Miller 7th Ed.

Reviewer

b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics,

Chapter 1. Introductory Topics whereas the sinewave has only one.
c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.
d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage,
1. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in whereas the sinewave does not.
accordance with the low-frequency intelligence to create
a modulated signal? 9 The relationship between information and bandwidth is called

a. Phase
b. Frequency a. Information theory
c. Time b. Fourier analysis
d. Amplitude c. FFT
d. Hartley's law
2. Communication systems are most often categorized by
what characteristic? 10 Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring when

a. Modulation frequency a. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.

b. Carrier frequency b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.
c. Transmission distance c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.
d. Information transmitted d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified.

3 Voltage gain in decibels is 11 Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel resonant
circuit?

a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a

a. 10 ln minimum.
b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if
it were a series.
b. 10 log c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.
d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum current
from the constant-voltage source.
c. 20 ln
12 The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank
circuit for swamping out the effect of the
d. 20 log
transistor's internal capacitances is the
4 Which expression indicates a measurement using a 1-W
a. Hartley design
reference
b. Clapp design
c. Colpitts design
a. dBm(1)
d. Crystal design
b. dB1
c. dBW
13 The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is
d. dB(W)
due to
5 An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz bandwidth has a 75
a. The flywheel effect
input resistance. If it is operating at 22° C and
b. Barkhausen criteria
has a voltage gain of 300, the noise c. The piezoelectric effect
produced at the output of this amplifier d. Frequency synthesis

would be approximately
14 The Barkhausen criteria has to do with

a. a. Receiver noise
b. Fourier analysis
b. c. Oscillation
c. d. Troubleshooting

d. 15 Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan?

6 Which of the following is not an example of external noise

a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages
a. Fluorescent light b. Signal tracing and signal injection
b. Solar emission c. Voltage and resistance measure
c. Resistor noise d. Substitution
d. Lightning e. All the above

7 An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired signal Chapter 2. Amplitude Modulation: Transmission
mixed in with 45 V rms of undesired noise. The load
impedance is 50 . What is the amplifier's output S/N level
in dB? 1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency intelligence signal is
not called the
a. 22.9 dB
b. 54.9 dB a. Modulating signal
c. 45.9 dB b. Information signal
d. 51.9 dB c. Modulating wave
d. Carrier
8 Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater
bandwidth than a 2-kHz sinewave? 2. A 7.0-Mhz carrier is modulated by a voice signal that has three
frequency components of 100 Hz,
a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the 200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three frequencies comprise the
sinewave. lower sideband?
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. Match the output impedance of the transmitter with the

a. 6.9997 Mhz, 6.9998 Mhz, and 6.9999 Mhz antenna's impedance to provide maximum
b. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz power transfer.
c. 6.9999 Mhz, 7.0000 Mhz, and 7.0001 Mhz b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to several antennas at
d. 7.0001 Mhz, 7.0002 Mhz, and 7.0003 Mhz the same time.
c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the transmitter's AM
3. The total output power of an AM transmitter is measured output signal.
to be 850 W. What is the total output sideband d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more than one carrier
power if it has a percent modulation of 100%? frequency at the same time.

a. 425 W 12. The main reason for using a dummy antenna is to

b. 850 W
c. 283.3 W a. Prevent damage to output circuits.
d. 141.65 W b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.
c. Prevent overmodulation.
4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20-Hz – 2kHz signal. d. Prevent undesired transmissions.
The upper sideband is
13. A spectrum analyzer is
a. 102 kHz
b. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHz a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a
c. 101 kHz CRT.
d. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is
free from any spurious signals.
5. One full revolution of a phasor generates which c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency
percentage of a full sinewave? range.
d. All the above.
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 100% 14.The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the
d. 200% following.

6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 V p-p and at a. Verify that a problem exists.

minimum is 40 V p-p. The modulation percentage is b. Isolate the defective stage.
c. Isolate the defective component.
a. 250% d. Replace the defective component and hot check.
b. 40% e. All the above.
c. 25%
d. 37.5% 15. A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and
sideband combine to form the AM waveform
is
7. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W
when modulated with a single sinewave. If the carrier is a. The tangential method.
simultaneously modulated with another sinewave at 60% b. Phasor representation.
modulation, calculate the total transmitted power. c. Keying.
d. None of the above.
a. 1084 W
b. 1170 W
c. 1350 W
d. 1224 W Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation: Reception

8. Low-level modulation is
1. The main problem with the TRF design is
a. The most economic approach for low-power
transmitters. a. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM stations
b. Characterized by the use of "linear" power amplifiers to b. Poor demodulation of an AM station
amplify the AM signal. c. Frustration in tuning to receive more than one station
c. Characterized by having the carrier and the intelligence d. Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM stations
signals mix at low power levels
d. All the above. 2. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to

9. The main advantage of a high-level modulation system a. Withstand shock

compared to a low-level system is that it
a. Allows more efficient amplification.
b. Allows use of low-powered intelligence signal.
c. Provides higher modulation percentage.
d. Is more economical.
10. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier stage in a
transmitter?
a. It prevents transmitters from producing spurious
frequencies in the output signals.
b. It provides power amplification with high efficiency.
c. Its high input impedance prevents oscillators from
drifting off frequency.
d. It amplifies audio frequencies before modulation occurs.
11. The purpose of an antenna coupler is to
b. Receive one station versus another
c. Receive weak stations
d. All the above
3. When the input to an ideal nonlinear device is an AM waveform
consisting of a carrier and its
sidebands, the output of nonlinear mixing produces the original
intelligence because
a. The intelligence signal is one of its inputs.
b. A dc component is also produced.
c. The difference between the carrier and its sidebands is the
original intelligence frequency.
d. The intelligence frequencies are the upper and the lower
sideband frequencies.
4. An AM signal having a carrier frequency of 940 kHz is to be
mixed with a local oscillator output signal in
order to produce an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. At what
should the L.O. frequency be set?
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band,

a. 455 kHz the likely problem is
b. 1395 kHz
c. 910 kHz a. Low RF gain
d. 1850 kHz b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity
5. Diodes that have been specially fabricated to produce a d. LO tracking
capacitance that varies inversely proportional to
the amount of reverse bias are called 15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem
area is the
a. Varactor diodes
b. Varicap diodes a. Power supply
c. VVC diodes b. RF section
d. All the above c. Audio amplifier
d. AGC diode
6. The image frequency for a standard broadcast receiver
using a 455-kHz IF and tuned to a station at 680
kHz would be
Chapter 4: Single-Sideband Communications
a. 1135 kHz
b. 225 kHz
c. 1590 kHz 1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50 load
d. 1815 kHz results in a PEP rating of

a. 200 W
7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of b. 50 W
c. 100 W
a. Image frequency d. 800 W
b. Tracking
c. Diagonal clipping 2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system.
d. Poor sensitivity
a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted power
8. An auxiliary AGC diode b. Easy carrier reinsertion
c. Elimination of carrier interference
a. Reduces selectivity d. a and c
b. Increases sensitivity
c. Decreases sensitivity 3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM is
d. All the above
a. 3–5 dB
9. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having b. 5–7 dB
AGC? c. 8–10 dB
d. 10–12 dB
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while
tuning from a weak signal to a strong signal. 4. What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in regular modulator?
the speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced
control as the weather and ionosphere change. modulator.
d. All the above b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180º phase shift between
the upper and lower sidebands.
10. The only roadblock to having a complete receiver c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.
manufactured on an integrated circuit is d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are
suppressed.
a. Tuned circuits and volume controls
b. Cost 5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is
c. Phase-locked loops accomplished by
d. Ceramic filters
a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry
11. The decibel difference between the largest tolerable b. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic
receiver input signal and its sensitivity is called fields
c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are used
a. The decibel power gain of the receiver d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages
b. Automatic gain control (AGC)
c. The dynamic range of the receiver 6.Which cannot be used successfully to convert DSB-SC to SSB?
d. The IF amplifier gain
a. Crystal filter
12. The simplest AM detector is the b. Ceramic filter
c. Mechanical filter
a. Synchronous detector d. Tank circuit
b. Product detector
c. Heterodyne detector
d. Diode detector 7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a ceramic filter is

13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a a. The shape factor

b. The peak-to-valley ratio
a. Trimmer capacitor c. The insertion loss
b. Padder capacitor d. The quality factor
c. Varicap diode
d. a and b 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of the phase method
e. All the above over the filter method in producing SSB?
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. The design of the 90º phase-shift network for the the center frequency in an FM signal is called the
intelligence frequencies is simple.
b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be economically a. Index of modulation
used, because a high-Q filter is not necessary. b. Frequency deviation
c. Intermediate balanced modulators are not necessary,
because high-Q filters are not needed. c. Phase deviation
d. It is easier to switch from one sideband to the other. d. Bandwidth of the FM signal

9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it must be 3 The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the
amplified by intelligence frequency in

a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve bandwidth a. An FM signal

b. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energy b. A PM signal
c. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
c. Both FM and PM signals
d. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion
d. Neither FM nor PM signals
10. The advantages provided by carrier elimination in SSB
do not apply to transmission of 4 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and
a maximum deviation of 10 kHz. If its carrier frequency is
a. Code set at 162.4 Mhz, what is its index of modulation?
b. Music
c. Noise a. 10
d. All the above b. 5
c. 2
11. Provide the approximate "outside-of-passband"
attenuation of a Butterworth filter. d. 20

a. 3-dB slope per octave 5 The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates for a given
b. 3-dB slope per decade modulating input voltage level is called the
c. 6-dB slope per octave
d. 6-dB slope per decade a. Frequency deviation
b. Index of modulation
12. An SSB receiver recreates the original intelligence signal
c. Deviation constant
by
d. Deviation ratio
a. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and filtering out the
resulting different frequencies 6 Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum
b. Filtering out the difference between either sideband and bandwidth of
the internally generated carrier signal
c. Filtering out the harmonics of the received sideband a. 150 kHz
signal frequencies b. 200 kHz
d. Amplifying the dc term produced by mixing action
c. 75 kHz
13. Common types of balanced modulators include d. 15 kHz

a. Ring modulator 7 Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary

b. Phase modulator
c. Lattice modulator a. Frequency deviation
d. All the above b. Bandwidth
c. Capture ratio
14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB d. Modulation index
transmitter's balanced modulator if it exhibits carrier
leakthrough. 8 An FM transmitter has an output power of 500 W when it
is not modulated. When intelligence is added, its
a. Trapezoidal wave modulation index is 2.0. What is its output power with a
b. Sinewave modulation index of 2.0?
c. FM wave
d. AM wave a. 250 W
b. 500 W
15. The two-tone test is used to
c. 1000 W
a. Test carrier suppression d. 2000 W
b. Test filter ripple
c. Test amplifier linearity 9 Another way to describe the modulation index is using the
d. None of the above
a. Deviation ratio
b. Deviation constant
Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation Transmission c. Capture ratio
d. Maximum deviation
1 Angle modulation includes the following types of
modulation:
10 The inherent ability of FM to minimize the effect of
a. FM undesired signals operating at the same or nearly the
same frequency as the desired station is known as the
b. PM
c. AM
a. Capture effect
d. All the above
b. Signal-to-noise ratio
e. a and b
c. Noise figure
d. Bessel function
2 The amount of frequency increase and decrease around
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a.
11 In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center
frequency of 2.04 Mhz and a deviation of 69 Hz is passed b.
through four cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two c.
triplers, one doubler, and one quadrupler. What type of
signal appears at the output of the last multiplier stage? d.

a. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 4 The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF amplifier
kHz stages
b. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 a. Offers increased dynamic range over those of
kHz JFETs
c. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz b. Produces higher-frequency responses than do
d. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz JFETs
c. Produces higher values of voltage gain than do
12 The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of JFETs
a transmitter up to a specified value is called the d. Is not compatible with AGC

a. Multiplier 5 The Foster-Seely detector design is superior to

the ratio detector in that it
b. Expander
c. Pump chain a. Does not respond to any undesired amplitude
d. All the above variations
b. Also provides an output AGC signal
13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM c. Offers superior linear response to wideband FM
broadcast transmitter is to deviations
d. Does not need a limiter stage
a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L – R audio
6 Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation
b. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L – R
through the
channels
c. Separate the left channel from the right channel a. Receiver's wiring
d. Modulate the L + R and L – R signals with the carrier b. IF transformer
signal c. Antenna
d. All the above
14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and
a maximum deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation is 7 Which is not one of the three stages in which a
PLL can be operated?
a. 125
a. Free-running
b. 0.2
b. Capture
c. 5 c. Locked/tracking
d. 6 d. Searching

15 Frequency multipliers 8 A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at 8.9

Mhz. The VCO does not change frequency unless
a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal its input is within 75 kHz of 8.9 Mhz. After it
of an FM signal does lock, the input frequency can be adjusted
b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit within 120 kHz of 8.9 Mhz without having the
that filters out a single harmonic PLL start to free-run again. The capture range of
the PLL is
c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM
signal
a. 75 kHz
d. All the above b. 120 kHz
c. 150 kHz
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception d. 240 kHz
1 A difference between AM and FM receiver block 9 Slope detection is seldom used due to
diagrams is that the FM version includes a
a. Nonlinearity
a. Limiter b. Attenuation
b. Discriminator c. Complexity
c. Deemphasis network d. All the above
d. All the above
10 In an FM stereo receiver, what is the purpose of
2 An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily without the 23–53-kHz filter?
an RF amplifier because
a. To filter out the SCA signal at the output of the
a. FM receivers typically work with smaller input discriminator
signal levels due to thei noise b. To filter out the L – R signal at the output of the
characteristics discriminator
b. FM receivers have a narrower bandwidth. c. To filter out the L + R signal at the output of the
c. FM receivers do not have very much gain in discriminator
their IF amplifier stages. d. To produce separate L and R signals from the L
d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be + R and L – signals
able to decode stereo signals.
11 A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65 dB of
3 A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of channel separation. If the right channel has 4 W
113 dB prior to its limiter. The limiter's quieting of output power, how much of this power could be
voltage is 400 mV. Its sensitivity is approximately due to the left channel intelligence?
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. 4 W 5 An AGC that causes a step reduction in receiver gain at

b. 79 nW some arbitrarily high value of received signal in order to
c. 1.26 W prevent overloading the receiver is known as
d. 2.25 mW
a. Arbitrary AGC
12 The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the b. Auxiliary AGC
c. Delayed AGC
a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain
locked
b. Allowable range of dc voltage
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage 6 Up-conversion offers the following advantage(s):
d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures
a. Less expensive filters
b. Good image-frequency rejection
13 The input signal into a PLL is at the c. Minimized tuning range for the LO
d. .b and c
a. VCO
b. Low-pass filter
c. Comparator 7 The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier
d. Phase detector provides a usable output is called the

14 The square-law relationship of the FETs input a. Level of acceptability

versus output b. Dynamic range
c. Degree of usefulness
a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiver d.Specified input
b. Provides improved noise performance
c. Reduces shot noise
d. Minimizes cross-modulation 8 A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz bandwidth,
a 6-dBm third intercept point, and a 3-dB signal-to-noise
15 When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the ratio. Its sensitivity is
input signal should be abouto
a. –94 dB
a. b. –82.2 dB
c. –79.2 dB
b. d. –81 dB
c. 1 mV rms
d. 100 mV rms
9 Two-modulus dividers are used in the synthesis of
frequencies into the VHF band due to

Chapter 7 Communication Technique a. Its ability to work at practical power consumptions

b. Its ability to work at practical speeds
c. The insufficient speed and power of the basic
1 Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem programmable divider designs
in FM receivers than they are in SSB or AM receivers? d. All the above

a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM. 10 The disadvantage of direct digital synthesizers (DDS) over
b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic. analog frequency synthesizers is
c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices.
d. FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design. a. Its complexity and cost
b. Its limited maximum output frequency
2 The tuned circuits prior to the mixer in a superheterodyne c. Its higher phase noise
receiver are called the d. All the above

a. Front end 11 The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of

b. Tuner
c. Preselector a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB
d. All the above modulation modes
b. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM modulation
3 The signal-strength meter that shows the relative signal- mode and a channel guard function
strength level is called the ________ . c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF
frequencies
a. S meter d. A cellular telephone transceiver
b. Signal meter
c. Strength meter 12 The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly
d. All the above switched frequency or time transmissions is known as

4 An AM broadcast receiver has two identical tuned circuits a. Synthesizing

with a Q of 50 prior to the IF stage. The IF frequency is b. Facsimile
460 kHz and the receiver is tuned to a station on 550 kHz. c. Spread spectrum
The image-frequency rejection is d. Compression

a. 41 dB 13 The acronym CDMA refers to ________.

b. 36.2 dB
c. 72.4 dB a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
d. 82 dB b. Capture-division multiple-access systems
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

c. Code-division multiple-access systems

d. Channel-division multiple-access systems a. DACs include an ADC
b. ADCs include a DAC
14 A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a c. DACs and ADCs are virtually identical
frequency synthesizer is d. All the above.

a. A small frequency error 8 The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the
b. A large frequency error parameters of the transmitted and received signal is
c. No output known as
d. All the above
a. Phase modulation
15 A transceiver is b. Pulse modulation
c. Amplitude modulation
a. A transmitter that can be tuned to several bands of d. Frequency modulation
frequencies
b. A transmitter that transmits digital data 9 An alphanumeric code for representing the decimal values
c. A receiver that receives digital data from 0 to 9 that is based on the relationship that only one
d. A transmitter and receiver in a single package bit in a binary word changes for each binary step is known
as
Chapter 8 Digital Communication : Coding Technique
a. ASCII
b. EBCDIC
1 The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications c. Baudot code
over analog include d. Gray code

a. Noise performance
10 The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can
b. Regeneration be made less significant by
c. Digital signal processing
d. All the above a. Companding
b. Using time-division multiplexing
2 In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
voltage is d. Filtering out the alias frequency

a. Aperture time
b. Acquisition time 11 When the message and the BCC are transmitted as
c. Flat-top time separate parts within the same transmitted code, it is
d. Dmin called a(n)

3 Error signals associated with the sampling process are a. Systematic code
called b. CRC
c. (n,k) cyclic code
a. Foldover distortion d. Interleaved code
b. Aliasing
c. Nyquist rate 12 The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data
d. a and b have been shifted in is the

4 Which of the following is not a common RZ code? a. Quantile interval

b. Codec
a. RZ-unipolar c. BCC
b. RZ-bipolar d. Syndrome
c. RZ-M
d. RZ-AMI 13 Which of the following is not an example of code error
detection and correction in a data communication
5 In an asynchronous data system channel?

a. Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to a. Parity

the same clock frequency. b. Frequency-shift keying
b. Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and c. Block-check character
followed by a stop bit to frame the word. d. Hamming code
c. The receiver derives its clock signal from the received
data stream. 14 Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the
d. All the above. receiver are called

6 A CD audio laser-disk system has a frequency bandwidth a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)
of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. The minimum sample rate to satisfy b. Block-check characters (BCC)
the Nyquist criteria is c. Forward error correcting (FEC)
d. Parity
a. 20 Hz
b. 20 kHz
15 Codes producing random data that closely resemble
c. 40 Hz digital noise are
d. 40 kHz
a. Systematic codes
7 With respect to converter circuits b. PN codes
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

c. Pseudonoise codes
d. b and c a. CSU/DSU
b. TDM
c. CVSD
Chapter 9 Digital Communications Transmission
d. DPSK

1 Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data 10 Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular
bits that provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity is phenomenon without the presence of human monitors is
called a(n) known as

a. Constellation pattern a. Radio teletype

b. Loopback b. Radio multiplexing
c. Statistical Concentration c. Radio facsimile
d. Eye pattern d. Radio telemetry

2 Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's telegraphic 11 The bit error rate is
equipment?
a. It uses an automatic request for repetition.
b. It has excessive redundancy built into the code.
c. The parity bit is difficult to detect.
d. Differing between various widths of the pulses is an
extremely complicated process.
a. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number
of bits transmitted
b. The most common method of referring to the quality of
a digital communication system
c. Virtually the same as the error probability
d. All the above

3 A special digital modulation technique that achieves high 12 The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is
data rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called
a. Excessive noise producing errors
a. Delta modulation b. Slope overload
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM) c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) d. Complexity of design
d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)
13 The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of
4 FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude- 2047 if its bandwidth is 3.5 kHz is
modulation systems with respect to
a. 30,000 bits per second
a. Noise performance b. 33,000 bits per second
b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel c. 38,500 bits per second
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics d. 35,000 bits per second
d. Power consumption
14 The AT&T T1 lines
5 Which is not a type of pulse modulation?
a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM) c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels
d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)
15
A digital transmission has an error probability of
6 PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in
and is long. Its expected number of error bits is
a. Noise characteristics
b. Bandwidth characteristics
a.
c. Simplicity in design
d. Frequency response of the intelligence signal b.

c.
7 Half-duplex operation involves communication
d.
a. In one direction only
b. In both directions, but only one can talk at a time
c. Where both parties can talk at the same time
d. All the above Chapter 10 Network Communications

8 A procedure that decides which device has permission to

1 An interconnection of users that allows communication
transmit at a given time is called
with one another is known as a
a. Line control
a. Modem
b. Protocol
b. UART
c. Flow control
c. Network
d. Sequence control
d. Protocol

9 The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to

2 A complex LC filter that removes delay distortion from
generate an output with logical 0s and 1s determined by
signals that are traveling down long transmission lines is
comparing the phase of two successive data bits is
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

called a(n) c. Related

d. Local area networks
a.. Delay equalizer
b. UART 11 In a telephone system, the grade of service is
c. Attenuation distortion filter
d. Trunk switcher a. The ratio of calls lost to calls offered
b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered
3 Which of the following is not a way that designers of c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
telephone equipment are adapting to the increasing use of d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
computers and digital coding in telephone communication e. a and b
links?
12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone
a. The use of shorter transmission lines
systems.
b. The use of computers in finding unused portions of
multiplex systems to maximize use
a. Frequency reuse
c. The application of digital switching theory to increase
b. Cell reuse
channel capacity
c. Cell splitting
d. Sharing of communication links by voice and data
signals d. Handoff

4 The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) is an 13 In local area networks, the following topology or
example of topologies are seldom used.

a. A cellular telephone system a. Star

b. A telephone system that uses frequency reuse b. Ring
c. A cell-splitting telephone system c. Bus
d. All the above d.a and b

5 Which is not a major function of a protocol? 14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper
coax and twisted pair is rarely used
a. Framing
a. 10 Base 2
b. Line control
b. 10 Base 5
c. Flow control
c. 10 Base T
d. Topology
d. 100 Base FX
e. Sequence control
e. a and b
6 The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital Equipment
Corporation, and Intel in 1980 is called 15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is

a. IEEE-488 a. VDSL
b. Ethernet b. SDSL
c. OSI c. HDSL
d. CSMA/CD d. IDSL
e. ADSL
7 A device interconnecting two networks that use different
Chapter 11 Transmission Lines
protocols and formats is called a

a. Bridge
1 The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line
b. Gateway is
c. Router
d. Node a. Minimized radiation losses
b. Low cost
8 A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have c. Low noise pick up
identical protocols at the physical and data link layers is d. Low resistive losses
called a
2 Unshielded twisted-pair cable is
a. Bridge
b. Gateway
a. Seldom used due to noise problems
c. Router
b. Increasingly used in computer networking
d. Node
c. More costly than coaxial cable
d. All the above
9 In telephony, traffic is defined in
3 The ratio of actual velocity to free-space velocity is called
a. Hundred-call seconds
b. Average number of calls in a specific period of time
a. Velocity factor
c. Erlang
b. Relative dielectric constant
d. All the above
c. Velocity of propagation
d. Delay time
10 The Internet and the WWW are
4 In a balanced line, the same current flows in each line but
a. The same thing
is
b. Completely different
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. 45º out of phase a. Quarter-wavelength matching transformer

b. 90º out of phase b. Balun
c. 180º out of phase c. Shorted-stub section
d. 270º out of phase d. Slotted line

5 What is the length of a quarter-wavelength section of RG- 13 A 50- transmission line with a 300- load impedance
8A/U coaxial cable at a frequency of 144.2 Mhz if its has a reflection coefficient of
velocity factor is 0.69.
a. 6
a. 52.1 cm b. 0.166
b. 35.9 cm c. 0.714
c. 143.6 cm d. 1.4
d. 2.08 m
14 A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and capacitance of 1
6 A nonlossy transmission line that is terminated with a nF/ft. The delay introduced by a 1-ft section is
resistive load that is equal to the characteristic impedance
of the line a. Not able to be calculated with the given information

a. Has the same impedance at all points along the line b.

b. Has a VSWR of 1:1
c.
c. Has the same voltage at points along the line
d. Has a reflection coefficient at the load equal to zero d.
e. All the above
15 A transmission line can be used as a(n)
7 A flat line indicates
a. Inductor
a. No reflection b. Capacitor
b. VSWR = 1 c. Filter
c. No physical imperfections d. Matching section
d. a and b e. All the above

8 A nonlossy transmission line terminated with a short circuit

has an Chapter 12 Wave Propagation

a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to

the incident voltage 1 An antenna can be thought of as a(n)
b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in
magnitude to the incident voltage a. Oscillator
c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude b. Capacitor
than the incident voltage c. Transducer
d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in d. Frequency multiplexer
magnitude than the incident voltage
2 A wave that is characterized by having its direction of
9 A manufacturer's specification dealing with crosstalk and propagation perpendicular to its oscillation is known as
attenuation is
a. Isotropic
a. ACR b. Transverse
b. CAS c. Polarized
c. CAA d. Refractive
d. AAC
3 Which is not an effect of our environment on wave
10 A 50- transmission line that has a load impedance of propagation?
300 has a VSWR of
a. Radiation
a. 6:1 b. Reflection
b. 1:6 c. Refraction
c. 0.666:1 d. Diffraction
d. 1.5:1
4 A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy
11 The input impedance of a quarter-wavelength section of a equally in all directions is called
50- transmission line that is terminated with a short is
a. Transverse
b. Isotropic point source
a. 50 c. Omnisphere
b. 0 (a short) d. Shadow zone
c. Infinite (open)
d. 100 5 The process of waves, which traveling in straight paths,
bending around an obstacle is
12 A device that is used to match an unbalanced
transmission line to a balanced transmission line is called a. Radiation
a b. Reflection
c. Refraction
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

d. Diffraction b. Time diversity

c. Frequency diversity
6 Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio d. Angle diversity
wave from the transmitting to receiving antenna?
15 When installing a receiving antenna, you can often
a. Ground wave overcome diffraction problems by finding a
b. Shadow wave
c. Space wave a. Null zone
d. Satellite link b. Downlink
e. Sky wave c. Hot spot
d. Skip zone
7 The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F
layers of the ionosphere is:
Chapter 13 Antennas
a. Ground wave
b. Space wave
1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and
c. Sky wave
transmitting operations of antennas is known as
d. Satellite
a. Polarization
8 The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when b. Reciprocity
transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions is
c. Efficiency
called the
d. Counterpoise
a. Critical frequency
b. Maximum usable frequency (MUF) 2 A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as
c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)
a. Marconi antenna
d. Skip zone
b. Hertz antenna
c. Vertical antenna
9 The characteristic impedance of free space is
d. Phased array
a. Not known
b. Infinite 3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected
such that the ground acts as a reflecting quarter-
c. 50 wavelength section is called a
d. 377
a. Hertz antenna
10 The area between the point where the ground wave ends b. Dipole antenna
and first sky wave returns is called the c. Marconi antenna
d. All the above
a. Quiet zone
b. Skip zone 4 The angular separation between the half-power points on
c. Null Zone an antenna's radiation pattern is the
d. All the above
e. a and b a. Bandwidth
b. Front-to-back ratio
11 The refraction and reflection action of a skywave between c. Lobe distribution
the ionosphere and ground is known as d. Beamwidth

a. Space diversity 5 The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is

b. Skip approximately
c. Tropospheric scattering
d. Fading a. 36.6
b. 50
12 A satellite communication system used by companies
such as K-Mart to quickly verify credit cards and check c. 73
inventory data is called d. 300

a. VSAT 6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced

b. MSAT below a quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance
c. SATCOM
d. WESTAR a. Increases
b. Decreases
13 A common type of radio wave interference is c. Remains the same
d. All the above
a. EMI
b. Fading 7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300 transmission
c. Reflections line. If a quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used
d. All the above as the non-resonant matching section, what must be the
characteristic impedance of the cable used in the
14 Diversity reception does not include: matching transformer?

a. Space diversity a. 186.5

 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

b. 103.9 Chapter 14 Waveguides & RADAR

c. 122.5
d. 147.9 1 At a frequency of 1 Ghz and transmitter-receiver distance
of 30 mi, which is the most efficient device for energy
8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the transfer?
transmission line as it approaches the antenna is called a
a. Transmission lines
a. Delta match b. Waveguides
b. Quarter-wave matching device c. Antennas
c. Director d. None of the above
d. Counterpoise
2 The most efficient means of transmitting a 1-Ghz signal
9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in 1500 ft would typically be
order to
a. Transmission lines
a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input b. Waveguides
impedance of the antenna c. Antennas
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input d. None of the above
impedance of the antenna
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna 3 The dominant mode for waveguide operation is
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna
a. TE10
10 Standard AM broadcast stations usually use what type of b. TE01
transmitting antennas? c. TM10
d. TM01
a. Driven collinear array
b. Marconi array 4 The propagation velocity of the signal in a waveguide,
c. Yagi-Uda when compared to the speed of light is
d. Log-periodic
a. larger
11 The type of antenna often found in small AM broadcast b. smaller
receivers is a c. the same velocity
d. either b or c
a. Ferrite loop antenna
b. Folded dipole antenna 5 Ridged waveguides are advantageous over rectangular
c. Slot antenna waveguides in their
d. Log-periodic antenna
a. cost
12 The folded dipole antenna has b. attenuation
c. ability to work at lower frequency
a. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave dipole d. ease of construction
b. A 288- input impedance
c. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipole 6 A circular waveguide is used for
d.. a and b
e. b and c a. Efficiency reasons
b. Ease of manufacture
13 The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of c. Rotating section applications
d. Greater bandwidth
a. A driven director and parasitic reflector
b. A driven reflector and parasitic director 7 Variable attenuators are used in waveguides to
c. A parasitic director and reflector
d. All the above a. Isolate a source from reflections at its load so as to
preclude frequency pulling.
b. Adjust the signal levels.
14 A grid-dip meter measures the resonant frequency of
tuned circuits c. Measure signal levels.
d. All the above.
a. By connection in series with the inductance
b. By connection in parallel with the inductance 8 The coupling in dB of a directional coupler that has 85
c. Without power being applied to the tuned circuit mW into the main guide and 0.45 mW out the secondary
guide is
d. By connection in series with the capacitance
a. 22.8
15 When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that
b. 18.9
indicates a problem is
c. 188.9
a. Greater than 1 d. 45.6
b. Less than 1
c. Greater than 1.5 9 The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by
changing the cavity's
d. Less than 0.5
a. Volume
b. Inductance
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

c. Capacitance 3 Calculate the beamwidth of a microwave dish antenna

d. All the above with a 6-m mouth diameter when used at 5 Ghz.

10 The guide wavelength is a. 0.49°

b. 4.9°
a. Greater than free-space wavelength c. 7°
b. Equal to free-space wavelength d. 0.7°
c. Less than free-space wavelength
d. All the above 4 Zoning refers to

11 The process of employing radio waves to detect and a. A method of producing a radome
locate physical objects is known as b. Changing a spherical wavefront into a plane wave
c. Creating a polar radiation pattern
a. The Doppler effect d. Fading into nonreality
b. Radar
c. Directional coupling 5 Which microwave oscillator has high gain, low-noise
d. Cavity tuning characteristics, and wide bandwidth?

12 The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a a. Traveling wave tube oscillator
smaller conductive strip with constant separation by a b. Gunn Oscillator
dielectric material on a printed circuit board for use at c.Klystron oscillator
frequencies above 500 Mhz is known as d. Magnetron oscillator

a. Artwork traces 6 Which is not an advantage of the Gunn gallium arsenide

b. Dielectric waveguide oscillator?
c. Microstrip/stripline
d. MICs or MMICs a. Ease of removing heat from the chip
b. Small size
13 Second return echoes are c. Ruggedness
d. Lack of filaments
a. Echoes produced when the reflected beam makes a e. Low cost of manufacture
second trip
b. Echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next 7 The i in P-I-N diode refers to
pulse
c. Echoes caused by the PRT being too long a. Indium
d. All the above b. Impact
c. Integrated
14 The characteristic wave impedance for waveguides is d. Intrinsic

a. 75 8 Which is not a typical application of a ferrite in a

b. 377 microwave system?
c. Dependent on frequency
d. Dependent on waveguide shape a. attenuator
e. c and d b. amplifier
c. isolator
15 A dielectric waveguide is d. circulator

a. Enclosed by a conducting material 9 A low noise microwave amplifier that provides

b. A waveguide with just a dielectric amplification via the variation of a reactance is known as a
c. Dependent on the principle that two dissimilar
dielectrics can guide waves a. Maser
d. b and c b. Laser
c. Yig
d. Parametric amplifier
Chapter 15 Microwaves & Lasers
10 The major difference between a laser and a maser is the

1 Which is not a type of horn antenna design for microwave a. Frequency of the signal being amplified
frequencies?
b. Amplitude of the signal being amplified
c. Bandwidth of the signal being amplified
a. Parabolic horn
d. Phase of the signal being amplified
b. Circular horn
c. Pyramidal horn
11 Lasers are useful in
d. Sectoral horn
a. Industrial welding
2 Cassegrain feed to a paraboloid antenna involves a
b. Surgical procedures
c. Distance measuring
a. Dipole antenna
d. Compact disc players
b. Point-source antenna
e. All the above
c. Secondary reflector
d. Any of the above
12 The following semiconductor is not used as a microwave
device:
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. 204.5 Mhz
a. PIN diode b. 205.25 Mhz
b. Baritt diode c. 211.25 Mhz
c. Zener diode d. 211.75 Mhz
d. Tunnel diode
6 The length of time an image stays on the screen after
13 Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s) for the signal is removed is termed
a TWT amplifier?
a. Retention
a. Low gain b. Flicker
b. Spurious modulation c. Persistence
c. Poor frequency response d. Back porch
d. Low RF output
e. All the above 7 Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV
receiver?
14 Which of the following is not used as a microwave
antenna? a. The rf amplifier stage
b. The mixer stage
a. Patch antenna c. The local oscillator stage
b. Marconi antenna d. The video-detector stage
c. Lens antenna
d. Horn antenna 8 The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical
and horizontal retrace pulses from the video signal is
15 Compared to linear power supplies, switching power the
supplies are
a. Video detector
a. Less efficient b. Video IF amplifier
b. More efficient c. Sync separator
c. Simpler d. Sound detector
d. Heavier
9 The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the
Chapter 16 Television electron beam with its magnetic field is called the

a. Coil
1 A television transmitter actually transmits two signals b. Yoke
at once. They are
c. Deflector
d. Magneto
a. An amplitude-modulated video signal and
frequency-modulated audio signal
b. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video and audio 10 A cumbersome series of adjustments to a color TV
receiver in order to make sure that the three electron
c. An amplitude-modulated audio signal and
beams of the picture tube are positioned exactly on
frequency-modulated video signal
their respective color dots on the face of the picture
d. Two frequency-modulated signals: video and audio tube is called

2 The most widely used type of TV camera is the a. Alignment

b. Convergence
a. Charge couple device c. Interleaving
b. Vidicon d. Interlacing
c. Image orthicon
d. Iconoscope
11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal
3 Synchronizing pulses that consist of equalizing sound and raster but no picture must have a problem
pulses, followed by serrations, followed by more in the
equalizing pulses at a rate of 60 times per second are
called a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage
power supply
a. Color synchronizing pulses b. Main power supply
b. Horizontal retrace pulses c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff
c. Vertical retrace pulses d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff
d. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses
12 Raster refers to
4 The frame frequency for U.S. television broadcasts is
approximately a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is
being received
a. 30 frames per second b. CRT resolution
b. 40 frames per second c. CRT aspect ratio
c. 60 frames per second d. All the above
d. 100 frames per second
13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained
5 Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to from the low-voltage power supply using
210 Mhz. The channel 12 carrier frequency is
Approximately a. Its power-line transformer
b. The yoke coil
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

c. The vertical oscillator to

d. The flyback transformer
a. Scattering
14 The introduction of digital television in the United b. Absorption
States has been hampered by c. Macrobending
d. Microbending
a. Delays in chip designs e. All the above
b. Shortages of appropriate chips
c. Customer rejection 8 Calculate the optical power 100 km from a 0.5 mW
d. Less than ideal regulatory climate source on a single mode fiber that has 0.10 dB per
km loss.
15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is
motion in the video, it is a. 50 nW
b. 500 nW
a. due to bandwidth problems c. 5 uW
b. Called a pixelate d. 50 uW
c. Due to noise
d. b and c 9 Which is not an important characteristic of a light
detector?
Chapter 17 Fiber Optics
a. Responsitivity
b. Dark current
1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links c. Power consumption
over using transmission lines or waveguides?
d. Response speed
e. Spectral respons
a. Small size
b. Extremely wide bandwidths
10 The dispersion in fiber optics is termed
c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)
d. Lower cost
a. Modal
e. All the above
b. Chromatic
c. Polarization mode
2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is
d. All the above
e. a and b above
a. Infra-red
b. Red
c. Violet
11 Fiber optic connections suffer high loss due to
d. Ultraviolet
a. Air gaps
3 The optical band designation(s) include b. Rough surfaces
c. Axial misalignment
a. S
d. Angular misalignment
b. C
e. All the above
c. L
d. a and b above
12 Fiber optic technology is used in applications of
e. All the above
a. Local area networks (LANs)
4 In the telecommunications industry, the most b. Cable TV (CATV) systems
commonly used fiber(s) are
c. Telephone networks
d. All the above
a. 50 micron
b. 62.5 micron
13 The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by
c. 50 and 62.5 micron
a portion of the light energy traveling in the cladding
d. 125 micron is called

5 The abrupt change in refractive index from core to a. Modal dispersion

cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
a. Total internal reflection
d. Cable dispersion
b. Numerical aperture
c. Dispersion
14 Recent laser developments for fiber optic
d. Step index communication include

a. Distributed feedback (DFB)

6 A technique that is used to minimize the pulse b. Heterojunction
dispersion effect is to
c. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
d. a and b above
a. Use a higher frequency light source
e. a and c above
b. Use plastic cladding
c. Minimize the core diameter
15 The following consideration is important when
d. All the above
deciding between using a diode laser or an LED

7 The loss (attenuation) of signal in optical fiber is due a. Response time

 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
e. All the above
ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

1 C D C C E D B D D C A C B C A A E

2 B A C D B A C A D A B B B B C A A

3 D C C D B C A D C A A A C A D C E

4 C B B A B A D C C D C B D B B A C

5 D C D B C C B B C D B D C C A B D

6 C D C D B C D D A B E B B C A C C

7 C C A B B D B B B B D C D D D D E

8 B D C A B C C B A A B A A A B C D

9 D A D D A A D D D D A D A D D B C

10 A C A B A B D A D C A E B A A B D

11 A A C C B C B A D E C B A B E C E

12 B D D B C A C D B B B A D C C A D

13 C D D A B D C B C C C D C B E D C

14 C D D D C D D C C E B B C E B D E

15 E B A C D D D D A A E C C D B D A