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Murali Bharadwaz Classes for MD/MS Entrance Coaching Programme

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1. Decreasing order of resistance to sterilization is 10. A 12-year-old boy reports feeling tingling and itching
A. Prions > Bacterial spore > fungi > Non lipid or small of his legs 30 minutes after swimming in a lake. Over
virus > Mycobacterium > vegetative bacteria > Lipid or the next day, small papules develop followed by
medium size virus blisters of the legs. Dermatitis due to schistosome
B. Prions > Bacterial spore > fungi > Lipid or medium size infection is diagnosed. What larval stage most likely
virus > Mycobacterium > vegetative bacteria > Non caused the infection?
lipid or small virus A. Filariform larva
C. Prions > Bacterial spore > Mycobacterium > Non lipid B. Cysticercus
or small virus > fungi > vegetative bacteria > Lipid or C. Cercaria
medium size virus D. Miracidium
D. Lipid or medium size virus > Bacterial spore >
Mycobacterium > Non lipid or small virus > fungi > 11.Cerebral malaria most commonly attends infection
vegetative bacteria > Prions with which of the following?
A. Any two species of Plasmodium
2. During the acid fast staining procedure for Nocardia B. Plasmodium malariae
, which of the following is used C. Plasmodium falciparum
A. 10% HCl D. Plasmodium ovale
B. 1% H2SO4
C. 5% H2SO4 12. A bone marrow biopsy from a patient with acute
D. 30% alcohol lym- phocytic leukemia reveals the presence of a
mutated form of p53 within leukemic cells. This
3. Generation time of E-coli is mutation is likely responsible for which of the
A. 20 days following?
B. 20 minutes A. an increase in the Bax-to-Bcl-2 ratio
C. 20 hours B. decreased activity of NK cell KIR function
D. 20 second C. excess activity of a GTP-binding protein
D. loss of suppression of cell growth
4. Salmonella gastroenteritis is
A. Mainly diagnosed by serology 13. An individual is given therapy with human immune
B. Growth is inhibited by Tryptophan globulin (Hlg). Which of the following conditions
C. Symptoms appears by 8-48 hours would be appropriate for this type of therapy?
D. Purified Vi polysaccharide vaccine (typhim Vi) is given in A. Agammaglobulinanemia
a single dose under 5 years of age B. Allergy
C. rheumatoid arthritis
5. Major histocompatibility complex Class I proteins D. superficial bladder cancer
are found in
A. The surface of body cells 14. After receiving a kidney transplant from the most
B. Macrophages only appropriate available donor, a 38-year-old female is
C. All the body cells surface except erythrocytes ad­ministered immunosuppressive drugs, including
D. B-cells only cyclosporine, in order to
A. decrease T cell production of IL-2.
6. Theory of contagion was first enunciated by B. destroy stem cells in her bone marrow.
A. Paracelsus C. induce involution of her thymus.
B. Fracastorius D. inhibit macrophage release of IFN-y.
C. Vesalius
D. Pare 15. A 2 – month – old male infant presents with
persistent diarrhea, signs and symptoms of
7. Phosphatase test is used to check Pneumocystis cariniii pneumonia, and an oral fungal
A. specific gravity of milk infection with Candida albicans. His weight is in the
B. Bacteriological quality of milk tenth percentile. Test results for HIV are negative
C. Fat content of milk by polymerase chain reaction. They most likely cause
D. Pasteurization of milk of these findings is –
A. Grossly reduced levels of B cells
8. The following are attributes of Hepatitis B infection B. An X – linked inheritance of HLA genes
EXCEPT C. Defective isotype switching
A. Establishes chronic infections in those infected as infants. D. Defective T cell function
B. HbcAg is serum indicates active infection
C. Can cause hepatocellular carcinoma 16. A previously healthy 45 – year – old male presents
D. Alpha interferon is used for the treatment of chronic with rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, and persistent
infection. respiratory symptoms several months after returning
to his home in New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina.
9. The following are attributes of histoplasmosis He has noticed mold growing along the walls of his
EXCEPT house. Skin testing for sensitivity to common mold
A. Is an intracellular infection spores gave positive results to several of them in
B. Is a superficial fungal infection less than 30 minutes. These findings indicate an
C. Infection is acquired by inhalation example of:
D. Treated by IV amphotericin B

Every day Monday –Friday 5:00 pm -8:00 pm, Saturday – online Subject test and
Discussion 5 pm -8pm Sunday – Full Scale online NEET PG Grand test and Live
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 Dr. Murali Bharadwaz Classes for MD/MS Entrance Coaching Programme
29 Week NEETPG MD Entrance Live Online interactive Classes
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A. Contact dermatitis 26. Which statement is correct?
B. Delayed (- type) hypersensitivity A. Bacteroides fragilis is a gram – positive, non – spore forming
C. Immediate hypersensitivity rod
D. Serum sickness B. Propionibacterium is found on the skin’s surface
C. Lactobacillus is a common pathogen that colonizes the
17.A state of T lymphocyte no responsiveness that
genitourinary tract and causes urinary tract infections
occurs following peptide + major histocompatilibity
D. Most anaerobic infections are exogenous infections
complex (pMHC) engagement is known as –
A. Allergy
27. Bacteroides fragilis is the most common cause of
B. Apoptosis
which condition or disease?
C. Anergy
A. Intraabdominal abscesses
D. Autoimmunity
B. Gas gangrene
18. The following is true about disinfectants that can C. Brain abscesses
be used effectively for skin: D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
A. glutaraldehyde
B. chlorhexidine 28. The toxin produced by tetanus acts by which
C. ethylene oxide mechanism?
D. chloramphenicol drops A. Catalyzes hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids
B. Intergrates into cell membranes, leading to pore formation
19. There is an outbreak of watery diarrhea in 6 members
with cell lysis
of a party of 20 who ate at a Chinese restaurant the
C. Stimulates macrophages to release proinflammatory
day before. Fried rice is impli ­cated. What is the most
cytokines
likely causative agent?
D. Blocks release of neurotransmitter for inhibitory synapes
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Giardialamblia
29. Which respiratory pathogen can be detected in clinical
C. Norwalk agent
specimens by Gram stain?
D. Rotavirus
A. Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) pneumoniae
20. Wool sorter’s disease is caused by B. Legionella paneumophila
A. Bacillus cereus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Bacillus anthracis D. Nocardia asteroids
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Clostridium perfringens 30. Which antibiotic inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis?
A. Ciprofloxacin
21. Rifampin acts kin a bactericidal manner by which
B. Erythromycin
mechanism?
C. Imipenem
A. Blocks peptide elongations by inhibiting peptidyltransferas
D. Rifampin
B. Inhibits cross – linking of cell wall peptidoglycan
C. Inhibits DNA topoisomerases
31. Which microscopic staining methods should be used
D. Inhibits initiation of RNA synthesis
to detect the Mycobacterium avium complex?
22. Streptococcus pneumoniae can escape phagocytic A. Calcofluor white stain
clearance by which mechanism? B. Gram stain
A. Capsule – mediated inhibition of phagocytosis C. Kinyoun stain
B. Inhibition of phagosome/lysosome fusion D. Trichrome stain
C. Inhibition of opsonization mediated by protein A
D. Lysis of phagosome nad replication in cytoplasma 32. Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae is characterized
by intracellular growth of the bacteria and stimulation
23. Which antibiotic prevents transcription of DNA into of a vigorous inflammatory response. Which virulence
RNA? factor is responsible for the inflammatory response?
A. Ciprofloxacin A. Capsule
B. Erythromycin B. Lipooligosaccharide (LOS)
C. Imipenem C. Opacity (Opa) protein
D. Rifampin D. Reduction modifiable (RMP) protein

24. Which antibiotic should be used to treat diphtheria? 33. Antibiotic therapy is contraindicated for management
A. Chloramphenicol of infection with which organism?
B. Ciprofloxacin A. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Doxycycline B. Clostrium difficile
D. Penicillin C. Escherichia coli 0157
D. Helicobacter pylori
25. Which statement about Staphylococcus aureus is
correct? 34. Which bacteria can stain weakly acid – fast when
A. Resistance to ampicillin/sulbactam is mediate by beta – detected in clinical specimen?
lactamases A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Resistance to dicloxacillin is mediated by beta – lactamases B. Bartonella bacilliformis
C. Resistance to oxacillin is mediated by beta – lactamases C. Corynebacterium jeikeium
D. Resistance of penicillin is mediated by beta – lactamases D. Legionella micdadei

Every day Monday –Friday 5:00 pm -8:00 pm, Saturday – online Subject test and
Discussion 5 pm -8pm Sunday – Full Scale online NEET PG Grand test and Live
Discussion 12:00 -3:00 pm Call to enroll today : 09000868356 , 09505948391
 Dr. Murali Bharadwaz Classes for MD/MS Entrance Coaching Programme
29 Week NEETPG MD Entrance Live Online interactive Classes
www.onlinembbs.com Quiz Day - 8 3

35. Coxiella burnetii can escape phagocytic clearance by

which mechanism?
A. Inhibition of phagosome/lysosome fusion
B. Inhibition of opsonization mediated by protein A
C. Lysis of phagosome and replication in cytoplasm
D. Replication in fused phagosome/lysosome

36. Which statement about Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

is accurate?
A. This organism is typically susceptible to penicillin
B. This organism is catalase – negative and can be mistaken
for Streptococcus
C. Infection with this organism is associated with human bites
D. The primary virulence factor associated with organism is
endotoxin

37. Which antibiotic is consistently active against

anaerobic gram – negative rods?
A. Carbenicillin
B. Clindamycin
C. Imipenem
D. Metronidazole

38. Francisella tularensis can escape phagocytic clearance

by which mechanism?
A. Capsule – mediated inhibition of phagocytosis
B. Inhibition of phagosome/lysosome fusion
C. Inhibition of opsonization mediated by protein A
D. Lysis of phagosome and replication in cytoplasm

39. Which feature is unique to gram – positive bacteria?

A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Endotoxin
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Spore formation

40. Which factor is primarily responsible for the tissue

damage seen in syphilis?
A. Production of bacterial hyaluronidase
B. Outer membrane protein facilitating adherence to host
cells
C. Fibronectin coat protecting the bacteria from phagocytosis
D. Host immune response to bacteria

Every day Monday –Friday 5:00 pm -8:00 pm, Saturday – online Subject test and
Discussion 5 pm -8pm Sunday – Full Scale online NEET PG Grand test and Live
Discussion 12:00 -3:00 pm Call to enroll today : 09000868356 , 09505948391