26. A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having lengths l1, l2 and l3 is to be replaced by an
equivalent pipe of uniform diameter d and of the same length (l) as that of the compound pipe.
The size of the equivalent pipe is given by
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option D
27. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called

A
sub-sonic velocity
.
B. super-sonic velocity
13
C
lower critical velocity
.
D
higher critical velocity
.
Answer: Option D
28. When the pipes are in series, the total head loss is equal to the sum of the head loss in each pipe.
A
Yes
.
B. No
Answer: Option A
29. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, it is
subjected to some pressure. The component of this pressure, at right angles to the direction of
flow of the liquid is known as lift.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option A
30. The efficiency of power transmission through pipe is (where H = Total supply head, and hf =
Head lost due to friction in the pipe)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option A
31. The discharge over a rectangular weir, considering the velocity of approach, is (where H1 = Total
height of water above the weir = H + Ha H = Height of water, over the crest of the weir, and Ha =
Height of water, due to velocity of approach)
A
. Cd x L2g [H1 - Ha]
B.
Cd x L2g [H13/2 - Ha3/2]
C
. Cd x L2g [H12 - Ha2]
14
D
. Cd x L2g [H15/2 - Ha5/2]
Answer: Option B
32. A flow in which __________ force is dominating over the viscosity is called turbulent flow.
A
elastic
.
B. surface tension
C
viscous
.
D
inertia
.
Answer: Option D
33. If an incompressible liquid is continuously flowing through a pipe, the quantity of liquid passing
per second is different at different sections.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option B
34. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is

A
103 kN/m2
.
B. 10.3 m of water
C
760 mm of mercury
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
35. When the pressure intensity at a point is less than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called vacuum pressure.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
15
36. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called
A
one-dimensional flow
.
B. two-dimensional flow
C
three-dimensional flow
.
D
four-dimensional flow
.
Answer: Option B
37. When the Mach number is less than unity, the flow is called
A
sub-sonic flow
.
B. sonic flow
C
super-sonic flow
.
D
hyper-sonic flow
.
Answer: Option A
38. When the end contractions of the weir are suppressed, then number of end contractions (n) are
taken as zero
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
39. A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is

A
less than unity
.
B. unity
C
between 1 and 6
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option D
16
40. The power absorbed (in watts) in overcoming the viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
41. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is

A
directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid
.
B. directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
C
directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid
.
D
inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
.
Answer: Option B
42. If the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is called
A
critical flow
.
B. turbulent flow
C
tranquil flow
.
D
torrential flow
.
Answer: Option C
43. A submerged body is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its centre of gravity __________ the
centre of buoyancy.
A
coincides with
.
B. lies below
17
C
lies above
.
Answer: Option B
44. The critical depth for a channel is given by (where q = Unit discharge (discharge per unit width)
through the channel)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
45. The liquid used in manometers should have

A
low density
.
B. high density
C
low surface tension
.
D
high surface tension
.
Answer: Option D
46. The property of a liquid which controls its rate of flow is called viscosity.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option A
47. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity
0.011 poise, is
A
0.0116 stoke
.
B. 0.116 stoke
18
C
0.0611 stoke
.
D
0.611 stoke
.
Answer: Option A
48. The factional resistance of a pipe varies approximately with __________ of the liquid.
A
pressure
.
B. velocity
C
square of velocity
.
D
cube of velocity
.
Answer: Option C
49. If the coefficient of discharge is 0.6, then the discharge over a right angled notch is
A
0.417 H5/2
.
B. 1.417 H5/2
C
4.171 H5/2
.
D
7.141 H5/2
.
Answer: Option B
50. According to Bazin, the coefficient of discharge varies with the height of water over the sill
of a weir.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
3.STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
51. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries a
A
point load at the free end
.
19
B. point load at the middle of its length
C
uniformly distributed load over the whole length
.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option C
52. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the
assembly is subjected to a compressive load, then
A
rod is under compression
.
B. tube is under compression
C
both rod and tube are under compression
.
D
tube is under tension and rod is under compression
.
Answer: Option C
53. A bar of length L metres extends by l mm under a tensile force of P. The strain produced in the bar
is
A
l/L
.
B. 0.1 l/L
C
0.01 l/L
.
D
0.001 l/L
.
Answer: Option D
54. A shaft revolving at ω rad / s transmits torque (T) in N-m. The power developed is
A
T.ω watts
.
B. 2 π Tω watts
C
. watts
D
. watts
Answer: Option A
20
55. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of
A. stress, strain and pressure
B. stress, force and modulus of rigidity
C. strain, force and pressure
D. stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity

Answer: Option D
56. In a leaf spring, the deflection at the centre is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
57. The actual neutral axis of a reinforced cement concrete beam is based on the principle that the
moment of areas of compression and tension zones at the neutral axis are equal.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
58. A cantilever beam is one which is

A
fixed at both ends
.
B. fixed at one end and free at the other end
C
supported at its ends
.
D
supported on more than two supports
.
Answer: Option B
21
59. In the above question, the ratio of stiffness of spring 'B' to spring 'A' will be
A
2
.
B. 4
C
6
.
D
8
.
Answer: Option D
60. The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through the centre of gravity of the
section and is
A
in the vertical plane
.
B. in the horizontal plane
C
in the same plane in which the beam bends
.
D
at right angle to the plane in which the beam bends
.
Answer: Option D
61. The tensile test is carried on __________ materials.

A
ductile
.
B. brittle
C
malleable
.
D
plastic
.
Answer: Option A
62. If percentage elongation of a certain specimen made of a material 'A' under tensile test is 30% and
the percentage elongation of a specimen with same dimensions made of another material 'B' is
40%, then material 'B' is more ductile than material 'A'.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
22
63. A fixed beam is one which is fixed at __________ of its ends.
A
one
.
B. both
Answer: Option B
64. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of

A
ultimate stress to working stress
.
B. working stress to ultimate stress
C
breaking stress to ultimate stress
.
D
ultimate stress to breaking stress
.
Answer: Option A
65. The value of equivalent length is taken to be half of the actual length of a column with one end
fixed and the other end free.
A
Agree
.
B. Disagree
Answer: Option B
66. A leaf spring is supported at the

A
ends and loaded at the centre
.
B. centre and loaded at the ends
C
ends and loaded anywhere
.
D
centre and loaded anywhere
.
Answer: Option B
67. In leaf springs, the maximum bending stress developed in the plates is (where W = Load acting on
the spring, l = Span of the spring, n = Number of plates, b = Width of plates, and t = Thickness of
plates)
A
.
23
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
68. The unit of stress in S.I. units is

A
N/mm2
.
B. kN/mm2
C
N/m2
.
D
any one of these
.
Answer: Option D
69. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to

A
10 kN/mm2
.
B. 80 kN/mm2
C
100 kN/mm2
.
D
210 kN/mm2
.
Answer: Option D
70. The Rankine's formula holds good for

A
short columns
.
B. long columns
C
both short and long columns
.
D
weak columns
.
Answer: Option C
24
71. A rectangular beam subjected to a bending moment is shown in the below figure. The upper layer
of the beam will be in tension.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option B
72. The strain energy stored in a body due to shear stress, is (where τ = Shear stress, C = Shear
modulus, and V = Volume of the body)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option C
73. In case of eccentrically loaded struts __________ is preferred.

A
solid section
.
B. hollow section
C
composite section
.
D
reinforced section
.
Answer: Option C
74. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the deflection at C is (where E = Young's modulus for
the beam material, and I = Moment of inertia of the beam section. )
25
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option B
.
75. In a stress-strain diagram as shown in the below figure, the curve A represents
A
mild steel
.
B. soft brass
C
low carbon steel
.
D
cold rolled steel
.
Answer: Option B
4.MACHINE DESIGN
76. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a
26
A
dun cylinder
.
B. thick cylinder
C
solid shaft
.
D
hollow shaft
.
Answer: Option D
77. A sliding bearing in which the working surfaces are completely separated from each other by
lubricant is called zero film bearing.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option B
78. Screws used for power transmission should have

A
Low efficiency
.
B. high efficiency
C
very fine threads
.
D
strong teeth
.
Answer: Option B
79. The number of rivets in shear shall be equal to the number of rivets in crushing.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
80. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater than a right angle
and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are known as
A
angular bevel gears
.
B. crown bevel gears
C
internal bevel gears
.
27
D
mitre gears
.
Answer: Option B
81. In the levers of first type, the mechanical advantage is __________ one.
A
less than
.
B. equal to
C
more than
.
Answer: Option C
82. The load placed at the top of the screw in a mechanical screw jack is prevented from rotation by
providing a swivelling mechanism.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
83. The usual proportion for the width of key is (where d = Diameter of shaft or diameter of hole in
the hub)
A
d/8
.
B. d/6
C
d/4
.
D
d/2
.
Answer: Option C
84. The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is

A directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia and to the distance of the point from the
. axis
directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely proportional to the polar moment
B.
of inertia
C
directly proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
.
D
inversely proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
.
Answer: Option B
28
85. Two concentric helical springs used to provide greater spring force are wound is opposite
direction.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option A
86. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is increased, then the pressure
angle
A
increases
.
B. decreases
C
remains unchanged
.
Answer: Option A
87. In cylindrical cams, the follower moves

A
in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
.
B. in a direction parallel to the cam axis
C
in any direction irrespective of cam axis
.
D
along the cam axis
.
Answer: Option B
88. The included angle for the acme thread is 29°.

A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option A
89. The process extensively used for making bolts and nuts is
A
hot piercing
.
B. extrusion
C
cold peening
.
29
D
cold heading
.
Answer: Option D
90. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.
A
0.5 times
.
B. equal to
C
2 times
.
D
double
.
Answer: Option C
91. When an open coiled helical compression spring is subjected to an axial compressive load, the
maximum shear stress induced in the wire is (where D = Mean diameter of the spring coil, d =
Diameter of the spring wire, K = Wahl's stress factor, and W = Axial compressive load on the
spring)
A
.
B.
C
.
D
.
Answer: Option D
92. The product of the diametral pitch and module is equal to one.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
93. The static tooth load should be __________ the dynamic load.
A
equal to
.
B. less than
C
greater than
.
Answer: Option C
30
94. Power screws are used to convert rotary motion into translatory motion.
A
True
.
B. False
Answer: Option A
95. The function of the washer is to

A
fill up the axial gap
.
B. provide bearing area
C
provide cushioning effect
.
D
absorb shocks and vibrations
.
Answer: Option B
96. In case of pressure vessels having open ends, the fluid pressure induces
A
longitudinal stress
.
B. circumferential stress
C
shear stress
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
97. The set screws are used to prevent relative motion between the two parts.
A
Correct
.
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
98. The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to

A
pitch angle - addendum angle
.
B. pitch angle + addendum angle
C pitch angle - dedendum angle
31
.
D
pitch angle + dedendum angle
.
Answer: Option B
99. Two shafts will have equal strength, if

A
diameter of both the shafts is same
.
B. angle of twist of both the shafts is same
C
material of both the shafts is same
.
D
twisting moment of both the shafts is same
.
Answer: Option D
100. The size of a cam depends upon

A. base circle
B. pitch circle
C. prime circle
D. pitch curve
Answer: Option A
5.ENGINEERING MATERIALS
101. Which of the following is a case hardening process?
A. Carburising
B. Cyaniding
C. Nitriding
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
102. In a crystalline material, atoms are arranged in definite and orderly manner and form.
A. Agree
B. Disagree
32
Answer: Option A
103. The austenitic stainless steel contains

A. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
B. 8% chromium and 18% nickel
C. 14% chromium and 0.35% carbon
D. 14% nickel and 0.35% carbon

Answer: Option A
104. The process used for relieving the internal stresses previously set up in the Metal and for
increasing the machinability of steel, is
A. Normalising
B. full annealing
C. process annealing
D. Spheroidising
Answer: Option C
105. Steel containing upto 0.15% carbon, is known as

A. mild steel
B. dead mild steel
C. medium carbon steel
D. high carbon steel

Answer: Option B
106. In a unit cell of a body centred cubic space lattice, there are __________ atoms.
A. Six
B. Nine
C. Fourteen
D. Seventeen
Answer: Option B
107. Cast iron has

A. high compressive strength
B. excellent machinability
C. good casting characteristic
D. all of these
33
Answer: Option D
108. The nuts and bolts are made from silicon steel.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
109. Silicon in cast iron

A. makes the iron soft and easily machinable
B. increases hardness and brittleness
C. makes the iron white and hard
D. aids fusibility and fluidity

Answer: Option A
110. The process which improves the machinability of steels, but lowers the hardness and tensile
strength, is
A. Normalising
B. full annealing
C. process annealing
D. Spheroidising
Answer: Option D
111. Which of the following iron exist between 910° C and 1403° C?
A. α-iron
B. β-iron
C. γ-iron
D. δ-iron
Answer: Option C
112. The material in which the atoms are arranged chaotically, is called
A. amorphous material
B. mesomorphous material
C. crystalline material
34
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
113. In basic bessemer process, the furnace is lined with

A. silica bricks
B. a mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
114. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) is a __________ material.

A. Thermoplastic
B. Thermosetting
Answer: Option A
115. In a unit cell of close packed hexagonal space lattice, there are twenty four atoms.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
116. The steel produced by cementation process is known as __________ steel.

A. Blister
B. Crucible
Answer: Option A
117. Duralumin has better strength than Y-alloy at high temperature.

A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
118. Normalising of steel is done to

A. refine the grain structure
B. remove strains caused by cold working
C. remove dislocations caused in the internal structuure due to hot working
D. all of the above
35
Answer: Option D
119. A steel containing 12 to 14% chromium and 0.12 to 0.35% carbon is called martensitic
stainless steel.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
120. When a steel containing __________ 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower critical
point, it consists of ferrite and pearlite.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. more than
Answer: Option B
121. Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding

A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. nickel and chromium
D. sulphur, lead and phosphorus

Answer: Option C
122. In low carbon steels, __________ raises the yield point and improves the resistance to
atmospheric corrosion.
A. Sulphur
B. Phosphorus
C. Manganese
D. Silicon
Answer: Option B
123. A steel containing 16 to 18% chromium and about 0.12% carbon is called
A. ferritic stainless steel
B. austenitic stainless steel
C. martensitic stainless steel
D. nickel steel
Answer: Option A
36
124. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is
A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Carbon
D. Chromium
Answer: Option D
125. The temperature required for full annealing in hyper-eutectoid steel is

A. 30° C to 50° C above upper critical temperature
B. 30° C to 50° C below upper critical temperature
C. 30° C to 50° C above lower critical temperature
D. 30° C to 50° C below lower critical temperature

Answer: Option C
6.THEORY OF MACHINES
126. The pitching of a ship produces forces on the bearings which act __________ to the
motion of the ship.
A. vertically and parallel
B. vertically and perpendicular
C. horizontally and parallel
D. horizontally and perpendicular

Answer: Option D
127. The contact ratio is given by
A.
B.
C.
37
D.
Answer: Option C
128. At the node, the shaft remains unaffected by the vibration.

A. Agree
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
129. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. If the link OA turns with
angular velocity ω1 rad/s in the clockwise direction and the link OB turns with angular
velocity ω2 rad/s in the anti-clockwise direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin
joint O is (where r = Radius of the pin at O)
A. ω1.ω2.r
B. ( ω1 - ω2)r
C. ( ω1 + ω2)r
D. ( ω1 - ω2)2r
Answer: Option C
130. When the two elements of a pair have __________ when in motion, it is said to a lower
pair.
A. line or point contact
B. surface contact
Answer: Option B
131. The sensitiveness of a governor depends upon the lift of the sleeve.
A. Right
B. Wrong
Answer: Option A
132. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the workdone per cycle is called
A. fluctuation of energy
B. maximum fluctuation of energy
C. coefficient of fluctuation of energy
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
38
133. In a steam engine, the earlier cut-off with a simple slide valve may be obtained b0y increasing
the steam lap and the angle of advance of the eccentric but keeping constant the travel and lead
of the valve, This method will
A. cause withdrawing or throttling of steam
B. reduce length of effective stroke of piston
C. reduce maximum opening of port to steam
D. all of these
Answer: Option C
134. The centre of suspension and centre of percussion are not interchangeable.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
135. The size of cam depends upon

A. base circle
B. pitch circle
C. prime circle
D. pitch curve
Answer: Option A
136. The acceleration of a flat-faced follower when it has contact with the flank of a circular arc cam,
is given by
A. ω2R cos θ
B. ω2(R - r1)cos θ
C. ω2(R - r1)sin θ
D. ω2r1 sin θ
Answer: Option B
137. The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degrees of freedom (n) is equal to
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
Answer: Option A
39
138. The sense of coriolis component 2 ωv is same as that of the relative velocity vector v rotated at
A. 45° in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path
B. 45° in the direction opposite to the rotation of the link containing the path
C. 90° in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path
D. 180° in the direction opposite to the rotation of the link containing the path
Answer: Option C
139. The condition for correct steering of a Davis steering gear is (where α = Angle of inclination of
the links to the vertical)
A.
sin α =
B.
cos α =
C.
tan α =
D.
cot α =
Answer: Option C
140. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
141. Two pulleys of radii r1 and r2 and at distance x apart are connected by means of an open belt
drive. The length of the belt is
A.
B.
C.
40
D.
Answer: Option B
142. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body and is at a distance equal to
A. h/kG
B. h2/kG
C. kG2/h
D. h x kG
Answer: Option C
143. A governor is said to be isochronous when range of speed is zero for all radii of rotation of the
balls within the working range, neglecting friction.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
144. An overdamped system, when disturbed from the equilibrium position, will not cross the
equilibrium position.
A. Right
B. Wrong
Answer: Option A
145. The efficiency of a screw jack is dependent upon the load raised or lowered.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
146. The instantaneous centres, which moves as the mechanism moves but joints are of permanent
nature, are called permanent instantaneous centres.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
147. A pair is said to be a kinematic pair, if the relative motion between them is completely or
successfully constrained.
A. Correct
41
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
148. The pitching of a ship is assumed to take place with simple harmonic motion.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
149. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations due to uniformly distributed load acting over
a simply supported shaft is (where δS = Static deflection of simply supported shaft due to
uniformly distributed load)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
150. A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a curved path. If the engine rotates in
the same direction as that of wheels, men due to centrifugal force
A. the reaction on me inner wheels increases and on the outer wheels decreases
B. the reaction on the outer wheels increases and on the inner wheels decreases
C. the reaction on the front wheels increases and on the rear wheels decreases
D. the reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels decreases
Answer: Option B
7.WORKSHOP TECHNOLOGY
151. Surface plate is used to check the trueness of flat surfaces.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
42
152. A zinc diffusion process is called
A. galvanising
B. anodising
C. parkerising
D. sherardizing
Answer: Option D
153. The accuracy of micrometers, calipers, dial indicators can be checked by a

A. feeler gauge
B. slip gauge
C. ring gauge
D. plug gauge
Answer: Option B
154. The type of file used for a wood work is

A. single-cut file
B. double cut file
C. rasp-cut file
D. any one of these

Answer: Option C
155. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and clean withdrawl from the mould is known as
A. machining allowance
B. draft allowance
C. shrinkage allowance
D. distortion allowance
Answer: Option B
156. In a __________ , the molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify while the mould is
revolving.
A. die casting method
B. slush casting method
C. permanent mould casting method
D. centrifugal casting method

Answer: Option D
43
157. Riddle is used for
A. smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
B. cleaning the moulding sand
C. moistening the sand around the edge before removing pattern
D. reinforcement of sand in the top part of moulding box

Answer: Option B
158. A hacksaw blade cuts on the

A. forward stroke
B. return stroke
C. both forward and return strokes
D. cutting depends upon the direction of force

Answer: Option A
159. The oxygen cylinder is usually painted with

A. black colour
B. white colour
C. maroon colour
D. yellow colour
Answer: Option A
160. Which of the following welding method uses a pool of molten metal?
A. Carbon arc welding
B. Submerged arc welding
C. TIG arc welding
D. MIG arc welding

Answer: Option B
161. In fore-hand welding, the angle between the welding torch and the work is __________ as
compared to back-hand welding.
A. same
B. less
C. more
Answer: Option B
44
162. The advantage of thermit welding is that
A. all parts of the weld section are molten at the same time
B. weld cools almost uniformly
C. results in a minimum problem with internal residual stresses
D. all of the above

Answer: Option D
163. A gimlet is a __________ tool.

A. boring
B. marking
Answer: Option A
164. Slick is used for repairing and finishing the mould.

A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
165. The maximum flame temperature occurs

A. at the outer cone
B. at the inner cone
C. between the outer and inner cone
D. at the torch tip

Answer: Option B
166. A pattern is used to make the mould cavity for pouring the molten metal for casting.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
167. The surface to be left unmachined is marked on the pattern by

A. red colour
B. yellow colour
C. black colour
D. blue colour
Answer: Option C
45
168. The two rolls in a two high rolling mills are of __________ size.
A. equal
B. different
Answer: Option A
169. The welding process used in joining mild steel shanks to high speed drills, is
A. spot welding
B. seam welding
C. flash butt welding
D. upset butt welding

Answer: Option C
170. The mode of deformation of the metal during spinning is

A. bending
B. stretching
C. rolling and stretching
D. bending and stretching

Answer: Option D
171. The process used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses in
its surface, is known as
A. hot piercing
B. extrusion
C. cold peening
D. cold heading
Answer: Option C
172. Fin is a casting defect which is due to thin projections of metal not intended as a part of casting.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
173. The process of increasing the cross-section of a bar at the expense of its length, is called
A. drawing down
46
B. upsetting
C. spinning
D. peening
Answer: Option B
174. In TIG arc welding, the welding zone is shielded by an atmosphere of

A. helium gas
B. argon gas
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
175. The metal extrusion process is generally used for producing

A. uniform solid sections
B. uniform hollow sections
C. uniform solid and hollow sections
D. varying solid and hollow sections

Answer: Option C
8.AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
176. The painting of automobiles is done to
A. prevent rust from growing on the body
B. improve its external appearance
C. retain the characteristics of steel for long
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
177. The main task of a battery in automobiles is to

A. supply electricity to the alternator
B. act as a reservoir or stabilizer of electricity
47
C. supply electricity to the vehicle's electrical system at all times while the engine is running
D. supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when the engine is being started
Answer: Option D
178. The major purpose of an electronically-controlled automatic transmission is that this type of
transmission
A. eliminates gear clutches
B. eliminates the gear shift lever
C. reduces the number of automatic-transmission components
D. reduces shift shock and achieves more efficient transmission of engine torque
Answer: Option D
179. The connecting rods are generally made of __________ shaped cross-section.
A. I
B. C
C. L
D. H
Answer: Option A
180. The anti-knock property of compression ignition engine fuel can be improved by adding
A
tetraethyl lead
.
B
trimethyl pentane
.
C
amyl nitrate
.
D
hexadecane
.
Answer: Option C
181. The calorific value of petrol is about

A
36.5 - 38.5 MJ/kg
.
B
39.4 - 42.5 MJ/kg
.
C
42.7 - 43.5 MJ/kg
.
48
D
45.5 - 47 MJ/kg
.
Answer: Option C
182. The ball joints are used on the tie-rod ends, because they
A. reduce the amount of noise generated
B. reduce the amount of sliding resistance
C. can deal with movement of the suspension both vertically and in other directions
D. improve the force transmission speed

Answer: Option C
183. The air resistance to a car at 20 kmph is R. The air resistance at 40 kmph will be
A. R
B. 2 R
C. 4R
D. 4 R2
Answer: Option C
184. The size of engine cylinder is referred in terms of its

A. diameter and bore
B. displacement and efficiency
C. bore and stroke
D. bore and length

Answer: Option C
185. The purpose of a cylinder head gasket is to

A prevent the combustion gases from leaking from the joint between the cylinder block and
. the cylinder head
B
prevent engine oil from going into combustion chamber
.
C
removes impurities from cylinder head lubricating oil
.
D
none of the above
.
Answer: Option A
186. The function of a first compression ring (top ring) is that it
49
A
increases the combustion temperature
.
B
creates swirl
.
C
maintains a seal and prevents the fuel leakage
.
D maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and loss of pressure in the
. combustion chamber
Answer: Option D
187. The number of exhaust manifolds in a V-6 engine are

A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
Answer: Option B
188. The driveshafts are connected to the differential and wheel hubs through universal joints because
the universal joints
A. absorb the vibrations transferred from the surface of the road
compensate for variations in the relative positions of the differential and the wheels which
B.
result from bumpy road surfaces or other similar driving conditions.
absorb any difference in speed between the left and right wheels when the vehicle is
C.
turning
D. none of the above

Answer: Option B
189. The function of antilock brake system (ABS) is that is

A. reduces the stopping distance
B. minimises the brake fade
C. maintains directional control during braking by preventing the wheels from locking
D. prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels
Answer: Option C
190. A worm gear is used as the pinion for the rack and pinion type of steering gearbox, because it
A improves steering comfort when steering wheel is turned to effect small changes in the
. direction of forward motion
50
B
allows the steering wheel to be turned by a greater amount when steering
.
C
makes the steering more responsive
.
D
reduces the amount of kick-back for large steering angles
.
Answer: Option A
191. The braking control type traction control system (TCS) generally operates in the speed range of
A
less than 20 kmph
.
B
less than 40 kmph
.
C
less than 60 kmph
.
D
more than 60 kmph
.
Answer: Option B
192. If the spark plug deposit indicates black coating of soot, it indicates that the engine has been
generally operating on
A. too lean mixture
B. stoichiometric mixture
C. most economical mixture
D. too rich mixture

Answer: Option D
193. The two rows of cylinders in a 'V' type engine are generally arranged at
A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 130°
Answer: Option B
194. The crescent-shaped cavity on the piston head top surface is called as
A. piston oil hole
B. snap ring
51
C. valve recess
D. valve clearance
Answer: Option C
195. The octane rating of petrol commerically available is

A
85-95
.
B
95-100
.
C
100-110
.
D
110-125
.
Answer: Option A
196. The stroke of an engine is the

A
volume of the cylinder
.
B
length of the connecting rod
.
C
internal diameter of the cylinder
.
D
distance between T.D.C. and B.D.C.
.
Answer: Option D
197. The function of a second ring is that it is a

A. back up compression ring which will work in place of the top ring when it is broken
B. compression ring and aids the top ring in sealing and cooling
C. back up oil control ring which will work in place of the bottom ring when it is broken
D. cushion ring which prevents piston slap and knock

Answer: Option B
198. The characteristic that is enhanced by the use of cylinder sleeves is

A. cooling efficiency
B. resistance to wear
C. lubrication performance
52
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
199. The differential ensures that each wheel is driven at a speed which corresponds to the distance it
must travel around a corner, and it consequently prevents against excessive tyre wear.
A. Agree
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
200. The rating of C.I. engine fuel (Diesel) is given by

A. octane number
B. performance number
C. cetane number
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
9.THERMODYNAMICS
201. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement of second law of thermodynamics,
it is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is
A.
to convert heat energy into work
it is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to

B.
convert heat energy into work
it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces no

C.
effect other than the transfer of heat from a cold body to a hot body

Answer: Option A
202. According to Gay-Lussac law, the absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies
__________ as its absolute temperature, when the volume remains constant.
A. directly
B. indirectly
Answer: Option A
203. According to Avogadro's law

A. the product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant
B. the sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two
53
equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of
C.
molecules
D. all of the above

Answer: Option C
204. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its
expansion or compression, is called
A. isothermal process
B. hyperbolic process
C. adiabatic process
D. polytropic process
Answer: Option A
205. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?

A
Oxygen
.
B
Nitrogen
.
C
Hydrogen
.
D
Methane
.
Answer: Option C
206. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various degrees of freedom possessed by
it. This law is known as
A
law of equipartition of energy
.
B
law of conservation of energy
.
C
law of degradation of energy
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option A
207. The thermodynamic property of a system is said to be an intensive property whose value for the
entire system __________ the sum of their value for the individual parts of the system.
A. is equal to
54
B. is not equal to
Answer: Option B
208. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume, when the
temperature remains constant. This statement is known as Charles' law.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B
209. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is

A. brown coal
B. peat
C. coking bituminous coal
D. non-coking bituminous coal

Answer: Option D
210. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

A
greater than Carnot cycle
.
B
less than Carnot cycle
.
C
equal to Carnot cycle
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option B
211. The lower calorific value of fuel may be obtained by adding the heat of steam formed during
combustion to the higher calorific value.
A
Yes
.
B
No
.
Answer: Option B
212. One kg of carbon monoxide requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and produces

A. 11/3 kg of carbon dioxide gas
55
B. 7/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
C. 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas
D. 8/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas

Answer: Option C
213. The molecular mass expresssed in gram (i.e. 1 g - mole) of all gases, at N. T. P., occupies a
volume of
A. 0.224 litres
B. 2.24 litres
C. 22.4 litres
D. 224 litres
Answer: Option C
214. The absolute zero pressure will be

A. when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
B. at sea level
C. at the temperature of - 273 K
D. at the centre of the earth

Answer: Option A
215. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at
A
constant volume
.
B
constant temperature
.
C
constant pressure
.
D
none of these
.
Answer: Option C
216. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A
For a given compression ratio, both Otto and Diesel cycles have the same efficiency.
.
B
For a given compression ratio, Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle.
.
C For a given compression ratio, Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.
56
.
D
The efficiency of Otto or Diessel cycle has nothing to do with compressioin ratio.
.
Answer: Option B
217. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called
A. absolute scale of temperature
B. absolute zero temperature
C. absolute temperature
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
218. The heating of gas at constant volume is governed by

A. Boyle's law
B. Charles' law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadro's law
Answer: Option C
219. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume, when the
temperature remains constant. This statement is known as Boyle's law.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
220. The fuel mostly used in cement industry and in metallurgical processes is
A
wood charcoal
.
B
bituminous coke
.
C
pulverised coal
.
D
coke
.
Answer: Option C
221. Boyle's law states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is directly proportional to the
change of temperature.
57
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option B
222. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
always __________ one.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. greater than
Answer: Option C
223. The isothermal and adiabatic processes are regarded as

A. reversible process
B. irreversible process
C. reversible or irreversible process
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
224. The variables which control the physical properties of a perfect gas are
A. pressure exerted by the gas
B. volume occupied by the gas
C. temperature of the gas
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
225. The heat flows from a cold body to a hot body with the aid of an external source. This statement
is given by
A. Kelvin
B. Joule
C. Clausis
D. Gay-Lussac
Answer: Option C
10.HEAT TRANSFER
58
226.Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
A.kcal/kg m2 °C
B.kcal-m/hr m2 °C
C.kcal/hr m2 °C
D.kcal-m/hr °C
E.kcal-m/m2 °C.
Aswer: Option B
227. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units

is
(a) J/m2 sec
(b) J/m °K sec
(c) W/m °K
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) (b) and (c) above.
Ans: e
228. Thermal conductivity

of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
229. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic

amorphous solids with decrease in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
230. Heat transfer takes

place as per –
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamic
(c) second law of the thermodynamics
(d) Kirchhoff law (e) Stefan’s law.
Ans: c
231. When heat is transferred from one

particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated particles, it is
referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
59
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: a
232. When heat is transferred form

hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening
medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
Ans: c
233. Sensible heat is the heat required to

(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: c
234. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence

of moisture would
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase/decrease depending on
temperature and thickness of insulation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
235. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is

referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) scattering
Ans: b
236. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by

(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
Ans: b
237. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by

radiation
(a) blast furnace
(b) heating of building
(c) cooling of parts in furnace
(d) heat received by a person from fireplace
60
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
238. Heat is closely related with

(a) liquids
(b) energy
(c) temperature
(d) entropy
(e) enthalpy.
Ans: c
239. Pick up tne wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to
other depends directly on
(a) face area
(b) time
(c) thickness
(d) temperature difference
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: c
240. Metals are good conductors of heat because

(a) their atoms collide frequently
(b) thier atoms-are relatively far apart
(c) they contain free electrons
(d) they have high density
Ans: a
241. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat

transfer
(a) I.C. engine
(b) air preheaters
(c) heating of building in winter
(d) all of the above
Ans: e
242. Total heat is the heat required to

(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: d
243. Cork is a good insulator because it has

(a) free electrons
(b) atoms colliding frequency
(c) low density
(d) porous body
Ans: d
244. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in

temperature
61
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: d
245. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.42
(d) 0.51
(e) 0.64.
Ans: d
246. Temperature of steam at around 540°C canbe measured by

(a) thermometer
(b) radiatiouv pyrometer
(c) thermistor
(d) thermocouple
(e) thermopile.
Ans: d
247. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m

hr °C is of the order of
(a) 0.002
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.1
(e) 0.5.
Ans: b
248. The time constant of a thermocouple is

(a) the time taken
to attain the final temperature to be
measured
(b) the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature
difference
(c) the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial
temperature difference
(d) determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
Ans: c
249. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: a
250. Heat flows from one body to other when they have
(a) different heat contents
(b) different specific heat
62
(c) different atomic structure
(d) different temperatures
Ans: d
11. I.C ENGINES
251. The working cycle in case of four

stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 8.
Ans: c
252. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

(a) spark
(b) injected fuel
(c) heat resulting from compressing air that
is supplied for combustion
(d) ignition
(e) combustion chamber.
Ans: c
253. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

(a) air used for combustion sent under
pres-sure
(b) forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) burnt air containing products of
combustion
(d) air used for forcing burnt gases out of
engine’s cylinder during the exhaust period
(e) air fuel mixture.
Ans: d
254. Supercharging is the process of

(a) supplying the intake of an engine with
air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
(b) providing forced cooling air
(c) injecting excess fuel for raising more
load
(d) supplying compressed air to remove
combustion products fully
(e) raising exhaust pressure.
Ans: a
255. Does the supply of scavenging air at a

density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged ?
63
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) to some extent
(d) unpredictable
(e) depends on other factors.
Ans: b
256. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency

to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called
(a) net efficiency
(b) efficiency ratio
(c) relative efficiency
(d) overall efficiency
(e) cycle efficiency.
Ans: c
257. Compression ratio of LC. engines is

(a) the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder
before compression stroke and after compression stroke
(b) volume displaced by piston per stroke and
clearance volume in cylinder
(c) ratio of pressure after compression and
before compression
(d) swept volume/cylinder volume
(e) cylinder volume/swept volume.
Ans: a
258. The air standard efficiency of an Otto

cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is
(a) same
(b) less
(c) more
(d) more or less depending on power rating
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
259. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is

expressed in terms of
(a) kcal
(b) kcal/kg
(c) kcal/m2
(d) kcal/n?
Ans: d
260. If the intake air temperature of I.C.

engine increases, its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) unpredictable
(e) depend on other factors.
Ans: b
64
261. All heat engines utilize
(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net claorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
Ans: a
262. An engine indicator is used to determine

the following
(a) speed
(b) temperature
(c) volume of cylinder
(d) m.e.p. and I.H.P.
(e) BHP.
Ans: d
263. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C.

engine are usually based on
(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net calorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
Ans: b
264. If the compression ratio of an engine

working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the %age increase in efficiency
will be
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 8%
(d) 14%
(e) 27%.
Ans: d
265. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel

consumption guarantees are based on
(a) high heat value
(b) low heat value
(c) net calorific value
(d) middle heat value
(e) calorific value.
Ans: b
266. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle

diesel engine the inlet valve
(a) opens at 20° before top dead center and
closes at 35° after the bottom dead center
(b) opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
(c) opens at 10° after top dead center and
closes 20° before the bottom dead center
(d) may open or close anywhere
(e) remains open for 200°.
Ans: a
65
267. The pressure and temperature at the end
of compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the order of
(a) 4 – 6 kg/cm2 and 200 – 250°C
(b) 6 – 12 kg/cm2 and 250 – 350°C
(c) 12 – 20 kg/cm2 and 350 – 450°C
(d) 20 – 30 kg/cm2 and 450 – 500°C
(e) 30 – 40 kg/cm2 and 500 – 700°C.
Ans: b
268. The pressure at the end of compression in

the case of diesel engine is of the order of
(a) 6 kg/cm
(b) 12kg/cmz
(c) 20 kg/cmz
(d) 27.5 kg/cmz
(e) 35 kg/cm
Ans: e
269. The maximum temperature in the I.C.

engine cylinder is of the order of
(a) 500- 1000°C
(b) 1000- 1500°C
(c) 1500-2000°C
(d) 2000-2500°C
(e) 2500-3000°C
Ans: d
270. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio,
with increase in cut-off ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) be independent
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
other factors
Ans: b
271. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
(b) In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is
obtained in 4-strokes
(c) thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is
more due to positive scavenging
(d) petrol engines work on otto cycle
(e) petrol engines occupy more space than
diesel engines for same power output.
Ans: e
275. Combustion in compression ignition

engines is
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) laminar
66
(e) turbulent.
Ans: b
12. PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY
276. Segmental chips are formed during machining

A. mild steel
B. cast iron
C. high speed steel
D. high carbon steel

Answer: Option B
277. Cemented carbide tool tips are produced by powder metallurgy.

A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
278. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation, then for locating in jigs and
fixtures, the pressure type of locator used is
A. conical locator
B. cylindrical locator
C. diamond pin locator
D. vee locator
Answer: Option A
279. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle
A. by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
B. by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to
C.
the centre line of the point of the tool
between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the
D.
point perpendicular to the base
Answer: Option B
280. Internal gears can be made by

A
hobbing
.
67
B
shaping with pinion cutter
.
C
shaping with rack cutter
.
D
milling
.
Answer: Option B
281. In order to prevent tool from rubbing the work __________ on tools are provided.
A
rake angles
.
B
relief angles
.
Answer: Option B
282. The silicon carbide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding

A. cemented carbide
B. ceramic
C. cast iron
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
283. Drilling is an example of

A. orthogonal cutting
B. oblique cutting
C. simple cutting
D. uniform cutting
Answer: Option B
284. A round nose tool may be fed eitner from left to right end or from right to left end of the lathe
bed.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
285. When the cutting edge of the tool is dull, then during machining
A
continuous chips are formed
.
B discontinuous chips are formed
68
.
C
continuous chips with built-up edge are formed
.
D
no chips are formed
.
Answer: Option C
286. As the cutting speed increases, the tool cutting forces

A
remain constant
.
B
Increases
.
C
Decreases
.
D
first increases and then decreases
.
Answer: Option C
287. Crater wear leads to

A. increase in cutting temperature
B. weakening of tool
C. friction and cutting forces
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
288. The addition of lead, sulphur and phosphorus to low carbon steels, help to
A. reduce built up edge
B. break up chips
C. improve machinability
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
289. The relation between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is (where n = An
exponent, which depends upon the tool and workpiece, and C = A constant)
A. VnT = C
B. VTn = C
69
C. Vn/T = C
D. V/Tn = C
Answer: Option B
290. The width of cutting edge of a parting-off tool varies from

A
3 to 12 mm
.
B
5 to 20 mm
.
C
8 to 30 mm
.
D
15 to 40 mm
.
Answer: Option A
291. The grinding of long, slender shafts or bars is usually done by

A
infeed grinding
.
B
through feed grinding
.
C
endfeed grinding
.
D
any one of these
.
Answer: Option B
292. In centreless grinding, work place centre will be

A. above the line joining the two wheel centres
B. below the line joining the two wheel centres
C. on the line joining the two wheel centres
D. at the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the work place plane
Answer: Option A
293. Tool life is measured by the

A. number of pieces machined between tool sharpenings
B. time the tool is in contact with the job
C. volume of material removed between tool sharpenings
D. all of the above
70
Answer: Option D
294. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to

A. high temperature involved
B. frequent wheel clogging
C. rapid wheel wear
D. low work piece stiffness

Answer: Option B
295. The process of removing metal by a cutter which is rotated in the same direction of travel of
workpiece, is called
A
up milling
.
B
down milling
.
C
face milling
.
D
end milling
.
Answer: Option B
296. It is required to cut screw threads of 2 mm pitch on a lathe. The lead screw has a pitch of 6 mm.
If the spindle speed is 60 r.p.m., then the speed of lead screw will be
A
10 r.p.m.
.
B
20 r.p.m.
.
C
120 r.p.m.
.
D
180 r.p.m.
.
Answer: Option B
297. The tool life in case of a grinding wheel is the time

A. between two successive regrinds of the wheel
B. taken for the wheel to be balanced
C. taken between two successive wheel dressings
D. taken for a wear of 1 mm on its diameter

Answer: Option C
71
298. In which of the following machine, the work is usually rotated while the drill is fed into work?
A. Sensitive drilling machine
B. Radial drilling machine
C. Gang drilling machine
D. Deep hole drilling machine

Answer: Option D
299. In twist fluted drills, chips do not move out automatically.

A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
300. Mild steel during machining produces __________ chips.

A. continuous
B. discontinuous
Answer: Option A
13.REFRIGIRATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

301. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have
(a) Tow specific heat of liquid
(b) high boiling point
(c) high latent heat of vaporisation
(d) higher critical temperature
(e) low specific volume of vapour.
Ans: b
302. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of

(a) water at 0°C
(b) ice at – 4°C
(c) solid and dry ice
(d) mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTP conditions
(e) mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions.
Ans: e
303. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) reversed Camot cycle
(d) reversed Rankine cycle
Ans: e
304. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant
72
(a) Ericsson
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Bell-coleman
Ans: d
305. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires

(a) very little work input
(b) maximum work input
(c) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(d) zero work input
Ans: a
306. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is

(a) noisy operation
(b) quiet operation
(c) cooling below 0°C
(d) very little power consumption
(e) its input only in the form of heating.
Ans: b
307.The relative coefficient of performance is

(a) actual COP/fheoretical COP
(b) theoretical COP/actual COP
(c) actual COP x theoretical COP
(d) 1-actual COP x theoretical COP
(e) 1-actual COP/fheoretical COP.
Ans: a
308. Clapeyron equation is a relation between

(a) temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(b) specific volume and enthalpy
(c) temperature and enthalpy
(d) temperature, pressure, and specil volume
(e) temperature, pressure, specific volur and’enthalpy.
Ans: e
309. Clapeyron equation is applicable for registration at

(a) saturation point of vapour
(b) saturation point of liquid
(c) sublimation temperature
(d) triple point
(e) critical point.
Ans: a
310. In vapour compression cycle, the conditii of refrigerant is saturated liquid

(a) after passing through the condenser
(b) before passing through the condensei
(c) after passing through the expansion throttle valve
(d) before entering the expansion valve
(e) before entering the compressor.
Ans: a
73
311. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
(b) before passing through the condenser
(c) after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
Ans: e
312. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated liquid
(c) after passing through the expansion or thiottle valve
Ans: d
313. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour

(d) before [entering the expansion valve
Ans: b
314. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
(e) before entering the compressor..
Ans: e
315. The boiling point of ammonia is

(a) -100°C
(b) -50°C
(c) – 33.3°C
(d) 0°C
(e) 33.3°C.
Ans: c
316. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to melting of 1000 kg
of ice
(a) in 1 hour
(b) in 1 minute
(c) in 24 hours
(d) in 12 hours
(e) in 10 hours.
Ans: c
317. One ton refrigeratiqn corresponds to

(a) 50 kcal/min
(b) 50 kcal/kr
(c) 80 kcal/min
(d) 80 kcal/hr
74
(e) 1000 kcal/day.
Ans: a
318. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

(a) 210 kJ/min
(b) 21 kJ/min
(c) 420 kJ/min
(d) 840 kJ/min
(e) 105 kJ/min.
Ans: a
319. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycie

(a) Rankine
(b) Carnot
(c) Reversed Rankine
(d) Brayton
(e) Reversed Carnot.
Ans: e
320. Allowable pressure on high-pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the order of
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) slightly above atmospheric pressure
(c) 2-4 bars
(d) 5-6 bars
(e) 7-10 bars.
Ans: d
321. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

(a) evaporator
(b) safety relief valve
(c) dehumidifier
(d) driers
(e) expansion valve
Ans: d
322. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable gases, as compared to that
actually required for condensing temperatures without non-condensable gases,
(a) will be higher
(b) will be lower
(c) will remain unaffected
(d) may be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-condensable gases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
323. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

(a) above which liquid will remain liquid
(b) above which liquid becomes gas
(c) above which liquid becomes vapour
(d) above which liquid becomes solid
(e) at which all the three phases exist together.
Ans: a
324. Critical temperature is’ the temperature above which

(a) a gas will never liquefy
(b) a gas will immediately liquefy
75
(c) water will evaporate
(d) water will never evaporate
Ans: a
325. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

(a) high sensible heat
(b) high total heat
(c) high latent heat
(d) low latent heat
(e) low sensible heat
Ans: c
14. NUCLEAR POWER PLANT
326. The efficiency of a nuclear

power plant in comparsion to a conventional thermal power plant is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less or mote depending on size
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
327. Isotopes of same elements have

(a) same atomic number and different masses
(b) same chemical properties but different
atomic numbers
(c) different masses and different atomic
numbers
(d) different chemical properties and same
atomic numbers
(e) same chemical properties and
same atomic numbers.
Ans: b
328. Atomic number of an element in the

periodic table represents the numbers of
(a) protons in the nucleus
(b) electrons in me nucleus
(c) neutrons in the nucleus
(d) electrons in the atom
(e) neutrons in the atom.
Ans: a
329. The mass number of a substance represents

the sum of total number of
(a) protons and neutrons in an atom
(b) protons and electrons in an atom
(c) neutrons and electrons in an atom
(d) protons and neutrons in a nucleus
(e) protons and electrons in a nucleus.
Ans: d
76
330. Which is not identical for an atom and an
isotope
(a) mass number
(b) atomic number
(c) chemical properties
(d) position in periodic table
Ans: a
331. Amongst the following, the fissionable

materials are
(a) U233 and Pu239
(b) U235 and Pu233
(c) U235 and Pu235
(d) U238 and Pu239
(e) U243 and Pu235
Ans: a
332. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to

(a) reduce temperature
(b) extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d) cause collision with the fast moving
neutrons to reduce their speed
(e) moderate the radioactive pollution.
Ans: d
333. The most commonly used moderator in

nuclear plants is
(a) heavy water
(b) concrete and bricks
(c) graphite and concrete
(d) deutrium
(e) graphite.
Ans: e
334. The nuclear energy is measured as

(a) MeV
(b) curie
(c) farads
(d) MW
(e) kWhr.
Ans: a
335. The total energy released in fission of U

is
(a) 5 MeV
(b) 10 MeV
(c) 199 MeV
(d) 168 MeV
(e) 11 MeV.
Ans: c
336. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of

(a) unity
77
(b) more than unity
(c) less than unity
(d) zero
(e) infinity.
Ans: b
337. Boiling water reactor employs

(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: b
338. Fast breeder reactor uses

(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: c
339. One gram of uranium will produce energy

equivalent to approximately
(a) 1 tonne of high grade coal
(b) 4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
(c) 10 tonnes of high grade coal
(d) 100 tonnes of high grade coal
(e) 1000 tonnes of high grade coal.
Ans: b
340. Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat exchanger
for generation of steam
(a) gas cooled
(b) liquid metal cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d) boiling water
Ans: d
341. The number of isotopes of hydrogen are

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) U
(c) 3
(e) 0
Ans: c
342. The commonly used material for shielding

is
(a) lead or concrete
(b) lead and tin
(c) graphite or cadmium
(d) thick galvanised sheets
78
(e) black carbon papers.
Ans: a
343. The main interest of shielding in nuclear

reactor is protection against
(a) X-rays
(b) infra-red rays
(c) a, P, and y rays
(d) neutrons and gamma rays
(e) electrons.
Ans: d
344. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to

(a) return the neutrons back into the core
(b) shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d) conserve energy
(e) is not used.
Ans: a
345. The energy required to be applied to a

radioactive nucleus for the emission of a neutron is
(a) 1 MeV
(b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 4.3 MeV
(d) 7.8 MeV
(e) 20 MeV.
Ans: d
346. Which of the following are ferrite

materials
(a) U233andPu239
(b) U
(c) U238andPu239
(d) U238andTh239
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
347. Ferrite material is

(a) the most fissionable material
(b) the basic fuel for nuclear paints
(c) basic raw material for nuclear plants
(d) the material which absorbs neutrons and
undergoes spontaneous changes leading to the formation of fissionable material
Ans: d
348. Enriched uranium is one in which

(a) %age of U235 has been artificially
in-creased
(b) %age of U has been artificially increased
(c) %age of U234 has been artificially
in-creased
(d) extra energy is pumped from outside
79
(e) all impurities have been removed.
Ans: a
349. Which of the following particles is the lightest

(a) nucleus
(b) electron
(c) proton
(d) meson
(e) neutron.
Ans: b
350. Which of the following is the heaviest

(a) neutron
(b) proton
(c) atom
(d) electron
(e) nucleus.
Ans: c
15. ENGINEERING DRAWING
351. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then
the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
A. 1 bar
B. 16 bar
C. 64 bar
D. 256 bar
Answer: Option C
652. The compressed air may be used

A. in gas turbine plants
B. for operating pneumatic drills
C. in starting and supercharging of I.C. engines
D. all of the above

Answer: Option D
353. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air-craft velocity is __________ the jet
velocity.
A. equal to
B. one-half
C. double
Answer: Option B
80
354. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is about
A. 10 to 40%
B. 40 to 60%
C. 60 to 70%
D. 70 to 90%
Answer: Option D
355. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is

A
200°C
.
B
500°C
.
C
700°C
.
D
1000°C
.
Answer: Option C
356. The rotary compressors are suitable for large discharge of air at low pressure.
A
True
.
B
false
.
Answer: Option A
357. The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor takes place

A. in the diffuser only
B. in the impeller only
C. in the diffuser and impeller
D. in the inlet guide vanes only

Answer: Option C
358. The total heat rejected in a reciprocating air compressor is equal to the sum of the heat rejected
during polytropic compression per kg of air and heat rejected in the intercooler per kg of air.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
81
359. In a jet propulsion
A. the propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
B. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
C. its functioning does not depend upon presence of air

Answer: Option B
360. An open cycle gas turbine works on the same cycle as that of a closed cycle gas turbine.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
361. Which of the following statement is wrong?

In a two stage reciprocating air compressor with complete intercooling, maximum work is
A.
saved.
The minimum work required for a two stage reciprocating air compressor is double the
B.
work required for each stage.
The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston is
C.
called volumetric efficiency.

Answer: Option D
362. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and delivery of air takes
place in __________ of the piston.
A. one stroke
B. two strokes
C. three strokes
D. four strokes
Answer: Option B
363. The increase in pressure in a vane blower takes place first due to compression and then due to
back flow of air.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
364. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is
82
A. 10 bar
B. 20 bar
C. 30 bar
D. 50 bar
Answer: Option A
365. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in

A
kg/m2
.
B
kg/m3
.
C
m3/min
.
D
m3/kg
.
Answer: Option C
366. Intercooling in multi-stage compressors is done

A
to cool the air during compression
.
B
to cool the air at delivery
.
C
to enable compression in two stages
.
D
to minimise the work of compression
.
Answer: Option D
367. For a two stage reciprocating compressor, compression from p1 to p3 is with perfect intercooling
and no pressure losses. If compression in both the cylinders follows the same polytropic process
and the atmospheric pressure is pa, then the intermediate pressure p2 is given by
A. p2 = (p1 + p3)/2
B. p2 = p1.p3
C. P2 = Pa x p3/p1
D. p2 = pa p3/p1
Answer: Option B
368. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as
83
A. compressor capacity
B. compression ratio
C. compressor efficiency
D. mean effective pressure

Answer: Option D
369. The clearance volume in the compressor is kept minimum because it effects on volumetric
efficiency.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
370. The inlet pressure is always __________ the discharge pressure.

A
equal to
.
B
less than
.
C
more than
.
Answer: Option B
371. Which of the following statement is correct?

A The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called compressor
. efficiency.
B
The compression ratio for the compressor is always greater than unity.
.
C
The compressor capacity is the ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume.
.
D
During isothermal compression of air, the workdone in a compressor is maximum.
.
Answer: Option B
372. In the aircraft propellers

A. the propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
B. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
C. its functioning does not depend upon the presence of air
84
Answer: Option A
373. The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbines, is of

A. centrifugal type
B. axial flow type
C. radial flow type
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
374. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called

A. free air delivery
B. compressor capacity
C. swept volume
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
375. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at

A
low speeds
.
B
high speeds
.
C
low altitudes
.
D
high altitudes
.
Answer: Option D
376. The temperature of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is __________ the atmospheric
temperature.
A
equal to
.
B
less than
.
C
more than
.
Answer: Option C
377. The compressor efficiency is defined as the ratio of volume of free air delivery per stroke to the
85
swept volume of the piston.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
378. In a gas turbine, air is obtained from the atmosphere and compressed in an air compressor.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
379. In open cycle turbo-jet engines used in military aircraft, reheating the exhaust gas from the
turbine by burning, more fuel is used to increase the
A. thrust and range of aircraft
B. efficiency of the engine
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
380. Gas turbine as compared to internal combustion engine

A
can be driven at a very high speed
.
B
produces uniform torque
.
C
has more efficiency
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
381. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a

A
compressor
.
B
heating chamber
.
C
cooling chamber
.
D
all of these
.
Answer: Option D
86
382. For maximum work, the reheating should be done to an intermediate pressure of (where p1 =
Maximum pressure, and p2 = Minimum pressure)
A.
B.
C.
D. p1p2
Answer: Option D
383. The intercooler pressure, for minimum work required, for a two stage reciprocating air
compressor, is given by (where p1 = Intake pressure of air, p2 = Intercooler pressure, and p3 =
Delivery pressure of air)
A. p2 = p1 x p3
B. p2 = p1/p3
C. p2 = p1 x p3
D. p2 = p3/p1
Answer: Option C
384. The pressure of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is __________ the atmospheric
pressure.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. more than
Answer: Option B
385. The pressure ratio in a centrifugal compressor can be increased by increasing the tip speed and
lowering the inlet temperature.
A
Correct
.
B
Incorrect
.
Answer: Option A
386. Free air is the air at atmospheric conditions at any specific location.
A True
87
.
B
False
.
Answer: Option A
387. A gas turbine used in air-craft should have low weight and small frontal area.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
388. A closed cycle gas turbine works on

A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Joule cycle
Answer: Option D
389. The clearance, in a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor does not effect the
workdone on the air and the power required for compressing the air.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
390. Air motors work on the cycle which is the reverse of the reciprocating air compressor cycle.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
391. Which of the following statement is correct relating to rocket engines ?

A The combustion chamber in a rocket engine is directly analogous to the reservoir of a
. super sonic wind tunnel
B
The stagnation conditions exist at the combustion chamber
.
C
The exit velocities of exhaust gases are much higher than those in jet engine
.
D all of the above
88
.
Answer: Option D
392. In reciprocating air compressors, isothermal efficiency is used for all sorts of calculations.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
393. Euler's equation can be used for

A. radial flow compressors
B. axial flow compressors
C. pumps
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
394. A rocket engine uses __________ for the combustion of its fuel.
A. surrounding air
B. compressed atmospheric air
C. its own oxygen
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
395. The perfect intercooling, in multistage compression, means that the temperature of air at inlet to
subsequent stages is equal to the initial temperature.
A
Agree
.
B
Disagree
.
Answer: Option A
396. In a compressed air system, the temperature of air discharged from the air motor is __________
than the initial compressor intake temperature.
A
more
.
B
less
.
Answer: Option B
89
397. The efficiency of roots blower __________ with the increase in pressure ratio.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. does not change

Answer: Option A
398. The operation of lifts, rams and pumps make use of compressed air.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
399. A jet engine has

A. no propeller
B. propeller in front
C. propeller at back
D. propeller on the top

Answer: Option A
400. A receiver in compressor installations is used to damp pressure waves in compressor discharge.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
FILL IN BLANKS
5. 1. The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as BLEEDING
6. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical when viewed from the front of the car is called
CAMBER
7. The petrol engines are also known as SPARK IGNITION (S.I) engines.
8. The main task of a battery in automobiles is to supply a large amount of power to turn the starter
motor when engine is being started.
5. The connecting rods are generally made of I -shaped cross-section.
6. The closed cycle in gas turbines Provides greater flexibility.
7. The overall thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is (where r = Pressure ratio)1 - (1/r) ɣ-1/ɣ
8.Gas turbine's blade will appear as impulse section at the hub and as a reaction section at tip.
9. The degree of reaction is usually kept 0.5for all types of axial flow compressors.
90
10. Ram compression in turbojet involves Reduction of speed of incoming air and conversion of
part of it into pressure energy
11. A compressor mostly used for supercharging of I.C. engines is Radial flow compressor
12. In jet engines, for the efficient production of large power, fuel is burnt in an atmosphere of
Compressed air
13. The work-done on a compressor will be minimum if air is taken from A source of low
temperature air
14. In the aircraft propellers The propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
15. In a jet propulsion unit, the products of combustion after passing through the gas turbine are
discharged into Discharge nozzle
16. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is K cal m/hr m² °C
17. Thermal diffusivity is a Physical property of a substance
18 The exhaust gas from petrol engine contains are petrol vapours, water vapours and carbon
monoxide.
19. The connecting rod is attached to the piston by the piston pin.
20. The torque converter uses automatic transmission fluid(ATF) to transfer torque.
21. In a diesel engine, the function of a fuel injector is to spray atomized fuel in the cylinder.
22. The two kinds of piston rings are compression and oil-control rings.
23. According to Dalton's law of partial pressures, (where pb = Barometric pressure, pa = Partial
pressure of dry air, and pv = Partial pressure of water vapour) is Pb = pa + pv
24. Heat transfer takes place as per Second law of the thermodynamics
25. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is given by Q = 4πkr1 r2 (T1 - T2)/ (r2 - r1)
26. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated
particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by Conduction
27. Fourier's law of heat conduction is (where Q = Amount of heat flow through the body in unit
time, A = Surface area of heat flow, taken at right angles to the direction of heat flow, dT =
Temperature difference on the two faces of the body, dx = Thickness of the body, through which the
heat flows, taken along the direction of heat flow, and k = Thermal conductivity of the body) is k. A.
(dT/dx)
28. When heat is transferred from hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the
intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by Radiation
29. Reynolds number (RN) is given by (where h = Film coefficient, l = Linear dimension, V = Velocity
of fluid, k = Thermal conductivity, t = Temperature, ρ = Density of fluid, cp = Specific heat at constant
pressure, and μ = Coefficient of absolute viscosity) is RN = ρ V l /μ
30. Sensible heat is the heat required to Increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
91
31. Thermal conductivity of glass wool varies from sample to sample because of variation in
Composition, Density and Porosity
32. According to Stefan Boltzmann law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area
is directly proportional to the Fourth power of the absolute temperature
33. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the Quantity of heat flowing in one
second through one cm cube of material when opposite faces are maintained at a temperature
difference of 1°C
34. In case of liquids and gases, the heat transfer takes place according to Convection
35.Aluminiumhas maximum value of thermal conductivity
36. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (t m) is given by (where Δt1 and Δt2 are temperature
differences between the hot and cold fluids at entrance and exit) is tm = (Δt1 - Δt2)/ loge (Δt1/Δt2)
37. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is prevented by A vapour
seal
38. The radiation emitted by a black body is known as Black radiation, Full radiation and Total
radiation
39. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz. conduction, convection and radiation in
Boiler
40. According to Newton's law of cooling, the heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body is directly
proportional to the surface area and also proportional to the difference of temperatures between
the two bodies
41. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
42. Reynolds number is the ratio of Inertia force to viscous force
43. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon) Its temperature, Nature of the body and Kind
and extent of its surface.
44. In counter current flow heat exchanger, the logarithmic temperature difference between the fluids
is Greater as compared to parallel flow heat exchanger.
45. Thermal diffusivity is a physical property of the material
46. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to Control absorption of neutron
47. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to return the neutrons back into the core
48. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by increasing the contents of U₂₃₅ and By
slowing down fast neutrons so that U₂₃₅ fission continues by slow neutron
49.In a heterogeneous or solid fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a regular pattern within moderator
50. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to Cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce
their speed
51. U₂₃₃ is produced When thorium is irradiated by neutrons
52. Solid fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various small shapes such as Pallets
53. In fast breeder reactors Moderator is dispensed with
92
54. Uranium has isotopes U232, U234 and U238
55. Each fission of U232 produces following number of fast neutrons per fission2 neutrons
56. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by Slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz
fission continues by slow motion neutrons
57. The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium 235 in million electron volts is
about200
58. Boiling water reactor employs Direct cycle of coolant system
60. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a conventional thermal power plant is
less
61. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve Opens at 20° before top
dead centre and closes at 35° after the bottom dead centre
62. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure into the engine cylinder is known as
Supercharging
63. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression
stroke and after compression stroke
64. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ =
Ratio of specific heats)1 - (1/rγ - 1)
65.Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
66. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine areOne-half the speed of the
engine in r.p.m.
67. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of15: 1
68. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the burnt gases from the combustion
chamber of the engine cylinder is known as Scavenging
69. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located between the pistons
70. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine before the passage of spark is
called Pre-ignition
71. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine Fuel injection starts at 10° before top
dead centre and ends at 20° after top dead centre
72.30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m. engines will have heavier flywheel
than the remaining ones
73.Gasolineis the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel
74. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is
Very high as compared to a steam engine.
75. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet temperature, will Decrease linearly
76. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the work-done per cycle is called Coefficient of
fluctuation of energy
93
77. A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by two masses placed at a fixed
distance apart. The two masses form an equivalent dynamical system, if The sum of the two masses
is equal to the total mass of body
78. The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a slider crank chain when the
Coupler link is fixed
79. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle Moved by the cam from the instant the follower
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
80. A completely constrained motion can be transmitted with. 4 links with pin joints
81. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and frequency
is equal to One
82. The centrifugal tension in belts Have no effect on power transmitted
83. In a spring controlled governor, when the controlling force Increases as the radius of rotation
increases, it is said to be a stable governor.
84. The mechanism in which two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs, is called a Scotch yoke
mechanism
85. A rotor supported at A and B carries two masses as shown in the below figure. The rotor
isstatically and dynamically balanced
86. The minimum periodic time of a compound pendulum is2π. √(2kG/g)

87. Idler pulley is used For applying tension
88. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a cosine curve represents Acceleration diagram
89. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will giveA large value of
pressure angle
90. The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zeroat the mean position.
91. When a gas is heated, change takes place inTemperature, Pressure and Volume
92. One molecule of oxygen consists of2atoms of oxygen.
93. Pressure, Volume, and Temperature variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
94. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the lowest boiling point is first
evaporated and re-condensed, then the liquid with the next higher boiling point is then evaporated and
94
re-condensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are separately recovered in the sequence of
their boiling points. Such a process is called Fractional distillation
95. Work done in a free expansion process is Zero
96.Boyle's law, Charles ‘law and Gay Lussa’s law laws is applicable for the behaviour of a perfect
gas
97. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is Kelvin
98. A cycle consisting of Two constant volumes and two isothermal processes is known as Stirling
cycle
99. A tri-atomic molecule consists of three atoms.
100. The unit of mass in S.I. units is Kilogram
95

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“COMPREHENSIVE VIVA”

Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad

In the partial fulfillment of the requirement for

The award of the degree

2. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as

5. The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one.

B. does not depend

15. The unit of angular acceleration is

B. s = u.t + 1/2 a.t2

24. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is

25. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle of projection is

2.HYDRAULICS AND FLUID MECHANICS

27. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called

34. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is

39. A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is

41. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is

B. directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface

45. The liquid used in manometers should have

B. tube is under compression

B. stress, force and modulus of rigidity

C. strain, force and pressure

D. stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity

56. In a leaf spring, the deflection at the centre is

58. A cantilever beam is one which is

B. fixed at one end and free at the other end

B. in the horizontal plane

61. The tensile test is carried on __________ materials.

64. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of

B. working stress to ultimate stress

66. A leaf spring is supported at the

B. centre and loaded at the ends

68. The unit of stress in S.I. units is

69. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to

70. The Rankine's formula holds good for

73. In case of eccentrically loaded struts __________ is preferred.

78. Screws used for power transmission should have

B. crown bevel gears

84. The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is

87. In cylindrical cams, the follower moves

B. in a direction parallel to the cam axis

88. The included angle for the acme thread is 29°.

95. The function of the washer is to

B. provide bearing area

98. The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to

B. pitch angle + addendum angle

C pitch angle - dedendum angle

99. Two shafts will have equal strength, if

B. angle of twist of both the shafts is same

100. The size of a cam depends upon

103. The austenitic stainless steel contains

B. 8% chromium and 18% nickel

C. 14% chromium and 0.35% carbon

D. 14% nickel and 0.35% carbon

105. Steel containing upto 0.15% carbon, is known as

B. dead mild steel

C. medium carbon steel

D. high carbon steel

107. Cast iron has

C. good casting characteristic

109. Silicon in cast iron

B. increases hardness and brittleness

C. makes the iron white and hard

D. aids fusibility and fluidity