Dr. Laxman File

1.
High tarnish / corrosion will be

a. Decreased Co alloy
b. Decreased Zn alloy
c. Increased Cu , decreased Zn alloy
2. Reduced action in liver metabolism of lignocaine can be associated with
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Hypotension
c. Congestive heart failure
d. All of the above.
3. Orthodontic removal appliance should be kept in mouth for
a. 4-6hrs
b. 6-8hrs
c. 8-10hrs
4. While cutting bone, what can be used as coolant
a. Water
b. Saline
c. both
5. Premature exfoliation of mandibular canine
a. Increase overjet
b. Collapse of arch
c. …
d. All
Note: premature exfoliation of primary canine may indicate an arch length deficiency.
Premature exfoliation of primary mandibular canine may cause a lingual collapse of mandibular
anterior teeth.
Note: Primary canine loss
1. Unilateral canine loss
 Lingual collapse of mandibular incisors.
 Loss of arch length.
 Increased overbite- following lingual collapse, mandibular incisors erupt further, increasing
overbite.
 Increased overjet due to lingual collapse of mandibular incisors.
 Midline deviation to the side of canine loss.
6. Order of management
a. Control phase
b. Urgent
c. Maintenance
d. Management
e. Evaluation
7. During extraction, you made small opening but found that membrane is not perforated. Management
a. Buccal flap over the opening
b. Antibiotic dressing
c. …
d. Let the clot form over it and normal post operative procedure
8. Most dominant cells in pocket ( periodontal pocket )
a. Lymphocyte
b. Plasma cells
c. Neutrophilis
d. Macrophage
9. Most imp / mostly extra retention on abutment teeth achieved by
a. Cementing technique/ material
b. Paralleling guide plane
10. Intraligamentary injection
a. Infiltration
Email- drlaxmansingh1002@gmail.com 1
b. Intraosseous
c. Subperiosteal
d. intraperiodontium
11. Anesthetic overdose
a. Myocardial depression
b. Decreased BP
c. Unconsciousness
d. All
12. LA of MSA n.
a. Middle sup. Alveolar fossa
b. Pterygopalatine
c. Infratemporal
13. After needle tract injury following IAN Block infection spreads first in which of the following (ASDA K7)
a. Lateral pharyngeal space
b. Submandibular space
c. Sublingual space
d. Pterygomandibular
14. Polyether impression material is preferred by dentist bcoz
a. Dimensional stability
b. Dimensional accuracy
c. Short setting time
d. All
Polyether- highest cell toxicity, Hydrophilic, stiffest of all,high tear strength next to polysulphides.
15. Maxillary occlusal rim aligned according to
a. Campers line
b. FHP
c. Intrapupillary line
d. All
16. Which muscle doesn’t move while opening of jaw
a. Mylohyoid
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Hyoglossus
d. Digastrics
17. Most common anterior tooth with bifurcation
a. Maxi canine
b. Mandi canine
c. Maxi incisor
d. Mandi incisor
18. Full mucoperiosteal flap vs. partial flap which is true
a. Full MP flap heal with secondary intition
b. Full MP flap can never be used for mucogingival surgery
c. There are more blood loss during surgery for FM flap
19. The most accurately determine the hing axis position
a. Kinematic facebow
b. Arbitrary facebow
c. ..
d. Arcon type articulator
20. First / primary sign of hemorrhagic shock
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
21. Repeated fracture of PFM crown is due to
a. Premature contact
b. Inadequate firing
c. Faulty frame work of metal
22. Ankylosis cause
a. Infection and trauma to the jaw
b. Hereditary and genetics
c. Loss of contact of membrane bw tooth and bone
d. All
23. Most imp bevel for inlay
a. Occlusal
b. Gingival
c. Axiopulpal
d. proximal
24. Pt is sweaty pale, you had given 4ml of 2% lidocaine, 1:100000, decreased BP, slow pulse, respiration
decreased
a. Anesthetic toxicity
b. Epinephrine toxicity
c. Allergic reaction to LA
d. Incipient syncope
25. Which of the following tray are used in impression of a prepared tooth, bite registration of opposite arch
tooth
a. Stock tray
b. Custom tray
c. Bite registration
d. Triple impression tray
26. The sulcular epithelium in a human
a. Keratinized
b. Non keratinized
c. Many layer of SSE and an ability to keratinized under stress
27. Acute apical abscess present with
a. Swelling
b. Widening of PDL
c. Pus discharge
d. All
Note: acute apical abscess –rapid onset, spontaneous pain, tenderness of the tooth on pressure, pus
formation and swelling
28. Most referred pain you will feel
a. Reversible pulpitis
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Acute apical periodontitis
Note: symptomatic irreversible pulpitis-lingering thermal pain, spontaneous pain, referred pain
29. Dry heat sterilization is not preferred by dentist bcoz
a. It can’t be used for many inst.
b. Its slow penetration of heat
c. Its time consuming
d. All
30. Long standing gingivitis, the quality of changes to
a. Anaerobic falcultative
b. Aerobic obligate
c. ..
d. none
31. Antibiotic prophylaxis is
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Heart valve disease
c. Chronic renal failure
d. All
32. Recently endo treated tooth with post n core. Pt complains pain on chewing, reason?
a. Vertical root fracture
b. Horizontal root fracture
c. Loose crown
33. Occlusal rest for adequate width, the thinnest portion should be at least
a. 1mm
b. 1.5mm
c. 2mm
d. 2.5mm
34. To have most healthy periodontium the most accurate countor of tooth crown will be
a. Middle third
b. Suprabuldge
c. Gingival third
d. Infrabuldge
a+b+c
a+b
35. Mandibular angle fracture the proximal segment will be more
a. Anterior and superior
b. Anterior and inferior
c. Inferior
d. Posterior
Note –
Horizontally unfavorable fracture-posterior fragment moves in upward direction due to unopposed
action of the Masseter and medial pterygoid muscle.
Vertically unfavorable-
Posterior fragments pulled lingually by action of medial pterygoid.
HAAD RQ 6
36. Best cement for cast post n core?
a. GIC
b. RM GIC
c. ZPC
d. Zinc polycarboxylate
37. Setting time for GIC and RM GIC
a. Days
b. Weeks
c. Weeks and months
d. Minutes
38. Your dental assistant has viral respiratory infection what you will do
a. Exclude his/her from work
b. Exclude until acute symptom go away
c. Exclude his/her from eating with others.
39. According to recent studies if crown : implant ratio increase
a. Osteointegration decrease
b. Labial recession
c. Infection will happen
d. nothing
40. deep and superficial lymph node palpation in neck in neck
a. cannot be do
b. can be do only for superficial
c. can be do for both
41. TMJ surgery around condyle can effect
a. Parotid gland
b. Facial nerve
42. How to examine cranial no. 11
43. What is the best criterion for self ligature bracket?
44. Best criteria of direct bonding of ortho bracket?
45. Implant occlusion if it opposite to natural teeth how to set
46. Effect of NSAID
a. Ceiling
b. Decrease hematoma
c. Reye’s syndrome
d. All
47. After autoclave you notice the black is wait what you will do?
48. When using GIC cement for PMF
a. Condition the tooth
b. No need
49. When do you check the autoclave
a. Weekly
b. Daily
c. Monthly
d. Yearly
50. What is the most common cause of contact stomatitis – cinnamon
51. What is the percentage of titanium allergy in world – 1-5%
52. What is percentage of resorption of mandible comparing to maxillary
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10
53. According to recent research combination of CHx and NaOCl
a. Used only in infection
b. It is carcinogenic mixture
c. Can be use in any time
54. Post RCT pain solved by
a. Occlusion reduction
b. Occlusion reduction and CaOH
c. No need
55. Clinical water – should be flash daily
56. Strawberry gingivitis- wegner granulomatosis
57. Supernumerary and unerupted teeth –Cleidocranial dystosis
58. Fibrous gingivostomatitis
59. Post for multiple teeth
60. Place post direct after RCT
61. Root fracture and crack
62. NSAID contraindicated for which disease?
63. Atropine action if it has been given pre-operative?
64. Analgesic when to give
65. Sinus septa can be viewed-
66. MRI view
67. TMJ view
68. Amalgam
69. Polyether best criteria is
a. Stable
b. Accuracy
c. Decreased in allergy
d. Decreased in setting time
70. Impression material that stick to the tooth-
71. Besides IMAB what to give
72. Natal and neonatal teeth – neonatal within 30 days. Natal present at birth.
73. Referred pain
74. Consent form
75. Apical reposition flap
76. Full mucosal and partial mucosal flap
77. While giving IANB swelling happened what is the cause—injection in pterygoid plexes.
78. Syncope – caused by vasovagal
79. Forceps direct the force to
a. Root
b. Crown
c. cement
80. sinus antrum
81. lichen planus
82. Most common cancer is
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Both
d. none
83. NSAID cause
a. Decrease bleeding
b. Increase bleeding
c. No effect
84. Power against viruses
a. NaOCl
b. Phenol
c. CHx
d. Alcohol
85. Decrease infection transmission can be done by
a. Changing gloves
b. Hand wash
86. Tori
a. Mostly cortical
b. Increased by bruxism
c. Do not grow in tooth loose
d. All of the above
HAAD RQ 4
87. Single visit vs. multiple visit RCT
a. Best in multiple if CaOH is used
b. Single is better
c. Both technique are same
88. The occlusal rest
a. Round triangular
b. Apex of triangle towards center
c. Halth the buccolingual width
d. Angle less than 90
a+b+c
a+c
all
89. Caries lesion not mineralized when
a. Surface is cavitated
b. Caries progress to DEJ
c. Dentin is demineralized
90. At which location in enamel is density of enamel crystal is lowest
a. DEJ
b. Center of enamel prism
c. Edge of enamel prism
d. Facial of enamel
91. Which drug is least effective if we used with tetracycline
a. Lidocaine
b. Heparin
c. Penicillin
92. Position of finishing line depends on
a. Periodontal health
b. Esthetics
c. both
93. Face bow is caliper like tool used to
a. Transfer maxillary relation to TMJ
b. Maxillary relation to mandible
c. Measure protrusive record.
94. Combination of CHX and NaOCl
a. Used only in infection
b. It is carcinogenic mixture
c. Can be used in any time
95. U give infraorbital nerve block after 3min pt feels paralysis in his forehead muscles, eyelids and cheek.
Which branch is effected
a. Bell’s palsy
b. Infraorbital nerve
c. Optic ganglion
96. Most sensitive cell in terms of cell killing
a. Salivary acinar cells
b. PMNs
c. Epithelial basal cells
d. neuron
97. Soap
a. Kill bacteria
b. Stop growth of bacteria
98. Diamond bur used over carbide when cutting
a. Enamel
b. Dentine
c. Soft caries
d. Amalgam
99. Drug of same action
a. Oxyloclne, aspirin
b. Aspirin , ibuprofen
c. Ibuprofen, codeine
100. Acid etching failure
a. Micro leakage
b. Secondary caries
c. No leakage
101. Hyperplastic candidasis
a. Forms white patch
b. Hyphae found in whole epithelium
c. Thickness
d. 50% show hyperplasia
e.
102. Most common type of bacteria in infected deep root canal
a. Obligate anaerobic
b. Facultative anaerobic
103. How to differentiate between pulpal n periodontal pathology
a. Vitality
b. Percussion
c. X ray
d. all
104. CHX
a. Metallic taste
b. Kill only gm –ve bacteria
c. Kill all bacteria
d. All
105. Implant is
a. Plaque induced inflammation
b. Be treated by antibiotics
c. Treat by anti inflammatory
d. Happen more in HIV because of decrease in WBC and less platetes
e. All
106. Which of the following is the most likely cause of pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth
a. Calcific metamorphosis
b. Pulpal hyperemia
107. Most desirable irrigation solution
a. H2O2
b. NaOCl
c. Saline
Note: in oral surgery - saline
108. Pregnancy contraindicated in
a. X ray
b. Extraction
c. Acetyl salicylic acid
109. Silorane
a. Composite
b. Coupling agent
110. Success of pulpotomy
a. Absence of internal resorption
b. Vitality of pulp
c. .
d. .
111. Hepatitis B pt one year before
a. Standard sterilization
b. Double sterilization
c. Double gloves
d. .
112. Post extraction bleeding
a. Liver disease
b. Aspirin
NOTE: both but liver disease > aspirin.
113. Remodeling of alveolar ridge in first few months
a. Alveolar bone
b. Alveolar crestal bone
c. cortical
114. Autoclave examination
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Daily
115. Fastest acting LA
a. Articaine
b. Lidocaine
c. bupivacaine
116. Zirconia post has
a. High compressive and low tensile strength
b. Low compressive and high tensile strength
c. High compressive and tensile strength
d. Low compressive and tensile strength
117. Regarding resin cement and resin mod. GIC choose the correct statement
a. RMGIC always have fluroaminosilicate
b. Resin cement contraindicated for metal restoration
c. Resin cement are available in dual cure , light and self cure
118. Pt received his/her CD feels dysphagia. reason
a. Overextended
b. Under extended
c. Over postdamed
d. Under post dammed
119. Amalgam tattoo
a. Enter reticular fiber and cause stain
b. Serves as foreign body and gaint cells cause stains
c. A + b
120. In PSA block , needle inject into
a. Infratemporal fossa
b. Pterygopalatine fossa
c. Mandibular fossa
121. Which will not generate after RCT
a. Dentine
b. Cementum
c. PDL
d. Bone
122. Torque
a. Mesiodistal axial inclination
b. Labiolingual axial inclination
c. Rotation
d. All
123. Child of 9 yrs got hit in his maxi CI fracture at gingival level. Rx
a. Immediate RCT
b. First splint then RCT
c. CaOH pulpotomy
124. Most commonly used in oral cavity
a. Incisional biopsy
b. Excisional biopsy
c. Fine needle expriation
125. All cause gingival hyperplasia except
a. Diltiazem
b. Phenytoin
c. Calcium channel blocker
d. Nifedipine
e. All
126. Orthodontic treatment
a. Compression of PDL at the side of movement
b. Stretching of PDL at the side of movement
127. Setting time for GIC and RMGIC
a. Days
b. Weeks
c. Months
d. Min
128. Best cement for cast post and core
a. GIC
b. RM GIC
c. Zinc phosphate
d. Zinc polycarboxlate
129. Difference bw acute periapical abscess and acute pulpal abscess
a. X ray
b. Palpation
c. vitality
130. Most common mandibular fracture
a. Body
b. Condyle
c. Angle
131. Fracture of mandible is greater than maxillary by how many times
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10
132. Pt has throbbing pain increased, increased by heat and relief by cold and pain on percussion. Diagnosis
a. Irreversible pulpitis
b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Acute periapical periodontitis
d. B + c
133. Internal resorption appear first in radiograph as
a. Intraproximal bone loss
b. Small granules in the pulp chamber
c. Small area around the apex of the root
d. An encroaching radiolucency on the mid surface of root
e. Small radiolucency enlargement of the pulp cavity in the localized area
134. Best way to detect incipient occlusal caries

a. Transillumination
b. LASER florescent
c. Bitewing
d. probe
135. Tooth is vital with 4mm radiolucency. Rx
a. Extraction
b. RCT
c. Apicetomy
d. Do nothing
136. When giving IANB. Relation to medial pterygoid
a. Anterio lateral
b. Posterio medially
c. Superior
d. Inferior
137. Facial recession most common in
a. Immediate implant
b. Early implant
c. Delayed implant
d. No relation
138. Antibiotic prophylaxis need more frequently in
a. Acquired heart disease
b. Congenital cardiac disease
139. During mandibular movement from intercuspation position the pathway of non working condyle is parallel to
st
a. Oblique ridge of 1 max molar
nd
b. Lingual groove of 2 premolar
140. Most common skin cancer in man
a. BCC
b. SqCC
141. White and gray MTA
a. Same effect
b. Gray has metallic component
c. Have different sealing ability
142. TETRACYCLINE interfere with
a. Penicillin
b. Heparin
c. both
143. Excessive orthodontic force results in
a. Hyalization
b. Undermined resorption
c. Crush PDL
d. All
144. To decrease setting time of amalgam uses
a. Spherical alloy
b. Lathe cut
c. Decreased trituration
Note: spherical alloy-Require less amalgamation time. Lathe cut- require more amalgamation time.
Decrease trituration – increase setting time (decrease setting reaction)
nd
145. For composite resin restoration in upper 2 premolar. Best matrix is to be used
a. Tofflemire matrix
b. Mylar matrix
c. Gold
d. Celluloid strip
146. Most imp bevel in inlay
a. Gingival
b. Axiopulpal
c. Occlusal
d. lingual
147. Undercut for retentive clasp
a. 0.25mm
b. 0.5mm
c. 0.75mm
148. Chemicomechanical tissue retraction
a. Displaces gingival tissue laterally
b. Displaces gingival tissue apically
c. Causes shrinkage of gingival tissue
d. Causes tearing of gingival tissue
149. Your dental assistant with viral respiratory injection. What will you do
a. Exclude his/her from work
b. Exclude until acute symptoms go away
c. Exclude from eating with others
150. According to recent studies if crown : implant ratio increase
a. Osteointegration decrease
b. Labial recession
c. Infection
d. nothing
151. Deep and superficial lymph node palpation of neck
a. Cannot be done
b. Can be done
c. Done only superficially
152. Reciprocal arm should always
a. Active
b. passive
153. Measurement of sufficient occlusal reduction
a. Occlusal clearance
b. Permit rotation of arch
154. Non anatomic teeth are primarily in
a. Flat ridge
b. Sharp ridge
c. Poor muscular control
d. All
155. Most trigger factor in bruxism
a. TMJ dysfunction
b. Periconitis
c. Discrepancy b/w centric occlusion and centric relation
156. Most difficult in upper CD opposite natural tooth
a. Occlusal plan
b. Teeth stability
c. arch
157. Fracture of all ceramics
a. Linear
b. Crack
c. Compound
d. semilunar
158. CD for pt with bone resorption in mandibular incisor
a. Balance occlusion with anatomic crown
b. Balance occlusion with non anatomic crown
HAAD RQ 2
159. Cause of ankylosis
a. Space between tooth and PDL
b. Inflammatory resorption
c. Widening of PDL
d. Replacement resorption
160. Scalling n root planning are done in which treatment stage
a. Initial
b. Surgical
c. ALL
161. Throbbing pain + pain on biting
b. Acute apical periodontitis
c. a+b
162. Difference between Subluxation and Concussion
a. Concussion an injury to the tooth without displacement or mobility
b. Subluxation injury to the tooth without displacement but mobility
c. Concussion mobility
d. A+b
163. Pt has throbbing pain increased by heat relieved by cold and pain on percussion. Diagnosis
c. Acute periapical periodontitis
d. B + c
164. There is fracture in middle third of root and the tooth is vital
a. No treatment
b. Splint and wait to check vitality
c. Splint and do root canal treatment
d. Splint for 2 months
165. Trauma from occlusion causes
a. Tooth migration
b. Tooth mobility
c. Periodontal problem
d. pain
166. There is a mandibular angle fracture. The distobuccal segment displaces by muscles
a. Inferiorly and laterally
b. Medially
c. Anteriorly
d. Inferiorly and medially
167. Acid etching during composite restoration makes
a. Microporosity to increase retention of restoration
b. Increase surface area
c. Make polish to the surface
168. In secondary impression of CD we used
a. Stock tray
b. Custom tray
169. For maxillary reterusion which headgear we used
a. High pull
b. Cervical pull
c. Reverse pull
Note: Cervical pull headgear- class ll malocclusion with deep bite.
High pull headgear- class ll malocclusion, with increased vertical dimension and minimal overbite.
Straight pull headgear- class ll division 1 malocclusion (when bite opening is undesirable)
Reverse pull headgear- class lll malocclusion (where protraction of the maxilla is desirable)
170. Bodily movement
a. Labial and lingual inclination
b. Mesiodistal movement
171. Difference between ridge lap and modified ridge lap
a. Appearance
b. Clearance
172. Location of deposition of LA solution during PSA block
b. Pterygomandibular space
173. During excavation of caries in primary molar pulp is exposed. what to do
a. Pulpotomy using ferric sulphate
b. Pulpotomy using formocresol
c. extraction
174. Most common type of bacteria in deep root canal
a. Obligate anaerobe
b. Facultative anaerobe
c. aerobic
175. Internal resorption
a. Moth eaten
b. Easy to diagnosis
176. Pink tooth
a. Internal resorption
b. External resorption
177. Role of stannous fluoride in polycarboxylate cement
a. Release fluoride
b. Chemical bond
c. Strengthen the tooth structure
178. Pt with severe pain, interrupt sleeping, very tired and look weak, have an abscess. Treatment
a. Open and incise
b. Give him antibiotics
c. Incise and antibiotics
179. Caries cause cavitations intraproximally
a. Below contact area
b. Above contact area
180. Excessive progressive pressure in tooth during tooth movement causes
a. Pulpal hyperaemia
b. Irreversible damage to the tooth
c. Reversible damage to the tooth
d. Hyalinization
181. For retraction maxillary canine by canine retraction uses
a. Intermaxillary retraction
b. Intramaxillary retraction
c. Intraorally Intramaxillary
d. Extraorally Intermaxillary
182. Color of subgingival calculus
a. Chromogenic bacteria found in subgingival
b. Consistituent of subgingival calculus different from supragingival
c. all
183. Dental plaque formed after (mature)
a. 2-4 days
b. After 12 hours
c. 12-24 hours
d. 24-48 hours
184. Smooth surface caries more common in
a. Below the contact point
b. Above the contact point
c. 1-2mm above the gingival line
185. Irreversible pulpitis pain in which of the following site is the most likely to radiate to the ear
a. Max pm
b. Max molar
c. Mandi pm
d. Mandi molar
186. 8yrs child has trauma to 21 teeth with pulpal involvement. What is the immediate action
a. Pulpotomy
b. Apexification and complete RCT later
c. Extraction
d. Do nothing
187. Polyether advantage
a. High solubility
b. Shot setting time
c. Dimensionally stable
d. All
188. Protection of periodontium of abutment teeth of RPD with distal extension
a. Stress breaker
b. Put clasp on at least 2 teeth next edentulous area
c. Gingivally approaching clasp
d. All
189. Acid etching failure
a. Microleakage
b. Secondary caries
c. Non leakage
190. Tooth is vital with 4mm radiolucency at the apex
a. Do nothing
b. Apicetomy
c. RCT
d. Extraction
191. Drug not cause gingival enlargement
a. Phenytoin
b. Tirlic acid
c. Cyclosporine
d. Nifedipine
192. Inferior surface of maxillary occlusal rim should be parallel to
a. FHP
b. Campers line
c. Fox plane
d. Horizontal condylar inclination
193. Allergy in mouth from dental material (contact stomatitis )
a. Preservative
b. Dental materials
c. All
194. All of the following are disadvantage of immediate denture. Which one is consider to be the major
disadvantage to immediate denture therapy
a. Increase post insertion care
b. Increased post insertion soreness
c. Not been able to have an anterior tooth try in
195. Pt with severe pain in the tooth throbbing tender to percussion. X-ray show large periapical radiolucency
a. Acute periapical periodontitis
b. Acute exacerbation of chronic periapical periodontitis
c. Periapical abscess
196. To differentiate between acute periapical abscess and pulpal abscess
a. X ray
b. Palpation
c. Vitality test
nd
197. If we need to anaesthized the gingival of upper 2 premolar
a. IAN block
b. Buccal anesthesia
c. MSA n.
d. PSA n.
198. How to differentiate pulp and periodontal pathology
a. Vitality test
b. Percussion
c. Radiograph
d. All
199. Property of amalgam except
a. Increase coefficient of thermal expansion than tooth
b. Brittle
c. Bulk fracture
d. none
200. Pt with sever bone resorption and prognathic appearance. we use
a. Neutro occlusion
b. Linguloocclusion
c. Use teeth with angulations 20 degree
d. Use teeth with angulations 0 degree
201. Pt with fluctant swelling and fever. Rx
a. Antibiotics for 3 days
b. Incision and drainage
c. Incision and antibiotics
202. The most useful surgery for mandibular retrusion
a. Sigittal split osteotomy
b. Segmental osteotomy
c. Vertical ramus osteotomy
203. Most imp bevel in inlay
a. Gingival
b. Axiopulpal
c. Occlusal
d. Lingual
204. Polysulphide custom tray
a. Rigid
b. Use adhesive
c. Has support
205. Rigid splitting to avulsed tooth cause
a. Replacement resorption
b. Internal resorption
c. Inflammatory resorption
206. 4yrs old boy comes with intruded incisor and effect permanent successor teeth. Treatment
a. Wait until re erupt
b. Extraction
c. Surgical extrusion and splint
d. none
207. A pt has undergone extraction of permanent tooth, month ago and now comes with extraction site closed but
swelling found distally to it and multiple draining fistulae around it oozing pus. Pt have
a. Syphilis
b. TB
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Actinomycosis
208. Function of incisal rest
a. Incise
b. Esthetic
c. Phonetic
d. All
209. Endo treated tooth that have been restored with cast , post n core and crown subjected to high incidence of
a. Periodontal disease
b. Recurrent caries
c. Vertical root fracture
d. They need for apiecetomy
210. Polyether impression material disadvantage- high modulus of elasticity
211. Bur used for polishing of composite
212. Syndrome – ectodermal dysplasia
213. Space maintainer
214. Direct pulp capping
215. Apexification
216. To stop bleeding after surgical extraction – pressure
217. Foramen rotundum – sphenoid bone (maxillary n.)
QUESTIONS 153
218. Which is the best cement used in cast post restoration
a. RM GIC**
b. Type 1 GIC
c. Zinc polycarboxylate
219. New researcher about RCT post and core, what does it say?
a. Immediate use of post immediately after RCT has resulted in decrease apical leakage.
b. Delayed post immediately after RCT has resulted in decrease apical leakage
c. Immediate use of post immediately after RCT has resulted in increased apical leakage.
220. Strawberry gingivitis- wegner granulomatosis
221. Gingival fibromatosis- papillon lefever syndrome.
222. Self ligation bracket?
a. Less friction
b. Easier to adjust.
223. Not true about two step retraction of canine
a. Not used
b. Has better efficacy
c. Take greater time in closure of PM space.
224. Plaque control
a. Use in initial phase
b. Surgery phase
c. Supportive phase
d. All of the above
225. Polyether – stick to the tooth surface.
226. Mature plaque- 24-48hours.
227. Minimum abutment preparation – 3 to 5mm depending on tooth.
228. Post extraction healing--takes 1 week to form granulation tissue and one month to fill with bone ( 1& 4)
229. Not true about sterilization – if not dry, keep it under fan.
230. Pregnant lady goes into syncope what to do? –keep her on left side, slight supine.
231. Periodontal pocket depth may result in attachment loss after scaling—less than 1.9mm or 2.9mm
232. Implant tooth distance- 1 to 1.5mm
233. Studies about implant with long clinical crown shows what?
a. Loss of osseointegration
b. Facial gingival recession
c. Peri implantitis
234. Informed consent – informs the patient about the procedure correctly and make sure he/she
understood.
235. Hyperplasia—increase excitation to pain.
236. Active fiber in necrotic pulp—C fiber
237. Atropine- reduces secretion by blocking parasympathetic fiber.
238. Zinc phosphate contains 4% strontium fluoride, what is true
a. It reduce caries
b. Increase strength
c. None of the above.
239. Inlay wax results in distortion due to what – relaxation of internal stresses
240. Spread of odontogenic infection dependent upon—muscle thickness, anatomic location of the tooth.
241. Clinical attachment loss—is an imp predictor for prognosis of tooth.
242. Important step in maintenance periodontal procedure—removal of plaque.
243. Initial sign of occlusal trauma—tooth mobility
244. Smokeless tobacco is associated with – gingival recession.
245. OPG cause 15-28% magnification and bisecting angle cause 5.4% magnification—so we don’t use it ( it’s
a combination question ans is this )
246. Best x-ray to measure distance between implant and tooth root – intraoral peri apical
247. Maxillary sinus septum which x ray is best
a. Cross sectional CT
b. OPG
c. Axial CT
248. If OPG is taken with face down what will happen --- overlapping of mandibular/maxillary premolar/ TMJ will
move down.
249. Dislocated mandible, how to fix? – provide downward and backward pressure.
250. Gingival retraction cord , for how much minimum time we take place it
a. 2min
b. 4min
251. If plain gingival retraction is used how much long it takes for gingival to come back to normal
a. Less than 2min
b. Less than 5min
252. Not a feature of combination syndrome – midline paresthesia.
253. Most important in shade selection – value
254. Major enamel protein -- amelogenin
255. Occlusion for implant – in centric occlusion.
256. Difficulty in maxillary denture vs mandibular natural teeth – cross arch stabilization is difficult.
257. Why don’t use sharp explore? — can cause cross contamination and initiate caries.
258. Mucine ---not used for graft.
259. For severe ridge resorption --- use zero degree teeth.
260. Drug used in patient taking theophyline --- ciprofloxacin.
261. 75% extruded central incisor --- take x ray and follow up for 2weeks.
262. 75% extruded incisors, x-ray shows that its impinging on permanent tooth bud --- extract it.
263. MMP’s --- cause distraction of hyluranidase
264. P.gingivalis --- make collagenase which causes tissue destruction.
265. IL-1 – cause bone resorption
rd rd
266. Controlled tipping of crown --- center of resistance is between apical 2/3 and incisal 2/3 .
267. Probing defect --- VRF, differentiate b/w endo and perio lesion.
268. Fluoride ions --- have more affinity to hydroxyl and are smaller than hydroxyl.
269. 1.2mm reduction --- with base metal alloy or gold based alloy.
270. Stimulated saliva --- more from parotid
271. Sialolith ---mostly seen in submandibular gland and duct.
272. Spread of infection is dependent on --- muscle thickness/ anatomical position of tooth.
273. Subluxation and concussion
274. When can you post pics of patient --- if patient identify is anonymous and he gives written consent.
275. Indirect retainer --- prevent distal tipping of partial denture.
276. Retentive arm --- should exert no force and be passive when partial denture is completely seated.
277. Not true about amalgam---compressive strength of high copper amalgam is more than tooth structure.
278. Class 2 cavity preparation proximal facial and lingual walls --- diverge as they approach gingivally.
279. Which organism can survive deep inside dental pulp --- obligate anaerobes.
280. Maximum amount of epinephrine --- 0.2mg
281. Amalgam stored in a container coated with --- sulfide.
282. Moons face fracture --- Lefort 2 and nasomaxillary fracture.
283. Greater risk to maxillary antrum while extraction in which scenario --- long standing single isolated molar.
284. Soaps --- physically remove microbes.
285. Penicillin and cephalosporin --- acts on cell wall.
286. Drug contraindicated in pregnancy --- MCAT ( metronidazole,chloramphincol,aminoglycoside,tetracycline)
287. Tetracycline not used in --- oral contraceptive
288. Pt taking sodium warfine, what to check --- INR
289. Dry heat sterilization – cause coagulation of protein
290. Moist heat --- denaturation of protein
291. Alcohol % used --- 70%
292. In Periaricular approach to TMJ, which is the most commonly damaged --- facial n.
th
293. Post diameter --- should be 1/4 of the thinnest portion of the root diameter surface.
294. Polysulfide --- cause staining due to lead oxide.
295. Arcon articulator --- condyle attached to lower member and fossa in maxillary arch ( FPD )
296. Non arcon ---condyle attached to upper member and fossa in mandibular arch (removable prosthesis)
297. For PFM facial surface crown reduction --- reduce 1.2mm when casted with base metal alloys.
298. Cementum --- not seen on x ray
st
299. Maxillary 1 molar root --- concave and flat Mesiodistal
st
300. What is true about maxillary 1 premolar tooth --- 55% has two canal and midline furcation.
301. Bacteria for biological indicator --- bacillus stertophilius
302. Intermediate disinfection --- will kills mycobacterium tuberculosis.
303. What is important factor when selecting a base for a tooth --- thickness of remaining dentin
304. If perforation when placing pin what you do --- place CaOH and continue with placing the pin
305. 7yrs old with 4mm diastema , what to do --- take a radiograph to rule out supernumerary tooth
306. Plaque is the highest adjacent to which restorative material --- composite resin.
307. What can cause allergic reaction in orthodontic patient --- composite resin or vinyl … I think composite resin
because it has benzoyl peroxide.
308. Why types of wire is best for finishing --- stainless steel
309. Nickel allergy in what % of patient – 2-5%,6-10%,11-15%
Note: nickel is the most allergic metal known, with incidence of somewhere between 10-20%. Nickel
hypersensitivity is common among women. There is known cross reactivity between nickel and palladium
allergy. Virtually 100% of pt who are allergic to palladium will be allergic to nickel where as only about 33%
of those allergic to nickel will be allergic to palladium.
310. Glass fiber post vs. custom made metal post
a. Better adaptation to internal root surface
b. Is more esthetics
c. Required less tooth structure removal
d. Provides better resistance to tooth structure
311. Delta hepatitis is associated with --- Hepatitis B
312. Hepatitis B ---DNA virus
313. Long cone --- reduce magnification
314. If developer expires – X-ray will turn out gray
315. Pocket greater than 5mm what to do --- surgery + scaling
316. Fracture of root , coronal portion of crown is mobile, what to do --- Rigid splinting for 3 months with
composite resin and steel wire
317. How to prevent HIV and hepatitis B
a. Don’t treat patient with active disease
b. Reduce exposure to blood
c. vaccination
318. Which irrigation needle is used in endodontic irrigation
a. 26
b. 29
c. 22
d. 18 gauge
319. Camouflaging used in what
a. Class 1 mild malocclusion
b. Severe class ll
c. Skeletal discrepancy
d. None of the above
Note: cases camouflage well
1. Skeletal class ll
2. Mild skeletal class lll
Cases not respond to camouflage
1. Severe skeletal class ll
2. Long face problem
Camouflage should not be attempted in
1. Severe class ll
2. Moderate or severe class lll
320. Avulsion of tooth has happened , what do you first advice --- hold the tooth from crown and wash it with
water and reimplant
321. How many days you splint avulsed tooth --- 7 to 10 days
322. What type splinting is done for avulsed tooth --- Flexible splinting.
323. What type of resorption is seen few weeks after reimplantation avulsed tooth – replacement resorption.
324. Patient on diuretics , what is he suffering from --- cardiac failure
325. You extract upper molar and administer anesthesia, pt develop nectrotizing ulcer, and what is it ---
necrotizing sialometaplasia.
326. Torus
a. Associated with bruxism
b. Slow less growth in edentulous patient
c. Consist of cortical bone
d. All of the above
327. Patient after surgery, get swelling with”crepitation” sound is felt ---surgical emphysema.
328. PSA nerve block, develop facial swelling --- rapture of venous plexus.
329. Which muscle pulls the anterior mandible backwards during bilateral fracture at premolar region ---
genioglossus, mylohyoid?
Note: muscle involved in bilateral fracture in the canine region – Geniohyoid, Genioglossus, and Anterior
belly of digastrics.
330. Why it’s difficult to polish composite – due to soft matrix and hard filler.
331. Most commonly retained deciduous tooth – 2 mandibular molar
nd
332. Common transposed tooth – maxillary canine and 1 premolar

st
333. Difference b/w natal and neonatal teeth

Note: Natal teeth—teeth present at birth.
Neonatal teeth – teeth erupt within 30days.
334. What % of natal teeth is supernumerary –10%.
Note: 90% are deciduous teeth (mandibular incisors)
335. Collimation – restrict the size of x rays radiation
336. Class V cavity preparation – read about direction of walls , placement of grooves
337. Similarity between inlay and amalgam preparation – Mesial and distal wall converge occlusally
338. Important surface reduction in PFM crown – facially
339. Tetracycline -- inhibits DNA synthesis, act on 30s ribosome’s
340. Absolute contraindication of implant – IV bisphosphate therapy
341. Polyether – stiffest
342. Polysulfide – most tear resistant
343. Gypsum bonded investment --- used for type 1,2,3 and dowel core
344. Fluoride is added to flux to dissolve – chromium oxides layer
345. Beeding on complete denture – improve tissue contact
346. Purpose of vacuum firing porcelain – increase esthetics
347. Brown and orange stains on tooth, due do what? bacterial stain because of poor oral hygiene
348. Blue / violet – added to porcelain for translucency.
349. Subgingival calculus – provides attachment to plaque and receives its supply from crevicular fluid.
350. 10-40-18-2 , what is the first number – width of blade in 10 of millimeter
th
351. Offset angulation is a feature of --- gracey curette ( use 45 – 90 degree angulation )
352. Gingival marginal trimmer – used for rounding axiopulpal line angle.
353. Mesiobuccal bulge in which primary tooth – primary 1 molar, it’s also the type of tooth not resembling any
st
tooth in mouth.
354. If there is a canal in mandibular central incisor where will it be – lingual to the actual canal
st
355. H pattern seen in which primary tooth --- maxillary 1 molar
356. GIC set with in --- few min ( 6-8 min )
357.
358. Modified ridge lap instead of ridge lap -- easier to clean.
359. Lingual plate instead of lingual bar – provide indirect rentition and stabilization to ant teeth (1 &3)
360. Support for RPD, all is true except – ½ buccolingual dimension.
361. Indirect retainer – prevent dislodgement of denture base vertically.
362. Abfraction caused by –excessive non occlusal axial stress load, causing fracture.
363. Ovate pontic – Highly esthetic.
364. Grade 1 furcation defect --
365. After bleaching it is best to – wait for 2 weeks before restoring.
366. Bone graft from other species – xenograft.
367. Bone swagging – Bending pliable bone to defect.
368. Which structure would not form without teeth – Alveolar process.
369. Articular disc—fibro cartilage.
370. Common complication for open fracture – infection.
371. Diuretics and ACE inhibitors gives in --- heart failure.
372. Fracture in porcelain – compound fracture.
373. Most important factor in shade selection—Hue.
374. To reduce the setting time of amalgam -- Reduce mixing time.
375. High copper amalgam- Prevent gamma 2 formation.
376. Resin cement – micromechanical bond.
377. What amount of bone loss acceptable for implant – 0.2mm.
378. Absolute contraindication of implant – bisphosphate therapy.
379. Modified widman flap – expose root surface.
380. Premature contact in protrusive movement – distal of maxi and mesial of mandi.
381. Pedo pt has trauma to primary tooth 4hours ago, 2mm exposure—pulpotomy with ferric sulphate.
382. Injury to primary tooth intrudes into socket cause –Dilaceration.
383. Vitamin responsible for collagen – Vitamin C.
nd
384. Most common retained primary tooth -- primary mandibular 2 molar.
385. Missing tooth, absence of sweat gland – Ectodermal dysplasia.
386. Using long cone in parallel technique -- reduce magnification.
387. Effective method of rapid sterilization of metal tray -- Autoclave.
388. Dentigerous cyst – marsuplization and allow to erupt
389. GIC required conditioning – 10% polyacrylic acid
390. Change of cell from differentiated to undifferentiated – Dysplasia.
391. After extracting maxillary molar, pt has an ulcer – Necrotizing sialometaplasia.
392. Pt has bone growth, Hypercementosis, hearing/eye defect – Paget’s disease.
393. Paget’s disease – Bone grow posteriorly, so replace denture.
394. Down syndrome – Class lll.
395. Hyperparathyroidism – High phosphate.
396. Hepatic disease is a problem due to—hypoprothrombin.
397. Buccal canine retraction – intraoral intramaxillary appliance.
398. Perio therapy least effective in – Maxillary molar.
399. Polysulphide impression material – require rigid custom tray with occlusal stop.
400. Least common site of fracture – Coronoid process.
401. Main cause of VRF – Post and core.
402. Which muscle cause food trapment – Buccinator.
403. Stylomandibular ligament—styloid process to lingual of mandible.
404. Most effective area for infiltration for infiltration anesthesia—lingual of mandibular anterior.
405. Trismus- Medial pterygoid.
406. Allergic reaction with
a. Zinc sulphate in tooth paste
b. Cinnamon and one more
c. All of the above
HAAD MARCH 2016
407. Sterilization cycle – cleaning , disinfection , package , sterilization , storage

408. The sterilization method with least temperature
a. Autoclave
b. Hot air oven
c. Alcohol
d. Ethyl oxide
409. Disadvantage of using autoclave for sterilization of endo instruments
a. Not kill all bacteria
b. Make instrument dull
c. Need longer time than other method
410. Effective method in controlling infection aerosole release from pt mouth during dental treatment
a. Face mask
b. Face shield
c. Eye wear
d. All of the above
411. Ultra short acting barbiturate- thiopental (DD)
412. LA of rapid onset
a. Lignocaine
b. Procaine
c. Articaine
d. bupivacaine
413. Tetracycline interfere with action of the following- penicillin
414. ZOE is used as temporary feeling material for which of the following:
a. Less irritation
b. Stronger than other material
c. Less expansion
d. Good seal
415. For given tooth, which part of restoration must be properly contour:
a. Gingival one third or infra buldge
b. Height of contour
c. Proximal area
d. B+c
416. The most imp factor for success of post n core restoration
a. Remaining tooth structure
b. Horizontal +ve stop
417. DD of pt with history of recurrent ulcer
a. Behcet syndrome
b. Recurrent apthous
c. Cyclic neutropenia
d. All of the above
418. Furcation of accessory canal connect pulp with periodontium
st nd
a. Furcation canal are quite common in mandibular ( 1 and 2 molar )
st nd
b. Furcation canal are quite common in maxillary and mandibular molar (1 and 2 molar )
c. Accessory canal occur in apical 1/3 only
st
419. Maxillary 1 premolar may be single or two rooted
a. 30% are with single root
b. 50% are with 2 roots and bifurcation in middle 1/3
420. Distolingual extension of lower denture controlled by
a. Medial pterygoid
b. Superior constrictor muscles
421. Strawberry gingivitis occur in – Wagner’s granulomatosis
422. Gingival fibromatosis occur in
a. Down syndrome
b. Papillon lefevre syndrome
c. .
d. .
423. In class lll malocclusion the Mesiobuccal cusp of 6 occlude with- Mesial to 6
st
424. A pregnant female in the 1 trimester with swallow painful tooth. Which of the following is contraindicated
a. Radiograph
b. Penicillin
c. Extraction under xylocaine with 1:00,000 epinephrine
d. Acetyl salicylic acid
425. Premature loss of C indicates – arch length discrepancy.
426. Contact dermatitis commonly occur in
a. Hard palate
b. Tongue ( side of tongue )
c. Gums
d. All of the above
427. Increase VDO – Decrease intraocclusal space
428. Increase VDO leads to
a. Strained muscles
b. Clicking sound of teeth
c. Lisping
d. All of the above
429. Pulpitis 5 days after class ll composite is due to
a. Increase occlusal contact
b. Microleakage
c. Undercured composite
430. Most common complication of FPD
a. Caries
b. /
c. PDL disease
d. .
431. Band and loop space maintainer best indicated for
a. Single molar loss
b. 2 molar loss
c. Loss of 2 and 3
432. Oral lichen planus- Wickham’s striae
433. Which of the following decrease the setting time of amalgam
a. Spherical alloy
b. Admix alloy
c. High Cu amalgam
434. Chronic inflammatory gingival swelling is squeal of following factors
a. Prolonged exposure to dental plaque
b. Calculus
c. Genetic factor
435. Pt with successfully well obturated 36 and excellent marginal fitting crown restoration on it for 6yrs, during
radiographic examination a 5mm radiolucency was found apically related to distal root, tooth is
asymptomatic , pt doesn’t complain. What is the proper action should be taken
a. Extraction and implant
b. Apiecetomy and retrograde filling
c. Tell pt about condition and follow up.
436. During pin drilling , pulp was exposed so , you
a. Place pin at exposure site
b. Closed channel with CaOH and proceed
c. RCT
Note- allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place calcium hydroxide.
437. CaOH Pulpotomy is contraindicated in primary tooth due to
a. Internal resorption
438. Clinical features of acute fluoride toxicity
a. Nausea
b. Vomiting
c. Abdominal pain
d. All of the above
Note- symptoms appear with in 30min of ingestion and persist up to 24hours. Pt exhibiting nausea,
vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping.
439. Factor determine required pulp protection- thickness of remaining dentin
440. Denture shrinkage increased by – increased reduced monomer
441. Best method to detect occlusal caries
a. Sharpe explore
b. Direct vision and bitewing radiograph
c. Transillumination
d. LASER
442. Treatment of abscessed tooth in pt reciving biphosphates therapy -- no extraction, fears of ORN only, endo
treatment.
443. Cause of canal overfilling
a. Open apex tooth
b. Apical resorption
c. Preparation of canal has exceeded: apical foramen
d. All of the following
444. Pt has his tooth extracted and primary homeostasis achieved, then he returned after 2 hrs with bleeding and
local measure can’t achieve homeostasis. How to manage??
a. Apply ice pack in socket
b. Cauterization
c. Investigate pt INR and blood count
445. Marginal linkage of gingival wall of class ll restoration is due to
a. Occlusal…..
b. Buccal n lingual…..
446. Main function of enamel bevel
a. Increase strength of restoration
b. Expose enamel rod
c. Achieve chemical bond
447. Indirect retentions is required with – class 1 ( Kennedy )
448. Ovate pontics is chacterized by
a. Increase esthetics
b. Poor hygiene
449. Minimum distance b/w superior border of lingual bar and free gingival margin—4mm
450. After inlay cast was cemented post insertion complain ( pain with cold and percussion ) --- increase
occlusal contact
451. The most effective agent in reduction of microorganism in oral cavity is
a. Phenol
b. Chlorohexidine
c. H2O2
452. Radiographic finding of gingivitis
a. Horizontal bone loss
b. Vertical bone loss
c. Normal bone level
453. Probing depth = 5mm, gingival ression = 3mm , level of loss of attachment ---- 8mm
454. Full coverage of ridge to resist horizontal force-- Stability
455. Splint abutment together to –Distribute load over them
456. Inter implant distance
a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 5mm
457. Allergic reaction developed by pt taking orthodontic treatment usually caused by
a. Stainless steel
b. Composite
c. BIS GAMA
458. During extraction of upper 8 tuberosity fracture occurs but tooth and tuberosity are still attached. treatment
a. Remove both tooth and tuberosity and file bone sharpness
b. Leave both and stabilize them as possible
c. Make flap , remove tooth , leave tubersity and suture
459. Micro organism responsible for root caries—Actinomyces viscosus
460. Cause of immediate post operative pain after RCT
a. Pulp tissue still remain apically
b. Wrong working length
c. Over instrumentation
461. Fracture of rotatory NiTi file
a. Shear stress
b. Flexure stress while file is freely rotatory in canal
c. Finishing protaper used in rotation and reciprocation.
d. All of the above
462. Ankylosis of primary tooth leads to
a. Impaction of permanent successor
b. Primary tooth became submerged
c. Malocclusion
d. All of the above
HAAD EXAM FOR SEP 2011
463. What determine the distolingual extension of lower CD

a. Masseter muscles
b. Medial pterygoid
c. Lateral pterygoid
d. Superior constrictor muscles
464. What complain will a pt with Paget’s disease with a complete lower denture have
a. Severe resorption of bone due to cotton wool nature
b. Displacement of denture
c. No difference bcoz mandible is not affected like maxilla
465. A 5 yrs old child came with his mother with a complain of thumb sucking and he developed a 5mm overjet
and 3mm overbite. Then after 6months the child presented with a 3.5mm overjet and 10% of the overbite.
The mother states that the child stopped sucking on his thumb except when he goes to sleep. What is the
most probable management?
a. Refer to speech therapist
b. Refer to thumb sucking habit breaking therapist
c. Refer to orthodontist
d. Send for follow up after another 3 months
466. What’s the order of the following in the management of a pt. with multiple carious lesion
a. Control phase
b. Management phase
c. Evaluation phase
d. Urgent phase
e. Maintenance phase
467. A child who attending to your clinic scared, how would u manage him?
a. Convince him that the fillings don’t hurt
b. Restrain him
c. Use HOME
d. Listen to his fear
468. A pt made a complete denture but is complaining that he cannot swallow easily. What’s his problem
a. Excessive intraocclusal distance
b. Low intraocclusal distance
c. .
d. .
469. C-factor is
a. Ratio of bonded to unbounded surface
b. In lower class 1 filling in a lower molar is 4:1m
c. Ratio of unbounded to bonded
470. What is the measure for occlusal reduction in a PFM crown preparation
a. To sufficient occlusal clearance
b. To permit rotation of the arch
471. How to check occlusal defect in a pt who has received his denture?
a. Keep the denture away from the pt for 24hrs.
b. Tell the pt to bite in centric relation.
c. Tell the pt to bite in centric relation and copy the bite to an articulator.
d. Make copy castes and translate the record relation on an articulator.
472. Face bow transfers relation of the arches
a. In centric
b. In occlusal
473. Give a pt an infraorbital n. block and after 3 min hw/she feels paralysis on his forehead muscles, his eyelids
and cheeks, which branch have it affected
a. Auriculotemporal branches of trigeminal nerve.
b. Optic ganglion
c. Bell’s palsy
d. Infraorbital nerve.
474. What’s the most common age for primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
a. 5-10
b. 10-15
c. 15-20
d. 20-30
475. What does tetracycline work on?
a. Bacterial cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. DNA
Note: tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosome.
476. What does cephalosporin work on
b. Cell membrane
c. DNA
477. A carbide bur with a greatest number of cutting blades causes
a. Smoother surface with faster cutting
b. Rougher surface with slower cutting
c. Smooth surface with slower cutting
d. Rougher surface with faster cutting
478. Which is the most important reduction surface in an abutment prepared for PFM crown
a. Occlusal
b. Facial
c. Lingual
d. Proximal
HAAD EXAM 28 APRIL 2012
SURGERY AND PHARMAC
479. CHX effect

b. Cell membrane
480. Soap
a. Kill bacteria
b. Stop the growth of bacteria
c. Decrease amount
481. Tetracycline
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Cell wall
482. Truisms after LA injection, which muscle is most effected- Medial pterygoid
483. Consciousness measured by
a. WHO scale
b. Glass coma scale
484. Ketoacidosis which is not true feature?
485. Hypoglycemia which is not true feature?
486. Food get impacted in vestibule which muscle is effected-Buccinator
487. Stylomandibular ligament prevent which movement?
488. Surgery for mandible retrusion
489. Component of LA
490. Location of mandibular fossa
a. Above the occlusal plane
b. Below
c. Same
491. In PSA nerve block LA solution get deposited in which space- Pterygopalatine space
492. In nerve block which ion get deposited inside the nerve- Na
493. Most predominately immunoglobin found in saliva
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
494. Periodontal surgery that gain attachment?
495. Periodontal surgery get pocket reduction
496. Class 1 furcation treatment?
497. Gacle role in perio
498. When taking CR pt position on chair?
a. Upright with supported rest
b. Without supported head
499. Use of reverse angle clasp in distal RPD?
500. Facebow definition?
501. Facebow relation of maxilla to mandible is?
502. Facebow, cliper line?
503. Articulator acron type? Nonacron type?
504. CD error, cheeck bite? What is the error?
505. CD error, tongue bite what is the error?
506. PFM need any precondition before cementing? polyacrylic acid
507. Resin cement? which is not a feature
508. Which muscle recorded in mandibular distolingual?
509. Resin modified GIC? Which is not a feature
510. Which muscle record mandibular distobuccal?
511. Premature loss of primary tooth. What is the treatment\
512. If u tell child filling don’t hurt
a. He will trust u
b. Loose trust
c. Mother can leave room
513. Space maintainer, band n loop uses?
514. Space maintainer, Nance?
515. Definition of concussion?
516. Definition of Subluxation
517. Extracting teeth in patient disease? difficult ,easy
518. Dentigerous cyst, circular type, teeth can erupt?
519. Dentigerous cyst not a feature?
520. Dentigerous cyst treatment?
521. OKC associated syndrome?
522. Dry socket?cause?multiple ans
523. Dental caries types? Occlusal? Root?
524. Pulp doesn’t regenerate? Why?
525. Dentiogenis imperfecta? not a feature
526. Most common skin cancer in male?
527. Hyperparathyroidism feature?
528. Cledocranial dysitosis? Feature
529. Most common location of oral cancer
530. Collimation used for?
531. Periapical vs bisecting
532. How to get sharper image
533. Best film object distance
534. KV/MV
535. What effect irrigation?
536. Which anterior tooth have bifurcated area
537. C-factor
HAAD EXAM 15-5-2014
538. What determine the distolingual extension of a complete denture

a. Masseter
b. Medial pterygoid
c. Lateral pterygoid
d. Superior constrictor
539. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a life threatening condition:
a. Can lead to blindness if not treated
b. Fixed dilated pupil with limited eye movement
c. Can result from a periapical abscess of maxillary tooth spreading into maxillary sinus
d. Treatment include drainage of abscess and antibiotics and possibly anticoagulant
e. All of the above
540. “ Steam-bead filter” found all of the these except:
a. LED
b. Argon laser
c. Halogen arc
541. Sign and symptoms of diabetic Ketoacidosis include all except
a. Coma
b. Polyuria and polydispia
c. Irritability
d. Mental confusion
542. HIV patient :
a. 70% have oral manifestation
b. 50% of pt with hairy leukoplakia will have active HIV in 5 yrs
c. Commonly have HIV thrush
d. Commonly have Koplik spot activity
e. All of the above
543. The “ ACRON “ type of articulator:
a. Condylar element is attached to lower member
b. Condylar element is attached to the upper compartment
544. A complete denture was fabricated on an articulator where the condylar guidance was set at 25 degree, the
patient come back with difficulty in protrusive movement. This means that the condylar guidance
a. Is less than it supposed to be
b. Is more than it supposed to be
545. Implantitis is
a. Plaque induced inflammation
b. Treated by anti inflammatory
c. Treated by antibiotics
d. Happens more in HIV +ve patient because of decreased WBCs and less plalets
e. All.
546. Annual bone loss around an implant after the first year is acceptable if the rate is
a. 0.2mm
b. 0.5mm
c. 1mm
d. 2mm
547. The occlusal rest
a. Round triangular outline
b. Apex of triangle is in center of tooth
c. Half the buccal-lingual width
d. Angle is less than 90 degree.
A+c
A+d
B+c+d
All
548. Undercut for retentive clasp is
a. 0.25
549. Reciprocation clasp is always
a. Passive
b. Active
550. The advantage lingual plate over the lingual bar
551. Over extension of lower complete denture into in distobuccal sulcus will interfere with:
a. Masseter muscles
552. Most common type of fracture in all ceramics crown is
a. Lunar/semilunar
553. HbA1c is test used for
a. Antibody for hepatitis A
b. Antibody for hepatitis C
c. For diabetic patient
d. For new employ vaccination from hepatitis B
554. Which of these aid in placement of gold crown:
a. Venting
b. Vibration
nd
c. Drilling Mesial and distal groove after 2 impression
d. Die relief
B+d
A+c
B
All
555. Camper’s line
556. A face-bow is a caliper like tool used to
a. Transfer maxillary relation to TMJ
b. Transfer maxillary relation to mandible
c. Measure horizontal distance
d. Measure protrusive record
557. Position of finishing line depends on
a. Periodontal health
b. Gingival cervice
c. Asthetics
A+b
A+c
558. If posterior teeth in CD were at edge to edge, what mostly the patient will be complaining of
a. Cheek biting
b. Tongue biting
c. Cheek and tongue biting
HAAD APRIL 2016
559. Loss of friction by heating wire

a. NiTi
b. Stainless steel
c. Thermal NiTi
d. Titanium molybdenum
560. After a needle tract injury ,the infection spread first in which of the following
a. Lateral pharyngeal space
b. Submandibular space
c. Sublingual space
d. Pterygomandibular space
561. Most common problem in FPD
a. Caries
b. Need endo treatment
c. Periodontal problem
d. retention
562. what’s the best liner to be used with composite
a. polycarboxlate cement
b. CaOH
c. ZPC
d. GIC
563. Which of the following is the first sensation to disappear
a. Pain
b. Touch
c. Temperature
d. motor
564. What’s the normal response of a inflamed pulp
a. Normal no response
b. Pain which goes away when it removed
c. Hypersensitive painful response
d. Lingering pain that stays when response is removed
Note: opt a – pulp necrosis.
Opt b – reversible pulpitis.
Opt c –inflammed pulp.
Opt c-d – symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
565. During dental treatment what help all helps from aerosols
a. Mask
b. Face shields
c. Rubber dams
d. All of above
566. Faster setting LA
a. Bupi
b. Lidocaine
c. Procaine
d. Articaine
567. Over filling of RCT can cause a inflammation reaction
a. ZOE cause a higher reaction
b. Real seal cause higher reaction than ZOE
c. Real seal has lower reaction than ZOE n epoxy resin.
568. Which of these barbiturates can be classified as an ultra short acting compound?
a. Amobarbital
b. Thiopental
c. Phenobarbital
d. Pentobarbital
569. Which is Contraindicated in pregnant female with 1st trimester
a. Taking radiograph
b. Extraction under LA
c. Penicillin
d. Acetylsalicylic acid
570. Which of these aid in placement of gold crown
a. Venting
b. Vibrating
c. Drilling mesial and distal groove after secondary impression.
d. Die relief
1. B+d
2. A+c
3. B
4. all
571. strawberry gingivitis- wegners granulomatosis
572. which of the following method of instrument sterilization uses the lowest temperature (afk 2013)
a. dry heat
b. alcohol
c. ethylene oxide method
d. steam autoclave
e. Glass bead sterilizer.
573. Which drug if given subsequently after tetracycline many effect or hinder other drug process
a. Penicillin
b. Erythromycin
c. chloramphenicol
574. Horizontal osteotomy of mandible
a. Vertical body
b. Lefort
c. Genioplasty
d. Saggital osteotomy
575. Similarity between inlay and amalgam preparation--- divergent mesial and distal walls.
576. Kaposi sarcoma --- HHV 8
577. GARDNER SYNDROME
 Multiple polyposis of large intestine
 Osteomas of long bone
 Multiple sebaceous cyst
 Impacted supernumerary tooth
 Autosomal dominant
578. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
 X linked ressive
 Partial or complete anodontia
 Hypoplasia of hair, sweat gland and nail.
579. Primordial cyst
 Cyst found in place of tooth rather than directly directly associated with tooth.

rd
3 molar region
580. Dentigerous cyst
 Follicular cyst
 Derived from reduced enamel epithelium
 Normal follicular space 3-4mm. In DS follicular space more than 5mm

rd
Radiolucency around the crown of impacted tooth, most often affecting the 3 molar and canine.
 R/F- “Hollowing out” of entire ramus extending up to condyle and coronoid process.
 Bilateral and multiple DS found in – cleidocranial dysplasia and maroteaux lamy syndrome.
 H/P- Rushton bodies.
581. Subgingival calculus
 Color- dense, dark brown or greenish black. Black color due to hemorrhagic element from GCF and
black pigments from anaerobic rods.
 Hard clay like consistency
 Mineral source is GCF and so called serumal calculus.
 Subgingival calculus contain same hydroxyapitite content as supragingival calculus.
 Contain more magnesium white lockite and less brusite and octacalcium.
582. Over dose of lidocaine – give diazepam
 Toxicity is due to over dosage of drug.
 Effect on CNS- There is initial excitement followed by depression.
 Effect on CVS- Only depression, never stimulation. It produces hypotension, bradycardia and
decreased cardiac output.
 Treatment – moderate stimulation – injection diazepam or pentobarbital sodium I.V.
 Severe convulsion – 20mg of succinylcholine IV under artificial ventilator.
 CNS and CVS depression are corrected through artificial ventilation and use of vasopressor drug for
CVS support.
583. Treatment of acute fluoride toxicity
 Give calcium orally ( milk )
 Induce vomiting orally ( if dose is greater than 5mg/kg )
 Give orally soluble calcium in any form (milk, 5% calcium glyconate or calcium lactate solution) if dose
> 5mg/kg <15mg/kg.
 Give 10% calcium glyconate if the dose is >15mg/kg
584. Clotting time
a. 9-12sec
b. 12-15sec
585. Which is lie inferior to mylohoid muscle?
586. TB disinfection
587. Maxillary sinus septa x-ray
a. OPG
b. CT
c. submentovertex
588. Cast use pin in
a. Severely tilted
b. Hypoplasia
c. Under gums
d. Not enough tooth.
589. Cald well- luc operation not indicated for – 0.5mm perforation in maxillary sinus while extraction of
nd
maxillary 2 molar.
590. Most common site for Fracture of mandible –condyle.
591. Multiple sclerotic pt should use LA with no epinephrine
592. Benzodiazepine is in effective , what is given for anxiety : zolpidem
593. Monoclonal spike: IgM in multiple myeloma.
594. Antidote for cholinergic poisoning –atropine
595. MAO –not given with nitrous oxide.
596. Gumma : central necrosis granuloma ( histology )
597. Anxious pt with peptic ulcer given
a. Diazepam
b. Scopolamine
c. /
d. /
598. Blood alkalosis ( signs )- twitching of facial muscles
599. The most common pin used in restorative procedure is a (Mosby)
a. Friction-locked
b. Cemented pin
c. Amalgam pin
d. Self-threaded pin.
600. Tongue blade simple appliance used to correct
a. Thumb/finger sucking
b. Tongue thrusting
c. Anterior cross bite
601. Most common complication of lower molar extraction
a. Dry socket
602. Complication of impaction surgery
a. Swelling
b. Hemorrhage
c. Dry socket
d. All
603. Discoloration and loss of translucency of tooth
a. Pulp death
b. Hyperemia
604. Suitable height of abutment
a. Allow good clearance with opposite arch
b. Allow arc rotation make it non retentive.
605. Space maintainer Mandiblular molar teeth loss
a. Passive lingual arch
st
606. 1 formed dentine
a. Mantle dentine
b. Predentine
c. Intertubular dentine
d. Circumpulpal dentine.
607. Swelling , diffuse, radiopaque angle mandi
a. Cementoblastoma
608. Periaricular access to TMJ mobility may results from injury
a. Auriculotemporal n.
b. Facial n.
c. Parotid gland
d. Masseter muscles
st
609. Nursing bottle caries 1 affect
a. Maxillary incisors
610. Which make chemical bond with tooth structure
a. Zinc polycarboxlate
b. Composite.
c. Resin based sealer.
611. Direct retention most need in RPD
a. Class 1
b. Class 3
c. Class 4
612. Lingular bar in RPD
a. 3mm away from gingival margin
613. Most popular type of pins
a. Self threaded
b. Friction locked
c. Cemented
614. Light ortho force effects
a. PDL undermined resorption
b. Metabolic changes in PDL
615. X ray in pre implant placement
a. Periapical
b. Occlusal
c. OPG
d. Sialography
616. Pt with maxillofacial trauma. What position to transfer the patient to hospital for treatment?
a. Sitting
b. Supine
c.
617. For making crown bur used
a. Tapered fissured
b. Parallel side fissure
c. Round end bur
618. For border molding distolingual border of tongue
619. Early plaque bacteria
a. Gram +ve aerobic cocci
620. Sandwich technique what liner used under composite
a. CaOH
b. GIC
621. Secondary dentine formed
a. Recurrent caries
b. Trauma
c. Attrition wear
d. all
622. Lateral cephalogram shows what??
623. GIC set by
a. Acid base reaction
b. condensation
624. Pin used in amalgam for
a. Retention of amalgam
b. Strength of amalgam.
625. Main complication with FPD
a. PDL problem**
b. caries
626. Interdental floss
a. Remove plaque
627. Most biocompatible material in oral cavity
a. Gold
b. Titanium
c. Composite
d. Acrylic.
628. Function of enamel bevel
a. Strengthen the restoration
b. Expose enamel prism.
rd
629. Radiolucency associated with developing 3 molar
a. Periapical cyst
b. Periodontal cyst
c. Dentigerous cyst
630. Excessive cementum formation root apex
a. Hypercementosis
b. Enamel lamellae
HAAD RQ 5
631. Which irrigation needle is used in endo irrigation

632. If perforation occur while placing pin. Management?
633. Etiology of periapical abscess
634. C factor
a. Configuration factor ( C factor)= Bonded surface / Unbounded surfaces
b. Class 1 C factor- 5/1=5
c. Class 2 -4/2=2
d. Class 3 – 4/2=2
e. Class 5- 5/1=5
635. Polymerization shrinkage in composite after how many days- 2-4days
636. Transfer of trauma pt in which position
637. Pt develop swelling during surgery which crackles on sound due to
638. Hematoma is common with which nerve block- PSA
NOTE: hematoma is common with PSA and infraorbital n. blocks. Hematoma formation in PSA block is due
to injury to PTERYGOID PLEXUS of veins, which results in immediate swelling of face. To avoid this short
needle are used. Hematoma can be relieved by COLD packs and pressure.
In PSA n. block needle is advanced slowly in UPWARD, INWARD and BACKWARD direction in one
movement.
639. Trismus is due to which muscle- MEDIAL PTERYGOID
NOTE: TRISMUS after IANB is mostly due to needle injury to MEDIAL PTERYGOID muscle.
The muscles which is penetrated during IANB is BUCCINATOR
640. Sulphur granules seen in –ACTINOMYCOSIS
641. Desquamative gingivitis/ Gingivosis
642. Strawberry gingivitis- WEGNER’S GRANULOMATOSIS
NOTE: strawberry tongue- SCARLET FEVER
643. Primary colonizer of plaque-
The initial bacteria colonizing the pellicle coated tooth surface are predominantly GRAM +ve FACULTATIVE
ANAEROBIC COCCI FOLLOWED BY RODS, such as streptococcus sanguis and actinomyces viscosus.
The secondary colonizers adhere to cells of bacteria already present in plaque. They are predominantly
GRAM –ve ANAEROBIC RODS AND FILAMENTS such as p.gingivalis, p.intermedia,fusobacterium and
capnocytophaga species
NOTE: primary colonizer – yellow or purple complex
Secondary colonizer- green, orange or red complexe.
644. 2 yrs after crown placement. Inflammation due to
645. Grade 2 mobility recession 7mm. treatment?
646. DOC for Penicillin allergy- CLINDAMYCINE
647. Trismus after IANB – after 2 days, due to muscles spasm
648. Location of MANDIBULAR FORAMEN in children
649. Diamond bur suitable than carbide bur
650. Most frequent cause of vertical root fracture
651. H pattern of occlusion seen in which primary tooth
652. Food get accumulate in the vestibule due to which muscle defect- BUCCINATOR
653. Why ridge lap is better than mod. Ridge lap
654. Sterilization
a. The killing effect of dry heat is due to protein denaturation, oxidative damage and toxic effect of
elevated electrolyte.
b. The lethal effect of moist is due to denaturation and coagulation of protein.
c. Dry heat – spores of a non toxigenic stain of clostridium tetani ( test organism )
d. Moist hest – spores of bacillus steanthermophilis
e. Catgut – ionizing radiation
f. All suture material except catgut- autoclave
g. Absorbent point, broach, files and other root canal instruments – hot salt sterilizer or glass bead
sterilizer
h. Gutta purcha- immersing in 5.2% NaOCl for 1min followed by rinsing with H2O2 and trying.
i. Autoclave- 121 C at 15lbs for 15min or 134 C at 30lbs for 3min
j. Hot air oven- 160 C for 2 hrs or 120 C for 6 hrs.
k. Autoclave – bacterial spores should be cultured WEEKLY to determine autoclave efficacy.
655. Advantage and disadvantage of full thickness and partial thickness.
656. Spread of odontogenic infection depends on
657. What are the function of bevel
NOTE: Beveling or rounding of axiopulpal line angle increase the resistance to fracture of the restroration by
increasing the bulk of the restoration and by preventing stress concentration created by the sharp line
angle. Beveling is done by GMT.
658. Purpose of acid etching
a. Acid etching is usually done by 37% phosphoric acid which results in formation of enamel tags into
which resin will fit
b. Concentration greater than 50% results in formation of monocalcium phosphate monohydrate which
prevents further dissulotion
c. Concentration below 30% results in dicalcium phosphate dehydrate that cannot be easily removed
d. Microtags are only 2-5mm in length
e. Application of the etchant is often 15 sec.
f. Fluoride treated teeth and primary teeth require longer time due to presence of more aprismatic enamel.
g. After etching, surface area increased up to 2000 times that of original untreated teeth.
659. Treatment of ranula and mucocele
660. Mouth breathing
661. Uses of MTA
a. Apexification of permanent tooth
b. Apexification of any dentition
c. Root end filling material
d. Repair of perforation
e. Repair of incomplete vertical root fracture
f. Repair of root resorption
g. obturation
662. GTR should not be used for
663. 10yrs child lost primary mandibular 1st molar – no treatment
664. Cause of failure of amalgam restoration
665. Cause of failure of class 2 restoration – inadequate DEPTH
666. Moisture contamination during condensing amalgam – DELAYED EXPANSION
NOTE: delayed expansion begins 4-5days after condensation and results in hyperocclusion and crack in
tooth.
667. Difference bw abscess and periapical abscess- VITALITY
668. Submandibular gland palpation
NOTE: best way to palpate submandibular gland is bimanual simultaneous intraoral and extraoral palpation.
669. Predominant organism in abscess
670. In CD If maxillary posterior border thick when wide open denture dislodge due to denture hits- CORONOIDE
PROCESS
671. Inorganic substance for subgingival calculus derived from – GCF
NOTE:
a. Supragingival calculus contains hydroxyapatite and octacalcium phosphate most commonly.
b. Brushlite is more common in MANDIBULAR ANTERIORS and magnesium whitelocite in the
POSTERIOR area.
c. Subgingival calculus contains same hydroxyapatite content, more magnisum white lockite and less
brushlite and octacalcium phosphate.
d. Subgingival calculus is DENSE, DARK BROWN OR GREENISH BLACK in color due to hemorrhagic
element from GCF and black pigments from anaerobic rods.
672. ANUG. diagnosis
NOTE:
a. CLINICALLY- punched out, crater like depression at the crest of INTERDENTAL PAPPILAE, and
covered by pseudomembrane and extending into MARGINAL GINGIVA are characteristic of ANUG.
b. MICROSCOPICALLY- smear of ANUG demonstrate SPIROCHETES ( Borrelia vincenti ) and
FUSIFORM BACILLI ( fusobacterium )
c. ANUG is also called as VINCENTS INFECTION, VINCENTS STOMATITIS, TRENCH MOUTH, FETID
STOMATITIS, and PUTRID STOMATITIS.
d. TREATMENT: 3% H2O2 with equal dilution of water every 2 hour for 3days gives best result. H2O2
creates an oxidative environment and the growth of anaerobic organism.
e. ANTIBIOTICS: penicillin + metronidazole
673. The maximum acceptable dose of adrenaline in cardiac patient-0.04mg (2 cartridges)
NOTE:
a. Maximum dose of lignocaine without adrenaline is – 4.4mg/kg body wt and not exceed 300mg
b. Maximum dose of LA with vasoconstrictor is- 7mg/kg body wt and not exceed 500mg.
c. The maximum acceptable dose of adrenaline in normal patient- 0.2mg (20cartridges)
674. Trismus associated with which space involvement

675. Dry socket
a. Pt complains of DULL pain with minimal or no swelling. Pain usually starts on 3 rd day after extraction
b. Most common in mandibular molar area
c. Organism- Treponema denticola.
d. Treatment: irrigation and sedative dressing.
676. Direction of healing for mandibular extraction site
677. Which tooth has bifurcated canal or root
678. Which tooth is wider Mesiodistal than cervicoincisally
HAAD RQ 9
679. A pt with lower complete denture complains of pain in the region in the of mental foramen, what’s the most
common cause?
a. Schwannoma
b. Neurofibroma
c. Neurilemmoma
680. If u wants to make a class V in lower canine and u want to fix a rubber dam. What precaution will u take with
fixing of rubber dam?
a. Use the bigger puncture hole to accommodate the gingival clamp
b. Punch the hole more facially
c. Punch the hole more lingually
681. A pt complains of numbness to lower lip what’s the cause
a. Fracture in the premolar region
b. Malignant tumor
Note: both cause numbness of lower lip. About half of the pt with numb lip have associated with
malignancies. Other halves of the pt have acute bone infections or neurologic problem.(mosby)
682. Gonion, pogonion, menton are parts of which bone?
a. Skull base
b. Maxilla
c. Mandible
d. Chin bone
683. A pt receive a blow to his chin, he develops deviation of the mandible to the right side, what’s the possible
diagnosis?
a. Fracture of the right coronoid process
b. Fracture of right condyle.
684. A pt receive a blow to his eye , what’s the most common to happen
a. Injury to the eye by tool that is larger than the socket.
b. The orbit floor is less common to fracture than orbital wall.
c. Pain and sensitivity to touch due to pain in cheek and lip.
685. 4 carpules of 2% lidocaine sol. With 1:00000 epinephrine contains how many mg of lidocaine and
epinephrine.
a. 80mg of lidocaine and 0.04mg of epinephrine.
b. 40mg of lidocaine and 0.04mg of epinephrine
c. 80mg of lidocaine and 0.08mg of epinephrine
d. 40mg of lidocaine and 0.04mg of epinephrine
686. A 14yrs old child present to dental office with pain in lower molar, premolar region with vital teeth,
radiographically it appears as a radiolucent lesion below the roots of the teeth, and when opened the area,
found no fluid, what’s the possible diagnosis?
a. Static bone cyst
b. Ameloblastoma
c. Primordial cyst
d. Dentigerous cyst.
687. A mouth breathing pt would probably have which type of occlusion?
A. Class l
B. Class ll
C. Class lll
D. none
688. A child in mixed dentition stage with bilateral missing primary teeth needs which types of space maintainer?
a. Distal shoe
b. Band and loop
c. Passive lingual arch.
d. Nance appliance
689. A child with protruded upper incisors when is the best time to make for him a high labial arch removal
appliance?
a. After shedding of deciduous canines
b. After shedding of deciduous laterals
690. A child receives a trauma to his lower four incisors and leaves them for four yrs, now he develops pain and
swelling radiograph shows radiolucency below the four incisors, what should be done?
a. Vitality test to the teeth and RCT to be done the non vital teeth.
b. RCT done for all teeth and curettage under teeth.
c. Extract all four incisors and prepare a resin bonded retainer
d. Fallow up after some time.
st
691. A 40yrs old women has a swelling in upper right 1 molar region, radiograph shows periapical abscess and
non vital pulp, what should be done to her?
a. Give her antibiotic
b. Put temporary filling
c. Make an access and give antibiotic and leave the tooth opened for 72 hours.
692. When doing RCT for a lower central incisor and u find an extra canal, where is it most probably to be?
a. Lingual
b. Distal
c. Mesial
693. The best technique to make a flap for surgical removal of a periodontal pocket
a. Apically positioned flap
b. Proximally positioned flap
c. Modified widman flap
694. Which is the most responding to bone grafts?
a. Grade 1 osseous defects
b. Grade 2 osseous defects
c. Grade 3 osseous defects
d. Grade 4 osseous defects
695. What is bone swagging?
a. Repositioning the bone graft to an adjacent defect
b. Autogenous bone graft.
696. How to differentiate between apical and periodontal abscess?
a. Radio graphically
b. Vitality test
c. Percussion
697. What tool is used for root planning of a pocket with a depth more than 5mm
a. Hoe
b. Chisel
c. Curette
d. Ultrasonic scaler
698. What’s the best tool to remove subgingival calculus below 5mm depth
a. Curette
b. Ultrasonic scaler
c. Hoe
699. Vertical fracture of RCT treated tooth is mainly due to?
a. Lateral condensation of gutta purcha
b. Cementation of crown
700. Which of the following affects the efficiency of irrigation?
a. Sufficient widening of access cavity.
701. A lateral canal found in the middle third of a lower premolar. After obturation, the lateral canal appears not
filled with the material and shows a small radiolucency around it radiographically what should be done?
a. Apicectomy until the level of the lateral canal
b. Leave for periodic follow up
c. Remove gutta purcha and re-obturate so that the material can enter the canal.
702. A deep cavity in a primary tooth exposing the pulp, what would u do?
a. Pulpectomy and formacresol.
b. RCT and ZnOE.
703. A carbide bur with a greater number of cutting blades cause
a. Smooth surface with faster cutting
b. Rougher surface with slower cutting
c. Smooth surface with slower cutting
d. Rougher surface with faster cutting
704. Which is harder?
a. Amalgam
b. Composite
c. Type lV gold
d. Glass ionomer
705. Isthmus fracture is caused by
a. Inadequate width and depth of the isthmus area
b. Use of spherical amalgam.
706. Rounding or beveling of the axiopulpal line angle causes?
a. Stress distribution among dentin
b. Stress distribution among amalgam.
c. Stress distribution among dentine and amalgam
d. none
707. Composite problem in finishing is due to dislodgement of filler from matrix due to?
a. Hard matrix, soft filler
b. Hard filler, soft matrix
c. Normal matrix, hard filler.
708. Tin in amalgam does?
a. Decrease tarnish
b. Increase strength
c. Fasten setting time
709. After placing GI cement, a layer is painted over it, why?
a. To decrease moisture contamination
b. To give a polished surface.
710. Which makes a chemical bond?
a. BisGMA resin.
b. Composite
c. Zinc polycarboxylate
d. Amalgam.
711. Ovate pontic is?
a. The most hygienic
b. The least hygienic.
c. Never used.
712. A margin of a PFM crown in a lower molar is usually placed subgingival in cases of?
a. Esthetics
b. Crown lengthening in a short clinical crown.
713. When preparing a tooth for a cast metal crown, what’s the most important advantage of making the buccal
bevel?
a. So that the metal doesn’t get perforated during polishing or during future use.
b. So that it can accommodate any attrition on the opposite tooth.
714. On eating, while teeth are grinding on the functional side, what cusps are in contact on the balancing side?
a. Buccal cusps of the lower molar.
b. Palatal cusps of the upper premolar.
715. Which is the most important reduction surface in an abutment prepared for PFM crown
a. Occlusal
b. Facial
c. Lingual
d. Proximal
716. Delta hepatitis virus?
a. Is a misnomer
b. Affects HIV pts
c. Affects HBV pts
d. Highly contagious virus.
717. Hepatitis A virus; which is false?
a. Fecal oral infection
b. Stays latent in 1/3 of these cases
c. Is an RNA virus.
d. Incubation period is 1-2weeks
718. A pt has under gone extraction of a permanent tooth 1 month ago, and now comes with the extraction site
closed but a swelling found distal to it and multiple draining fistulae around it oozing pus, what does the pt
have ?
a. Syphilis
b. TB
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Actinomycosis.
719. .in a deep cavity which is to be indirectly pulp capped and restored by composite, care should be taken to
a. Apply CaOH on dentine.
b. Used a GI base
c. Take precaution with applying the bonding agent.
d. All of the above
720. CaOH is applied in indirect pulp capping to
a. Neutralize the alkalinity of the acid of bacteria.
b. For calcium to be absorbed by dentine.
c. Because of alkalinity of CaOH stimulates secondary dentine formation.
721. Where do u find large pulp chamber
a. In dentinogenesis imperfacta
b. In amelogenesis imperfacta
c. In Taurodontism.
722. Which disease is famous for growth retardation and mental retardation?
a. Thyroid hormone.
b. Posterior pituitary deficiency.
c. Anterior pituitary growth hormone deficiency.
723. What drug is a pt with thyrotoxicosis sensitive to during extraction?
a. Lidocaine
b. epinephrine
724. What’s the difference between periodontitis and periodontosis?
a. The same
b. Periodontitis is only related to local periodontal defect.
725. Difference between supra and subgingival calculus?
a. Subgingival is more because it gains its minerals from the crevicular fluid
726. A 19yrs old pt comes to your clinic with recent crowding in her lower anterior teeth, what’s the most common
cause for this?
a. Eruption of permanent tooth
727. What’s the most likely to occur to a child taking antibiotic for a long period of time
a. Moniliasis
728. In what gestational period does a cleft palate occurs?
st
a. 1 trimester
nd
b. 2 trimester
rd
c. 3 trimester
d. None.
729. A 7.5 yrs old child is taking tetracycline. What teeth are going to be affected?
a. Premolar
b. Molar
c. Incisors
d. None
730. The most relapsing orthodontic movement is
a. Tipping
b. Rotation
c. Bodily
731. Which PDL that cause relapse of the rotated teeth
a. Gingival
b. Horizontal
c. Oblique.
HAAD BANK 1
732. Headpiece sterilization should be done after

a. Dissemble and lubrication.
b. Wipe with alcohol and clean it and pack it.
733. Infective endocarditis is caused by which bacteria.
a. Streptococcus mitis
b. Streptococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus viridians.
734. Prevalence of dental caries
a. Related to xerostomia.
b. Directly related to sugar intake.
735. Missing teeth + no sweat
a. Hereditary Ectodermal Dysplasia
736. All have missing teeth except
a. Achondroplasia.
b. Gardener’s syndrome.
737. 3cm size ulcer on lateral surface of tongue, what do u does?
a. Wait for 14 days
b. Incisional biopsy
c. It will heal.
738. Which resorption in avulsed tooth
a. Surface resorption.
b. Inflammatory resorption.
c. Internal resorption.
739. Question related to internal resorption. – Pink color tooth, treatment of int. resorption, prognosis.
740. Glass fiber post advantage over prefabricated metal post
rd
741. Which impacted mandibular 3 molar is easiest to move?
a. Mesio-angular
b. Horizontal.
c. Distoangular.
d. Inverted
742. Amalgam pins used for
a. Retention.
b. Resistance.
c. convenience
743. Retention in class 3 cavity by
a. Retention groove.
b. Acid etching.
744. Ceramic fracture cracks
745. Neonatal teeth seen in
a. At birth
b. 2 weeks after birth.
c. After 2-3months
746. Question related to Pulpotomy
747. While giving IANB needle’s relation with medial pterygoid muscle is
a. Medial and anterior.
b. Inferior and posterior
748. If PSA n block which procedure can be done
nd
a. Extraction of 2 max molar.
st
b. Gingivectomy of 1 molar.
nd
c. Apicoectomy of MB root of 2 upper molar.
749. Siolalith commonly seen in
a. Sublingual gland.
b. Parotid gland.
c. Submandibular gland.
750. Complete full mouth extraction done , black blue color seen on neck what is it
a. Capillary
b. Hematoma.
751. Severe bone loss seen in
a. Chronic periodontitis
b. ANUG
c. Mild gingivitis.
752. Throbbing severe pain + increase on heat and cold application, diagnosis
b. Acute apical periodontitis.
c. Pulpal hyperaemia.
753. 2 to 3Q on acute apical periodontitis.
754. Premolar not seen in x-ray at the age of 4yrs
a. Will never erupt.
b. Will form later.
755. Normal clotting time.
756. Simple sterilization / basic sterilization
a. HBV
b. Streptococcus.
c. Tuberculosis
757. Which maxillary root is divided in to 2 root canal
a. MB
b. DB
c. Palatal
d. none
758. Implant distance from a vital tooth?
a. 1-2mm
b. 3-4mm
c. 7-8mm
d. 10mm
759. When suture are used to reposition tissue over extraction sites, they should be
a. Placed over firm bone where possible
b. Interrupted. 15mm apart
c. Firm enough to approximate tissue flaps without blanching.
d. A and c
760. Pt on dental chair gets angina because
761. Pt on dental chair has difficulty in breathing because
a. Asthma
b. Anaphylactic shock
c. ALL
762. class 1 malocclusion common reason
a. different in bone teeth discrepancy
b. Mouth breathing.
c. Growth.
763. Antibiotic of choice for pregnant women
a. Penicillin
b. Erythromycin
c. Tetracycline
d. cefixime
764. all are NSAIDS except
a. salicylic acid
b. ibuprofen
c. lisonipril
d. naproxen
765. Minimum distance between implant and IAN -2mm.
766. X-ray for Zygomatic fracture
a. Reverse town
b. Submento vertex
c. Occlusal
d. OPG
767. Right condyle fracture. Mandible shifted towards which side?
768. Which resorption is due to implant
a. Surface
b. Inflammatory
c. Internal
d. No resorption
769. Attachment of submandibular ligament
770. Which block causes facial n paralysis?
a. IANB
b. PSA
c. Greater palatine n. block
771. Tissue adjacent to PDL?
a. Enamel and alveolar bone.
b. Cementum and alveolar bone
c. Dentin and pulp
772. Which is the LEAST effective method of instrument sterilization
a. Chemical solution
b. Dry heat
c. Chemical autoclave
d. Steam autoclave.
773. Blue sclera is characteristic of
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Osteitis deformans
d. Fibrous dysplasia
774. Gingival recession at the buccal surface of a tooth is most likely caused by
a. Improper tooth brushing technique.
b. Cigarette smoking
c. Chronic bruxism
d. Improper flossing technique.
775. Early loss of a primary tooth, the eruption time of the permanent successor could be
a. Unaltered.
b. Accelerated
c. Delayed
776. Aging pulps show a relative increase in
a. Fibrous elements
b. Cell number
c. Calcification.
d. Vascularity.
777. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
778. A face bow is used to record
a. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
b. Inter-condylar distance.
c. Horizontal condylar inclination
d. Relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis
779. Ludwig angina is involvement of
a. Submental and sublingual gland.
b. Sublingual and submandi. Salivary gland.
c. Submental, sublingual and submandibular gland
780. Which of the following condition is most likely to be associated with a draining fistula?
a. Chronic periapical periodontitis
c. Hypercementosis.
d. Traumatic bone cyst
781. Q on excess growth – hyperpituitarism
782. Retraction cord are
a. Chemical
b. Mechanical
c. Chemo-mechanical
d. None
783. Small recurring ulcer on lining mucosa
a. Herpetic
b. Apthous ulcer
c. Syphilis
784. Strawberry tongue seen is
a. Scarlet fever
b. Fungal infection
785. Candidiasis is treated by
a. Penicillin
b. Nystatin
c. Clindamycin
d. None.
HAAD PAPER 28TH OCT

786. Periodontal Surgery gets pocket reduction?
787. When take CR pt position on chair? Upright wt supported rest, without supported head ,,,
788. Which muscle recorded in man.ditolingual?
789. Space maintainer, band & loop uses?
790. Dry Socket? Cause? multiple answer
791. -TMJ surgery around condyle can effect
1. Parotid gland
2. Facial nerve
792. strawberry gingivitis--- Wegners granulomatosis
793. Apical reposition 1 Question
794. forceps direct the force to
a. Root
b. Crown
c. Cement
795. Lichen planus appears as white strea
796. Most difficult in the fabrication of upper denture opposite to anterior natural teeth is
a. Occlusion plane
b. Teeth stability
c. Arch
797. the undercut size for retentive clasp Co-Cr -- 0.25
798. Class 1 malocclusion -- Tooth size and arch discrepancy
799. Which of the flowing drugs is less effective with tetracycline -- Penicillin
800. When preparing an MO cavity for a primary molar its not necessary to use the gingival trimmer to bevel the
gingival floor because
a. The enamel rods incline occlusally in the gingival third
b. The enamel rods incline cervically
c. It’s too complicated to do an MO cavity in primary teeth
801. A 5 yrs old child present to your clinic with a thumb sucking habit and have a 3 mm overbite and 5 mm
overjet, after 6 month the overbite became 10% and the over jet is 3.5 mm the mother said that the thumb
sucking has reduced to night time only
a. Use a habit breaker appliance
b. Consult a speech therapist
c. Counsel the parents about thumb sucking and monitor the case
802. If fluoride ingested by child sign and symptoms
803. Deciduous tooth infected over permanent tooth------best option is surgical extraction
st
804. 1 force to be used in extraction—apical
805. During pin prep pulp exposed what to do --- Put calcium hydroxide and make another one away from
pulp.
806. Women stop steroid for erythema multiform 3 months before extraction --Steroids inc chances of infection
807. Loss of attachment(8)=pocket depth(5)+ recession(3)
808. Burs causes rough surface???
809. Bottle nursing carries mostly on maxillary incisor
810. After tooth extraction bleeding does not stops after 48 hours, with pressure packing there is no decrease in
bleeding go for Blood cbd and INR
811. Bleeding after tooth extraction
a. Secondary
b. Mostly capillary in nature
c. May be from nutrient vessels
812. Reversible pulpitis can be treated by
a. Pulpotomy
b. Pulpectomy
c. Palliative treatment
d. None
813. Clicking teeth, muscle fatigue --increase VDO,
814. Minimum abutment preparation – 3 to 5mm depending on tooth
815. Implant to implant distance 3mm
816. Hyperalgesia -> increased excitation A delta fibers
817. Inlay waxes results in distortion due to what  Relaxation of internal stresses.
818. Spread of odontogenic infection dependent upon  Muscle thickness/ anatomical location of tooth.
819. Clinical attachment loss -- is an important predictor for prognosis of tooth.
820. feature of Combination syndrome
821. Probing detects  VRF, differentiate between endo and perio lesion
822. Fluoride ions  form flourapatite, decrease carries rate and decrease adhesion of bacteria.
823. Greatest risk to maxillary tuberosity-------single isolated tooth.
824. Maxillary tuberosity fracture remains attach---------stabilize and suture.
825. Main function of post-----retain the core.
826. What is true about maxillary 1 Premolar tooth  55% has two canals and middle bifurcation.
st
827. What is important factor when selecting a base for a tooth?  Thickness of remaining dentin
828. What can cause allergic reaction in orthodontic patients?  Composite resin OR vinyl … I think composite
resin cause it has benzoyl peroxide
829. Pockets greater than 5mm, what to do?  Surgery + Scaling
830. You extract upper molar and administer anesthesia, patients develop necrotizing ulcer, and what is it? 
Necrotizing sialometaplasia
831. Most common site(s) for contact stomatitis?
a. Side of tongue
b. Hard palate
c. Gingiva
d. All
832. Glass ionomer sets by---acid base reaction
833. Most important for pulpal protection
a. Use protective base
b. Remaining dentinal structure
c. Remove carries
d. Proper dentinal sealing
834. Class 3----MB cusp of lower 6 occludes Mesial to upper 6
835. Most common cause of premature exfoliation of primary canine?
a. Trauma
b. Serial extraction
c. Carries
d. Lower late crowding.
836. Light ortho force can cause??
a. Undermining resorption
b. Root resorption
c. PDL changes
d. All
837. Fastest LA
a. Articaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Lidocaine
838. Pedo patient with carious exposure-------formocresol pulpotomy
839. Calcium hydroxide in primary tooth causes internal resorption.
840. Pulp and periodontium communicate with each other by accessory canal, lateral canal and apical foramina
841. Ovate pontic highly asthetic
842. Which of the following causes gingival enlargement
a. Diltiazem
b. Phenytoin
c. Nifedipine.
843. Distance from superior of lingual bar to gingival margin 3-4mm.
844. Serial extraction is done for providing space to which permanent teeth?
a. Second premolar
st nd
b. 1 and 2 premolar
st
c. Canine and 1 premolar
845. DD of recurrent ulcer??

a. Apthous ulcer
b. Bachet syndrome
c. Cyclic neutropenia
d. All
846. In premolar. Embrasure is??
a. Equal facial and lingual
b. Larger facial and narrow lingual
c. Larger lingual and narrower facial
847. Resistance force in horizontal direction in RPD??
a. Support
b. Stability
c. Retention
848. Tongue blade is single orthodontic appliance used to??
a. Anterior cross bite
b. Deep bite
c. Figure sucking
849. After trying PFM restoration and performing very nice marginal adaptation, higher 1mm occlusally??Why?
a. Contact areas
b. Altered cast
c. Porous metal
d. Porecelin expansion
850. Patient taken IV bisphosphonate, badly carious un restorable tooth?>?
a. Extract and Antibiotic coverage
b. Take INR and bleeding test before extraction
c. Endo therapy
d. A and B
851. Chronic pulpal lesion in children as
a. Bifurcation involvement radiolucency
b. Apical involvement radiolucency
c. Pdl enlargement
852. Implantitis one question
853. Increased vertical dimension in CD will cause
a. Gagging
b. Muscle pain
c. Clicking of posterior teeth
d. --------
e. All of the above
854. Best way of for border molding of lingual right and left flange is
a. Swallowing
b. Tongue wetting the lips
855. Best prognosis is for
rd
a. Horizontal at the apical 1/3
rd
b. Horizontal at middle 1/3
rd
c. Horizontal at coronal 1/3
d. Vertical root fracture
856. Most determining factor of cast post and core is
a. Post length
b. Post width
c. Remaining tooth structure.
d. Horizontal over lap
st
857. 1 force during extraction------apical
858. For working length determination best to use periapical radiograph using which technique
a. Parallel
b. Bisecting technique
859. For sterilization sequence is cleaning, disinfectant, packaging, sterilization
860. Autoclave-----endodontic file-dull the sharp instrument
861. A child in mixed dentition stage with bilateral missing primary teeth needs which type of space maintainer??
a. Distal shoe
b. Band and loop
c. Removable PD
d. Passive lingual arch
862. Which one of the following is most biocompatible???
a. Gold
b. Titanium
c. Acrylic
863. When prep tooth fore cast metal restoration what will occur if buccal bevel not used??
a. Metal get perforated during polishing
864. What is the measure for occlusal reduction in PFM crown prep??
a. Suffient occlusal clearance
b. Arch rotation
865. How to check occlusal defect who has just received his denture??
a. Keep the denture away from patient for 24 hours
b. Tell the patient to bite in c relation
c. Tell the pt to bite in centric relation and copy the bite in articulator
d. Make copy cast and translate the record relation on articulator
866. Tripod marks in cast-----Relationship of cast to surveyor.
867. All of the following can related with ceph except?
a. Vertical growth
b. Horizontal growth
c. Mandibular asymmetry
868. If u are doing class V, how to determine the place of whole in rubber dam?
a. In the arch
b. Buccal side
c. Lingual side
869. Reduce setting time of amalgam by
a. Use spherical alloy
b. Use lathe cut alloy
c. Dec trituration
870. Sec dentine can form in response to?
a. Occlusal trauma
b. Attrision
c. Recurrent carries
871. Acute exceb of acute apical periodontitis 1 Question
872. 1 sensation to be lost after LA – Pain.
st
st st
873. Pregnant patient with 1 trimester and acutely infected 1 molar what should be avoided??
a. Penicillin
b. Radiograph
c. Extraction
d. acetylsalicylic acid
874. centric relation patient position-------I marked sitting
875. Sec dentine can form in response to?
a. Occlusal trauma
b. Attrision
c. Reccurent carries
876. AHA, Reo and zinc oxide eugenol sealer
877. Incremental technique in composite to compensate for polymerization shrinkage
878. Polymerization shrinkage in composite depends upon?
a. Adhesive bond
b. Filler content
c. Elastic modulus
d. All
879. Narrower canal in upper 6--------mesiopalatal
880. EPT respond to A delta fibers
881. Constituents of composite leach out of the material
HAAD RQ
882. ELECTROMAGNETIC RAYS
a. X ray
b. Gamma ray
c. Microwave
d. All
883. Root planning for
a. Remove plaque
b. Remove calculus
c. Smooth root n remove cementum
d. All
884. Chroma in shade selection for
a. Brightness
b. Saturation
c. Darkness
885. The best image for root surface anterior tooth for known position of implant and its surface
a. CT scan
b.OPG
c. Bitewing
d. a+b
886. ATROPINE before anesthesia
a. Reduce LA
b. Reduce secretion of parasympathetic
c. Reduce secretion of sympathetic
887. Most RADIOLUCENT organ
a. Thyroid
b. Salivary gland
c .Prostate
888. The importance of anterior teeth
a. Esthetics
b. Slice
c. Phonetics
d. ALL
889. Major disadvantage of immediate denture
a. Infection
b. Can’t do wax try in
c. Bone resorption
890. Treatment of Pericoronitis involve
a. Irrigation and mouth wash
b. Extraction of opposing tooth
c. ALL
891. 7yrs old boy have pus drain from lower border of mandible. what should you look for
a. Dental infection
b. Actinomycosis
c. TB
d. ALL
892. Most common biopsy in dentistry
a. Incisional
b. Excisional
c. Punch
d. Aspiration
893. Macroglossia causes
A. Cretinism
B. Endocrine dysfunction
c. Infection
d. Lymphatic’s obstruction
e. ALL
894. Gingival epithelium in sulcus
a. Non Keratinized
b. Slightly keratinized
c. Heavily keratinized
895. Pt after LA have slow breathing ,reduce BP, loss of consciousness, sweating
a. Allergy to LA
b. Allergy to vasocon
c. Syncope
896. Cell common in periodontal pocket
a. Neutrophils
b. Plasma cells
c. Macrophage
897. Supernumerary teeth + unerupted teeth
a. Cleidocranial dysostosis.
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
898. What are the cause of Desquamative gingivitis
a. Mucous membrane pemohigoid
b. Pregnancy
899. Supplement retention in crown
a. Parallel wall
b. Boxes n groove
c. cement
900. Pt have pain on chewing on tooth which have post n core, crown , x ray normal
a. Vertical root #
b. Loose crown
c. Premature contact
901. While giving Superior Alveolar Nerve block huge swelling in the same side
a. Hematoma
b .Deposition of solution into Lateral pterygoid
c. Allergic reaction
902. Intraligamentary anesthesia follow which group
a. Intraosseous
b. infiltration
c. Periodontal
903. Cause of tooth ankylosis
a. Genetics
b. Infection of the tooth n bone
c. Increase periodontal space around teeth
d.all
904. Pt comes 3 months after extraction with abscess drain next to extraction area
a. Actinomycosis
b. Dry socket
c. Histoplasmosis
905. After extraction swelling with cracking sound
a. Ecchymosis
b. Edema
c. Hematoma
d. Emphysema
906. After extraction you perforate the sinus but the sinus membrane is intact. what is your next approach
a. Do normal post extraction steps
b. Make flap
c. Idoform with suture
907. Occlusal trauma with periodontitis causes
a. Tooth migration
b. Infrabony pocket
c. Reduce PDL space
908. PDL fiber helps in relapse ortho movement
a. Transseptal
b. Oblique
c. Horizontal
909. Gray teeth color, enamel shipping, sclerotic dentin
a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. Enamel Hypoplasia
910. Taking OPG if the man is tipping too far forward what the radiograph will be
a. Supraimposition of Max premolar
b. Supraimposition of Mandi premolar
c. Mandi anterior teeth elongulation.
st
911. Must do in 1 visit after periosurgery
a. Probing
b. Plaque removes
912. The ACRON type of Articulator
a. Condylar element is attached to the lower member
b. Condylar element is attached to the upper member
913. Best to record horizontal hing axis
a. Kinematic face bow
b. Arbitrary face bow
c. Articulator
914. Difficult to swallow with CD
A. Decrease intra occlusal distance
b. Teeth placed too lingually
c. Increased intra occlusal distance
915. Asymmetrical open bite with normal occlusion
a. Abnormal swolloing
b. Digit sucking
c. Mouth breathing
916. Primary incisor fully intruded n impinge on permanent incisor. Treatment
a. Extraction of primary tooth
b. Observe
c. Ortho reposition
917. Protection periodontium of abutment teeth of RPD with distal extension
a. Stress breaker
b. Put clasp on at least 2 teeth next to edentulous space
c. Gingivally approached arm
d. ALL
918. Did Pulpotomy on permanent incisor with close apex consider the permanent filling
a. Wait 2 weeks
b. Do the filling immediately
c. Wait for 6 months
919. Pt comes with large filling and pain, elongated pain after hot drinks, x ray is fine, vitality test is normal
a. Hyperaemia due to amalgam filling
c. necrotic
920. After RCT small radiolucency next to accessory canal n the GP did not fill it. what to do
a. Repeat RCT
b. Follow up
c. Endo surgery
921. Which bur makes the roughest surface
a. Cross cut low speed
b. Cross cut high speed
c. Plane bur
d. Carbide high speed
922. The first sign in cavity preparation
a. Out line
b. Remove caries
c. Convenience
923. When you start the cavity preparation the bur should be
a. Working in low speed
b. Working in high speed
c. Not working
924. You missed a small carious lesion and apply sealer. What happen
a. Arrest
b. Discoloration
c. Deep caries
925. Which one could results in referred pain
a. Periapical abscess
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Reversible pulpitis
d. Periodontal abscess
926. Which root canal have sensitive tissue
a. MB
b. DB
c. DL
927. What is the cause of isthmus fracture in restoration
a. Inadequate preparation
b. Inadequate condensation
c. Delayed expansion
928. What is the advantage of polyether impression
a. Accuracy
b. Dimensially stable
c. Short setting time
929. False
a. Amalgam compressive strength better than tooth
b. Amalgam has the highest thermal expansion
c. Setting material is brittle
d. Bulk fracture common in amalgam
930. Fabricate CD for pt with extensive bone resorption and mandibular incisor
a. Balance occlusion with anatomic crown
b. Balance occlusion with non anatomic crown
931. Common surgery to advance the mandible
a. Sagittal split osteotomy
b. Distraction osteosynthesis
932. Most reliable way to detect rough bone surface
a. Finger on bone
b. Check in the next visit
c. None of the above
933. In PSA block LA the anesthesia go to
b. Pterygopalatine fossa
934. Pt have cardiac disease what is the max epinephrine you can give
a.20mg
b.40mg
c.60mg
d.70mg
935. 4yrs child comes with thumb sucking habit. what you will do
a. Tell the parent to make him stop the habit even it unpleasant
b .Reassure the parents
c. Make the habit breaker
936. True about orthodontic force
a. Excessive force cause root resorption and non vital
b. Light force cause continuous tooth movement
c. ALL
937. Organism in deep root canal
a. Obligate anaerobic
b. Falcultative anaerobic
938. What is well known about resin cement
a. Not used with metal crown
b. Only used in veneer and inlay
939. Most imp gingival health is the countor of the crown in which part
a. Intraproximal
b. Gingival and infrabuldge
c. Suprabuldge
d. Incisal
a+b
b+c
a+c
940. What is true if mandibular primary molar premature loss and begin to loss space
a. Place lingual arch
b. Nance
941. Disadvantage of dry heat sterilization—time consuming.
942. What acid etching do with enamel – 37% phosphoric acid.
943. Muscle NOT include in mouth opening
944. Pt with ill fitting denture will have – Candida
945. 10yrs pt with pulp exposure and hemorrhage, x ray fine – Pulpotomy
946. Intrude permanent incisor treatment- reposition+ wait 2 weeks for endo treatment
947. Difference b/w concussion and Subluxation
948. Permanent tooth tends to erupt in which direction- occlusal mesial.
949. Fracture of mandibular angle, bone tends to move in which direction – upward and medially
950. Horizontal fracture of permanent incisors in middle third – splint and observe
951. Child 2yrs with injury, primary incisor impinges into permanent incisor results in – enamel Hypoplasia.
952. Child 3yrs with injury , primary incisor impinge into permanent incisor results in – decalcification
953. Disadvantage of GP- lack of rigidity and small size
954. Why you can’t locate pain in reversible pulpitis- because there is no proprioception in pulp
955. Pt have severe pain then it became dull pain and pain on biting- irreversible pulpitis
956. Pt having pain on hot and relived by cold – irreversible pulpitis
957. Pt has accident before 3yrs and now the 4 upper teeth have radiolucency at the apex. what is the treatment-
do vitality test and RC for necrotic teeth
958. High Cu amalgam results in – Reduce creep
959. Safety in amalgam handling
960. What is the cause for porcelain fracture in PFM crown – Inadequate frame work (Mosby)
961. Minimum thickness of the rest in RPD – 1mm
962. Wrong brushing technique results in?
963. The advantage of bounded composite resin after etching
964. C factor
965. High pull headgear for maxi molar- move it distally and upward
966. Drugs cause gingival enlargement
967. Signs of allergic stomatitis
968. Erythema multiforme
969. What is second order bend in fixed ortho ( torque )- Labiolingual
970. Pedo with large diastema what u will do first – take radiograph to make sure no mesiodense.
971. In CD which plane u follow for occlusion- camper plane
972. Pt with bleeding and ulceration on gingival without attachment loss- ANUG
973. What could affect the max sinus floor more single root extraction of upper molar- palatal extosis removing
974. In class 5 the cavity outline depends on – caries
975. Lateral movement the condyle in nonworking side moves- downward forward medially.

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674. Trismus associated with which space involvement

732. Headpiece sterilization should be done after

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