Ccie 268

PASSWRITTENDUMPS.
COM 400-101 28-Dec-18
QUESTION NO. 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of this data is true?
A. It is JSON-formatted data based on YANG models

B. It is Jinja-formatted data based on YANG models
C. It is YAML-formatted data based on YANG models
D. It is XML-formatted data based on YANG models
Answer: A
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PASSWRITTENDUMPS.COM 400-101 28-Dec-18
QUESTION NO. 2
What command can you enter on a Cisco router so that it can both poll a time server and be polled by a
time server?
A. ntp server
B. ntp broadcast destination
C. ntp peer
D. ntp broadcast client
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 3
Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true?
A. They determine whether a destination is reachable

B. They are transmitted unreliably
C. They are transmitted via broadcast
D. They are sent in response to queries
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 4
If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP
server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 5
Which statement about PMTUD is true?
A. It is supported by TCP and UDP.

B. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection.
D. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between two
endpoints.
E. It increases the connection's send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 6
Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state.

B. PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally.
C. By default, the router uses it hostname to identify itself to the peer.
D. The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed.
E. The LCP phase must be complete and in open state.
F. PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface.
Answer: C, E, F
QUESTION NO. 7
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ABR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a
route to ASBR
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ASBR
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ASBR
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a
route to the ASBR
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 8
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the
backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 50Mb.

B. The bandwidth delay product is 2Mb.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 9
Which options lists the cloud service models?
A. Infrastructure as a service, Platform as a service, and storage and storage as a service

B. Infrastructure as a service, Platform as a service, and storage and software as a service
C. Internet as a service, Platform as a service, and storage as a service
D. Internet as a service, Product as a service, and storage as a service
E. Internet as a service, Platform as a service, and software as a service
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 10
What are the two major requirements for configuring an extended VLAN with VTPv2? (Choose two)
A. The reduced MAC address feature must be disabled

B. VLAN pruning must be enabled
C. The VLAN must be configured in VLAN database mode
D. The configuration must be in global configuration mode
E. The device must be operating in VTP transparent mode
Answer: C, E
QUESTION NO. 11
When you implement redistribution on your network, which feature can you enable to prevent suboptimal
routing?
A. route tagging
B. authentication
C. VRFs
D. NBAR
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 12
What is a requirement for BFD static route support?
A. All routers that will carry traffic must be the same model.
B. All routers that will carry traffic must have the same software version.
C. BFD must be configured on all Ethernet, virtual-template, and dialer interfaces that will carry traffic.
D. CEF must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 13
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply this configuration to a device on your network, which class map cannot
match traffic?
A. CM-EXAMPLE-2
B. CM-EXAMPLE-1
C. CM-EXAMPLE-5
D. CM-EXAMPLE-3
E. CM-EXAMPLE-4
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 14
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.

B. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 15
A user is presented with the underlying hardware and software needed to develop and offer applications
via the internet from a cloud service provider. Which cloud model is this user consuming?
A. Application as a service
B. Software as a service
C. Platform as a service
D. Infrastructure as a service
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which additional configuration statement is required on R3 in order to allow multicast
traffic sourced from 192.168.13.3 to flow along the shared-tree?
A. ip mroute 10.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 Tunnel 0

B. ip route 10.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 Tunnel 0
C. ip route 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0
D. ip mroute 192.168.14.0 255.255.255.0 Tunnel 0
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 17
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two.)
A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.

B. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE.
C. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
D. PE routers dynamically associate to peers.
E. VPLS extends a Layer 2 broadcast domain.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 18
Which two options are 802.15.4 node types? (Choose two)
A. Limited Function Device

B. Reduced Function Device
C. Expanded Function Device
D. Mesh Function Device
E. Full Function Device
Answer: B E
QUESTION NO. 19
Which two statements about IPv6 RA guard are true?
A. It is applied only on the egress interface

B. It is applied only on the ingress interface
C. It can be applied on ingress and egress interfaces
D. It must be applied individually to specific interfaces
E. It can be applied globally to all interfaces on the device
F. It supports global polices that match an ACL based on the source IP address
Answer: B, F
QUESTION NO. 20
Which way to influence path selection with EIGRP is preferred?
A. changing the delay, even if it must be done on multiple in1erfaces

B. changing the bandwidth, because that is wha1 Cisco recommends
C. changing the bandwidth, because it does not have any impact on o1her router fea1ures
D. changing the bandwidth, because it must be done only on one interface along 1he path
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 21
Which three values are used to generate a unique bridge ID for each VLAN in PVST+? (Choose three.)
A. port cost
B. spanning-tree MAC address
C. port priority
D. max age
E. extended system ID
F. switch priority
Answer: B, E, F
QUESTION NO. 22
Drag and drop each IPv6 address type from the left onto the correct link-local multicast address on the
right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 23
Drag each IPv4 host address on the left to the matching broadcast address on the right
Answer: 1:3 2:1 3:2 4:6 5:5 6:3
QUESTION NO. 24
What is a major disadvantage of virtual machines versus containers?
A. Boot time
B. Security
C. Operational Management
D. Limited management tools
E. Vendor lock-in
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 25
Which prefix list matches and permits all RFC 1918 network 10.0.0.0 routes that have masks of /16
through /24?
A. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 ge 15 le 25

B. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 15 le 25
C. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16 le 24
D. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 26
Which three terms are used to describe an OS-level virtualization method for deploying and running
distributed applications? (Choose three)
A. Containerization
B. Container networking
C. Container-based virtualization
D. Virtualized networking
E. Application containerization
F. Container Stack
G. Shared Kernel
Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION NO. 27
Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 28
Which three options are three of the valid message types for DHCPv6 ? (Choose Three)
A. Discover
B. Solicit
C. Request
D. Leave
E. Offer
F. Advertise
Answer: B, C, F
QUESTION NO. 29
Which two statements about VTPv3 are true? (Choose two)
A) Extended VLANs prevent VTPv3 switches from becoming VTPv2
B) VTPv3 must receive VTPv2 packets before it can send VTPv2 packets
C) VTPv3 accepts configuration information only from VTPv2 devices
D) VTPv3 sends VTPv2 packets when they are detected on a trunk port
E) VTPv3 regions can communicate in server mode only over a VTPv2 region
Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO. 30
Which two options are valid IPv6 extension header types? (Choose two)
A. Mobility
B. Encapsulating Security Payload
C. Version
D. Flow Label
E. Traffic Class
Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO. 31
Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires multicast sources to be in the same domain.

B. It uses 32-bit anycast RP addresses.
C. It uses loopback interfaces for anycast RP addresses.
D. It uses UDP to establish peering sessions.
E. All MSDP domains on a given network can share a common RP.
F. It requires multicast receivers to be in the same domain.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 32
Which two statements about 802.1 x authentications with EAP are true? (Choose two)
A. The supplicant and authenticator server send a one-time password to the authenticator
B. The authenticator server translates frames from the supplicant into a RADIUS message
C. The authenticator can cache the username and password from the authentication server to reduce
traffic
D. The interface passes only EAPOL traffic until the client is authenticated
E. It uses EAPOL frames between the supplicant and the authenticator
Answer: C D
QUESTION NO. 33
Drag and drop the NHRP flag on the corresponding meaning on the right?
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 34
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit, assuming that all devices are running CDP in default
configuration, which of them appear in the R1 show cdp neighbors table?
A. Router 2, Router 3, Router 5 and Switch A only

B. Router 2, Router 3, Router 4 and router 5 only
C. Router 2, and Switch A only
D. Router 3 and Router 5 only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 35
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the 10.100.100.0/24 BGP route when the bgp nexthop route-map
command is applied as shown?
A. The route will fall back from iBGP to eBGP

B. The route will be removed from the routing table
C. The route will remain unhanged
D. The route will no longer advertise a next-hop attribute
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 36
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given configuration? (Choose two)
A. The router will manually summarize the 192.168.12.0/27 network

B. Auto-summarization will be enabled on the F0/0/ interface
C. The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies over interface F0/0
D. The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies all EIGRP interfaces except F0/0
E. The router will install the 192.168.12.0/27 network into its EIGRP topology table.
Answer: C, E
QUESTION NO. 37
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?
A. Stub
B. Neighbor
C. Offset-list
D. Address-family
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 38
Refer to the exhibit. The OSPF adjacency between two routers cannot be established. What is the root
cause of the problem?
A. Area type mismatch

B. Authentication error
C. Mismatched OSPF network types
D. Different area ID
E. Both routers are designated routers.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 39
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 sends traffic marked with IP precedence 3 to R2's Loopback
address.Which class would the traffic match on R2's Gi1/0 interface?
A. CM-CLASS-1
B. class-default
C. CM-CLASS-3
D. CM-CLASS-2
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 40
Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose Three)\
A. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation

B. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation
C. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address
D. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPV4 address
E. Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address
F. Enable NAT-PT globally
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION NO. 41
Which escape sequence must you use to enter special characters as part of a key string?
A. CTRL+S
B. CTRL+P
C. CTRL+K
D. CTRL+V
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 42
Drag and drop each IS-IS PDU type from the left onto its purpose on the right
Answer: 3, 2, 4, 1
QUESTION NO. 43
Which two statements about route summarization are true? (Choose two.)
A. RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP can automatically summarize routing information at network address boundaries.
B. EIGRP can automatically summarize external routes.
C. The area range command can aggregate addresses on the ASBR.
D. The summary-address command under the router process configures manual summarization on RIPv2
devices.
E. The ip classless command enables classful protocols to select a default route to an unknown subnet on
a network with other known subnets.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 44
Drag and drop EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the
right
Answer: 1:3, 2:1, 3:4, 4:2
QUESTION NO. 45
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations must you apply to R2 so that it correctly translates the
Internal to a public IP address? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: B E
QUESTION NO. 46
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 is configured to run IS-IS with given configuration and all interfaces are
up/up, what action must you take so that the Ethernet 0/0 netwrok can be advertised to potential IS-IS
neighbors on the E0/1 interface?
A. Configure the ip router isis command on R1's interface E0/1.

B. Configure an NSAP address on R1.
C. Add the network 10.10.30.1 0.0.0.0 command to the R1 IS-IS process.
D. Add the network 10.10.20.1 0.0.0.0 command to the R1 IS-IS process.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 47
Drag and drop each Cisco Performance Monitor component from the left onto the matching statement on
the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 48
Drag and drop the OSPFv3 LSA type on the left to the functionality it provides on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 49
Which two statements about root guard are true? (Choose two)
A. It allows unknown devices to participate in STP

B. It automatically re-enables blocked ports
C. It requires the administrator to manually re-enable ports that have been blocked
D. It supports the errdisable-timeout command
E. It automatically error-disables a port when PortFast is enabled
F. It blocks BPDUs from unknown devices
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 50
Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on
the right
Answer: 1:3, 2:1, 3:4, 4:2
QUESTION NO. 51
How should voice traffic be marked for DSCP in a standard QoS policy?
A. AF21
B. EF
C. CS3
D. AF41
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 52
Which two statements about BGP best-path selection are true? (Choose two)
A. The weight attribute is advertised to peers

B. A route that originates from iBGP peers is preferred
C. The route with the highest local preference is preferred
D. A route that originates from a router with a higher BGP router ID is preferred
E. The route with the lowest MED is preferred
F. The lowest weight advertised is preferred
Answer: C, E
QUESTION NO. 53
Drag and drop each description from the left onto the corresponding IP multicast protocol on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 54
Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right. Not all options will be
used.
Answer:
BGP Well-known Mandatory Attribute

AS_Path
BGP Optional Nontransitive Attributes

Cluster List
Originator ID
BGP Optional Transitive Attributes

Community
QUESTION NO. 55
Drag and drop the implementation steps on the left to the corresponding order on the right when
configuring a L3 VxLAN gateway.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 56
Drag and drop statement about QoS features on the left to the matching QoS feature on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 57
Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the correct priority order in which the attributes are
preferred when determining the best path on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 58
Drag and drop the IPv6 discovery message on the left to the corresponding description on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 59
Drag and drop each EIGRP packet type from the left onto the matching description on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 60
Which command can you enter to disable logging for VTY lines?
A. no logging console
B. no logging trap
C. no logging buffer
D. no logging count
E. no logging monitor
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 61
Drag and Drop the OpenStack projects from the left onto their function on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 62
Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)
A. It interconnects PIM-SM domains

B. It is supported both for IPv4 and IPv6 multicast deployments
C. It is encapsulated into PIM packets
D. MPLS is required to establish MSDP peering
E. MSDP peers are established using multiprotocol BGP
F. It is encapsulated into UDP segments
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 63
Drag and drop each SNMP feature from the left onto the correct SNMP version on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 64
When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0?
A. It is configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering

B. It is configured on hub to set the pre-shared key for the spoke routers
C. It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router
D. It is configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 65
Which two statements about CEF polarization are true? (Choose two)
A. The AND operation is performed on the higher-order bits of the source and destination IP address
B. A single link is chosen for all flows
C. The AND operation is performed on the lower-order bits of the source and destination IP address
D. After the XOR process, the flow is processed in the distribution Layer with a different hashing algorithm
E. It can be prevented by alternating the hashing inputs
F. When enabled, it allows all links to be used efficiently for different traffic flows
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 66
Which three device roles does 802.1x require? (Choose three)
A. An endpoint device that verifies network credentials

B. A server that facilitates authentication
C. A network device that grants client authentication
D. A server that assigns network-level access
E. An endpoint device that sends authentication credentials
F. A network device that relays authentication credentials
Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION NO. 67
What is the current order of the VSS initialization process? Drag and drop the actions on the left to the
correct initialization step on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 68
Drag each statement about Cisco EEM policies on the left to the matching type of EEM policy on the right
.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 69
Drag and drop the description on the correct EIGRP term in the right
Answer: E-1, B-2, D-3
QUESTION NO. 70
How does Control Plane Policing protect the route processor?
A. It disables access to the control plane during an attack.

B. It treats the route processor as a separate entity within MQC.
C. It dynamically enables ingress ACLs on selected interfaces.
D. It marks non-essential traffic and moves it to the Scavenger class.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 71
Which two options describe the effect of configuring an interface as passive under OSPF? (Choose two)
A. The interface process OSPF hello packets and also sends hello packets
B. An adjacency cannot be established, and the interface is included in the routing protocol update
C. An adjacency cannot be established, and the interfaces is not included in the routing protocol update
D. An adjacency can be established, and the interface is not included in the routing protocol update
E. The interface processes OSPF hello packets but does not send hello packets
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 72
Which queuing strategy ignores packet markings?
A. CQ
B. FIFO
C. LLQ
D. WFQ
E. WRED
F. CBWFQ
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 73
Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the static default
route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?
A. Default-information originate
B. Redistribute static
C. Redistribute static subnets
D. Redistribute static metric 1 subnets
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 74
Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose two)
A. MPLS must be enabled.

B. The next-hop routers must be the same.
C. The next-hop routers must be different.
D. Route reflectors must be enabled.
E. All attributes must have the same values.
Answer: C, E
QUESTION NO. 75
Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a TCP packet that is received on interface GigabitEthernet
0/0/0.100, which has DF bit set to 1, and packet has a valid destination?
A. The packet is matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is set to 0

B. The packet is not matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is left as it was
C. The packet is matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is left as it was
D. The packet is not matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is set to 0
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 76
Which two statements about MLD are true? (Choose two.)
A. There are three subtypes of MLD query messages.

B. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, only one interface is required to send MLD messages.
C. MLD is a subprotocol of PIMv6.
D. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, all supported interfaces are required to send MLD
messages.
E. The code section in the MLD message is set to 1 by the sender and ignored by receivers
F. MLD is a subprotocol of ICMPv6.
Answer: B, F
QUESTION NO. 77
What terminal line command can you enter to prevent a router from attempting a Telnet connection in
response to an incorrect host name entry at the EXEC prompt?
A. Transport preferred none

B. Transport output none
C. No ip domain-lookup
D. Transport input none
E. Logging synchronous
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 78
When you implement CoPP on your network, what is its default action?
A. Rate-limit bidirectional traffic to the control plane.

B. Permit all traffic
C. Block all traffic
D. Drop management ingress traffic to the control plane.
E. Monitor ingress and egress traffic to the control plane by using access groups that are applied to the
interface
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 79
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. lowest MAC address

B. Vl.AN revision number
C. longest uptime
D. user-selected priority
E. highest MAC address
F. I0S version number
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION NO. 80
In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root port, and the designated port(s) elected?
A. Forwarding
B. Learning
C. Listening
D. Blocking
E. Disabled
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 81
Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions can you take to allow the network 1 72.29.224.0/24 to be
reachable from peer 192.168.250.53? (Choose two)
A. Modify the outbound route map to permit all additional traffic.

B. Configure soft reconfiguration to peering 192.168.250.53
C. Modify the community list to match community 64513:64090 attached to 172.29.224.0/24.
D. Configure additional address families to peering 192.168.250.53
E. Modify the inbound route map to permit all additional traffic
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 82
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.

B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. It supports only one address family per instance.
D. It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
E. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
F. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 83
Which problem can result when private AS numbers are included in advertisements that are sent to the
global Internet BGP table?
A. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always discarded on the Internet.
B. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always tagged as invalid on the Internet.
C. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers lack uniqueness, which can lead to a loss of connectivity.
D. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are sometimes tagged as invalid on the Internet.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 84
Which MLD message type does a host send to join multicast groups?
A. Join/Prune
B. Done
C. Hello
D. Query
E. Assert
F. Report
Answer: F
QUESTION NO. 85
Which command must you configure on a device so it can establish an IPv6-in-IPv4 IPsec tunnel?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 86
Which two statements about PIM snooping are true? (Choose two)
Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO. 87
Which interface configuration task enables MLD on the interface?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 88
In which scenario can you host the most instances on a server?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 89
Which two options are requirements to implement 6VPE? (Choose two)
Answer: E, F
QUESTION NO. 90
Which are three basic elements of Cisco Performance Monitor? (Choose three)
Answer: B, D, F
QUESTION NO. 91
Which two statements about PPP CHAP authentication are true? (Choose two)
Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO. 92
Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on
the right.
Answer: 2:1, 4:2, 1:3, 2:4
QUESTION NO. 93
Which packet is sent out by the DIS in IS-IS?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 94
What mechanism should you choose to prevent unicast flooding?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 95
Which three terms are used to describe an OS-level virtualization method for deploying and running distributed
applications? (Choose three)
A. Containerization
B. Container networking
C. Container-based virtualization
D. Virtualized networking
E. Application containerization
F. Container Stack
G. Shared Kernel
Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION NO. 96
Which feature monitors and reports events and can take corrective action in response to events it
observes?
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 97
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring Router 1 and Router 2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional
configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router 2 to establish the tunnel? (Choose two)
A. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1 to R2
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on router1
C. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on router1
D. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2
E. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO. 98
What value is used to determine the multicast designated forwarder on a segment?
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 99
Which two statements about MLPPP are true? (Choose two)
A. It can bundle up to six T-1 interfaces

B. It supports fragmentation over multiple point-to-point links
C. It requires a group number to bundle the interfaces
D. The multilink interface number must match the group number
E. The MLPPP encapsulation process adds 8 extra bytes to each packet
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 100
Which two of the following are Cisco UCS default user roles? (Choose two)
A. Administrator
B. LAN Administrator
C. Server Equipment Administrator
D. Server Resource Administrator
E. FCoE Administrator
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 101
With which IS will an IS-IS Level 1 IS exchange routing information?
A. Level 1 ISs
B. Level 1 ISs in the same area
C. Level 1 and Level 2 ISs
D. Level 2 ISs
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 102
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly, describe the final state of the routing table if the R1 IS-
type is changed to Level 1 only? (Choose two)
A. The 10.10.10.10/32 route will be in the routing table

B. The 192.168.2.0/30 route will not be in the routing table
C. The 10.10.10.10/32 route will not be in the routing table
D. The 192.168.2.0/30 route will be in the routing table
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 103
Which two options are mandatory components of a multiprotocol BGP VPN-IPv4 address? (Choose two)
A. an area ID
B. an IPv4 address
C. a route distinguisher
D. an MPLS label
E. a system ID
F. a route target.
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 104
Refer the exhibit. Which option describes how a device with this configuration applies traffic matching?
A. It matches all traffic in ACL 8

B. It matches all traffic that has a DSCP marking of EF
C. It matches all trafic in ACL 8 and all traffic that has a DSCP marking of EF
D. It matches traffic in ACL 8 that has a DSCP marking EF
E. It matches all traffic that has QoS markings
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 105
Which feature disables MPLS PE checks on a router running OSPF?
A. A virtual-link
B. The capability vrf-lite command
C. An area filter
D. A sham-link
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 106
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations must you apply to the master controller and the border
router to provision them? (Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 107

What are two reasons for an OSPF neighbor relationship to be stuck in exstart/exchange state? (Choose
two.)
A. Both routers have the same OSPF process ID.

B. Both routers have the same router ID.
C. There is an MTU mismatch.
D. There is an area ID mismatch.
E. There is an authentication mismatch.
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 108

Which are the three recommended steps to implement your Risk-based IoT Security Program? (Choose
three)
A. Optimise
B. Implement
C. Assess
D. Troubleshoot
E. Analyze
F. Formalize
Answer: E, B, C
QUESTION NO. 109

Which command can you enter to prevent IS-IS PDUs from using the full MTU size?
A. Metric-style wide
B. Set-overloaded-bit on-startup wait-for-bgp suppress interievel
C. Set-overload-bit on-startup 120
D. No hello padding
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 110
Refer to the exhibit. When a question mark is entered after bgp bestpath, only three options are visible.
Which two BGP hidden options for the bgp bestpath command are valid? (Choose two)
A. bgp bestpath localpref ignore

B. bgp bestpath as-path ignore
C. bgp bestpath as-path multipath relax
D. bgp bestpath compare-all
Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO. 111

Which two statements about Metro Ethernet services are true? (Choose two)
A. EVP-Tree provides root-to-leaf and leaf-to-leaf connectivity, preventing root-to-root connectivity

B. EVP-LAN provides point-to-point connectivity
C. EVPL uses point-to-point EVCs between pairs of NNIs
D. EPL provides a point-to-point multipoint service
E. EP-LAN provides a single multipath LAN services to attached customers locations.
F. EVPL uses 802.1Q tagging to differentiate between multiple private lines on an UNI
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 112

What are three valid HSRP states? (Choose two)
A. Full
B. Learning
C. INIT
D. Established
E. Speak
F. Listen
Answer: B, E, F
QUESTION NO. 113

Which three statements about AToM are true? (Choose three)
A. It supports interworking for Frame Relay, PPP, and Ethernet, but not ATM
B. IP CEF should be disabled on the PE routers
C. The PE routers must share the same VC identifier
D. It requires MPLS between the PE routers
E. The attachment circuit is configured with the xconnect command
F. It requires Layer 3 routing between the PE and CE router
Answer: C, D, E
QUESTION NO. 114

What are two effects of configuring the passive-interface command on a router running RIPv2? (Choose
two)
A. It enables the device to send broadcast updates

B. It prevents the device from sending multicast updates
C. It enables the device to accept multicast updates from other devices
D. The device will ignore updates from other devices
E. The device will not ignore updates from other devices
Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO. 115
Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method can the device use as an alternate to the pre-shared
key?
A. Clear-text
B. Null
C. Certificate
D. 802. 1x
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 116

Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses the UDP protocol to provide faster indication of a server failure

B. It encrypts the TACACS+ header and the message body for enhanced security
C. It combines authentication and authorization, which allows for faster communication between the
IOS device and the TACACS server
D. It supports multiple non-IP protocols, including AppleTalk Remote Access
E. It allows privileges to be authorized on a per-user level
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 117
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can you draw from this output? (Choose two)
A. The packets was source-routed

B. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and
from the device at 10.9.132.254
C. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254
D. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an ARP entry for the device at 1.9.132.254
E. The device that produces the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and
from the device at 10.9.132.254
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 118

Which two statements about IPv6 RA guard are true? (Choose two)
A. It is supported in the ingress and egress directions

B. It blocks unauthorized ICMPv6 Type 133 packets
C. It blocks unauthorized ICMPv6 Type 134 packets
D. It supports host mode and router mode
E. It provides security for tunneled Ipv6 traffic
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 119

Which are two functions of the master controller in PfR? (Choose two)
A. It learns the traffic path

B. It perform traffic inspection
C. It applies the policy
D. It enforces the traffic path
E. It provides network visibility
Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO. 120

Which two statements about the PIM Assert message are true? (Choose two)
A. It elects the device with the lowest IP address on the LAN segment as the PIM forwarder
B. It elects the PIM router with the highest IP address on the LAN segment as the forwarder if
remaining metrics are the same
C. It determines which router connected to a common LAN segment becomes the PIM Designated
Router
D. It is triggered when multiple routers connected to a common LAN segment receive the same IGMP
join request from a multicast receiver
E. It elects the device with the lowest administrative distance to the multicast source as the PIM
Designated Router
F. It is triggered when multiple routers connected to a common LAN segment forward the same
multicast packet
Answer: B, F
QUESTION NO. 121

Two routers are connected on a PPP link using CHAP authentication. By default, which value will routers
use as their identification on the link?
A. Their IP addresses on the connection link

B. Their serial numbers
C. Their interface numbers
D. Their hostnames
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 122

Which two roles are used by devices for building multicast trees using bidirectional PIM? (Choose two)
A. Candidate Rendezvous Point

B. Bootstrap Router
C. Rendezvous Point
D. Designated Forwarder
E. Mapping agent
F. Pruning Router
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 123

With PBR and set ip next-hop configured on an incoming interface, how does the router forward the
packet with the next-hop being unreachable?
A. The next hop is added to the route table and the packet is policy routed
B. The packet is policy routed
C. The packet is dropped
D. The packet is forwarded using the normal routing table
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 124

Which two statements about IPv6 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two)
A. They are point-to-multipoint tunnels

B. Sites use addresses from the 2002::/16 prefix
C. They rely on GRE encapsulation
D. They are point-to-point tunnels
E. Sites use addresses from the link-local scope
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 125

Which protocol allows connections made by an NBMA network to dynamically learn connected addresses?
A. HDLC
B. NHRP
C. POP
D. PPP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 126

Which description correctly describes Git?
A. Git is a version control system for tracking changes in files

B. Git is a command-line utility for creating archives of files
C. Git is a web-based repository for sharing files
D. Git is a configuration management tool that automates provisioning
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 127

One of your clients which is in the manufacture area, is after a solution in order to manage all his fog
nodes. Which management tools best suits his needs?
A. Cisco Connected Grid Network Management System

B. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
C. Cisco Network Control System
D. Cisco Fog Director
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 128

Which statement correctly describes Ansible operations and playbooks?
A. Ansible is agent-based and uses playbooks formatted in YAML

B. Ansible is agent-based and uses playbooks formatted in XML
C. Ansible is agentless and uses playbooks formatted in XML
D. Ansible is agentless and use playbooks formatted in YAML
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 129

Which three benefits of virtualizing the DMZ are true? (Choose three)
A. Orchestration
B. Usage-based consumption model
C. Service catalog
D. Dynamic and automated service insertion with focus on security
E. Analytics
F. Per-app network functions and operation
Answer: D, E, F
QUESTION NO. 130

Which three campus fabric nodes is SD-Access architecture are true? (Choose three)
A. Fabric wireless access points

B. Fabric border nodes
C. Control plane nodes
D. Virtual plane nodes
E. Data plane nodes
F. Fabric edge nodes
Answer: B, C, F
QUESTION NO. 131

Which two statements about MST are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each MSTI sends its own independent BPDUs.

B. An MSTI is a single PVST instance
C. An MST region is defined by its name, configuration revision, and VLAN-to-instance mapping table
D. IN an MST region, switches run a single IST and Zero or more additional MSTIs
E. BPDUs carry VLAN-to-instance mapping information to switches in the same region
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 132

Which two features are incompatible with Loop guard on a port? (Choose two)
A. PortFast
B. BPDU skew detection
C. UplinkFast
D. BackboneFast
E. Root Guard
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 133

Which PHB type allows for the best interoperability with IP Precedence already used in the network?
A. Assured Forwarding
B. Class Selector
C. Default
D. Expedited Forwarding
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 134

Drag each statement about VPN policies on the left into the matching VPN policy category on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 135

Which two features of DMVPN are true? (Choose two)
A. It offers configuration reduction

B. It does not support spoke routers behind dynamic NAT
C. It only supports remote peers with statically assigned addresses
D. It requires IPsec encryption
E. It supports multicast traffic
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 136
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are the edge devices at two different sites as shown. If each sites
contains an IPv6 network that must be able to communicate over an IPsec tunnel, which type of
authentication can be in use between the two sites?
A. Pre-shared key
B. MDS
C. CHAP
D. 802. 1x
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 137

What is the reason to send an EIGRP SIA reply to a peer?
A. To respond to a query reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active

B. To respond to an SIA query that the router is still waiting on replies from its peers
C. To respond to a reply reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
D. To respond to an SIA query with the alternative path requested
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 138

What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for UDP flows?
A. Delay
B. Throughput
C. Loss
D. Reachability
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 139

Drag and drop each description from the left into the matching protocol category on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 140
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 contacts the RADIUS server but is unable to find the user name in the server
database, how will it respond?
A. It will attempt to contact TACACS+ server

B. It will attempt to authenticate the user against the local database
C. It will prompt the user to enter a new username
D. It will deny the user access
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 141

Which two statements about 802. 1Q tunneling are true? (Choose two)
A. Mac-Based QoS and UDLD are supported on tunnel ports

B. Its maximum allowable system MTU is 1546 bytes
C. Traffic that traverses the tunnel is encrypted
D. The default configuration sends cisco Discovery Protocol, STP, and, VTP information
E. It is supported on private VLAN ports
F. It requires a system MTU of at least 1504 bytes
Answer: A, F
QUESTION NO. 142

What is the initial BFD state?
A. Up
B. Down
C. Init
D. AdminDown
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 143
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue, you executed a traceroute that a returned
the given output. Which conclusion can you draw about the problem?
A. The PDUs transmitted errors

B. An ACL is blocking traffic
C. Packets are being fragmented
D. The destination is too busy
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 144

Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is
enabled
B. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when
Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled
C. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 145

Which three types of behavior does an OSPFv3 Ipv6 AF-capable router exhibit when a non-AF-capable
router attempts to form an adjacency? (Choose three)
A. Hellos are not allowed

B. DBDs are honored
C. LSAs are not honored
D. LSAs are honored
E. Hellos are honored
F. DBDs are not honored
Answer: C, E, F
QUESTION NO. 146

Which three protocols are permitted by IEEE 802. 1x port-based authentication before the client is
successfully authenticated by the RADIUS server? (Choose three)
A. IP
B. CDP
C. EAPOL
D. STP
E. BOOTP
F. TCP
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION NO. 147
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment must be true? (Choose two)
A. If the administrator enters the show ip ospf neighbor GigabitEthernet0/1 command, the output is
blank
B. The applet runs before any command are executed
C. An OSPF neighbor relationship is reestablished when the interface recovers
D. The applet runs only after OSPF neighbors are verified
E. A BGP neighbor relationship is established over GigabitEthernet0/1
Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO. 148

What are the two Cisco recommended methods for reducing the size of the TCAM on a Lyer 3 switch?
(Choose two)
A. Use the ip route profile command

B. Filter unwanted routes
C. Adjust the output queue buffers
D. Optimize the SDM template
E. Use summary routes
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 149

What are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose two)
A. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane
B. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
C. The separation of the control plane from the data plane
D. Southbound interfaces are interfaces used between use control plane and the data plane
E. OVSDB is an application database management protocol
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 150

Which three connectivity models for vEdge Site Architecture are true? (Choose three)
A. Augmentation model
B. Hybrid with FallBack
C. Secure tunnel
D. Secure virtual connectivity
E. Cloud provider
F. Full SD-WAN
Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION NO. 151

What command can you enter to configure NBAR to recognize VNC traffic?
A. Ip nbar application-map VNC udp 5900 5901

B. Ip nbar port-map VNC hex 0xAA 0x1B
C. Ip nbar port-map VNC tcp 5900 5901
D. Ip nbar custom-map VNC tcp-udp 5900 5901
E. Ip nbar port-to-application seq 5 VNC tcp 5900 5901
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 152

Which two statements correctly describe IGMP filtering? (Choose two)
A. It enables a device to function as a multicast endpoint

B. It forwards IGMP reports to the upstream multicast router to support source-base filtering
C. It can designate a port as a multicast host port instead of a multicast router port
D. It requires IGMP snooping to be enabled
E. It controls the way in which multicast traffic can access a port
F. It filters IGMP membership reports and queries
Answer: D, F
QUESTION NO. 153

What is one requirement to support the IGMP proxy feature?
A. Devices connected to a unidirectional link must disable Internet access

B. PIM-DM must be enabled on all unidirectional links
C. Device on the unidirectional link must be in the same IP subnet
D. IGMP snooping must be disabled
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 154

Which three pieces of information are carried in OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three)
A. Authentication type
B. External route tag
C. Forwarding address
D. Subnet mask
E. Metric
F. IP subnet
Answer: D, E, F
QUESTION NO. 155

Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature?
(Choose two)
A. The capture buffer

B. The capture rate
C. The capture point
D. The capture file export location
E. The capture filter
F. The buffer memory size
Answer: A, F
QUESTION NO. 156

Which three basics types of SD-WAN deployment are out on the market? (Choose three)
A. Managed service SD-WAN

B. Policy-Based SD-WAN
C. SD-WAN as-a-Service
D. Internet-Based SD-WAN
E. Secure SD-WAN service
F. MPLS-based
Answer: C, D, E
QUESTION NO. 157
Refer to the exhibit. If A DHCP server has generated the given debug output, which two statements about
the network environment must be true? (Choose two)
A. The DHCP server received a DHCPREQUEST from a client whose ID ends in 4574.3021.30
B. The DHCP pool for the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet is configured incorrectly
C. Client 0050.4332 has been assigned an IP address on the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet
D. The DHCP server receives discover messages through a relay agent
E. The DHCP server assigned PC2 an address from the 10.10.3.0/24 subnet
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 158

Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent? (Choose two)
A. The routers must be in different areas

B. The routers must be in the same area
C. The routers must share a common process ID
D. The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number
E. The router must share a common network segment
F. The routers must be configured with the neighbor command
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 159
Refer to the exhibit. If a Layer 3 switch running OSPF in a VRF-lite configuration reports this error, which
action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Set mls cef maximum-routes in the global configuration

B. Configure the control plane with a larger memory allocation to support the Cisco Express Forwarding
Information Base
C. Upgrade the Layer 3 switch to a model that to a model that can support more routes
D. Add the vrf-lite capability to the OSPF configuration
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 160
Refer to the exhibit. Router A is connected as a BGP neighbor to routers b and C. Which path does router A
use to get to AS 65010?
A. Through router B because it has the shortest AS Path

B. Through router C because it has higher local preference
C. Through router B because the default local preference is 500 and higher than router C
D. Will load balance both because routers have a same Med value
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 161

Drag each routing Protocol on the left to the matching statement on the right
Answer:
CDR IS-IS, EIGRP,OSPF,BGP,RIP
QUESTION NO. 162

Drag and drop each IS-IS router type from the left onto the best matching OSPF router type on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 163

Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three)
A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data

B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data
C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data
D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data
E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data
F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data
Answer: A, C, F
QUESTION NO. 164

Which two statements about HDLC are true? (Choose two)
A. The packet header contains the control field and address

B. It supports clear-text authentication
C. It is a frame-oriented data link layer protocol
D. It guarantees error-free transmission
E. It supports both synchronous and asynchronous serial links
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO. 165

Which two circumstances can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two)
A. Multiple STP topology change events

B. Implementing uRPF on the network
C. Symmetrical routing
D. MAC table overflow
E. Multiple broadcast frames
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 166

What are the two BFD modes? (Choose two)
A. Asynchronous
B. Established
C. Synchronous
D. Passive
E. Demand
F. Active
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 167

Which description of infrastructure as a Service is true?
A. a cloud service that delivers on demand resources like networking and storage.
B. a cloud service that delivers on demand internet connection between sites
C. a cloud service that delivers on demand internet connection between sites.
D. a cloud service that delivers on demand software services on a subscription basis.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 168

Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true ? (choose two)
A. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination
B. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations
C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table
D. It combines the source IP address and subnet mask to create a hash for each destination
E. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB
Answer : A, C
QUESTION NO. 169

External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router
IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action
must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.

B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 170

Which three statements describe the characteristic of a VPLS architecture? (Choose Three)
A. It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

B. It replicate broadcast and multicast frames to multicast ports.
C. IT forward Ethernet frames.
D. It supports MAC address aging.
E. It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
F. It maps MAC address destination to IP next hops.
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION NO. 171

Which two statements about root guard and loop guard are true? (Choose two)
A. When loop guard is enabled, the port is transitional to the root-inconsistent state
B. Loop guard uses BPDU keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic
C. Root guard should be enabled on an upstream interface
D. Root guard disables an interface only when a superior BPDU is received
E. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to prevent loops by detecting failures
F. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic
Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO. 172
Refer to the exhibit. If the web server has been configured to listen only to TCP port 8080 for all HTTP
request, which command can you enter to allow Internet users to access the web server on HTTP port 80?
A. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80

B. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 10.1.1.100 8080
C. ip nat outside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80
D. ip nat outside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 10.1.1.100 8080
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 173

Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is in the routing
table?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 174
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes what the authoritative flag indicates?
A. Authentication was used for the mapping

B. The registration request had the same flag set
C. R1 learned about the NHRP mapping from a registration request
D. Duplicate mapping in the NHRP cache is prevented
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 175

Which three components are in an MPLS header? (choose three)
A. an 8-bit TTL
B. a 2-bottom of stack
C. a 20-bit label
D. a 4-bit experimental use field
E. a 3-bit experimental use field
F. a 4-bit label stack entry
Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION NO. 176

Which two statements about 802.1Q tunneling are true? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a system MTU of at least 1504 bytes.

B. The default configuration sends Cisco Discovery Protocol, STP, and VTP information.
C. Traffic that traverses the tunnel is encrypted.
D. It is supported on private VLAN ports.
E. MAC-based QoS and UDLD are supported on tunnel ports.
F. Its maximum allowable system MTU is 1546 bytes.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION NO. 177
What is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of a port?
A. the same as the MAC address in the bridge ID.

B. the highest MAC address on the switch.
C. the lowest MAC address on the switch.
D. the MAC address of the individual port that is sending the BPDU.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 178
Which two route types are allowed to exit an EIGRP stub? (Choose two.)
A. host
B. summary
C. static
D. connected
E. default
Answer: B D
QUESTION NO. 179
All routers are running EIGRP and the network has converged. R3 and R4 are configured as EIGRP Stub. If
the link between R1 and R3 goes down, which statement is true?
A. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2.

B. R2 does not have a route to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table.
C. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active on R4.
D. R3 does not advertise 192.168.0.0/24 to R4 anymore.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 180
Which three fields are part of a TCN BPDU? (Choose three.)
A. message age
B. protocol ID
C. max-age
D. flags
E. type
F. version
Answer: B, E, F
QUESTION NO. 181
Which two statements about EIGRP Over the Top feature are true? (Choose two)
A. The neighbor command must be configured with LISP encapsulation on each CE device
B. EIGRP routers traffic between the PE devices
C. Traffic is LISP encapsulated on the data plan
D. The network statement must be configured on each PE device to connect separate EIGRP sites
E. Traffic is LISP encapsulated on control plan
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 182
Which two configuration options are available for PIM snooping? (Choose two)
A. globally on the device

B. under the SVI for the corresponding VL.AN
C. on a specific interface on the device
D. on a range of interfaces on the device
E. under the VLAN in VLAN configuration mode
Answer: AB
QUESTION NO. 183
How many address families can a single OSPFv3 instance support ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 184
An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
B. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
C. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs.
D. No LSA translation is needed.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 185
You are configuring the S1 switch for the switchport connecting to the client computer. Which option
describes the effect of the command mls qos map cos-dscp 0 8 16 24 32 40 46 56?
A. Voice traffic is excluded from the default priority queue.

B. Voice packets are given a class selector of 5.
C. Video conferencing is marked CS3.
D. Voice packets are processed in the priority queue.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 186
Drag and drop the BGP attributes on the left to the correct category on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 187
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 contacts the RADIUS server but is unable to find the user name in the server
database, how will R1 respond?
A. It will attempt to contact the TACACS+ server

B. It will prompt the user to enter a new username
C. It will attempt to authenticate the user against the local database
D. It will deny the user access.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 188
Which PIM mode uses a shared tree only?
A. Source-specific mode
B. Sparse mode
C. Bidirectional mode
D. Dense mode
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 189
When routing a multicast packet for a multicast group, what are two effects of having the ip pim sparse-
dense-mode command configured on an interface?
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO. 190
Refer to the exhibit. What is the PHB class on this flow?
A. CS4
B. EF
C. AF21
D. none
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 191
How can you configure your network to prevent TCP starvation?
A. Separate TCP and UDP traffic into different queues

B. Enable WRED on the service provider class
C. Configure LLQ for all TCP application traffic
D. Mark all traffic in accordance with your service provider’s QoS criteria
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 192
Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types are advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose
two)
A. Summary
B. Static
C. Connected
D. Redistributed
E. External
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 193

Which three methods are valid RESTCONF methods? (Choose three)
A. EDIT
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. COPY
E. CREATE
F. GET
Answer: B, C, F
QUESTION NO. 194

Which two parameters need to be the same for two routers to form an EIGRP neighborship? (Choose two)
A. Network type
B. K-Values
C. Hello and Dead Timers
D. AS number
E. Subnet Mask
Answer: B, D
QUESTION NO. 195

Which are three recommended steps to implement your Risk-Based IoT Security Program? (Choose three)
A. Troubleshoot
B. Formalize
C. Analyze
D. Implement
E. Optimise
F. Assess
Answer: C, D, F
QUESTION NO. 196
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have FULL OSPF adjacencies. Which reason is likely thst R3 is missing the
20011:DB8:100::/64 route?
A. R1 has LSA throttling configured

B. R1 has prefix suppredsion configured
C. R1 has an incorrect area number configured
D. R1 has loop-free alternate routing configured
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 197
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?
A. This router runs NTPv6

B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR
C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link
local address of Gi2/0
D. This router runs EIGRpv6
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 198

Which two statements about Cisco HDLC are true? (Choose two)
A. Cisco HDLC supports authentication of peering routers on the same HDLC link
B. Cisco routers can carry multiple network-layer protocols simultaneously over the same HDLC link
C. Cisco HDLC allows bundling of multiple links between the same pair of routers into a faster
communication channel
D. Cisco HDLC allows routers to negotiate the supported network-layer protocols before sending their
packets over an HDLC link
E. Cisco HDLC is the default encapsulation on serial and dialer interfaces
F. Cisco HDLC is the preferred protocol in multi-vendor environments
Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO. 199

Drag and drop each Ipv4 host address on the left to the matching network address on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 200

Which two statements about IP packet fragmentation are true? (Choose two)
A. Only dropped fragments are retransmitted

B. The sender can prevent fragmentation by selling a flag in a packet’s header
C. CEF is capable of fragmenting packets
D. Reassembling a packet causes increased CPU overhead on the receiver
E. Fragmenting a packet can decrease the CPU overhead on the transmitting router
Answer: C, E
QUESTION NO. 201

What are two functions of IGMP snooping? (Choose two)
A. Constraining multicast traffic to VPLS interfaces

B. Enabling hosts in a UDLR environment to join a multicast group sourced from an upstream network
C. Determining the ports that should receive multicast traffic from certain sources or groups
D. Restricting multicast packets for IP multicast groups that have downstream receivers
E. Learning and maintaining multicast group membership at he Layer 2 level
Answer: D, E
QUESTION NO. 202

Which two statements about MSDP are true?
A. It facilitates RP redundancy and load-sharing in PIM Sparse Mode Scenarios

B. It facilitates source redundancy in PIM dense Mode scenarios
C. It facilitates RP redundancy and load-sharing in Bidirectional PIM scenarios
D. Peering takes place over PIM
E. Peering takes place over UDP
F. Peering takes place over TCP
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 203

Drag each CEF term on the left to the matching description on the right
Answer: A-3, B-1, C-2, D4, E-5
QUESTION NO. 204

Which two statements about MLD are true? (Choose two)
A. It is used by IPv4 devices to discover listeners

B. MLDv2 has only limited backward-compatibility with MLDv1
C. MLDv1 is based on IGMPv1
D. It supports both general and group-specific query messages
E. It uses multicast queries and hosts to limit multicast traffic flow on the network
F. It can use IGMP or PIM to carry messages
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 205

Which IS-IS router becomes adjacent to all other routers on a broadcast network?
A. DR
B. Level1/Level 2 Intermediate System
C. ABR
D. DIS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 206

Which configuration can you perform to prevent potential OSPF neighbor adjacency issues resulting from
mismatched interface types?
A. Decrease the hello interval

B. Enable the MTU ignore feature
C. Configure the environment as a point-to-point network
D. Increase the hello interval
E. Enable the capability-transit feature
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 207

Drag and drop each type of IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel on the left to the matching statement on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 208

Drag each characteristic of PIM on the left to the matching PIM mode on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 209

Which condition needs to be met for an eBGP neighborship to be established?
A. the AS numbers need to be the same

B. the BGP TTL security feature needs to be taken into account with regards to the number of hops on the
path
C. reachability on TCP port 178 between both routers needs to be possible
D. reachability between the loopback ip addresses of both routers is required
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 210

Which three IPv6 tunneling rely on embedding the IPv4 address of a tunnel endpoint into the IPv6
address? (Choose three)
A. 6to4
B. GRE
C. 6RD
D. ISATAP
E. Static IPv6-in-IPv4
F. DMVPN
Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION NO. 211

Which two conditions would independently allow a part to achieve fast convergence when migrating to
RSTP? (Choose two)
A. It must connect to link recognized as shared

B. It must be recognized as an edge port
C. It must have BPDU guard enabled
D. It must have BPDU guard disabled
E. It must be a root port
F. It must connect to a link recognized as point-to-point
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 212

Which BGP command will prevent flapping routes from being injected into the routing table?
A. OSPF Loop Free Alternative

B. BGP dampening
C. EIGRP DUAL
D. IP fast reroute
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 213

Which two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 networks are true? (Choose two.)
A. In IPv6, hosts perform fragmentation.

B. IPv6 uses a UDP checksum to verify packet integrity.
C. In IPv6, routers perform fragmentation.
D. In IPv4, fragmentation is performed by the source of the packet.
E. IPv4 uses an optional checksum at the transport layer.
F. IPv6 uses a required checksum at the network layer.
Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO. 214

What is a reason for an EIGRP router to send an SIA reply to a peer?
A. to respond to an SIA query with the alternative path requested

B. to respond to a query reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
C. to respond to an SIA query that the router is still waiting on replies from its peers
D. to respond to a reply reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 215

Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.)
A. area ID
B. domain ID
C. system ID
D. NSAP selector
E. MAC address
F. IP address
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION NO. 216
Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are connected to routers R1 and R2 via their L2 trunk ports. Which
command can you enter on the switches allow the hosts in VLAN 20 to join the multicast group
239.10.10.10 via the upstream L2 ports?
A. ip igmp snooping vlan 20 mrouter interface gigbitethernet0/0

B. ip igmp snooping vlan 20 mrouter learn cgmp
C. ip igmp snooping vlan 20 static 239.10.10.10 interface gigbitethernet0/0
D. ip igmp snooping querier 239.10.10.10
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 217

Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical
LSA before the interval is set?
A. The LSA is ignored

B. The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA packet updates
C. The LSA is added to the OSPF database
D. The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its
LSA packet updates
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 218
Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements about the output are true?(Choose two)
A. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP

B. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using ICMP
C. BFD last failed 476ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3.
D. BFD is active for BGP on RT1.
E. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer.
Answer: DE
QUESTION NO. 219

How does an EIGRP router respond when it receives a query for a route it is in the process of poisoning?
A. It adds the route to its route table.

B. It sends a poison squash message to the querying neighbor.
C. It notifies the querying neighbor to add the route.
D. It forwards the query to other neighbors.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 220

Which two IS-IS commands can you enter to improve the convergence time? (Choose two)
A. fast-flood 7
B. isp-gen-interval 2 50 2000
C. timers throttle spf 5 1000 32000x
D. lsp-refresh-interval
E. max-lsa 13000
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO. 221
Refer to the exhibit. When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure the event action to run the applet.

B. Configure the event manager run command to register the event.
C. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually.
D. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 222

Which tool or program is a version control system?
A. Git
B. Logstash
C. Travis CI
D. Jenkins
E. SmartC
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 223

Which automation tool is written in Python?
A. CFEngine
B. Pupper
C. Chef
D. Vagrant
E. Ansible
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 224

An employee at a targeted company downloads an IoT software update from a vendor’s site that has been
compromised with a Trojaned software update. What kind of threat is this considered as?
A. Sophisticated actors threat

B. Social engineering
C. Outside threat
D. Inside threat
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 225

Which markup language is used to format Ansible’s playbook?
A. NAML
B. HTML
C. XML
D. ADML
E. YAML
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 226

What does Cisco Fog Computing provide to the IoT solution?
A. Provides scalability
B. It reduces latency and required bandwidth
C. Enables remote access to individual IoT components
D. Enable IaaS
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 227

Which three challenges of adopting hybrid cloud model are true? (Choose three)
A. Speed to market
B. Cloud management
C. Innovation
D. Operational cost
E. Unified user experience
F. Security
Answer: B, E, F
QUESTION NO. 228

Which three policies are building blocks of vSmart policies architecture? (Choose three)
A. Data policy
B. Application aware policy
C. Service policy
D. Site policy
E. Control policy
F. Bandwidth policy
Answer: A, D, F
QUESTION NO. 229

Which design is ideal when migrating from traditional network to SD-Access architecture?
A. Collapsed core/aggregation designs

B. Dual-links
C. Routed access
D. U-topology
E. Traditional three-tier hierarchical network
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 230

Which action does a switch running OpenFlow take when it receives a packet that does not match its flow
entry?
A. Drop the packet

B. Transfer the packet
C. Reject the packet
D. Flood the packet
E. Forward the packet to the controller
Answer: E
QUESTION NO. 231

Which Cisco PfR monitoring mode is recommended for Internet edge deployments ?
A. active throughput mode

B. Active mode
C. Passive mode
D. Fast mode
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 232

Drag and drop each statement about IGMP from the left onto the correct IGMP version on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 233

When is MAC authentication bypass enabled by default?
A. When two-factor authentication is configured.

B. After 802.1x authentication verifies the client's identity.
C. When 802.1x authentication fails.
D. When 802.1x authentication times out.
Answer: C.
QUESTION NO. 234

Which two statements about QoS marking are true? (Choose two)
A. The set-discard-class command can be configured for ATM and MPLS protocols
B. It can use a table map to mark traffic
C. It requires Cisco Express forwarding to be enabled on the sending interface and the receiving interface
D. It is supported on tunnel interfaces
E. It is supported on Fast EthernetChannel and ATM SVC interfaces
Answer: A, D
QUESTION NO. 235

Which command can you enter to configure a built-in-policer with minimum guaranteed bandwidth
without starving other classes during periods of congestion?
A. priority percent
B. fair-queue
C. bandwidth
D. bandwidth remaining percent
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 236

Which type of QoS is used on the CE device to rate-limit the aggregate traffic towards the WAN Ethernet
circuit?
A. FIFO
B. CBWFQ
C. LLQ
D. WRED
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 238

Drag and drop each step in the performance-monitoring configuration process on the left into the correct
order on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 239
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is experiencing intermittent connectivity failures to the internet. If ADSL-R1
uses a PPPoE connection, what action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure OSPF on the connection between PC1 and HomeS1

B. Configure a system MTU of 1512 on ADSL-R1
C. Configure an MTU of 1492 on the dialer interface on ADSL-R1
D. Replace the dialer interface with a virtual template
E. Configure the same OSPF process on HomeR1 and HomeS1
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 240

Which two IP packet types always traverse to the route processor CPU? (Choose two)
A. Data-plane packets
B. Forwarding-plane packets
C. Control-plane packets
D. Services-plane packets
E. Management-plane packets
Answer: C, E
QUESTION NO. 241
Refer to the exhibit. After you applied a new configuration to router R2, you executed the show ip ospf
command and noticed that the new router ID was missing. Which two actions can you take to correct the
problem? (Choose two.)
A. Issue the clear ip ospf command.

B. Issue the clear ip route command.
C. Wait for the hello-interval to elapse.
D. Execute a shutdown followed by a no shutdown on the OSPF interfaces.
E. Reload the router.
F. Wait for the dead-interval to elapse.
Answer: A D
QUESTION NO. 242

Which type of ACL can be applied only to Layer 2 ports?
A. VLAN ACLs
B. Dynamic ACLs
C. Standard ACLs
D. Port ACLs
E. Reflexive ACLs
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 243
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given network configuration? (Choose two)
A. R2 advertises the 192.168.23.0/24 network

B. The 192.168.12.0/24 network is added to the R3 route table
C. R1 and R2 fail to form an adjacency
D. R2 and R3 fail to form an adjacency
E. The 192.168.12.0/24 network is added to the R3 database
F. R2 advertise the 192.168.12.0/24 network
Answer: A, C
QUESTION NO. 244

Which PIM feature allows the same multicast group address to be reused in different administrative domains?
A. Proxy Registering
B. IP Multicast Helper
C. IP Multicast Boundary
D. CGMP
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 245

Drag each statement about EtherChannel protocols on the left to the matching EtherChannel protocol on
the right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 246

Drag and drop each EIGRP packet type on the left to the matching description on the right
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 247

Which two options are restrictions of BGP Outbound Route Filtering? (Choose two.)
A. It requires access lists to match routes.

B. It can be used only with eBGP.
C. It can be used only with iBGP.
D. It can be used only with IPv4 multicast.
E. Multicast is not supported.
Answer: B, E
QUESTION NO. 248

Which feature can mitigate hung management sessions?
A. The service tcp-keepalives-in and service tcp-keepalives-out commands

B. Control Plane Policing
C. The service tcp-small servers command
D. Vty line ACLs
Answer: D
QUESTION NO. 249

Which feature forces a new Diffie-Hellman key exchange each time data is transmitted over a IPsec
tunnel?
A. PFS
B. rsa-encr authentication
C. rsa-sig authentication
D. 802.1x
E. CRACK authentication
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 250

Which feature must be enabled so that an IS-IS single topology can support IPv6 traffic?
A. New-style TLVs only

B. Adjacency checking
C. Old-style TVLs only
D. Extended metrics
E. Both new-and old-style TLVs
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 251

Which three architectural considerations are related to performance in virtualized systems? (Choose two)
Answer: D, E, F
QUESTION NO. 252

Which command sequence must you enter to configure SSH access to a Cisco router?
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 253

Which two statements about route redistribution are true? (Choose two)
A. Redistributing the entire BGP table from the internet works well using multiple OSPF areas
B. IS-IS does not support Layer 2 routes that leak into a Layer 1 domain
C. Mutual redistribution at multiple points can create a routing loop
D. IBGP is used within the AS to carry EBGP attributes that otherwise would be lost if EBGP was
redistributed into IGP.
E. The unequal cost multipath load-balancing characteristic is lost when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP
Answer: C, D
QUESTION NO. 254
Drag and Drop the NAT elements on the left into the correct sequential on the right?
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 255

Which two statements about route summarization are true?
A. It can be disabled in RIP, RIPv2, and EIGRP

B. EIGRP and RIPv2 route summarization are configured with the ip summary-address command under the
route process
C. EIGRP can summarize routes at the classful network boundary
D. RIPv2 can summarize routes beyond the classful network boundary
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 256

Which DHCP message type does the DHCP server send to a client to confirm its allocated IP address?
A. DHCPDISCOVER
B. DHCPOFFER
C. DHCPACK
D. DHCPREQUEST
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 257
Refer to the exhibit. The main 1 and branch 1 switches are connected directly over an MPLS pseudowire,
and both run UDLD. After router B1 reloads because of a power failure the pseudowire is restored,
however the branch 1 switch is unable to reach the main 1 switch.
Which Two action can you take to restore connectivity and prevent the problem from recurring? (Choose
two.)
A. Configure a backup GRE tunnel between the main1 and branch1 switches.
B. Configure a backup pseudowire between the main1 and branch1 switches.
C. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown command on both the branch 1 switch uplink to the B1 router
and the main 1 switch’s uplink to the M1 router.
D. Enable errdisable recover on both the main 1 and branch 1 switches.
E. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the branch 1 switch uplink to the B1 router only.
F. Enable UDLD recover on both the main 1 and Branch 1 switches.
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO. 258

Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two)
A. They are used to forward untagged traffic only
B. They are configured under the trunk interface
C. They are configured in VLAN database mode
D. They are used to forward tagged traffic only
E. They are used to forward both tagged and untagged traffic
F. They require VTPv3
Answer: A, B
QUESTION NO. 259

Drag each statement about EIGRP neighbor peering on the left to the matching peering type on the
right.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 260
Refer to the exhibit, how can you configure R6 so that traffic returns to subnet 172.16.6.0/24 via R5?
A. Configure the neighbor 10.5.6.5 send-community standard command

B. Advertise prefix 172.16.6.0/24 to neighbor R5 with metric 80
C. Set the local preference for all prefixes received from neighbor R5 to 200
D. Advertise prefix 172.16.6.0/24 to neighbor R5 with AS 65006 prepended.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO. 261
Refer to the exhibit .Which two options are two problems that can occur with this configuration? (Choose
two)
A. The label for the R5 loopback address is filtered from other MPLS routers
B. The label for the R1 loopback address is filtered from other MPLS routers
C. The MPLS path from R1 to R5 becomes unreachable
D. MPLS traffic from R1 to R5 takes a suboptimal path
Answer: B, C
QUESTION NO. 262
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is experiencing intermittent connectivity failures to the internet. If ADSL-R1
uses a PPPoE connection, what action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure a system MTU of 1512 on ADSL-R1.
B. Configure an MTU of 1492 on the dialer interface on ADSL-R1.
C. Configure the same OSPF process on HomeR1 and HomeS1.
D. Configure OSPF on the connection between PC1 and HomeS1.
E. Replace the dialer interface with a virtual template.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO. 263

Drag each set action for policy-based routing on the left to the matching statement on the right
Answer: E-1, A-2, D-3, C-4, B-5
QUESTION NO. 264

RIPv2 automatically summarizes IPv4 routes on classful boundaries. Which boundries does it use for
automatic summarization of IPv6 routes?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO. 265

Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?
A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.
C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition
is met.
Answer: E

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PASSWRITTENDUMPS.

COM 400-101 28-Dec-18

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of this data is true?

A. It is JSON-formatted data based on YANG models

A. They determine whether a destination is reachable

A. It is supported by TCP and UDP.

A. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state.

A. The bandwidth delay product is 50Mb.

A. Infrastructure as a service, Platform as a service, and storage and storage as a service

A. The reduced MAC address feature must be disabled

What is a requirement for BFD static route support?

Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.

A. ip mroute 10.4.4.4 255.255.255.255 Tunnel 0

A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.

A. Limited Function Device

A. It is applied only on the egress interface

Which way to influence path selection with EIGRP is preferred?

A. changing the delay, even if it must be done on multiple in1erfaces

Answer: 1:3 2:1 3:2 4:6 5:5 6:3

A. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 ge 15 le 25

A. It requires multicast sources to be in the same domain.

A. Router 2, Router 3, Router 5 and Switch A only

A. The route will fall back from iBGP to eBGP

A. The router will manually summarize the 192.168.12.0/27 network

A. Area type mismatch

A. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation

Answer: 1:3, 2:1, 3:4, 4:2

A. Configure the ip router isis command on R1's interface E0/1.

A. It allows unknown devices to participate in STP

Answer: 1:3, 2:1, 3:4, 4:2

A. The weight attribute is advertised to peers

BGP Well-known Mandatory Attribute

BGP Optional Nontransitive Attributes

BGP Optional Transitive Attributes

A. It interconnects PIM-SM domains

A. It is configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering

A. An endpoint device that verifies network credentials

Answer: E-1, B-2, D-3

A. It disables access to the control plane during an attack.

A. MPLS must be enabled.

A. The packet is matched by route-map loo and the DF bit is set to 0

A. There are three subtypes of MLD query messages.

A. Transport preferred none

A. Rate-limit bidirectional traffic to the control plane.

A. lowest MAC address

A. Modify the outbound route map to permit all additional traffic.

A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.

Answer: 2:1, 4:2, 1:3, 2:4

Which two statements about MLPPP are true? (Choose two)

A. It can bundle up to six T-1 interfaces

QUESTION NO. 100

QUESTION NO. 101

With which IS will an IS-IS Level 1 IS exchange routing information?

QUESTION NO. 102

A. The 10.10.10.10/32 route will be in the routing table

QUESTION NO. 103

QUESTION NO. 104

A. It matches all traffic in ACL 8

QUESTION NO. 105

Which feature disables MPLS PE checks on a router running OSPF?

QUESTION NO. 106

QUESTION NO. 107