1.

Which of the following AC BUS’ s can be powered by the 5 KVA EMERGENCY

GENERATOR.
a) AC BUS 1.
a) AC BUS 2.
b) AC ESS BUS and AC ESS SHED BUS.
c) Only AC ESS BUS.

2. Aircraft in flight powered by battery only. The Display Units on EIS available
are ?

a) PFD 1, ND 1, UPPER ECAM.

a) PFD 1, UPPER ECAM.
b) PFD 1, PFD 2, UPPER ECAM.
c) PFD 1, UPPER AND LOWER ECAM’S.

3. Changing Flap setting from CONFG 2 to CONFG 1 for take off will result
in ;

a) An Equal climb and longer T/O field length.

b) A longer T/O field length and better climb.
c) A better climb and equal T/O field length.
d) A longer T/O field length and shallow climb.

4. RNP displayed as HIGH in the Progress Page indicates.

a) A/C is not capable of meeting the navigation accuracy criteria.

b) A/C is satisfying the navigation requirements of that phase of Flt.
c) FM calculated position is wrong.
d) None of the above are correct.

5. Regarding Static Inverter. Mark correct Statement

a) Available with aircraft speed above 50 KTS, Flight on aircraft battery’s only,
Static Inverter on battery’s 1 & 2. powers AC ESS Buss and DC ESS BUS.
b) When Rat stalls or aircraft or aircraft on ground speed below 100 KTS, battery
no 1 through static inverter powers AC ESS BUSS, battery 2 powers DC ESS
Buss. Shed Buss AC and DC are shed.
c) As in b) In addition, aircraft on ground at 50 KTS Static inverter stops no
power supply for AC ESS Buss and DC ESS Buss.
d) All above are correct.

1 Set B 31st Mar’17

6. Should both FAC’s fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the
__________ are extended.

a) Landing Gear.
b) Flaps.
c) Slats.
d) Ground Spoilers.

7. In case of BLEED BMC # 1 Fault which of the following leak information will
not be available?

a) LH Wing Leak.
b) RH Wing Leak.
c) APU Bleed Leak.
d) All of the above.

8. Which of the following procedure is correct to monitor the fuel predictions

in Cruise?

a) Periodically check the winds on Flight Plan B page and update it when
current wind is significantly different.
b) Check that the sum of fuel on board and fuel used is consistent with the
fuel on board at departure.
c) Check that extra fuel is negative and remains negative.

9. On Ground during Preflight, crew notices the extra fuel as –ve, what are
the items to be checked?

a) Correct Performance factor on MCDU Vs FLIGHT PLAN.

b) Step Altitudes, wind & temperatures as per the Flight Plan
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) Check Performance factor, REC MAX Altitude, Step altitudes, wind and
Temperature.

10. Hijacking Transponder code:

a) 7650
b) 7750
c) 7500
d) 7550

11. TAIL STRIKE : In case of Tail strike

2 Set B 31st Mar’17

 a) Maximum altitude to maintain is FL100 or MSA.
b) Rate of climb to be targeted at 1000 feet/min
c) Rate of descent to be limited to 500 feet/min
d) All the above are correct.

12. During Engine Start :

Igniters A & B are both in use whenever MAN START s/w is ON.

a) True
b) False

13. The CRANK position of ENGINE MODE selector is used to blow out excess fuel

a) When a failure is detected on ground during an automatic start

b) When a failure is detected on ground during a manual start
c) When tail wind is more than 15 KTS.
d) Both a) and b) are correct.

14. What is the target differential pressure and cabin altitude to be acquired during
initial descend in case of BOMB ON BOARD?

a) 1 PSI target differential pressure and 4000 ft cabin altitude.

b) 5 PSI target differential pressure and 23000 ft cabin altitude.
c) 2.5 PSI target differential pressure and 2000ft cabin altitude.
d) 1 PSI is target Differential Pressure, Cabin Altitude to acquire will be: Present
Cabin Altitude + 2500FT, with Cabin Pressure control in Manual.

15. What is the crew action in case of ECAM advisory IDG OIL TEMP > 147°C?
(CFM 56 5B4 / 3)

a) Put the Galley OFF.

b) Disconnect IDG
c) Put the Generator OFF.
d) Option (a) or (c) are correct

16. Alert Height of A320 is

a) 700 ft.
b) 100 ft.
c) 200ft.
d) 50ft.

3 Set B 31st Mar’17

17. In Electrical Emergency Configuration (AC BUS1 & 2 remain UN powered in
flight), after gears are down, how the battery charging is done?

a) Batteries are charged by DC BAT BUS, through HOT BUS

b) Batteries are charged by DC ESS BUS.
c) Batteries are not charged when aircraft remains only in
Electrical Emergency configuration.
d) Batteries are charged by 1KVA Inverter when available.

18. PTU FAULT: PTU FAULT is triggered when

a) Any failure affecting the Blue or Green pumps occurs

b) Any failure affecting the Green or Yellow pumps occurs
c) Any failure affecting the Green or Yellow reservoirs occurs
d) 30 seconds has not lapsed on ground since cargo door closure and one engine is
started.

19. Which of the following functions are not available if Yellow system Pressure
cannot be recovered?

a) Reverser 1 and gear retraction.

b) Reverser 1, gear retraction and Normal braking.
c) Reverser 2, cargo doors and nose wheel steering.
d) Reverser 2, flaps, Parking brakes, cargo doors,

20. Auto tuning of NAV AIDS is performed by which of the following computers ?

a) MCDU.
b) ADIRU.
c) Radio management panel 1& 2.
d) The FMGC.

21. Protections available in Normal law are :

a) Pitch Attitude, Load Factor, High Speed, Low Speed, Alpha Floor.
b) Load Factor, Pitch Attitude, Angle of Attack, High Speed, Bank Angle.
c) Load Factor, Pitch Attitude, VLS, Rudder Travel, Angle of Attack.
d) Load Factor, High Speed , Low Speed , Abnormal Attitude.

22. In flight in case of loss of all main generators , emergency generator not
running , the DC ESS BUS is supplied by :
a) DC BAT BUS
b) ESS TR
c) HOT BUS 1
d) HOT BUS 2.

4 Set B 31st Mar’17

 23. Take off when no V2 SPEED is inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF
page, regarding SRS mode and RWY mode engagement / FMA display.

a) Only SRS mode is not available, which is target speed reference in

vertical plane.
b) Both SRS and RWY mode’s are not available on TAKEOFF roll.
c) RWY mode’s only requirement is receiving a LOC signal and LOC
deviation is < ½ dot.
d) All above are correct.

24. APU Fire push button when pushed to release, the agent push button is
active the APU shuts down, aural warning is silenced.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

25. Requirement for GO AROUND engagement in flight, setting at least

one thrust lever to TOGA detent and ?

a) Aircraft below 3,000 Ft with approach mode armed.

b) Aircraft flaps lever is at least in position 1.
c) Aircraft below 2500 Ft with Landing gear extended.
d) Go Around mode push button pressed on FCU.

26. Engine No 2 REVERSER requires serviceable SEC computers:

a) SEC 2 and SEC 3.

b) SEC 1 or SEC 3.
c) SEC 2 or SEC 3.
d) SEC 1 and SEC 2 and SEC 3.

27. If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration full:

a) Pitch trim movement is inhibited.

b) Speed brake extension travel is reduced.
c) Speed brake extension is inhibited.
d) Aileron travel is reduced

28. Elevator Servo Actuators have _____ modes of operation, namely?

5 Set B 31st Mar’17

 a) 4 modes Controlling, Neutral, Trimming, Floating.
b) 2 modes Controlling and Damping
c) 3 modes Active, Neutral, Damping.
d) 3 modes Active, Damping, Centering.

29. ENG Hydraulic Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump
switch is selected to off except for:

a) Reservoir low level.

b) Pump low pressure.
c) Fluid overheat.
d) PTU Unserviceable.

30. The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber
when:

a) System pressure is below 1450 psi.

b) N2 is below idle.
c) The reservoir level is low.
d) A priority valve is unserviceable.

31. Optimum altitude is based on :

a) Weight of the airplane.

b) Weight and ISA condition.
c) Weight and TAT.
d) Weight and margin to initial buffet.

32. Over plains thunderstorms mostly occur during the :

a) Night.
b) Afternoon.
c) Early morning

33. At which of the following latitude does the maximum differences between
geodetic and geocentric latitude occur?

a) 00 ⁰
b) 60 ⁰
c) 45 ⁰

6 Set B 31st Mar’17

 d) 90 ⁰

34. When approaching to land at an aerodrome, it is required to change the

subscale setting of the altimeter to prevailing QNH setting:

a) When passing transition altitude

b) When passing 500 ft. above initial approach altitude
c) When passing transition level
d) When on final

35. There are 3 pairs of stripes on both sides of the runway centre line,
then length of runway is:

a) More than 2400 m

b) More than 1500 m but less than 2100 m
c) More than 300 m but less than 1500 m
d) Runway width 23 m

36. Setting 0 (Zero) Cost Index in FMS gives :

a) Best Time.
b) Best Range.
c) Best Endurance.
d) None of the Above.

37. Crossing International Date Line on Easterly Track.

a) There is no change in date.
b) You lose a day.
c) You Gain a day.

38. Aspect Ratio is the ratio between

a) Chord to Camber of an aero foil

b) Lift to Drag of a wing
c) Span to Chord of a wing
d) None of the above

39. Seasons are caused due to

a) Revolution of earth in its orbit .

b) Rotation of earth around its own axis.
c) Inclination of the earth’s axis in its plane of orbit.
d) Variation in Temperature lapse rate close to the poles.

7 Set B 31st Mar’17

40. IF you are Flying along a parallel of latitude : you are flying ?

a) A Great Circle track.

b) On a track which is constantly changing direction.
c) A Rhumb line track.

41. For latching the Side stick priority condition, it is recommended to press the
takeover push button for how many seconds?

a) 15 Seconds.
b) 20 Seconds.
c) 30 seconds.
d) 40 seconds.

42. If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
a) Pressing and holding (Max 3 Min) the related systems page p/b on the ECAM
control panel; the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
b) Rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred
to either the Captain or First Officer's ND.
c) Both a) and b) are correct.
d) As per b) only.

43. Name AIRBUS Fourth Golden Rule for pilots.

a) Use the appropriate level of automation at all times.

b) Take action if things do not go as expected.
c) Understand the FMA at all times.
d) Fly, Navigate and Communicate.

44. Maximum brake temperature for takeoff ( brake fans ..off ) ?

a) 150 ° C
b) 100 ° C
c) 200 ° C
d) 300 ° C

45. Which of the following are Flight Guidance features of FMGS ?

a) AP commands to automatically control Pitch , Roll and Yaw.

b) Auto Thrust commands to automatically control Thrust.
c) Flight Director commands for plot to control Pitch, Roll and Yaw.

8 Set B 31st Mar’17

 d) All of the above.

46. What is the guidance command for vertical mode, if the pilot sets the FCU
altitude to a target not compatible with the active OP CLB Mode.

a) Mode Reversion occurs and V/S engages on current V/S.

b) Mode Reversion occurs and OPDES engages
c) Mode Reversion occurs and V/S engages to + 3000ft/min.
d) There will not be any change in guidance command.

47. When will CPC changeover take place automatically?

a) 70 s after each landing.

b) If the operating system fails.
c) Before every engine start.
d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

48. Speed Brake extension is inhibited, if

a) Thrust levers are above MCT position.

b) An Elevator ( L or R ) has a fault.
c) Both a) or b) are correct.
d) Only if SEC 2 has a Fault.

49. The alignment time in an IRS takes longer when the Aircraft is :

a) Close to Equator.
b) At a higher Longitude.
c) At a higher Latitude.
d) At a higher Pressure Altitude.

50. FOR the APU Fire bottle: A red disk, which is outside at rear of the
fuselage, signals that the agent is discharged over board due to bottle
overpressure.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE.

9 Set B 31st Mar’17