PHYSIOLOGY

1ST BIMONTHLY EXAM

2018-2019

NO QUESTION AND CHOICES RATIONALIZATION

1 Which of these describes endocytosis?
A. Passive process Rationale:
B. Requires carrier proteins Answer: C
C. Removes portion of plasma membrane “Third, endocytosis is the first step in remodeling or
D. Transfers substances through membrane degrading portions of the plasma membrane.
channels Membrane that is delivered to the surface during
exocytosis must be retrieved and ultimately returned
to the TGN”
Reference:
Boron Walter F., Boulpaep, Emile L. (2017). Medical Physiology A Cellular and Molecular Approach. 3 rd ed.
P.118, Chapter 2

2 The simple diffusion of nonpolar solutes through the membrane is enhanced by decreasing this.
A. Lipid solubility Rationale:
B. Molecular size Rationale: Answer B
C. Membrane area “(2) mass of the molecule—large molecules such as
D. Channel number proteins have a greater mass and move more slowly
than smaller molecules such as glucose and,
consequently, have a slower net flux”
Reference: Vander’s 14th Ed. Chap4. pg 97

3 What happens when there is no ATP in sodium-glucose cotransport?

A. Carrier will be destroyed Rationale:
B. Glucose will not bind to carrier Answer D
C. Sorry nakalimtan
D. Na concentration gradient will be abolished
(mao man tingali ni ang answer haha)
Reference: Boron Figure 36-3 B and C. Chapter36 pg 1941

4 Which is true of facilitated transport across plasma membrane?

A. Requires ATP for action
B. Requires carrier protein
C. Allows passage of small molecules across pores
D. Transport against electrical gradient
Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology Chapter 4 pg. 101
Rationale:
Facilitated transport requires transporters (can be in
the form of protein) to transfer solutes from a higher
concentration to a lower concentration.

5 Which of the following is characteristic of secondary active transport and NOT the primary active transport?
A. Requires ATP Rationale:
B. Requires carrier In 2ndary active transport, there is the use of an
C. Requires ion concentration gradient electrochemical gradient to drive the transfer process
D. Can be saturated and inhibited of solutes.
Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology Chapter 4 lpg. 102, 103-104

6 This is true of the Na/K+ pump at resting membrane:

A. An extrinsic membrane protein Rationale:
B. Transports 2 k against electrical gradient “However, the Na-K ATPase pump not only
C. Transports 3 na along electrical gradient maintains the concentration of these gradients
D. Maintains intracellular na/k concentrations (pertaining to Na-k gradient) but also establishes
them in the first place”
Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology Chapter 6 pg. 148

7 Both the simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion exhibit this property
A. Require ATP Rationale:
B. Require carrier molecule Answer: D
C. Move substances uphill Neither facilitated diffusion nor simple diffusion is
D. Net movement stops at equilibrium directly coupled to ATP, and are thus unable to move
substances uphill (lower to higher concentration).
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 Unlike facilitated diffusion, simple diffusion does not
require a carrier molecule. However, both obtain
equilibrium when solute concentrations on both sides
of the membrane become equal.
Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology, p. 101 and Table 4.2 of Chapter 4

8 2 compartments contain 0.75% NaCl solution. Compartment A contains 90 ml and Compartment B contains
20 ml. If a semipermeable membrane is placed in between the two compartments, what is the net movement
of water across the membrane?
A. Compartment A to Compartment B Rationale:
B. Compartment B to Compartment A Answer: D
C. Unpredictable The net movement of water is osmosis. A
D. Zero concentration difference must be present to produce
a net flux. Thus, since both compartments contain the
same concentration of NaCl, no net movement of
water occurs.
Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology Chapter 4, pg. 106

9 Which of the following is true about Homeostatic Control Systems?

A. The stability of internal environment Rationale:
is based on the absolute magnitude of Answer: C
the outputs and inputs “It is not always possible for homeostatic control
B. For a given variable there is a systems to maintain every variable within a narrow
complete constancy normal range in response to an environmental
C. maintenance is based on the hierarchy of challenge. There is a hierarchy of importance, so that
importance certain variables may be altered markedly to maintain
D. It cannot be reset others within their normal range.”
Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology, Chapter 1, pg 9, Table 1.2

10 Osteoclast possesses precursor receptors which are:

A. Calcitonin Rationale:
B. Calcitonin and rank l only Answer D
C. Calcitonin and calcitriol only Osteoclast contains receptors for calcitonin and rank
D. Calcitonin, rank L and calcitriol only ligand. Both osteoclasts and osteoblasts have VDRs.
Reference: Boron and Boulpaep Medical Physiology 2e, Chapter 52, Figure 52.5 and pg. 1107

11 Which of the ff is component of transcellular fluid

A. plasma Rationale:
B. bone Answer: D
C. mitochondria matrix The transcellular fluid includes the synovial fluid
D. synovial fluid within joints and the cerebrospinal fluid surrounding
the brain and spinal cord.
Reference:
Widmaier, E. et al. (2007). Vander’s Human Physiology. 11th ed. New York, McGraw-Hill. P.

Silverthorn, Dee Unglaub. (2012). Human Physiology An Integrated Approach. 6th ed. P.

Guyton, Arthur C., Hall, John E. (2006). Textbook of Medical Physiology. 11 th ed. P.

Boron Walter F., Boulpaep, Emile L. (2017). Medical Physiology A Cellular and Molecular Approach. 3rd ed. P.

12 Which of the following association between fluid compartments and predominant electrolytes is correct?
A. Cell: K and HCO3 Rationale:
B. Plasma: K and Cl Answer: D
C. Protein-free plasma: Na & H2PO4 ICF is high in K and low in Na and Cl; ECF
D. Interstitium: Na & Cl (Interstitial and Plasma) are high in NA and Cl and
low in K
Reference: Boron and Boulpaep, Chapter 5; page 102

13 Water is attracted to the an area where there is ___ osmotic pressure and ___ hydrostatic pressure.

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 A. low; high Rationale:
B. high; low Answer: B
C. low; low Hydrostatic Pressure difference across a cell
D. high; high membrane is virtually always near zero and is
therefore not a significant driving force for H20
transport.
Movement of H2O in and out of cells is driven by
osmotic pressure gradients only, that is, by
differences in osmolality across the membrance
Reference: Boron and Boulpaep, Chapter 5; page 128

14 How many liters of TBW is present in a 50kg male?

A. 20 Rationale:
B. 25 Answer: B
C. 30 50 kg male
D. 35 50 kg x 0.60
=30mL
Reference: Boron and Boulpaep, Chapter 5; page 103

15 Approximately how many liters of intercellular fluid is present in a 50kg female

A. 12 Rationale:
B. 15 Answer: B
C. 18 The Intracellular fluid is 60% of the total-body water
D. 21 and total-body water is 50% of the body weight in
females. Therefore
50kg * 0.50 * 0.60 = 15
Reference: Boron and Boulpaep Medical Physiology 3rd Edition. Page 103, table 5-1

16 What percent of total body water does transcellular fluid contain?

A. 5% Rationale:
B. 10% Answer: 2
C. 15% 40 * 0.05 = 2
D. 20% ECF is 40% of the TBW and transcellular fluid is 5%
of ECF.
Reference:

17 Solutions A and B are separated by a membrane permeable to urea. Solution A is 10 mM urea, and solution B
is 5 mM urea. If the concentration of urea in solution A is doubled, the flux of urea across the membrane is:
A. Doubled Rationale:
B. Tripled Answer: A
C. Decrease by one-half If the number of molecules in a unit is doubled, the
D. Decrease by one-third flux of molecules across the surface of the unit will
also be doubled because twice as many molecules
will be moving in any direction at a given time.
Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology The Mechanism of Body Functions Chapter 4. Movement of
Molecules Across Cell Membranes. Page 96. “Magnitude and Direction of Diffusion”

18
Rationale:

Reference:

19 Which of the following steps precedes the rest in any signaling event by membrane associated receptors?
A. Modulation Rationale:
B. Recognition Answer is B.
C. Transduction “Recognition is the first step, in the signaling pathway
D. Transmission events iniated by plasma membrane associated
receptors.”
Reference: Boron, Chapter 3, pg 104 in the simplified version of the book

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20 Which chemical messenger is associated with tyrosine phosphatase
A. CD45 Rationale:
B. Growth hormone Answer is A.
C. Insulin “PTP1B has a high degree of homology with CD45, a
D. Nitric oxide membrane protein that is both a receptor and a
tyrosine phosphatase.”
Reference: Boron, Chapter 3, Signal Transduction, pg 121, simplified version of the book

21 Which of the proteins directly require calcium to fully operate?

a. JAK Rationale:
b. Calmadolin Answer is B.
c. Adenlyl Cyclase “The effects of changes in [Ca 2+ ] i are mediated by
d. Protien Kinase A Ca 2+ binding proteins, the most important of which
is calmodulin (CaM). It have a high affinity for Ca.
CaM confers to Ca2+ dependence to their activity”
Reference:
Boron, Chapter 3, Signal Transduction, pg 125, simplified version of the book

22 The Nicotinic ACh receptor is an example of:

A. Catalytic receptor Rationale:
B. Ionotropic receptor Answer is B.
C. Metabotropic receptor
D. Nuclear receptor

Reference: Boron, Chapter 8, Fig. 8-3.

23 Which of the following best describes down regulation?

A. Mediated by expression of receptors via exocytosis
B. Caused by decrease in secretion of chemical
messengers
C. Occurs in response to high extracellular
concentration of chemical messenger
D. Enhances cell's responsiveness to frequent
stimulation by a messenger
Rationale:
Answer is C.
“When a high extracellular concentration of a
messenger is maintained for some time, the total
number of the target cell’s receptors for that
messenger may decrease - that is, down-regulate.”

Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology, Chapter 5, Page 152 (in PDF)

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24 Which of the following secondary messengers is directly associated with the increase in cytosolic Ca+
concentration from the smooth ER?
A. cAMP Rationale:
B. IP3 Answer is B.
C. DAG “IP3 binds to a receptor on the endoplasmic reticulum
D. Protein kinase (ER) membrane and triggers the release of Ca2+
from intracellular stores.”
Reference: Boron, Chapter 3 Signal Transduction, Page 149 (in PDF)

25 This step precedes G protein subunit dissociation.

A. Binding of ligand Rationale:
B. Receptor activation Answer is C.
C. GDP to GTP “After ligand binding to the GPCR, a conformational
D. Hydrolysis of GTP change in the receptor-G protein complex facilitates
the release of bound GDP and simultaneous binding
of GTP to the alpha subunit. This GDP-GTP
exchange stimulates dissociation of the complex from
the receptor and causes disassembly of the trimer
into free GTP-bound alpha subunit and seperate βγ
complex.”
Reference: Boron, Chapter 3 Signal Transduction, Page 145 (in PDF)

26 Which of these happens when a receptor associated with transducin when activated by light?
A. Activated by protein kinase G Rationale:
B. Inhibited by phosphodiesterase Answer is C.
C. Conversion of cGMP to GMP “The G protein called transducin contains αt subunit
D. Activation of GMP-dependent kinase that activates the cGMP phosphodiesterase, which in
turn catalyzes the breakdown of cGMP to GMP.”
Reference: Boron, Chapter 3 Signal Transduction, Page 148 (in PDF)

27 Vibrio cholerae secretes an A toxin that is transported and processed in the gut cells. It causes severe
diarrhea because the toxin amplifies cAMP, eventually leading to the continual opening of which type of
channel?
a. bicarbonate Rationale:
b. Ca B. Ca
c Cl
d. Na
Reference: Boron, Chapter 3 Signal Transduction, pg. 52

28 What is the correct sequence of enzymes that will ultimately activate MAPK in the Ras pathway?
A. Ras > Raf > MEK > MAPK Rationale:
B. Ras > GRB2 > SOS > Raf-1 > MEK -MAPK Ras > Raf > MEK > MAPK
C. Ras > SOS > Raf > MEK> MAPK
D. Ras > MEK > Raf-1 > MAPK “The activated GTP-Ras recruits Raf and activates it.
Raf phosphorylates and activates MEK. Mek
phosphorylates and activates MAPK.”

Fig 3-13. Regulation of transcription bu the Ras

pathway

Reference: Boron, Chapter 3 Signal Transduction, pg. 71

29 Calcium is involved in which of the following processes?

A. Muscle contraction Rationale:
B. Enzyme Activation D. All of the above
C. Exocytosis
D. All of the Above
Reference: Boron, Capter 3 Signal Transduction, pg. 61

30 Physiologic activity of Ca is best measured as

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 a. Free ionized Rationale:
b. complexed to LMW C. bound to proteins
c. bound to proteins
d. total concentration “Increased Ca exerts its effect by binding to cellular
proteins and changing their activity.”
Reference: Boron, Chapter 3 Signal Transduction, pg. 61

31 Osteoclast possesses precursor receptors which are:

A. Calcitonin Rationale:
B. Calcintonin and rank l only B. Calcitonin and RankL only
C. Calcitonin and calcitriol only Figure 52-5
D. Calcitonin, rank L and calcitriol only
Reference: Boron, Medical Physiology 3rd Ed (2017), pg 2611

32 Which of the following is synthesized by osteoblasts and plays a direct role in bone mineralization?
a. Osteocalcin Rationale:
b. Osteoprotegerin Osteocalcin
c. Osteobindin Osteocalcin binds Ca2+ avidly. It binds
d. Osteoporin hydroxyapatite, the crystalline mineral of bone, with
even greater avidity. This observation has led to the
suggestion that
osteocalcin participates in the nucleation of bone
mineralization at the crystal surface
Reference: Boron, Medical Physiology 3rd Ed (2017), pg 2610

33 Which of these events in bone resorption occurs in the ruffled border of osteoclast?
A. Extrsuion of bicarbonate Rationale:
B. Acid secretion by H pump B. Acid secretion by H pump
C. Integrin attachment to vitronectin The osteoclast secretes acid and proteases across
D. Clathrin-mediated endocytosis of lysosomal its ruffled border mediated by a V-type H pump.
Reference: Boron, Medical Physiology 3rd Ed (2017), pg 2610

34 Hypercalcemia can inhibit parathyroid secretion from the parathyroid gland by:
A. activating the calcium censor Rationale:
B. activating the adenyl cyclase pathway Activating the calcium sensor
C. Inhibition of protein kinase CaSR (calcium sensor) activation also leads to a
D. Inhibition of the phospholipase C pathway reduction in paracellular Ca2+ permeability in this
nephron segment. Because Ca2+ reabsorption in the
TAL is predominantly passive and paracellular (see p.
787), these CaSR-mediated decreases in driving force
and permeability lead to reduced Ca2+ reabsorption
and thus increased Ca2+ excretion, tending to
compensate for hypercalcemia.
Reference: Boron, Medical Physiology 3rd Ed (2017), pg 2610

35 Which hormone is directly involved in intestinal absorption of calcium?

a. Parathyroid hormone Rationale:

b. Glucocorticoid “In the duodenum, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (active
c. Calcitonin form of Vitamin D) increases the production of
d. Vitamin D several proteins that enhance Ca+ absorption.”

Reference: Boron and Boulpaep Medical Physiology 2e Chapter 52, p. 1105

36 A patient with hypocalcemic hypocalciuria has defect in:

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 A. Bone Rationale:
B. Kidney The Ca+ receptor on the parathyroid cell is
C. Intestine mutated in patients with the disorder familial
D. PTH hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (walay makita nga
hypocalcemic hypocalcuria sa book & sa internet).
“Infants who are homozygous to this autosomal
disorder will die unless the inappropriately
regulated parathyroid glands are removed.”

Reference: Boron and Boulpaep Medical Physiology 2e Chapter 7, p. 1102

37 What is involved in the depolarization of an action potential or what initiates it.

A. Ligand gated channel Rationale:

B. Voltage gated channel “When Vm passes the threshold, opening of these
C. Mechanical voltage-gated channels initiates the runaway
D. Leak channel depolarization that characterizes the rising phase of
the action potential.”

Reference: Boron and Boulpaep Medical Physiology 2e Chapter 52, p. 180

38 The greatest contributor in the generation of the resting membrane potential

A. Na+ influx Rationale: “Na+ and K+ generally make the most

B. K+ efflux important contributions in generating the resting
C. Na+/K+ pump membrane potential, but in some cells Cl- is also a
D. Cl- influx factor. The concentration differences for Na+ and K+
are established by the action of the
sodium/potassium-ATPase pump (Na+/K+ -
ATPase), that pumps Na+ out of the cell and K+ into
it.”

Reference: Vander’s Human Physiology (2015) Chapter 6, p. 145

39 Phases involves in Absolute Refractory Period

A. Upstroke only Rationale:
B. Upstroke and Early Downstroke Absolute refractory period – no reaction no matter what/how
C. Upstroke and Entire Downstroke strong the stimulus is.
D. Upstroke, entire Downstroke and Any stimulus cannot affect the action potential during
Hyperpolarization upstroke.
Reference: Doc Berdon

40 During the absolute refractory period, the membrane is resistant to stimulation because these gates are
closed.
A. m Rationale: In axons, the inactivation gates [h] in the Na+
B. n channels are the outside intervention that stops the
C. h escalating depolarization of the cell.
D. m, n, h

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 Reference: Silverthorn, 7 th ed. p.269

41 After an action potential is stimulated, these gates should be open to make membrane excitable again.
a. m gates Rationale:
b. n gates In order to achieve excitation once again,
c. h gates repolarization must occur.
d. m,n, and h gates Repolarization – exit of K from the membrane. K
passes through n gate
Na passes through m and h gate.
Reference: Lecture - Doc Panopoio and Doc Berdon

42 Paulo stimulated a nerve axon. Depolarization resulted but conduction was short distance. This is because of:
A. ...was suprathreshold Rationale:
B. Axon was unmyelinated Unmyelinated axon – shorter distance since point to
C. Axon nerve was at its refractory period point
D. Depolarization did not reach threshold value Depolarization did not reach threshold value – EPSP
(short distances because did not reach threshold.
Reference: Lecture – Doc Berdon

43 Kouich stimulated a plasma membrane and an action potential developed. Roy stimulated the same plasma
membrane and an action potential developed. However, it was slower and the peak was lesser than the first
one. Which of the following is true of the second stimulus:
a. was of lesser magnitude Rationale:
b. was applied when rapid k+ channel closes (diliko During the relative refractory period, some but not all
sure aninga choice) of the voltage-gated Na+ channels have returned to a
c. was applied during relative refractory period resting state. With fewer Na+ channels available, the
d. was applied when all na+ channels were magnitude of the action potential is temporarily
inactivated reduced.
Reference: Vander p.154

44 When the nerve membrane is at equilibrium state, the membrane:

A. Is not excitable Rationale:
B. Is more permeable to Na than K In mammalian neurons, the K+ permeability may be as
C. Potential is fluctuating much as 100 times greater than that for Na + and Cl-,
D. Potential is nearer the equilibrium potential of so neuronal resting membrane potentials are typically
K than Na fairly close to the equilibrium potential for K+.
Reference: Vander p.147

45 Rap applied stimulus to an axon. Membrane potential reach just beyond threshold. What happens
immediately after?
A. Rapid influx of large amounts of Na+ -ans Rationale: (1) Action potentials are sometimes called
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 B. Rapid influx of large amounts of K+
C. Opening of h gates of Na+ channels
D. Closure of n gates of K+ channels
Reference: (1) Silverthorn, 7e, pp. 266-267; (2) Vander p.152 (Steps in the changes in membrane potential)
all-or-none phenomena
because they either occur as a maximal
depolarization
(if the stimulus reaches threshold) or do not occur at
all (if the
stimulus is below threshold). As the cell depolarizes,
voltage-gated Na+ channels open, making the
membrane much more permeable to Na+
(2) Current through opening voltage-gated Na+
channels rapidly depolarizes the membrane, causing
more Na+ channels to open.

46 Which of the following is one characteristic of graded potential but not in action potential?
A. Its amplitude is related to the magnitude of Rationale: The strength of the graded potential that
the stimulus initiates an action potential has no influence on the
B. Change in RMP amplitude of the action potential
C. conducted along cell membrane
D. Nakalimutan
Reference: Silverthorn, 7e, pp. 266-267

47 The plasma membrane of most cell exhibits this characteristics:

A. Only small and soluble molecules can pass
through
B. Stimulate one area will depolarize the entire
membrane
C. Can not work when Na/K pump is actively
working
D. Can have action potential spontaneously
Reference: Boron 2nd edition, chapter 6
Rationale: “The plasma membranes of most living
cells are electrically polarized, as indicated by the
presence of a transmembrane voltage—or a
membrane potential—in the range of 0.1 V.”
***di bitaw ko sure ani sorry huhu

*48 What happens during relative refractory period?

A. K conductance Rationale: “In addition,
B. All Na channels are still inactivated during the relative refractory period, K+ channels are
C. Larger than normal stimulus to fire AP still open.
D. Early depolarization phase of AP The Na+ channels that have not quite returned to their
resting
position can be reopened by a stronger-than-normal
graded potential.
Reference:

49 Which of the ff serves as the calcium sensor for exocytosis

A.snap 25 Rationale: synaptic vesicle protein acting as calcium
B.synaptobrevin sensor; It is the calcium sensor for exocytosis
C. Synaptotagmin
D.syntaxin
Reference: Dr. Panopio notes; Boron 3e, p.219

50 which of the following specific synapse passes electrical current in equal efficient and both direction
a) electrical synapse Rationale: Many types of gap junctions pass electrical
b) chemical synapse current with equal efficiency in both directions- these
c) rectifying synapse are termed as reciprocal synapses.
d.) reciprocal synapse
Reference: Boron 3e, p.205

51 Generally, receptors at postsynaptic membrane that require intercession of a g-protein is called:

A. Ionotrophic Rationale:
B. Metabotropic Ionotropic -channel/gated
C. Nicotinic Nicotonic -specific ionotropic receptor
D. Muscarinic Muscarinic -specific metabotropic receptor
Reference: Boron 2E p. 213 and 215

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52 If glycine is the transmitter at a synapse, which of the following would be most possible reason for termination
of its action at a synapse?
A. Hydrolysis by an enzyme Rationale: Except for Ach, which is removed by
B. Desensitization of the postsynaptic membrane enzymatic destruction, more general mechanism in the
C. Reuptake by the terminal knob nervous system involves reuptake of the
D. Diffusion away from the synapse neurotransmitter...
GABA, glycine, choline, glutamate, and aspartate
Reference: Boron 2E p. 230

53 Input on the dendrites and soma of a presynaptic neuron decreases neurotransmitter release of the said
neuron. This is known as:
a. Direct Inhibition Rationale: In global presynaptic inhibition
b. Indirect Inhibition (Fig. 8.24f), input on the dendrites and cell body of a
c. Presynaptic Inhibition neuron decreases neurotransmitter release by all
d. Anti-dromic Inhibition collaterals and all target cells of the neuron are
affected equally.

Reference: Silverthorn 7e, p.290

54 Which of the following co-peptide is released together with excitatory transmitter in the cerebral cortex.
A. Neurotensin Rationale: Glutamate is the excitatory amino acid
B. Encephalin found in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, and
C. Substance P striatum
D. Neuropepide Y
Glutamate's co-peptide is substance P.
Reference: Dr. Panopio notes

55 If multiple transmitters are at large amount of synaptic vesicles, if exocytosis is required, which of the ff is
necessary:
A. Increased stimulation of AP Rationale: When multiple transmitters colocalize to the
B. Decreased stimulation of AP same synapse, the exocytosis of large vesicles

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 C. ... Threshold ... requires high-frequency stimulation. Larger peptide-
D. ... Subthreshold . filled vesicles are farther from active zones, and high-
frequency stimulation may be necessary to achieve
higher, more distributed elevations of [Ca2+]i.
Reference: Boron 3e, pp.327-328

56 A presynaptic terminal knob was stimulated by two threshold stimulus 5 m/s apart. What is expected to
happen to the postsynaptic membrane?
A. An action potential will develop Rationale: Both fast excitatory and inhibitory post
B. EPSP of 0.5 mV synaptic potentials –slow is not considered since there
C. Temporal Summation was no specified involvement of a 2nd messenger or
D. Paired Pulse Facilitation type of efflux- have durations less than 5m/s.
*Threshold stimulus applied to a post synaptic neuron
beyond the duration of a post synaptic potential
generates an action potential.
*Paired pulse can be considered, only that it was not
mentioned whether the 2nd potential was greater than
the first.
Reference: Dr. Panopio notes, *not explicitly stated, applied to problem

57 Which of the following classical transmitters is secreted in the ventral tegmental area:
A. Serotonin Rationale: Dopamine released by ventral tegmental
B. Dopamine area.
C. Acetylcholine
D. Epinephrine
Reference: Dr. Panopio notes

58 Repetitive stimulation of a presynaptic neuron resulting in a short term increase in synaptic strength lasting for
several seconds is known as:
A. Facilitation Rationale: short term increases in strength which lasts
B. Augmentation several seconds
C. Post tetanic potentiation
D. Spatial summation
Reference: Boron 3e, p.329

59 What protein activates trans-SNARE complex in priming stage 2:

A. Munc18 Rationale:
B. NSF Next, a cytosolic protein called complexin inserts into
C. Complexin (answer) the trans-SNARE complex, preventing spontaneous
D. alpha-SNAP fusion. The result is priming stage 2.
Reference: Boron, 3e p.221
60 Organophosphate poisoning. Which of the following occurs at the ach receptor site?
A. Inhibition of acetylcholine receptors Rationale: cholinesterase inhibitor- inhibition of
B. Conduction of impulse followed by degradation of neurotransmitter; action persistent,
depolarization block cannot repolarize and thus inhibited.
C. Competition with ach at receptors
D. Inactivation of na channels
Reference: Dr. Panopio notes

61 General term given to activity-dependent changes in effectiveness of synapses

A. Longterm potentiation Rationale:
B. Longterm depression … synaptic plasticity, the term for activity-dependent
C. Synaptic plasticity changes in the effectiveness of synapses.
D. Synaptic memory
Reference: Boron 3e, p.328

62 The general term called for receptors involving G protein

a. Ionotropic Rationale: Receptors coupled to G proteins are called
b. Nicotinic metabotropic receptors because their activation
c. Metabotropic initiates a metabolic process involving GTP.
d. Muscarinic
Reference: Boron 3e, p. 206
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63 The post synaptic neuron is shared by an excitatory and inhibitory terminal knob. If the excitatory and inhibitory
terminal knob is stimulated at the same time. The synapse is abolished by:
A. Strychnine Rationale: Direct inhibition occurs when a post
B. Picrotoxine synaptic neuron receives presynaptic connections with
C. Glycine an excitatory and an inhibitory neuron, mediated by
D. GABA glycine abolished by strychnine
Reference: Dr. Panopio notes

64
Rationale:

Reference:

65 What type pf skeletal muscle that is Fatigue Resistant and rich in Glycogen?
A. Type 1A Rationale:
B. Type 1B
C. Type 2A
D. Type 2B

Reference: Boron 3e, p.250; 2e p. 261

66 What characteristic shared by smooth and skeletal muscle

A. Thick and thin filament sarcomere Rationale:
B. Troponin
C. Increase in intracellular ca2+ for excitation-
contraction coupling
D spontaneous depolarization

Reference: Boron 3e, p.251; 2e, p. 262

67 Which of the ff mechanisms in of e-c coupling is shared with the cardiac and smooth muscle? (cardiac &
smooth? or skeletal?)
A. Ca-induced by RYR2 Rationale:
B. Ip3 induced by RYR3
C. Ca-induced by storage-open channel
D. Ca-induced by voltage-gated channel
Answer: A

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 Reference: Boron 3e, p.251; 2e, p. 262

68 Accumulation of w/ solute in the ICF(?) is responsible for tetanus?

A. Na Rationale: In fact, a sustained increase in [Ca2+]i
B. K persists until the tetanic stimulation ceases.
C. Cl
D. Ca
Reference: Boron 3e, p.241

69 In skeletal muscle fiber before the release of Ca sarcoplasmic T tubules in excitation coupling.
A. Ca in sarcoplasmic membranous Rationale: After depolarization of the L-type Ca2+
B. Ca2+ release in sarcoplasmic reticulum channel on the T-tubule membrane and mechanical
C. Ca2+ RYR channel activation of the Ca2+ release channel in the SR, Ca2+
D. Binding of calcium in troponin C stored in the SR rapidly leaves through the Ca 2+
release channel.
Reference: Boron 3e, p.230

70 At which % of the optimal length of a sarcomere is tension at its peak?

A. 50 Rationale: As muscle length increases toward its
B. 70 normal length, active tension increases. Active tension
C. 100 is maximal at a length—usually called L0—that is near
D. 145 the normal muscle length.
Active tension decreases with further lengthening.

Reference: Boron 3e, pp.239-240; 2e p.248 Fig 9-9, 250 paragraph

71 Which of these initiates the power stroke phase of the cross bridge cycle.
A. ATP binding Rationale: Dissociation of Pi from the myosin head
B. ATP hydrolysis triggers an increased affinity of the myosin-ADP
C. Release of Pi complex for actin… [power stroke] causing a
D. Release of ADP conformational change resulting to the myosin head/
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 neck angled with respect to the rod.
Reference: Boron 3e, p.235

72 Which of the following causes rigor in skeletal muscle?

A. Lack of action potential in motor neurons Rationale: The lack of ATP prevents the cycle from
B. A decrease in intracellular Ca2+ level proceeding further; this leads to an extreme example
C. An increase in ATP level of muscle rigidity- rigor mortis.
D. A decrease in ATP level
Reference: Boron 3e, p.234

73 A 42 year-old man diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis notes an increase in muscle strength when treated with
Acetylcholinesterase (AchE) Inhibitor. The basis for improvement is increased in:
A. Amount of acetylcholine released by motor Rationale: …,this disease is caused
neurons by the autoimmune destruction and loss of nicotinic
B. Levels of acetylcholine at the muscle end plate AChRs (acetylcholine receptors) at the muscle end
C. Amount of acetylcholine receptors at the plate. Physostigmine and neostigmine produce a
muscle end plate carbamoylated form of AChE that is inactive. The slow
D. d. Amount of norepinephrine released by motor hydrolysis of the carbamoylated enzyme relieves
neurons esterase inhibition.
Reference: Boron 2e, p.235; 3e p.226

74 Most effective removal of cytosolic Ca2+ in skeletal muscles

A. CACR Rationale:
B. NCX Instead, Ca2+ re-uptake into the SR is the most
C. Ca release channel important mechanism by which the cell returns [Ca2+]i
D. SERCA to
resting levels. Ca2+ re-uptake by the SR is mediated
by a
sarcoplasmic and endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+-
ATPase
(SERCA)–type Ca2+ pump
Reference: Boron pp. 237

75 In contraction of GI smooth muscle, what happens after the binding of Ca to CAM?

A. CICR Rationale:
B. Increase in myosin light chain kinase The first step is the binding of four
C. Increase in intracellular Ca Ca2+ ions to calmodulin, which is closely related to
D. Opening of Ca channels troponin C of striated muscle. Next, the Ca2+-CaM
complex activates an enzyme known as myosin light
chain kinase (MLCK),which in turn phosphorylates
the regulatory light chain that is associated with the
myosin II molecule.
Reference: Boron pp. 247

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