AUDITING MCQS FPSC

____________ is a systematic examination of the books and records or a business?

A. Auditing B. Vouching C. Verification D. Checking
The term ‘Audit’ is derived from a Latin word “audire” which means___________?
A. To inspect B. To examine C. To hear D. To investigate
The main object of an audit is _____________?
A. Expression of opinion B. Detection and Prevention of fraud and error C. Both (A) and (B) D. Depends on the type of audit.
An auditor is like a_______________?
A. Blood haunt B. Watch dog C. May both according to situation D. None of these
Process of verifying the documentary evidences of transactions are known as___________?
A. Auditing B. Testing C. Vouching D. Verification
Auditing is compulsory for____________?
A. Small scale business B. Partnership firms C. Joint stock Companies D. Proprietary Concerns
Concealment of shortage by delaying the recording of cash receipts is known as_____________?
A. Embezzlement B. Misappropriation C. Lapping D. None of these
The fundamental objective of the audit of a company is to_____________?
A. Protect the interests of the minority shareholders B. Detect and prevent errors and fraud
C. Assess the effectiveness of the company’s performance D. Attest to the credibility of the company’s accounts
The concept of stewardship means that a company’s directors________________?
A. Are responsible for ensuring that the company complies with the law
B. Are responsible for ensuring that the company pays its tax by the due date
C. Safeguard the company’s assets and manage them on behalf of the shareholders
D. Report suspected fraud and money laundering to the authorities
Why do auditors concentrate their efforts on material items in accounts?
A. Because they are easier to audit B. Because it reduces the audit time
C. Because the risk to the accounts of their being incorrectly stated is greater
D. Because the directors have asked for it
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a company’s directors?
A. Reporting to the shareholders on the accuracy of the accounts B. Establishment of internal controls
C. Keeping proper accounting records D. Supplying information and explanations to the auditor
International auditing standards are issued by the______________?
A. International Accounting Standards Board B. Financial Accounting Standards Board
C. International Standards Board D. Auditing Practices Board
Which of the following is not true about opinion on financial statements?
A. The auditor should express an opinion on financial statements.
B. His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of business
C. He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements
D. He should examine whether recognised accounting principle have been consistently
A sale of Rs. 50.000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of____________?
A. Error of omission B. Error of commission C. Compensating error D. Error of principle
When an auditor is proposed for removal from office, which one of the following is he NOT permitted to do?
A. Circulate representations to members B. Apply to the court to have the proposal removed
C. Speak at the AGM/EGM where the removal is proposed D. Receive notification of the AGM/EGM where the removal is proposed
Which one of the following is NOT a duty of the auditor?
A. Duty to report to the company’s bankers B. Duty to report to the members
C. Duty to sign the audit report D. Duty to report on any violation of law
Assuming that it is not the first appointment of the auditor, who is responsible for the appointment of the auditor?
A. The shareholders in a general meeting B. The managing director
C. The board of directors in a board meeting D. The audit committee
The independent auditor’s primary responsibility is to______________?
A. the directors B. the company’s creditors (payables) C. the company’s bank
D. the shareholders
How long is the auditor’s term of office?
A. Until the audit is complete B. Until the financial statements are complete
C. Until the next AGM (Annual General Meeting) D. Until the directors remove them
Which of the following is correct in relation to materiality?
A. A matter is material only if it changes the audit report B. A matter is material if the auditor and the directors both decide that further work
needs to be done in the area under question
C. A matter is material only if it affects directors’ emoluments
D. A matter is material if its omission or misstatement would reasonably influence the decisions of an addressee of the auditors’
report
Which one of the following is NOT considered to be part of planning?
A. Background i.e. industry B. Previous year’s audit i.e. any qualifications in the report
C. Considering the work to be done by the client staff e.g. internal audit
D. Considering whether the financial statements show a true and fair view
Audit risk is composed of 3 factors. Which of the following is NOT one of those factors?
A. Compliance risk B. Detection risk C. Control risk D. Inherent risk
Which of the following should NOT be considered at the planning stage?
A. The timing of the audit B. Analytical review C. Last year’s written representation letter
D. Obtaining written representations
At the planning stage you would NOT consider____________?
A. the timing of the audit B. whether corrections from the inventory count have been implemented C. last year’s audit D. the potential
use of internal audit
Which of the following describes sampling risk?
 AUDITING MCQS FPSC
A. The risk of the auditor carrying out a test the wrong way round B. The risk of reliance on unsuitable audit evidence C. The risk that the
sample does not reflect the population
D. The risk of the auditor reaching the wrong conclusions from testing
Which of the following is NOT an accepted method of selection in sampling?
A. Systematic selection B. Pervasive selection C. Random selection D. Haphazard selection
Which of the following are you unlikely to see in the current file of auditors’ working papers?
A. Memorandum & articles of association B. Audit planning memorandum
C. Summary of unadjusted errors D. Details of the work done on the inventory count
According to ISA 500, the strength of audit evidence is determined by which two qualities?A. Appropriateness & competence B.
Sufficiency & appropriateness
C. Reliability & extensiveness D. Objectivity & independence
Which of the following is normally the most reliable source of audit evidence?
A. Internal audit B. Suppliers’ statements C. Board minutes D. Analytical review
The degree of effectiveness of an internal control system depends on:
A. The design of the internal control system and the implementation of the controls
B. The design of the internal controls and the implementation of the control system
C. The implementation of the controls and the correctness of the accounting records
D. The design of the internal control system and the correctness of the accounting records
According to ISA 315, which of the following is NOT an element of the control environment?
A. Participation of management B. Information processing
C. Commitment to competence D. Human resource policies and practices
According to ISA 315, which of the following is NOT a control activity?
A. Performance reviews B. Physical controls
C. Organizational structure D. Segregation of duties
Lapping is also known as___________?
A. Teeming and lading B. Looping C. Embezzlement D. Hacking
Goods sent on approval basis’ have been recorded as ‘Credit sales’. This is an example of____________?
A. Error of principle B. Error of commission C. Error of omission D. Error of duplication
Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Management fraud is more difficult to detect than employee fraud
B. Internal control system reduces the possibility of occurrence of employee fraud and management fraud C. The auditor’s
responsibility for detection and prevention of errors and frauds is similar. D. All statements are correct.
Internal audit is undertaken:
A. By independent auditor B. Statutorily appointed auditor
C. By a person appointed by the management D. By a government auditor
The scope of internal audit is decided by the___________?
A. Shareholders B. Management C. Government D. Law
Audit of banks is an example of_____________?
A. Statutory audit B. Balance sheet audit C. Concurrent audit D. All of the above
Concurrent audit is a part of____________?
A. Internal check system B. Continuous audit C. Internal audit system D. None of these
Audit in depth is synonymous for____________?
A. Complete audit B. Completed audit C. Final audit D. Detailed audit
Institute of Chartered Accountants of Pakistan was established in____________?
A. 1949 B. 1956 C. 1961 D. 1972
Which of the following statements is not true about continuous audit?
A. It is conducted at regular interval B. It may be carried out on daily basis C. It is needed when the organization has a good internal
control system D. It is expensive
Internal check is carried on by___________?A. Staff specially appointed for the purpose B. Internal auditor C. Supervisor of the staff D.
Members of the staff
Errors of Omission are_____________?A. Technical errors B. Errors of principle C. Compensating errors D. None of the above
Window dressing implies_______________?
A. Curtailment of expenses B. Checking of Wastages
C. Under valuation of assets D. Over Valuation of assets
Test Checking refers to___________?
A. Testing of accounts and records B. Checking of selected number of transactions
C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries D. Checking of all transactions recorded
Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?
A. Materiality is a relative concept B. Materiality judgments involve both quantitative and qualitative judgment C. Auditor’s consideration
of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of an informed decision maker who will rely on the financial statements
D. At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level only
______the audit risks_______the materiality and_________the audit effort.
A. Lower, Higher, Lower B. Lower, Lower, Higher
C. Higher, Lower, Lower D. Lower, Higher, Higher
When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should be satisfied that the___________?
A. Amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers
B. Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level
C. Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than materially level
D. Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made
In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?
A. Prior year’s errors B. The auditor’s remuneration
C. Adjusted interim financial statements D. Prior year’s financial statements
Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally
 AUDITING MCQS FPSC
A. Helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
B. Directs attention to potential risk areas
C. Indicates important aspects of business D. All of the above
Which of the following statements is most closely associated with analytical procedure applied at substantive stage?
A. It helps to study relationship among balance sheet accounts B. It helps to discover material misstatements in the financial statements C. It
helps to identify possible oversights
D. It helps to accumulate evidence supporting the validity of a specific account balance
Verification refers to_________?
A. Examining the physical existence and valuation of assets. B. Examining the journal and ledger C. Examination of vouchers related to
assets. D. None of the above.
Stock should be valued at_________?
A. Cost B. Market price C. Cost or Market price whichever is lower. D. Cost less depreciation.
Floating assets are valued at____________?
A. cost B. Market price C. Cost or market price whichever is lower D. Cost less depreciation
Goods sold on the basis of ‘sales or return ‘ should:
A. Be included in the stock B. Not be included in the stock C. Not be checked by auditor D. None of the above
Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?
A. Bank statements obtained from the client B. Documents obtained by auditor from third parties directly. C. Carbon copies of sales
invoices inspected by the auditor D. Computations made by the auditor
Which of the following statements is, generally, correct about the reliability of audit evidence?
A. To be reliable, evidence should conclusive rather than persuasive B. Effective internal control system provides reliable audit
evidence C. Evidence obtained from outside sources routed through the client D. All are correct.
In an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that __________?
A. May be eliminated for an account balance under certain conditions B. Are designed to discover significant subsequent events C. Will
increase proportionately when the auditor decreases the assessed level of control risk D. May be test of transactions, test of balance and
analytical procedures
The nature, timing and extent of substantive procedures is related to assessed level of control risk
A. Randomly B. Disproportionately C. Directly D. Inversely
Which of the following factors is most important in determining the appropriations of audit evidence?
A. The reliability of audit evidence and its relevance in meeting the audit objective
B. The objectivity and integrity of the auditor C. The quantity of audit evidence
D. The independence of the source of evidence
When is evidential matter, generally, considered sufficient?
A. When it constitutes entire population B. When it is enough to provide a basis for giving reasonable assurance regarding
truthfulness C. When it is objective and relevant
D. When auditor collects and evaluates it independently
Which of the following is not corroborative evidence?
A. Minutes of meetings B. Confirmations from debtors C. Information gathered by auditor through observation D. Worksheet supporting
consolidated financial statements
What would most appropriately describe the risk of incorrect rejection in terms of substantive testing?
A. The auditor concludes balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B. The auditor concludes that the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact it not
C. The auditor has rejected an item for sample which was material D. None of the above
Which of the following affects audit effectiveness?
A. Risk of over reliance B. Risk of incorrect rejection C. Risk of incorrect acceptance D. Both A and C
What would most effectively describe the risk of incorrect acceptance in terms of substantive audit testing?
A. The auditor has ascertained that the balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not B. The auditor concludes the balance
is materially misstated when in actual fact is not
C. The auditor has rejected an item from sample which was not supported by documentary evidence D. He applies random sampling on data
which is inaccurate and inconsistent
Audit programme is prepared by____________?
A. The auditor B. The client
C. The audit assistants D. The auditor and his audit assistants
The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are___________?
A. Evidence for audit conclusions B. Owned by the client
C. Owned by the auditor D. Retained in auditor’s office until a change in auditors
The quantity of audit working papers complied on engagement would most be affected by__________?
A. Management’s integrity B. Auditor’s experience and professional judgment
C. Auditor’s qualification D. Control risk
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programme preparation?
A. To detect errors or fraud B. To comply with GAAP appropriate evidence
C. To gather sufficient D. To assess audit risk
Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?
A. To provide a basis for review of audit work B. To provide a basis for subsequent audits
C. To ensure audit work is being carried out as per programme
D. To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues
The auditor’s permanent working paper file should not normally, include__________?
A. Extracts from client’s bank statements B. Past year’s financial statements
C. Attorney’s letters D. Debt agreements
For what minimum period should audit working papers be retained by audit firm?
A. For the time period the entity remains a client of the audit firm. B. For a period of ten years C. For a period auditor opines them to be
useful in servicing the client D. For the period the audit firm is in existence.
Which of the following factors would least likely affect the quantity and content of an auditor’s working papers
A. The assessed level of control risk B. The possibility of peer review
C. The nature of auditor’s report D. The content of management representation letter
 AUDITING MCQS FPSC
Which of the following statement is true regarding an auditor’s working papers?
A. They document the level of independence maintained by the auditor
B. They should be considered as the principle support for the auditor’s report
C. They should not contain details regarding weaknesses in the internal control system
D. They help the auditor to monitor the effectiveness of the audit firm’s quality control
Which of the following statement best describes the understanding with respect to ownership and custody of working papers
prepared by an auditor?
A. The working papers may be obtained by third parties when they appear to be relevant to issues raised in litigation
B. The safe custody of working papers is the responsibility of client, if kept at his premises
C. The working papers must be retained by an audit firm for a period of 10 years
D. Successor auditors may have access to working papers of the predecessor auditors. The approval of client is not required.
The current file of the auditor’s working papers, generally, should include____________?
A. A flowchart of the internal controls B. Organisation charts C. A copy of financial statements D. Copies of bond and debentures
Auditing is what?
A. Reporting the financial information B. Examination of financial statements
C. Preparation financial statements D. maintaining the ledger records

1. A company is owned by its

(A) directors(B) managers(C) shareholders(D) employs

2. Shares of listed companies are traded in the

(A) stock exchange(B) option market(C) future exchange(D) none of these

3. What from the following is an integral part of business?

(A) Profit(B) Risk(C) Certainty(D) Profit and Risk

4. A company sold goods of worth Rs.1 million, the manufacturing cost of the goods were Rs.600,000. The transport used in
the sale cost Rs.100,000 and the wages paid during the process of sale were also Rs.100,000. What is the gross and net
profit?
(A) Gross Profit = Rs.600,000 and Net Profit = Rs.400,000(B) Gross Profit = Rs.400,000 and Net Profit = Rs.600,000
(C) Gross Profit = Rs.200,000 and Net Profit = Rs.400,000(D) Gross Profit = Rs.400,000 and Net Profit = Rs.200,000

5. Every transaction has a _____ effect.

(A) zero(B) single(C) double(D) triple

ANSWERS: SENIOR AUDITOR TEST SAMPLE PAPER

1(C) 2(A) 3(B) 4(D) 5(C)

6. The main source(s) of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) is/are:

(A) Company Law(B) Accounting standards(C) Both A and B(D) None of these

7. What standards are used to prepare financial statements by most of the countries and companies
(A) International Financial Reporting Standards(B) International Financial Accounting Standards
(C) International Accounting & Auditing Standards(D) International Risk Reporting Standards

8. The correct form of Accounting equation is

(A) Assets + Liabilities = Equity(B) Assets – Liabilities = Equity(C) Assets – Receivable = Equity(D) Assets + Receivable =
Equity

9. A company sold goods worth $5,000 on 5 June and $10,000 on 28 June. The company received the first payment on 25
June and second on 7 July. The company prepared the financial statement on 30 June. What would be the total sale on the
financial statement?
(A) $0(B) $5,000(C) $10,000(D) $15,000

10. Advance payments are recognized as

(A) receivable(B) payable(C) bad debt(D) none of these

ANSWERS: ACCOUNTING QUIZ

6(C) 7(A) 8(B) 9(D) 10(A)

11. What from the following is NOT a current asset?

(A) Patent rights(B) Inventory(C) Cash(D) Trade receivables

12. What from the following is NOT a non-current asset?

(A) Capital(B) Property(C) Patent rights(D) Inventory
 AUDITING MCQS FPSC
13. What from the following is/are NOT tangible asset(s)?
I. Patent rightsII. GoodwillIII. Land(A) I only
(B) II only(C) I and II only(D) I, II and III

14. A machine price was $1,000 and was carried through a truck. The truck’s fares were $500. The engineers charged $500 for
the installation. The cost of the machine is?
(A) $1,000(B) $1,500(C) $2,000(D) $2,500

15. Depreciable amount =

(A) Cost of an asset + Residual value
(B) Cost of an asset – Residual value(C) Residual value – Cost of an asset(D) None of these

ANSWERS: ACCOUNTING MCQS

11(A) 12(D) 13(C) 14(C) 15(B)

16. The accounting process of allocation cost of intangible assets is called

(A) Amortization(B) Depletion(C) Going Concern(D) Residual Value

17. The process of recording consumption of natural resources (or wasting assets) is called
(A) Amortization(B) Depletion(C) Going Concern(D) Residual Value

18. The concept that the enterprise will continue in a foreseeable future is known as
(A) Amortization(B) Depletion(C) Going Concern(D) Residual Value

19. What from the following is NOT a capital expense?

(A) Purchase of property(B) Purchase of office equipment(C) Replacement of a vehicle,(D) Repair of a vehicle

20. An item of equipment cost $300,000 and has a residual value of $50,000 at the end of its expected useful life of four years.
What is the depreciable amount?
(A) $50,000(B) $250,000(C) $300,000(D) $350,000

ANSWERS: ACCOUNTING QUIZZES

16(A) 17(B) 18(C) 19(D) 20(B)

21. The expected disposal value of the asset (after deducting disposal costs) at the end of its expected useful life is called
(A) residual value(B) net book value(C) depreciation(D) substance over form

22. The figure that appears in the statement of financial position, after the depreciation, is known as
(A) depreciation(B) substance over form(C) residual value(D) net book value

23. Which from the following asset is NOT depreciated?

I. AdvancesII. LandIII. Machinery(A) I only(B) II only(C) I and II(D) II and III

24. Depreciation is normally charged as

(A) payable(B) receivable(C) expenses(D) advances

25. A company purchases a non-current asset in Year 1 for $90,000. The depreciation charge is $15,000. What net book value
would be recorded in financial position statement (or balance sheet) at the end of Year-2?
(A) $75,000(B) $60,000(C) $30,000(D) $15,000

ANSWERS: ACCOUNTING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21(A) 22(D) 23(C) 24(C) 25(B)

26. All procurement opportunities over _______ rupees should be advertised in the newspaper.
(A) 0.5 million(B) 1.5 million(C) 1.5 million(D) 2.0 million

27. The procurement opportunities over two million rupees should be advertised in at least _______ newspaper(s).
(A) one(B) two(C) three(D) four

28. The principal method for the procurement of goods, services and works is
(A) open competitive bidding(B) close competitive bidding(C) FIFO(D) LIFO
 AUDITING MCQS FPSC
29. The bidder with the _______ evaluated bid shall be awarded the procurement contract.
(A) highest(B) lowest(C) average(D) zero variance

30. Where needed the procuring agency shall require the successful bidder to furnish a performance guarantee which shall not
exceed _______ of the contract amount.
(A) 5%(B) 7.5%(C) 10%(D) 12.5%

ANSWERS: PUBLIC PROCUREMENT RULES

26(D) 27(B) 28(A) 29(B) 30(C)

31. The bids for procurement opportunities shall be submitted in a/an _______ package or packages.
(A) open(B) sealed(C) transparent(D) none of these

32. Where the procuring agency require the bidders to furnish a bid security, the bid security should not exceed _______ of the
bid price.
(A) 5.0%(B) 7.5%(C) 10.0%(D) 12.5%

33. All bids shall be opened

(A) randomly(B) privately(C) secretly(D) publicly

34. There are _____ procedures of open competitive bidding.

(A) 2(B) 3(C) 4(D) 5

35. The main open competitive bidding procedure is

(A) single stage one envelope bidding(B) single stage two envelope procedure(C) two stage bidding procedure(D) two stage
two envelope bidding procedure

ANSWERS: PUBLIC PROCUREMENT RULES MCQS

31(B) 32(A) 33(D) 34(C) 35(A)

36. Where alternative technical proposals are possible, the bidding process used is
(A) single stage one envelope procedure(B) single stage two envelope procedure
(C) two stage bidding procedure(D) two stage two envelope bidding procedure

37. Where the bids are to be evaluated on technical and financial grounds and price is taken into account after technical
evaluation, the bidding process used is
(A) single stage one envelope procedure(B) single stage two envelope procedure
(C) two stage bidding procedure(D) two stage two envelope bidding procedure

38. In large and complex contracts where technically unequal proposals are likely to be encountered, or there are two or more
equally acceptable technical solutions available to the procuring agency, the bidding process used is
(A) single stage one envelope procedure(B) single stage two envelope procedure
(C) two stage bidding procedure(D) two stage two envelope bidding procedure

39. Any bidder feeling aggrieved by any act of the procuring agency may lodge a written complaint concerning his grievances
not later than _______ days after the announcement of the bid evaluation report.
(A) 7(B) 10(C) 15(D) 30

40. The committee shall investigate and decide upon the complaint within _______ days of the receipt of the complaint.
(A) 15(B) 30(C) 45(D) 60

ANSWERS: PUBLIC PROCUREMENT

36(D) 37(B) 38(C) 39(C) 40(A)