Cdi Final Coaching 2018

Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify,
collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to justice.
a. Investigation c. Investigative process
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal inquest
2. After identifying, collecting and preserving information gathered about the crime, the investigator shall
_______________ such information to determine whether it can stand prosecution and trial.
a. Recognize c. Preserve
b. Collect d. Evaluate
3. Which of the following is not one of the form of information the investigator obtained from regular, cultivated or
grapevine sources?
a. Sensory c. Concrete
b. Written d. Physical forms
4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things maybe used to detect crimes, identify the criminals,
facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives of criminal investigation.
a. Information c. Instrumentation
b. Criminalistics d. Interview/Interrogation
5. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the investigator apprised the person of his right under Republic Act
7438?
a. During the identification of criminal offender
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
d. During police line-up
6. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed? Where it was committed?
Why it was committed? And how it was committed? This are called_______________________ of criminal
investigation.
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule
b. Three I’s d. Bridges burn
7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be done in any or a
combination of the following, except:
a. By confession or admission by the criminal
b. By corpus delicti
c. By circumstantial evidence
d. By eyewitness
8. Coerced and uncounselled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession which are usually an:
a. Judicial c. Prosecutorial
b. Extra judicial d. Admission
9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Lauro Galit who was invited and interrogated for the
crime of murder executed an extra-judicial confession acknowledging his guilt to the crime charged. What is the
effect of such confession to his case?
a. It can be used as evidence against him
b. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
c. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
d. His case will prosper
10. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?
a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
c. Additional evidence of a different character to the same point
d. Proper chain of custody
11. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party who does or says
nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if comment is not true.
a. Admission by Silence c. Admission
b. Res inter alios acta d. Negative pregnant
12. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing events of the crime. This
strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the accused was not maltreated nor affected
by sinister psychological influence.
a. Mental reconstruction c. Reconstruction
b. Crime reenactment d. Physical reconstruction
13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a person charged with the
commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied, it
should be direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt. Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused
regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s
guilt. It can be implied.
a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
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b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
14. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by means of confession or
admission?
a. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
b. Corpus delicti must be established separately
c. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal
15. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A
person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the
following methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?
a. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
b. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite Artist]
c. Police Line-up
d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
16. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly witnessed by a certain
person who volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. What are the factors that you should not
consider to determine the accuracy of his identification of the suspect?
a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was committed
c. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
d. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
17. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an inference which fact-
finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the conviction of the accused if:
a. There are more than one circumstances present
b. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
c. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt
All of the above
18. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case perpetrated by an unknown
suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the crime the following may give you a hint to identify the suspect, except
one.
a. Motive and opportunity
b. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and possession of fruits of a
crime of the perpetrator
c. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
d. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use by the suspect
19. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of continuing interest, and
who willingly provides information to the police either in response to a specific request or his own initiative.
a. Incidental informant c. Automatic informant
b. Casual informant d. Recruited informant
20. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire information.
a. Surveillance c. Mobile
b. Stationary surveillance d. Technical
21. In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at a fixed point assuming that subject followed the same
general route each day.
a. ABC Method c. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
b. Leap Frog Method d. None of the above
22. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his true identity and
adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.
a. Undercover assignment c. Work assignment and social assignment
b. Dwelling assignment d. Personal contact assignment
23. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a suspected murder case which the there is no known suspect, no witnesses nor
any other circumstantial evidence, except physical evidence. Where can you get these pieces of evidence that may lead you to the
identity of the suspect?
a. The Crime Scene c. The Suspect
b. The Victim d. All of the above
24. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene
situation which you would analyzed?
a. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
b. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
c. Place of exit
d. All of the above
25. What is the type of reasoning whereby the collected information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of the crime.
a. Inductive c. Systematic
b. Deductive d. Logical
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26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the crime may begins with deductive logic
and later on inductive logic; Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but
have very high order of probability.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene is reconstructed from the description,
of the witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence. Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction,
conclusions are made about the consistency of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is made without supporting
evidence.
a. Statement no. 1 is correct
b. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimal requirements to be observed by the investigator to insure
admissibility of photographs in court.
a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevant
b. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathy
c. The photograph should be free from distortion
d. All of the above
29. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be photographed after its removal from the crime scene?
a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
d. All of the above
30. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime
a. Over-All and environment’s photograph
b. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
c. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
d. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
31. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and considered to be the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual
measurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in their location at the scene.
a. Crime scene sketch c. Finished sketch
b. Rough sketch d. Direction sketch
32. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the following types of search could be used depending
upon locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought and speed desired, except:
a. Strip and double strip or grid search
b. Zone search
c. Rectangular and circular search
d. Spiral and wheel search
33. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
34. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
a.Evidenced must be properly documented
b. Maintain its chain of custody
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence
35. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence
found at the crime scene, including the documentation of every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery
at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is
referred to us.
a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter
b. Necropsy report d. Chain of custody
36. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
a. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
b. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
c. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
d. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
37. Which of the following is not one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in interrogation?
a. Chronological c. Going backward
b. General to specific d. Going upward
38. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is:

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a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short
b. Question and answer because it provides details of acts
c. Combination of the two

d. Your convenient type
39. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answer questions pertinent to the murder case investigated. After the
questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was held for further questioning and considered him a suspect
already. Persons who can visit him are as follows, except:
a. Lovers, friends and countrymen
b. Immediate member of his family
c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
d. Personnel of the C.H.R.
40. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the family are as follows, except:
a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
b. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
c. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends
41. What are the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
a. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified, measured and photographed
b. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original position
c. A and B are true
d. All of the above
42. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion

43. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?
a. By photographs c. By sketches
b. By notes d. Surveying
44. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.
a. Rogues gallery c. manhunt
b. Tracing d. order of battle
45. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, damaged or lost because of:
a. Improper packaging
b. Corruption of investigator
c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody
d. A and C are true
46. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal description of a person after a short period of visual
observation is termed Portrait Parle; Statement No. 2-Description of police characters which a witness may refer and
that is kept by police unit for purpose of references is Rogue’s Gallery
a. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrect
b. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
47. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the marking should be made immediately after receipt
by the evidence custodian; Statement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical evidence should be made at the crime
scene upon collection.
a. Statement No. 1 is correct
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
48. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is
entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived?
a. At the time of custodial investigation c. During the announcement that he is under arrest
b. During the actual questioning d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning
49. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a successful interrogation?
a. Privacy
b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
c. Legality
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror
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50. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radius
or spokes. Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral, beginning on
the outside and spiraling in toward the center.
a. Statement No. 1 is correct
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
c. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
51. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:
a. Extent the estimate of the scene
b. Search physical evidence at the scene
c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the crowd to listen to their conversation
d. None of the above

52. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:
a. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and physical forms
b. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered from the regular, cultivated and grapevine sources
c. Persons and things
d. A and B only
53. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:
a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
b. Duel, abortion and infanticide
c. Homicide and murder
d. Parricide
54. Vincent killed his adoptor after the rendition of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime committed by Vincent?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. None of the above
55. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected and the
homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so
called “Burned bridge”?
a. When the dead person has been moved
b. When the dead body has been embalmed
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly accounted
d. When the body is burned or cremated
56. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is:
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
b. Process of determining who is responsible for the death
c Process of determining how the victim was killed
d. Process of determining when the victim was killed
57. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be performed?
a. Death has been caused by violence
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
d. In all cases involving death
58. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
a. Verification of death
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
d. All of the above
59. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?
a. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
b. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
c. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
d. All of the above
60. You were a police officer responded in a violent crime just recently occurred. How would you determine signs of death?
a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movement
b. By hearing heart sounds
c. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person
d. Any of the above
61. Uses of physical evidence, except:
a. Determine the cause of crime
b. Reconstruct the crime
c. Identify the participants
d. Confirm or discredit an alibi
62. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three important factors may be considered, except:
a. The article must be properly identified

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b. Continuity or chain of custody
c. Legality of the procurement
d. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material and relevant
63. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by the friction
against a hard rough surface.
a. Contusion c. Patterned wound
b. Abrasions d. Hematoma
64. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying declaration from him. Which
of the following is not one of your duties in regard to dying declaration?
a. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of his impending death
b. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim and jot down immediately his statements
c. Attempt to save the life of the victim
d. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.
65. Statement no. 1-Admissibility of dying declaration is not dependent on their being made in any particular form. Statement
no. 2- Dying declaration has no definite form required and need not be under oath.
a. Statement no. 1 is true
b. Statement no. 2 is false
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
66. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the investigator must be sure that the following had already been
performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into considerations and relative position of the body was determined.
3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified, collected and preserved.
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the prosecutor and the homicide investigator was established.
a. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. Rape by sexual assault, except::
a. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth
b. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice
c. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
d Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another person.
68. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death.
A. livor mortis C. algor mortis
B. rigor mortis D. all of the above
69. What injury would a person sustain if hit in the head with a hard object?
A. lacerated wound C. hematoma
B. incised wound D. abrasions
70. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 8505
B. RA 7877 D. RA 6235
71. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ function of a person to medically
“dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous
B. respiratory D. digestive
72. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth:

A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
73. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
74. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide
75. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877
76. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve as basis of the investigator in
determining:
A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime
B. Modus operandi D. Criminal intent
77. This is the first that an investigator must do upon his arrival at the scene of the crime:
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency

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78. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb:
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder
79. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered to kill the victim:
A. Homicide C. Infanticide
B. Parricide D. Murder
80. It is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification:
A. Cartographic sketch C. Rouge’s gallery
B. Composite D. Police lineup
81. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer who leads the execution of a valid search warrant. Who
must be present when a valid search warrant is conducted on a domicile?
A. The house owner
B. Any member of the house owner’s family
C. Two witnesses residing in the same community
D. All of the above
82. Which of the following is not one of the acts of committing violation of domicile?
A. Searching domicile without witness
B. Search warrants maliciously obtained and abuse in the service of search warrant
C. Search of the domicile without warrant
D. Entering a dwelling against the will of the owner, searching documents, papers and effects without the
previous consent of the owner or refusing to leave having surreptitiously entered a dwelling when required by the
owner
83. Senior Police Officer III Judean and Police Officer II Castro arrested and detained Pedro Yengco without warrant
for the crime of theft. When brought to the inquest prosecutor, the latter issued release order for further
investigation. What crime if any do the dou commits?
A. Arbitrary detention
B. Delaying release
C. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial authorities
D. Illegal detention
84. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his ascendants, or
his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
a. Homicide c. Parricide
b. Murder d. Any of the choices
85. A and B are husband and wife, while working as security guard of Landbank, A felt sick one night and decided
to go home around midnight and saw B having sexual intercourse with a neighbor C. A grabbed C and hacked the
latter to death. As Criminologist-Investigator what crime if any would you charged against A?
a. Homicide c. Parricide
b. Murder d. None because A is exempted from criminal liability
86. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have tthe intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent to
kill, the offender is liable for-
a. Physical injury c. Serious physical injury
b. Homicide d. Consummated physical injury
87. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in the commission of a crime is not considered as a separate crime
but shall be appreciated as a-
a. Mere alternative circumstance c. Qualifying circumstance
b. Mere aggravating circumstance d. Generic aggravating circumstance
88. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and there, through threat and intimidation succeeds in inserting his
penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any does X commit?
a. Sexual assault c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Rape d. None
89. Known as Anti Fencing Law of 1979.
a. PD 1612 c. BP 22
b. RA 3019 d. PD 532
90. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the finding of an evidential cigarette butt?
1. making sketch
2. photographing
3. recording
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1
B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3
91. What is the first action of an investigator upon arriving at a homicide scene?
A. Bring the dying victim in the hospital
B. Crime scene search
C. Witness interviewing
D. Identification of witness

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92. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on the
front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were both cut their identities need to be
established through the bloodstains. How will the police collect the stains?
A. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. Scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
93. Majority of the mistakes committed relative to evidence, take place:
1. during periods of transportation
2. in the collection of samples
3. a contaminated sampling
4. the wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4
B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3
94. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted, the collection
process begins and will usually starts with:
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver
95. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?
A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
96. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for identification?
A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all
B. Marking at the back D. Tagging
97. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?
A. Hearing C. Tasting
B. Smelling D. Seeing
98. How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver?
A. study his bones C. study his dentures
B. study his skull D. all of these
99. Known as an Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.
a. RA 9775 c. RA 9194
b. RA 8484 d. RA 9995
100. Philippine Act on Crimes Against International Humanitarian Law, Genocide, and other Crimes against
Humanity.
a. RA 9208 c. RA 9262
b. RA 9851 d. RA 8049
101. Called “ Exclusionary Rules on Evidence” whereby evidence obtained in violation of any of this is inadmissible,
except one.
a. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
b. Right to privacy and communication and correspondence
c. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incrimination
d. Right to counsel
102. Known as “ Rape Victim Assistance and protection Act of 1998”
a. RA 9745 c. RA 6539
b. RA 8505 d. RA 7832
103. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 8353 can be committed either among the choices except one.
a. Promise to marry
b. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
c. Person in authority who arrest another and having sex with the latter with the promise of release from
custody
d. Sexual intercourse while the victim is unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
104. Rights that can be waived except one.
a. Right to be informed of the provisions of RA 7438
b. Right to remain silent
c. Right to counsel
d. Right to be visited
105. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has just been unearthed or discovered and the suspect and
witness are still emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
a. Hot case c. In flagrate delicto case
b. Cold case d. Hot pursuit case
106. The essence of this crime is the taking and transporting of a person against his will from one place to another.
a. Kidnapping c. Abduction
b. Illegal detention d. Coercion
107. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic congestions or where “build up” usually occurs is called:
A. Gridlock C. Traffic jam

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B. Congestion D. Bottleneck
108. Republic Act 8750 is:
A. Clean Air Act C. Seatbelt Law
B. Philippine Land Transportation Code D. Anti-Carnapping Law
109. If the driver is involved in a traffic accident, he must report to the nearest police station:
A. Within 48 hours C. After 3 hours
B. Within 72 hours D. At once
110. Detection, apprehension and penalization of traffic violators.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Economy
B. Traffic Enforcement D. Traffic Ecology
111. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic ways and other traffic facilities by the DPWH, City Engineer’s
Office, City or Municipal Council’s, etc.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Enforcement
B. Traffic Education D. Traffic Economy
112. Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
A. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
B. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
C. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
D. All of the above
113. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by, except:
A. Poor legislative activities
B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
D. Presence of traffic officers
114. The entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any part is open to the use of the
public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom.
A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
B. Road way D. Subway
115. The Land Transportation Office (LTO) is under the___________, and part of traffic_____________:
A. DILG-engineering C. DPWH-engineering
B. DOTC-enforcement D. DEPED-traffic education
116. Known as Clean air Act.
A. RA 8749 C. RA 8750
B. LOI No. 22 D. PPD 1181
117. The study of biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety because a person can avoid accident:
A. By hinting on how he will tend to feel in a certain day
B. By knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. By knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. By ascertaining his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain day
118. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education because:
A. It is designed to make road users behave more safely
B. It informs the public of any updates in traffic
C. It focuses on the strict compliance to traffic signs
D. It can prevent accident
119. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?
A. To teach the rudiments of driving
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driving license
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and regulations
120. Traffic safety education for children needs to be systematic to:
A. Instill safety consciousness among the children
B. Cope up with the demands of time
C. Lessen the fatalities among children while they are young
D. Learn easier than adults
121. Land Transportation Code of the Philippines is:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 6975
B. PD 4136 D. RA 9708
122. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of the road, he committed:
A. Illegal unloading C. Illegal loading
B. Traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
123. An accident which is accompanied by an unidentified road user who flees immediately thereafter.
A. Hit and Run cases C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident D. Non motor vehicle none traffic accident
124. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is referred to as:
A. final position C. hazards
B. disengagement D. stopping

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125. Seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding of an unusual or unexpected condition indicative of a sign that the
accident might takes place.
A. perception of hazards C. starts of evasive action
B. initial contact D. maximum engagement
126. An enforcement action which the violator is commanded to appear in court without detaining him.
A. traffic arrest C. traffic citation
B. traffic warning D. dogwatch
127. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not
free to rotate.
A. skid marks C. scuff marks
B. key event D. debris
128. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but preoccupied at a moment.
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. oral warning
129. Considered as emergency vehicle, except:
A. Police car on call C. Ambulance on call
B. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car
130. Motor vehicle used by ambassador of Singapore.
A. government C. diplomatic
B. foreign D. gate away
131. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition C. pedestrian
B. whether condition D. reckless driving
132. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” C. none of these
B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”
133. Movement of persons, good, and vehicles either powered by an animal or an animal- drawn vehicle on by
combustion system from one place to another.
A. Engineering C. Traffic
B. Traffic management D. Construction
134. Systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features associated with motor
collision.
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision
135. What are the devices mounted on a portable support where a message to the road users is conveyed by means
of words or symbols
A. traffic light C. traffic island
B. traffic signs D. pavement marking
136. It warn road users of the danger that lies ahead of the road and its nature.
A. informative signs C. warning signs
B. regulatory signs D. all of these
137. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the following.
A. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions
B. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
C. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing
138. When you combine verbal warning and citations in the traffic enforcement you are performing or issuing:
A. Traffic rules implementation C. Citation warnings
B. Traffic consultation D. Written warnings
139. You are a police officer who wants to determine whether a driver is authorized to drive. What is the evidence
that you will ask him to show to prove that he is allowed by the Land Transportation Office (LTO) to operate a
vehicle on public highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license
140. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop
B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles
141. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
A. Spare tire C. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle
B. Unusual odor D. All of these
142. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid hazard.
A. Start of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position

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143. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide pedestrians with safety zone
when crossing:
A. Center C. Cross walk
B. Lane D. Stop lines
144. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or symbols, officially
erected or installed for the purpose of regulating warning or guiding traffic.
A. Center line C. Refuge Island
B. Stop line D. Traffic Signs
145. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a place other than on a highway:
A.Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle accident
146. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is both rotating a slipping is called:
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
147. A motor vehicular accident resulting to the death of a puppy.
A. Fatal accident C. Property damage
B. Non-fatal accident D. Vehicular accident
148. Frontal collision of the vehicles.
A. Full impact collision C. Frontal collision
B. Head on collision D. Collision
149. Law concerning authority of the MMDA to manage traffic in metropolitan Manila area:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 7924
B. RA 6539 D. RA 8551
150. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave from the accident area, if any of the circumstances
below are present, except:
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of an accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
151. The expiry period of student driver’s permit is not beyond:
A. 12 months C. 6 months
B. 18 months D. 3 years
152. The minimum age for professional driver’s license applicant is:
A. 16 C. 18
B. 17 D. 21
153. The minimum age for non-professional driver’s license applicant is:
A. 16 C. 18
B. 17 D. 21
154. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is between 16-18 years old, the most important document he
should submit is:
A . Birth certificate C. Voter’s I.D.
B. Passport D. Parent’s consent
155. The chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the top.
A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow, green
B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow, red
156. While approaching an intersection , the green traffic light is on, however, a police officer suddenly proceed to
the center and signals a motorist to stop. What should the motorist do?
A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection
D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second signal is made
157. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist should:
A. Stop and proceed with caution
B. Slow down and proceed with caution
C. Reduce speed
D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction
158. Overtly violent organized crime group whose members are known to be los hampones (the hoodlums) and
controller of coca cultivation in Bolivia and Peru; production-drug labs in Colombia, Nicaragua, and Panama;
smuggling operations- Bahamas, Turks, and Caicos, and later in Mexico.
a. Colombian Drug Cartels c. The Cali Cartel
b. Medellin Cartel d. Northern Valle Del Cauca
159. Known as the Guzmán-Loera Organization called La Alianza de Sangre ("Blood Alliance"), which considered by
the United States intelligence community as the "the most powerful drug trafficking organization in the world“.

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a. The Gulf Cartel c. Tijuana Cartel
b. The Juarez Cartel d. Sinaloa Cartel
160. The Uninitiated member of the Hung Secret Society is called:
a. Dragon Head c. Red Pole
b. Mountain Lord d. Blue Lanterns
161. The Yakuza is organized into families which adopts a relationship known as:
a. Oyabun-Kobun c. Yubitsume
b. Kabuki-mono d. Bakuto
162. Which of the following is not one of the motorcycle gangs which are active in selling drugs [they control 75%
North American methamphetamine market], prostitution, extortion, theft, arson, robbery, bombings, and contract
murders?
a. Hells Angels c. Tongs
b. Outlaws c. Pagans and Bandidos
163. A member of a Cosa Nostra who operates at least one specific criminal enterprise and constantly search for a
new sources of revenue for the crime family is called
a. Wise guys c. Button men
b. Made guys d. All of the above
164. In Joseph Albini’s Patron-Client Model. Organized crime group is consists of syndicates in a loose system of
power relationship. At the center of each organized crime unit or crime family is/are:
a. Capo, Sottocapo and Consigliere c. Mafioso
b. Caporegime d. Soldati
165. Considered to be the most powerful Mafia family in the US which was established in 1930
a. Gambino, founded Carlo Gambino and Paul Castellano and engaged in drug trafficking, gambling and car
theft
b. Colombo, founded by Joseph Profaci an engaged in narcotics, gambling, Loan-sharking, cigarette
smuggling, pornography, counterfeiting, hijacking bankruptcy fraud, etc
c. Lucchese, founded Tom Gagliano engaged in narcotics trafficking, gambling, loan sharking, waste
management, construction, and garment industry; and Bonnano, foundedby Joe Bonnano engaged in narcotics
trafficking, home video pornography, pizza parlors and espresso cafés.
d. Genovese, founded by Charles “Lucky” Luciano engaged in narcotics trafficking, loan sharking,
extortion rackets, pornography, labor-union, racketeering, restaurants, seafood distribution, and vending machines.
166. These are the conditions exist which lend cohesiveness to modern-day drug trafficking organizations, except:
a. Vertical integration and alternative sources of supply
b. Exploiting social and political conditions
c. Insulation of leaders
d. Corrupt government official and society indifference
167. An offense whose inception, prevention and/or direct or indirect effects involved more than one country.
a. Drug trafficking and human smuggling c. Transnational crimes
b Terrorism, piracy and cyber crimes d. Global crimes
168. Unlawful activities of the members of a highly organized, disciplined association engaged in supplying illegal
goods and services.
a. Enterprise Crime c. White collar crime
b. Organized Crime d. Economic crime
169. Organized crime is an enterprise of group of persons engaged in a continuing illegal activity which has as its
primary purpose is:
a. the generation of profits irrespective of national boundaries
b. the control of certain illegal activities in a specific territory
c. the creation of fear among its enemies
d. the domination of a certain community
170. Where does the concept of organized crime emerged?
a. In China, when the Triad was established
b. In Japan, when Yakuza was founded
c. In Sicily Italy, when the Mafia was first to emerged
d. In the US, when Al Capone ran Chicago with blood and guns
171. Founders of organized crime in the US like Alphonse Capone, Charles “Lucky” Luciano, Meyer Lansky and
Benjamin “Bugsy” Siegel, are notably, members of a small street gang in New York called:
a. Five Points Gang c. Outlaws
b. Tongs d. Hells Angels
172. Structural group of three or more persons existing for the period of time and acting in concert, with the aim of
committing one or more serious crimes or offenses established in accordance with this conviction in order to obtain,
directly or indirectly, a financial or other material benefit.
a. Crime syndicate c. Criminal gang
b. Organized criminal group d. Fraternity
173. Which of the following is not one of the attributes of organized criminal group?
a. Non-Ideological, hierarchical and exclusive Membership
b. Dominating, witty, influential and generous contributor to the church, politicians etc.

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c. Self-perpetuating, violent, involvement in bribery and constitutes a unique subculture
d. Monopolistic, governed by rules and regulations and has specialization/ division of labor.
174. Member of the organized criminal group difficult assignments involving the use of violence in a rational
manner.
a. Money mover c. Enforcer
b. Fixer d. Intelligence analyst
175. Commission of transnational crimes are motivated by the following, except one:
a. political influence c. hate and revenge
b. economic gain d. social control in a global scope.
176. The Mafia is believed to be originated from:
a. Morte Alla Francia, Italia Anela
b. the practice of the criminals to seal a black handprint at the scene of the crime
c. Italian’s beauty, perfection, grace, and excellence
d. the Sicilian struggle in the 13th Century against French Rule
177. The Mafioso connotes:
a. Pride, self confidence, and vainglorious behavior
b. Brave and self reliant, a man of action, and one not to be taken lightly
c. Man of honor or man of respect
d. A and B
178. Which of the following is not one of the categories of organized crime behaviour?
a. Violence and strong commitment and determination to get what they what
b. Provision of illicit goods and services
c. Conspiracy and penetration of legitimate business
d. Extortion and corruption
179. Membership in organized crime group requires:
a. Loyalty c. Lifetime commitment
b. Obedience to the boss d. Specialized criminal skills
180. Criminality of an organized crime group is directed by:
a. The pursuit of profit along well-defined lines
b. Violence, when the interests of the organization are threatened
c. The boss
d. The pursuit of eliminating competitors
181. How does organized crime groups maintain their power and profit?
a. Through violence
b. Through corruption
c. Through the silence and attitude of non-cooperation of law abiding citizens
d. Through continuous association with criminal protectors
182. These are persons and organizations which grant power and the perception of legitimacy to organized crime
groups.
a. The Protectors composed of a network of corrupt officials who protect them from the criminal justice
system
b. The specialized supporter who provide them contract services such as pilots, chemists, arsonists and
hijackers.
c. Audience of consumers of illegal goods and services
d. Social supporters such as civic organizations, influential citizens etc.
183. Donald Cressey’s Cosa Nostra model or organized crime group is characterized by, except one.
a. Italian-dominated crime families who control crime in distinct geographic areas
b. Extremely violent, dangerous and highly disciplined
c. Its primary unit is the family which embodies male members of Italian ancestry.
d. The family is protected by a code of conduct for members which prohibits them from revealing
organizational secrets.
184. The boss of the Cosa Nostra:
a. is its supreme leader
b. is the older members of the crime family
c. oversees all organizational endeavors and has a final word on decisions involving virtually all
aspects of crime family business
d. All of the above
185. He is a sort of midlevel manager who serves as a buffer between the lowest-level members and the upper-level
members of the crime family.
a. The Consigliere c. The Capos
b. The Underboss d. Soldiers
186. Known as “Big Six” transnational organized crime group.
a. Sicilian and American Mafia Families; Russian Mafiya; Yakuza; Triads; Colombian Cartels; and Mexican
Federation.
b Nigeria; Panama; Jamaica; Puerto Rico, Dominican Republic, Colombia
c. Red Army; Shining Path; Revolutionary Armed Forces of Colombia; People’s Irish Republican Army; Al
Qaeda; and ISIS

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d. Gambino, Colombo, Profaci, Lucchese, Bonnano, Genovese Crime Families
187. Members of the Mafia are bound by an oath of five basic principles. Which of the following is not one of them
a. Omerta, or code of silence and total obedience to the “Don” or “Boss”
b Assistance to any befriended Mafia faction, no question asked and to avenge any attack on members of the
family
c. Avoid any and all contact with law enforcement authorities
d. Avoid killing police officer
188. Considered to be the one who first to master money laundering.
a. Al Capone In Chicago c. Meyer Lansky
b. Salvatore “Lucky” Luciano d. Bugsy Seigel
189. Not one of the Italian criminal enterprise.
a. The Camorra c. La Cosa Nostra
b. ‘Ndrangheta d. Sacred Crown
190. The United Nations defines terrorism as:
a. The use or threatened use of force designed to bring about a political change
b. An illegitimate use of force to achieve a political objective by targeting innocent people
c. Socially and politically unacceptable violence aimed at an innocent target to achieve psychological effect .
d. Any act intended to cause death or serious bodily harm to civilians or non-combatants with the purpose of
intimidating a population of serious bodily harm and compelling a government or an international organization to
do or abstain doing any act
191. Terrorist Act is an any act that is unlawful, involves the use or threatened use of violence or force against
individuals or property which designed to coerce a government or society and supports any of the following, except:
a. political objectives c. barbaric objectives
b. ideological objectives d. religious objectives
192. Which of the following is not one of the traditional terrorist tactics?
a. Bombing and hijacking c. Arson and Assault
b. Rape or any form of sexual assault d. Kidnapping and taking hostages
193. The origin of terrorism can be traced from:
a. The French Revolution which describe the actions of the French government.
b. After World War II, when the world’s nationalist groups revolted from European domination
c. Year 1960 to early 1980, when it was applied to violent left-wing groups, as well as nationalist.
d. A large groups who are independent from a state, violent religious fanatics, and violent groups who
terrorize for a particular cause such as the environment
194. Use of lethal force by the state government against its own civilian population with the purpose of repressing
the people, making them apolitical or politically malleable, and/or weakening the population’s willingness to
support revolutionary or other anti-government forces.
a. Apolitical terrorism c. State terrorism
b. Revolutionary terrorism d. State sponsored terrorism
195. In state sponsored terrorism, the state’s regime:
a. Instills fear against elements of its own population to create conditions sufficient to remain in political
control.
b. Uses its military instrument against the civilian population of an enemy nation for the purpose of
undermining the population’s will to support its own government, or shattering the cohesion of the population
making it unable to support its government.
c. Employs lethal force across international borders for the purpose of destroying or weakening the political
cohesion of a targeted political entity without using its own military instrument to deliver the lethal force, but
harness social elements within the targeted entity to do so.
d. All of the above
196. Which of the following may not be a target for terrorist attack?
a. Structures which have a symbolic or practical significance and propaganda value
b. Places where the terrorists have an easy access to the target area and security
c. Structures which are vulnerable for destruction and persons of importance to the enemy
d. Places where weapons, transportation needs, and support network are available
197. Terrorist safe haven is:
a. an area of relative security exploited by terrorists to indoctrinate, recruit, train, and regroup, as well as
prepare and support their operations.
b. a place where terrorists hide and coddled by their symphatizers
c. global media, and satellite communications that allow terrorists to fulfill many of their functions
d. an area which is difficult to track and control.
198. The giving of alms for the poor and needy as prescribed by the Quran which is the primary means within the
Muslim world for terror organizations to “legitimately” receive money.
a. Zakat c. Hawala
b. Islamic Banking d. Money Laundering
199. The leader of Al Qaeda is called:

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a. The Base c. Jihad
b. The Emir d. Bearer of the Sword
200. In its self-proclaimed status as a caliphate, it claims religious authority over all Muslims worldwide, and aims to
bring most traditionally Muslim-inhabited regions of the world under its political control.
a. Jimaah Islamiya c. Abu Sayyaf
b. Islamic State d. Al Qaeda
201. What is the law that defines and penalizes crime of terrorism in the Philippines
a. Act No. 3815 c. RA 10175
b. RA 9372 d. RA 9208
202. Core elements of the concept of trafficking, except one.
a. The action of trafficking which means the recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of
persons
b. The means of trafficking which includes threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power
or position of vulnerability
c. The motive which for profit or financial gain
d. The purpose which is always exploitation
203. Which of the following are the commonly identified forms of human trafficking?
a. Sexual exploitation and organ removal
b. Exploitation of children in begging, sex trade and warfare
c. Forced labor, Domestic servitude and forced marriage;
d. All of the above
204. Money laundering’s main objective is:
a. to conceal the beneficial ownership or audit trail of illegally obtained money or valuable so that it appears
to have originated from a legitimate source.
b. to keep the money hidden from the authorities
c. to gain interest from the money
d. to buy expensive jewelry
205. Placement in money laundering process means:

a. Merging of money into legitimate economic and financial systems
b. Separating illicit proceeds from their source by creating complex layers of financial transactions designed
to disguise the source of money, subvert the audit trail and provide anonymity
c. Disposal of cash proceeds derived from the unlawful activity
d. Investing dirty money to legitimate business
206. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated to devise international standards and policies to combat money
laundering. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. France, Germany and Italy
b. Japan
c. United Kingdom of Great Britain, United States of America, and Canada
d. China, South Korea and Russia
207. In 2000 the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime extended the legal definition of
money laundering to include all serious crimes. This is known as:
a. Palermo Convention c. Transnational Organized Crime Convention
b. United Nations Convention d. Organized Crime Convention
208. Republic Act No. 9160 as amended by RA 9194 , RA10167 and RA10365 defines money laundering as a crime
whereby the proceeds of an unlawful activity (predicate crime) are transacted, thereby making them appear to have
originated from legitimate sources. It is committed by any person who:
a. transacts or attempts to transact with any monetary instrument knowing that it involves or relates to the
proceed of an unlawful activity.
b. facilitates the commission of money-laundering as defined in no.1 by knowingly performing or failing to
perform an act.
c. fails to disclose and file a report with AMLC of any instrument or property as required under the law
d. All of the above
209. The Philippine Center on Transnational Crime which is created by virtue of Executive Order No. 62, is under
what office or agency?
a. Office of the President c. DOJ
b. DILG d. PNP
210. What is the primary mandate of the Philippine Center on Transnational Crime?
a. To formulate and implement a concerted program of action of all law enforcement, intelligence and other
government agencies for the prevention and control of transnational crime.
b. To establish through the use of modern information and telecommunication a shared central data base among
government agencies for information on criminals, methodologies, arrest and convictions on transnational crimes.
c. To establish a center for strategic research on the structure and dynamics of transnational crimes in all its
forms, and predict trends and analyze relationships of given factors for the formulation of individual and collective

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strategies for the prevention and detection of transnational and organized crime and for the apprehension of the
criminals involved.
d. All of the above
211. Conceptualized in the 1920's and had its initial headquarters in Vienna. This organization was established to
promote international criminal police cooperation.
a. International Police
b. International Criminal Police Organization
c. International Association of the Chiefs of Police
d. Asian National Police
212. Three Core Services of the INTERPOL, except:
a. Unique global police communication system
b. Range of criminal data bases and analytical services
c. Proactive support for police operations throughout the world.
d. Arrest of international terrorist
213. INTERPOL'S rules in fighting Terrorism.
a. Prevent acts of international terrorism
b. If terrorist acts are carried out, ensure that the perpetrators are brought to justice which could be achieved
by exchanging information with its member countries through its source messaging system and by arranging
meetings of expert to address the subject.
c. Arrest the terrorist
d. A and B
214. INTERPOL’s notice on planned terrorist attack to one of its member-countries.
a. Blue Notice c. Yellow Notice
b. Green Notice d. Orange Notice
215. Red Notice is INTERPOL’s Notice System:
a. To seek information on the identity of persons or on their illegal activities related to criminal matters
b. To provide warning and criminal intelligence about persons who have committed criminal offenses and
who are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries.
c. To locate missing persons
d. To seek the arrest and extradition of suspects
216. Black Notice is INTERPOL’s notice to:
a. Determine the identity of deceased person
b. Provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment methods used by criminals.
c. Individuals and entities that are subject to UN sanctions.
d. Any of the above
217. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police- Special Action Force Commandos that led to the killing
of the international terrorist Zulkifli bin Hir at the Mamasapano, Maguindanao.
A. Oplan Wolverine C. Oplan Neptune Spear
B. Oplan Terminator D. Oplan Exodus
218. Terrorist group lead by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose aim is to establish an Islamic state in the world.
A. Al Qaeda C. Islamic State
B. Abu Sayyaf D. Jemaah Islamiyah
219. The most intractable safe havens of terrorist groups worldwide.
A. Internet
B. Global media
C. Regions where ineffective governance allows their presence
D. Those created by electronic infrastructure
220. Core elements of trafficking, except-
A. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
B. Entry of the victims to the country of destination
C. Threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power or position of vulnerability
D. Exploitation
221. Investigation, prosecution and trial of the crime of trafficking in person is done in-
a. Open and public c. Closed-door
b. Personal d. Official capacity
222. When does the government lost its power to prosecute persons engaged in syndicated or large scale human
trafficking?
a. 10 years c. 15 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
223. In the investigation of cybercrime, “VES” approach is used. VES literally means, except one.
a. Victim c. Evidence
b. Violation d. Suspect
224. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A. Operation Geronimo C. Operation Neptune Spear
B. Operation Jabbidah D. Operation Merdeka
225. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of dangerous drug to the body is called:

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a. Drug use c. Taking
b. Administer d. Addict
226. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will bring him elsewhere he ceased from using it. Diego’s act is
called:
a. Abstinence c. Self medication
b. Rehabilitation d. Dependence
227. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured
controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:
a. Drug trafficking c. Chemical diversion
b. Sale d. Chemical smuggling
228. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called:
A. drug den C. laboratory equipment
B. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory
229. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, except:
a. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
b. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
c. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
d. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession
230. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active components known as
Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. Marijuana
B. LSD D. Ecstacy
231. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical form to the amphetamine
family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
a. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride c. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
b. Papaver somniferum d. Cannabis sativa
232. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehended offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has:
A. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
B. Physical sign of drug abuse
C. Symptoms of Drug abuse
D. All of the above
233. Known as the “Father of Medicine” . He prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery which was cultivated by the
Summerrians during 7000 BC.
a. Hippocrates c. Confucious
b. Morpreus d. Socrates
234. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in China by the British Indies that lead to the Opium
War of 1840.
A. Lao Tzu C. Yung Chen
B. Sun Tzu D. Mao Zedong
235. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
236. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as the world’s
oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.
a. Papaver Somniferum c. Coca Plant
b. Cannabis Sativa d. Ephedrine
237. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, except:
A. Indian hemp C. Coca bush
B. Opium poppy D. Ephedra
238. Which of the following drug trafficking organization which furnishes drugs to the users?
A. Core organization C. Cartel
B. Secondary organization D. Local organization
240. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market.
I. Heroin and Cocaine
II. Shabu and Ecstacy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants
A. I and II C. II and III

B. I and III D. V
241. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects?
A. Opiates B. Narcotics
C. Heroine D. Hallucinogens
242. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences

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C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
243. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous system, increasing alertness, decreasing fatigue and delaying sleep.
A. Narcotic C. Shabu
B. Hallucinogen D. Stimulant
244. Which of the following is not one of the means of the taking methamphetamine hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon C. Smoking
B. Snorting D. Oral
245. Consider the following;
I. Drug addicts can be detected by means of observation of the person suspected to be addicted of drugs.
II. Drug addicts can be detected through laboratory examination.
III. Drug addicts can be detected through psychological examinations such as intelligence, personality,
aptitude, interest and psychiatric examinations.
What is the correct answer?

A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II only D. II and III
246. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus of which is through law enforcement, prosecution and
judicial actions.
a. Demand reduction c. Inter-agency coordination
b. Supply reduction d. International cooperation
247. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of dangerous drugs?
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the above
248. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished with:
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
249. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that are sniffed to
obtain intoxication fall?
A. Depressants C. Energizers
B. Tranquilizers D. Inhalants
250. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various
techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine Operation
B. Disguised operation D. Confidential
251. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where 80% of
illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:
A. Thailand –Laos –Burma C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
252. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relives pain and induces sleep.
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
253. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active components known as
Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
B. Marijuana D. Ecstacy (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
254. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes difficult
according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is easy to smoke it secretly C. It is easy to cultivate
B. It is sellable in the market D. It is in demand
255. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-awareness and emotion:
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
256. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy.
A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
B. Shabu D. Anabolic Steroid
257. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice

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B. NBI Director and PNP Director General
C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
D. PNP Director and PDEA Director
258. A form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug even to the point of interfering with the person’s
ability to function normally.
A. Tolerance C. Habituation
B. Addiction D. Psychological Dependence
259. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence
B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification
260. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.
A. Ketamine C. Anesthesia
B. Codeine D. Sleeping pills
261. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance.
A. Codeine C. Morphine
B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy
262. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence.
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies.
D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of
not less than six (6) years and one (1) days.
263. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its members
from being hook to addiction?
A. Church C. Barangay
B. Family D. School
264. Percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05 C. 1.5
B. 0.15 D. 0.50
265. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A. opiates C. shabu
B. track D. coke
266. The source of most analgesic narcotic is:
A. Opium C. heroine
B. morphine D. All of them
267. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?
A. poor environment C. domestic violence
B. experimental thrill D. peer pressure
268. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
A. solvent C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant
269. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
270. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because they:
A. Are violently insane C. Flagrantly immoral
B. Ruin their life/health D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.
271. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “poorman’s cocaine”.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
272. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed to reduce
appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental depression.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
273. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering taste and said to be one of the strongest derivatives of
Opium poppy.
A. Morphine C. Codeine
B. Heroin D. Cocaine
274. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of
the minds and body.

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A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction
B. Gambling D. Vice
275. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from;
a. The Golden Crescent c. Hongkong
b. The Golden Triangle d. Silver Triangle
276. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world.
a. Japan c. Philippines
b. Hongkong d. Burma
277. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu originated from:
a. Japan c. Mexico
b. China d. India
278. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled by:
a. The Mafia c. Medellin Cartel
b. La Cosa Nostra d. Chinese Mafia
279. Principal source of all forms of cocaine
a. South East Asia c. Middle East
b. South America d. South West Asia
280. The major transshipment point for international drug traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of
Drug Users” in this continent
a. Portugal c. Germany
b. Spain d. Turkey
281. Which of the following country in the Middle East is the biggest producer of cannabis sativa?
a. Lebanon c. Kuwait
b. Iraq d. Afhganistan
282. The Golden Triangle produces how many percent of opium in the world?
a. 60% c. 80%
b. 70% d. 90%
283. The Golden Crescent is located in the South West Asia composed of which Countries?
a. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan
b. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
c. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
d. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey
284. Sources of Dangerous drugs particularly opium poppy is cultivated and harvested mostly in the areas of which
part of the globe?
a. South East Asia c. Middle East
b. South West Asia d. Europe
285. How many grams of shabu does a person possess to render him ineligible to post bail?
a. 100 grams c. less than 50 gram
b. Half of a kilogram d. 50 grams or more
286. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the commercial trade marijuana, it is:
a. Concentrated resin extracted from marijuana
b. Dried flower of marijuana
c. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
d. Finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant
287. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; mescaline is:
a. Buttons c. Brain eaters
b. Dope d. Herbals
288. Herion is Blanco; Codeine is School Boy; psilocybin is Magic Mushroom; Cocaine is:
a. Hearts c. Uppers
b. Crack d. Speed
289. Which of the following does not carry a capital punishment?
a. possession of 20 grams morphine c. possession of 15 grams of MDMA
b. possession of 100 grams of marijuana d. possession of 60 grams of shabu
290. Which of the following is not false?
a. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition to dangerous drug
b. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between regulated and prohibited drug
c. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drug to prohibited drug
d. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drug as dangerous drug
291. Which of the following is not untrue?
a. The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated
b. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil action for violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes care to
criminal aspects
c. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related to drugs which are usually implemented by PDEA
d. . The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of RA 9165
292. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related cases?
a. Public Attorney’s Office

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b. Ombudsman
c. National Prosecution Service
d. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ
293. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug cases?
a. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
b. Special Court designated by the SC
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Special Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
294. Samples of the seized dangerous drugs shall be destroyed_________ after the promulgation of judgment.
a. 2 days c. 24 hours
b. 1 day d. 48 hours
295. Decision of the court whether the person is guilty or not guilty for drug trafficking shall be rendred within the
period of ___________ after the trial.
a. 15 days c. 10 days
b. 30 days d. 6 days
296. Preliminary investigation of drug case is being terminated within the period of how many days from the date
of filing?
a. 30 c. 10
b. 15 d. 4
297. How many hours that the information shall be filed in court after the termination of the PI?
a. 24 c. 72
b. 48 d. 36
298. After the filing of the criminal case, the courts conducts ocular inspection of seized drugs within how many
hours?
a. 48 c. 72
b. 24` d. 36
299. RA 9165 was enacted on June 7, 2002 and took effect on July 4, 2002.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
d. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both false
300. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress destructive fires, implements the fire code and
investigates all fires cases in the Philippines
a. BFP c. BJMP
b. PNP d. Bureau of Fire in the Phillippines
301. Product of combustion which combustible materials and oxidizing agents react to heat.
a. Fire c. Smoke
b. Fire Gases d. Flame
302. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.
a. Fire Suppression c. Fire Inspection
b. Fire Control d. Fire prevention
303. Fires involving flammable liquids.
a. Class C c. Class D
b. Class B d. Class A
304. Caused by volcanic eruption or humidity.
a. Providential fire c. Unnatural fire
b. Intentional fire d. Accidental fire
305. Fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity.
a. Incipient c. Smoldering
b. Free burning d. Initial
306. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat.
a. Thermal balance c. Burning
b. Oxidation d. Pyrolysis
307. Composed of tiny solid particles.
a. Fire gases c. Smoke
b. Flames d. Heat
308. Means employed to pacify the fire.
a. Fire prevention c. Fire control
b. Fire safety d. Fire suppression
309. Rate of temperature of fire.
a. Heat c. Magnitude
b. Intensity d. Ignition point
310. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation from destructive fires.
a. Fire control c. Fire prevention
b. Fire safety d. Fire inspection
311. Known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines”.
a. RA 6975 c. RA 9514

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b. RA 9263 d. PD 1613
312. Known as the 4th element of fire.
a. Fuel c. Uninhibited chemical reaction
b. Heat d. Oxygen
313. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids.
a. Convection c. Conduction
b. Radiation d. Electrolysis
314. The means employed to keep the fire to a minimum or manageable level.
a. Fire control c. Fire suppression
b. Fire prevention d. Fire inspection
315. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning.
a. Temperature c. Intensity
b. Heat d. Magnitude
316. An act of removing fire hazards from the building.
a. Lien c. Inspection
b. Abatement d. Renovation
317. Normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure or natural condition
created by fire.
a. Thermal balance c. Fire turbulence
b. Thermal imbalance d. Fire direction
318. Office of the BFP that facilitates the implementation of the Fire Code of the Philippines.
a. Fire Investigation Section c. Fire Safety inspection Section
b. Fire Safety Enforcement Branch d. Personnel Section
319. The process of determining the cause of fire in a particular installation.
a. Fire safety c. Fire investigation
b. Fire inspection d. Fire control
320. The first to be observed in ascertaining the cause of fire.
a. The point of origin c. The room of origin
b. The burnt pattern of ceiling d. The color of smoke and flame
321. Place in the fire scene where the fire started.
a. Kitchen c. Electrical Wire
b. Point of origin d. None
322. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred.
a. Alligatoring c. Collapse
b. Discoloration d. Charring
323. Which of the following should be performed first in conducting fire investigation?
a. Secure the fire scene c. Pacify the fire
b. Photograph the facade d. Conduct search
324. Fire which there are human casualties.
a. Deadly fire c. Spot fire
b. Fatal fire d. Arson
325. If the motive of fire is due to insanity, who among the following is the probable perpetrator?
a. Jolted lover c. Terrorist
b. Rebel d. Pyromaniac
326. Which of the following will not cause the investigator to hypothesize that the series of fires are not performed
by a serial arsonist?
a. There is a significant difference in modus operandi in all series of fire
b. There is significant variations as to the time of the commission of arson
c. There is a significant similarity in manner of commission of offense
d. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire
327. If the investigator did not found any trace of incendiarism, which of the following will be the assumption?
a. The fire was intentional c. The fire was providential
b. The fire was accidental d. The fire was not accidental
328. Which of the following shall cause the investigator to assume that the victim died of direct contact with flame?
a. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory tract
b. Prominence of trauma that is probably caused by a stab
c. Intense charring of the whole body
d. None of the above
329. System of interconnected pipe that supplies water for fire suppression system in a particular installation.
a. Wet pipe c. Stand pipe
b. Dry pipe d. Sprinkler
330. Product of fire that is detected by gas chromatogram and ion spectrometer.
a. Flames c. Soot
b. Heat d. Fire gases
331. To point out the difference between the incendiary cause of fire and natural cause the fire investigator must
photograph the natural fire pattern and:
a. Arson fire pattern c. Providential fire pattern

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b. Accidental fire pattern d. Suspicious fire pattern
332. Most arson cases are proved by__________________ evidence rather than that direct evidence.
a. Circumstantial c. Testimonial
b. Documentary d. Physical
333. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total insurance carried on the building and/or goals is more
than ________ of the value of such building and/or goods at the time of the fire.
a. 60% c. 80%
b. 50% d. 90%
334. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the dead body found in a burned structure, this will be a strong
circumstantial evidence that the person:
a. Was dead when the fire began
b. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
c. Was still alive before the fire
d. Died due to suffocation
335. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
a. Sulfides c. Sulfur
b. Nitrates d. Ammonia
336. When fire occurred, the first action upon discovery is:
a. Run for life c. Pack up personal belongings
b. Raise the alarm d. Call an ambulance
337. It is used to include not only architects responsible for the design and erection of a complete building but also
the various specialist engineers who may be concerned with the structure, the electrical installation, the heating
ventilation system and so on.
a. Building contractors c. Office of building permits
b. Designers d. Building planners
338. Which of the following is a primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection?
a. To see to it that the building is insured
b. To safeguard life
c. To insure that the building is hazard-free
d. To generate income for the government
339. It helps the the arson investigator solve the fire mystery. The fact that fire feeds or combustible while
propagating itself. It will indicate generally the deepest from where the fire originated.
a. Charring c. Burning
b. Allegatoring d. Trailer
340. Preparation to set a fire. It is design to feed the fire as rapidly as possible when ignition device is lighted.
a. Plants c. Accelarants
b. Trailers d. Fuel
341. If combustion waves propagate at supersonic speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to produce:
a. Explosion c. Conflagration
b. Detonation d. Big fire
342. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
a. Flash over c. Ignition
b. Pyrolysis d. Combustion
343. As the product of combustion rises in a building or flows out of an opening an equal volume of air replaces
them. If during extinguishments, water is distributed in such a manner as to upset the thermal balance, a condition
will appear known as:
a. Explosion of steam c. Thermal imbalance
b. Thermostat c. Sudden burst of fire
344. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of the
building?
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe
B. sprinkler system D. flash point
345. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is:
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection
346. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming
ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle
347. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
348. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
A. attic C. extension
B. aerial D. hook
349. It refers to the law on arson.
a. PD 1612 c. Revised Penal Code

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b. PD 1613 d. RA 7659
350. Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day, Jessie and Jean quarreled. Because of anger, Jessie put the clothes of
Jean in a luggage and burned them.
a. Jessie committed malicious mischief and is liable
b. Jessie committed malicious mischief but is exempt from criminal liability
c. Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable
d. Jessie committed arson but is exempt from criminal liability under Article 332 of the Revised Penal Code
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DEAN RODOLFO V. CASTILLO JR. Page 1

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b. Question and answer because it provides details of acts

c. Combination of the two

c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion

d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion

d. None of the above

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72. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth:

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205. Placement in money laundering process means:

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A. I and II C. II and III

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What is the correct answer?

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