MT Licensure Examination Recall Questions

August 2013

IMMUNOLOGY, SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING

1. Other name for HCV RNA?

a. Viral clade ​c. Viral load
b. Surface antigen ​d. Core antigen

2. Anti-U
a. most common antibody in the MNSsu system
b. found only in black individuals
c. naturally occuring antibody
d. named “U” for Uruguay

3. Blood component given to patient with aplastic anemia?

a. FWB (fresh whole blood)
b. washed RBC, less than 7 days old
c. PRBC from WB
d. Irradiated blood
– ito po yung gnatanong ko po sayo dati mam, nglabas talaga siya
sa boards. Hehe. :)))

4. Indication for neocyte transfusion?

a. ITP
b. HTR
c. Hyrdops fetalis
d. thalassemia

5. Famous cook whose reported to be a carrier of a febrile disease,

and reported to killed 50 persons.
a. Felix
b. Widal
c. Mary
d. Moley

6. Which of the characteristics expressed as tumor and present

normally in fetal cells?
a. Oncogenes ​c. Sarcoma
b. Oncofetal antigen ​d. Tumor Specific antigen

7. When testing for malaria, what method is most commoly used in

the philippines?
a. Thin Smear Method ​ ​c. Western blot
b. Thick Smear Method ​d. POCT
- nalito din po ako dito na tanong mam. Di ko talaga alam ang
sagot dito. :)

8. When reading for a slide agglutination for salmonella,

macroscopic agglutination is graded as 25%, what is the
interpretation?
a. non-reactive ​c. 1+
b. negative ​d. reactive
- dito po na question, ng 1+ ako, sinunod ko lng po ung
agglutination grading sa bloodbanking, ewan ko lng kung tama yun.
:)))))

9. What phenotype produces least amount of H antigen?

a. A1 ​c. O
b. AB ​d. B

10. Blood group associated with HLA antigen?

a. Yt ​c. Di
b. Bg ​d. Sd

11. HLA class wherein most of the autoimmune diseases occur?

a. I ​c. III
b. II ​d. IV

12. Which of the following is correct regarding Leukopoor RBC?

a. Filtration and Washing
b. Filtration, Washing, Centrifugation
c. Filtration and Centrifugation
d. Centrifugation and Washing
- Nalito din po ako dito na question mam, gusto ko din sana
malaman ang tamang sagot dito. :)

13. How many percent of B-cells are present in the circulation?

a. 5-10 ​c. 10-15
b. 2-5 ​d. 75-85

14. MLR technique uses what method?

a. serologic ​c. chemical
b. molecular ​d. physical
15. What would stimulate the transformation of B cell into plasma
cell?
a. Macrophage ​c. T-Helper
b. Dendritic cells ​d. Double-negative thymocyte

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

1. Cytomegalovirus isolation is recommended using?

a. Embryonated Hen's Egg ​c. A549 cells
b. Monkey Kidney cells ​d. Human Embryonic
Fibroblasts
NOTE: #14 in apollon (VIROLOGY)

2. What is the scientific name of the body of tapeworm?

a. Scolex ​c. Proglottid
b. Strobila ​d. Rostellum
NOTE: #87 in apollon (Parasitology)

3. Preferred medium for the isolation of Bordetella Pertussis?

​a. Bordet-Gengou Medium ​c. Charcoal-Cephalexin Agar
​b. Chocolate Agar ​d. Clotted Rabbit Blood

4. Most enterobacteriaceae gives what type of Methyl Red and

Voges Proskauer reaction?
a. Similar ​c. Opposite
b. Identical ​d. NOTA
NOTE: # 161 in apollon (Bacteriology)

5. Which of the following are often mistaken for cyst of amoebae?

a. Blastocystic hominis ​c. Ammonium Carbonate
Crystal
b. Ammonium Magnesium Phosphate Crystal d. Epithelial
Cells
NOTE: #25 in apollon (Parasitology)

6. Which of the following is the vector of African Sleeping

Sickness?
a. Reduviid Bug ​c. Sandfly
b. Tsetse fly ​d. Ticks
NOTE: #40 in apollon (Parasitology)
7. Definitive host(vector) for Plasmodium?
a. Tsetse fly ​c. Female Anopheles Mosquito
b. Sandfly ​d. Male Reduviid Bug
NOTE: #55 in apollon (Parasitology)

8. Which of the following migrates though the blood, liver, lungs,

pharynx and then back to the small intestine?
1. Necator americanus
2. Ancylostoma duodenale
3. Strongyloides stercoralis

​a. 1,2 ​c.2,3

​b. 1 only ​d. 1,2,3

9. Venipuncture is not recommended for:

a. Malaria, Babesia, Hemoflagellates ​c. Babesia,
Cryptosporidium, Hemoflagellates
b. Amebae, Babesia, Malaria ​d. Isospora, Amobae,
Hemoflagellates
​NOTE: #160 in apollon (Parasitology)

10. Not considered as strictly antibiotics.

a. Vancomycin ​c. Tetracycline
b. Bacitracin ​d. Sulfonamides

11. Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of:

1. Neisseria
2. Haemophilus influenzae
3. Bordetella pertussis
4. MRSA

​a. 1,2,4 ​c. 1,2,3,4

​b. 2,3,4 ​d. 3,4
– Nag 1,2,3,4 nalang ako dito mam kahit di ako sure sa MRSA. Wala
kasing 1,2,3 na choices.:))))

12. Stain to demonstrate uterine arrangement of T.saginata

proglottids?
a. Iodine ​c. Eosin
b. Hematoxylin ​d. India Ink

13. Flat, Serrated Edges with confluent growth on BAP.

Identify the organism.
a. S.aureus ​c. P.aeruginosa
 b. E.coli ​d. kalimutan ko dito na choice. :)
- di ko din alam ang sagot dito mam. Gi check ko po sa mahon
na book, P.aeruginosa po ang nkita ko pro di niya gi specify kung sa
BAP basta Flat, Serrated edges lng po ang pgka describe niya. :)

14. Settings of rpm marked on the face of the Rheostat control on the
centrifuge should be checked once:
a. Weekly ​c. Monthly
b. Daily ​d. Every other week
​NOTE: #230 in apollon (Bacteriology)

15. Which of the following media stimulates the production of

chlamydospores?
a. Brain-Heart Infusion Blood Agar
b. Czapek's Agar
c. Cornmeal Agar
d. Urease Test Medium
NOTE: #36 in apollon (Mycology)

16. Vector for Ascaris lumbricoides:

a. Cockroaches ​ ​c. Mosquito
b. Ticks ​d. di ko na po marecall to na choice
- pinaka favorite ko na tanong sa lahat, nka handwritten pa
talaga ang cockroach

17. First step in Viral Replication

a. Attachment and penetration ​c. Release
b. Assembly of Virion ​d. Uncoating
NOTE: #5 in apollon (Virology)

18. Acid-Fast Bacilli is killed using

a. Dried Sputum ​c. 30 minutes in sunlight
b. 5 minutes in phenol ​d. 10 minutes in moist heat
- ito din na question mam, di ko alam ang sagot. Kung mg
phenol ako, sa removal of adherent sputum kasi sya. :))

- SOURCE: RITM

19. Which of the following is a RNA virus?

a. Pseudomyxoviridae ​ ​c. Herpesviridae
b. Papovaviridae ​d. Paramyxoviridae
NOTE: #9 in apollon (Virology)

20. The following is found in the intermediate host of E.granulosus?

 a. Hydatid Cyst ​c. Cyst
b. Larvae d​ . di ko na marecall to na choice

21. Parasite most prevalent in Orphanage? Hymenelopis nana

(Saunders)
​a. Ascaris ​c. Whipworm
​b. All of this item ​d. Hookworm

22. Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the

flukes?
a. Snail ​ ​c. Fish
b. Water plant ​d. Crab
NOTE: #90 in apollon (Parasitology)

23. Second Intermediate Host for P.westermani

a. Freshwater ​c. Water cress
b. Sea weeds ​d. Fish
- ito po talaga ang question mam. Vague masyado ang pgka
gawa.

24. Oxidase positive and Urease Positive Bordetella

a. Pertussis ​c. Bronchiseptica
b. Parapertussis ​d. None of this item
NOTE: #138 in apollon (Bacteriology)
- sa apollon po mam, ang sagot nia po ky si Parapertussis, pero ang
nasa De lost po ky si Bronchiseptica. Gusto ko lng po ma clarify to
na question.

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

1. It is the difference between total protein and albumin

a. Albumin-Globulin ratio ​ ​c. Creatinine Clearance
b. Globulin fraction ​d. Osmolal Gap

2. Not included in the computation of Total Cholesterol

a. LDL ​c. VLDL
b. HDL ​d. TAG

- pag I follow mo ung friedewald formula, LDL= TC - HDL -

TAG/5 (conventional); TAG/2.175 (SI)
3. Blood alcohol level of 0.18-0.30%
a. Mild euphoria, decreased inhibition and motor impairment
b. Mental confusion, dizziness, strongly impaired motor skills
c. Inability to stand, walk and run
d. Coma and possible death

4. Anti-convulsant drug that has absence (petit mal) seizure.

a. Carbamazepine ​c. Valproic acid
b. None of this item ​d. Phenytoin

5. What routine testing is best done in monitoring the course of

Diabetes Mellitus?
a. Fasting Blood Glucose ​c. HBA1c
b. OGTT ​d. Microalbumin'
- nakakalito ito na question mam. Gusto ko po malaman ang
best answer dito mam. :))

6. Which of the following is a/an Acute Phase Reactant. (1) Alpha1-

antitrypsin (2) CRP (3) Orosomucoid
a. 1 ​c. 1,2,3
b. 1,2 ​d. NOTA

7. What protein migrate in the beta fraction of the protein

electrophoresis. (1) alpha1-antitrypsin (2)haptoglobin (3)CRP
(4)Immunoglobulin
a. 1,2,3 ​c. 2 only
b. 3 only ​d. 1,2,3,4
​
8. Beer's law
a. transmittance ​ ​b. absorbance

9. What does basal state collection mean?

a. First morning specimen ​ ​c. 2hour-post prandial
specimen
b. Fasting specimen ​d. after meal, between 2-4pm

10. BUN-Creatinine ratio

a. 10:1 ​c. 20:1
b. 10-20:1 ​d. None of this item
- nalito din po ako dito na choice mam. Kay ang nka lagay po
ksi ky mam rodriguez na chem ky 10-20:1, pro sa ibang books ky
10:1 po. Gusto ko po sana malaman ang best answer dto mam. :))))

11. Newborn screening specimen

 a. Venipuncture ​c. Arterial puncture
c. Blood spot collection ​ ​d. Capillary puncture

12. Cushing's disease

a. Hyposecretion of GH ​c. Hypersecretion of ACTH
b.Hyposecretion of ACTH ​d. Hypersecretion of GH

13. Overproduction of growth hormone in ADULTS

a. Dwarfism ​c. Acromegaly
b. Gigantism ​d. Addison's disease

14. Titer for Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

a. 1:12 ​c. 1:64
b. 1:32 ​d. 1:132
- di ko po mkita ang sagot nito mam. Gusto ko din sanang
malaman ang tamang sagot nito. :)

15. Which enzyme has a high specificity for pancreas and salivary
glands?
a. amylase ​c. lipase
b. ALT ​d. ALP

16. Counterbalance of sodium?

a. potassium ​c. chloride
b. magnesium ​d. Calcium

17. Counter-ion of sodium?

a. potassium c​ . chloride
b. magnesium d​ . calcium

18. Which of the following does TESTRADIOL produced?

a. Testes ​c. Ovary
b. placenta ​d. Pituitary
​-#2 question sa board exam. Ito po ang pinaka nakakalitong
tanong mam. Di ako sure kung typographic error o hindi. Chineck
ko na po to sa iba't ibang books, wala talagang testradiol. :)))

HISTOPATHOLOGY, MEDTECH LAWS and RELATED

LAWS
1. Embedding medium used in Electron Microscope
a. Paraffin Wax ​c. Gelatin
b. Celloidin ​d. Epoxy

2. What does PDCA mean? PLAN-DO-CHECK-ACT

- di ko na po marecall ang mga choices nito mam. Sensya. :(

3. Hard Emboli
1. bacteria
2. Pus
3. Parasite
4. Thrombi

​a. 1,2,3 ​c. 2,4

​b. 1,2,3,4 ​d. 1,3
– wala talaga akong idea dito mam. GG aq dito. :((((

4. Original fixative for Pap smear

a. 95% ethanol ​c. saccamano fixative
b. 50% alcohol and ether in equal parts ​d. di ko na marecall to
na choice
– gusto ko po sanang malaman ang tamang sagot dito mam. :)))

5. Recommended fixative for Electron Microscopy

a. Formaldehyde ​c. Zenker Fluid
b. Glutaraldehyde ​d. Picric Acid

6. Term that corresponds with the meaning of 'Definite?

a. suspect ​c. diagnosis
b. impression ​d. di ko na marecall dito na
choice. :)

7. Stain for basement membrane

a. Verhoeff stain ​b. Taenzer-Unna
- ito lng po na recall ko sa mga choices mam. Senxa. :(

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

1. CAROTENE produces what color in the urine?

a. Red ​c. Yellow
b. Brown ​d. Tea colored
– gusto ko din malaman ang tamang sagot dito mam. :DDDD
2. Sperm that is graded as “freely moving”
a. 10 ​c. 100
b. 4 ​d. 0
– ganito po talaga ang pgka state sa question mam. Nakakatawa
ngang mg analyze nto na question. XDDDD

3. Cloudy CSF
a. 1:10 c​ . 1:100
b. 1:20 d​ . 1:200

4. Normal color and appearance of peritoneal fluid

a. clear ​c. colorless, pale yellow
b. cloudy ​d. nakalimutan ko na dito na
choice

5. Not normally found in the urine

a. Glucose ​c. Nitrite
b. Urobilinogen ​d. Creatinine

6. How many fields should be viewed to assess sperm morphology?

a. 10 ​c. 20
c. 5 ​d. 100

7. When reading fecal leukocytes, in which field/amount of field,

indicates that there is invasive infection?
a. 40-50/HPF ​c. at least 20/HPF
c. 20/HPF ​d. 3/HPF

8. how many links are there in the chain of infection?

a. 6 ​c. 8
b. 5 ​d. 12
- di ko tlaga alam ang sagot dito mam. Blanko ako dito. Hehe.
:DDDDD

RATIO: 6 COMPONENTS IN THE INFECTIOUS PROCESS

(CHAIN OF INFECTION) -
1. SOURCE OF INFECTION(PATHOGEN)
2. RESERVOIR
3. PORTAL OF EXIT
4. MODE OF TRANSMISSION
5. PORTAL OF ENTRY
6. SUSCEPTIBILE HOST
REFERENCE: BURTON (MICROBIOLOGY)
9. Proper container for the measurement of urobilinogen
a. amber bottle ​c. screw cap
b. plastic sterile container ​d. di ko na marecall dito na
choice
- di ako sure sa sagot dito mam. Gina isip ko nalang na
photosensitive na analyte ang urobilinogen, so ng amber bottle nlng
ako. :DDD

10. 4+ in Hazard?
a. serious ​c. extreme
b. slight ​d. moderate
- di ko ma construct ng mabuti ang question mam, senxa. :(

HEMATOLOGY

1. Which of the following is not an optical method?

a. Coag-A-mate ​c. Fibrometer
b. Elektra ​d. Koagulab

2. PT: abnormal
APTT: normal
TT: normal
Platelet count: normal
Fibrinogen: normal
​
​What is to be done next?
​a. Mixing c​ . Duckerts test
​b. Antithrombin ​d. Stypvens time

3. ISI value of 1 claims compared to WHO standard

a. good ​c. better
b. equal ​d. di ko na maalala. :)
​- ano po sagot dito mam? Hehehe. :DDDD

4. AML without maturation

a. M1 c​ . M6
b. M4 ​d. M7

5. Which of the following are automated methods?

a. RBC, WBC, Platelet count ​ ​c. Reticulocytes
b. ESR ​d. All of this item

6. If the number of lymphocytes are greater than the number of

PMNs present in the sample (adult), how many cells will you
enumerate for a DIFFERENTIAL COUNT?
a. 200 ​c. 100
b. 20 ​d. 50

7. Most common cause of death in patient with sickle cell anemia?

a. Aplastic crises ​c. Infectious crises
b. autosplenectomy ​d. vaso occlusive crises

9. Hematopoietic stem cell marker

a. CD3 ​c. CD33
b. CD34 ​d. CD21

10. Which of the following test requires a fresh specimen?

​a. LAP ​ ​c. SBB
​b. PAS ​d. Oil Red O

11. Part of platelet responsible for clot retraction?

a. Microtubules ​c. thrombomodulin
b. thrombosthenin ​d. none of this item

12. When transfused blood in patients with PNH, the rate of

hemolysis is:
a. Less ​c. No effect
b. Increased ​D. Variable
– di ko alam ang sagot dito mam. :DDDDD

13. plaletet count of 401,000-599,000

a. slightly increased c​ . normal
b. markedly increased ​d. moderately increased

14. In what stage of platelet does “shedding of platelet” occur

a. mature megakaryocyte ​ ​c. immature megakaryocyte
b. promegakaryote ​d. megakaryoblast

15. APTT: increased

PT: increased
Fibrinogen: decreased
TT: increased
Platelet count: decreased

​What would be the possible condition?

​a. DIC ​ ​c. hypofibrinogenemia ​
​b. dysfibrogenemia ​d. agammaglobulinemia
– my follow up question pa to mam pro di ko na marecall. :)

16. What stages of RBC maturation wherein there is no hemoglobin

synthesis?
a. Reticulocytes ​c. Orthochromic normoblast
b. Polychromatic normoblast ​d. Pronormoblast

17. Stage of WBC maturation wherein the nucleus is kidney shape

a. Myelocytes ​c. Band
b. Metamyelocytes ​b. Promyelocytes

18. Functions of eosinophil

a. Counteract histamine ​c. against parasitic infection
b. releases histamine ​d. phagocytosis
- nalito po ako dito mam, ky ang A and C po diba function yn
ng eosinophil. Di ko alam kng sino dito ang best answer. :))))

​MT Licensure Examination Recall Questions

March 2014

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

1. Curschmann’s spirals is seen in:

a. Bronchitis ​
b. Asthma ​
2. IL-6:
a. Bacterial infection ​ ​c. Metabolic process
b. Hormonal process ​d. ???????
3. Infective stage of schistosome in human:
a. Cercariae ​
b. Schistosomule ​
4. Disease associated with W.bancrofti?
a. Elephantiasis
b. Blindness

5. Skin penetrating parasite:

a. S.stercoralis ​c. N. Americanus
b. A. Duodenale ​d. All
6. E.coli in MRVP reaction
a. Red ​c. green
b. Yellow ​d. ---------------
7. Salmonella-Shigella Agar contains
a. Milk
b. Bile salts

OTHER RECALL QUESTIONS WITH NO CHOICES:

1. Clonorchis sinensis: Chinese Liver Fluke
st
2. 1 I.H. Of F.buski:
st
3. 1 I.H. Of D.latum:
4. Organ target in migrating amoebiasis:
5. Entamoeba with 8 nuclei: E.COLI
6. Compare spirometra and echinococcus:
7. Malaria that infects RBCs with ring form:
8. Karyosomal cytoplasm:
9. In trichomate stain color of chromatoidal bar:
10. Appearance of taenia eggs:
11. Appearance of C.philippinensis:
12. Appearance of H.nana:

APOLLON:

MYCOLOGY: 26,30,76
VIROLOGY: 1,5,12
PARASITOLOGY: 4,5,24,56,94,97,99,100,108,108,114,123,128,135,144,154
BACTERIOLOGY: 48,54,58,62,86,97,114,196,220

HISTOPATHOLOGY, MEDTECH LAWS and OTHER RELATED LAWS

1. Allowed to collect blood in blood banking:

a. Nurse and Physician ​c. Medtech

b. Doctor and Medtech ​d. All
2. Which is objective?
a. Grainy
b. 2-5cm

3. Cost of labor
I. Pre-analytical ​III. Post-analytical
II. Analytical ​IV. Budget meal

a. 1,2 ​c. 1,2,3,4

b. 1,2,3 ​d. 4
4. Method for fresh preparation of sputum, mucus secretions?
a. Spreading ​c. Touch preparation
b. Streaking ​d. Squashing
5. In microtomy automation, which is automated?

a. Blade ​c. handle

b. Casette ​d. -----------------
6. Orientation method is found in:
 a. Embedding
b. Fixation

7. Fixative used in kidney biopsy:

a. 10% formalin ​c. Zenker’s fluid
b. Bouin’s solution ​
8. Ribbon cutting in block that has been fished out in water bath. What to do next?
a. Dry in paraffin microwave
b. Stain

9. A medtech who had a friend diagnose with HIV, where does the result should be given?
a. Physician
b. Patient ​
10. Rape victim:
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Fructose

11. Cell that works together to perform their function:

a. Tissue ​
b. Organ ​
12. Specific word:
a. Approximate ​c. suggestive
b. Indicative ​
OTHER RECALL QUESTIONS WITH NO CHOICES:
1. RA 7719: National Voluntary Blood Services Act
2. Prosector: One who perform autopsy
3. Rokitansky:
4. Destroys mitochondria: Glacial CH3COOH
5. Mostly used metallic fixative: Zenker Fluid????
6. Revocation: 1 legal officer + 2 members of the board
7. Who investigate the case if a medtech does not follow the code of ethics: Ethics Committee (PAMET Committee)
8. Specimen in bronchial washing culture: Broncial Lavage
9. Intradepartmental:
10. Size of HEPA filter: 0.4 micra
11. What is used instead of nanometer: micrometer
12. Tissue size for paraffin: 2X2X4
13. Double embedding:
14. Histopathologic technique:
15. Cheapest embedding medium: paper boat
16. Microtome used in enzyme immunohistochemistry: Frozen Microtome
17. Mesothelial:
18. Monoclonal antibody: mice
19. Breast: CA 15-3

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY:

1. Infectious container:
a. Black ​c. Red ​
b. Yellow ​ ​d. Green
2. Leukocyte esterase endpoint color:
 a. Purple ​ ​c. Green
b. Pink ​d. Blue
3. Type 3 fire extinguisher:
a. Water ​c. halon
b. CO2 ​d. Sand
4. Preferred sample in urine culture:
a. Suprapubic aspiration ​c. Midstream clean-catch
b. Catheterized sample ​d. All
5. Kidney failure:
a. Reversible
b. Irreversible

6. Type 1 fire extinguisher:

a. Water ​c. halon
b. CO2 ​d. Sand
OTHER RECALL QUESTIONS WITH NO CHOICES:
1. Yellow hazard: Reactivity
2. White Hazard: Specific hazard
3. Traumatic tap:
4. Appearance of triple phosphate:
5. Endpoint color of nitrite: purple
6. Define polyuria:
7. Cytogenetic studies storage:
8. Rotting fish odor of urine: Trimethylaminuria
9. Cloudy red urine:
10. Reporting of crystal: rare,few,moderate,many/LPF
11. Reporting of yeasts: rare,few,moderate,many/HPF
12. Formation of casts from most significant to least significant:
13. Brown semen:
14. Gastric fluid:

IMMUNOLOGY, SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING

1. According to CDC, what is the most common contaminants in blood bag?

a. E.coli ​c. Y.enterocolitica
b. P.aeruginosa ​d. All
2. Single bloodbag over time, what component will be not used
a. Cryoprecipitate (should be separated within 15 minutes)
b. PRBC

3. T-cell secretes
​a. Chemokines
b. MPO

4. Where does CRP come from?

a. Pancreas ​c. lungs
b. Liver ​ ​d. Heart
5. Macroglobulin deficiency:
 a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Cirrhosis ​
6. Anticoagulant used in HLA typing:
a. EDTA ​c. Sodium Citrate
b. Heparin ​d. -------------------
OTHER RECALL QUESTION WITH NO CHOICES:
1. Yta and Ytb: Cartwright
2. ISBT 001: ABO
3. SLE: anti-Sm (anti-Smith)
4. FNHTR:
5. Antibody screening:
6. Anti-I: M.pneumoniae
7. Open system in blood: 24 hours
8. Platelet in transport:
9. T-cell maturation: thymus
10. Mature B cell contains what surface immunoglobulin: IgM and IgD
11. Immunoglobulin that reacts most with C’: IgM
12. Monomeric immunoglobulin: IgG, IgE, IgD
13. Immunoglobulin dominant in tears: IgA
14. Anaphylactic shock: IgA
15. Anaphylactic blood component: washed RBC
16. In HIV px, what blood component is used: PRBC
17. Qualitative syphilis testing:
18. Sodium citrate functions as:
19. ACD is discovered in: 1943
20. Common problem in transplant:
21. Phenotype, genotype:
22. Primary biliary cirrhosis: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
23. HPV: warts
24. Donation: 50 kg

HEMATOLOGY:

1. Cloudy urine:
a. Hematuria ​ ​c. myoglobinuria
b. Hemoglobinuria ​d. ------------------
2. Turbidity with black grading:
a. OFT
b. Sugar lysis test

OTHER RECALL QUESTIONS WITH NO CHOICES:

1. Target cell grading:
2. Rouleaux grading:
3. Positive error and negative error: improper setting of apperture current
4. OFT:
5. Blondheim: uses 2.8g of 80% ammonium sulfate
6. Microhematocrit centrifuge:
7. Traumatic tap and intracranial hemorrhage:
8. Stomatocyte:
9. Smudge cells: CLL
10. Philadelphia chromosome: CML
11. Size of ESR micro tube: 13x100

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Most commonly used type of heparin

a. Lithium ​c. NOTA
 b. Sodium ​d. All of the above
2. Beta-migrating lipoprotein:
a. LDL ​c. HDL
b. VLDL ​d. Chylomicron
3. Basis in precision
a. Mean value
b. Gaussian curve

4. Benzoylecgonine is a metabolite of:

a. Coccaine ​c. marijuana
b. PEP ​d. ---------------
5. Grand-mal seizures:
a. Valproic acid ​c. carbamazepine
b. Phenytoin ​d. ---------------
6. Which form of drug has a dose?
a. Capsule ​c. suspension
b. Tablet ​d. AOTA
OTHER RECALL QUESTION WITH NO CHOICES:
1. X-axis:
2. Y-axis:
3. Systematic value:
4. Nephelometry:
​MT Licensure Examination Recall Questions
March 2015

IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING

1. Who discovers gel technology? (#1 question) PAGE 274 of harmening

a. Coombs ​c. Charles?? ​
b. Morant and Race ​d. Yves Lapierre
2. Determine the blood type:
A cell: ++++
B cell: -
O cell: -
AB cell: ++++

a. A ​c. O
b. B ​d. AB
3. Leach phenotype (Page 201 of harmening)
a. Spherocytes ​c. Elliptocytosis
b. Microcytes ​d. Anisocytes
4. HLA gene found in patient with SLE?
a. HLA-DR3 ​ ​c. HLA-A5
b. HLA-DR4 ​d. HLA-DR2
5. What is Anti-M?
 a. Naturally occuring cold reacting antibody
b. Usually IgM antibody
c. Usually bind complement
d. Causes hemolytic transfusion reaction

6. Microscope used to observed reaction in microlymphotoxicity?

a. Brightfield ​c. Electron
b. Phase-Contrast ​d. Fluorescence
7. Most common congenital immunodeficiency? SELECTIVE IGA DEFICIENCY
8. Contribution of Dr. Drew in blood banking: STIMULATED BLOOD PRESERVATION RESEARCH

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Reference range of sodium?

a. 130-140 mmol/L ​c. 150-160 mmol/L
b. 135-145 mmol/L ​ ​d. 160-180 mmol/L ​
2. Creatine Kinase is in what classification?
a. Oxidoreductases ​c. Ligases
b. Transferases ​d. Lyases
3. Which of the following migrates toward beta region?
I. Transferrin ​II. Fibrinogen ​III. Complement

a. 1 and 3 ​c. 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 ​ ​3. 1,2,3

4. Serum Cholesterol: Moderate risk >200 mg/dL - High risk >260 mg/dL
a. 2-19 yrs old ​c. 30-39 yrs old ​
b. 20-39 yrs old ​d. 40 and over
5. Major structural protein in VLDL and LDL?
a. Apo-B100 ​ ​c. Apo-B48
b. Apo-A1 ​d. Apo-E
6. In hypothyroidism, all of the following are decrease exceot:
a. T3 ​c. All of the items
b. T4 ​d. T3 uptake
R4S: 1 VALUE EXCEEDS +2SD AND ANOTHER VALUE EXCEEDS -2SD
Method in Urea that is inexpensive but lacks specificity? COLORIMETRIC
Serum cholesterol of 40 and above: MODERATE RISK >240 MG/DL; HIGH RISK .260 MG/DL
Onset of elevation of CK-MB: 4-6 HOURS

Test for CK non specific: COLORIMETRIC ENDPOINT ​

HEMATOLOGY

1. Screening test for PNH?

a. Sucrose Hemolysis Test ​c. Ham’s test
 b. Autohemolysis test ​d. Osmotic Fragility Test

MICRO-PARA

1. Largest DNA virus

a. Parvovirus ​c. Hepadnavirus
b. Poxvirus ​d. Adenovirus ​
2.

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

1. Green color of amniotic fluid is cause by?

a. Bile ​c. Blood
b. Meconium ​d. NOTA
In handwashing, what is the position of hand: DOWNWARD
Hazard: (2 questions are being asked)
0 - none
1 - slightly
2 - moderate
3 - serious
4 - extreme

HISTOPATHOLOGY, MED-TECH LAWS AND ETHICS

1. What will you do if the person is accidentally being spilled with chemicals in the eye?
a. Put a mild vinegar ​c. ?????
b. Cry for help ​d. ?????

2. Is it okay for a RMT not to register in PAMET?(d ko maconstruct ang question, basta yan ang thought.)
a. YES because it is mandatory ​c. YES because it is the organization of MT
b. NO because of unstable financial status ​d. NO because you are not belong in there.
​RECALL QUESTIONS
MARCH 2016
MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

Clinical Chemistry

1. Conversion factor of uric acid: 0.059

2. Increased GH in adult: ACROMEGALY
3. Y-axis: DEPENDENT VARIABLE
4. Light produced below 700 nm: INFRARED
5. Used for derivation of LDL-C, except:
A. TC ​C. TAG
B. VLDL ​ ​D. HDL
6. Fasting for TAG in hours:
A. 12-15 hours
B. 8-10 hours
7. nexpensive, lack specificity method for urea: COLORIMETRIC; DIACETYL (4 items)
8. Differentiate VLDL from LDL and HDL
A. Protein and TAG ​C. Phospholipid and TAG
B. TAG and Cholesterol
9. Category of AST, CK and ALT: TRANSFERASES
10. Water for preparation of standard solution: TYPE I
11. Which has no isoenzymes?
a. CK ​c. AST
b. ALP ​d. ALT
12. Method for uricase
13. Alpha 2 band
14. Acid base stereotypical for AMI
15. Relative concentration (3 times)
16. Dec. CV =
17. Test that Assess throxine level
18. Useful in TDM
I. Protein level
II. Liver Function
III. Renal function
a. I
b. I, II
c. None
D. I, II, III
19. First morning collection
20. Counter-ion of sodium?
a. potassium ​
b. Magnesium
c. chloride ​ ​
d. calcium
21. 13s 1 consecutive values in which they are in +/-3:
22. Nephelometry: SCATTERED LIGHT
23. Answer: Patient prep
24. Cortisol level in morning and evening
25. Order of capillary blood
26. Gaussian curve
I. Bell shaped
II. Levy jennings
III. Westgard rule
A. Always
B. Never
C. Occasional
D. Sometmes
27. Quality assurance
I. Training
II. Research
A. Always
B. Never
C. Occasional
D. Sometmes
28. T-test
29. 99.99% negative result
A. Clinical specificity
B. Clinical sensitivity
30. Negative risk in CHF
31. Reliability
32. I foil ang sample
33. The best usage of serum electrophoresis (2 times)
34. Glycated hgb
35. Drives off bicarbonate system
A. CO2
B. Carbonic acid (handwritten)
C. Bicarbnate
36. Normality
37. Ectopic pregnancy dec hcg
A. 10 days
B. 3-5
C. 7 days
D.
38. Heat lamp laser
39. AzotemiaLevel of urea in blood if there is azotemia: increased
40. Cv tag
41. Gluconeogenesis
42. Trend
43. Ability of liver to transport bile (2 times)
44. Site for capillary blood collection in newborn
45. O-toluidine
46. Creamy layer Creamy top after performing standing plasma test
47. Hazard level 0: no hazard
48. Hazard level 2: moderate
49. Pathogenic cause of increased GGT? Alcoholic liver DSE?
50. Amylase: acute pancreatitis
51. Values of TAG and HDL that have a high risk for MI in a 50 year old man
52. Hormone helps in regulating blood pressure: aldosterone

Microbiology

rd
1. 3 specie of taenia: t. Asiatica
2. Best QC used for identification of parasites
3. Cause of uti in young females: S. saprophiticus
4. Parasite acquired thru skin penetration: hookworm, strongyloides stercorales
5. Larva seen in sputum: ascaris
6. Color of non acid fast bacilli: blue
7. Ginaproduce sa s. Aures na maka cause ug clot sa coat test: clumping factor?
8. Smears of csf are prepared from: CSF sediment
9. Purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium: inhibit normal flora
10. Mycoplasma are not true bacteria because: they have no cell wall
11. Aspergillus: czapeck medium
12. Acridine orange stains what?: nucleic acid?

Clinical Microscopy

1. Gastric tubeless analysis (no diagnex in choices)

2. Stimulate pepsinogen
3. Positive rxn on MPS paper test (Blue, brown, red, yellow
4. Transparency of urine: against a newspaper print
5. Clue cell: G. Vaginalis
6. SSA reading. Turbidity with flocculation without granulation: 2+
7. Temp of urine for drug testing: 32.5-37.7
8. Total magnification of Lpf: 10x
9. Waste disposal sa radioactive: PNRI?

Hematology

1. Presence of microcytosis causes what value in platelet using automated hematology analyzer? SPURIOUS
INCREASE

2. Stomatocytes graded as 3+:

a. 3-10/fields ​c. >20/fields
b. None of these ​ ​ . 11-20/fields ​
d

3. Spherocytes graded as 3+:

a. 3-10/fields ​c. >10/fields
b. 1-5/fields ​ ​ ​ ​d. >20/fields
4. Causes positive error:
a. BUBBLES
b. ELECTRICAL PULSES
c. All of the above
d. APERTURE PLUGS

5. Marked decreased platelet count:

 a. 0-49,000/uL ​ ​c. 401,000-599,000/uL
b. 100,000-149,000/uL ​d. 600,000-800,000/uL
6. Alpha, dense granules, mitochondria and lysosomes can be found in: (twice)
a. Membranous system ​ ​c. Peripheral zone
b. Organelle zone ​ ​d. Sol-gel zone
7. Responsible for platelet adhesion
a. Membranous system ​ c​ . Peripheral zone
b. Oganelle zone ​ . Sol-gel zone
d

8. After activation of factor X, what will happen?

a. CONVERSION OF PROTHROMBIN INTO THROMBIN
b.
9. Differentiate AML from ALL
a. PAS
b. Peroxidase

10. Numerous cytoplasmic granules, >2 nuclei

11. Group not consumed during coagulation
a.Contact , prothrombin
b. Contact
c. Contact, prothrombin, Thrombin
d. Contact, thrombin

12. Cofactor of fibrin clot : Source of alpha granules

a. VIII: VWF
b. V
c. HMWK

13. Poormans Aggregation

a. Platelet aggregometry
b.
c.
d. Blood film

14. Coagulation test sample should be centrifuged

a. 120
b. 240
c. 60
d. 90

15. Laboratory test for for fibrinolysis

a. Euglobin lysis time
b. PT
c. APTT
d.

16. Heparin
17. Nonheparin
18. Stem cell marjker
19. Last stage of mitosis but capable of division
20. Last stage of Hgb synthesis
21. Maintain the disc shape of platelet
a. Thombosthenin
b.
c. None of these
d. Tubulin
22. Screening test for sickle cell
23. 3 or more stippled cell
a. Heavy Marked
b. Marked
c. Slight
d. Moderate
24. Rouleaux 2+
25. Abnormal chemotactic and phagocytic function
a. Hurler
b. Alder Reilly
c. CGD
d. May heglin
26.
a.
b.
c.
d. Inclusion
27.
BArr bodies

28. Px with MM, expected in blood smear

a.
b.
c. Rouleux
d.

29. Acquired Cytosomal defect

a. dohle
b. vaculation
c. All of these
d. Toxic granules

30. Derived in RBC histogram

a. MPV, RDW
b. MCV, RDW
c.
D.
31. Anticoagulant for Sucrose hemolysis test
32. Microhematocrit
33. Layer of spun hematocrit
34. Dilution for 3.1 - 30 WBC x 10^9
35. Effect on platelet in diluting fluid when delayed testing
a. Fragmentation
b. Aggregation
c. Proliferation
d. Disintegrate
36. Presence of retics in circulation detects / test the _____ phase
a. Maturation
b. Circulation
c.
d.
37. Severe anemia result in ESR
38. Ref ESR
39. Reagent in automated machine for WBC counting
A. Lysing
B. Cleaning
C.

40. Rule of three

41. Hypochromia grading
42. Increased MPV due to decreased platlet count
A. Increased detruction
B. Incompetent thrmbopoiesis
C. Autoimmune
D.
1. Not from a myeloid…. : lymphocyte
2. Responsible for platelet adhesion and aggregation: peripheral zone
3. Contains alpha, dense granules, lyzozymes: organelle zone
4. Rouleaux grading 2+: 5-10 rbcs
5. About electrical impedance (2x)
6. Effect of vibration of ref in ESR: increased
7. Variation in size: anisocytosis
 8. Directly measured by electrical impedance: RBC, WBC, Hgb
9. Pag magcount saw ug wbc sa automated something unsa na reagent gamiton: lysing agent
10. Test for HB S: dithionate na? Di ko sure
11. Stem cell marker: CD34
12. Large granular lymphocyte: NK cell (do ko sure if sa hema pa Jud to GI ask)
13. APC: macropage and monocyte
14. Sex identification: Barr bodies
15. Azurophilic granules: primary granules?
16. Basic something sa vascular…. : platelets?
17. Basic something sa intravascular….: platelets ug coag factors/ Proteins?
18. Term called in plug formation: aggregation?
19. Screening test for fibrinolysis: euglobulin test?

ISBB
1. Tempearture sa warmer na mutingog siya
2. Number of wrong blood tube collection
A. Occurence
3. Pila ka percent sa blood ang allowable if short draw sa bleeding
A. 20
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
4. Dilution
5. Prozone
6. Blood group ass. With M. pneumoniae: Anti-I
7. Mongolian ancestry: Diego
8. Anti-smooth muscle antibody: diff. Chronic active HEPA from ale(2x)
9. IgG, IgD, IgE- monomeric
10. Columbus: syphilis
11. Common cause of ihtr
12. Rh phenotype of Asian: DCe
13. Target cell by HIV
14. ankylosing spondylitis
15. Granulocyte shelf-life:

Histopathology
1. Which is a cytoplasmic stain without glacial acetic acid? Flemmings with acetic acid, newcomers,
orths, carnoys
2. ASAP means: as soon as possible
3. “ITIS” :inflammation
4. The plasma was spilled. The MT diluted the sample with NSS. What is being violated?
5. Proper attire when performing autopsy?
6. FNAC obtained thru?
7. Blood banks are classified according to?
8. Ideal Comfort room in the laboratory

​CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
1. Measure pH in blood gas: ​Potentiometry[difference of potential voltage; ISE (specific) ]
​K ​- V​ alinomycin gel
+

​Na -​ ​Glass aluminium silicate

+

-​ ​ rganic liquid membrane

2+
Ca and Lithium O

​ H, pCO -​ G​ lass
p 2

2. Conversion factor for bilirubin: ​

17.1(umol/L)
3. Reduction method of glucose that uses arsenomolybdate- Nelson Somogyi

​Hagedorn – Jensen ​Ferric reduction method (inverse colorimetry)

​H O​ à O + H O [​ oxygen is measured through Polarography- measure O
2 2 2 2 2
depletion and through
Trinder’s Reaction; both Polarography and Trinder’s reaction tests for O2 concentration
4. Hypothyroidism effect on TAG and Cholesterol level- INCREASE ​
5. Acute Phase Reactants - ​ ​“CHACA”
​
α-1-acid glycoprotein, α-1-antitrypsin, C-Reactive Protein, Cerruloplasmin, Haptoglobin
6. APR migrates at β region- C-Reactive Protein

​Only α2 migrating APR- Haptoglobin, Cerruloplasmin, and α2 macroglobulin

7. Reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration: ​FIRST ORDER

​
NOTE
​reaction rate is directly proportional to the Enzyme concentration
zEro Order-

​ ichaelis-MentenKinetics E+S à ES à Enzyme Product

M
8. Anticonvulsant drug used for treatment of petitmal and absence seizure and grand mal- Valproic Acid

9. Normal BUN:Creatinine Ratio ​- ​10-20:1

10. Bilirubin value 28mg/dL: ​Report Immediately
​NOTE: ​-Serum measured 2-3 hours
​ ​-Visible icterisia occurs: BILIRUBIN >25mg/L
11. over secretion of Growth Hormone in adult: A ​ cromegaly
​In children, gigantism
12. Hazard level 4: Extreme Danger

13. High risk for coronary heart disease (CHD): ≥ 240 mg/dL ​
14. X axis: Horizontal and Independent variable

​Note: DOY- Y axis, Ordinate, Dependent variable ​

​ AXI- X axis, Abscissa, Independent variable

15. Estradiol: ovary ​

16. VLDL cholesterol in mg/dL: FORMULA FOR VLDL

​Friedewald Method (Indirect Method)

​VLDL (mmol/L) = Plasma TAG/2.175
​VLDL (mg/dL) = Plasma TAG/5.0
​De Long Method (Indirect Method)
​VLDL (mmol/L) = Plasma TAG/2.825
​VLDL (mg/dL)= Plasma TAG/6.5
+
17. Counter ion of Na :Chloride
2
18. Counter balance of Na : Potassium

​
MICROBIOLOGY
1. Outer layer corticated egg- ​Mammilliated layer, albuminoid
​Glycogen- middle layer
​Vitelline layer, Lipoidal Membrane- inner layer
2. use to demonstrate lateral branches of Taenia- ​India Ink
​Taeniasolium- ​7-13 dendritic or finger like
​Taeniasaginata- ​15-20 dichotomous / tree-like lateral branches
​Hematoxylin- most commonly used stain in Histopath
​Papaniculao- best morphological stain for sperm
nd
3. 2 intermediate host of Paragonimuswestermani: Fresh water crab [also cray fish- a crab not a fish]

​ st
1 Intermediate Host: Sundathelphusaphilippina
4. S. aureus – Coagulase (+)
5. Non-gonococcal urethritis- C. trachomatis

6. Salmonella blood culture collection: ​2-3 specimens within a 24-hour period th

7. RPM for centrifugation of bacteria – if volume is >1mL spin 20 minutes 3000xg (ref:Mahon 5 edition
page119)
8.
1. HEPA means:
A. Hepatitis Testing
B. High efficacy particulate air
C. High efficiency particulate air
D. High efficient particulate air

2. What lipoprotein is responsible for endogenous transport of lipid?

A. VLDL ​B. HDL ​C. Chylomicrons ​D. LDL
3. What lipoprotein is responsible for exogenous transport of lipid?
​
A. VLDL ​B. HDL ​C. Chylomicrons ​D. LDL
4. Which of the ff. Is the conversion factor for SUA?
A. 0.059 ​B. 0.0357 ​C. 0.058 ​D. 3. 57

​ 3
5. 80. A blood smear shows 80 nucleated RBC. The total leukocytes count is 18 x 10 /uL. The true WBC count
expressed in SI units is:
3
a. 7.2 x 10 /uL ​c. 10.0 x 10 /uL
3

3
b. 9.0 x 10 /uL ​d. 13.4 x 10 /uL
3

6. Pfeiffer bacillus:
​A. Hemophilus influenzae ​C. Corynebacterium diphteriae
​B. Hemophilus hemolyticus ​D. Vibrio cholerae
7. Which of the ff. Is/are part of QAP Analytical? (NO ANSWER)
​A. All of the above
​B. Request of the physician
​C. Reading of colonies/ examination/work-up
8. Marker for tubular disease:
​A. ​C. Hemoglobinuria
​B. Dark brown cast ​D. >100 WBC/hpf
9. Which of the ff. Is used as smear for BM?
A. Crushed ​C. Particle
B. Concentrate ​D. All of the above
10. Immunocyte:
​A. Basophil ​C. Monocyte
​B. Lymphocyte ​D. Eosinophil
11. What smear maybe prepared for automated staining?
​A. Wedge ​C. Buffy coat
​B. Coverslip ​D. All of the above

12. Tube used for coagulation test

​A. 75 x 10 mm plastic
 ​B. 75 x 10 mm glass
​C. 100 x 10 mm plastic
​D. 100 x 10 mm glass
13. Which of the ff. Recognizes unlikely combination of values?
​A. Delta check
​B. Pattern recognition
​C. Median
​D.
14. How many days is the incubation for fungi in bone marrow sample?
​A. 28 ​B. 20 ​C. 14 ​D. 7
15. Which of the ff. May be mistaken as parasite in macroscopic examination?
​A. Supplement bulk that forms fiber
​B. Vegetable
​C. All of the above
​D. Chewing gum
16. What is the Max. Blood drawn in RBC pheresis
17. What is DNA polymorphism
18. What is the tag used in indirect immunoflorescence for toxoplasma ab.?
19. Bence jones protein description and temp.
20. Logo for sharps waste disposal
21. Description of biosafety hazard symbol
22. What will you do if you have observe busted light in your laboratory.
23. How to open potentially infectious ampule

​September 2015 MT Licensure Examination Recall Questions:

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY:

1. Effects of fever to pCo2: INCREASED by 3%

2. Reactivity hazard: YELLOW
3. Bilirubin concentration in bile duct obstruction: INCREASED IN CONJUGATED BILIRUBIN
4. Bilirubin concentration in hepatic jaundice: INCREASED IN UNCONJUGATED AND CONJUGATED
BILIRUBIN ​
5. Bilirubin concentration in pre-hepatic jaundice: INCREASED IN UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN
6. Conversion factor of uric acid: 0.059
7. Enzyme increased in alleged rape: ACP
8. 10x increased in CK:
A. AMI
B. Muscular Dystrophy
9. Increased GH in adult: ACROMEGALY (Recall question from August 2013 MTLE)
10. Drug for petit mal seizure: VALPROIC ACID
11. X-axis: HORIZONTAL; INDEPENDENT VARIABLE
12. Light produced below 400 nm: UV
13. Used for derivation of LDL-C, except:
B. TC ​C. TAG
B. VLDL ​ ​D. HDL
14. Formula for VLDL in mmol/L:
A. TAG/5 ​
B. TAG/2.175
15. Least specific enzyme. Found in many cells: LDH
16. Every 10% contamination with 5% dextrose will increase the glucose in the blood by ____ mg/dL? : 500
mg/dL
17. Cut off value of total cholesterol at moderate risk is >200 mg/dL and high risk at >240 mg/dL. What age
group is this?
A. 2-19 ​C. 30-39
B. 20-29 D. >40​
18. Fasting for TAG in hours:
A. 12-15 hours
B. 8-10 hours
19. Benzoylecgonine is a metabolite of: COCCAINE (Recall question from August 2013 MTLE)
20. All of the following are emergency situation, except:
A. Glycosuria ​C. Hyperkalemia
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
21. True about DM type I:
A. Common in children ​C. All are true
B. Absolute insulin deficiency ​D. Beta cell destruction
22. Transport exogenous TAG: CHYLOOMICRONS ​
23. Transport endogenous TAG: VLDL
24. Transport cholesterol: LDL
25. Concentration of TAG in hypothyroidism:
A. Increased C. Unaffected ​
B. Decreased
26. Glucose metabolism at room temperature: DECREASED BY 7 MG/DL/HOUR
27. Measures pH:
A. Potentiometry
B. pH electrode
28. Related to female hormone abnormality/imbalance?
A. Hirsutism ​C. All are true
B. Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome ​D. -------------------
29. Basal state collection:
A. After dinner ​
B. Early morning ​C. After lunch
30. Useful male sex hormone. A major androgen:
A. DHEA ​
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone C. Testosterone ​
31. Inexpensive, lack specificity method for urea: COLORIMETRIC; DIACETYL
32. Differentiate VLDL from LDL and HDL
C. Protein and TAG ​
C. Phospholipid and TAG
D. TAG and Cholesterol
33. Category of AST, CK and ALT: TRANSFERASES
34. Test/s for liver transplantation:
A. Bilirubin ​C. Coagulation factors, bilirubin, liver enzymes
B. Coagulation factors, bilirubin ​D. Bilirubin, liver enzymes
35. Glands that produces hormones:
A. Thyroid and parathyroid
B. Anterior and Posterior pituitary gland
C. Thyroid, parathyroid, anterior and posterior pituitary gland
36. High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC
37. Class II cabinet: LAMINAR FLOW
38. Water for preparation of standard solution: TYPE I
39. Screening test for cushing syndrome:
A. 24-hour urine cortisol ​C. All are true
B. Dexamethasone suppresion test ​D. ------------------
40. Extraction of blood for neonates:
A. Capillary ​B. Vein ​C. Blood spot
41. Middle: MEDIAN
42. Hypoglycemia in DM:
A. Exercise ​C. All are true
B. Overzealous treatment ​D. Fasting
43. Automation:
A. Continuous flow analyzer ​C. All are true
B. Discrete ​D. Centrifugal
44. Major NPN:
A. Urea ​
C. Creatinine
B. Uric Acid
45. Effect of renin:
A. Low plasma sodium
B. Low plasma potassium
46. What does R in RACE means: RESCUE
47. Confirm result of FT3 and FT4: TBG
48. Refers to the delivery of the drug to the tissue: DISTRIBUTION
49. Drug detected in 45 days: THC (MARIJUANA)
50. Kidney disease associated with group A streptococci infection: ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
51. Contact time of bleach: 20 MINUTES
52. OGTT patient should ingest: 150G/DAY OF GLUCOSE FOR 3 DAYS

53. In venipuncture, a medtech enters the vein at what angle to the arm?
a. 45 ​b. 90 ​c. 30 ​d. 15
54. Female hormone imbalances causes:
a. Infertility ​b. PCOS ​c. Hirsutism ​d. AOTA
55. Neonate has cold feet and is undergoing light therapy. What should you NOT do?
a. Puncture at lateral side of heel
b. Tell the nurse to wrap the feet with a warm towel for 3-5 minutes
c. Puncture 3mm deep
d. Stop light therapy

56. Liver enzyme, significant if decrease, not in increase:

a. Cholinesterase ​c. ALT
b. AST ​d. AMS
57. Used to test patency of biliary tract:
a. Ratio of conjugated to total bilirubin
b. ALP
c. Bilirubin

58. Used to examine state of biliary epithelium.

a. ALP ​b. Albumin
59. For HVMA testing, avoid:
a. Banana and coffee ​c. Banana and tea
b. Coffee and tea ​d. Banana, coffee and tea
60. Jaffe endpoint:
a. Colorimetric endpoint ​c. Enzymatic H2O2
b. Enzymatic colorimetric ​d. Colorimetric kinetic
61. More sensitive for urea but has a problem in specificity:
a. Enymatic
b. Colorimetric

62. Extinguishes class A fire:

 a. Dry chemical ​c. Sand
b. Water ​d. Carbon dioxide
63. Causes mechanical injury:
a. Refrigerator and centrifuge
b. Refrigerator and compressed gas from cylinder
c. Centrifuge and compressed gas from cylinder
d. ------------------------

64. Primary hazard for medtechs working in a laboratory:

a. Wound and punture
b. Aerosol
c. Contact in abraided skin

65. Alcohol concentration of 0.25-0.40%. What is its effect on the person?

a. Impaired motor skills ​c. Loss of critical thinking
b. Loss of consciousness ​d. Coma and death
66. Bell-shaped curve
a. Mean> Mode
b. Mean=Median=Mode ​
67. Point-of-care blood glucose, who can perform:
a. Medtech only
b. Non lab-personnel and diabetic patient
c. Nurse ​
68. Cholesterol level of 240 mg/dL is moderate risk and above 360 mg/dL is great risk. What age group?
a. 20-29 ​c. >40
b. 2-19 ​d. 30-39
69. Hyperthyroidism, effects in TAG:
a. Increased ​c. No effect
b. Decreased ​
70. Enzymes found in skeletal muscles, heart and liver: AST

71. LD belongs to what class?

a. Oxidoreductase ​c. Transferase
b. Hydrolase ​
72. Which has no isoenzymes?
c. CK ​c. AST
d. ALP ​d. ALT
73. AST and CK belong to what class?
a. Oxidoreductase ​c. Transferase
b. Hydrolase ​
74. Enzyme for drinker: GGT

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY:

1. Double zone of hemolysis: C.perfringens

2. Destroyed by oxygen: STREPTOLYSIN O
3. Positive for beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method: COLOR CHANGE
4. Media that stimulates the production of chlamydospores? ​
a. Brain heart infusion agar ​c. Cornmeal
b. Czapek agar ​
d. Urease test
5. Wuchereria: ELEPHANTIASIS
6. Creamy yellow colony: S.aureus
7. Optochin test: >14MM ZONE OF INHIBITION, 6MM THICK OF DISK
8. Lowest concentration of drug to kill the organism: MBC
9. Test used to diagnose infection of G.lamblia: ENTERO TEST
10. What is the best QC used for identification of parasites?
a. Atlas ​c. Pictures of eggs and parasites
b. Prepared stained glass ​
d. ---------------------------
11. Small lateral spine: S.japonicum
12. Test/s to differentiate Mycobacterium species?
a. Time of growth ​c. All are correct
b. Photoreactivity ​d. Biochemical test
13. Specimen for N.gonorrheae:
1. Eye discharge ​3. Rectum
2. Vaginal discharge ​4. Gastric fluid
a. 1,2 ​c. 1,2,3,4
b. 2,3 ​d. 1,2,3
14. Diphtheria toxin in vitro: Elek test
15. Bacteria that shows colorless colonies with black centers: SALMONELLA
16. How is bacterial genus written: CAPITALIZE
17. Bacteria that requires 7.5% salt concentration: S.aureus
18. Medium that differentiates lactose from nonlactose fermenters: MACKONKEY AGAR
19. Positive result for hair perforation test: V-SHAPED PENETRATION OF THE HAIR SHAFT
20. Fluorescent dye for fungi: CALCOFLUOR WHITE
21. All of the following groups of viruses are resistant to ether treatment, except:
a. Herpesvirus ​c. Enterovirus
b. Adenovirus ​d. Reovirus
22. 90% Plasmodium cases:
a. P. Vivax ​c. P. falciparum
b. P. falciparum and P. vivax ​d. P. Ovale
23. Dwarf tapeworm: H.nana
24. Which of the following are hermpaphroditic?
1. Flukes
2. Roundworms
3. Tapeworms
a. 1,2 ​
b. 1,3 ​
c. 2,3
25. Which of the following is characteristic of eggs of hookworms?
a. An embryo in the 2-8 cell stage of cleavage
b. Oval, thin shell
c. Clear space between the shell and embryo
d. All are correct
26. A roundworm that inhabits the small intestine and usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal
specimen is the:
a. Threadworm ​c. Whipworm
b. Roundworm ​d. Hookworm
27. Recommended venipuncture site for protozoans:
a. Vein ​c. Anticoagulated
b. Finger puncture d. Arterial ​
28. Cutaneous Larva Migrans or creeping eruption is caused by:
a. Larvae of pinworms ​c. Filariform stage of dog hookworm
b. Microfilariae d. Metacercariae ​
29. Site for virion assembly: NUCLEUS OR CYTOPLASM
30. TAT for fungal element in bone marrow or respiratory specimen:
a. 7 days ​c. 27 days
 b. 20 days ​
d. 21 days
31. “CRABS” is caused by: ______________
a. Ectoparasite ​c. Fungus
b. Allergy ​d. Virus
32. Stool delayed for more than 30 minutes, fix in what:
a. Schaudinn’s ​c. Saline glycerol
b. 10% formalin ​d. PVA
33. False for transport media
a. Contain only salts and buffer
b. Have organic nutrient support
c. Anaerobic

34. Direct fecal smear, use what?

a. Saline or iodine
b. Acid fast stain

35. Infective stage of leishmania

a. Trypomastigote ​b. Promastigote ​c. Larva ​d. Ova
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY:

1. Acronym used to operate fire extinguisher: PASS

2. What does “A” in race stands for: ALARM
3. Urine color of patient with porphyrin: PORT WINE/BURGUNDY
4. Preferred specimen for routine analysis: FIRST MORNING URINE
5. Specimen for urine culture (outpatient)
​a. Catheterization ​c. Midstream clean catch
b. Suprapubic ​d. Second morning specimen
6. Blondheim’s test: DIFFERENTIATE HEMOGLOBIN FROM MYOGLOBIN
7. Pattern of cast formation (from normal to pathologic/significant): HYALINE,WBC,RBC,GRANULAR
Note: PROTOTYPE CAST: HYALINE - CELLULAR - GRANULAR - WAXY
8. Normally found in the urine of a person who undergone a strenuous exercise:
a. Cylindruria ​c. WBC
b. RBC ​
9. Positive color for ketone: PURPLE
10. If the hand is NOT soiled, what action SHOULD be done?
a. Apply sanitizer
b. Do the routine handwashing
11. Renal blood flow: 1200ML/MIN
12. Non-selective filter of plasma substances have a MW of: >70,000 Da
13. Renal threshold for glucose:160-180 mg/dL
14. Alkaline urine: RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS
15. In this test, the patient is deprived of fluid for 24 hour then measure the urine SG: FISHBERG TEST
16. Require a timed specimen: UROBILINOGEN
17. Sediment’s in urine will disappear if the urine will not be delivered in the laboratory for: 2 HOURS
18. Process that provides documentation of proper sample identification from the time of collection to the receipt
of laboratory results: COC (CHAIN OF CUSTODY)
19. Changes in unpreserved urine: INCREASED IN PH, BACTERIA; DECREASED IN KETONE,
NITRITE
20. Few particulate, print easily seen through urine: HAZY
21. Fruity odor of urine: DM
22. Principle of bilirubin: DIAZO REACTION
23. Principle of nitrite: GREISS REACTION
24. Specific gravity of 9% sucrose that is used to calibrate refractometer: 1.034
25. Multiple Myeloma: URINE NOT SOLUBLE TO 40-60 DEGREE CELSIUS
26. Grading of turbidity with granulation and flocculation in SSA (protein): 3+
27. What would be the possible reason on why doctor requested a clinitest in his/her patient:
a. He wants to have more reliable result
b. Because he believes that the patient have inborn error of metabolism
28. Percentage of Acetoacetid acid: 20%
29. Reagent for nitrite: P-ARSANILIC ACID AND TETRAHYDROBENZOQUINOLIN
30. What would happen to the RBC if there is increased urine output?
a. Crenate ​c. Dysmorphic
b. Shrink ​
31. Predominating WBC seen in urine: PMN
32. Calcium oxalate crystal appearance: DOUBLE-ENVELOPE
33. Staircase pattern crystal. With notch in one or more corners: CHOLESTEROL
34. Appearance of ALA synthase in urine: LEAD POISONING
35. Yellowish to brownish red and moderately hard crystal: URIC ACID
36. True about sputum:
a. Normal body fluid
b. Normal color is green ​
37. Curschmann spirals in sputum: COILED MUCUS STRAND SEEN MACRSCOPICALLY ​
38. Migrating larva in lungs: ASH (ASCARIS, STRONGYLOIDES, HOOKWORM)
39. hCG is produced in: CYTOTROPHOBLAST CELLS OF THE PLACENTA
40. Preservation of CSF for cell count: REFRIGERATED
41. Normal value of CSF protein in adult: 15-4 MG/DL
42. Increased in CSF protein:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. AIDS
c. Neurosyphilis
43. Test for ammonia in CSF: GLUTAMINE
44. Limulus lysate test: ENDOTOXIN DETECTION IN GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA
45. Specimen requirement for semen:
1. Sexual abstinence for two weeks
2. No alcohol
3. No smoking
a. 1,2 ​b. 2,3 ​
c. 1,3 ​
d. 1 only
46. Acrosomal cap of the sperm occupies: 1/2 OF SPERM HEAD
47. Stain for sperm morphology: PAPANICOLAU STAIN
48. If the seminal fluid fructose is not tested within 2 hours, what should be done? FROZEN
49. Immature sperm cells: SPERMATIDS
50. Neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic granules containing rheumatoid factor: RAGOCYTES
51. Gastric fluid specimen collection: 1 HOUR COLLECTION, 4 SPECIMENS
52. Histamine is used to: STIMULATE GASTRIC ACID SECRETION
53. Gray color of stool: BARIUM SULFATE AND BILE DUCT OBSTRCUTION
54. Principle of automated reagent strip reader: REFLECTANCE PHOTOMETRY
55. What protein is usually seen in the urine of children:
a. Myoglobin ​
b. Hematin ​
NOTE: Letter A po ung pnka close na pdeng masagot dito. Kasi po ang mga bata, malilikot tska sobrang active,
so possible talaga na magtaas ang myoglobin level sa serum and possibly madedetect later on sa urine.
56. Seen in melanuria? ALBINISM ​
57. How is cystine crystal being reported?
a. Few, moderate, many, numerous
b. 1+, 2+, 3+
c. Per LPF

58. How is urothelial cells being reported?

a. Few, moderate, many, numerous
b. 1+, 2+, 3+
c. Per LPF
d. Per HPF

59. In hCG testing: There is a very faint line at T zone area. How do you report?
a. Negative
b. Positive because any weak reaction is still positive
c. Report as low titer, recommend report after 48 hours
d. Ask pathologist what to report

60. During microscopy, medteh working at primary laboratory suspect that what she sees is calcium oxalate. But
the atypical form. What test should she do and what result is expected to confirm it?
a. Add acetic acid, the crystal are insoluble
b. Add acetic acid, the crystal are soluble
 c. Add alcohol, another type of crystal forms aside from the current
61. You see flower-like crystal with petals of 5-8. After adding alcohol, you see another form of crystal aside
from the previously seen crystal. What are they?
a. 2 types of leucine ​c. Cystine and leucine
b. Tyrosine and leucine ​d. Cystine and ammonium biurate
62. Type of sputum specimen for bacteriology analysis:
a. Broncho-alveolar ​c. Saline-induced expectoration
b. Mouthwashed-induced expectoration ​
63. A true sputum characteristic:
a. Produced by tracheo-bronchial tree ​c. Normal body secretion
b. Usually green ​
64. Doctor orders both benedicts test and reagent strip for sugar of 9 month old baby. When could He do this?
a. Doctor doesn’t trust the reagent strip
b. Benedicts is more sensitive
c. This is a routine test for all babies below 1 year old
d. Doctor suspects IEM

65. When can you say it’s polyuria?

a. More than 3L/24 hours
b. Urinated more than 20x a day
c. Urinated more than 10X a day
d. Consistently more than 2L/24 hours

66. Doctor requests sperm count to be done on undiluted seminal fluid. What can you see?
a. Hemacytometer
b. Neubauer counting chamber
c. None
d. Makler’s counting chamber

67. CSF protein manual procedure:

a. Turbidimetry and electrophoresis
b. Turbidimetry and dye binding
c. Immunoelectrophoresis

68. What is the color of trash bin for “biodegradable”?

a. Black ​b. Green ​c. Yellow ​d. Red
69. MOARSE TYPE: causes infertility in males:
1. Drug abuse
2. Alcoholism

70. MOARSE TYPE: contaminants that causes turbidity in female urine:

1. Squamous epithelial cells
2. Mucus threads
3. Spermatozoa
4. Yeast cells

71. Stains neutrophils blue-purple and pus cells red:

a. Diff-quick ​c. Papanicolau
b. Wright’s stain ​d. Steinheimer-Malbin
72. Grounds that tells you that the stool sample should have been REJECTED:
a. Predominance of talc granules
b. Background does not obscure
c. Ova can be seen without overlapping
 d. NOTA

73. MOARSE TYPE: you are unsure of the identity of the cyst or ova. What do you do?
1. Preserve with 10% formalin then consult another medtech
2. Refer to picture and charts
3. Pass on to senior medtech immediately

74. Seen in urine after episode of hemoglobinuria

a. Bilirubin crystal ​b. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages
75. More specific test for cystitis: NITRITE

76. Found in serum, used for the diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

a. Gastrin ​b. Pepsin ​c. Pepsinogen
77. Drug testing: Donor’s urine is outside the temperature range. What do you do?
a. Tell donor to wait, process specimen
b. Tell donor to collect specimen again then report to your supervisor
c. Repeat collection the next day
d. Reject donor and report to PDEA

78. Bacteria 4+ but negative nitrite. Culture confirms E.coli. Why the nitrite is negative?
a. Bacteria not numerous enough
b. Bacteria reduces nitrite to ammonia
c. E.coli has no reductase
d. Pass-through effect

HEMATOLOGY

1. Computation of RBC count: # of cells x 200 x 5 /10

2. Normal number of nucleated RBC in peripheral smear: 5 nRBCs
3. Formula of corrected WBC count: Corrected WBC count = uncorrected WBC count x 100/# of nRBC +
100
4. Seen in megaloblastic anemia.
a. Folic acid deficiency ​c. Both A and B
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency ​ d. Neither A and B
5. X-axis: INDEPENDENT VARIABLE; HORIZONTAL; ABSCISSA
6. If their is shunt or fistula in the patient, how will you going to extract blood?
a. No extraction on the site where the shunt/fistula is being inserted
b. Extraction is allowed for as long as there is precautions
c. No extraction is allowed
7. Presence of microcytosis causes what value in platelet using automated hematology analyzer? SPURIOUS
INCREASE
8. Acute Megakaryocytic Leukemia: M7
8. Test to differentiate AML and ALL: SBB AND MPO IS + FOR AML AND NEGATIVE FOR ALL
9. Seen in infection, burns and WBC with ribosomal RNA: DOHLE BODIES
10. Abnormal granules packing: CHEDIAK-HIGASHI SYNDROME
11. Computation of reticulocyte count: # of cells counted/1000 x 100
12. Codocytes graded as 3+:
a. 3-10/fields ​c. >20/fields
b. 11-20/fields ​ ​d. >50/fields
13. Which of the following is correct?
a. Leptocytes = thin cell ​c. All are true
b. Dacryocyte = teardrop cells

14. Inclusion present in patient with lead poisoning: BASOPHILIC STIPPLINGS

15. Other name of basophilic stipplings: PUNCTUATE BASOPHILIA
16. Microcytosis is derined as less than ____um diameter of RBC
a. 6 ​c. 9
b. 8 ​d. 10
17. What would be the reason of under-filled tube?
a. There is no vacuum in tube ​c. All are true
b. Tube is expired ​d. Stoppage of flow of the blood into the syringe
18. Test/s for PNH:
a. Sugar water test ​c. All are true
b. Sucrose hemolysis ​d. Acid-serum test
19. Nitroblue Tetrazolium Dye test is used to diagnose: CHRONIC GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE
20. Causes positive error: BEA (BUBBLES, ELECTRICAL PULSES, APERTURE PLUGS)
21. Causes negative error: EXCESSIVE LYSIS OF RBC
22. Causes increase in hemoglobin: ​
a. Stress ​c. All are true
b. Exercise ​d. High altitude
23. Slightly decrease platelet count:
a. 0-49,000/uL ​c. 401,000-599,000/uL
b. 100,000-149,000/uL ​d. 600,000-800,000/uL
24. Alpha, dense granules, mitochondria and lysosomes can be found in:
c. Membranous system ​c. Peripheral zone
d. Organelle zone ​d. Sol-gel zone
25. Cell that has a lifespan of an average of 10 days: THROMBOCYTE
26. Cell that has a maturation day of 121 days; ERYTHROCYTE
27. Reliable criterion ot differentiate mature from immature cell: NUCLEAR CHROMATIN
28. Fibrin clot formation is seen in: SECONDARY HEMOSTASIS
29. Vitamin K dependent factor: PROTHROMBIN GROUP (II,VII,XI,X)
30. Other name of Prekallekrein: FLETCHER FACTOR
31. Measures the degree of anisocytosis: RED CELL DISTRIBUTION WIDTH (RDW)
32. AML without maturation: M1
33. Differentiate CML from Leukemoid reaction: LAP SCORE
34. 3-parts differential
a. Neutrophil, Lymphocyte, Monocyte
b. Granulocyte, Lymphocyte, Monocyte
c. Monocyte, Lymphocytes, Segmenters
d. Basophil, Eosinophils, Neutrophils

35. True about Factor 9:

a. Christmas factor ​c. All are true
b. Sex-linked ​d. Hemophilia B
36. After activation of factor X, what will happen? CONVERSION OF PROTHROMBIN INTO
THROMBIN
37. Extra-medullary site of hematopoiesis: LIVER
38. Has a principle of optical density, except: FIBROMETER
39. Done in visual detection of fibrin clot formation:
a. Tilt tube method ​c. A and B
b. Using wire loop or hook ​d. NOTA
40. Found in WBC that determines the sex of an individual: BARR BODIES
41. NK-cells make up ___% of the lymphocytes in the blood?

a. 5-10 ​c. 75-80

b. 10-15 ​. ​D. Less than 10
42. MOARSE TYPE: Patient refuse to have his blood taken. What do you do immediately?
1. Inform NOD
2. Make patient sign written form stating refusal
3. Convince patient
4. Inform laboratory

a. 1 ​b. 3 ​c. 4 ​d. 1 and 2

43. Variable maturation time (from stem cell to mature form), variable life span (including tissue phase).
a. Lymphocyte ​c. Megakaryocyte
b. RBC ​d. Monocyte
44. Serves as reference for intravascular hemolysis:
a. Hematocrit ​c. Haptoglobin
b. Hemoglobin ​d. AOTA
45. Dumb-bell shaped nucleus found in:
a. Chediak-higashi ​c. Heterozygous Pelger-Huet
b. Hermansky-Pudlak ​d. Homozygoous Pelger-Huet
46. Hyposegmentation in heterozygous individuals: PELGER-HUET ANOMALY
rd
47. Site of 3 resort for venipuncture:
a. Wrist veins ​c. Area below IV line
b. Antecubital area ​d. Ankle or foot
IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING

1. MOARSE TYPE: the following are allo-antibodies

1. Anti-B
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-C
4. Anti-K

2. Characteristically found in stool of patient with helminthic infections

a. Charcot-Leyden crystals ​c. Howell-Jolly Bodies
b. Neutrophils ​d. Semi-lunar Bodies

3. HTLV-II transmitted in:

a. Human blood and semen
b. Human blood only
c. Human blood, saliva and semen
d. AOTA

4. Secretes cytokines:
a. T cell and monocytes ​c. PMNs
b. T cell, monocytes and B cells ​d. RBC
5. Most common fungal infection in HIV patient:
a. Candida ​c. Aspergillus

b. Cryptococcus ​d. ---------------

6. Emergency severe blood loss. No available O+. What is the safest to use?
a. Bombay blood ​c. Crystalloids
b. AB negative plasma ​d. AOTA
7. In flow cytometry, what parameter is not measured/assess?
a. Size ​c. reflectance
b. Granularity ​d. Electrical impedance
8. TORCHES stands for: TOXOPLASMA GONDII, RUBELLE, CMV, HSV, SYPHILIS
9. ANCA means: ANTI-NEUTROPHILIC CYTOPLASMIC ANTIBODIES
10. Size of the pore of the leukoreduction filter:
11. Method for laboratory antibody detection:
a. Indirect antiglobulin
b. Direct antiglobulin
12. Infection due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
a. Anti-I ​c. Anti-H
b. Anti-i ​d. Anti-P
13. Next to 1:10 dilution:
a. 1:20 ​c. 1:80 ​
b. 1:40 ​d. 1:160
14. Test developed by Venereal Disease Research Laboratory.
a. Wasserman ​c. RPR
b. VDRL ​d. FTA-ABS
15. Last stage of phagocytosis: DIGESTION
16. Normal time for transfusion to be done: 4 HOURS
17. HLA-B8: GRAVE’S DISEASE AND TYPE 1 DM
18. Screening test for HIV: EIA

HISTOTECHNIQUES, MEDTECH LAWS AND ETHICS

1. Specific: DEFINITE
2. Paraffin: BICONCAVE KNIFE
3. Paraffin wax melting point: 55-60 DEGREE CELSIUS (AVE 56)

4. Patient positive for HBsAg. Then the patient wants to have a test negative for HBsAg. What part of code of
ethics did you violate?
a. Honesty ​c. Integrity
b. Accuracy ​d. Precision
5. “sinisigaw-sigawan mo daw at nilait yung co-worker mo. Ano yung na violate mo?
1. Human rights
2. Code of ethics
3. ----------------
4. Ten commandments

a. 1,2 ​c. 1,2,3

 b. 2,3 ​d. All are true
6. If the medtech student graduated at 20 years old:
a. He/She is not allowed to take the board examination
b. He/She is allowed to take the board examination
c. Give COR immediately
d. It must be 21 years old and above for him/her to take the board examination

7. What is being detected in Immunohistochemistry?

a. Antigen ​c. Both
b. Antibody ​d. Neither
8. Source of monoclonal antibody:
a. Rabbit ​c. Sheep
b. Mice ​d. Human
9. TAT starts when:
a. Upon requisition of test by the doctor
b. Specimen arrived at the laboratory
c. If the specimen is received in OPD
d. After extraction

10. “Nasira daw yung ilaw sa laboratory. Ano gawin mo para mapalitan?”
a. Magrequest agad para mapalitan
b. Susulat daw muna ng accidental report kung bakit nasira

11. Other name of rotary microtome: MINOT

12. Revocation of certificate: 3/3 VOTES
13. If the medtech is being issued a case, who is the personnel responsible to investigate: 2 MEMBERS OF
THE BOARD AND @ LEAST 1 LEGAL OFFICER
14. Clearance angle of microtome: 27-32 DEGREE
15. Prosector: PATHOLOGISTS
16. Used in autopsy:
a. Camera ​c. All are true
b. Threads and needle ​d. Blade for cutting tissues
17. Best fixative: 10% BUFFERED NEUTRAL FORMALIN
18. Consists of policies, standards and guidelines for medical technology education: CMO no. 14s s. 2006
19. Who approved the board of examiners: PRESIDENT OF THE PHILIPPINES
20. Who performed autopsy?
a. Forensics ​
b. Pathologists ​c. Surgical autopsy ​d. Coroner ​
21. Clinical impression is a:
a. Presumptive diagnosis ​c. Differential diagnosis
b. Clinical diagnosis ​d. Etiologic diagnosis
22. Oxygen supply to one part of the heart is out.
a. Liquefactive necrosis ​c. Caseous necrosis
b. Coagulative necrosis ​d. Fibrinogenous necrosis
23. Medtech disregards protocol of laboratory regarding release of results
a. Gross negligence ​c. Careless
b. Ignorance of rules and responsibilities ​d. Unprofessional manner
24. Medtech refers to another medtech with cursing words, violation of:
a. Uphold the rights against dignity and respect of my profession
b. Spirit of fairness to all in a spirit of brotherhood towards other members of the profession
c. Restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions within constructive limits
 d. Share my knowledge, and expertise with my colleagues

25. MOARSE TYPE: Major classification of etiologic cause

1. Inherited or genetic
2. Acquired
3. Infectious
4. Physical or chemical

a. 1,2 ​b. 1,3 ​c. 1,2,3 ​d. 1,2,3,4

26. MOARSE TYPE: type of urine specimen
1. Voided
2. Washing of renal pelvis
3. Catheterized
4. Supra-public (dapat Supra-pubic)

a. 1 and 3 ​c. 2,3 and 4 ​

b. 1,2,3 ​d. 1,2,3 and 4
27. MOARSE TYPE: found in chronic inflammation
1. Lymphocytes
2. Macrophages
3. Collagen
4. Plasma cells

a. 1,2 ​c. 2,4

b. 1,2,3 ​d. 1,2,3,4
28. MOARSE TYPE: STAT in medicine means
​1. Immediately
2. Statim
3. As soon as possible
4. Now

a. 1,2 ​c. 2,4

b. 1,2,3 ​d. 1,2,3,4