Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ? compact sand stone
The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is_____________? Quartz
Sandstone is a ________________?
i. sedimentary rock
ii. aqueous rock
iii. silicious rock
Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ? sand stone
Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics ? quartzite
The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is________________?
weight test
The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and
shape is known as______________? dressing of stones
2
Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite,
marble, gypsum, mica______________? quartz and mica are minerals
Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge
? granite
2.5 to 3.0
A. 50 MPa
B. 100 MPa
C. 150 MPa
D. 200 MPa
A. mulberry
B. mahogany
C. sal
D. deodar
A. deodar
B. chir
C. shishum
D. pine
The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known
as________________?
A. heart shakes
B. cupshakes
C. starshakes
D. rindgalls
A. lack of ventilation
In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?
A. parallel to grains
B. 45° to grains
C. perpendicular to grains
D. same in all directions
Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock? (1) slate (2) shale (3) quartzite . The correct
answer is___________?
A. only (3)
B. both (1) and (3)
C. both (2) and (3)
D. all (1), (2) and (3)
Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork. Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an
excellent finish. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. 4% to 6%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 15% to 20%
D. 100%
The plywood______________?
A. to impart plasticity
B. to make the brick durable
C. to prevent shrinkage
D. to make the brick impermeable
A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more
than______________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 22%
D. 25%
Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains
of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is_________________?
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90°
5
The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as_______________?
A. log
B. batten
C. plank
D. baulk
The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is________________?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 35%
A. 3.5 N/mm2
B. 7.0 N/mm2
C. 10.5 N/mm2
D. 14.0 N/mm2
A. cambium layer
B. annular rings
C. medullary rays
D. heart wood
A. impermeable
B. brittle and weak
C. to lose cohesion
D. to crack and warp on drying
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
0
6
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?
A. alumina
B. silica
C. iron
D. magnesia
The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as______________?
A. kneading
B. moulding
C. pugging
D. drying
0
7
A. overburnt bricks
B. underburnt bricks
C. refractory bricks
D. first class bricks
A. preparation of clay
B. moulding of clay
C. drying of bricks
D. burning of bricks
Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents
respectively of a good brick earth ?
A. bottom face
B. top face
C. shorter side
D. longer side
Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is____________?. 500
Quick lime is? (a) slow in setting (b) rapid in slacking (c) good in strength ?
The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less
than_____________?
B. 30 minutes
The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement
is____________?A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite
As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should
be_______________? 10 hours
Study the following statements. (a) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, (b) Fat lime is suitable
for whitewashing, (c) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, (d) Fat lime is suitable for making
mortar. The correct answer is______________?
Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. Reason R : Pure lime has slow
hardening characteristics. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?
A. calcium oxide
B. silica
C. clay
D. water
9
The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement
is_________________?
tricalcium aluminate
For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is_______________? 50 mm
A. gypsum
B. finer grinding
C. tricalcium silicate
D. tricalcium aluminate
According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days
should not be less than________________?
A. 7 MPa
B. 11.5 MPa
C. 16 MPa
D. 21 MPa
A. 25 mm to 50 mm
B. 50 mm to 100 mm
C. 100 mm to 125 mm
D. 125 mm to 150 mm
For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement
and standard sand in the proportions of___________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
10
C. 1:4
D. 1:6
Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?
low heat cement
The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight
of cement is_______________? 2
The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete
is______________?
calcium chloride
A. iron
B. carbon
C. manganese
D. sulphur
Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel
are_______________? iron ore, coal and lime stone
A. 160N/mm2
B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2
D. 520 N/mm2
Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R :
Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given
below ?
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
11
The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is_____________? 0.6 liter
In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is
known as_______________?
A. English bond
B. double flemish bond
C. zigzag bond
D. single flemish bond
A. linseed oil
B. water
C. varnish
Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of_____? wood work
Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
A. ultimate stress
B. yield stress
C. proof stress
Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R :
Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding
system given below ?. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A
The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels
is______________?less than 1
The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be_____________?
perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
A queen closer is a______________? brick having the same length and depth as the other
bricks but half the breadth
The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is_____________?
A. 90 mm
B. 180 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 280 mm
0
12
A. headers
B. stretchers
C. brick bats
D. queen closer
The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints
is____________?
A. trowel
B. square
C. bolster
D. scutch
The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is___________?
Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is_____________?
Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than_______________?
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as_________________?
A. bed joint
B. wall joint
C. cross joint
D. bonded joint
The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction
are_______________?
13
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:6
D. 1:8
As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be_____________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. equal or more
The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than__? 20
Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course,
where x is equal to_________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1/4
A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity
of soils is to_________________?
The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited
to______________? 65 mm
The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited
to______________?
A. 25 mm
B. 25 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 65 mm
D. 65 to 100 mm
14
The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where
noiseless floor covering is desired is____________________?
A. cork flooring
B. glass flooring
C. wooden flooring
D. linoleum flooring
The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as______________?
batter pile
The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by_________? draining the soil
The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is
known as______________? rise
The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of
carrying the load of the wall above is_______________?
A. segmental arch
B. pointed arch
C. relieving arch
D. flat arch
The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown
of an arch is known as___________? spandril
A. centring
B. actual laying of arch work
C. striking of centring
D. none of the above
The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high
is______________?
0
15
A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
C. arches are difficult in construction
D. all of the above
The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess
is__________________?
The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known
as_____________?
A. gable roof
B. hip roof
C. gambrel roof
D. mansard roof
The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is
called______________?
A. ridge board
B. hip rafter
C. eaves board
D. valley rafter
A. coastal regions
The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is
known as______________?
A. hip
B. gable
C. ridge
D. eaves
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
Higher pitch of the roof (1) results in stronger roof (2) results in weaker roof (3) requires more
covering material (4) requires less covering material The correct answer is___________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be_____________?
A. 90° and 0°
B. 75° and 30°
17
A. 300 to 350 mm
B. 400 to 450 mm
C. 500 to 550 mm
D. 600 to 650 mm
A. 10
B. 12
The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known
as_________________?
A. balusters
B. newal posts
C. balustrades
D. railings
A. 2
B. 3
The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is_______________?
A. raft foundation
B. grillage foundation
C. well foundation
D. isolated footing
The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed_____________?
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
A. stronger
B. more compact
C. costly
D. none of the above
Compared to mild steel, cast iron has (1) high compressive strength (2) high tensile strength (3) low
compressive strength (4) low tensile strength The correct answer is_________________?
1. better workability
2. better resistance to freezing and thawing
3. lesser workability
4. less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is:A. (1) and (2)
Highway Engineering
The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is_______________?
A. straight line
B. parabolic
C. elliptical
D. combination of straight and parabolic
C. efficiency of brakes
D. all of the above
A. rough
B. dry
C. smooth and dry
D. smooth and wet
A. effective drainage
B. counteracting the centrifugal force
C. having proper sight distance
D. none of the above
On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal
to______________?
A. stopping distance
B. two times the stopping distance
C. half the stopping distance
D. three times the stopping distance
When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the
wheels due to rotation, then it results in______________?
A. slipping
B. skidding
C. turning
D. revolving
For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of camber
is_______________?
A. 1 in 30
B. 1 in 36
C. 1 in 48
D. 1 in 60
20
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. dependent on the speed
The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to________________?
If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two
way traffic is_________________?
A. 30m
B. 60m
C. 120m
D. 180m
21
If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then
to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always
be________________?
The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations
is_____________?
A. 60 kmph
B. 80 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. 120 kmph
The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is______________?
A. upto 10%
B. between 10% and 25%
C. between 25% and 60%
D. more than 60%
For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced
by_____________?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 75%
For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation
increases with_______________?
22
As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain
terrain is_______________?
A. 1 in 15
B. 1 in 12.5
C. 1 in 10
D. equal to camber
On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the pressure
on the outer wheels will be_________________?
The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the
pavement_______________?
To calculate the minimum value of ruling radius of horizontal curves in plains, the design speed is
given by_________________?
A. 8 kmph
B. 12kmph
C. 16kmph
D. 20 kmph
A. ruling gradient
B. limiting gradient
23
C. exceptional gradient
D. minimum gradient
The transition curve used in the horizontal alignment of highways as per IRC recommendations
is_______________?
A. spiral
B. lemniscate
C. cubic parabola
D. any of the above
The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe operation for a speed of 110 kmph
is______________?
B. 220 m
C. 440 m
D. 577 m
For design, that length of transition curve should be taken which is_____________?
If ruling gradient is I in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m, then the
compensated grade should be_________________?
A. 3 %
B. 4%
C. 5 %
D. 6%
Which of the following shapes is preferred in a valley curve ?A. simple parabola
B. cubic parabola
C. spiral
D. lemniscate
The percentage compensation in gradient for ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal curve of radius
760 m is____________________?
24
A. 0.1 %
B. 1 %
C. 10%
D. no compensation
A. longitudinal gradient
B. two times the longitudinal gradient
C. three times the longitudinal gradient
D. half the longitudinal gradient
A. zero
B. 64m
C. 80m
D. 60m
A. 1 in 12
B. 1 m 15
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 30
If the design speed is V kmph and deviation angle is N radians, then the total length of a valley
curve in meters is given by the expression_________________?
B. 0.38 (NV3)”2
For highway geometric design purposes the speed used is____? 98 “”percentile
Select the correct statement__________________?A. Traffic volume should always be more than
traffic capacity
B. Traffic capacity should always be more than traffic volume
C. Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section
D. 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed
Which of the following methods is preferred for collecting origin and destination data for a small
area like a mass business center or a large intersection ? A. road side interview method
B. license plate method
C. return postcard method
D. home interview method
The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in accidents
is known as___________________?
collision diagram
Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is_____________?
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 0.5
D. 10
With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles________________?
increasesWith increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the
lane________________?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
D. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
If the stopping distance and average length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m respectively, then the
theoretical maxi¬mum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 10 m/sec is________________?
26
The diagram which shows all important physical conditions of an accident location like roadway
limits, bridges, trees and all details of roadway conditions is known as_____________?
A. pie chart
B. spot maps
C. condition diagram
D. collision diagram
A. red
B. yellow
C. green
D. white
A. traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
B. traffic density and traffic volume both attain maximum value
C. traffic density and traffic volume both become zero
D. traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value
Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should be based
on_____________?
On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict points
is______________?
24
A. simultaneous system
B. alternate system
C. flexible progressive system
D. simple progressive system
A. Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross flow
B. Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross flow
C. Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds
D. The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals
A. regulatory sign
B. warning sign
C. informatory sign
D. none of the above
The particular places where pedestrians are to cross the pavement are properly marked by the
pavement marking known as________________?
A. stop lines
B. turn markings
C. crosswalk lines
D. lane lines
When two equally important roads cross roughly at right angles, the suitable shape of central
island is________________?
A. circular
B. elliptical
C. tangent
D. turbine
The maximum number of vehicles beyond which the rotary may not function efficiently
is______________?
As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast
traffic is______________?
A. 10 lux
B. 15 lux
C. 20 lux
D. 30 lux
A. parallel parking
B. 30° angle parking
C. 45° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the
suitable shape of rotary is________________?
A. circular
B. tangent
C. elliptical
D. turbine
When the width of kerb parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking
system is________________?
A. parallel parking
B. 45° angle parking
C. 65° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is_______________?
29
In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then_____________?
abrasion test
The direct interchange ramp involves____________?
A. exceptionally strong
B. strong
C. satisfactory for road surfacing
D. unsuitable for road surfacing
The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course
is_______________?
30
A. 10%
B. 20 %
C. 30%
D. 45 %
The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less
than____________?
A. 30 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 60 cm
A. 30/40
B. 60/70
C. 80/100
D. 100/120
Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum
temperature is 40° C should be______________?A. less-than 40°C
B. greater than 40°C
C. equal to 40°C
D. none of the above
The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and
percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve is 35, is______________?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
A. a theoretical method
B. an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil
C. an empirical method based on strength characteristics of subgrade soil
D. a semi empirical method
31
A. directly to subgrade
B. through structural action
C. through a set of layers to the subgrade
A. grade
B. viscosity
C. ductility
D. temperature susceptibility
A. RT-1
B. RT-2
C. RT.3
D. RT-5
The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction
is____________?
A. 0.4 %
B. 0.6%
C. 0.8 %
D. 1.0 %
A. same viscosity
B. viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
C. viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
D. none of the above
A. gasoline
B. kerosene oil
C. light diesel
D. heavy diesel
32
A. wearing course
B. base course
C. sub-base course
D. subgrade
The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should
be able to support during the life of pavement is______________?
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. 1000000
A. More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required
B. More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required
C. Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
A. equal to 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 1
D. zero
A. expansion joints
B. contraction joints
C. warping joints
D. longitudinal joints
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5m
The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is____________?
If the group index value of subgrade is between 5 and 9, then the subgrade is treated
as_____________?
A. good
B. fair
C. poor
D. very poor
A. 0
B. 25 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 100 mm
A. climatic condition
B. type and intensity of traffic
C. subgrade soil and drainage conditions
D. availability of funds for the construction project
The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road per meter width
and for 10 mm thickness is________________?
34
A. 8 cubic meter
B. 10 cubic meter
C. 12 cubic meter
A. cement
B. lime
C. bitumen
D. none of the above
For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after
spreading coarse aggregates is________________?
When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement
concrete road, the type of treatment to be given is________________?
A. seal coat
B. tack coat
C. prime coat
D. spray of emulsion
A. granular soil
B. organic soil
C. silts
D. clays
A. bituminous carpet
B. mastic asphalt
C. sheet asphalt
D. bituminous bound macadam
A. sheet asphalt
B. bituminous carpet
C. mastic asphalt
The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from__________________?
A. 20 to 25 mm
B. 50 to 75 mm
C. 75 to 100 mm
D. 100 to 120 mm
A. Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat
B. Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during bituminous road
construction
C. Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements
D. A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback
Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black
top pavements ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
36
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes
is known as_______________?
A. sloping drain
B. catchwater drain
C. side drain
D. cross drain
The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as_______________?
A. 20 kmph
B. 30 kmph
C. 40 kmph
D. 50 kmph
The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as________________?
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 3%
D. 4%
always subtractive
Which of the following methods of offsets involves less measurement on the ground?
30°
During chaining along a straight line, the . leader of the party has 4 arrows in his hand while the
follower has 6. Distance of the follower from the starting point is_____________?
A. 4 chains
B. 6 chains
C. 120 m
D. 180m
The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors of an optical square is______________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross staff?
A. 45° only
B. 90° only
C. either 45° or 90°
D. any angle
The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly ground
is_____________?
38
A. 1 in 100
B. 1 in 250
C. 1 in 500
D. 1 in 1000
A. line ranger
B. steel tape
C. optical square
D. cross staff
If the true bearing of a line AB is 269° 30′, then the azimuth of the line AB is_____________?
A. 0° 30′
B. 89° 30′
C. 90° 30′
D. 269° 30′
A. ±2 mm
B. ±3 mm
C. ±5 mm
D. ±8 mm
For accurate work, the steel band should always be used in preference to chain because the steel
band______________?
In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 293° 30′ can be expressed
as______________? N66°30’W
The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is
called______________?
A. azimuth
B. declination
C. local attraction
D. magnetic bearing
A. give whole circle bearing (WCB. of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB. of a line respectively
A. cross staff
B. level
C. chain
D. prismatic compass
If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon in southern hemisphere is 167°, the magnetic
declination at that place is________________?
A. 77° N
B. 23° S
C. 13° E
D. 13° W
1. are inverted
2. are upright
3. run clockwise having 0° at south
4. run clockwise having 0° at north
The correct answer is ?
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane is known
as______________?
A. transiting
B. reversing
C. plunging
D. swinging
A. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is down
B. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is up
C. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is down
If the lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp screw is loosened, the theodolite may be
rotated____________?
A. on its outer spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of lower plate
B. on its outer spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and gra-duated scale of lower plate
C. on its inner spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower
plate
D. on its inner spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower
plate
For which of the following permanent adjustments of theodolite, the spire test is used ?
Which of the following errors is not eliminated by the method of repetition of horizontal angle
measurement ?
The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the instrument is used
for_____________? leveling
The error due to eccentricity of inner and outer axes can be eliminated by________________?
42
A. concave
B. convex
C. plano-convex
D. plano-concave
The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on_______________?
A. backsight
B. intermediate sight
C. foresight
D. all of the above
A. horizontal line
B. line parallel to the mean spheriodal surface of earth
If a tripod settles in the interval that elapses between taking a back sight reading and the following
foresight reading, then the elevation of turning point will_________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. not change
D. either ‘a’ or ‘b’
If altitude bubble is provided both on index frame as well as on telescope of a theodolite, then the
instrument is levelled with reference to_________________?
43
A. foresight only
B. backsight only
C. foresight and backsight
D. foresight and intermediate sight
If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back- sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m, the R.L. of the
forward station is_________________?
A. 99.345 m
B. 100.345 m
C. 100.655m
D. 101.870m
As applied to staff readings, the corrections for curvature and refraction are respectively The above
table shows a part of a level field book. The value of X should be________________?
A. 98.70
B. 100.00
C. 102.30
D. 103.30
Refraction correction________________?
The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by________________? increasing the diameter of
the tube
If the staff is not held vertical at a level¬ling station, the reduced level calculated from the observation
would be_______________?
44
A. true R.L
B. more than true R.L
C. less than true R.L
D. none of the above
Which of the following errors can be neutralised by setting the level midway between the two
stations ?
A. decreases
The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is 2.455 m. If the
foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the R.L. of point B will
be_______________?
A. 94.80 m
B. 99.71 m
C. 100.29 m
D. 105.20 m
If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the point of observation is d, then the error due
to curvature of earth is proportional to_______________?
A. d
B. 1/d
C. d2
D. 1/d2
45
The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000 is______________?
A. 2 m
B. 5m
C. 10 m
D. 20 m
The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best results, the
instrument station should be_______________?
An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant inclination to the
horizontal is known as__________________?
A. contour line
B. horizontal equivalent
C. contour interval
D. contour gradient
cliff
D. All of the above statements are correct
In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a contour is
called_______________?
A. ranging
B. centring
C. horizontal control
D. vertical control
Which of the following methods of con-touring is most suitable for a hilly terrain ?
A. direct method
B. square method
C. cross-sections method
D. tacheometric method
A. a quick method
B. adopted for large surveys only
C. most accurate method
D. suitable for hilly terrains
A. depression
B. hillock
C. plain surface
D. none of the above
A. steep slope
A. hypsometry
B. barometric levelling
C. spirit levelling
D. trigonometrical levelling
A. forests
B. urban areas
47
C. hilly areas
D. plains
A. tacheomefry
B. trigonometrical levelling
C. plane table surveying
D. theodolite surveying
A. radiation
B. traversing
C. resection
D. all of the above
A. 750 mm x 900 mm
B. 600 mm x 750 mm
C. 450 mm x 600 mm
D. 300 mm x 450 mm
The two point problem and three point problem are methods of________________?
A. resection
B. orientation
C. traversing
D. resection and orientation
The process of determining the locations of the instrument station by drawing re sectors from the
locations of the known stations is called_________________?
A. radiation
B. intersection
C. resection
D. traversing
If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude and departure
respectively of the line AB will be________________?
A. +50 m, +86.6 m
B. +86.6 m, -50 m
Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is used to locate the position of an
inaccessible point ?
A. radiation
B. intersection
C. traversing
D. resection
The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is________________?
A. spirit level
B. alidade
C. plumbing fork
D. trough compass
If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the south latitudes and
also the sum of west departures is more than the sum of the east departures, the bearing of the
closing line is in the________________?
A. NE quadrant
B. SE quadrant
C. NW quadrant
D. SW quadrant
49
Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is suitable for locating the details which are
far away from transit stations ?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
A. 0 and 100
D. vertical curve
If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the distance from object glass to the trunnion axis is
15 cm, the additive constant is_______________?
A. 0.1
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 1.33
If the intercept on a vertical staff is ob-served as 0.75 m from a tacheometer, the horizontal distance
between tacheometer and staff station is________________?
50
A. 7.5 m
B. 25 m
C. 50
D. 75 m
A. compound curve
B. vertical curve
C. reverse curve
D. transition curve
A. levelling
B. measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas
C. measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
D. measurement of angles
The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line and the forward line of a traverse is called
________________?
A. deflection angle
B. included angle
C. direct angle
D. none of the above
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations which are needed at each plane table
station are ______________ ?
1. levelling
2. orientation
3. centering
The correct sequence of these operations is
B. (1), (3), (2)
The methods used for locating the plane table stations are_______________?
1. radiation
2. traversing
3.intersection
4. resection
The correct answer is
1. contour interval
2. scale of plan
3. characteristics of ground
The correct answer is ?
A. steel
B. invar
C. linen
D. cloth and wires
A. segregation
A. 0.003
B. 0.0003
C. 0.00003
D. 0.03
The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile strength fcl is
given by_______________?
A. reduces workability
B. increases bleeding
C. increases shrinkage
D. increases strength
According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in N/mm2) can be taken
as______________?
A. Ec = = 5700
B. Ec = = 570
C. Ec = = 5700fck
D. Ec = where fck N/mm2 = 700 is the characteristic strength in
The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time
is_______________?
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. sodium silicate
D. all of the above
The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about_______________?
A. 10 to 15% more
B. 15 to 20% more
C. 20 to 25% more
D. 25 to 50% more
Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called_______________?
B. accelerators
The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of concrete fck is given
by_______________?
53
A. fcr=0.35Vf7
B. fcr=0.57f7
C. fcr=0.7Vf7
D. fcr=1.2Vf7
where fcr and fck are in N/mm2′
The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength
is_____________?
A. 0.33
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
D. 1.0
A. workability
B. strength
C. the effects of temperature variations
D. the unit weight
A. time of transit
B. ‘vater-cement ratio
C. the air in the mix
D. size of aggregate
The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while placing
and compacting, is called________________?
A. segregation
B. bleeding
C. bulking
D. creep
To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is_______________?
A. 25%
B. 40%
54
C. 60%
D. 80%
In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate
is_______________?
A. rounded
A. 2 %
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 10%
A. 5%
B. 10 %
C. 15%
D. 20%
A. remains constant
B. increases with richer mixes
C. decreases with richer mixes
D. none of the above
A. 2.0 to 3.5
B. 3.5 to 5.0
C. 5.0 to 7.0
D. 6.0 to 8.5
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. none of the above
If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economi-cally by___________?
If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the
beam is called________________?
A. balanced beam
B. under-reinforced beam
C. over-reinforced beam
If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth of neutral axis for a singly
reinforced rectangular balanced section will be___________________?
A. 0.35 d
B. 0.40 d
C. 0.45 d
D. dependent on grade of concrete also
56
A. M15
B. M20
C. M 10
D. M25
A. 28 liters
B. 30 liters
C. 32 liters
D. 34 liters
For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete expressed
as compacting factor should be________________?
A. 0.75-0.80
B. 0.80-0.85
C. 0.85 – 0.92
D. above 0.92
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than______________?
A. ±5% of average
B. ± 10% of average
C. ± 15% of average
D. ±20% of average
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed
after_______________?
A. 24 to 48 hours
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed
after______________?
57
A. 24 to 48 hours
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw +6Df 6 In above formula, l0
signifies_______________?
For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical
deflection limits is__________________?
B. 75 mm
For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit
is______________?
A. 3.5 m
B. 4 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5 m
According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater
than________________?
For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical
deflection limits should be________________?
A. 600 mm
B. 750 mm
C. 900 mm
D. more than 1 m
58
According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is_______________?
A. less than 12
B. less than 18
C. between 18 and 24
D. more than 24
The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less
than_______________?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 13 mm
The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is_______________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 1/6
D. 1/8
The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is not
less than________________?
A. 0.15
B. 0.12
C. 0.30
D. 1.00
For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less than the
diameter of bar nor less than_______________?
A. 15 mm
B. 25 mm
C. 30 mm
D. 40 mm
A. 15 4>
B. 20
C. 24 (j)
A. 2 %
B. 4%
C. 6 %
D. 8 %
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?A. Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal
reinforcement in a column is 0.8%
B. Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed 300 mm
C. Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter
D. The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than four
A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to overall depth
(1/D. is less than__________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
A. 50 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 150 mm
D. 200 mm
In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less
than______________?
A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 250 mm
The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is_____________?
60
A. less than 1
B. between 1 and 1.5
C. between 1.5 and 2
D. greater than 2
If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength
is_____________?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is_______________?
Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 – 1978 is________________?
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 60 m
A. less than 1
B. between 1 and 1.5
C. between 1.5 and 2.0
D. greater than 2
In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more than that in
plain bars by_______________?
61
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the support at a distance of x from
the center of slab bearing where x is equal to________________?
A. 1/3
B. 1/5
C. 1/7
D. 1/10
where 1 is the span
If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of column
strip and middle strip are__________________?
When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by____________?
The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam is
to resist in that zone_________________?
A. compressive stress
B. shear stress
C. bond stress
A. 0.15% to 2%
B. 0.8% to 4%
62
C. 0.8% to 6%
D. 0.8% to 8%
The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than________________?
A. 15 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 50mm
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
A. 6 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 12 mm
D. 16 mm
For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is taken
as_____________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is
about________________?
A. 5% less
B. 10% less
C. 5% more
D. 10% more
Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m ?
A. L-shaped wall
B. T-shaped wall
C. counterfort type
D. all of the above
The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall
is______________?
A. not needed
B. provided equally on inner and front faces
C. provided more on inner face than on front face
D. provided more on front face than on inner face
For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus
correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine’s theory_______________?
A. 20 kN/cm2
B. 200 kN/cm2
C. 200kN/mm2
D. 2xl06N/cm2
If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by kd in working
stress design, then the value of k for balanced section_______________?
If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete xc, the nominal shear
reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for carrying a shear stress equal
to__________________?
64
A. xv
B. xc
C. xv – TC
D. Tv + Tc
For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is_______________?
A. wholly parabolic
B. wholly rectangular
C. parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
D. rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on______________?
In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is_______________?
A. not provided
B. provided only on inner face
C. provided only on front face
D. provided both on inner and front faces
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided
on_______________?
A. one cantilever
B. two cantilevers
C. three cantilevers
D. four cantilevers
To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed
for______________?
In a pile of length /, the points of suspension from ends for lifting it are located at_______?
A. 0.207 1
B. 0.25 /
C. 0.293 /
D. 0.333 /
While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly_______?
The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is
located_______________?
If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and dead load basis,
then_________________?A.there will be no settlement of columns
B. there will be no differential settlement
C. the settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns
A. 0.207 /
B. 0.293 /
C. 0.7071
D. 0.793 /
According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced section of a beam
of effective depth d is__________________?
A. 0.43 d
B. 0.55 d
C. 0.68 d
D. 0.85 d
The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies at a
distance of__________________?
66
A. 0.367 xu
B. 0.416 xu
C. 0.446 xu
D. 0.573 xu
The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as_________________?
A. 0.03%
B. 0.1%
C. 0.3%
D. 3%
Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load. Reason R : The live loads
are more uncertain than dead loads?
A. 0.37 fy
B. 0.57 fy
C. 0.67 fy
D. 0.87 fy
According to Whitney’s theory, depth of stress block for a balanced section of a concrete beam is
limited to_______________?
A. 0.43 d
B. 0.537 d
C. 0.68 d
D. 0.85 d
As per Whitney’s theory, the maximum moment of resistance of the balanced section of a beam of
width b and effective depth d is given by_______________?
A. ^acybd2
B. ^acybd2
C. 0.185acybd2
D. 0.43acybd2
where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of concrete
Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends
to_____________?
A. deflect downward
B. deflect upward
C. deflect downward or upward
D. none of the above
In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is_______________?
A. compressive everywhere
B. tensile everywhere
C. partly compressive and partly tensile
D. zero
In prestressed concrete______________?
A. forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged
B. forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the moment
C. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm change
D. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm remain unchanged
Which of the following losses of prestress occurs only in pretensioning and not in post-tensioning ?
68
Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pretensioned and post-tensioned work
respectively should not be less than__________________?
A. wR / 4d
B. wR/2d
C. wR/d
D. 2wR/d
where, w = load per unit area of surface of dome R = radius of curvature d = thickness of dome
In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown or uniformly distributed load, the
meridional force is always________________?
A. zero
B. tensile
C. compressive
D. tensile or compressive
A. to decrease it
B. to increase it
C. either to decrease or to increase it
D. to keep it unchanged
The recommended value of modular ratio for reinforced brick work is______________?
A. 18
B. 30
C. 40
D. 58
70
In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is provided on______________?
A. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel
B. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel
C. Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel
D. High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel
1. to increase shrinkage
2. to decrease shrinkage
3. to increase setting time
4. to decrease setting time
The correct answer is?
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1)and(4)
C. (2)and (3)
D. (2)and (4)
The main reinforcement in the toe of a T- shaped R C. retaining wall is provided on_______________?
In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided
on_______________?bottom face near counterfort
2. top face near counterfort
3. bottom face near centre of span
4. top face near centre of span The correct answer is
both (1) and (4)
A. only (1)
B. (1) and (2)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
1. humidity of atmosphere
2. passage of time
3. stress
The correct answer is?
A. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel
The spans of filler joists supporting a slab may be considered approximately equal if the longest span
does not exceed the shortest span more than__________________?
73
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 25%
A. paints
B. loose rust
C. loose mill scales
D. All the above
The permissible bending stresses Pbet for steel slab bases should not exceed_______________?
A. 1500 kg/cm2
B. 1650 kg/cm2
C. 1800 kg/cm2
D. 1890 kg/cm2
A. For steel castings, the minimum tensile strength is 41 kg/mm2 and minimum yield stress is 20.5
kg/mm2
B. For high tensile steel, the minimum tensile strength is 58 kg/mm2
C. For mild steel the minimum tensile strength is 44 kg/mm2 and minimum elongation of 23% on a gauge
length of 5.65A
D. All the above
The anchorage value of standard U-type hook of a reinforcing bar of diameter d in tension,
is______________?
A. 4 d
B. 8d
C. 12 d
D. 16 d
A. The diameter of a rivet, before driving is taken as the nominal diameter of the rivet
B. The diameter of the rivet hole is taken as the gross area of the rivet
C. For rivets of nominal diameters less than 25 mm, the diameter of the rivet hole is taken as the nominal
diameter of the rivet plus 1.5 mm
D. All the above
A. The minimum pitch of rivets should not be less than 2.5 times the diameter of the rivet hole
B. The distance between centres of two adjacent rivets in line with the direction of stress shall not
74
C. The distance between the centres of two adjacent rivets in line with the direction of stress shall not
exceed 12 t or 203 mm whichever is less in compression members
D. All the above
A. d is the distance between flange angles or the clear distance between flanges
B. vertical stiffeners are spaced at a distance not greater than 1.5 d and not less than 0.33 d
C. for horizontal stiffeners, d is the clear distance between the horizontal stiffener and the tension flange
D. all the above
B. 2.5%
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one direction,
is______________?
A. 35
B. 25
C. 30
D. 20
the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept The diameter of_____________?
The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end and
intermediate spans is kept______________?
A. 0.7
B. 0.8
C. 0.9
D. 0.6
In case the factor of safety against sliding is less than 1.5, a portion of slab is constructed downwards
at the end of the heel slab, which is known as___________________?
75
A. A key
B. A cut-off wall
C. A rib
D. All the above
Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally not used for bars of size larger
than______________?
A. 18 mm diameter
B. 24 mm diameter
C. 30 mm diameter
D. 36 mm diameter
According to I.S. : 456, slabs which span in two directions with corners held down, are assumed to be
divided in each direction into middle strips and edge strips such that the width of the middle strip,
is______________?
If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing generally
adopted, is__________________?
A. Square
B. Rectangular
C. Trapezoidal
D. Triangular
Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of the same size should not be less
than________________?
A. One diameter
B. 2.5 diameters
C. 3 diameters
D. 3.5 diameters
A. Straight
B. Dog legged
C. Geometrical
D. Open newel
An R.C.C. beam of 6 m span is 30 cm wide and has a lever arm of 55 cm. If it carries a U.D.L. of 12 t per
m and allowable shear stress is 5 kg/cm2, the beam________________?
A. Is safe in shear
B. Is safe with stirrups
C. Is safe with stirrups and inclined bars
D. Needs revision of section
Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least lateral
dimension_______________?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times
A. Its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
B. Large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
C. Removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
D. All the above
If is the net upward pressure on a square footing of side for a square column of side , the maximum
bending moment is given by_________________?
A. B.M = pb (c – a)/4
B. B.M = pb (b – a)²/4
C. B.M = pb (b – a)²/8
D. B.M = pb (b + a)/8
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Tensile reinforcement bars of a rectangular
beam_______________?
The minimum thickness of the cover at the end of a reinforcing bar should not be less than twice the
diameter of the bar subject to a minimum of___________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm
The maximum permissible size of aggregates to be used in casting the ribs of a slab,
is______________?
A. 5 mm
B. 7.5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 15 mm
Top bars are extended to the projecting parts of the combined footing of two columns Ldistance apart
for a distance of_______________?
is the pre- stressed force applied to tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of cross
section is and sectional modulus is . The minimum stress on the beam subjected to a maximum
bending moment is________________?
A. f = (P/A) – (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) – (M/Z)
78
C. f = (P/A) – (M/Z)
D. f = (P/A) – (M/6Z)
A. (1 – C) mf – eE
B. (C – 1)mf + eE
C. (C – 1)mf – eE
D. (1 – C)mf + eE
An R.C.C. lintel is spanning an opening of 2 m span in a brick wall. The height of the roof is 2.9 m
above the floor level and that of the opening is 2.1 m above the floor level. The lintel is to be designed
for self weight plus_______________?
A. Greater of 40 mm or diameter
B. Smaller of 40 mm or diameter
C. Greater of 25 mm or diameter
D. Smaller of 25 mm or diameter
The design of heel slab of a retaining wall is based on the maximum bending moment due
to______________?
An R.C.C beam of 25 cm width has a clear span of 5 metres and carries a U.D.L. of 2000 kg/m inclusive
of its self weight. If the lever arm of the section is 45 cm., the beam is__________________?
. Safe in shear
A. Circular
B. Square
C. Octagonal
D. Square with corners chamfered
Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard length by
providing_______________?
mutually perpendicular principal stresses acting on a soil mass, the normal stress If p1 and p2
are________________?
A. [(p – p p p to the principal plane carrying the principal stress p1, is:
sin 2
B. [(p – p p p cos 2
C. [(p p p – p cos 2
D. [(p p p – p /2] sin 2
carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at two A pile of length points, the
maximum, B.M. at the centre of the pile or at the points of suspension, is_________________?
A. WL/8
B. WL²/24
C. WL²/47
D. WL²/16
If is the uniformly distributed load on a circular slab of radius maximum positive radial moment at its
centre, is__________________?
80
A. 3WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. WR²/16
D. None of these
If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 10, the stiffness of the beam will
ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a__________________?
For M 150 grade concrete (1:2:4) the moment of resistance factor is_________________?
A. 0.87
B. 8.50
C. 7.50
D. 5.80
If the bearing capacity of soil is 10 tonnes/cm2 and the projection of plain concrete footing from walls,
is a cm, the depth D of footing is_______________?
A. D = 0.0775 a
B. D = 0.775 a
C. D = 0.775 a
D. D = 0.775 a2
A. Shrinkage of concrete
B. Elastic shortening of concrete
C. Creep of concrete
D. All the above
81
If R and T are rise and tread of a stair spanning horizontally, the steps are supported by a wall on one
side and by a stringer beam on the other side, the steps are designed as beams of
width_______________?
A. R + T
B. T – R
C. 2 + T2)
D. R – T
If p1 and P2 are effective lateral loadings at the bottom and top exerted by a level earth subjected to
a super-load on the vertical face of height h of a retaining wall, the horizontal pressure p per unit
length of the wall, is____________________?
A. [( – )/2] h
B. [( + )/4] h
C. [( + )/2] h
D. ( – h
Long and short spans of a two way slab are l and l and load on the slab acting on strips parallel to lx
and ly be wx and wy respectively. Accordingy to xRankine Grashoff theory___________________?
A. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)
B. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)²
C. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)4
D. None of these
In the zone of R.C.C. beam where shear stress is less than 5 kg/cm2, nominal reinforcement is
provided at a pitch of________________?
on a circular slab of radius , the maximum radial moment at the centre of the If is the load slab, is
WR²/16_____________?
A. 2WR²/16
B. 3WR²/16
C. 5WR²/16
D> NON OF THESE
If the permissible compressive and tensile stresses in a singly reinforced beam are 50 kg/cm2 and
1400 kg/cm2 respectively and the modular ratio is 18, the percentage area At of the steel required for
an economic section, is__________________?
A. 0.496 %
B. 0.596 %
C. 0.696 %
The modular ratio m of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is C, may be obtained from
the equation.
A. m = 700/3C
B. m = 1400/3C
C. m = 2800/3C
D. m = 3500/3C
If A is the area of the foundation of a retaining wall carrying a load W and retaining earth of weight w
per unit volume, the minimum depth (h) of the foundation from the free surface of the earth, is )/(1 +
sin )]_________________?
A. h = (W/Aw) [(1 –
B. h = (W/Aw) [(1 + )/(1 + sin )]
C. h = (W/Aw) [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]²
D. h W/Aw) [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]²
Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as_____________?
A. Drop panel
B. Column head
C. Top of the column
D. None of these
83
The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective depth
by_____________?
A. Three times
B. Four times
C. Five times
D. Six times
If is the sectional area of a pre-stressed rectangular beam provided with a tendon pre -stressed by a
force through its centroidal longitudinal axis, the compressive stress in concrete, is_______________?
A. P/A
B. A/P
C. P/2A
D. 2A/P
Side face reinforcement shall be provided in the beam when depth of the web in a beam
exceeds_____________?
A. 50 cm
B. 75 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 120 cm
A. 200 cm
B. 205 cm
C. 210 cm
D. 230 cm
If q is the punching shear resistance per unit area a, is the side of a square footing for a column of side
b, carrying a weight W including the weight of the footing, the depth D. of the footing from punching
shear consideration, is____________________?
A. D = W (a – b)/4a²bq
B. D = W (a² – b²)/4a²bq
C. D = W (a² – b²)/8a²bq
D. D = W (a² – b²)/4abq
84
If the length of a combined footing for two columns l metres apart is L and the projection on the left
side of the exterior column is x, then the projection y on the right side of the exterior column, in order
to have a uniformly distributed load, is (where is the distance of centre of gravity of column
loads______________?
A. y = L – (l – ) )
B. y = L/2 + (l –
C. y = L/2 – (l + )
D. y = L/2 – (l – )
A. Is increased by PZ/e
B. Is increased by Pe/Z
C. Is decreased by Pe/Z
D. Remains unchanged
A. 150 KN/mm2
B. 200 KN/mm2
C. 250 KN/mm2
D. 275 KN/mm2
Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height h acts parallel to free surface and from
the base at a distance of_____________________?
A. h /4
B. h/3
C. h/2
D. 2h/3
A. 1/15th of span
B. 1/20th of span
C. 1/25th of span
D. 1/30th of span
85
A pre-stressed rectangular beam which carries two concentrated loads W at L/3 from either end, is
provided with a bent tendon with tension P such that central one-third portion of the tendon remains
parallel to the longitudinal axis, the maximum dip h is_____________________?
A. WL/P
B. WL/2P
C. WL/3P
D. WL/4P
Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to prevent the corners
from lifting, is made by_________________?
A. Rankine formula
B. Marcus formula
C. Rankine Grashoff formula
D. Grashoff formula
Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a distance greater
than____________?
A. Monolithic character
B. Fire-resisting and durability
C. Economy because of less maintenance cost
D. All the above
An R.C.C. column is treated as short column if its slenderness ratio is less than_______________?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 50
The allowable tensile stress in mild steel stirrups, reinforced cement concrete, is_______________?
86
A. 1400 kg/cm2
B. 190 kg/cm2
C. 260 kg/cm2
D. 230 kg/cm2
A. 3 cm to 5 cm
B. 5 cm to 8 cm
C. 8 cm to 10 cm
D. 12 cm to 15 cm
If the length of an intermediate span of a continuous slab is 5m, the length of the end span is
kept_______________?
A. 4.5 m
B. 4.0 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 3.0 m
A. Tangent is equal to the rate of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane
to the normal pressure acting on the plane
B. Sine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane to the
normal pressure acting on the plane
C. Cosine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance sliding on any internal inclined plane to the
normal pressure acting on the plane
D. None of these
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two directions,
is_________________?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40
If the loading on a pre-stressed rectangular beam, is uniformly distributed, the tendon to be provided
should be_______________?
If the maximum dip of a parabolic tendon carrying tension P is h and the effective length of the pre-
stressed beam is L, the upward uniform pressure will be________________?
87
A. 8hp/ l
B. 8hp/l²
C. 8hl/p
D. 8hl/p²
If depth of slab is 10 cm, width of web 30 cm, depth of web 50 cm, centre to centre distance of beams
3 m, effective span of beams 6 m, the effective flange width of the beam, is________________?
A. 200 cm
B. 300 cm
C. 150 cm
D. 100 cm
For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to its overall
depth does not exceed________________?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
A. Stainless
B. Mild steel
C. High carbon steel
D. High tension steel
Pick up the assumption for the design of a pre-stressed concrete member from the
following_______________?
If the ratio of long and short spans of a two way slab with corners held down is r, the actual reduction
of B.M. is given by
A. 10 %
B. 15 %
C. 20 %
D. 25 %
A singly reinforced beam has breadth b, effective depth d, depth of neutral axis n and critical neutral
axis n1. If fc and ft are permissible compressive and tensile stresses, the moment to resistance of the
beam, is____________________?
A. bn (fc/2) (d – n/3)
B. Atft (d – n/3)
C. ½ n1 (1 – n1/3) cbd²
D. All the above
A part of the slab may be considered as the flange of the T-beam if__________________?
per unit run exerted by the Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height retained
earth weighing per unit volume, is___________________?
According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is kept
less than______________?
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
A. Nil
B. 75 kg/m3
C. 150 kg/m 2
D. 200 kg/cm 2
If longitudinally spanning stairs are casted along with their landings, the maximum bending moment
per metre width, is taken as___________________?
A. wl²/4
B. wl²/8
C. wl²/10
D. wl²/12
If Ac, Asc and A are areas of concrete, longitudinal steel and section of a R.C.C. column and m and c
are the modular ratio and maximum stress in the configuration of concrete, the strength of column
is______________?
A. cAc + m cAsc
B. c(A – Asc) + m cAsc
C. c[A + (m – 1)ASC]
D. All the above
The diameter of transverse reinforcement of columns should be equal to one-fourth of the diameter
of the main steel rods but not less than________________?
A. 4 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 7 mm
If P kg/m2 is the upward pressure on the slab of a plain concrete footing whose projection on either
side of the wall is a cm, the depth of foundation D is given by________________?
A. D = 0.00775 aP
B. D = 0.0775 aP
C. D = 0.07775 aP
D. D = 0.775 Pa
For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and intermediate span
length, is____________________?
A. 0.6
B. 0.7
C. 0.8
D. 0.9
B. Greater than 4 kg/cm2, but less than 20 kg/cm2, shear reinforcement is provided
A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 0.70
D. 0.75
A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if its neutral
axis______________?
A reinforced concrete cantilever beam is 3.6 m long, 25 cm wide and has its lever arm 40 cm. It carries
a load of 1200 kg at its free end and vertical stirrups can carry 1800 kg. Assuming concrete to carry
one-third of the diagonal tension and ignoring the weight of the beam, the number of shear stirrups
required, is___________________?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 45
A. A plain ceiling
B. Thermal insulation
91
C. Acoustic insulation
D. All the above
To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of length L equals
the sagging moment at its centre, the distances of the points of suspension from either end,
is________________?
A. 0.107 L
B. 0.207 L
C. 0.307 L
D. 0.407 L
For the design of a simply supported T-beam the ratio of the effective span to the overall depth of the
beam is limited to______________?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 20
is the pre-stressed force applied to the tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of cross
section is and sectional modulus is . The maximum stress in the beam, subjected to a maximum
bending moment , is_________________?
A. f = (P/A) + (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) + (M/Z)
C. f = (P/A) + (M/Z)
D. f = (P/A) + (M/6Z)
The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25 cm width and 70 cm
effective depth, are 62.5 kg/cm2 and 250 kg/cm 2 respectively. If m = 15, the depth of its neutral axis
is_______________?
A. 20 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 35 cm
A. Is greater than the depth of critical neutral axis, the concrete attains its maximum stress earlier
B. Is less than the depth of critical neutral axis, the steel in the tensile zone attains its maximum stress
earlier
C. Is equal to the depth of critical neutral axis; the concrete and steel attain their maximum stresses
simultaneously
D. All the above
A. 12 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 22 mm
A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension,
exceeds_________________?
B. 15
A. 6 cm to 7.5 cm
B. 8 cm to 10 cm
C. 10 cm to 12 cm
D. 12 cm to 15 cm
If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main bars
is_____________?
A. 10 mm
B. 12 mm
C. 14 mm
D. 16 mm
The stem of a cantilever retaining wall which retains earth level with top is 6 m. If the angle of repose
and weight of the soil per cubic metre are 30° and 2000 kg respectively, the effective width of the
stem at the bottom, is_______________?
A. 51.5
B. 52.5
C. 53.5
D. 54.5
93
Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes, should not be less
than________________?
A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided with 18.75
cm2 steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is_________________?
A. 20 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 35 cm
In testing a pile by load test, pile platform is loaded with one and half times the design load and a
maximum settlement is noted. The load is gradually removed and the consequent rebound is
measured. For a safe pile, the net settlement (i.e. total settlement minus rebound) per tonne of test
load should not exceed________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm
An intermediate T-beam reinforced with two layers of tensile steel with clear cover 13 cm encasted
with the floor of a hall 12 metres by 7 metres, is spaced at 3 metres from adjoining beams and if the
width of the beam is 20 cm, the breadth of the flange is__________________?
A. 300 cm
B. 233 cm
C. 176 cm
D. 236 cm
The diameter of main bars in R.C.C. columns, shall not be less than________________?
D. 12 mm
Based on punching shear consideration, the overall depth of a combined footing under a column A,
is_______________?
In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided
are______________?
A. 6 legged
B. 8 legged
C. 10 legged
D. 12 legged
If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at the centre of
the slab, is________________?
A. WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. 3WR²/16
D. Zero
A. 2200 kg/m3
B. 2300 kg/m3
C. 2400 kg/m3
D. 2500 kg/m3
A retaining wall and is the horizontal earth pressure, the factor of safety If is weight of against sliding,
is_____________?
A. 1.0
B. 1.25
C. 1.5
D. 2.0
With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by______________?
A. mc/t = (d – n)/n
B. t/mc = (d – n)/n
C. t/mc = (d + n)/n
D. mc/t = n/ (d – n)
If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 16 m effective span is 10
kg/cm2, the length of the beam having nominal reinforcement, is________________?
95
A. 8 cm
B. 6 m
C. 8 m
D. 10 m
If the length of a wall on either side of a lintel opening is at least half of its effective span L, the load W
carried by the lintel is equivalent to the weight of brickwork contained in an equilateral triangle,
producing a maximum bending moment____________________?
A. WL/2
B. WL/4
C. WL/6
D. WL/8
The section of a reinforced beam where most distant concrete fibre in compression and tension in
steel attains permissible stresses simultaneously, is called_________________?
A. Balanced section
B. Economic section
C. Critical section
D. All the above
The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than bar diameter x (Permissible stress
in bar / Five times the bond stress) or____________________?
A. 12 bar diameters
B. 18 bar diameters
C. 24 bar diameters
D. 30 bar diameters
In a doubly-reinforced beam if and the effective depth and is depth of critical neutral axis, the
following relationship holds good______________?
A. mc/t = n/(d – n)
B. (m + c)/t = n/(d + n)
C. (t + c)/n = (d + n)/n
D. mc/t = (d – n)/t
96
The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as prestressing
tendons, is known as________________?
A. Freyssinet system
B. Magnel-Blaton system
C. C.C.L. standard system
D. Lee-McCall system
The angle of repose of a soil is the maximum angle which the outer face of the soil mass
makes_______________?
A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by______________?
A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 40 %
D. 50 %
A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to overall depth,
is______________?
A. 2.5
B. 2.0
C. Less than 2
D. Less than 2.5
A. 100 kg/cm2
B. 200 kg/cm2
C. 300 kg/cm2
D. 400 kg/cm2
A. wh (1 – cos )/(1 + ) p2 is
B. wh (1 – sin )/(1 + ) )
C. wh (1 – tan )/(1 +
D. w (1 – cos )/h (1 + sin )
According to I.S. 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is kept
less than______________?
A. 20 cm
B. 30 cm
An R.C.C. beam of 25 cm width and 50 cm effective depth has a clear span of 6 metres and carries a
U.D.L. of 3000 kg/m inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm constant for the section is 0.865, the
maximum intensity of shear stress, is_______________?
A. 8.3 kg/cm2
B. 7.6 kg/cm2
C. 21.5 kg/cm 2
D. 11.4 kg/cm2
If the permissible compressive stress for a concrete in bending is C kg/m2, the modular ratio
is_____________?
A. 2800/C
B. 2300/2C
C. 2800/3C
D. 2800/C2
Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than_______________?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 6 m
A. 0.15 %
B. 1.5 %
C. 4 %
D. 1 %
For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to
maximum positive radial moment, is___________________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area in slabs, is________________?
A. 0.10 %
B. 0.12 %
C. 0.15 %
D. 0.18 %
According to I.S. : 456 specifications, the safe diagonal tensile stress for M 150 grade concrete,
is_____________?
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm 2
C. 15 kg/cm2
D. 20 kg/cm2
If K is a constant depending upon the ratio of the width of the slab to its effective span l, x is the
distance of the concentrated load from the nearer support, bw is the width of the area of contact of
the concentrated load measured parallel to the supported edge, the effective width of the slab be
is_______________?
A. K/x (1 + x/d) + bw
B. Kx (1 – x/l) + bw
The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook, should be at
least_______________?
If is the overall height of a retaining wall retaining a surcharge, the width of the base slab usually
provided, is________________?
A. 0.3 H
B. 0.4 H
C. 0.5 H
D. 0.7 H
A. 4d
B. 8d
C. 12d
D. 16d
A. Less than 6
B. Equal to 6
C. Not less than 6
D. Equal to 7
For M 150 mix concrete, according to I.S. specifications, local bond stress, is_________________?
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm 2
C. 15 kg/cm2
D. 20 kg/cm2
A. 5% of wall weight
B. 7% of wall weight
C. 10% of wall weight
D. 12% of wall weight
If the diameter of longitudinal bars of a square column is 16 mm, the diameter of lateral ties should
not be less than____________________?A. 4 mm
B. 5 mm
In a combined footing if shear stress does not exceed 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided
are________________?
A. 6 legged
B. 8 legged
C. 10 legged
D. 12 legged
100
The maximum shear stress (q) in concrete of a reinforced cement concrete beam is_____________?
D. 50
If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 6 m effective span is 10
kg/cm2, the share stirrups are provided for a distance from either end where, is________________?
A. 50 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 150 cm
D. 200 cm
A. A circular curve
B. A straight line
C. A parabolic curve
D. An elliptical curve
In a singly reinforced beam, if the permissible stress in concrete reaches earlier than that in steel, the
beam section is called________________?
A. Under-reinforced section
B. Over reinforced section
C. Economic section
D. Critical section
Design of R.C.C. simply supported beams carrying U.D.L. is based on the resultant B.M.
at________________?
A. Supports
B. Mid span
C. Every section
D. Quarter span
101
A. Fixed end
B. Free end
C. Mid span
D. Mid span and fixed support
A. Load
B. Temperature stress
C. Shrinkage stress
D. All the above
If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns, are_____________?
A. Continued up
B. Bent inward at the floor level
C. Stopped just below the floor level and separate lap bars provided
D. All the above
A. Rectangular columns is 4
B. Circular columns is 6
C. Octagonal columns is 8
D. All the above
A short column 20 cm × 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross section is 20 sq.
cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40 kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2, the Safe
load on the column, should not exceed_______________?
A. 4120 kg
B. 41,200 kg
A. 2R + T = 60
B. R + 2 T = 60
C. 2R + T = 30
D. R + 2 T = 30
For stairs spanning l metres longitudinally between supports at the bottom and top of a flight carrying
a load w per unit horizontal area, the maximum bending moment per metre width,
is_______________?
A. wl²/4
B. wl²/8
102
C. wl²/12
D. wl²/16
In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its compression edge
to_________________?
A. Tensile edge
B. Tensile reinforcement
C. Neutral axis of the beam
D. Longitudinal central axis
Though the effective depth of a T-beam is the distance between the top compression edge to the
centre of the tensile reinforcement, for heavy loads, it is taken as__________________?
A. 80 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 120 cm
D. 140 cm
In a pre-stressed beam carrying an external load W with a bent tendon is having angle of -stressed
load P. The net downward load at the centre is_________________?
A. W – 2P
B. W – P
C. W – P
D. W – 2P
D. 12 mm
To have pressure wholly compressive under the base of a retaining wall of width b, the resultant of
the weight of the wall and the pressure exerted by the retained, earth should have eccentricity not
more than________________?
103
A. b/3
B. b/4
C. b/5
D. b/6
A. On beams
B. On columns
C. On beams and columns
D. On columns monolithically built with slab
A. Is made of concrete
B. Is made of reinforced concrete
C. Is stressed after casting
D. Possesses internal stresses
If permissible working stresses in steel and concrete are respectively 1400 kg/cm2 and 80 kg/cm2 and
modular ratio is 18, in a beam reinforced in tension side and of width 30 cm and having effective
depth 46 cm, the lever arms of the section, is______________?
A. 37 cm
B. 38 cm
104
C. 39 cm
D. 40 cm
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at the A pile of length centre and
from other two points 0.15 L from either end ; the maximum hogging moment will
be_______________?
A. WL²/15
B. WL²/30
C. WL²/60
D. WL²/90
A. Is dry
C. Is not cohesive
B. No restriction on length
A. 4 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm
105
A. Rise
B. Flight
C. Winder
D. Tread
If the average bending stress is 6 kg/cm2 for M 150 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a bar
of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications, is__________________?
A. 28 d
B. 38 d
C. 48 d
D. 58 d
In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging bending
moment occurs at
A. Nil
B. 75 kg/m2
C. 150 kg/cm 2
D. 200 kg/m2
If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the span in two
directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and average of the negative
bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab, should not be less
than________________?
A. WL/12 (L – 2D/3)²
B. WL/10 (L + 2D/3)²
C. WL/10 (L – 2D/3)²
D. WL/12 (L – D/3)²
If a bent tendon is required to balance a concentrated load W at the centre of the span L, the central
dip h must be at least________________?
A. WL /P
B. WL/2P
C. WL/3P
D. WL/4P
The radius of a bar bend to form a hook, should not be less than_______________?
A. Semi-hemisphere
B. Ellipsoid
C. Paraboloid
D. None of these
The reinforced concrete beam which has width 25 cm, lever arm 40 cm, shear force 6t/cm2, safe shear
stress 5 kg/cm2 and B.M. 24 mt________________?
A. Is safe in shear
B. Is unsafe in shear
C. Is over safe in shear
D. Needs redesigning
If a rectangular pre-stressed beam of an effective span of 5 meters and carrying a total load 3840
kg/m, is designed by the load balancing method, the central dip of the parabolic tendon should
be_________________?
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
107
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
If the effective length of a 32 cm diameter R.C.C. column is 4.40 m, its slenderness ratio,
is_______________?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55
The anchorage value of a hook is assumed sixteen times the diameter of the bar if the angle of the
bend, is___________________?
A. 30°
B. 40°
C. 45°
D. All the above
A. Vertical shear
B. Horizontal shear
C. Diagonal compression
D. Diagonal tension
A simply supported beam 6 m long and of effective depth 50 cm, carries a uniformly distributed load
2400 kg/m including its self weight. If the lever arm factor is 0.85 and permissible tensile stress of
steel is 1400 kg/cm2, the area of steel required, is___________________?
A. 14 cm 2
B. 15 cm2
C. 16 cm2
D. 17 cm2
The minimum cube strength of concrete used for a pre-stressed member, is________________?
A. 50 kg/cm2
B. 150 kg/cm 2
C. 250 kg/cm2
D. 350 kg/cm2
If Sb, is the average bond stress on a bar of diameter subjected to maximum stress , the length of the
embedment is given by_____________?
A. l = dt/Sb
B. l = dt/2Sb
C. l = dt/3Sb
D. l = dt/4Sb
effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced If d and n are the
beam, the lever arm of the beam, is_________________?
A. d
B. n
C. d + n/3
D. d – n/3
bending moment of a simply supported slab is M Kg.cm, the effective depth of the If the maximum
slab is (where Q is M.R. factor)________________?
A. M/100Q
B. M/ Q
C. M/Q)
D. (M/100Q)
If the sides of a slab simply supported on edges and spanning in two directions are equal, the
maximum bending moment is multiplied by_________________?
A. 0.2
B. 0.3
C. 0.4
D. 0.5
The width of the flange of a T-beam, which may be considered to act effectively with the rib depends
upon____________________?
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intensity of horizontal shear stress at the
elemental part of a beam section, is directly proportional to__________________?
A. Shear force
B. Area of the section
C. Distance of the C.G. of the area from its neutral axis
D. Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis
A. A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong strata
B. A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil
C. A pile is a slender member which transfers its load by friction
D. A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the load at a depth greater than its width
A. 10 kg/cm2
B. 15 kg/cm2
C. 20 kg/cm2
D. 25 kg/cm2
The length of lap in tension reinforcement should not be less than the bar diameter × (actual tension /
four times the permissible average bond stress) if it is more than_______________?
A. 18 bar diameters
B. 24 bar diameters
C. 30 bar diameters
D. 36 bar diameters
For a number of columns constructed in a rcjw, the type of foundation provided, is_______________?
A. Footing
B. Raft
C. Strap
D. Strip
If the modular ratio is , steel ratio is and overall depth of a beam is , the depth of the critical neutral
axis of the beam, is___________________?
A. [m/(m – r)] d
B. [m/(m + r)] d
C. [(m + r)/ m] d
D. [(r – m)/m] d
A. In the stem of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided near the earth side
B. In the toe slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the bottom of the slab
C. In the heel slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the top of the slab
D. None of these
A. Lateral reinforcement in R.C.C. columns is provided to prevent the longitudinal reinforcement from
buckling
B. Lateral reinforcement prevents the shearing of concrete on diagonal plane
C. Lateral reinforcement stops breaking away of concrete cover, due to buckling
D. All the above
A. 120 mm
B. 160 mm
111
C. 200 mm
D. 300 mm
When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected
to________________?
Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on_________________?
When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded rivet will be the
one which________________?
where, Fa is the load shared by each rivet due to axial load and Fm is the shearing load due to moment in
any rivet
The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm diameter
is__________________?
A. 1.0 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 2.0 mm
D. 2.5 mm
If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per Unwin’s
formula will be__________________?
A. 16 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 24 mm
D. 27 mm
A. ISMB
B. ISLB
C. ISHB
D. ISWB
Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?
A. lap joint
B. butt joint with single cover plate
C. butt joint with double cover plates
D. none of the above
In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base plate,
then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate__________________?
By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be avoided ?
C. shear failure of the plate
A. silt
B. clay
C. coarse sand
D. fine sand
If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as_______________?
113
A. loess
B. talus
C. drift
D. dune sand
A. glaciers
B. wind
C. water
D. none of the above
A. 0<n<100
B. 0<n0
D. n<0
A. S>0
B. S<0
C. 0<S<100
D. 0 < S < 100
When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents______________?
B. two phase system with soil and air
A. lD>0
B. ID>0
C. 0 < lD < 1
D. 0 < ID < 1
114
If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity and
voids ratio respectively are________________?
If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample
is________________?
A. 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 0.95
D. 1.20
Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil ?
A. air content
B. porosity
C. percentage air voids
D. voids ratio
If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil
is______________?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 100%
If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is_____________?
A. zero
B. 1
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1
115
For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination of
water content of a soil mass ?
A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil
is_______________?
A. 18.6 kN/m3
B. 20.0 kN/m3
C. 22.0 kN/m3
D. 23.2 kN/m3
A. effective size
B. uniformity coefficient
C. coefficient of curvature
D. none of the above
The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly
in_____________?
According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI
is____________?
A. 0 < PI < 7
B. 7<PI< 17
C. 17<PI27
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. clayey silt
When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is reported
as_____________?B. zero
The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes______________?
The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state, is
known as_________________?
A. liquid limit
B. plastic limit
C. shrinkage limit
D. plasticity index
If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass is
said to be in______________?
A. liquid state
B. plastic state
C. semi-solid state
D. solid state
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. gravel
If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste
drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then______________?
A. MH
B. SL
C. ML
D. CH
A. rock minerals
The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is_______________?
A. kaolinite
B. illite
C. montmorillonite
The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are
respectively__________________?
A. type of sand
Rise of water table above the ground surface causes________________?
A. effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does not change
B. effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does not
change
C. total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effec-tive stress does not change
D. total stress is increased due to de-crease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not change
A. 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
B. 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
C. 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
D. 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
A. viscosity only
B. unit weight only
C. both viscosity and unit weight
D. none of the above
The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m, specific
gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to_______________?
A. 1.0m
B. 1.5 m
C. 2.0 m
D. 3m
B. sand
Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of coarse-grained
soils ?
Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of clayey soil ?
120
Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced to
60% and 90% respectively. If other things remain constant, the coefficient of
permeability__________________?
A. increases by 25%
B. increases by 50%
C. increases by 33.3%
D. decreases by 33.3%
The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is_________________?
Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its boundary
is______________?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 16
The flownet for an earthen dam with 30 m water depth consists of 25 potential drops and 5 flow
channels. The coefficient of permeability of dam material is 0.03 mm/sec. The discharge per meter
length of dam is________________?
A. 0.00018 nrVsec
B. 0.0045 m3/sec
C. 0.18m3/sec
D. 0.1125m3/sec
The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of_______________?
The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is______________?
121
A. 0.028
B. 0.28
A. a gradual increase in neutral pressure and a gradual decrease in effective pressure takes place and sum
of the two is constant
B. a gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a gradual increase in effective pressure takes place
and sum of the two is constant
C. both neutral pressure and effective pressure decrease
D. both neutral pressure and effective pressure increase
The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is________________?
A. compressibility
B. permeability
C. both compressibility and permeability
D. none of the above
A. a dimensional parameter
B. directly proportional to permeability of soil
C. inversely proportional to drainage path
D. independent of thickness of clay layer
Clay layer A with single drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to achieve 50%
consolidation. The time taken by clay layer B of the same thickness with double drainage and
coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the same degree of consolidation is_________________?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
A. drum roller
B. rubber tyred roller
C. sheep’s foot roller
D. vibratory roller
The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon____________?
A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from 100 kN/m2 to
200 kN/ m2. If the effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/ m2 to 400 kN/ m2, then the
settlement of the same clay is__________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 40 mm
D. none of the above
For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective
stress_____________?
For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are compacted
respectively as____________________?
124
A. 1
B. zero
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1
A. effective stress increases with depth but water content of soil and un-drained strength decrease with
depth
B. effective stress and water content increase with depth but undrained strength decreases with depth
C. effective stress and undrained strength increase with depth but water content decreases with
depth
D. effective stress, water content and undrained strength decrease with depth
A. undrained test
B. drained test
C. consolidated undrained test
D. consolidated drained test
A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of 100kN/m2 when it was
laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at an angle of 45°. The
values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are
respectively______________________?
If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the cracks to
the horizontal is__________________?
A. 90°
B. 45°
C. 22.5°
D. 0°
If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes
is________________?
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 135°
D. 225°
In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e. application of cell
pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant cell
pressure), the test is known as__________________?
The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction of 30°
is___________________?
A. 1/3
B. 3
C. 1
D. 1/2
During the first stage of triaxial test when the cell pressure is increased from 0.10 N/mm2 to 0.26
N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases from 0.07 N/mm2 to 0.15 “N/mm2. Skempton’s pore
pressure parameter B is___________________?
A. 0.5
B. -0.5
126
C. 2.0
D. – 2.0
In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e. deviator stress) on the
soil specimen produces shear stress on__________________?
The angle that Coulomb’s failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called________________?
A. cohesion
B. angle of internal friction
C. angle of repose
D. none of the above
Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is_______________?
The major principal stress in an element of cohesionless soil within the backfill of a retaining wall
is________________?
A retaining wall 6m high supports a backfill with a surcharge angle of 10°. The back of the wall is
inclined to the vertical at a positive batter angle of 5°. If the angle of wall friction is 7°, then the
resultant active earth pressure will act at a distance of 2 m above the base and inclined to the
horizontal at an angle of_________________?
A. 7°
B. 10°
C. 12°
D. 17°
A. is more conservative
B. neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
127
A. reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
B. increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
C. reduce the active earth pressure in-tensity but to increase the passive earth pressure intensity
D. increase the active earth pressure in-tensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure intensity
A. less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressure
B. greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressure
C. greater than both the active earth
Terzaghi’s general bearing capacity formula for a strip footing (C Nc + y D Nq + 0.5 Y NTB.
gives______________?
Y =unit weight of soil D = depth of foundation B = width of foundation N„ Nq, NY = bearing capacity
factors
In the plate loading test for determining the bearing capacity of soil, the size of square bearing plate
should be_________________?
A 600 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in plate load test on a cohesionless soil under an
intensity of loading of 0.2 N/ram2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under
the same intensity of loading is_______________?
A. 15 mm
B. between 15 mm and 25 mm
128
C. 25 mm
D. greater than 25 mm
A. cohesion only
B. angle of internal friction only
C. both cohesion and angle of internal friction
D. none of the above
The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of soil mainly by
reducing_______________?
A 300 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in a plate load test on a cohesive soil when the
intensity of loading is 0.2 N/mm2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under
the same intensity of loading is___________________?
A. 15 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 167 mm
Rise of water table in cohesionless soils upto ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing capacity
approximately by________________?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
A. Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load
In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample during
shear________________?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unchanged
D. first increases and then decreases
A. A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil
B. A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil
130
A. Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve
B. For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity
C. A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
D. none of the above
A. Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil
B. For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight
C. Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water
D. Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water
A. discharge
B. velocity of gas
C. pressure intensity of gas
D. pressure intensity of liquid
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C
D. 100°C
E. 20°C.
Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called ________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension
The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as________________?
A. compressibility
B. surface tension
C. cohesion
D. adhesion
E. viscosity.
131
When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to
be____________________?
A. quasi static
B. steady state
C. laminar
D. uniform
E. static.
The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if_________________?
A. it is incompressible
B. it has uniform viscosity
C. it has zero viscosity
D. it is frictionless
E. it is at rest.
An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of ‘g’ at this place
is___________________?
A. 10m/sec2
B. 9.81 m/sec2
C. 10.2/m sec
D. 9.75 m/sec2
E. 9 m/sec .
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. more or less depending on size of glass tube
E. none of the above.
For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids __________________?
A. remains same
B. increases
132
C. decreases
D. shows erratic behaviour
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. higher/lower depending on temperature
E. unpredictable.
The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and temperature in
kg/cm is equal to _________________?
A. 1000
B. 2100
C. 2700
D. 10,000
E. 21,000.
A. acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
B. is also known as capillarity
C. is a function of the curvature of the interface
D. decreases with fall in temperature
E. has no units
A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at
150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is _________________?
A. 400 kg/cm2
B. 4000 kg/cm2
C. 40 x 105 kg/cm2
D. 40 x 106 kg/cm2
E. none of the above
A. energy/unit area
B. distance
C. both of the above
D. it has no units
E. none of the above
A. surface tension
B. adhesion
C. cohesion
D. viscosity
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C D. 20°C
E. all temperature
A. specific viscosity
B. viscosity index
C. kinematic viscosity
D. coefficient of viscosity
E. coefficient of compressibility
A. pascal
B. poise
C. stoke
D. faraday
E. none of the above
Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains ________________?
A. dissolved air
B. dissolved salt
C. suspended matter
D. all of the above
E. heavy water
Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
_________________?
A. surface tension
B. viscosity
C. friction
D. cohesion
E. adhesion
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility
135
If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then the
free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be_________________?
The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5
m below the water level will be____________________?
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
E. 4000 kg.
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it
volume is under mercury ?
A. pressure
B. flow
C. shape
D. volume
E. temperature
136
A. volumetric strain
B. volumetric index
C. compressibility
D. adhesion
E. cohesion
A. incompressible
B. inviscous
C. viscous and incompressible
D. inviscous and compressible
E. inviscous and incompressible
Practical fluids____________________?
A. are viscous
B. possess surface tension
C. are compressible
D. possess all the above properties
E. possess none of the above properties
A. fluid
B. water
C. gas
D. perfect solid
E. ideal fluid
Liquids________________?
137
A. cannot be compressed
B. occupy definite volume
C. are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
D. GO are not viscous
E. none of the above
A. 1
B. 1000
C. 100
D. 101.9
E. 91
Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as_________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility
Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is
called________________?
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension
A. 1000 N/m3
B. 10000 N/m3
C. 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
D. 9.81 xlO6N/m3
E. 9.81 N/m3
A. specific weight
B. specific volume
C. specific speed
D. specific gravity
E. specific viscosity
138
The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the fluid
is________________?
A. moving
B. viscous
C. viscous and static
D. inviscous and moving
E. viscous and moving
A. cohesion
B. adhesion
C. viscosity
D. surface tension
E. elasticity
A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shear stress
D. bending stress
E. all of the above
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. increases first upto certain limit and then decreases
E. unpredictable
A. law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. principle of buoyancy
D. all of the above
In a static fluid__________________?
A perfect gas_________________?
A. newtons/m
B. newtons/m
C. new tons/m
D. newtons
E. newton m
A. linear
B. parabolic
C. hyperbolic
D. inverse type
E. none of the above
A. pressure
B. distance
C. level
D. flow
E. density
A. Red wood
B. Say bolt
C. Engler
D. Orsat
E. none of the above
A. MlL°T2
B. MlL°Tx
C. MlL r2
D. MlL2T2
E. MlL°t
If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be following cm
of water___________________?
A. 51 cm
If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the surface, then pressure
intensity at that point will be____________________?
A. h
B. wh
C. w/h
A. dynamic viscosity/density
B. dynamicviscosity x density
C. density/dynamic viscosity
D. 1/dynamicviscosity x density
E. same as dynamic viscosity
A. is uniform flow
B. is steady uniform flow
C. takes place in straight lines
141
A. 25 kN/m2
B. 245 kN/m2
C. 2500 kN/m2
D. 2.5kN/m2
E. 12.5 kN/m2
A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without
touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will__________________?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
E. unpredictable
A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces
are_________________?
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. less at low temperature and more at high temperature
E. there is no such criterion
The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to
act is known as____________________?
A. meta center
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. center of gravity
E. none of the above
The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the body. This definition is according to____________________?
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes’ principle
D. Bernoulli’s theorem
E. Metacentric principle
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
Poise is the unit of________________?
A. surface tension
B. capillarity
C. viscosity
D. shear stress in fluids
E. buoyancy
The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5
m below the water level will be___________________?
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
E. 4000 kg
If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its_______________?
A. specific weight
B. specific mass
C. specific gravity
D. specific density
E. none of the above
The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is
called________________?
A. meta-center
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. center of gravity
E. none of the above
A. viscosity
B. air resistance
C. surface tension forces
D. atmospheric pressure
E. none of the above
A. at the inlet
B. at the outlet
C. at the summit
The peoperty by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is
called_________________?
A. surface tension
B. co-efficient of viscosity
C. viscosity
The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are_______________?
The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension wim increase in size of tube
will_______________?
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
144
D. decrease
E. unpredictable
A. surface tension
B. cohesion of the liquid
C. adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to_________________?
A. Boyle’s law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal’s law
D. Newton’s formula
E. Chezy’s equation
A. viscous/unviscous fluids
B. compressibility of fluids
C. conservation of mass
D. steady/unsteady flow
E. open channel/pipe flow
The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane is called
_______________?
A. viscosity
B. osmosis
C. surface tension
D. cohesion
E. diffusivity
The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is_____________?
A.p = Txr
B.p = T/r
145
C. p = T/2r
D.p = 2T/r
E. none of the above
The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is ap-
proximately_______________?
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 30 mm
Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to
the______________?
A. force of adhesion
B. force of cohesion
C. force of friction
D. force of diffusion
E. none of die above
A. atmospheric pressure
B. surface tension
C. force of adhesion
D. force of cohesion
E. viscosity
To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that it is not more
than_______________?
The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is________________?
146
A.p = Txr
B.p = T/r
C. p = T/2r
D. p = 2T/r
E. none of the above
The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is ap-
proximately____________________?
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 30 mm
A. atmospheric pressure
B. surface tension
C. force of adhesion
D. force of cohesion
E. viscosity
Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to
the_______________?
A. force of adhesion
B. force of cohesion
C. force of friction
D. force of diffusion
E. none of die above
A. linearly
B. first slowly and then steeply
C. first steeply and then gradually
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely submerged in
a fluid having specific gravity of_________________?
A. 1
B. 1.2
C. 0.8
D. 0.75
147
A. Bourdon tube
B. Pirani Gauge
C. micro-manometer
D. ionisastion gauge
E. McLeod gauge
Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle
of_____________________?
A. gas law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Charle’s law
D. Pascal’s law
E. McLeod’s law
Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane
________________?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
148
D. rotameter
E. pitot tube
Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in deep
sea_________________?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
D. rotameter
E. pitot tube
A. increases
B. decreases
A. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a
will___________________?
A. sink to bottom
B. float over fluid
C. partly immersed
D. be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. density
D. modulus of elasticity
E. absolute temperature
Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of Bernoulli’s theorem
__________________?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. nozzle
149
D. pitot tube
E. all of the above
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
A. Pascal’s law
B. Dalton’s law of partial pressure
C. Newton’s law of viscosity .
D. Avogadro’s hypothesis
E. Second law of thermodynamic
In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle 9. Sensitivity
of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to_________________?
A. sin 9
B. sin 9
C. casS
D. cos 9
E. tan 9
A. at e.g. of body
B. at center of pressure
150
C. vertically upwards
D. at metacentre
E. vertically downwards
A. water surface
B. center of pressure
C. center of gravity
The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point____________________?
A. above it
B. below it
C. at same point
D. above or below depending on area of body
E. none of the above
The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the sub-
merged body is called___________________?
A. upthrust
B. reaction
C. buoyancy
D. metacentre
E. center of pressure
A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity
is__________________?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
A. negligible
B. same as buoyant force
C. zero
D. non of these
The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at
the centriod, if __________________?
A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at vater surface. The
hydrostatic force on square surface is __________________?
A. 9,000 kg
B. 13,500 kg
C. 18,000 kg
D. 27,000 kg
E. 30,000 kg
If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm”, the pressure at a
depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be _____________________?
A. The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equal to the normal force on the
vertical projection of the surface
B. The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical projection
C. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the weight of the volume of
the liquid above the area
D. he vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
152
The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high, when the
water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is ______________________?
A. 2.4 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 4.0 m
D.”2.5 m
E. 5.0 m
A. vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
B. buoyant force and the center line of body
C. mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at _________________?
According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted up
by a force equal to __________________?
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold’s number
153
D. Weber’s number
E. none of the above
A. e.g. of body
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. metacentre
E. liquid surface
A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale is 1: 225. How
long should it take to empty the prototype ?
A. 900 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
D. 4 (225)1/3 minutes
E. 4 x V225 minutes
A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected to
attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?
A. 1 : 5
A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity, at what velocity
should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
A. 10 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 2 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
E. 250 m/sec
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold’s number
154
D. Weber’s number
E. none of the above
An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface
will___________________?
A. be horizontal
B. make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
C. make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
D. any one of above is possible
E. none of the above
A. at the centroid
B. above the centroid
C. below the centroid
D. at metacentre
E. at center of pressure
A. buoyancy, gravity
B. buoyancy, pressure
C. buoyancy, inertial
D. inertial, gravity
E. gravity, pressure
Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through _________________?
A. center of gravity
B. center of pressure
C. metacentre
D. center of buoyancy
E. in between e.g. and center of pressure
The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the ___________________?
A. submerged body
B. volume of the floating body
C. volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. displaced volume of the fluid
E. none of the above
The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm”. The pressure at
2.5 m below the oil surface will be ___________________?
The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be________________?
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. lower/higher depending on weight of body
E. unpredictable
Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water surface will
be ___________________?
A. 1000 kg
B. 4000 kg
C. 2000 kg
156
D. 8000 kg
E. 16000 kg
A. absolute pressure
B. velocity of fluid
C. flow
D. rotation
E. velocity of air
A. orifice plate
B. venturi
C. rotameter
D. pitot tube
E. nozzle
A. the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each
plane
E. velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is__________________?
A. constant
B. variable
C. zero
D. zero under limiting conditions
E. never zero
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. uniform
Gradually varied flow is____________________?
A. steady uniform
B. non-steady non-uniform
C. non-steady uniform
D. steady non-uniform
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each
plane
E. velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
A. Pascal law
B. Newton’s law of viscosity
C. boundary layer theory
D. continuity equation
E. Bernoulli’s theorem
A. vertical line
B. horizontal line
C. inclined line with flow downward
D. inclined line with upward flow
E. in any direction and in any location
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each
plane
E. velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each other is
called____________________?
The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every point, for any
given instant, is known as___________________?
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. laminar
D. vortex
E. rotational
The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
_____________________?
The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as_________________?
A. steady flow
B. turbulent flow
C. laminar flow
D. non-uniform flow
E. all of the above
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its
volume is under mercury ?
A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.515
D. 0.5
E. none of the above
The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional
to___________________?
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero and finite
E. unpredictable
A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. The
specific gravity of wood is__________________?
A. 0.83
B. 0.6
C. 0.4
D. 0.3
E. none of the above
The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body is known
as_________________?
A. wake
B. drag
C. lift
160
D. boundary layer
E. aerofoil section
The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is________________?
A. crest
B. nappe
C. sill
D. weir top
E. contracta
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid pai-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc¬cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in both
cases should also be equal__________________?
A. the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure
of the liquid
B. pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. flow is increased
D. pressure is increased
E. none of the above
D. hydraulic designs
E. performing acceptance tests
A. high velocity
B. high pressure
C. weak material
D. low pressure
E. low viscosity
A. mass
B. momentum
C. energy
D. work
E. force
A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a weight of 1
tonne. The force required on plunger is equal tc__________________?
A. 10 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 1000 kg
D. 1 kg
E. 10,000 kg
The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will be equal
to________________?
A. 1 Pa
B. 91Pa
C. 981 Pa
D. 9810 Pa
E. 98,100 Pa
In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between
thes^ points must be more than_________________?
162
A. frictional force
B. viscosity
C. surface friction
D. all of the above
A. is steady
B. is one dimensional
C. velocity is uniform at all the cross sec-tions
D. all of the above
According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady ideal fluid flow_______________?
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity force, and
wave making effects, as with ship’s hulls
D. all of fhe above
E. none of the above
The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompres sible fluid flowing
in continuous sream________________?
D. keeps on increasing
B. keeps on decreasing
C. remains constant
D. may increase/decrease
E. unpredictable
A. pressure
B. flow
C. velocity
D. dsscharge
E. viscosity
Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to_______________?
A. steady flow
B. unsteady flow
C. laminar flow
D. uniform flow
E. critical flow
A. unity
B. greater than unity
C. greater than 2
D. greater than 4
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
E. velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
A. energy
B. work
C. mass
D. length
E. time
At the centre line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the shear stress
will be_______________?
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. negative value
E. could be any value
Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantites are
same______________?
In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is__________________?
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero finite
E. unpredictable
165
A. The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
B. For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie directly below the center of
buoyancy
C. If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium for all
positions
D. For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below the center of buoyancy
E. All floating bodies are stable
A. Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a shearing force
B. Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
C. Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
D. Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
E. Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds
Fluid Mechanics
An open tank contains 1 m deep water with 50 cm depth of oil of specific gravity 0.8 above it. The
intensity of pressure at the bottom of tank will be________________?
A. 4 kN/m2
B. 10 kN/m2
C. 12 kN/m2
D. 14 kN/m2
The total pressure on a plane surface inclined at an angle 9 with the horizontal is equal
to_______________?
166
A. PA
B. pA sin 9
C. pA cos 9
D. pA tan 9
Metacentric height for small values of angle of heel is the distance between the________________?
A rectangular block 2 m long, 1 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water, the depth of immersion being
0.5 m. If water weighs 10 kN/m3, then the weight of the block is________________?
A. 5kN
B. lOkN
C. 15 kN
D. 20 kN
If a vessel containing liquid moves downward with a constant acceleration equal to ‘g’
then_____________?
An open cubical tank of 2 m side is filled with water. If the tank is rotated with an acceleration such
that half of the water spills out, then the acceleration is equal to_______________?
A. g/3
B. g/2
C. 2g/3
D. g
In a two dimensional incompressible steady flow around an airfoil, the stream lines are 2 cm apart at
a great distance from the airfoil, where the velocity is 30 m/sec. The velocity near the airfoil, where
the stream lines are 1.5 cm apart, is_________________?
A. 22.5 m/sec
B. 33 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 90 m/sec
If the velocity is zero over half of the cross-sectional area and is uniform over the remaining half, then
the momentum correction factor is_______________?
A. 1
B. 4/3
C. 2
D. 4
The continuity equation pi V,A,= p2V2A2 is based on the following assumption regarding flow of
fluid______________?
A. steady flow
B. uniform flow
C. incompressible flow
D. frictionless flow
A. steady flow
B. laminar flow
C. uniform flow
D. turbulent flow
In steady flow of a fluid, the total accele ration of any fluid particle______________?
A. can be zero
B. is never zero
C. is always zero
D. is independent of coordinates
A. discharge
B. velocity of gas
C. pressure intensity of gas
D. pressure intensity of liquid
A. current meter
B. venturimeter
C. pitot tube
D. hotwire anemometer
A. pipe diameter
B. throat diameter
C. angle of diverging section
D. both pipe diameter as well as throat diameter
A. H1/2
B. H3’2
C. H5/2
D. H5’4 where H is head
Coefficient of discharge for a totally submerged orifice as compared to that for an orifice discharging
free is__________________?
169
A. slightly less
B. slightly more
C. nearly half
D. equal
A. 1.00
B. 0.855
C. 0.7H
D. 0.611
A. H1/2
B. H3/2
C. H5/2
D. H
where H is head
The shear stress distribution for a fluid flowing in between the parallel plates, both at rest,
is_______________?
A. x”7
B. x,/2
C. x4/5
D. x3/5
A. velocity
B. discharge
C. head
D. pressure
A. highest intensity of pressure occurs around the circumference at right angles to flow
B. lowest pressure intensity occurs at front stagnation point
C. lowest pressure intensity occurs at rear stagnation point
D. total drag is zero
In which of the following the friction drag is generally larger than pressure drag?
The value of friction factor ‘f’ for smooth pipes for Reynolds number 106 is approximately equal
to________________?
A. 0.1
B. 0.01
C. 0.001
D. 0.0001
The distance from pipe boundary, at which the turbulent shear stress is one-third die wall shear
stress, is_______________?
A. 1/3 R
B. 1/2 R
C. 2/3 R
D. 3/4R
171
A fluid of kinematic viscosity 0.4 cm2/sec flows through a 8 cm diameter pipe. The maximum velocity
for laminar flow will be__________________?
The wake_______________?
If a sphere of diameter 1 cm falls in castor oil of kinematic viscosity 10 stokes, with a terminal velocity
of 1.5 cm/sec, the coefficient of drag on the sphere is________________?
A. less than 1
B. between 1 and 100
C. 160
D. 200
In series-pipe problems_______________?
A valve is suddenly closed in a water main in wl.ich the velocity is 1 m/sec and velocity of pressure
wave is 981 m/ sec. The inertia head at the valve will be________________?
C. 100m
When time of closure tc = L/v0 (where L is length of pipe and v0 is speed of pressure wavE., the
portion of pipe length subjected to maximum head is__________________?
A. L/4
B. L/3
C. L/2
D. L
The length of a pipe is 1 km and its diameter is 20 cm. If the diameter of an equivalent pipe is 40 cm,
then its length is_____________________?
A. 32 km
B. 20 km
Two pipes of same length and diameters d and 2d respectively are connected in series. The diameter
of an equivalent pipe of same length is________________?
A. less than d
B. between d and 1.5 d
C. between 1.5 d and 2d
D. greater than 2d
The boundary layer thickness at a distance of l m from the leading edge of a flat plate, kept at zero
angle of incidence to the flow direction, is O.l cm. The velocity outside the boundary layer is 25 ml sec.
The boundary layer thickness at a distance of 4 m is__________________?
A. 0.40 cm
B. 0.20 cm
C. 0.10 cm
D. 0.05 cm
The correct relationship among displacement thickness d, momentum thickness m and energy
thickness e is_________________?
A. d > m > e
B. d > e > m
C. e > m > d
D. e > d > m
1. steady flow
2. unsteady flow
173
3. uniform flow
4. non-uniform flow
The correct answer is?
If the elevation of hydraulic grade line at the junction of three pipes is above the elevation of
reservoirs B and C and below reservoir A, then the direction of flow will be___________________?
The horse power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the ratio of loss of head due to friction
and total head supplied is________________?
A. 1/3
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 2/3
For laminar flow in circular pipes, the Darcy’s friction factor f is equal to_________________?
A. 16/Re
B. 32/ Re
C. 64/ Re
D. none of the above where R,, is Reynolds number
A. 0
B. r/2
C. r
D. 2r
A. laminar flow
B. transition flow
C. turbulent flow
D. critical flow
The discharge of a liquid of kinematic viscosity 4 cm2/sec through a 8 cm dia-meter pipe is 3200n
cm7sec. The type of flow expected is__________________?
A. laminar flow
B. transition flow
C. turbulent flow
D. not predictable from the given data
The ratio of average velocity to maximum velocity for steady laminar flow in circular pipes
is_______________?
A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 3/2
D. 2
For laminar flow in a pipe of circular cross-section, the Darcy’s friction factor f is________________?
For hydro-dynamically smooth boundary, the friction coefficient for turbulent flow
is_______________?
A. constant
B. dependent only on Reynolds number
C. a function of Reynolds number and relative roughness
D. dependent on relative roughness only
With the same cross-sectional area and immersed in same turbulent flow, the largest total drag will
be on__________________?
The distance y from pipe boundary, at which the point velocity is equal to average velocity for
turbulent flow, is________________?
A. 0.223 R
B. 0.423 R
C. 0.577 R
D. 0.707 R
The depth ‘d’ below the free surface at which the point velocity is equal to the average velocity of
flow for a uniform laminar flow with a free surface, will be_________________?
A. 0.423 D
B. 0.577 D
C. 0.223 D
D. 0.707 D
If x is the distance from leading edge, then the boundary layer thickness in laminar flow varies
as________________?
A. x
B. x
176
C. x
D. x/7
For a sphere of radius 15 cm moving with a uniform velocity of 2 m/sec through a liquid of specific
gravity 0.9 and dynamic viscosity 0.8 poise, the Reynolds number will be_________________?
A. 300
B. 337.5
C. 600
D. 675
The discharge over a broad crested weir is maximum when the depth of flow is_______________?
A. H/3
B. H/2
C. 2 H/5
D. 2 H/3
A. sudden enlargement
B. sudden contraction
C. gradual contraction or enlargement
D. friction
A. 0.611
B. 0.707
C. 0.855
D. 1.00
A. equal to atmospheric
B. less than atmospheric
Due to each end contraction, the discharge of rectangular sharp crested weir is reduced
by________________?
177
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
A. 0.611
B. 0.85
C. 0.98
D. 1.00
A. mass
B. energy
C. momentum
D. none of the above
A. x2y
B. x2-y2
C. cosx
D. x2 + y2
If velocity is zero over l/3rd of a cross-section and is uniform over remaining 2/3rd of the cross-
section, then the correction factor for kinetic energy is__________________?
A. 4/3
B. 3/2
C. 9/4
D. 27/8
178
When the velocity distribution is uniform over the cross-section, the correction factor for momentum
is__________________?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 4/3
D. 2
1. steady flow
2. uniform flow
3. unsteady flow
4. non-uniform flow
The correct answer is? B. (1)and(iv)
Select the incorrect statement?
A closed tank containing water is moving in a horizontal direction along a straight line at a constant
speed. The tank also contains a steel ball and a bubble of air. If the tank is decelerated horizontally,
then________________?
A right circular cylinder open at the top is filled with liquid and rotated about its vertical axis at such a
speed that half the liquid spills out, then the pressure intensity at the center of bottom
is___________________?
A. zero
B. one-fourth its value when cylinder was full
C. one-half its value when cylinder was full
D. cannot be predicted from the given data
When a liquid rotates at a constant angular velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid body, the pressure
intensity varies________________?
The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to
act is known as__________________?
A. center of gravity
B. center of buoyancy
C. center of pressure
D. metacentre
1. increases stability
2. decreases stability
3. increases comfort for passengers
4. decreases comfort for passengers
The correct answer is? B. (1)and(iv)
If the weight of a body immersed in a fluid exceeds the buoyant force, then the body
will________________?
A vertical rectangular plane surface is submerged in water such that its top and bottom surfaces are
1.5 m and 6.0 m res-pectively below the free surface. The position of center of pressure below the
free surface will be at a distance of________________?
A. 3.75 m
B. 4.0 m
C. 4.2m
The position of center of pressure on a plane surface immersed vertically in a static mass of fluid
is______________?
If the dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 0.5 poise and specific gravity is 0.5, then the kinematic viscosity of
that fluid in stokes is__________________?
A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 1.0
D. none of the above
A. pressure
B. kinematic viscosity
C. dynamic viscosity
D. surface tension
A. gm/cm-sec2
B. dyne-sec/cm2
C. gm/cm2-sec
D. cm2/sec
A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to each other. They are
balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is__________________?
A. 60 N
B. 80 N
C. 100 N
D. 120 N
If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then the angle between
the two forces is____________________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
182
C. 60°
D. 120°
The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a maximum respectively
are__________________?
A. 0° and 90°
B. 180° and 90°
C. 90° and 180°
D. 180° and 0°
The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P.
Then_________________?
A. P = R
B. Q = R
C. P = Q
D. None of the above is correct
A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5m and moment of inertia 3 kg-m2 rolls on a horizontal surface so that its
center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic energy of the disc is ___________________?
A. 50 J
B. 150 J
C. 200 J
D. 400 J
A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base on the surface. Which is
more stable ?
A. pyramid
B. prism
C. both equally stable
D. none of the above
Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals having different densities.
Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia about its central axis ?
A symmetrical body is rotating about its axis of symmetry, its moment of inertia about the axis of
rotation being 2 kg -m2 and its rate of rotation 2 revolutions/see. The angular momentum of the body
in kg-m2/sec is_____________________?
A. 4
B. 6 7i
C. 8TC
D. 8
A. only (1)
B. both (1) and (2)
C. both (1) and (3)
D. all (1), (2) and (3)
A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest and roll down the same
inclined plane. Which body gets to the bottom first ?
A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The acceleration
of center of mass of rolling cylinder is________________?
A. (1/3) g sinB
B. (2/3) g cos 9
C. (2/3) g sin 0
D. g sin 9
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity and 0 is inclination of plane with horizontal
184
A cylinder will slip on an inclined plane of inclination 0 if the coefficient of static friction between
plane and cylinder is_____________________?
If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 – 3t2, the angular acceleration at t = 1 sec. is__________________?
A. 1 rad/sec2
B. 4 rad/sec2
C. 6 rad/sec2
D. 12 rad/sec2
A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the equation x = 6 t2 – t3 where t is
expressed in seconds and x in meters. The maximum velocity during the motion
is_________________?
A. 6 m/sec
B. 12 m/sec
C. 24 m/sec
D. 48 m/sec
A. constant
B. zero
C. maximum
D. minimum
A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal floor. Where will
be the instantaneous center of rotation when the ladder starts slipping ?
The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are equal
to_____________________?
A. 36°
B. 45°
185
C. 56°
D. 76°
A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec. It returns to the ground
in________________?
A. 5 sec
B. 8 sec
C. 10 sec
D. 20 sec
If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and the inclined plane, then the
range of projectile on the inclined plane is__________________?
A. zero
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. unpredictable
The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are equal
to___________________?
A. 45°
B. tan-1 (2)
C. tan-‘ (4)
D. tan”1 (1/4)
A. stable
B. unstable
C. neutral
D. none of the above
A simple pendulum of length 1 has an energy E when its amplitude is A. If its amplitude is increased to
2 A, the energy becomes____________________?
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, at a displacement
equal to half its amplitude is given by__________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the time of one complete
vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the particle is___________________?
A. 1.00 m/sec
B. 1.57 m/sec
C. 3.14 m/sec
A. power
B. impulse
C. work
D. momentum
A. M’^T’
B. M’L-‘T0
C. M’L-‘T1
D. M2L’T3
A. M1 L2 T2
B. M’L’T1
C. M’L’T2
D. M’L-‘T2
A. cm4
B. kg-cm2
C. gm-cm2
D. gm-cm3
A cable loaded with 10 kN/m of span is stretched between supports in the same horizontal line 100 m
apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the maximum and minimum pull in the cable respectively
are____________________?
A. force-displacement diagram
B. force-time diagram
C. velocity-time diagram
D. velocity-displacement diagram
A. energy
B. momentum
C. torque
D. impulse
188
If a body is lying on a plane whose inclination with the horizontal is less than the angle of friction,
then___________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 3
D. 4
The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it is__________________?
A. circular
B. parabolic
C. catenary
D. cubic parabola
A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal intervals. The points of suspension
on the rope lie on a_____________________?
A. parabola
B. catenary
C. cycloid
D. ellipse
A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the coefficient of restitution
between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds at the same angle. The fraction of its kinetic
energy lost is___________________?
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/9
D. 8/9
189
A. 1/4
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 4/3
When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration of the body is given
by__________________?
A. g
B. gsinG
C. g cos 6
D. g tan 6
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity and 9 is the angle of inclination of surface with the horizontal
A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and splits into two parts, one of
mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg mass drops vertically downward with initial velocity of
100 m/sec and the 10 kg mass begins to travel at an angle to the horizontal of tan”1 x, where x
is______________________?
A. 3/4
B. 4/5
C. 5/3
D. 3/5
A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into two equal pieces during an
explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy of 20000 Joules. If the pieces continue to move in
the same direction as before, then the speed of the faster one must be____________________?
A. 20 m/sec
B. 30 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second when they move towards each
other and are 1 m apart when they move in the same direction. The speeds of the objects
are____________________?
be___________________?
190
A. 0.1 rad/sec
B. 1 rad/sec
C. 10 rad/sec
D. 100 rad/sec
The condilion for a lifting machine to be reversible is that its efficiency should be_________________?
In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of 6 kN. The
velocity ratio of the machine is_____________________?
A. 30
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80
The diagram showing the point of application and line of action of forces in their plane is
called____________________?
A. vector diagram
B. space diagram
C. force diagram
D. funicular diagram
A. shear force
B. resultant force
C. bending moment
D. equilibrium
In which of the following trusses, the method of substitution is required for determining the forces in
all the members of the truss by graphic statics ?
A. howe truss
B. king post truss
C. fink truss
D. warren truss
The number of funicular polygons which can be drawn to pass through two specified points in the
space diagram are__________________?
A. zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. infinity
If the given forces P,, P2, P3 and P4 are such that the force polygon does not close, then the system
will___________________?
A. be in equilibrium
B. always reduce to a resultant force
C. always reduce to a couple
D. both (A) and (C)
A. trusses only
B. beam only
C. rigid frames only
D. any type of structure
A. distance scale
B. force scale
C. mass scale
D. time scale
The graphical method of determining the forces in the members of a truss is based
on________________?
A. method of joint
B. method of section
C. either method
D. none of the two methods
A. triangle
B. open polygon
C. closed polygon
D. parallelogram
In a lifting machine a weight of 5 kN is lifted through 200 mm by an effort of 0.1 kN moving through 15
m. The mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of the machine are
respectively_____________________?
A. 50 and 75
B. 75 and 50
C. 75 and 75
D. 50 and 50
A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50 m/sec. After 5 seconds
another stone was thrown vertically upwards from the same place. If both the stones strike the
ground at the same time, then the velocity with which the second stone was thrown should be
(Assume g = 10 m/sec2)______________________?
A. 15 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
A particle is dropped from a height of 3 m on a horizontal floor, which has a coefficient of restitution
with the ball of 1/2. The height to which the ball will rebound after striking the floor
is____________________?
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.75 m
C. 1.0 m
D. 1.5 m
If a flywheel increases its speed from 10 rpm to 20 rpm in 10 seconds, then its angular acceleration
is_____________________?
A. —rad/sec 10
B. —rad/sec 20
C. —rad/sec 30
D. none of the above
194
A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the horizontal at which the road
must be banked to prevent sideways friction on the car wheels is tan”1 x, where x is (Assume g = 10
m/sec2)_____________________?
A. 3/8
B. 1/2
C. 9/5
D. 5/8
A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another body is projected vertically
upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two particles will____________________?
A. never meet
B. meet after 1 sec
C. meet after 5 sec
D. meet after 10 sec
Two balls of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with velocities of 4 m/sec and 1 m/sec respectively,
towards each other along the line of their centers. After impact the 3 kg ball comes to rest. This can
happen only if the coefficient of restitution between the balls is____________________?
A. 2/3
B. 1/5
C. 3/5
D. 1/3
The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and supported at two ends which
are at the same level, is at_____________________?
supports
Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal to____________________?
A. horizontal thrust
B. support reactions
C. resultant of horizontal thrust and support reaction
D. half the weight of the cable
A. y = c cosh x/c
B. y = c sinh x/c
C. y = c tan x/c
D. y = c sin”1 x/c
A. S = C tan q>
B. S = C cos cp
C. S = C sin cp
D. S = C cot <p
A rope is wrapped twice around a rough pole with a coefficient of friction ‘A . It is subjected to a force
Fj at one end and a gradually increasing force F2 is applied at the other end till the rope just starts slip-
ping. At this instant the ratio of F2 to Fi is_____________________?
A. 1
B. e2*
C. e4*
D. e*72
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium
if________________?
A. 1 kg-wt
B. 9.81 kg-wt
C. 981 dyne
D. 1/9.81 kg-wt
A. M’L2T2
B. M’L’T3
C. M’L’r2
D. M’L-‘T*
The ratio of unit of force in gravitational system to that in absolute system is__________________?
A. 1
B. g
C. 1/g
D. none of the above
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity
A quantity measured in the C.G.S system of units has dimensions M”2L3 T3/2. What numerical factor
would be required to convert the quantity to SI units ?
196
A. 1
B. 100
C. 1/100
D. 1/10000
A. M-‘L2r2
B. M-‘L3r2
A. 105 dyne
B. 106 dyne
C. 107 dyne
D. 981 dyne
The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled through the earth (assumed
homogenous and spherical) is proportional to____________________?
A. log r
B. r
C. r2
D. 1/r
At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any instant is_________________?
A. zero
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. varying
One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept fixed while to the other end is
attached a particle of mass m which is hanging freely under gravity. The particle is pulled down
vertically through a distance x, held at rest and then released. The motion is___________________?
A simple pendulum of length / has an energy E, when its amplitude is A. If the length of pendulum is
doubled, the energy will be___________________?
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator of amplitude A are both
equal to half the total energy, then the displacement is equal to_________________?
A. A
B. A/2
C. A/V2
D. AV2
It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is linearly dependent on the
frequency f. If the maximum velocity during the oscillation is V, then V must be proportional
to_________________?
A. f
B. 1/f
C. 1/f2
D. f2
A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency 6/71 Hz and amplitude 0.25 m.
Its maximum kinetic energy is___________________?
A. 4.5 J
B. 9.0 J
C. 12.0 J
D. 18.0 J
If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then the total energy E of the
particle is___________________?
A. proportional to A
B. proportional to A2
A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what angle to the slope must the
stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible from the point of projection ?
A. 15°
B. 30°
198
If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, its
horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of trajectory are___________________?
A. 0 and 5 m/sec
B. 5 m/sec and 0
C. 5 V3 m/sec and 0
D. 5 and 5V3 m/sec
A projectile has maximum range of 40 m on a horizontal plane. If angle of projection is a and the time
of flight is 1 second, then sin a must be about__________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/5
Assume g = 10 m/sec2
The maximum value of the horizontal range for a projectile projected with a velocity of 98 m/sec
is__________________?
A. 98 m
B. 490 m
C. 980 m
D. 1960 m
For a given velocity of a projectile, the range is maximum when the angle of projection
is___________________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body centrode and space centrode
respectively are________________?
The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100m at 36 km/hour,
is_______________?
A. 0.1 radian/sec
B. 1 radian/sec
C. 100 radian/sec
D. 1000 radian/sec
The ratio of the speed of a rolling cylinder to the speed of sliding cylinder is_______________?
199
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. between 1 and 2
D. greater than 2
A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kg-m” is acted upon by a tangential force of 5 N at 2 m from its
axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular velocity in radian persecond is__________________?
A. 1/2
B. 3/2
C. 2
D. 3
A circular disc rotates at n rpm. The angular velocity of a circular ring of same mass and radius as the
disc and to have the same angular momentum is___________________?
A. n rpm
B. n/2 rpm
A. force
B. torque
A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls down a plane inclined at 0 with the horizontal. The
acceleration of sphere is_______________?
A. (1/3) g sin0
B. (2/5) g sin 0
C. (3/7) g sin 0
D. (5/7) g sin0
A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that at its centre of mass has a
speed of 200 mm/sec, . The work required to stop the hoop is______________?
A. 2 J
B. 4 J
C. 6 J
D. 8 J
The total kinetic energy of a hoop of mass 2 kg and radius 4 m sliding with linear velocity 8 m/sec and
angular velocity 5 radian/sec is_________________?
A. 64 J
B. 400 J
C. 464 J
D. 89 J
200
A. stable equilibrium
B. unstable equilibrium
C. neutral equilibrium
D. all of the above
A block in the shape of a parallelopiped of sides lm x 2m x 3m lies on the surface. Which of the faces
gives maximum stable block ?
A. 1 m x 2 m
B. 2 m x 3 m
C. 1 m x 3m
D. equally stable on all faces
When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the resultant will be_____________?
A. P
B. PV2
C. P/V2
D. 2P
A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20 mm, 90 mm and 150 mm
respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the rod, the point at which the rod will balance
is_______________?
A. 109.5 mm from A
A. interdependencies of activities
B. project progress
C. uncertainties
D. all of the above
The area under the Beta – distribution curve is divided into two equal parts by_______________?
A. site located
B. foundation is being dug
C. the office area is being cleaned
D. the invitations are being sent
If the optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time for activity A are 4, 6 and 8 respectively
and for activity B are 5, 5.5 and 9 respectively, then______________?
A. free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be zero
B. independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero
C. free float and independent float both must be zero
D. free float and independent float both need not be zero
Critical path_____________?
A. is always longest
B. is always shortest
C. may be longest
D. may be shortest
A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone, she takes not less than 6 minutes
for a call and som? times as much as an hour. Fifteen minutes call are more frequent than calls of any
202
other duration. If these phone calls were an activity in PERT project, then phone calls expected
duration will be_______________?
A. 15 minutes
B. 20.143 minutes
C. 21 minutes
D. 27 minutes
The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and succeeding
activities is known as_______________?
A. total float
B. free float
C. interfering float
D. independent float
A. resource levelling
B. resource smoothening
C. updating
D. critical path scheduling
The normal time required for the completion of project in the above problem is_______________?
A. 9 days
B. 13 days
C. 14 days
D. 19 days
A tractor whose weight is 20 tonnes has a drawbar pull of 2500 kg, when operated on a level road
having a rolling resistence of 30 kg per tonne. If this tractor is operated on a level road having a rolling
resistance of 40 kg per tonne, then the drawbar pull of the tractor will________________?
A. reduce by 200 kg
B. increase by 200 kg
C. increase by 250 kg
D. reduce by 250 kg
Which of the following excavators is most suitable for digging under water?
A. Drag line
B. Hoe
C. Clam shell
D. Dipper shovel
For which of the following materials, the output of power shovels for a fixed shovel size will be
maximum_______________?
A. Moist loam
B. Good common earth
C. We|l blasted rock
D. Wet sticky clay
(i) Output can be increased by reducing the angle of swing for a given depth of cut
(ii) For a given angle of swing, output will be maximum at optimum depth of cut
(iii) Output can be increased by keeping the depth of cut less than optimum depth
(iv) Output can be increased by increasing the size of shovel
select the correct statements? (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
If the output of a dragline for 90° angle of swing at optimum depth of cut is X, then the output for
120° angle of swing at 120 % of optimum depth of cut will be_________________?
A. equal to X
B. more than X
C. less than X
A machine is purchased for Rs. 10,000,00/- and has an estimated life of 10 years. The salvage value at
the end of 10 years is Rs. 1,50,000/-. The book value of the machine at the end of 5 years using
general straight line methodevaluation of depreciation is__________________?
A. Rs. 4,75,000/-
B. Rs. 5,75,000/-
204
C. Rs. 6,50,000/-
D. Rs. 8,50,000/-
If the excavation of earth is done manually then it costs Rs. 10 per cum. A machine can excavate at a
fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a variable cost of Rs. 2 per cum. The quantity of earth for which the cost of
excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation is_________________?
A. 500 cum
B. 1000 cum
C. 1500 cum
D. 2000 cum
If the gross vehicle weight of a truck is 30 t and rolling resistance is 30 kg/tonne, then the tractive
effort required to keep the truck moving at a uniform speed is__________________?
A. 30 kg
B. 300 kg
C. 900 kg
D. 1000 kg
A wheeled tractor hauling unit is working on firm earth. The total loaded weight distribution of this
unit is: Drive wheels : 25000 kg Scraper wheels : 10000 kg If the coefficient of traction for wheeled
tractor on firm earth is 0.5, the rimpull which this tractor can exert without slipping
is_______________?
A. 10000 kg
B. 12500 kg
C. 22500 kg
D. 5000 kg
An earth moving equipment costs Rs. 5,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 10 years and a salvage
value of Rs. 50,000/-.What uniform annual amount must be set aside at the end of each of the 10
years for replacement if the interest rate is 8% per annum and if the sinking fund factor at 8% per
annum interest rate for 10 years is 0.069 ?
A. Rs. 31050
B. Rs. 34500
C. Rs. 37950
D. Rs. 50000
205
The probability of completion of any activity within its expected time is_________________?
A. 50%
B. 84.1%
C. 99.9%
D. 100%
If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2 days, the
expected time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is________________?
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 10 days
D. 16 days
A tractor shovel has a purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacs and could save the organization an amount of
rupees one lac per year on operating costs. The salvage value after the amortization period is 10% of
the purchase price. The capital recovery period will be________________?
A. 3.7 years
B. 4.23 years
C. 5 years
D. 7.87 years
In the critical path method of construction planning, Free Float can be_____________?
A. crash time
B. normal time
C. optimistic time
D. between normal time and crash time
During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to__________________?
A. the fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
B. raised to meet maintenance costs
C. the total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants
D. a part of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and structural modifications
In resources levelling________________?
A. 1,2 and 4
B. 3,4 and 5
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 5
C. 1,2,3,4,5
The maximum rimpull in the first gear of a tractor while towing a load is 6300 kg. The
tractor weighs 12.5 tonnes and is operating along a 2 percent upgrade and the rolling
resistance is 45 kg/tonne. Pull available for towing the load is________________?
A. 3425 kg
B. 5515 kg
C. 4350 kg
D. 2975 kg
207
Which one of the following is not an excavating and moving type of equipment ?
A. Bulldozer
B. Clam shell
C. Scraper
D. Dump truck
For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation equipment used
is_______________?
A. Hoe
B. Shovel
C. Dragline
D. None of the above
The rated loads of lifting cranes, as percentage of tipping load at specified radius, for crawler-
mounted, and pneumatic tyremounted machines would be respectively_________________?
A. 80 and 90
B. 90 and 80
C. 85 and 75
D. 75 and 83
In the time-cost optimisation, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of the activities
along the critical path is done starting with the activity having________________?
A. longest duration
B. highest cost slope
C. least cost slope
D. shortest duration
A. Kneading
B. Pressing
C. Tamping
D. Vibration
The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is_________________?
A. Smooth-wheeled rollers
B. Vibratory rollers
C. Sheep foot rollers
D. Tampers
For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most probable estimates are 5, 17
and 8 days respectively, The expected time is__________________?
A. 8 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
C. 3,1,2,4
The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000/-. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of
five years is Rs. 1,000/-. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line
method of evaluation of depreciation) will be________________?
A. Rs. 8,800/-
B. Rs. 7,600/-
C. Rs. 6,400/-
D. Rs. 5,000/-
A contractor has two options : Invest his money in project A or (II) : Invest his money in project B. If he
decides to invest in A, for every rupee invested, he is assured of doubling his money in ten years. If he
decides to invest in B, he is assured of making his money 1.5 times in 5 years. If the contractor values
his money at 10% interest rate, he______________?
If the expected time of completion of a project is 60 weeks with a standard deviation of 5 weeks, the
probability of completing the project in 50 weeks and 65 weeks respectively will
be__________________?
A machine costs Rs. 20000 and its useful life is 8 years. The money is borrowed at 8% interest per
annum. The capital recovery factor at 8% interest per annum for 8 years is 0.174. The annual
equipment cost of the machine will be________________?
A. Rs.1740
B. Rs.3480
C. Rs.5220
D. Rs.6960
If the scheduled completion time of a project is more than the earliest expected time for completion
of the project, then the probability of completion of the project within the scheduled completion time
will be__________________?
A. 50%
B. less than 50%
C. more than 50%
D. 100%
A four wheel trac*or whose operating weight is 12000 kg is pulled along a road having a rising slope of
2% at a uniform speed. Assume grade resistance factor = 10 kg/tonne. The tension in the tow cable is
720 kg. The rolling resistance of the road will be___________________?
A. 20 kg/tonne
B. 30 kg/tonne
C. 40 kg/tonne
The grade resistance factor for an earth moving machine can be obtained by multiplying grade
percentage by a factor approximately equal to_________________?
211
A. 2 kg/tonne
B. 6 kg/tonne
C. 9 kg/tonne
D. 20 kg/tonne
Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a rubber tyred vehicle?
A. Concrete
B. Loose sand
C. Asphalt
D. Firm earth
Which one of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of traction while using crawler track
tractors?
A. Ice
B. Concrete
C. Loose sand
D. Earth
An excavator costs Rs. 20,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 8 years. It has no salvage value at the
end of 8 years. The book value of the excavator at the end of 3 years using general double declining
balance method is__________________?
A. Rs. 8,43,750/-
B. Rs. 8,75,000/-
C. Rs. 10,50,000/-
D. Rs. 11,56,250/-
Assertion A: For a given depth of cut, the output of a power shovel can be increased by decreasing the
angle of swing Reason R: If the angle of swing is decreased, the cycle time will be
decreased_______________?
For a given size of bucket, the ideal output of a dragline will be least in_______________?
A. Moist loam
B. Sand and gravel
C. Good common earth
D. Wet sticky clay
Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?
212
A. Drag line
B. Hoe
C. Clam shell
D. Dipper shovel
A. resources
B. project duration time
C. both resources and project duration time
D. none of the above
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. infinite
The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known
as_________________?
A. crash time
B. normal time
C. optimistic time
D. standard time
What estimate would you give for the variance in above problem ?
213
A. 81
B. 54
C. 36
D. 9
A. preceding activities
B. succeeding activities
C. the particular activity involved
D. none of the above
A. its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. its latest start time and earliest start time
C. its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
D. its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity
A. its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. its latest start time and earliest start time
C. its latest start time and earliest finish time
D. its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
A. identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of preceding activity
B. identify the activities, which can be delayed without affecting the total float of succeeding activity
C. establish priorities
D. identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of either the preceding or
succeeding activities
If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2, 3 and 7 respectively, then its
expected time and variance are respectively___________________?
In the network shown in Fig. (15 fig) the latest start time of an activity 4-5 is_________________?
A. 2
B. 4
In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence
follow_______________?
A. small projects
B. large and complex projects
C. research and development projects
D. deterministic activities
A. Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves.
B. Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters.
C. Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration.
D. none of the above
Strength of Materials
The unit of power in S.I. units is______________?
A. newton meter
B. watt
C. joule
D. kilogram meter/sec
E. pascal per sec
Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in________________?
A. one point
B. one plane
C. different planes
D. perpendicular planes
E. different points
A. magnitude
B. direction
C. position or line of action
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
A. magnitude
B. direction
C. point of application
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
A. kilogram
B. newton
C. watt
D. dyne
E. joule
Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in_______________?
A. one point
B. two points
C. plane
D. perpendicular planes
E. different planes
216
If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be________________?
A. kW (kilowatt)
B. hp (horse power)
C. kcal/sec
D. kg m/sec
E. kcal/kg sec
The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the
resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle
of__________________?
A. forces
B. independence of forces
C. dependence of forces
217
D. balance of force
E. resolution of forces
The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is equal
to__________________?
A. the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
B. the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
C. the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
D. the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
E. the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9
A. angstrom
B. light year
C. micron
D. millimeter
E. milestone
Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
A. kcal
B. kg m
C. kWhr
D. hp
E. hp hr
A. coplanar force
B. non-coplanar forces
C. lever
D. moment
E. couple
A. weight
B. velocity
C. acceleration
D. force
E. moment
D. if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the
angle between the other two
E. none of the above
A. 2n-3
B. n-l
C. ‘2n-l
D. n – 2
E. 3n-2
In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than___________________?
Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of________________?
A. kg m2
B. m4
220
C. kg/m2
D. kg/m
E. m2/kg
A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve___________________?
A. catenary
B. parabola
C. hyperbola
D. elliptical
E. circular arc
From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find
the e.g. of the remainder from the center of circular plate___________________?
A. 0.5 cm
The center of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will
be__________________?
A. L/2
B. L/3
C. 3L/4
D. 2L/3
E. 3L/8
The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will
be______________?
A. r/2
B. 2r/3
C. r/A
D. 3r/2
E. 3r/A
If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing
through the point of suspension will be___________________?
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. infinity
E. same as the force applied
A. angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B. ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. ratio of static and dynamic friction
Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle)
applied in the direction__________________?
On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction
will be__________________?
A. angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B. ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. tangent of angle of repose
A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on the point
of motion up the plane when P is equal to___________________?
A. W
B. W sin (a + $)
C. Wtan(a + <|))
D. Wan(a-)
E. Wtana
222
If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his
umbrella_________________?
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
E. has no correlation
A. tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and the resultant of normal reac-tion and the limiting
friction
B. ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D. the friction force acting when the body is in motion
E. dynamic friction
A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and circular
portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and horizontal surface is
i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it always remains horizontal.
When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will____________________?
A. remain horizontal
B. slant up towards direction of pull
C. slant down towards direction of pull
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane
is________________?
If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must
either__________________?
223
A. meet in a point
B. be all parallel
C. at least two of them must meet
D. all the above are correct
E. none of the above
A. nature of surfaces
B., area of contact
C. shape of the surfaces
D. ail of the above.
E. A. and B. above
If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be
in________________?
A. non-equilibrium
B. partial equilibrium
C. full equilibrium
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above
Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a
fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than
one________________?
A. ellipse
B. hyperbola
C. parabola
D. circle
E. none of the above
The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a______________?
The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its
M.I. about horizontal axis is_________________?
A. same
B. double
A. zeioth order
B. first order
C. second order
D. third order
E. fourth order
The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to
move down is known as angle of__________________?
A. friction
B. limiting friction
C. repose
D. kinematic friction
E. static friction
In ideal machines________________?
In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows_________________?
A. W between P and F
B. F between W and P
C. P between W and F
D. W, P and F all on one side
E. none of the above
In actual machines______________?
A. arm of man
B. pair of scissors
C. pair of clinical tongs
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
225
The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the
base_____________?
A. h/2
B. J/3
C. h/6
D. h/4
E. 3/i/5
A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is
most nearly________________?
A. 38 m
B. 62.5 m
C. 96 m
D. 124 m
E. 240 m
A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then which
is correct statement about density of metal________________?
A. kg m
B. kcal
C. wattr
D. watt hours
E. kg m x (m/sec)2
A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly
equal to______________?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 250
E. 500
226
If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =_______________?
A. j-2
B.2j-l
C. 2/-3
D.3/-2
E. 2/ -4
The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be_______________?
A. coplanar
B. meet at one point ;
C. both A. and B. above
D. all be equal
E. something else
The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another
surface is called_____________________?
A. limiting friction
B. sliding friction
C. rolling friction
D. kinematic friction
E. dynamic friction
A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body________________?
A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto height
of__________________?
A. r/2
B. r/A
C. r/%
D. 0.134 r
E. 3r/8
The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j) is equal
to_________________?
A. Wtan(a + )
B. Wtan(a-)
C. Wcos(a + )
227
D. Wsin(a + )
E. W (sin a + cos )
A. kinetic friction
B. limiting friction
C. angle of repose
D. coefficient of friction
E. friction force
A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9
is_________________?
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°
E. 90°
A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given by x = t2 (t –
4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation_________________?
A. 3t2-lt
B. 3t2+2t
C. 6f-8
D. 6f-4
E. 6t2-8t
Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is________________?
A. post friction
B. limiting friction
C. kinematic friction
D. frictional resistance
E. dynamic friction
228
On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will
be__________________?
A. coefficient of friction
B. angle of friction
C. angle of repose
D. sliding friction
E. friction resistance
A. area of contact
B. shape of surfaces
C. strength of surfaces
D. nature of surface
E. all of the above
The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, –
ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be_________________?
A. 20 kg, – ve sense
B. 20 kg, + ve sense
C. 10 kg, + ve sense
D. 10 kg, – ve sense
E. 45 kg, + ve sense
A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the
span________________?
A. 2.5 cm
B. 3.0 cm
C. 4.0 cm
D. 5.0 cm
E. 2.0 cm
A. compression or tension
B. buckling or shear
C. shear or tension
D. all of the above
E. bending
A. kg m2
B. m4
C. kg/m2
D. m3
E. kg/m4
The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called________________?
A. resultant couple
B. moment of the forces
C. resulting couple
D. moment of the couple
E. none of the above
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium,
if______________?
The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of VlOkg and
when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are____________________?
A. 2 and V6
B. 3 and 1 kg
C. V5andV5
D. 2 and 5
E. none of the above
A. time
B. mass
C. volume
D. density
E. acceleration
The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are
called______________?
A. kg/cm
B. ata
C. atmosphere
D. mm of wcl
E. newton
Theory of Structures
Maximum principal stress theory for the failure of a material at elastic point, is
known________________?
A. The moment of inertia is calculated about the axis about which bending takes place
B. If tensile stress is less than axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress
C. If tensile stress is equal to axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress
D. All the above
A. The bending stress in a section is zero at its neutral axis and maximum at the outer fibres
B. The shear stress is zero at the outer fibres and maximum at the neutral axis
C. The bending stress at the outer fibres, is known as principal stress
D. All the above
A composite beam is composed of two equal strips one of brass and other of steel. If the temperature
is raised___________________?
A two hinged parabolic arch of span l and rise h carries a load varying from zero at the left end
to________________?
A. /4h thrust is
B. /8h
C. /12h
D. /16h
Maximum strain theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known as_______________?
A close coil helical spring when subjected to a moment M having its axis along the axis of the
helix_________________?
233
Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is
known________________?
A cantilever of length is subjected to a bending moment at its free end. If EI is the flexural rigidity of
the section, the deflection of the free end, is_________________?
A. ML/EI
B. ML/2EI
C. ML²/2EI
D. ML²/3EI
constant, depth of a cantilever of length of uniform strength loaded with Keeping breadth uniformly
distributed load varies from zero at the free end and________________?
A. 3.0 t compression
B. 3.0 t tension
C. t tension
D. t compression
A. Zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
A simply supported beam A carries a point load at its mid span. Another identical beam B carries the
same load but uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of the maximum deflections of the
beams A and B, will be________________?
A. 2/3
B. 3/2
234
C. 5/8
D. 8/5
In case of a simply supported I-section beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the length of
elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is_________________?
A. L/2
B. L/3
C. L/4
D. L/5
If Ix and Iy are the moments of inertia of a section about X and Y axes, the polar moment of inertia of
the section, is_________________?
A. (IX + IY)/2
B. (IX – IY)/2
C. IX + IY
D. (I /I )
If E, N, K and 1/m are modulus of elasticity, modulus of rigidity. Bulk modulus and Poisson ratio of the
material, the following relationship holds good_______________?
A. E = 3K (1 – 2/m)
B. E = 2N (1 + 1/m)
C. (3/2)K (1 – 2/m) = N (1 + 1/m)
D. All the above
A. Magnitude
B. Direction
C. Point of application
D. All the above
A. It moves horizontally
B. It moves vertically
C. It rotates about its C.G.
D. None of these
The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure
introduce_____________?
A. Compressive stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Shear stress
D. None of these
235
A. Stiffness
A close coil helical spring of mean diameter D consists of n coils of diameter d. If it carries an axial load
W, the energy stored in the spring, is______________?
A. 4WD²n/d4N
B. 4W²Dn/d4N
C. 4W²D3n/d4N
D. 4W²D3n²/d4N
The moment of inertia of a triangular section (height h, base b) about its base, is_______________?
A. bh²/12
B. b²h/12
C. bh3/12
D. b3h/12
A. Material is homogeneous
B. Material is isotropic
C. Young’s modulus is same in tension as well as in compression
D. All the above
A concentrated load P is supported by the free end of a quadrantal ring AB whose end B is fixed. The
ratio of the vertical to horizontal deflections of the end A, is______________?
A. /6
B. /2
A load of 1960 N is raised at the end of a steel wire. The minimum diameter of the wire so that stress
in the wire does not exceed 100 N/mm2 is________________?
A. 4.0 mm
B. 4.5 mm
C. 5.0 mm
D. 5.5 mm
The maximum deflection due to a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over entire span of a
cantilever of length l and of flexural rigidly EI, is_________________?
A. wl3/3EI
B. wl4/3EI
C. wl4/8EI
D. wl4/12EI
236
The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure
introduce_______________?
A. Compressive stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Shear stress
D. None of these
A spring of mean radius 40 mm contains 8 action coils of steel (N = 80000 N/mm2), 4 mm in diameter.
The clearance between the coils being 1 mm when unloaded, the minimum compressive load to
remove the clearance, is_____________?
A. 25 N
B. 30 N
C. 35 N
D. 40 N
The strain energy stored in a spring when subjected to greatest load without being permanently
distorted, is called______________?
A. Stiffness
B. Proof resilience
C. Proof stress
D. Proof load
A simply supported uniform rectangular bar breadth b, depth d and length L carries an isolated load W
at its mid-span. The same bar experiences an extension e under same tensile load. The ratio of the
maximum deflection to the elongation, is________________?
A. L/d
B. L/2d
C. (L/2d)²
D. (L/3d)²
A. 100 t compressive
B. 100 t tensile
C. Zero
D. Indeterminate
237
A. Yield ratio
B. Hooke’s ratio
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. Plastic ratio
A. 4t tension
B. 4t compression
C. 4.5t tension
D. 4.5t compression
The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam, is________________?
D. 4/3
For a strongest rectangular beam cut from a circular log, the ratio of the width and depth,
is________________?
A. 0.303
B. 0.404
C. 0.505
D. 0.707
m1 and m2 are the members of two individual simple trusses of a compound truss. The compound
truss will be rigid and determinate if__________________?
A. m = m1 + m2
B. m = m1 + m2 + 1
C. m = m1 + m2 + 2
D. m = m + m + 3
The greatest load which a spring can carry without getting permanently distorted, is
called_________________?
A. Stiffness
B. Proof resilience
C. Proof stress
D. Proof load
A bar L metre long and having its area of cross-section A, is subjected to a gradually applied tensile
load W. The strain energy stored in the bar is_________________?
A. WL/2AE
B. WL/AE
238
C. W²L/AE
D. W²L/2AE
An isolated load W is acting at a distance a from the left hand support, of a three hinged arch of span
2l and rise h hinged at the crown, the horizontal reaction at the support, is_________________?
A. Wa/h
B. Wa/2h
A. 3t compression
B. 3t tension
C. Zero
D. 1.5t compression
The ratio of the area of cross-section of a circular section to the area of its core, is_______________?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
In the truss shown in the given figure, the force in member BC is______________?
A. 100 t compressive
B. 100 t tensile
C. Zero
D. Indeterminate
A. 1.4
B. 1.5
C. 1.6
D. 1.7
A masonry dam (density = 20,000 N/m3) 6 m high, one metre wide at the top and 4 m wide at the
base, has vertical water face. The minimum stress at the base of the dam when the reservoir is full,
will be_______________________?
A. 75 N/m2
B. 750 N/m 2
C. 7500 N/m 2
D. 75000 N/m2
The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free end of a cantilever of length L and having flexural
rigidity EI, is_____________?
A. WL²/2EI
B. WL²/3EI
C. WL3/2EI
D. WL3/3EI
The ratio of the length and depth of a simply supported rectangular beam which experiences
maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress, due to same load at its mid span,
is_______________?
A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/3
A. Zero
B. 5t tension
C. 5t compression
D. 4t tension
If and are external and internal diameters of a circular shaft respectively, its polar moment of inertia,
is________________?
A. D4 – d4)
B. D4 – d4)
C. D4 – d4)
D. D4 – d4)
length of a column of length L, having one end fixed and other end hinged, is The
equivalent_____________?
A. 2 L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
240
A lift of weight W is lifted by a rope with an acceleration f. If the area of cross-section of the rope is A,
the stress in the rope is_______________?
A. [W (1 + f/ G)]/ A
B. (1 – g/f)/A
C. [W (2 + f/G)]/A
D. [W (2 + g/f)]/A
A. y = h/l² × (1 – x )
B. y = 2h/l² × (1 – x)
C. y = 3h/l² × (1 – x)
D. y = 4h/l² × (1 – x)
A rectangular column shown in the given figure carries a load P having eccentricities ex and ey along X
and Y axes. The stress at any point (x, y) is_______________?
A simply supported beam carries a varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the
length of the beam is a, the shear force will be zero at a distance x from least loaded point where x
is_________________?
A. a/2
B. a/3
C. a
D. a
A. 1.10 to 1.20
B. 1.20 to 1.30
C. 1.30 to 1.40
D. 1.40 to 1.50
A rolled steel joist is simply supported at its ends and carries a uniformly distributed load which
causes a maximum deflection of 10 mm and slope at the ends of 0.002 radian. The length of the joist
will be________________?
A. 10 m
B. 12 m
C. 14 m
D. 16 m
If the strain energy stored per unit volume in a hollow shaft subjected to a pure torque when t attains
maximum shear stress fs the ratio of inner diameter to outer diameter, is 17/64 (f
/N)s__________________?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/5
The eccentricity (e) of a hollow circular column, external diameter 25 cm, internal diameter 15 cm for
an eccentric load 100 t for non-development of tension, is__________________?
A. 2.75 cm
B. 3.00 cm
C. 3.50 cm
D. 4.25 cm
A. 100 t compressive
B. 100 t tensile
C. Zero
D. Indeterminate
A. /64
B. 4/32
C. 3/64
D. 4/64
A. For channels, the shear centre does not coincide its centroid
B. The point of intersection of the bending axis with the cross section of the beam, is called shear centre
C. For I sections, the shear centre coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the beam
D. All the above
242
Y are the bending moment, moment of inertia, radius of curvature, modulus of If M, I, R, E, F, and
elasticity stress and the depth of the neutral axis at section, then________________?
The locus of the moment of inertia about inclined axes to the principal axis, is______________?
A. Straight line
B. Parabola
C. Circle
D. Ellipse
A steel plate d × b is sandwiched rigidly between two timber joists each D × B/2 in section. The steel
will be (where Young’s modulus of steel is m times that of the timber)_________________?
A. BD² + mbd²)/6D]
B. BD3 + mbd3)/6D]
C. BD² + mbd3)/4D]
D. BD² + mbd²)/4D]
The general expression for the B.M. of a beam of length l is the beam carries M = (wl/2) x –
(wx²/2)_______________?
A. 6.25 t compressive
B. 8.75 t tensile
C. t tensile
D. t compressive
d constant, the width of a cantilever of length l of uniform strength loaded with Keeping the depth a
uniformly distributed load w varies from zero at the free end and________________?
243
y/n) (1 – a l/r), is For calculating the allowable stress of long columns. The empirical formula 0 known
as_________________?
For determining the support reactions at A and B of a three hinged arch, points B and Care joined and
produced to intersect the load line at D and a line parallel to the load line through A at D’. Distances
AD, DD’ and AD’ when measured were 4 cm, 3 cm and 5 cm respectively. The angle between the
reactions at A and B is___________________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
The ratio of the maximum deflections of a simply supported beam with a central load W and of a
cantilever of same length and with a load W at its free end, is________________?
A. 1/8
B. 1/10
C. 1/12
D. 1/16
A square column carries a load P at the centroid of one of the quarters of the square. If a is the side of
the main square, the combined bending stress will be________________?
A. p/a²
B. 2p/a²
C. 3p/a²
D. 4p/a²
A. 0
B. Maximum strain exceeds /E
0 0/2
C. Maximum shear stress exceeds
D. All the above
A shaft is subjected to bending moment M and a torque T simultaneously. The ratio of the maximum
bending stress to maximum shear stress developed in the shaft, is____________________?
244
A. M/T
B. T/M
C. 2M/ T
D. 2T/M
A cantilever of length 2 cm and depth 10 cm tapers in plan from a width 24 cm to zero at its free end.
If the modulus of elasticity of the material is 0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the deflection of the free end,
is________________?
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 5 mm
A. Strain is equal to
B. Maximum shear stress = /2
C. Strain energy = 0
0²/2E × volume
D. All the above
A. 1.5
B. 1.34
C. 2.34
D. 2.5
A steel bar 5 m × 50 mm is loaded with 250,000 N. If the modulus of elasticity of the material is 0.2
MN/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25, the change in the volume of the bar is_________________?
A. 1.125 cm3
B. 2.125 cm3
C. 3.125 cm3
A steel rod 1 metre long having square cross section is pulled under a tensile load of 8 tonnes. The
extension in the rod was 1 mm only. If Esteel = 2 × 106 kg/cm2, the side of the rod,
is_________________?
A. 1 cm
B. 1.5 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 2.5 cm
Total strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is known_________________?
245
The horizontal deflection of a parabolic curved beam of span 10 m and rise 3 m when loaded with a
uniformly distributed load l t per horizontal length is (where Ic is the M.I. at the crown, which varies as
the slope of the arch)___________________?
A. 50/EIc
B. 100/EIc
C. 150/EIc
D. 200/EIc
A. wa/2l
B. wl/a
C. wa/l
D. wa²/2l
In case of a simply supported rectangular beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the length
of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is__________________?
A. L/2
B. L/3
C. L/4
D. L/5
A. In a loaded beam, the moment at which the first yield occurs is called yield moment
B. In a loaded beam, the moment at which the entire section of the beam becomes fully plastic, is called
plastic moment
246
C. In a fully plastic stage of the beam, the neutral axis divides the section in two sections of equal area
D. All the above
A. d4N/8D3n
B. d4N/4D3n
C. 4D3N/d4n
D. 8D3N/d4n
The ratio of the length and diameter of a simply supported uniform circular beam which experiences
maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid span,
is___________________?
A. 1/8
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
The ratio of shear stress and shear strain of an elastic material, is________________?
A. Modulus of Rigidity
B. Shear Modulus
C. Modulus of Elasticity
D. Both A. and B
The ratio of moments of inertia of a triangular section about its base and about a centroidal axis
parallel to its base, is_________________?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0
The ratio of the deflections of the free end of a cantilever due to an isolated load at 1/3rd and 2/3rd
of the span, is________________?
A. 1/7
B. 2/7
C. 3/7
D. 2/5
247
A. 1.5
B. 1.6
C. 1.7
D. 1.75
The maximum magnitude of shear stress due to shear force F on a rectangular section of area A at the
neutral axis, is__________________?
A. F/A
B. F/2A
C. 3F/2A
D. 2F/3A
A. Width b M
B. Width b M
C. Width b 3 M
D. Width b 1/M
There are two hinged semicircular arches A, B and C of radii 5 m, 7.5 m and 10 m respectively and each
carries a concentrated load W at their crowns. The horizontal thrust at their supports will be in the
ratio of_______________?
A. 1 : 1½ : 2
B. 2 : 1½ : 1
C. 1 : 1 : 2
D. None of these
The equivalent length of a column of length L, having both the ends hinged, is_______________?
A. 2L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
For permissible shear stress fs, the torque transmitted by a thin tube of mean diameter D and wall
thickness t, is________________?
A. ( /2) t fs
B. ( /2) t fs
248
C. D2t fs
D. ( /4) fs
A. m = 2j – 3
B. j = 2m – 3
C. m = 3j – 2
D. j = 3m – 2
A. Straight line
B. Parabola
C. Circle
D. Hyperbola
section modulus of a square section of side B and that of a circular section of The ratio of the diameter
D, is___________________?
A. 2 /15
B. 3 /16
C. 3 /8
D. /16
The radius of gyration of a rectangular section (depth D, width B) from a centroidal axis parallel to the
width is__________________?
A. D/2
B. D
C. D
D. D
a uniform circular bar of diameter d and length , which extends by an The deflection of amount under
a tensile pull , when it carries the same load at its mid-span, is___________________?
A. el/2d
B. e²l/3d²
C. el²/3d²
D. e²l²/3d²
249
The equivalent length of a column of length L having one end fixed and the other end free,
is______________?
A. 2L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
The equivalent length is of a column of length having both the ends fixed, is_________________?
A. 2 L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
A steel bar 20 mm in diameter simply-supported at its ends over a total span of 40 cm carries a load at
its centre. If the maximum stress induced in the bar is limited to N/mm2, the bending strain energy
stored in the bar, is___________________?
A. 411 N mm
B. 511 N mm=
C. 611 N mm
The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of span L, carrying an isolated load at the centre
of the span; flexural rigidity being EI, is______________?
A. WL3/3EL
B. WL3/8EL
C. WL3/24EL
D. WL3/48EL
Beams composed of more than one material, rigidly connected together so as to behave as one piece,
are known as________________?
A. Compound beams
B. Indeterminate beams
C. Determinate beams
D. Composite beams
Shear strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is due to_________________?
250
A. Rankine
B. Guest or Trecas
C. St. Venant
D. Von Mises
The S.F. diagram of a loaded beam shown in the given figure is that of________________?
A steel rod of sectional area 250 sq. mm connects two parallel walls 5 m apart. The nuts at the ends
were tightened when the rod was heated to 100°C. If steel = 0.000012/C°, Esteel = 0.2 MN/mm2, the
tensile force developed at a temperature of 50°C, is_________________?
A. 80 N/mm2
B. 100 N/mm 2
C. 120 N/mm2
D. 150 N/mm2
H V are the algebraic sums of the forces resolved horizontally and vertically respectively, M is the
algebraic sum of the moments of forces about any point, for the equilibrium of the body acted
upon____________________?
A. H = 0
B. V = 0
C. M = 0
D. All the above
cross sections of bronze and copper bars of equal lengt b c are their Ab and Ac are the respective
stresses due to load P. If Pb and Pc are the loads shared by them, (where Eb and Ec are their
modulii)____________________?
A. b c = Eb /Ec
B. P = Pb + Pc
C. P = Ab b + Ac b
D. All the above
251
The locus of the end point of the resultant of the normal and tangential components of the stress on
an inclined plane, is________________?
A. Circle
B. Parabola
C. Ellipse
D. Straight line
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 3/2
A. 4.0t compression
B. 3.0t compression
C. 0.5t compression
D. 0.5t tension
A. (1/3) A
B. (1/6) A
C. (1/12) A
D. (1/18) A
A simply supported rolled steel joist 8 m long carries a uniformly distributed load over it span so that
the maximum bending stress is 75 N/mm². If the slope at the ends is 0.005 radian and the value of E =
0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the depth of the joist, is________________?
252
A. 200 mm
B. 250 mm
C. 300 mm
D. 400 mm
If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the
following_______________?
A. Q = S + F
B. Q = S – F
C. Q = F – S
D. Q = S × F
If a concrete column 200 × 200 mm in cross-section is reinforced with four steel bars of 1200 mm2
total cross-sectional area. Calculate the safe load for the column if permissible stress in concrete is 5
N/mm2 and Es is 15 Ec________________?
A. 264 MN
B. 274 MN
C. 284 MN
The ratio of maximum and average shear stresses on a rectangular section, is________________?
A. 1
B. 1.25
C. 1.5
D. 2.5
At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of inertia of the
section by_________________?
The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam with a uniformly distributed load w/unit
length, is_________________?
A. WI/2
B. WI²/4
C. WI²/8
D. WI²/12
The maximum B.M. due to an isolated load in a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l and rise h) having
one of its hinges at the crown, occurs on either side of the crown at a distance_______________?
A. l/4
B. h/4
C. l
D. l
For calculating the permissible stress 0 y /[(1 + a(l/r)²] is the empirical formula, known
as__________________?
A. Depth d M
B. Depth d 3
C. Depth d
D. Depth d 1/M
A short column (30 cm × 20 cm) carries a load P 1 at 4 cm on one side and another load P2at 8 cm on
the other side along a principal section parallel to longer dimension. If the extreme intensity on either
side is same, the ratio of P1 to P2 will be_________________?
A. 2/3
B. 3/2
C. 8/5
D. 5/8
To determine the force in BD of the truss shown in the given figure a section is passed through BD, CD
and CE, and the moments are taken about________________?
254
A. A joint
B. B joint
C. C joint
A simply supported beam which carries a uniformly distributed load has two equal overhangs. To
have maximum B.M. produced in the beam least possible, the ratio of the length of the overhang to
the total length of the beam, is_________________?
A. 0.207
B. 0.307
C. 0.407
D. 0.508
If a solid shaft (diameter 20 cm, length 400 cm, N = 0.8 × 105 N/mm2) when subjected to a twisting
moment, produces maximum shear stress of 50 N/mm 2, the angle of twist in radians,
is_________________?
A. 0.001
B. 0.002
C. 0.0025
D. 0.003
A compound truss may be formed by connecting two simple rigid frames, by_________________?
A. Two bars
B. Three bars
C. Three parallel bars
D. Three bars intersecting at a point
The ratio of crippling loads of a column having both the ends fixed to the column having both the ends
hinged, is________________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
For determining the force in the member AB of the truss shown in the given figure by method of
sections, the section is made to pass through AB, AD and ED and the moments are taken
about___________________?
A. Joint C
B. Joint B
C. Joint D
D. Joint A
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Zero
A compound bar consists of two bars of equal length. Steel bar cross -section is 3500 mm2and that of
brass bar is 3000 mm2. These are subjected to a compressive load 100,000 N. If Eb = 0.2 MN/mm2 and
Eb = 0.1 MN/mm2, the stresses developed are___________________?
A. b = 10 N/mm2 s = 20 N/mm 2
B. b = 8 N/mm2 s = 16 N/mm2
C. b = 6 N/mm2 s = 12 N/mm2
D. b = 5 N/mm2 s = 10 N/mm2
The ratio of circumferential stress to the longitudinal stress in the walls of a cylindrical shell, due to
flowing liquid, is__________________?
A. ½
B. 1
C. 1½
D. 2
The forces acting on the bar as shown in the given figure introduce________________?
A. Compressive stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Shear stress
D. None of these
A simply supported beam carries varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the
length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be_______________?
A. wa/27
B. wa²/27
C. w²a
D. wa²
The yield moment of a cross section is defined as the moment that will just produce the yield stress
in_________________?
A road of uniform cross-section A and length L force P. The Young’s Modulus E of the material,
is_________________?
256
A. E = /A. L
B. E =/P. L
C. E = P. L/
D. E = P. A/
A. Graphical method
B. Method of joints
C. Method of sections
D. All the above
If a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l, rise h) is carrying a uniformly distributed load w/unit length
over the entire span__________________?
The ratio of the stresses produced by a suddenly applied load and by a gradually applied load on a
bar, is__________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. 2
The horizontal thrust on the ends of a two hinged semicircular arch of radius
carrying_________________?
A. A uniforml 4/3
B. end, is
257
A. The structural member subjected to compression and whose dimensions are small as
B. compared to its length, is called a stmt
The vertical compression members are generally known as columns or stanchions
C. Deflection in lateral direction of a long column, is generally known as buckling
D. All the above
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly
proportional to___________________?
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Angle of twist
C. Reciprocal of the length of the shaft
D. Moment of inertia of the shaft section
inertia of a rectangular section of width and depth about an axis passing The moment of through C.G.
and parallel to its width is_______________?
A. BD²/6
B. BD3/6
C. BD3/12
D. B²D/6
For the close coil helical spring of the maximum deflection is__________________?
A. WD3n/d4N
B. 2WD3n/d4N
C. 4W²D3n/d4N
D. 8WD3n/d4N
Environmental Engineering
The hourly variation factor is usually taken as______________?
A. 1.5
B. 1.8
C. 2.0
D. 2.7
The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is____________?
A. more depth
B. less depth
C. more discharge
D. less discharge
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. hydrogen
D. nitrogen
A. calcium carbonate
B. magnesium carbonate
A. 0.1 mg/litre
B. 1.5 mg/litre
C. 5 mg/litre
D. 10 mg/litre
If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal
to________________?
A. total alkalinity
B. total hardness
C. total hardness – total alkalinity
D. non carbonate hardness
The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the
order of________________?
A. 1 mg/litre
B. 10 mg/litre
C. 100 mg/litre
D. 1000 mg/litre
A. B
B. 2B
C. 4B
D. 8B
Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is
about_______________?
A. 10 to 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to
sedimentation with coagulation are generally_______________?
A. 2 to 4
B. 4 to 6
C. 6 to 8
D. 8 to 10
The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is_______________?
A. 0.25 to 0.35 mm
B. 0.35 to 0.60 mm
C. 0.60 to 1.00 mm
D. 1.00 to 1.80 mm
Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters. Reason
R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters. Select your answer based
on the coding system given below?
The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is
about______________?
262
A. 0.2 to 0.4
B. 0.4 to 1.0
C. 2 to 4
D. 5 to 7
A. applied chlorine
B. residual chlorine
C. sum of applied and residual chlorine
D. difference of applied and residual chlorine
A. 10 to 15
B. 20 to 25
C. 30 to 35
D. 40 to 50
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. none of the above
The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The
population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometrical increase method
is________________?
A. 9500
B. 9800
C. 10100
D. 10920
263
A. disinfection
B. removing hardness
C. removing odours
D. removing corrosiveness
The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is_______________?
The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern
is______________?
The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire
demand is considered is________________?
A. circle method
B. equivalent pipe method
C. electrical analysis method
D. Hardy cross method
The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street
corners and where the pipe lines intersect is_______________?
A. check valve
B. sluice valve
264
C. safety valve
D. scour valve
A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of
immediate disposal is called________________?
A. house sewer
B. lateral sewer
C. main sewer
D. submain sewer
Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is______________?
A. 100 litres
B. 135 litres
C. 165 litres
D. 200 litres
A. circular sewer
B. egg shaped sewer
A. the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer
B. the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration
C. sum of (A) and (B)
D. difference of (A) and (B)
The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as_____________?
A. 15 cm and 100 cm
B. 15 cm and 300 cm
C. 30 cm and 450 cm
D. 60 cm and 300cm
A. rectangular section
B. circular section
C. standard form of egg shaped sewer
D. modified egg shaped section
A. grade of sewer
B. length of sewer
C. hydraulic mean depth of sewer
D. roughness of sewer
The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is_____________?
A. to decrease it
B. to increase it
C. fluctuating
D. nil
The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is_____________?
A. circular sewer
B. egg shaped sewer
C. horse-shoe type sewer
D. semi-elliptical sewer
A. nitrification
B. chlorination
A. 5-10 years
B. 15-20 years
C. 30-40 years
D. 40-50 years
A. 20°C – 1day
B. 25°C- 3day
C. 20°C – 5day
D. 30°C- 5day
In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of
diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be___________?
A. 100 ppm
B. 200 ppm
C. 300 ppm
D. 400 ppm
The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen
required to satisfy BOD, is______________?
A. 1
B. 100
C. infinite
D. zero
A. a theodolite
B. a compass
C. sight rails and boning rods
D. a plane table
If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in_________________?
A. grit chambers
B. detritus tanks
C. skimming tanks
D. sedimentation tanks
A. oxidation pond
B. oxidation ditch
C. aerated lagoons
D. trickling filters
A. sludge digestion
B. sludge disposal
C. sedimentation
D. filtration
For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be
maintained as___________________?
A. 4.5 to 6.0
B. 6.5 to 8.0
268
C. 8.5 to 10.0
D. 10.5 to 12.0
For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is________________?
A. 0 to 50
B. 50 to 150
C. 150 to 350
D. 350 to 500
For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the
quantity of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be__________________?
A. X/4
B. X/2
C. X
D. 2X
A. nitrogen
B. carbon dioxide
C. hydrogen sulphide
D. methane
A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is
called______________?
A. vent pipe
B. antisiphonage pipe
C. waste pipe
D. soil pipe
A. parasitic
B. saprophytic
The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is
called_______________?
269
A. waste pipe
B. soil pipe
C. vent pipe
D. antisiphonage pipe
A. 0
B. 1
C. infinity
D. none of the above
A. aerobic only
B. anaerobic only
C. aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
D. anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 2-4 hours
D. 12 hours
1) settling tank
2) digestion tank
270
3) aeration tank
The correct answer is?. (1) and (2)
A. septic conditions
B. dissolved oxygen
C. chlorine
D. nitrogen
The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as_______________?
A. inlet
B. manhole
C. drop manhole
D. catch basin
A. maximum at noon
B. minimum at noon
C. maximum at midnight
D. same throughout the day
The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic
life is______________?
A. 1 ppm
B. 4 ppm
C. 10 ppm
D. 40 ppm
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 1.0
The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)
and Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by_______________?
271
A. TOD>BOD>COD
B. TOD>COD>BOD
C. BOD>COD>TOD
D. COD>BOD>TOD
A. higher temperature
B. sunlight
C. satisfying oxygen demand
D. none of the above
A. less strength
B. difficulty in construction
C. difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight
D. less life
The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as________________?
272
A. equal to rainfall
B. rainfall + DWF
C. rainfall + 2 DWF
D. rainfall + 6 DWF
If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of
Health formula will be__________________?
A. 4 mm/hr
B. lOmm/hr
C. 20 mm/hr
D. 40 mm/hr
The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less
intensity is_________________?
A. separate system
B. combined system
C. partially separate system
D. partially combined system
A. 10 years
B. 25 years
C. 50 years
D. 75 years
The hydraulic mean depth (HMD. for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is_______________?
If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD. of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg,
then population equivalent of town is_________________?
A. 1000
B. 4000
C. 100000
D. 400000
For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system
will be________________?
. separate system
A. house sewer
B. lateral sewer
C. intercepting sewer
D. submain sewer
The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse
direction is____________________?
A. reflux valve
B. sluice valve
C. air relief valve
D. pressure relief valve
Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and
narrow pipe system ?
A. circle method
B. equivalent pipe method
C. Hardy cross method
D. electrical analysis method
The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery
is_________________?
A. ring system
B. dead end system
274
C. radial system
D. grid iron system
A. heavier
B. stronger
C. costlier
D. less susceptible to corrosion
A. sodium sulphate
B. copper sulphate
C. sodium chloride
D. calcium chloride
In lime-soda process________________?
As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH
values is_________? . smaller
Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?
A. carbon dioxide
B. bleaching powder
C. sulphur dioxide
A. prechlorination
B. super chlorination
C. dechlorination
D. hypochlorination
The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known
as_________________?
A. prechlorination
B. post chlorination
C. super chlorination
D. break point chlorination
275
A. removal of turbidity
B. removal of hardness
C. killing of disease bacteria
D. complete sterilisation
A. 24 – 48 hours
B. 10-12 days
C. 2-3 months
D. 1-2 year
The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is
about_____________?
A. 50 to 60
A. sulphuric acid
B. copper sulphate
C. lime
D. sodium permanganate
A. 1 to 2 minutes
B. 30 to 45 minutes
C. 2 to 6 hours
D. 2 to 6 days
A. depth of tank
B. surface area of tank
C. both depth and surface area of tank
D. none of the above
A. 5 to 10 cm/sec.
B. 15 to 30 cm/sec.
C. 15 to 30 cm/minute
D. 15 to 30 cm/hour
The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria is
about______________?
A. dissolved oxygen
B. residual chlorine
On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to_______________?
A. 10 ppm
B. 20 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 50 ppm
A. 2
B. 5
Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic aciD. solution is used to determine
the_______________?
A. hardness in water
B. turbidity in water
278
A. suspended impurities
B. dissolved impurities
C. both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties
D. none of the above
A. 5 litres/sec
B. 50 litres/sec
C. 500 litres/sec
D. 1000 litres/see
The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than_______________?
A. 0.1 ppm
B. 0.01 ppm
C. 0.001 ppm
D. 0.0001 ppm
A. dysentery
B. cholera
C. typhoid
D. maleria
Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific retention
(R)________________?
A. N = y + R
B. y = N + R
C. R = N + y
D. R > (N + y)
The suitable method of forecasting popu¬lation for a young and rapidly increasing city
is_________________?
A. lesser value
If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily con¬sumption on peak
hourly demand will be_______________?
A. 100000m3
B. 150000m3
C. 180000m3
D. 270000 m3
Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure. Reason R
: Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water. Select your answer according to
the coding system given below?
1) climatic conditions
2) quality of water
3) distribution pressure
The correct answer is?
The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called______________?
A. aquifers
B. aquiclude
C. filters
D. intakes
If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted
is_____________?
A. Light in weight
B. Not structurally strong to bear large compressive stress
C. Susceptible to corrosion by sulphuric acid
D. All the above
A. 15 cm c/c
B. 22.5 cm c/c
C. 30 cm c/c
D. 50 cm c/c
For drainage pipes in buildings the test applied before putting them to use, is__________________?
A. Water test
B. Smoke test
C. Straightness test
D. All the above
A. The sewage when running full from inside, is called internal pressure
B. The internal pressure if any, causes tensile stress in the pipe material
C. Pressure sewers are designed to be safe in tension
D. All the above
Acid regression stage of sludge digestion at a temperature 21°C extends over a period
of______________?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
A. The sewer pipes of sizes less than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running full at maximum discharge
B. The sewer pipes of sizes greater than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running 2/3rd or 3/4th full at
maximum discharge
C. The minimum design velocity of sewer pipes is taken as 0.8 m/sec
D. All the above
Which of the following pumps in used to pump sewage solids with liquid sewage without clogging the
pump is ?
A. Centrifugal pump
The coagulant which is generally not used for treating the sewage, is__________________?
A. Alum
B. Ferric chloride
C. Ferric sulphate
D. Chlorinated copperas
If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in the upper layers of the sewer forms an explosive, the sewer
certainly contains_______________?
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen
282
For the open drain (N = 0.025) shown in the below figure, the discharge is________________?
A. 26.88 cumecs
B. 27.88 cumecs
C. 28.88 cumecs
D. 29.88 cumecs
Assertion A.: The determination of pH value of sewerage is important. Reason (R): The efficiency of
certain treatment methods depends upon the availability of pH value________________?
The drainage area of a town is 12 hectares. Its 40% area is hard pavement ( K = 0.85), the 40% area is
unpaved streets (K = 0.20) and the remaining is wooded areas (K = 0.15). Assuming the time of
concentration for the areas as 30 minutes and using the formula Ps = 900/(t + 60) the maximum run
off is__________________?
A. 0.10 cumec
B. 0.12 cumec
C. 0.15 cumec
D. 0.20 cumec
The rational formula for peak drainage discharge, was evolved by_________________?
A. Fruhling
B. Lloyd David
C. Kuichling
D. All of these
¾th or ¼th extra space is left in sewer pipes at maximum discharge for_________________?
283
Aerobic bacterias___________________?
Traps_________________?
The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is known as_______________?
A. A trunk sewer
B. An outfall sewer
C. A main sewer
D. An intercepting sewer
A. 0.112 kg in suspension
B. 0.112 kg in solution
C. 0.225 kg in solution
D. Both A. and C. of above
A. Running expenses
B. Maintenance expenses
C. Operation expenses
D. All the above
A. Bath rooms
B. Wash basins
C. Kitchen sinks
D. Toilets
A. Its intensity
B. Its direction
C. Its frequency
D. All the above
A. Brick sewer
B. Cast iron sewer
C. R.C.C. sewer
D. Lead sewer
The formula which accepts the value of rugosity coefficient n = 0.012 to be used in Manning’s formula,
is given by______________________?
A. Bazin
B. Crimp and Bruges
C. William-Hazen
D. Kutter
285
If the peak discharge of a storm water drain (S.W. Drain) is expected to exceed 150 cumecs, the free
board to be provided, is_________________?
A. 100 cm
B. 90 cm
C. 80 cm
D. 50 cm
A. 4 to 8 hours
B. 8 to 16 hours
C. 16 to 24 hours
D. 24 to 36 hours
A. Steel pipes
B. Steel shell coated from inside with cement mortar
C. Steel shell coated from outside with cement mortar
D. Both B. and C.
If the length of overland flow from the critical point to the mouth of drain is 13.58 km and difference
in level between the critical point and drain mouth is 10 m, the inlet time is___________________?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
In a trickling filter_________________?
A. 30 litres/person/year
B. 25 litres/person/year
286
C. 30 litres/person/month
D. 25 litres/person/month
15 cumecs, the depth d and width are related by For drains up to___________________?
A. d = 0.2 B
B. d = 0.5 B
If a 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and the dissolved oxygen depletion
was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is_________________?
A. 100 mg/l
B. 200 mg/l
C. 300 mg/l
D. 400 mg/l
A. Nitrates
B. Nitrites
C. Free ammonia
D. None of these
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Carbon dioxide
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. All the above
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
287
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
A. 30 to 40%
B. 40 to 60%
C. 60 to 80%
D. 80 to 90%
The grit chambers of sewage treatment plants, are generally cleaned after__________________?
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 12 days
D. 14 days
If the discharge of a sewer running half is 628 1.p.s., i = 0.001, and n = 0.010, the diameter of the
sewer, is__________________?
A. 1.39 m
B. 1.49 m
C. 1.59 m
D. 1.69 m
running partially full with central angle , For a circular sewer of diameter__________________?
A. d/D = ½ (1 – –
B. a/A
C. r/R = [1 –
D. All the above
The settling velocity of a spherical particle of diameter less than 0.1 mm as per Stock’s law,
is__________________?
288
A. 25 to 50 m
B. 50 m to 100 m
C. 100 m to 150 m
D. 150 m to 300 m
A. cm/minute
B. cm/hour
C. cm/day
D. None of these
Which one of the following part of human body withstands minimum radiation ?
A. Thyroid
B. Kidneys
C. Eyes
D. Ovaries/testis
The bottom of the sewage inlet chamber of septic tanks, is provided an outward
slope_________________?
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 10
C. 1 in 15
D. 1 in 20
A. Centrifugal pump
A. City
B. Out-fall
C. Tail end
D. Any point
Lead acetate test in sewer manhole is done to test the presence of ____________________?
A. Methane gas
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Carbondioxide gas
D. Diesel vapours
The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for mains up to 1 m in diameter,
is___________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
290
The arrangement made for passing the sewer line below an obstruction below the hydraulic gradient
lines called ____________________?
A. Inverted syphon
B. Depressed sewer
C. Sag pipe
D. all of these
A. Bacterias
B. Suspended solids
C. Sediments
D. Hardness
A. Rivers
B. Seas
C. Lakes
D. None of these
A. The water supply pipes carry pure water free from solid particles
B. The water supply pipes get clogged if flow velocity is less than self cleansing velocity
C. The sewers may be carried up and down the hills and valleys
D. The sewer pipes are generally laid along level hills
The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply demand per day is 200
litres and sewage discharge is 80% of water supply, the sewage flow in sewers of separate system,
is_____________________?
A. 0.05552 cumec
B. 0.05554 cumec
C. 0.05556 cumec
D. 0.0556 cumec
The spacing of bars for perforations in coarse screens used for the treatment of sewage, is
____________________?
A. 20 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 40 mm
D. 50 mm
A. Equal to 7
B. More than 7
C. Less than 7
D. Equal to zero
If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 5 ppm after incubating a 2.5% solution of sewage sample for
5 days at 21°C, B.O.D. of the sewage is_____________________?
A. 50 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 150 ppm
D. 200 ppm
The spacing of man holes along a straight portion of a sewer is 300 m, the diameter of the sewer may
be__________________?
A. 0.9 cm
B. 1.2 m
C. 1.5 m
D. > 1.5 m
A five day B.O.D. at 15°C of the sewage of a town is 100 kg/day. If the 5 day B.O.D. per head at 15°C
for standard sewage is 0.1 kg/day, the population equivalent is____________________?
A. 100
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
The quantity of liquid waste which flows in sewers during the period of rainfall, is
known__________________?
A. Sanitary sewage
B. Industrial waste
C. Storm sewage
D. None of these
A. Lung cancer
B. Skin cancer
C. Bronchitis
D. Heart disorder
A cylindrical ejector having its height 2 m fills after every 10 minutes with a peak sewage discharge of
0.0157 cumec. The diameter of the ejector chamber, is_____________________?
A. 2.30 m
B. 2.40 m
C. 2.45 m
D. 2.50 m
293
A. Carbondioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Sulphur-dioxide
A. One pipe
B. Two pipes
C. Three pipes
D. Four pipes
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 200 m
D. 300 m
A. Chezy’s formula
B. Bazin’s formula
A. Typhoid
B. Cholera
C. Dysentery
D. All the above
In detritus tanks______________________?
If the side of a square sewer is 1000 mm, the diameter of a hydraulically equivalent circular section,
is___________________?
A. 1045 mm
B. 1065 mm
C. 1075 mm
D. 1095 mm
A. 100
B. 60
C. 40
D. 20
A. Bend
B. Junction
C. Change of gradient
D. All the above
A. 1
B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 5
D. 5 to 10
The disintegrating pump in which solid matter is broken up before passing out,
is__________________?`
A. Centrifugal pump
B. Reciprocating pump
C. Pneumatic ejector
D. None of these
A. Branch sewers
B. Main sewers
295
C. Trunk sewers
D. All the above
A. 2 metres/sec
B. 1 metre/sec
C. 0.5 metre/sec
D. 0.25 metre/sec
A. Acid fermentation
B. Acid regressio
C. Alkaline fermentation
D. None of these
A. Chezy’s formula
B. Bazin’s formula
C. Kutter’s formula
D. Manning’s formula
A. 1.0 m
B. 2.0 m
C. 3.0 m
D. 4.0 m
The maximum spacing of manholes specified by Indian standard in sewers upto 0.3 m diameter
is____________________?
296
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 75 m
A. Tensile force
B. Compressive force
C. Bending force
D. Shearing force
A. 100 m
B. 150 m
C. 200 m
D. 300 m
Boussinesq’s equation for ascertaining unit pressure at a depth on sewers due to traffic loads,
is__________________?
A. pt = 3H3p/2 Z5
B. pt = 2H3p/3 Z5
C. pt = 3H3p/2Z5
D. pt = 2 3p/3Z5
For trunk sewers more than 1.25 m in diameter, the ratio of the maximum daily sewage flow to the
average daily sewage flow is assumed________________?
A. 1.5
The normal values of over flow rates for secondary sedimentation tanks, ranges
between__________________?
The width of a settling tank with 2 hour detention period for treating sewage 378 cu m per hour, is
__________________?
D. 7 m
297
For non-scouring velocity 5 m/sec, the type of sewers generally preferred to,
is____________________?
The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for trunk mains having diameters more
than 1.25 m, is____________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
The liquid wastes from kitchens, bath rooms and wash basins, is not called________________?
A. Liquid waste
B. Sullage
C. Sewage
D. None of these
The detention time (t) of a settling tank, may be defined as the time required for_________________?
A. 5 – 10 years
B. 15 – 20 years
In Chezy’s formula V = C rs for calculating the velocity of flow in circular sewer of diameter running
full, the value of hydraulic mean radius is_______________?
A. D
B. D /2
C. D/3
D. D/4
For sewer mains of 0.5 to 1 m diameter, the ratio of maximum daily sewage flow to the average daily
sewage flow is assumed__________________?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 5 minutes
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of a standard egg shaped section,
is___________________?
A. D
B. 1.25 D
C. 1.5 D
D. 1.75 D
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 6.5
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 80
C. 1 in 10
D. 1 in 400
299
A. Sanitary sewage
B. Storm sewage
C. Surface water
D. Ground water
A. Industrial areas
B. Large town ships
C. Hilly town ships
D. Cities in plains
For design purposes, the normal rate of infiltration of ground water into the sewer,
is___________________?
A. 500 litres/km/cm
B. 1000 litres/km/cm
C. 1500 litres/km/cm
D. 2000 litres/km/cm
A. Degradation
Assertion A. : Discharging the effluents from the oxidation ponds just up stream of lakes or reservoirs
is undesirable. Reason (R) : The discharged algae get settled in the reservoirs and cause anaerobic
decomposition and other water qualities_________________?
The dimensions of a rectangular settling tank are: length 24 m, width 6 m and depth 3 m. If 2 hour
detention period for tanks is recommended, the rate of flow of sewage per hour,
is_____________________?
A. 204 cu.m
B. 208 cu.m
C. 212 cu.m
D. 216 cu.m
A. Irrigation
B. Dilution
300
The digested sludge from septic tanks, is removed after a maximum period of__________________?
A. 3 years
B. 3.5 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
A. Boiling
B. Adding potassium permanganate
C. Adding sulphuric acid
D. Phenol-di-sulphuric acid
A. 0.010
B. 0.011
C. 0.012
D. 0.013
A. 10 cm
B. 12.5 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 25 cm
A. House sewer
B. Lateral sewer
C. Branch sewer
D. All of these
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrates
C. Sulphates
D. All the above
The angle subtended by the surface of sewer water with partial flow, at sewer centre is 120°, the
depth of sewerage is________________________?
D. 50 cm
301
If the grit in grit chambers is 4.5 million litres per day, its cleaning is done____________________?
Manually
The ratio of depths at partial flo________________?
A. 1 –
B. 1 –
C. ½ (1 –
D. ½ (1 –
A. Settleable solids
B. Suspended solids
C. Dissolved solids
D. None of these
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Weight
D. None of these
A. Surface loading
B. Overflow rate
C. Overflow velocity
D. All of these
A. R.C.C.
B. Glazed stone wares
C. Asbestos cement
D. Glazed ware
302
In olden days the type of section adopted in trunk and out fall sewers was__________________?
A. Parabolic shaped
B. Horse shoe shaped
C. Egg shaped
D. Circular shaped
In primary sedimentation, the 0.2 mm inorganic solids get separated if specific gravity
is_________________?
A. 2.25
B. 2.50
C. 2.55
D. 2.65
A. R.C.C.
B. P.C.C.
C. Cast iron
D. Glazed stonewares
In R.C. sewer pipes, the percentage longitudinal reinforcement to the cross-sectional area of concrete
is kept________________?
A. 10.0
B. 5.0
C. 2.0
D. 0.25
If the depth of partial flow in a sewer of diameter 2 m, is 50 cm, its wetted perimeter
is____________________ ?
A. 1/3
B. 0/2
C. 0/3
D. 2 /3
A. Flushing
B. Cane rodding
C. Wooden pills
D. None of these
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the area of cross-section of a standard egg shaped sewer,
is____________________?
A. D²
B. D²
C. D²
D. D²
A. 100 to 500
B. 500 to 1000
C. 1000 to 1500
D. 1500 to 2000
A. Carbondioxide
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Methane
D. All of these
If a paper moistened with lead acetate for five minutes when placed in manhole turns black. The
sewer certainly contains__________________?
A. Hydrogen sulphide
The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of treatment, is called________________?
A. House sewer
B. Out-fall sewer
C. Branch sewer
D. Main sewer
To test chemical oxygen demand (C.O.D.) of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by potassium
dichromate in the presence of_______________?
304
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Citric acid
If the diameter of a sewer is 100 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity
is__________________?
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 120
D. None of these
A. 0.5 to 1.0 kg
B. 1 kg to 2.0 kg
C. 5 kg to 7.5 kg
D. 7.5 kg to 10 kg
Before discharging the foul sewage into rivers, it is generally treated by_____________________?
A. Screening
B. Sedimentation
C. Oxidation
D. All the above
A. D8/3 = 4 b8/3
B. D3/8 = 4 b3/8
C. D2/3 = 4 b2/3
D. D3/2 = 4 b3/2
305
A. Minimum flow
B. Maximum flow
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
A. Anaerobic bacteria
A. House sewers
B. Lateral sewers
C. Branch sewers
D. Main sewers
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Ammonia
D. All the above
A. Invert level of a branch sewer is more than 60 cm that of the main sewer
B. Sewer line runs along a main road
C. Ordinary manhole cannot be built
D. Two sewer lines intersect
The sewage discharge in a detritus tank of a treatment plant is 576 litres/sec with flow velocity of 0.2
m/sec. If the ratio of width to depth is 2, the depth is____________________?
A. 100 cm
B. 110 cm
C. 120 cm
D. 150 cm
A. One hour
B. Two to three hours
C. Three to four hours
D. Six hours
A. Velocity of flow
B. Diameter of the sewer
C. Discharge
D. All the above
A. Screening
B. Skimming
C. Filtration
D. None of these
The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage is_________________?
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 3/4
A. Alum
B. Ferric chloride
For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved oxygen is
prescribed________________?
A. 3 ppm
B. 4 ppm
C. 5 ppm
D. 10 ppm
The width of a rectangular sewer is twice its depth while discharging 1.5 m/sec. The width of the
sewer is______________? 1.36 m
For providing an Indian type W.C., the R.C.C. slabs in the toilet portion__________________?
A. Should be sunk by 20 cm
B. Should be kept 20 cm above the adjacent portion
C. Should be sunk by 50 cm
D. Need not be sunk
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Weight
D. None of these
When drainage to sewage ratio is 20, the peak dry weather flow is_______________?
The non-clog pump which permits solid matter to pass out with the liquid sewage,
is________________? Centrifugal pump
Which one of the following tests is used for testing sewer pipes ?
A. Water test
B. Ball test
C. Mirror test
D. All of these
If the diameter of sewer is 225 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity,
is___________________? 1 in 120
The sewer pipe which carries sewage from a building for immediate disposal is______________?
House sewer
Clogging of sewers, is caused due to_______________?
A. Silting
B. Low discharge
C. Greasy and oily matters
D. All the above
In sewage having fully oxidised organic matter, the nitrogen exists in the form of________________?
A. Nitrites
B. Nitrates
Dry water flow in a combined sewer, is______________________? Storm water
Assertion A.: The minimum self cleansing velocity in the sewer, at least once a day, must be
generated. Reason (R): If certain deposition takes place and is not removed, it obstructs
free flow and causes further deposition leading to complete blocking of the sewer?
308
3.0 ml of raw sewage is diluted to 300 ml. The D.O. concentration of the diluted sample at the
beginning of the test was 8 mg/l. After 5 day-incubation at 20°C, the D.O. concentration was 5 mg/l.
The BOD of raw sewerage is______________________?
300 mg/l
If is the rugosity coefficient, is the bed slope of sewer, the velocity of flow in m/sec may be obtained
by the formula V = (1/n) r2/3 s1/2 evolved by_________________? Manning
The sewage treatment in septic tanks is due to__________________?
A. Anaerobic decomposition
In a sludge digestion tank if the moisture content of sludge V1 litres is reduced from p1 %
to p2 % the volume V2 is____________________?
You are asked to design sewer pipes of diameters 0.4 m to 0.9 m at maximum flow, you will
assume the sewer flow running at___________________?
A. Full depth
B. Half full
For a peak discharge of 0.0157 cumec, with a velocity of 0.9 m/sec, the diameter of the sewer main,
is________________?
A. 10 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 18 cm
The most effective arrangement for diverting excess storm water into a natural drainage,
is____________________?
A. Leaping weir
B. Overflow weir
C. Siphon spill way
D. None of these
For estimating the peak run off the rational formula Q = 0.0278 KpA was evolved by______________?
A. Kinchling
B. Lloyd Davis
C. Frubling
D. All the above
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The settlement velocity of a solid (diameter 0.5 mm, specific gravity 1.75) in water having
temperature 10°C, is______________________?
A. 213.5 cm/sec
B. 313.5 cm/sec
C. 413.5 cm/sec
D. 500 cm/sec
A. Magnetic compass
B. Theodolite
C. Level
D. Clinometer
For detecting the nitrites in the sewage, the matching colour may be developed by
adding_________________?
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine
C. Phenol-di -sulphuric acid potassium hydroxide
D. None of these
A. Alkaline
B. Acidic
C. Highly decomposed
D. A source of objectionable odour
A. Average demand
B. Twice the average demand
C. Thrice the average demand
D. Four times the average demand
A. Turbidity
B. Colour
C. Odour
D. All the above
For laying a sewer line in a trench of 2 m width, an offset line is marked on the ground parallel to the
given centre line at a distance of___________________? 160cm
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The sewer which collects the discharge from a collecting system and delivers it to a treatment plant, is
known_____________________?
A. House sewer
B. Lateral sewer
C. Branch sewer
D. Sewer outfall
A sewer pipe contains 1 mm sand particles of specific gravity 2.65 and 5 mm organic particles of
specific gravity 1.2, the minimum velocity required for removing the sewerage,
is_____________________?
A. 0.30 m/sec
B. 0.35 m/sec
C. 0.40 m/sec
D. 0.45 m/sec
A. Velocity of flow
B. Viscosity of water
C. Size and shape of solid
D. All the above
If the over land flow from the critical point to the drain is 8 km and the difference in level is 12.4 m,
the inlet time is________________?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
A. Circular
B. Egg shaped
C. Rectangular
D. Horse shoe shaped
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If D.O. concentration falls down to zero in any natural drainage, it indicates the zone
of__________________?
A. Degradation
B. Active decomposition
C. Recovery
D. Cleaner water
For trunk and out-fall, the type of sewers generally used, is_____________________?
The most efficient cross section of sewers in a separate sewerage system is__________________?
A. Parabolic
B. Circular
C. Rectangular
D. New egged
A. 0.4 to 0.5 m
B. 0.5 to 0.7 m
C. 0.7 to 0.9 m
D. 0.9 to 1.20 m
In a city the ratio of the drainage to sewage is 20, the percentage discharge passing through non-
monsoon periods, is_____________________?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
A. It is cheaper in construction
B. It provides maximum area for a given perimeter
C. It provides maximum hydraulic mean depth
D. All the above
If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/litre after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage diluted to 250
ml for 5 days at 20°C, B.O.D. of the sewage is_________________?
A. 50 mg/l
B. 100 mg/l
C. 150 mg/l
D. 250 mg/l
A safety lamp when inserted in the upper portion of a manhole causes flames. It indicates the
presence of______________?
A. Carbondioxide gas
B. Hydrogen sulphide gas
C. Methane gas
D. Petrol vapours
A. Horizontally
B. Vertically
C. At an angle of 30°
D. At an angle of 60°
A. Domestic sewage
B. Industrial sewage
C. Storm sewage
D. All the above
A. 0.05 m/sec
B. 0.09 m/sec
C. 1.25 m/sec
D. None of these
In circular sewers if depth of flow is 0.2 times the full depth, the nominal gradient,______________?
A. Is only provided
B. Is doubled
A. 10 litres
B. 15 litres
C. 20 litres
D. 25 litres
The spacing of bars of perforations of fine screens used for the treatment of sewage,
is_______________? 2 to 3 mm
Hazen’s formula VS = 418 (GS – Gw)d [(3T + 70)/100] is used for the settlement velocity of the
particles of diameter______________________?
A. One pipe
B. Two pipes
C. Three pipes
D. Four pipes
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
A sewer running partially full and hurried with back filled, fails in compression due
to_________________?
A. 3 m
If D is the diameter of a circular sewer and D’ is the top horizontal diameter of an equivalent egg
shaped section, the relationship which holds good, is_______________?
A. D’ = 0.64 D
B. D’ = 0.74 D
C. D’ = 0.84 D
D. D’ = 0.94 D
In a residential colony, sewers of diameters 100 mm, 150 mm and 225 mm were laid with a gradient 1
in 120. Which portion of the sewage system does not choke in due course of time?
315
A. 100 mm dia.
B. 150 mm dia.
C. 225 mm dia
Assertion A.: A free board of 0.3 m is provided above the top sewage line in septic tanks. Reason (R): It
helps to accommodate the scum in the septic tank_________________?
A. 52.5 cm
B. 67.5 cm
C. 82.5 cm
D. None of these
A. More than 7
The detention time of a circular tank of diameter d and water depth H, for receiving the sewage Q per
hour, is________________?
A. d² (0.011d + 0.785H)/Q
B. d (0.022d + 0.085H)/Q
C. d (0.785d + 0.011H)/Q
D. d (0.285d + 0.011H)/Q
weight of water, the hydraulic mean depth of the sewer and the bed slope w is the unit of the sewer,
then the tractive force exerted by flowing water, is________________________?
316
A. w r S S
B. w r1/2
C. w r S
D. w r2/3
A. Mechanized receipt
B. Mechanized segregation
C. Mechanized pulverising of refuse
D. All of these
The sewers___________________?
If 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and depletion of oxygen was found
to be 5 ppm, B.O.D. of the sewage is____________________?
A. 200 ppm
B. 225 ppm
C. 250 ppm
D. None of these
The ratio of the diameter of a circular section and the side of a square section hydraulically
equivalent, is____________________?
A. 1.095
B. 1.085
C. 1.075
D. 1.065
In septic tanks__________________?
For detecting the nitrates in sewage, the colour may be developed by adding________________?
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine
C. Phenol-di -sulphuric acid and potassium hydroxide
The use of coarse screens for the disposal of sewage, may be dispensed with by______________?
A. Comminutor
B. Shredder
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.
For evaporation and measurement of settable solids, the apparatus used, is________________?
. An Imhoff cone
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of New Egg shaped sewer section,
Is_____________________? 1.625 D
Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days in generally referred to_______________?
A. Initial demand
B. First stage demand
C. Carbonaceous demand
D. All of these
318
The moisture content of sludge is reduced from 90% to 80% in a sludge digestion tank. The percentage
decrease in the volume of sludge, is_______________? 50 %
A. 0°C
B. 15°C
C. 20°C
D. 25°C
In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed throughout the year, the type of sewerage system
to be adopted is_______________?
A. Separate system
B. Combined system
C. Partially combined system
Dried sewage after treatment is used as____________________? Fertilizer
In areas where rainy season is limited to a few months, the type of sewerage system
recommended is__________________?
A. Combined system
B. Partially separate system
C. Separate system
A. A gap of 7.5 cm between the bottom of the covering slab and the top level of scum is provided
B. The outlet invert level is kept 5 to 7.5 cm below the inlet invert level
C. The minimum width of septic level is 90 cm
D. The depth of tank is kept equal to its width
The normal value of over flow rates for plain primary sedimentation tanks, ranges
between________________?
A. Imhoff Cone
B. Turbid meter
C. Potentiometer
To maintain aerobic biological activity, the moisture content of the compost mass should be
about_________________?
A. 45 %
B. 50 %
C. 55 %
D. 60 %
A. Hydrology
B. Dissolved oxygen in water
C. Temperature
D. All the above
A. Parabolic
B. Circular
A. 90 %
B. 95 %
C. 99 %
D. 9.9 %
The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias which cause the aerobic biological
decomposition of sewage, is known_________________?
In a sedimentation tank (length L, width B, depth D) the settling velocity of a particle for a discharge
Q, is____________________?
A. Q/(B × D)
B. Q/(L × D)
C. Q/L
D. Q/(B × L)
A. Top side
B. Bottom side
C. Horizontal side
D. All sides
For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by K2Cr2O7 in the presence
of________________?
A. H2SO4
B. HNO3
The reduced levels of the string at the consecutive sight rails A and B are 203.575 m, 203.475 m
respectively. If the difference of their R.D.s is 10 m, the gradient of the sewer line
is_________________?
A. 1 in 100 upward
B. 1 in 500 upward
C. 1 in 100 downward
D. 1 in 503 upward
The grit and silt of the grit chambers, may not be used for_________________?
If the diameter of a sewer is 150 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity,
is________________?
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 100
The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic decomposition of organic matter is used, are
called________________?
A. Imhoff tanks
B. Trickling filters
If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in a manhole extinguishes within 5 minutes, the sewer certainly
contains_______________?
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen
If the depth of flow in a circular sewer is 1/4th of its diameter D, the wetted perimeter
is______________?
A. /2
B. /4
C. /3
D. D
If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage
flow______________?
A. Q = [(4 + )/(18 + )] q
B. Q = [(18 + P)/(4 + )] q
C. Q = [(18 + )/(4 + )] q
D. Q = [(5 + )/((15 + )] q
For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2
minutes, the length of the tank, is__________________?
322
A. 16 m
B. 20 m
C. 24 m
D. 30 m
The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called_________________?
A. Main sewer
B. Outfall sewer
C. Branch sewer
Sewer pipes are designed for maximum discharge with 25% to 33% vacant cross-sectional area
for__________________?
The normal values of over flow rates for sedimentation tanks using coagulant, ranges
between__________________?
To prevent settling down of sewage both at the bottom and on the sides of a large sewer, self-
cleaning velocity recommended for Indian conditions, is_________________?
A. 0.50 m/sec
B. 0.60 m/sec
C. 0.70 m/sec
D. 0.75 m/sec
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following for allowing workers to enter
sewers_______________?
A. The particular manhole and one manhole on upstream and one manhole on downstream should remain
open for 30 minutes
B. Proper tests for the presence of poisonous gases must be carried out
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C. The men entering the manhole should be advised to smoke in the sewer
D. Warning signals should be erected
The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a settling tank of depth 2.4 is 0.33 m per
sec. The detention period recommended for the tank, is____________________?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hour and 30 minutes
D. 2 hours
The discharge per unit plan area of a sedimentation tank, is generally called________________?
A. Carbondioxide
B. Methane
C. Ammonia
D. Carbon monoxide
The layers of vegetable wastes and night soil alternatively piled above the ground to form a mound, is
called_______________?
A. A heap
B. Plateau
C. Windrow
D. None of these
A. The boning rod is used for checking the levels of the sewer inverts
B. Manhole covers are made circular for the convenience of the cleaning staff
C. A manhole is classified as shallow manhole if its depth is less than 0.9 m
D. All the above
A. Inlets are provided on the road surface at the lowest point for draining rain water
B. Inlets are generally provided at an interval of 30 m to 60 m along straight roads
C. Inlets having horizontal openings, are called horizontal inlets
D. All the above
A. The process of decomposing the organic matter under controlled anaerobic conditions, is called sludge
digestion
B. Sludge digestion is carried out in sludge tank
C. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% carbon dioxide
325
A. Kuichling’s formula
B. Freeman formula
C. Under Writers formula
D. Bustan’s formula
E. All the above.
The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is__________________?
A. 10 times
B. 15 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times
E. 35 times
Sunlight_________________ ?
Average annual rainfall at any station is the average of annual rainfall over a period
of________________?
A. 7 years
B. 14 years
C. 21 years
D. 28 years
E. 35 years
A. nil
A. calcium sulphate
B. magnesium sulphate
C. calcium nitrate
D. calcium bicarbonate
E. none of these
A. 7.2 mm
B. 7.9 mm
C. 8.6 mm
The R.L. of ground water table on the sides of a valley is 1505 m whereas R.L. of the stream water is
1475 m. If 60° slope consists of pervious soil between R.L. 1485 m to 1500 m, the gravity spring may
be expected at the point of reduced level_______________?
A. 1500 m
B. 1505 m
C. 1475 m
D. 1485 m
A. wells
B. springs
C. infiltration wells
D. storage reservoirs
E. none of these
According to IS : 1172-1963, a minimum of 135 litres of water capita per day, is required
for________________?
A. Boarding schools
B. Nurses home and medical quarters
C. hostels
D. all the above
A. Clay
B. Sand
C. Silt
D. Coarse gravel
For determining the velocity of flow of underground water, the most commonly used non-empirical
formula is________________?
A. Darcy’s formula
In slow sland filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to_________________?
A. 60 mg/litre
Time of concentration________________?
D. time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain
The expected discharge to be obtained from an open well sunk in coarse sand is 0.0059 cumec. If the
working depression head of the well is 3 m, the minimum diameter of the well, is________________?
E. 3.00 m
A. odour
If four fires break out in a city of population 40 lakhs and if each hydrant has three streams and
duration of each fire is four hours, the total quantity of water required, is______________________?
B. 2880 kilo litres
As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes,
is_______________?
E. 135 litres
328
Tunnel Engineering
A good blast with a good yield is obtained if the cut hole is___________________?
A. normal to face
B. inclined at 45° to the face
C. inclined at 15° to the face
D. inclined at 30° to the face
A. only up holes
B. only down holes
C. horizontal or up holes
D. horizor„al, down or up holes
The correct sequence of drilling equipment for increasing size of holes in tunnels
is________________?
Which of the following lining material is useful for shield driven tunnels in sub aqueous regions ?
A. stone masonry
B. timber
C. cast iron
D. cement concrete
Which one of the following tunnelling methods is used for laying under ground sewers ?
A. silt
B. sand
329
C. clay
D. gravel
Which of the following methods of tunneling is used for long tunnels at great depths ?
A. Army method
B. Needle beam method
C. Austrian method
D. English method
D. 1,6,2,5,3,4,7
Which one of the following is considered to be an advantage of the heading and benching method of
tunnel construction?
A. liner plate
B. trench jack
C. stiffener
D. cutting edge
A. soft grounds
B. rock
C. self supporting grounds
D. broken grounds
A. construction of side walls is completed before invert and roof arch are built
B. construction of roof arch is completed before side walls and invert are built
C. construction of invert is completed before side walls and roof arch are built
D. construction of invert and side walls is completed before roof arch is built
Ribs are used for strengthening and stiffening the liner plate for tunnels of diameter greater
than_____________________?
A. 2 m
B. 3 m
C. 4 m
D. 5 m
If ‘D’ is the diameter of tunnel in meters, then the thickness of lining in mm, as per the empirical
formula is given by_________________?
A. 42 D
B. 82 D
C. 104 D
D. 124 D
A. propelling jacks
B. liner plate
C. hood
D. tail
If ‘N’ is the number of shafts used, then the total number of feces available for attacking the
excavation and construction in tunnels are_________________________?
A. 2N
B. N + 2
C. 2 N + 1
D. 2 N + 2
A. carrying water
B. non-cohesive soils
C. tunnels driven by shield method
D. placement of concrete lining
As compared to a single free face, if a charge of explosive is placed equidistant from two faces, then
the yield___________________?
A. remains same
B. decreases
331
What is the correct sequence of the following events of construction of a shaft in rock ?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes?
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,4,2,3
Railway Engineering
The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to_________________?
A. Broad Gauge
B. Meter Gauge
C. Narrow Gauge
D. both (A) and (B)
A. 61.9 mm
B. 66.7mm
C. 67mm
D. 72.33 mm
332
A. mild steel
B. cast iron
C. wrought iron
D. high carbon steel
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
A. height
B. foot width
C. head width
D. any of the above
For developing thinly populated areas, the correct choice of gauge is_________________?
A. Broad Gauge
B. Meter Gauge
C. Narrow Gauge
D. any of the above
A. wheel burns
B. hogging of rails
C. scabbing of rails
D. corrugation of rails
A. 143 mm
B. 156 mm
The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as______________?
333
A. 1:1
B. 1.5:1
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge faces of the rail is
kept as_________________?
A. 10mm
B. 13mm
C. 16mm
D. 19 mm
A. 10°
B. 16°
C. 30°
D. 40°
When the rail ends rest on a joint sleeper, the joint is termed as_________________?
Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275x25x13 cm with 75cm
sleeper spacing is________________?
A. 15 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 25 cm
D. 30cm
For a Broad Gauge route with M+7 sleeper density, number of sleepers per rail length
is________________?
A. 18
B. 19
334
C. 20
D. 21
Number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is__________________?
At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in Broad Gauge
is______________?
A. 51
B. 62
C. 70
D. 78
The type of spike used for fixing chairs of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is_________________?
A. dog spike
B. rail screw
C. elastic spike
D. round spike
A. cast steel
B. mild steel
C. cast iron
D. spring steel
A. wooden sleepers
B. concrete sleepers
335
C. CST-9 sleepers
D. steel trough sleepers
A. 55 mm
B. 65 mm
C. 75 mm
D. l00 mm
A. G/8
B. G/10
C. G/12
D. G/15
The limiting value of cant deficiency for Meter Gauge routes is__________________?
A. 40 mm
B. 50 mm
C. 75 mm
D. 100 mm
A. 75 mm
B. 90 mm
C. 140 mm
D. 165 mm
The compensation for curvature on gradient for Meter Gauge is given by________________?
A. 70/R
B. 52.5/R
C. 35/R
D. 105/R
where R is radius of curve
A Broad Gauge branch line takes off as a contrary flexure from a main line If the superelevation
required for branch line is 10 mm and cant deficiency is 75 mm, the superelevation to be actually
provided on the branch line will be__________________?
A. 10 mm
B. 64 mm
336
C. 85 mm
D. 65 mm
A. 89 mm
B. 95 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 115 mm
Which of the following turnouts is most commonly used for goods train on Indian Railways ?
A. 1 in 8’/2
B. 1 in 12
C. 1 in 16
D. 1 in 20
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. none of the above
The distance through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch for movement of
trains is called_________________?
A. flangeway clearance
B. heel divergence
C. throw of the switch
D. none of the above
A. in the middle of the track a little in front of the toes of the tongue rail
B. near and parallel to inner side of one of the rails
C. at right angle to the rail
D. near and parallel to inner side of both the rails
Which of the following devices is used to transfer the wagons or locomotives to and from parallel
tracks without any necessity of shunting ?
A. triangle
B. turntable
C. traverser
D. scotch block
The height of the center of arm of a semaphore signal above the ground is_________________?
A. 5.5m
B. 6.5 m
C. 7.5 m
D. 8.5m
A. stop
B. proceed
C. proceed cautiously
A. stop
B. proceed
C. proceed cautiously
D. none of the above
A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive. The number of driving wheels in this locomotive
is_________________?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 14
On a single rail track, goods trains loaded with heavy iron material run starting from A to B and then
empty wagons run from B to A. The amount of creep in the rails__________________?
A. Rails
B. FishPlates
C. Fish Bolts
D. Bearing Plates
The quantities required for one kilometer of Broad Gauge track will be
A. cost
B. life
C. track circuiting
D. fastening
For a 8° curve track diverging from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction in the layout of a broad
gauge yard, the cant to be provided for the branch track for maximum speed of 45 km/h on the main
line and ‘G’ = 1.676 m is (Permitted cant deficiency for the main line = 7.6
cm)______________________?
A. 0.168 cm
B. -0.168 cm
C. 7.432 cm
D. 7.768 cm
A. tangent track
B. sharp curve
C. tunnels
D. coastal area
What will be the curve lead for a 1 in 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight broad gauge track?
A. 28.49 m
B. 21.04 m
C. 14.24 m
D. 7.45 m
339
The load on each axle of a locomotive is 22 tonnes. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, then the hauling
capacity due to 3 pairs of driving wheels will be________________?
A. 26.41
B. 19.81
C. 13.21
For a sleeper density of (n+5), the number of sleepers required for constructing a broad gauge railway
track of length 650 m is____________________?
A. 975
B. 918
C. 900
D. 880
A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive with 22.5 tonnes and on each driving axle. Assuming the
coefficient of rail-wheel friction to be 0.25, what would be the hauling capacity of the locomotive?
A. 15.0 tonnes
B. 22.5 tonnes
C. 45.0 tonnes
D. 90.0 tonnes
Which one of the following rail failures is caused by loose fish bolts at expansion joints ?
A. crushed head
B. angular break
C. split head
D. transverse fissures
For the purpose of track maintenance, the number of turn out equivalent to one track km
are__________________?
340
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
When semaphore and warner are installed on the same post, then the stop indication is given
when___________________?
Which of the following mechanical devices is used to ensure that route cannot be changed while the
train is on the point even after putting back the signal ?
A. detectors
B. point lock
C. iock bar
D. stretcher bar
A. between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing
B. between the gauge faces of the stock rail and the tongue rail
C. through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch
D. none of the above
The correct relation between curve lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of cros¬sing (L) is given
by__________________?
A. CL = L – SL
B. L =CL-SL
C. SL = L + CL
D. L = (CL+SL)/2
If a is the angle of crossing, then the number of crossings ‘N’ according to right angle method is given
by_________________?
A. Vi cot(cc/2)
B. cot(oc/2)
C. cot(A)
D. Vi cosec(a/2)
A. 1600/R
B. 1700/R
C. 1750/R
D. 1850/R
A. cubic parabola
B. spiral
C. sine curve
D. lemniscate of Bernoulli
A. equilibrium speed
B. speeds higher than equilibrium speed
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The steepest gradient permissible on a 2.5° curve for Broad Gauge line having ruling gradient of 1 in
200 is___________________?
A. 1 in 250
B. 1 in 222
C. 1 in 235
D. 1 in 275
Vertical curves are provided where algebraic difference between grades is equal to
or_________________?
A. 1 in 360
B. 1 in 720
C. 1 in 1000
D. 1 in 1200
The desirable rate of change of cant deficiency in case of Metre Gauge is_______________?
A. 20 mm/sec
B. 35 mm/sec
C. 55 mm/sec
D. 65 mm/sec
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. none of the above
A. 1.83 m
B. 2.25 m
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C. 3.35 m
D. 4.30 m
The sleepers resting directly on girder are fastened to the top flange of girder by________________?
A. hook bolts
B. dog spikes
C. fang bolts
D. rail screws
The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is___________________?
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 10mm
A. wooden sleepers
Minimum composite sleeper index pres-cried on Indian Railways for a track sleeper
is_______________?
A. 552
B. 783
C. 1352
D. 1455
A. 275x25x13cm
B. 180x20x11.5 cm
C. 225x23x13 cm
D. 250x26x12 cm
A. M + 2 to M + 7
B. MtoM+2
C. M + 5toM+10
D. M
The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area to the rails
is___________________?
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A. CST-9 sleeper
B. steel trough sleeper
C. wooden sleeper
D. concrete sleeper
A. on curves
B. on straight track
C. when two different rail sections are required to be joined
D. none of the above
Creep is the_______________?
The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains) as adopted on
Indian Railways is___________________?
A. 6.10 m
B. 8.84 m
C. 10.21m
D. 10.82 m
The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted on Indian
Railways is______________________?
A. 4.27 m
B. 4.88 m
C. 5.49 m
D. 6.10 m
A. 100 mm
B. 122.2 mm
C. 136.5 mm
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Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and are deflected
at ends. These rails are called_________________?
A. roaring rails
B. hogged rails
C. corrugated rails
D. buckled rails
A. web of rail
B. fishing plane
The main function of a fish plate is________________?
A. Broad Gauge
B. Metre Gauge
C. Narrow Gauge
D. none of the above
A. 450 MPa
B. 500 MPa
C. 700 MPa
D. 850 MPa
A. 6155 mm2
B. 6615 mm2
C. 7235 mm2
D. 7825 mm2
A. head
B. web
C. foot
D. head and foot both
The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively __________________?
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A. 12 m and 12 m
B. 12 m and 13 m
C. 13 m and 12 m
D. 13 m and 13 m
A. length
B. weight
C. cross-section
D. weight per unit length
Two important constituents in the com-position of steel used for rail are_________________?
i) type of gauge
ii) number of tracks to be laid side by side
iii) slope of sides of embankment or cutting
The correct answer is?
B. both (i) and (ii)
Study the following statements regarding creep_________________?
A. 1 in 257
B. 1 in 357
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C. 1 in 457
D. 1 in 512
If ‘A’ is the angle formed by two gauge faces, the crossing number will be____________________?
cot A
Airport Engineering
An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation
factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be___________________?
The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require________________?
A. only clearway
B. only stop way ,
C. either a clearway or a stopway
D. either a clearway or a stopway or both
If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the
monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport
reference temperature is____________________?
A. 32°C
B. 35.5°C
C. 48°C
D. 25°C
As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical
curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of__________________?
A. 0.1 %
B. 0.2%
C. 0.3 %
D. 0.4%
As per International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) recommendation, minimum width of safety
area for instrumental runway should be_________________?
A. 78 m
B. 150 m
C. 300 m
D. 450 m
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 150 m
D. 250 m
The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and
1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective
gradient of runway will be______________?
A. 0.10%
B. 0.26%
C. 0.43 %
D. 0.65%
As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in
percentage respectively are______________?
The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its
reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25
percent, the corrected runway length will be________________?
A. 2500 m
B. 2600 m
C. 2700 m
As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not
exceed_________________?
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A. 15 kmph
B. 25 kmph
C. 35 kmph
D. 45 kmph
For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop
within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is________________?
A. 40 %
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%
The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area
should be______________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 5.0 m
C. 7.5 m
D. 10.0 m
Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R : The speed of the
aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway.?
As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the
number of movements allowed are__________________?
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A. Zero
B. 300
C. 3000
D. Unrestricted
The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be_______________?
A. 1:5
B. 1:7
C. 1:10
D. 1:12
In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km
distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more
than______________?
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that
the_______________?
Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for
aircraft landing ?
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,3, and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2 and 4
The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient
on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be_________________?
A. 2845 m
B. 2910 m
C. 3030 m
D. 3130 m
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In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the
future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be______________?
A. 32
B. 36
C. 44
D. 68
Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes
of_________________?
1. runway orientation
2. estimating the runway capacity
3. geometric design of holding apron
select the correct answer?
A. formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
A. Apron
B. Hanger
C. Terminal building
D. holding apron
A. Alligator cracking
B. Mud pumping
C. Warping cracks
D. Shrinkage cracks
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For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is________________?
A. 60 m
B. 120 m
C. 180 m
Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be
spaced closer during poor visibility conditions?
A. 22.5 m x 22.5 m
B. 30 m x 30 m
C. 22.5 m x 30 m
D. 60 mx 120 m
The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should
be________________?
A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 1:8
D. 1:40
The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in
approach lighting system are_________________?
A. 3 m and 30 m
B. 4.2 m and 30 m
C. 4.2 m and 50 m
D. 3 m and 45 m
A. Yellow
B. White
C. Black
D. Red
Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than______________?
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A. 4.8 kmph
B. 6.4 kmph
The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed
and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be_________________?
The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is________________?
A. 150 m
B. 300 m
C. 600 m
D. 750 m
Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway
length_________________?
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation
above the mean sea level
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at
the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard
atmospheric temperature at that elevation
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further
increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient
Select the correct statment
Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport capacity: Reason R
:Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation_________________?
A. Specifications of works
B. Specifications of materials
C. Proportion of mortar
D. All the above
A. At the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar
B. In thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more
C. For reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar which is
more
D. All the above
While estimating the qualities for the construction of a building, the correct metric unit
is________________?
The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is________________?
C. The volume of the Prismoidal is over-estimated and hence a Prismoidal correction is applied
D. All the above
According to Indian Standards Institute, the actual size of modular bricks is_______________?
A. 23 cm × 11.5 cm × 7.5 cm
B. 25 cm × 13 cm × 7.5 cm
C. 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cmD. 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick
gravel. The box cutting in road crust is__________________?
A. 500 m3
B. 1000 m 3
C. 1500 m3
D. 2000 m3
If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length, and the ground is
also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by_______________?
A. Mid-section formula
B. Trapezoidal formula
C. Prismoidal formula
D. All the above
Brick walls are measured in sq. m if the thickness of the wall is_________________?
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. None of these
Pick up the correct statement regarding the centre line method of estimating a building?
A. Product of the centre line of the walls and area of cross-section of any item, gives total quantity of the
item
B. The centre line is worked out separately for different sections of walls of a building
C. The centre line length is reduced by half the layer of main wall joining the partition wall
D. All the above
The area of the cross-section of a road fully in banking shown in the given figure,
is________________?
Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings________________?
A. Water closets
B. Flushing pipes
C. Lavatory basins
D. All the above
The cross -section of a road partly in banking and partly in cutting is shown in the given
figure. The area of the shaded portion is__________________?
A. b – rd)²/(r – s)
B. b – rd)²/(r + s)
C. ½ × (b + rd)²/(r – s)
D. b – rd)²/(s – r)
The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq.m in plan area with a depth not exceeding 30 cm,
is termed as_______________?
A. Excavation
B. Surface dressing
C. Cutting
D. Surface excavation
As per Indian Standard Specifications, the peak discharge for domestic purposes per capita per
minute, is taken________________?
The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is_________________?
A. 1.5 m 3
B. 2.5 m3
C. 3.5 m3
D. 5.0 m3
A. 0.01 sqm
B. 0.02 sqm
C. 0.03 sqm
D. 0.04 sqm
In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to centre distance
between the walls and_________________?
Pick up the excavation where measurements are made in square metres for payment ?
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A. Ordinary cuttings up to 1 m
B. Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths
C. Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths
D. Both B. and C.
The trap which is provided to disconnect the house drain from the street sewer is
called_________________?
A. Master trap
B. Intercepting trap
C. Interception manhole
D. All the above
The cost of the earthwork in excavation for the surface drain of cross-section shown in the given
figure for a total length of 5 metres @ Rs. 450% cum, is_______________?
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 425
C. Rs. 450
D. Rs. 500
Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate
exceeds_________________?
A. 2.0 %
B. 2.5 %
C. 4.0 %
D. 5.0 %
The expected out turn of 2.5 cm cement concrete floor per mansion per day__________________?
A. 2.5 sqm
B. 5.0 sqm
C. 7.5 sqm
D. 10 sqm
A. Detailed estimate
B. Preliminary estimate
C. Plinth area estimate
D. Cube rate estimate
The reduced levels of points, 30 metres apart along the longitudinal section of a road portion between
chainages 5 and 9 are shown in the given figure. If there is a uniform up-gradient of the road 120 in 1,
the chainage of the point with no filling or cutting is__________________?
A. (6 + 15) chains
B. (6 + 12) chains
C. (6 + 18) chains
D. None of these
A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular with radius 1000 m of
the centre line. It subtends 180° at the centre. If the height of the bank is 1 m at the lower end, and
side slopes 2:1, the earth work involved ?
A. 26,000 m3
B. 26,500 m3
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C. 27,000 m3
D. 27,500 m3
The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is measured in square
metres_______________?
A. Root slabs
B. Floors
C. Wall panels
D. All the above
The total length of a cranked bar through a distance D. at 45° in case of a beam of effective length L,
is_________________?
A. L + 0.42 d
B. L + (2 × 0.42 d)
C. L – (0.42 d)
D. L – (2 × 0.4 d)
The measurement is made for stone work in square metre in case of________________?
A. Wall facing
B. Columns, lintels, copings
C. Building work
D. A. and D. of the above
A. 2.5 sq m
B. 4.0 sq m
C. 6.0 sq m
D. 8.0 sq m
A. Circular buildings
B. Hexagonal buildings
C. Octagonal buildings
D. All the above
B. Rolling shutters
A. The incidental expenses of a miscellaneous character which could not be predicted during preparation
of the estimate, is called contingencies
B. Additional supervising staff engaged at work site, is called work charged establishment
C. Detailed specifications specify qualities, quantities and the proportions of materials to be used for a
particular item
D. All the above
A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 175 mm
Pick up the incorrect statement regarding a master trap from the following ?
A. It is provided in between the lower end of the house drain and the street sewer
B. It is provided a cleaning eye at the top of the trap
C. The mica flap valve which opens inwards only, is fitted at the top of the inlet pipe
D. The water seal is less than that of ordinary traps
The detention
A. 20 minutes
B. 25 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 40 minutes
If B is the width of formation, d is the height of the embankment, side slope S : 1, for a highway with
no transverse slope, the area of cross-section is___________________?
A. B + d + Sd
B. Bd + Sd2
C. B × d – Sd1/2
D. ½ (Bd + Sd2)
Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate______________?
A. Wall thickness
B. Room area
C. W.C. area
D. Courtyard area
A. 70 cm
B. 75 cm
C. 80 cm
D. 90 cm
The expected out turn for earth work in excavation in ordinary soil per workman per day
is_______________?
A. 1.00 cum
B. 2.00 cum
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C. 3.00 cum
D. 4.00 cum
A. Collapsible gates
B. Rolling shutters
C. Ventilators and glazing
D. All the above
A. Cub. m
B. Sq. m
C. Metres
D. None of these
A. 0.01 cum
B. 0.02 cum
C. 0.03 cum
D. 0.04 cum
88 is 1400 kg/cm2 and bond stress is 6 kg/cm2, the If tensile stress of a steel rod of diameter required
bond length of the rod is____________________?
A. 30 D
B. 39 D
C. 50 D
D. 59 D
A. Bib-cocks
B. Stop-cocks
C. Ball valves
D. All the above
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 25 %
A. 0.25 kg
B. 0.50 kg
C. 0.75 kg
D. 1.00 kg
A. Fully in excavation
B. Partly in excavation and partly in embankment
C. Fully in embankment
D. All the above
A. The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contingencies, work charged establishment,
tool and plants, is called work value
B. The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental, establishment and travelling
charges, is called actual cost
C. The formal acceptance by the administrative department for incurring an expenditure on the work, is
called administrative approval
D. All the above
A. The earth work of cutting in trenches or borrow pits in fairly uniform ground is measured with the help
of average depths of the dead men
B. The earth work in trenches or borrow pits in irregular ground is measured by taking the difference in
levels before and after completion of work
C. The earth work in trenches or borrow pits, where neither a nor b is feasible, are measured from the
fillings after deduction of voids
D. All the above
Referring of given figure, pick up the correct statement from the following?
A. Lead is the average horizontal straight distance between the borrow pit and the place of spreading soil
B. The lead is calculated for each block of the excavated area
C. The unit of lead is 50 m for a distance upto 500 m
D. The unit of lead is 1 km where the lead exceeds 2 km
A. In order to check up the average depth of excavation, ‘Dead man s’ are left at the mid-widths of
borrow pits
B. The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels obtained with a level
C. The earth work in excavation to form the road embankment includes the formation of correct profile
and depositing the soil in layers
D. All the above
A. If the bed level is above N.S.L. the canal is called fully in baking and the berms are designed as 3 d
where d is full supply depth of water (F.S.D.)
B. Area of canal in cutting = BD + Sd2 where B = bed width, d = depth of cutting and S is the side slope
C. If F.S.L. is above N.S.L the canal is called partly in cutting and partly in filling and berms are designed
as 2d where d is full supply depth
D. All the above
A. Pipes laid in trenches and pipes fixed to walls are measured separately
B. Cutting through walls and floors are included with the item
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A. The built up covered area at the floor level of any storey of a building is called plinth area
B. The usable covered area of the rooms of any storey of a building is called carpet area
C. The carpet area of a building along with area of its kitchen, pantry, store, lavatory, bath room and
glazed veranda, is called floor area
D. None of these
The expected out turn of half brick partition wall per mason per day is___________________?
B. 2.0 m3
For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required,
is_______________?
B. 0.94 m3
For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq.m new brick work, the quantity of cement required,
is___________________?
C. 0.274 m3
The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept____________________?
C. 75 cm to 80 cm
The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per mason per day, is
________________?
B. 1.25 m3
Pick up the item whose weight is added to the weight of respective item, is________________?
A. Cleats
B. Brackets
C. Bolts
D. All the above
The ground surface slopes 1 in 50 along a proposed railway embankment 150 m in length. The height
of the embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m, the width is 11 m and side slopes 2:1. If the falling
gradient of the embankment is 1 in 150, the quantity of the earthwork calculated by Prismoidal
formula, is____________________?
B. 3225 m3
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A. 0 to 10
B. 10 to 18
C. 18 to 26
D. 26 to 34
Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 Milli equivalent per
litre respectively will be classified as__________________?
A. main canal
B. branch canal
C. watercourse
D. distributory
For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity
equal to the greater of the water requirement of_______________?
A. rabi or kharif
B. rabi and kharif or sugarcane
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The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of________________?
A. gravity water
B. capillary water
C. hydroscopic water
D. chemical water
With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops_________________?
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. increases upto a certain limit and then becomes constant
D. increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
Infiltration capacity_________________?
A. is a constant factor
B. changes with time
C. changes with location
D. changes with both time and location
If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will
be______________?
Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly
inaccessible areas ?
369
A. cubic metre/sec
B. metre/sec
C. cubic metre
D. square metre
The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm
and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above
basin of 250 square km will be__________________?
A. 50 cm
B. 55 cm
C. 56 cm
D. 60 cm
If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing
water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be_____________________?
A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm
and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100
mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will
be___________________?
370
A. 70mm
B. 80mm
The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of
the direct runoff hydrograph by_______________?
A. M°L°T°
B. rvfL’T”1
C. M° L2 T1
D. M’LV
A. designed for one purpose but serves more than one purpose
B. planned and constructed to serve various purposes
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called_______________?
A. useful storage
B. dead storage
C. valley storage
D. surcharge storage
A. capacity/inflow ratio
B. capacity/outflow ratio
C. outflow/inflow ratio
D. none of the above
When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water
surface and at the base respectively will be_______________?
A. 0 and wH212
B. wH2/2and wH2/3
C. wH and 0
D. OandwII
The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as_________________?
A. at the toe
For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal
to_______________?
A. 0.5 hw
B. 0.75 hw
C. 1.25 hw
D. 1.50 hw
The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam
is_______________?
A. clay
B. coarse sand
C. silty clay
D. clay mixed with fine sand
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A. rock toe
B. horizontal blanket
C. impervious cut off
D. chimney drain
A. ogee spillway
B. chute spillway
C. side channel spillway
D. shaft spillway
A. uniform
B. subcritical
C. critical
D. super critical
If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be____________________?
As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of weir is
kept at_____________?
A. lower level
B. higher level
C. same level
D. any of the above depending on the design
According to Khosla’s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff
is_____________?
A. 0
B. unity
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C. infinity
D. very large
The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to
flowing water is________________?
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. equal to zero
Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel
into a natural drain ?
A. canal fall
B. canal outlet
C. canal escape
D. canal regulator
A. zero
B. between zero and one
C. 1
D. infinity
A. 6 cumecs
B. 10 cumecs
C. 14 cumecs
D. 20 cumecs
A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called_____________?
A. vertical dropfall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall
A. 0.5 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 5.0 m
The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of
distributing channel is called________________?
A. proportionality
B. flexibility
C. setting
D. sensitivity
If the R.L’s of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively,
then cross drainage work will be________________?
A. aqueduct
B. superpassage
C. syphon
D. syphon aqueduct
A. average discharge
B. dominant discharge
C. maximum discharge
D. critical discharge
A. silting river
B. scouring river
C. both silting and scouring river
D. neither silting nor scouring river
A. groynes
B. construction of dykes or leavees
C. both (A) and (B)
D. groynes and bandalling
If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken
as________________?
A. 1.2 D
B. 1.5 D
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C. 2.0 D
D. 2.5 D
A. pointing upstream
B. pointing downstream
C. perpendicular to bank
D. parallel to bank
The ratio of the average load to the installed capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero will
be equal to__________________?
A. load factor
B. plant factor
C. utilisation factor
The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km2 is 100 mm. Depth-Area-
Duration (DAD. curves indicate that for the same area of 100 km2 the maximum average depth for a 3
hour storm will be__________________?
A. 100 mm
B. more than 100 mm
C. less than 100 mm
D. none of the above
The most suitable chemical which can be applied to the water surface for reducing evaporation
is________________?
A. methyl alcohol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. cetyl alcohol
D. butyl alcohol
A 6 hours storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 2 cm. If <j) index remains at the
same value, the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 12 hours in the catchment is___________________?
A. 4.5 cm
B. 6.0 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 9.0 cm
The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q m7sec at a point is 10 m and slope of water surface is
(1/4000). The discharge of a flood at the same point and same stage of 10 m with a water surface
slope of(l/1000) will be________________?
A. V2 Q m3/sec
B. 0.5 Q mVsec
C. 2 Q m3/secA
D. 4 Q m3/sec
For a catchment area of 120 km2, the equilibrium discharge in m3/hour of an S-curve obtained by the
summation of 6 hour unit hydro graph is_______________?
A. 0.2 x 106
B. 0.6 x 106
C. 2.4 xlO6
D. 7.2 xlO6
The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240 m3/sec . If the rainfall excess is 80 mm and base flow
which is constant is 40 m3/sec, then the peak of 4-hours unit hydrograph will
be__________________?
A. 20 3/sec
B. 25 m3/sec
C. 30 m3/sec
D. 35 m3/sec
For an annual flood series arranged in descending order of magnitude, the return for a magnitude
listed at position period m in a total data N is________________?
A. N/(m+l)
B. m/(N+l)
C. m/N
D. (N+l)/m
A. rainfall duration
B. rainfall excess
C. time base of direct runoff
D. discharge
If the risk of a flood occurring in the next 10 years is accepted to 10%, then the return period for
design should be__________________?
A. 1 + (0.9)010
B. 1 – (0.9)°l0
C. 1/(1-0.9°10)
D. 1/(1+ 0.9010)
If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it
indicates that______________?
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The stream which does not have any base flow contribution is called________________?
A. perennial stream
B. intermittent stream
C. ephemeral stream
D. none of the above
Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high water marks left
over in the past ?
A. slope-area method
B. area-velocity method
C. moving boat method
D. ultra-sonic method
The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24 hours has a return period of 100 years. The probability
of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300 mm occurring at least once in 10 years is given
by_____________?
A. (0.99)10
B. 1 – (0.99)10
C. (0.9)’00
D. l-(0.9)100
The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called_________________?A.
design speed
B. rated speed
C. gross speed
D. operating speed
A. aggrading type
B. degrading type
C. meandering type
D. both (A) and (B)
The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage
in___________________?
A. non-modular outlet
B. flexible outlet
C. rigid module
D. none of the above
Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?
If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move
the grain on the bank is___________________?
A. 0.5 xc
B. 0.75 TC
C. xc
D. 1.33 TC
A. zero
B. between zero and 1
C. 1
D. greater than 1
Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey’s theory will
be_________?
A. 19 m
B. 38m
C. 57m
D. 76m
The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic
mean depth R is given by______________?
A. 4RS
B. 11 RS
C. 7RS
D. 15 RS
Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current
because______________?
For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope
is_______________?
A. sudden drawdown
B. steady seepage
C. during construction
D. sloughing of slope
The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway
respectively are_________________?
A. flood control
B. to provide sufficient depth of water in navigable channels, during low water periods
C. to preserve the channel in good shape by efficient disposal of suspended and bed load
D. all of the above
A. drainage filters
B. relief wells
C. drain trenches
D. provision of downstream berms
A. are costlier
B. are less susceptible to failure
C. require sound rock foundations
D. require less skilled labour
The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam
is__________________?
A. B/2
B. B/3
C. B/4
D. B/6
A. water pressure
B. wave pressure
C. self-weight of dam
D. uplift pressure
A. hydrodynamic pressure
B. inertia force into the body of the dam
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of the above
The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres.
If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness
of the reservoir will start reducing after_________________?
A. 50 years
B. 150 years
C. 200 years
D. 250 years
The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between________________?
A deep well_________________?
If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between
permeability k and transmissible T is given by_______________?
A. T = kd
B. T = k/d
C. T= Vkd
D. k= VTd
The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by_________________?
A. PT = 1
B. PT2 = 1
C. P/T = 1
D. P/T2 = 1
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The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms
of_________________?
A. 1 hour
B. one-fourth of basin lag
C. one-half of basin lag
D. equal to basin lag
The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm
respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated
as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be________________?
A. 50 mm
B. 60 mm
C. 90 mm
D. 140 mm
Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate
of evaporation ?
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A. pressure difference
B. temperature difference
C. natural topographical barriers
D. all of the above
Infiltration is the_______________?
The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is
called_________________?
A. hygroscopic water
B. equivalent moisture
C. soil moisture deficiency
D. pellicular water
The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its
full growth is called________________?
A. effective rainfall
B. consumptive use
C. consumptive irrigation requirement
D. net irrigation requirement
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The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually
delivered in the field is known as__________________?
Which of the following methods of applying water may be used on rolling land ?
A. boarder flooding
B. check flooding
C. furrow flooding
D. free flooding
A. 135 mm
B. 165 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 215 mm
The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will
be_________________?
A. 637 hectares/m3/sec
B. 837 hectares/m3/sec
C. 972 hectares/m3/sec
D. 1172 hectares/m3/sec
The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under
empty reservoir condition, are________________?
1) Water pressure
2) Self weight
3) Uplift
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A. Only (2)
Presence of tail water in a gravity dam_____________?
A. only (1)
B. (1) and (2)
C. only (3)
1) evaporation
2) transpiration
3) stream flow
The correct answer is?
A. only (1)
B. (1) and (2)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (1), (2) and (3)
To determine the discharge at a section in a stream from its rating curve, the required data
are_______________?
C. only (2)
Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of________________?
1) unit duration
2) unit rainfall excess
3) infinitely small duration
4) infinitely small rainfall excess
The correct answer is?C. (2) and (3)
Select the incorrect statement ?
A. A meander increases the river length but a cut off reduces the river length
B. A cutoff increases the river length but a meander reduces the river length
C. Both meander and cutoff increase the river length
D. Both meander and cutoff decrease the river length
When a ship floats at its designed water line, the vertical distance from water line to the bottom of
the ship is known as________________?
A. beam
B. depth
C. freeboard
D. draft
The minimum diameter of turning besin, where ships turn by going ahead and without tug assistance
should be___________________?
A. L
B. 1.5 L
C. 2.0 L
D. 4.0 L
As per Stevenson’s empirical formula, the approximate value of the height of the wave in metres is
given by__________________?
A. 0.34 VF
B. 0.5 VF
C. 1.5 VF
D. 3.4 VF
where F is the fetch in km
Assertion A : Intervention of undulations in the sea bed reduces the depth of wave at the section.
Reason R : No wave can have a height greater than the depth of water through which it passes?
At a given port, the fetch is 400 nautical miles, the maximum height of storm wave will
be_______________?
A. 2.073 m
B. 8.169 m
C. 9.144 m
D. 6.8 m
A. B or 30 m
B. 1.5 B or 50 m
C. 1.5 B
D. 50 m
If the maximum spring rise is 2 m and height of the waves expected is 4 m , then the breakwater
height above the datum will be_________________?
A. 2.5 m
B. 4 m
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C. 5 m
D. 7 m
A. two points
B. four points
C. six points
D. eight points
A. bollard
B. buoys
C. cables
D. anchors
Which of the following structures are constructed parallel to shore line to develop a demarcating line
between land area and water area ?
Assertion A : Large size stones are required in stone revetment in shore protection. Reason R :
Resistance of stone to wave force is proportional to its volume and wave force is proportional to the
exposed area of the stone?
Which of the following structures protects the shore by trapping of littoral drift?
A. groynes
B. sea walls
C. revetments
D. moles
For designing the dock, the proportion of ship load assumed to be borne by keel blocks
is________________?
A. 5/8
B. 3/8
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C. 3/16
D. 5/16
A. Dry dock
B. Wet dock
C. Floating dock
D. Refuge dock
Which of the following conditions of loading imposes the greatest load on the foundation in case of
dry docks?
Which of the following type of sea walls results in greatest protection of shore structures?
When a wave strikes a vertical breakwater in deep water, it is reflected back and on meeting another
advancing wave of similar amplitude merges and rises vertically in a wall of water. This phenomenon
is called_________________?
A. Surf
B. Clapotis
C. Fetch
D. Swell
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If H is the height of the wave expected, then the height of the breakwater is generally taken
as______________________?
The difference in height between highest high water and lowest low water is called_______________?
A. mean range
B. maximum range
C. maximum rise
D. mean rise
A. The progress of work in low level method of mound construction is very slow.
B. Barge method of mound construction is economical.
C. In low level method of mound construction, the area of working is limited.
D. In staging method of mound cons-truction, the work is not interrupted even during stormy weather
A. 1.3412
B. 1.5612
C. 1.7412
D. 1.9412
where ‘t’ is the period in seconds for two successive waves to pass the same section
In basins subjected to strong winds and tide, the length of the berthing area should not be less
than____________________?
Assertion A : Depth and width required at the entrance to a harbour are more than those required in
the channel. Reason R : The entrance to a harbour is usually more exposed to waves as compared to
the harbour itself__________________?
The maximum harbour depth below lowest low water is generally equal to_________________?
Consider the following statements in regard to Beaufort scale for wind speeds______________?
Assertion A : Basin walls have to be of much grater height than dock walls. Reason R : Tidal basins are
subject to fluctuations of levels due to tidal variations?
If Hs is the significant wave height, then the average wave height and highest wave height
respectively are given by_______________?
(i) Fender is the cushion provided on the face of the jetty for ships to come in contact,
(ii) Slip is the space of water area between two adjacent piers where ships are berthed,
(iii) Pier head is a structure constructed near the tip of a break water near the harbour entrance.
select the correct statements?