GATE 2016 2018 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper and Answer Key

GATE
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
2016-2018
QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-1
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “Going by the _________ that many hands make light work, the school _______ involved
all the students in the task.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) principle, principal (B) principal, principle

(C) principle, principle (D) principal, principal
Q.2 “Her _______ should not be confused with miserliness; she is ever willing to assist those in
need.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) cleanliness (B) punctuality (C) frugality (D) greatness
Q.3 Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys. At the same rate, how many
minutes would it take for 100 machines to make 100 toys?
(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 100 (D) 700
Q.4 A rectangle becomes a square when its length and breadth are reduced by 10 m and 5 m,
respectively. During this process, the rectangle loses 650 m2 of area. What is the area of the
original rectangle in square meters?
(A) 1125 (B) 2250 (C) 2924 (D) 4500
Q.5 A number consists of two digits. The sum of the digits is 9. If 45 is subtracted from the
number, its digits are interchanged. What is the number?
(A) 63 (B) 72 (C) 81 (D) 90
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 For integers 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝑐, what would be the minimum and maximum values respectively of
𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 if log |𝑎| + log |𝑏| + log |𝑐| = 0?
(A) -3 and 3 (B) -1 and 1 (C) -1 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
GA 1/2
Q.7 Given that 𝑎 and 𝑏 are integers and 𝑎 + 𝑎2 𝑏 3 is odd, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(A) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are both odd (B) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are both even
(C) 𝑎 is even and 𝑏 is odd (D) 𝑎 is odd and 𝑏 is even
Q.8 From the time the front of a train enters a platform, it takes 25 seconds for the back of the
train to leave the platform, while travelling at a constant speed of 54 km/h. At the same
speed, it takes 14 seconds to pass a man running at 9 km/h in the same direction as the
train. What is the length of the train and that of the platform in meters, respectively?
(A) 210 and 140 (B) 162.5 and 187.5

(C) 245 and 130 (D) 175 and 200
Q.9 Which of the following functions describe the graph shown in the below figure?
(A) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 2 (B) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| − 1

(C) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 1 (D) 𝑦 = ||𝑥 − 1| − 1|
Q.10 Consider the following three statements:

(i) Some roses are red.
(ii) All red flowers fade quickly.
(iii) Some roses fade quickly.
Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is false.

(B) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is true.
(C) If (i) and (ii) are true, then (iii) is true.
(D) If (i) and (ii) are false, then (iii) is false.
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 2/2
GATE 2018 Mechanical Engineering (Set 1)

Q.1 Four red balls, four green balls and four blue balls are put in a box. Three balls are pulled out
of the box at random one after another without replacement. The probability that all the three
balls are red is
(A) 1/72 (B) 1/55 (C) 1/36 (D) 1/27
Q.2  4 1  1
The rank of the matrix   1  1  1 is
 7  3 1 
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.3 According to the Mean Value Theorem, for a continuous function f ( x) in the interval [a, b],
b
there exists a value  in this interval such that  f ( x)dx 

a
(A) f ( )(b  a) (B) f (b)(  a)

(C) f (a)(b   ) (D) 0
Q.4 F ( z) is a function of the complex variable z  x  iy given by

F
𝐹(𝑧) = 𝑖 𝑧 + 𝑘 𝑅𝑒(𝑧) + 𝑖 𝐼𝑚(𝑧).
For what value of k will F ( z) satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations?

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C)  1 (D) y
Q.5 A bar of uniform cross section and weighing 100 N is held horizontally using two massless
and inextensible strings S1 and S2 as shown in the figure.
The tensions in the strings are

(A) T1 = 100 N and T2 = 0 N (B) T1 = 0 N and T2 = 100 N
(C) T1 = 75 N and T2 = 25 N (D) T1 = 25 N and T2 = 75 N
ME 1/15
Q.6 If  1 and  3 are the algebraically largest and smallest principal stresses respectively, the
value of the maximum shear stress is
1 + 3 1 − 3
(A) (B) 1 + 3 1 − 3
2 2 (C) √ (D) √
2 2
Q.7 The equation of motion for a spring-mass system excited by a harmonic force is
M x  K x  F cos( t ),
where M is the mass, K is the spring stiffness, F is the force amplitude and  is the angular
frequency of excitation. Resonance occurs when  is equal to
M 1 K K K
(A) (B) (C) 2  (D)
K 2 M M M
Q.8 For an Oldham coupling used between two shafts, which among the following statements
are correct?
I. Torsional load is transferred along shaft axis.
II. A velocity ratio of 1:2 between shafts is obtained without using gears.
III. Bending load is transferred transverse to shaft axis.
IV. Rotation is transferred along shaft axis.
(A) I and III (B) I and IV (C) II and III (D) II and IV
Q.9 
 
For a two-dimensional incompressible flow field given by u  A x iˆ  y ˆj , where A  0 ,
which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) It satisfies continuity equation.
(B) It is unidirectional when x  0 and y   .
(C) Its streamlines are given by x  y .
(D) It is irrotational.
Q.10 Which one of the following statements is correct for a superheated vapour?
(A) Its pressure is less than the saturation pressure at a given temperature.
(B) Its temperature is less than the saturation temperature at a given pressure.
(C) Its volume is less than the volume of the saturated vapour at a given temperature.
(D) Its enthalpy is less than the enthalpy of the saturated vapour at a given pressure.
ME 2/15
Q.11 In a linearly hardening plastic material, the true stress beyond initial yielding
(A) increases linearly with the true strain

(B) decreases linearly with the true strain
(C) first increases linearly and then decreases linearly with the true strain
(D) remains constant
Q.12 The type of weld represented by the shaded region in the figure is
(A) groove (B) spot (C) fillet (D) plug
Q.13 Using the Taylor’s tool life equation with exponent n  0.5, if the cutting speed is reduced
by 50%, the ratio of new tool life to original tool life is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0.5
Q.14 A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the
(A) grinding wheel wears 200 times the volume of the material removed
(B) grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the volume of the material removed
(C) aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in the grinding wheel is 200
(D) ratio of volume of abrasive particle to that of grinding wheel is 200
Q.15 Interpolator in a CNC machine
(A) controls spindle speed

(B) coordinates axes movements
(C) operates tool changer
(D) commands canned cycle
Q.16 The time series forecasting method that gives equal weightage to each of the m most recent
observations is
(A) Moving average method (B) Exponential smoothing with linear trend
(C) Triple Exponential smoothing (D) Kalman Filter
ME 3/15
Q.17 The number of atoms per unit cell and the number of slip systems, respectively, for a face-
centered cubic (FCC) crystal are
(A) 3, 3 (B) 3, 12 (C) 4, 12 (D) 4, 48
Q.18 A six-faced fair dice is rolled five times. The probability (in %) of obtaining “ONE” at
least four times is
(A) 33.3 (B) 3.33 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.0033
Q.19 A steel column of rectangular section (15 mm × 10 mm) and length 1.5 m is simply supported
at both ends. Assuming modulus of elasticity, E = 200 GPa for steel, the critical axial load
(in kN) is ____ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.20 A four bar mechanism is made up of links of length 100, 200, 300 and 350 mm. If the
350 mm link is fixed, the number of links that can rotate fully is __________.
Q.21 If the wire diameter of a compressive helical spring is increased by 2%, the change in spring
stiffness (in %) is _____ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.22 A flat plate of width L = 1 m is pushed down with a velocity U = 0.01 m/s towards a wall
resulting in the drainage of the fluid between the plate and the wall as shown in the figure.
Assume two-dimensional incompressible flow and that the plate remains parallel to the wall.
The average velocity, uavg of the fluid (in m/s) draining out at the instant shown in the figure
is _____________(correct to three decimal places).
L
Plate
U
uavg d = 0.1 m uavg
Wall
ME 4/15
Q.23 An ideal gas undergoes a process from state 1 ( T1 = 300 K, p1 = 100 kPa) to state 2
( T2 = 600 K, p2 = 500 kPa). The specific heats of the ideal gas are : cp = 1 kJ/kg-K and
cv = 0.7 kJ/kg-K. The change in specific entropy of the ideal gas from state 1 to state 2 (in
kJ/kg-K) is ___________(correct to two decimal places).
Q.24 For a Pelton wheel with a given water jet velocity, the maximum output power from the
Pelton wheel is obtained when the ratio of the bucket speed to the water jet speed
is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.25 The height (in mm) for a 125 mm sine bar to measure a taper of 27 ̊ 32 on a flat work
piece is _______ (correct to three decimal places).
ME 5/15
Q.26 Let X1, X2 be two independent normal random variables with means µ1, µ2 and standard
deviations 1, 2, respectively. Consider Y = X1 – X2; µ1 = µ2 =1, 1 = 1, 2 = 2. Then,
(A) Y is normally distributed with mean 0 and variance 1
(B) Y is normally distributed with mean 0 and variance 5
(C) Y has mean 0 and variance 5, but is NOT normally distributed
(D) Y has mean 0 and variance 1, but is NOT normally distributed
Q.27 The value of the integral
∯ 𝑟⃗ ∙ 𝑛⃗⃗ 𝑑𝑆
𝑆
over the closed surface S bounding a volume V, where r  x i  y j  y k is the position vector
and n is the normal to the surface S, is
(A) V (B) 2V (C) 3V (D) 4V
Q.28 A point mass is shot vertically up from ground level with a velocity of 4 m /s at time, t  0 .
It loses 20% of its impact velocity after each collision with the ground. Assuming that the
acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 and that air resistance is negligible, the mass stops
bouncing and comes to complete rest on the ground after a total time (in seconds) of
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 
ME 6/15
Q.29 The state of stress at a point, for a body in plane stress, is shown in the figure below. If the
minimum principal stress is 10 kPa, then the normal stress  y (in kPa) is
(A) 9.45 (B) 18.88 (C) 37.78 (D) 75.50
Q.30 An epicyclic gear train is shown in the figure below. The number of teeth on the gears A, B
and D are 20, 30 and 20, respectively. Gear C has 80 teeth on the inner surface and 100 teeth
on the outer surface. If the carrier arm AB is fixed and the sun gear A rotates at 300 rpm in
the clockwise direction, then the rpm of D in the clockwise direction is
(A) 240 (B) 240 (C) 375 (D) 375
ME 7/15
Q.31 A carpenter glues a pair of cylindrical wooden logs by bonding their end faces at an angle
of   30 as shown in the figure.
The glue used at the interface fails if

Criterion 1: the maximum normal stress exceeds 2.5 MPa.
Criterion 2: the maximum shear stress exceeds 1.5 MPa.
Assume that the interface fails before the logs fail. When a uniform tensile stress of 4 MPa
is applied, the interface
(A) fails only because of criterion 1
(B) fails only because of criterion 2
(C) fails because of both criteria 1 and 2
(D) does not fail
Q.32 A self-aligning ball bearing has a basic dynamic load rating (C10, for 106 revolutions) of
35 kN. If the equivalent radial load on the bearing is 45 kN, the expected life (in 106
revolutions) is
(A) below 0.5 (B) 0.5 to 0.8 (C) 0.8 to 1.0 (D) above 1.0
Q.33 A tank open at the top with a water level of 1 m, as shown in the figure, has a hole at a height
of 0.5 m. A free jet leaves horizontally from the smooth hole. The distance X (in m) where
the jet strikes the floor is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
ME 8/15
Q.34 In a Lagrangian system, the position of a fluid particle in a flow is described as 𝑥 = 𝑥𝑜 𝑒 −𝑘𝑡
and 𝑦 = 𝑦𝑜 𝑒 𝑘𝑡 where t is the time while 𝑥𝑜 , 𝑦𝑜 , and k are constants. The flow is
(A) unsteady and one-dimensional

(B) steady and two-dimensional
(C) steady and one-dimensional
(D) unsteady and two-dimensional
Q.35 The maximum reduction in cross-sectional area per pass ( R ) of a cold wire drawing process
is
R  1  e ( n 1) ,
where n represents the strain hardening coefficient. For the case of a perfectly plastic
material, R is
(A) 0.865 (B) 0.826 (C) 0.777 (D) 0.632
Q.36 The percentage scrap in a sheet metal blanking operation of a continuous strip of sheet metal
as shown in the figure is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.37 An explicit forward Euler method is used to numerically integrate the differential equation
dy
y
dt
using a time step of 0.1. With the initial condition y(0)  1 , the value of y (1) computed by
this method is ___________ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.38 F ( s) is the Laplace transform of the function

f (t )  2t 2 e t
F (1) is ________ (correct to two decimal places).
ME 9/15
Q.39 A simply supported beam of width 100 mm, height 200 mm and length 4 m is carrying a
uniformly distributed load of intensity 10 kN/m. The maximum bending stress (in MPa) in
the beam is __________ (correct to one decimal place).
Q.40 A machine of mass 𝑚 = 200 kg is supported on two mounts, each of stiffness

𝑘 = 10 kN/m. The machine is subjected to an external force (in N) 𝐹(𝑡) = 50 cos 5𝑡.
Assuming only vertical translatory motion, the magnitude of the dynamic force (in N)
transmitted from each mount to the ground is ______ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.41 A slider crank mechanism is shown in the figure. At some instant, the crank angle is 45o and
a force of 40 N is acting towards the left on the slider. The length of the crank is 30 mm and
the connecting rod is 70 mm. Ignoring the effect of gravity, friction and inertial forces, the
magnitude of the crankshaft torque (in Nm) needed to keep the mechanism in equilibrium is
_________ (correct to two decimal places).
ME 10/15
Q.42 A sprinkler shown in the figure rotates about its hinge point in a horizontal plane due to water
flow discharged through its two exit nozzles.
Q/2 Q/2
10 cm 20 cm
The total flow rate Q through the sprinkler is 1 litre/sec and the cross-sectional area of each
exit nozzle is 1 cm2. Assuming equal flow rate through both arms and a frictionless hinge,
the steady state angular speed of rotation (in rad/s) of the sprinkler is ______ (correct to two
decimal places).
Q.43 A solid block of 2.0 kg mass slides steadily at a velocity V along a vertical wall as shown in
the figure below. A thin oil film of thickness h = 0.15 mm provides lubrication between the
block and the wall. The surface area of the face of the block in contact with the oil film is
0.04 m2. The velocity distribution within the oil film gap is linear as shown in the figure.
Take dynamic viscosity of oil as 7×10-3 Pa-s and acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2.
Neglect weight of the oil. The terminal velocity V (in m/s) of the block is _________ (correct
to one decimal place).
h=0.15mm
m=2.0 kg
A=0.04 m2
Impermeable
wall
Q.44 A tank of volume 0.05 m3 contains a mixture of saturated water and saturated steam at 200C.
The mass of the liquid present is 8 kg. The entropy (in kJ/kg K) of the mixture is
___________ (correct to two decimal places).
Property data for saturated steam and water are:

At 200C, psat = 1.5538 MPa
v f = 0.001157 m3/kg, vg = 0.12736 m3/kg
s fg  4.1014 kJ/kg K, s f  2.3309 kJ/kg K
ME 11/15
Q.45 Steam flows through a nozzle at a mass flow rate of m   0.1 kg/s with a heat loss of 5 kW.
The enthalpies at inlet and exit are 2500 kJ/kg and 2350 kJ/kg, respectively. Assuming
negligible velocity at inlet ( C1  0 ), the velocity ( C 2 ) of steam (in m/s) at the nozzle exit is
__________ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.46 An engine working on air standard Otto cycle is supplied with air at 0.1 MPa and 35C. The
compression ratio is 8. The heat supplied is 500 kJ/kg. Property data for air: c p = 1.005
kJ/kg K, cv = 0.718 kJ/kg K, R = 0.287 kJ/kg K. The maximum temperature (in K) of the
cycle is _________ (correct to one decimal place).
Q.47 A plane slab of thickness L and thermal conductivity k is heated with a fluid on one side (P),
and the other side (Q) is maintained at a constant temperature, TQ of 25C, as shown in the
figure. The fluid is at 45C and the surface heat transfer coefficient, h, is 10 W/m2K . The
steady state temperature, TP, (in C) of the side which is exposed to the fluid is _______
(correct to two decimal places).
ME 12/15
Q.48 The true stress (σ) - true strain (  ) diagram of a strain hardening material is shown in figure.
First, there is loading up to point A, i.e., up to stress of 500 MPa and strain of 0.5. Then from
point A, there is unloading up to point B, i.e., to stress of 100 MPa. Given that the Young’s
modulus E = 200 GPa, the natural strain at point B (  B ) is _________ (correct to three
decimal places).
σ
(MPa)
A
500
B
100
B 0.5 
Q.49 An orthogonal cutting operation is being carried out in which uncut thickness is 0.010 mm,
cutting speed is 130 m/min, rake angle is 15 and width of cut is 6 mm. It is observed that
the chip thickness is 0.015 mm, the cutting force is 60 N and the thrust force is 25 N. The
ratio of friction energy to total energy is __________ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.50 A bar is compressed to half of its original length. The magnitude of true strain produced in
the deformed bar is _________________ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.51 The minimum value of 3𝑥 + 5𝑦

such that:
3𝑥 + 5𝑦 ≤ 15
4𝑥 + 9𝑦 ≤ 8
13𝑥 + 2𝑦 ≤ 2
𝑥 ≥ 0, 𝑦 ≥ 0
is _______.
ME 13/15
Q.52 Processing times (including setup times) and due dates for six jobs waiting to be processed
at a work centre are given in the table. The average tardiness (in days) using shortest
processing time rule is ___________ (correct to two decimal places).
Job Processing time (days) Due date (days)

A 3 8
B 7 16
C 4 4
D 9 18
E 5 17
F 13 19
Q.53 The schematic of an external drum rotating clockwise engaging with a short shoe is shown
in the figure. The shoe is mounted at point Y on a rigid lever XYZ hinged at point X. A force
𝐹 = 100 𝑁 is applied at the free end of the lever as shown. Given that the coefficient of
friction between the shoe and the drum is 0.3, the braking torque (in Nm ) applied on the
drum is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
(All dimensions are in mm)
ME 14/15
Q.54 Block P of mass 2 kg slides down the surface and has a speed 20 m/s at the lowest point, Q,
where the local radius of curvature is 2 m as shown in the figure. Assuming g = 10 m/s2, the
normal force (in N) at Q is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.55 An electrochemical machining (ECM) is to be used to cut a through hole into a 12 mm thick
aluminum plate. The hole has a rectangular cross-section, 10 mm × 30 mm. The ECM
operation will be accomplished in 2 minutes, with efficiency of 90%. Assuming specific
removal rate for aluminum as 3.44 × 10-2 mm3/(A s), the current (in A) required is
__________ (correct to two decimal places).
ME 15/15
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA B 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA A 2
7 MCQ GA D 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ ME B 1
2 MCQ ME B 1
3 MCQ ME A 1
4 MCQ ME B 1
5 MCQ ME B 1
6 MCQ ME B 1
7 MCQ ME D 1
8 MCQ ME B 1
9 MCQ ME C 1
10 MCQ ME A 1
11 MCQ ME A 1
12 MCQ ME C 1
13 MCQ ME A 1
14 MCQ ME B 1
15 MCQ ME B 1
16 MCQ ME A 1
17 MCQ ME C 1
18 MCQ ME C 1
19 NAT ME 1.00 to 1.20 1
20 NAT ME 1 to 1 1
21 NAT ME 8.00 to 8.50 1
22 NAT ME 0.045 to 0.055 1
23 NAT ME 0.20 to 0.22 1
24 NAT ME 0.48 to 0.52 1
25 NAT ME 57.000 to 58.000 1
26 MCQ ME B 2
27 MCQ ME C 2
28 MCQ ME C 2
29 MCQ ME C 2
30 MCQ ME C 2
31 MCQ ME C 2
32 MCQ ME A 2
33 MCQ ME B 2
34 MCQ ME B 2
35 MCQ ME D 2
36 NAT ME 52.00 to 54.00 2
37 NAT ME 2.55 to 2.65 2
38 NAT ME 0.48 to 0.52 2
39 NAT ME 29.8 to 30.1 2
40 NAT ME 33.00 to 33.50 2
41 NAT ME 1.00 to 1.20 2
42 NAT ME 9.50 to 10.50 2
43 NAT ME 10.6 to 10.8 2
44 NAT ME 2.45 to 2.55 2
45 NAT ME 445.00 to 450.00 2
46 NAT ME 1403.0 to 1406.0 2
47 NAT ME 33.50 to 34.30 2
48 NAT ME 0.498 to 0.498 2
49 NAT ME 0.39 to 0.49 2
50 NAT ME 0.69 to 0.70 2
51 NAT ME 0 to 0 2
52 NAT ME 6.31 to 6.35 2
53 NAT ME 8.00 to 9.00 2
54 NAT ME 419.00 to 421.00 2
55 NAT ME 968.80 to 969.20 2

Q.1 “The dress _________ her so well that they all immediately _________ her on her
appearance.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) complemented, complemented (B) complimented, complemented

(C) complimented, complimented (D) complemented, complimented
Q.2 “The judge’s standing in the legal community, though shaken by false allegations of
wrongdoing, remained _________.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) undiminished (B) damaged (C) illegal (D) uncertain
Q.3 Find the missing group of letters in the following series:

BC, FGH, LMNO, _____
(A) UVWXY (B) TUVWX (C) STUVW (D) RSTUV
Q.4 The perimeters of a circle, a square and an equilateral triangle are equal. Which one of the
following statements is true?
(A) The circle has the largest area.

(B) The square has the largest area.
(C) The equilateral triangle has the largest area.
(D) All the three shapes have the same area.
Q.5 1 1 1
The value of the expression + + is _________.
1+log𝑢 𝑣𝑤 1+log𝑣 𝑤𝑢 1+log𝑤 𝑢𝑣
(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3
Q.6 Forty students watched films A, B and C over a week. Each student watched either only
one film or all three. Thirteen students watched film A, sixteen students watched film B
and nineteen students watched film C. How many students watched all three films?
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
GA 1/3
Q.7 A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m2, if it is bent into a square. The wire is cut into
two pieces. The longer piece is thrice as long as the shorter piece. The long and the short
pieces are bent into a square and a circle, respectively. Which of the following choices is
closest to the sum of the areas enclosed by the two pieces in square meters?
(A) 1096 (B) 1111 (C) 1243 (D) 2486
Q.8 A contract is to be completed in 52 days and 125 identical robots were employed, each
operational for 7 hours a day. After 39 days, five-seventh of the work was completed. How
many additional robots would be required to complete the work on time, if each robot is
now operational for 8 hours a day?
(A) 50 (B) 89 (C) 146 (D) 175
Q.9 A house has a number which needs to be identified. The following three statements are
given that can help in identifying the house number.
i. If the house number is a multiple of 3, then it is a number from 50 to 59.
ii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 4, then it is a number from 60 to 69.
iii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 6, then it is a number from 70 to 79.
What is the house number?
(A) 54 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) 76
GA 2/3
Q.10 An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row and four different such trials are conducted.
One trial implies six tosses of the coin. If H stands for head and T stands for tail, the
following are the observations from the four trials:
(1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT (3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT__ __.
Which statement describing the last two coin tosses of the fourth trial has the highest
probability of being correct?
(A) Two T will occur.

(B) One H and one T will occur.
(C) Two H will occur.
(D) One H will be followed by one T.
GA 3/3

Q.1 The Fourier cosine series for an even function f ( x) is given by

f ( x )  a0  an cos(nx ) .
n 1
The value of the coefficient a 2 for the function f ( x)  cos ( x) in [0, ] is
2
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0
Q.2 
 
The divergence of the vector field u  e x cos y iˆ  sin y ˆj is
(A) 0 (B) e x cos y  e x sin y
(C) 2e x cos y (D) 2e x sin y
Q.3 Consider a function u which depends on position x and time t. The partial differential
equation
u  2u

t x 2
is known as the
(A) Wave equation
(B) Heat equation
(C) Laplace’s equation
(D) Elasticity equation
 x 3  0 , y0  1 , the value of y 1

Q.4 dy
If y is the solution of the differential equation y 3
dx
is
(A) −2 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) 1
Q.5 The minimum axial compressive load, P, required to initiate buckling for a pinned-pinned
slender column with bending stiffness EI and length L is
 2 EI  2 EI 3 2 EI 4  2 EI
(A) P  (B) P  (C) P  (D) P 
4 L2 L2 4 L2 L2
ME 1/15
Q.6 A frictionless gear train is shown in the figure. The leftmost 12-teeth gear is given a torque
of 100 N-m. The output torque from the 60-teeth gear on the right in N-m is
12 Teeth
T =100 N-m 48 Teeth
60 Teeth
12 Teeth
(A) 5 (B) 20 (C) 500 (D) 2000
Q.7 In a single degree of freedom underdamped spring-mass-damper system as shown in the

figure, an additional damper is added in parallel such that the system still remains
underdamped. Which one of the following statements is ALWAYS true?
K C
(A) Transmissibility will increase.

(B) Transmissibility will decrease.
(C) Time period of free oscillations will increase.
(D) Time period of free oscillations will decrease.
Q.8 Pre-tensioning of a bolted joint is used to

(A) strain harden the bolt head (B) decrease stiffness of the bolted joint
(C) increase stiffness of the bolted joint (D) prevent yielding of the thread root
Q.9 The peak wavelength of radiation emitted by a black body at a temperature of 2000 K is
1.45 µm. If the peak wavelength of emitted radiation changes to 2.90 µm, then the
temperature (in K) of the black body is
(A) 500 (B) 1000 (C) 4000 (D) 8000
ME 2/15
Q.10 For an ideal gas with constant properties undergoing a quasi-static process, which one of
the following represents the change of entropy (s) from state 1 to 2?
T  P 
(A) s  C p ln 2   R ln 2 
 T1   P1 
T  V 
(B) s  CV ln 2   C p ln 2 
 T1   V1 
T  P 
(C) s  C P ln 2   CV ln 2 
 T1   P1 
T  V 
(D) s  CV ln 2   R ln 1 
 T1   V2 
Q.11 Select the correct statement for 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine.
(A) The rotor blade is symmetric.
(B) The stator blade is symmetric.
(C) The absolute inlet flow angle is equal to absolute exit flow angle.
(D) The absolute exit flow angle is equal to inlet angle of rotor blade.
Q.12 Denoting L as liquid and M as solid in a phase-diagram with the subscripts representing
different phases, a eutectoid reaction is described by
(A) M 1  M 2  M 3
(B) L1  M 1  M 2
(C) L1  M 1  M 2
(D) M 1  M 2  M 3
Q.13 During solidification of a pure molten metal, the grains in the casting near the mould wall
are
(A) coarse and randomly oriented

(B) fine and randomly oriented
(C) fine and ordered
(D) coarse and ordered
Q.14 Match the following products with the suitable manufacturing process
Product Manufacturing Process

P Toothpaste tube 1 Centrifugal casting
Q Metallic pipes 2 Blow moulding
R Plastic bottles 3 Rolling
S Threaded bolts 4 Impact extrusion
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
ME 3/15
Q.15 Feed rate in slab milling operation is equal to
(A) rotation per minute (rpm)

(B) product of rpm and number of teeth in the cutter
(C) product of rpm, feed per tooth and number of teeth in the cutter
(D) product of rpm, feed per tooth and number of teeth in contact
Q.16 Metal removal in electric discharge machining takes place through
(A) ion displacement

(B) melting and vaporization
(C) corrosive reaction
(D) plastic shear
Q.17 The preferred option for holding an odd-shaped workpiece in a centre lathe is
(A) live and dead centres (B) three jaw chuck
(C) lathe dog (D) four jaw chuck
Q.18 A local tyre distributor expects to sell approximately 9600 steel belted radial tyres next
year. Annual carrying cost is Rs. 16 per tyre and ordering cost is Rs. 75. The economic
order quantity of the tyres is
(A) 64 (B) 212 (C) 300 (D) 1200
Q.19  1 2 3
If A = 0 4 5 then det(A-1) is __________ (correct to two decimal places).
 
0 0 1
Q.20 A hollow circular shaft of inner radius 10 mm, outer radius 20 mm and length 1 m is to be
used as a torsional spring. If the shear modulus of the material of the shaft is 150 GPa, the
torsional stiffness of the shaft (in kN-m/rad) is ________ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.21 Fatigue life of a material for a fully reversed loading condition is estimated from
 a  1100 N  0.15 ,
where  a is the stress amplitude in MPa and N is the failure life in cycles. The maximum
allowable stress amplitude (in MPa) for a life of 1 105 cycles under the same loading
condition is ________ (correct to two decimal places).
ME 4/15
Q.22 The viscous laminar flow of air over a flat plate results in the formation of a boundary
layer. The boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate of length L isL. When the plate
length is increased to twice its original length, the percentage change in laminar boundary
layer thickness at the end of the plate (with respect to L) is ________ (correct to two
decimal places).
Q.23 An engine operates on the reversible cycle as shown in the figure. The work output from
the engine (in kJ/cycle) is ______ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.24 The arrival of customers over fixed time intervals in a bank follow a Poisson distribution
with an average of 30 customers/hour. The probability that the time between successive
customer arrival is between 1 and 3 minutes is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
ME 5/15
Q.25 A ball is dropped from rest from a height of 1 m in a frictionless tube as shown in the
figure. If the tube profile is approximated by two straight lines (ignoring the curved
portion), the total distance travelled (in m) by the ball is __________ (correct to two
decimal places).
ME 6/15
Q.26 Let z be a complex variable. For a counter-clockwise integration around a unit circle C ,
centred at origin,
1
∮𝐶 𝑑𝑧 = 𝐴𝜋𝑖 ,
5𝑧−4
the value of A is
(A) 2/5 (B) 1/2 (C) 2 (D) 4/5
Q.27 Let X1 and X2 be two independent exponentially distributed random variables with means
0.5 and 0.25, respectively. Then Y = min (X1, X2) is
(A) exponentially distributed with mean 1⁄6

(B) exponentially distributed with mean 2
(C) normally distributed with mean 3⁄4
(D) normally distributed with mean 1⁄6
Q.28 For a position vector r  x i  y j  z k the norm of the vector can be defined as
r  x 2  y 2  z 2 . Given a function   ln r , its gradient  is
𝑟⃗ 𝑟⃗ 𝑟⃗
(A) 𝑟⃗ (B) (C) (D)
|𝑟⃗| 𝑟⃗∙𝑟⃗ |𝑟⃗|3
Q.29 In a rigid body in plane motion, the point R is accelerating with respect to point P at
10∠180 m/s2. If the instantaneous acceleration of point Q is zero, the acceleration (in
m/s2) of point R is
(A) 8∠233 (B) 10∠225 (C) 10∠217 (D) 8∠217
ME 7/15
Q.30 A rigid rod of length 1 m is resting at an angle   45o as shown in the figure. The end P is
dragged with a velocity of U  5 m/s to the right. At the instant shown, the magnitude of
the velocity V (in m/s) of point Q as it moves along the wall without losing contact is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
Q.31 A bar of circular cross section is clamped at ends P and Q as shown in the figure. A
torsional moment 𝑇 = 150 Nm is applied at a distance of 100 mm from end P. The
torsional reactions (𝑇𝑃 , 𝑇𝑄 ) in Nm at the ends P and Q respectively are
(All dimensions are in mm)
(A) (50, 100) (B) (75, 75) (C) (100, 50) (D) (120, 30)
ME 8/15
Q.32 In a cam-follower, the follower rises by h as the cam rotates by  (radians) at constant
angular velocity  (radians/s). The follower is uniformly accelerating during the first half
of the rise period and it is uniformly decelerating in the latter half of the rise period.
Assuming that the magnitudes of the acceleration and deceleration are same, the maximum
velocity of the follower is
4ℎ 2ℎ
(A) (B) ℎ𝜔 (C) (D) 2ℎ
 
Q.33 A bimetallic cylindrical bar of cross sectional area 1 m2 is made by bonding Steel
(Young’s modulus = 210 GPa) and Aluminium (Young’s modulus = 70 GPa) as shown in
6
the figure. To maintain tensile axial strain of magnitude 10 in Steel bar and compressive
6
axial strain of magnitude 10 in Aluminum bar, the magnitude of the required force P (in
kN) along the indicated direction is
(A) 70 (B) 140 (C) 210 (D) 280
Q.34 Air flows at the rate of 1.5 m3/s through a horizontal pipe with a gradually reducing cross-
section as shown in the figure. The two cross-sections of the pipe have diameters of
400 mm and 200 mm. Take the air density as 1.2 kg/m3 and assume inviscid
incompressible flow. The change in pressure  p2  p1  (in kPa) between sections 1 and 2
is
200 mm
Air Flow 1
 400 mm 2
1.5 m3/s
(A) 1.28 (B) 2.56 (C) 2.13 (D) 1.28
ME 9/15
Q.35 The problem of maximizing z  x1  x2 subject to constraints x1  x2  10, x1  0, x2  0

and x2  5 has
(A) no solution
(B) one solution
(C) two solutions
(D) more than two solutions
Q.36 Given the ordinary differential equation
d 2 y dy
  6y  0
dx 2 dx
dy
with y(0)  0 and (0)  1 , the value of y(1) is _________ (correct to two decimal
dx
places).
Q.37 A thin-walled cylindrical can with rigid end caps has a mean radius R  100 mm and a
wall thickness of t  5 mm. The can is pressurized and an additional tensile stress of
50 MPa is imposed along the axial direction as shown in the figure. Assume that the state
of stress in the wall is uniform along its length. If the magnitudes of axial and
circumferential components of stress in the can are equal, the pressure (in MPa) inside the
can is ___________ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.38 A bar is subjected to a combination of a steady load of 60 kN and a load fluctuating

between10 kN and 90 kN. The corrected endurance limit of the bar is
150 MPa, the yield strength of the material is 480 MPa and the ultimate strength of the
material is 600 MPa. The bar cross-section is square with side a. If the factor of safety is 2,
the value of a (in mm), according to the modified Goodman’s criterion, is ________
(correct to two decimal places).
ME 10/15
Q.39 A force of 100 N is applied to the centre of a circular disc, of mass 10 kg and radius 1 m,
resting on a floor as shown in the figure. If the disc rolls without slipping on the floor, the
linear acceleration (in m/s2) of the centre of the disc is ________ (correct to two decimal
places).
100N
Q.40 A frictionless circular piston of area 10 2 m2 and mass 100 kg sinks into a cylindrical
container of the same area filled with water of density 1000 kg/m3 as shown in the figure.
3
The container has a hole of area 10 m2 at the bottom that is open to the atmosphere.
Assuming there is no leakage from the edges of the piston and considering water to be
incompressible, the magnitude of the piston velocity (in m/s) at the instant shown is _____
(correct to three decimal places).
patm
g = 10 m/s2
100 kg
0.5 m
ME 11/15
Q.41 A 0.2 m thick infinite black plate having a thermal conductivity of 3.96 W/m-K is exposed
to two infinite black surfaces at 300 K and 400 K as shown in the figure. At steady state,
the surface temperature of the plate facing the cold side is 350 K. The value of Stefan-
Boltzmann constant, , is 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2 K4. Assuming 1-D heat conduction, the
magnitude of heat flux through the plate (in W/m2) is ________ (correct to two decimal
places).
0.2 m
vacuum vacuum 400 K

300 K
Q.42 Air is held inside a non-insulated cylinder using a piston (mass M=25 kg and area A=100
cm2) and stoppers (of negligible area), as shown in the figure. The initial pressure Pi and
temperature Ti of air inside the cylinder are 200 kPa and 400C, respectively. The ambient
pressure P and temperature T are 100 kPa and 27C, respectively. The temperature of the
air inside the cylinder (C) at which the piston will begin to move is _________ (correct to
two decimal places).
ME 12/15
Q.43 A standard vapor compression refrigeration cycle operating with a condensing temperature
of 35 o C and an evaporating temperature of 10 o C develops 15 kW of cooling.
The p-h diagram shows the enthalpies at various states. If the isentropic efficiency of the
compressor is 0.75, the magnitude of compressor power (in kW) is _________ (correct to
Q.44 Ambient air is at a pressure of 100 kPa, dry bulb temperature of 30 o C and 60% relative
humidity. The saturation pressure of water at 30 o C is 4.24 kPa. The specific humidity of
air (in g/kg of dry air) is ________ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.45 A test is conducted on a one-fifth scale model of a Francis turbine under a head of
2 m and volumetric flow rate of 1 m3/s at 450 rpm. Take the water density and the
acceleration due to gravity as 103 kg/m3 and 10 m/s2, respectively. Assume no losses both
in model and prototype turbines. The power (in MW) of a full sized turbine while working
under a head of 30 m is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
ME 13/15
Q.46 The true stress (in MPa) versus true strain relationship for a metal is given by
  1020 0.4 .
The cross-sectional area at the start of a test (when the stress and strain values are equal to
zero) is 100 mm2. The cross-sectional area at the time of necking (in mm2) is ________
(correct to two decimal places)
Q.47 A steel wire is drawn from an initial diameter (di) of 10 mm to a final diameter (df) of 7.5
mm. The half cone angle () of the die is 5 and the coefficient of friction () between the
die and the wire is 0.1. The average of the initial and final yield stress [(Y)avg] is 350
MPa. The equation for drawing stress f , (in MPa) is given as:
2𝜇 cot𝛼
1 𝑑𝑓
𝑓 = (𝜎𝑌 )𝑎𝑣𝑔 {1 + } [1 − ( ) ]
𝜇 cot 𝛼 𝑑𝑖
The drawing stress (in MPa) required to carry out this operation is _________ (correct to
Q.48 Following data correspond to an orthogonal turning of a 100 mm diameter rod on a lathe.
Rake angle: 15o ; Uncut chip thickness: 0.5 mm; nominal chip thickness after the cut: 1.25
mm. The shear angle (in degrees) for this process is _______ (correct to two decimal
places).
Q.49 Taylor’s tool life equation is used to estimate the life of a batch of identical HSS twist drills
by drilling through holes at constant feed in 20 mm thick mild steel plates. In test 1, a drill
lasted 300 holes at 150 rpm while in test 2, another drill lasted 200 holes at 300 rpm. The
maximum number of holes that can be made by another drill from the above batch at 200
rpm is ______ (correct to two decimal places).
Q.50 For sand-casting a steel rectangular plate with dimensions 80 mm × 120 mm × 20 mm, a
cylindrical riser has to be designed. The height of the riser is equal to its diameter. The total
solidification time for the casting is 2 minutes. In Chvorinov’s law for the estimation of the
total solidification time, exponent is to be taken as 2. For a solidification time of 3 minutes
in the riser, the diameter (in mm) of the riser is __________ (correct to two decimal
places).
ME 14/15
Q.51 The arc lengths of a directed graph of a project are as shown in the figure. The shortest path
length from node 1 to node 6 is _______.
Q.52 A circular hole of 25 mm diameter and depth of 20 mm is machined by EDM process. The
material removal rate (in mm3/min) is expressed as
4  104 I T 1.23 ,
where I  300 A and the melting point of the material, T  1600 C . The time (in minutes)
for machining this hole is ________ (correct to two decimal places)
Q.53 A welding operation is being performed with voltage = 30 V and current = 100 A. The
cross-sectional area of the weld bead is 20 mm2. The work-piece and filler are of titanium
for which the specific energy of melting is 14 J/mm3. Assuming a thermal efficiency of the
welding process 70%, the welding speed (in mm/s) is __________ (correct to two decimal
places).
Q.54 Steam in the condenser of a thermal power plant is to be condensed at a temperature of

30C with cooling water which enters the tubes of the condenser at 14C and exits at 22C.
The total surface area of the tubes is 50 m2, and the overall heat transfer coefficient
is 2000 W/m2 K. The heat transfer (in MW) to the condenser is ______ (correct to two
decimal places).
Q.55 A vehicle powered by a spark ignition engine follows air standard Otto cycle (=1.4). The
engine generates 70 kW while consuming 10.3 kg/hr of fuel. The calorific value of fuel is
44,000 kJ/kg. The compression ratio is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
ME 15/15
1 MCQ GA D 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA A 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA A 2
9 MCQ GA D 2
10 MCQ GA B 2
1 MCQ ME C 1
2 MCQ ME C 1
3 MCQ ME B 1
4 MCQ ME C 1
5 MCQ ME B 1
6 MCQ ME D 1
7 MCQ ME C 1
8 MCQ ME C 1
9 MCQ ME B 1
10 MCQ ME A 1
11 MCQ ME D 1
12 MCQ ME A 1
13 MCQ ME B 1
14 MCQ ME C 1
15 MCQ ME C 1
16 MCQ ME B 1
17 MCQ ME D 1
18 MCQ ME C 1
19 NAT ME 0.25 to 0.25 1
20 NAT ME 35.24 to 35.44 1
21 NAT ME 190.00 to 200.00 1
22 NAT ME 41.30 to 41.50 1
23 NAT ME 62.00 to 63.00 1
24 NAT ME 0.36 to 0.40 1
25 NAT ME 2.40 to 2.42 1
26 MCQ ME A 2
27 MCQ ME A 2
28 MCQ ME C 2
29 MCQ ME D 2
30 MCQ ME A 2
31 MCQ ME C 2
32 MCQ ME C 2
33 MCQ ME D 2
34 MCQ ME A 2
35 MCQ ME B 2
36 NAT ME 1.45 to 1.48 2
37 NAT ME 4.80 to 5.20 2
38 NAT ME 31.60 to 31.65 2
39 NAT ME 6.60 to 6.70 2
40 NAT ME 1.400 to 1.500 2
41 NAT ME 385.00 to 395.00 2
42 NAT ME 145.00 to 150.00 2
43 NAT ME 9.50 to 10.50 2
44 NAT ME 16.00 to 16.50 2
45 NAT ME 28.85 to 29.25 2
46 NAT ME 65.00 to 70.00 2
47 NAT ME 315.00 to 317.00 2
48 NAT ME 22.00 to 24.00 2
49 NAT ME 252.00 to 254.00 2
50 NAT ME 51.50 to 52.00 2
51 NAT ME 7 to 7 2
52 NAT ME 7.00 to 7.30 2
53 NAT ME 7.49 to 7.51 2
54 NAT ME 1.14 to 1.16 2
55 NAT ME 7.40 to 7.80 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Mechanical Engineering 4th Feb 2017 session1

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 5 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

















Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ ME-1 B 1
2 MCQ ME-1 D 1
3 MCQ ME-1 B 1
4 MCQ ME-1 A 1
5 NAT ME-1 3.5 to 3.5 1
6 MCQ ME-1 B 1
7 MCQ ME-1 B 1
8 NAT ME-1 100 to 100 1
9 MCQ ME-1 C 1
10 NAT ME-1 63.5 to 64 1
11 NAT ME-1 2908 to 2911 1
12 NAT ME-1 1.60 to 1.70 1
13 MCQ ME-1 B 1
14 MCQ ME-1 C 1
15 NAT ME-1 60 to 61 1
16 MCQ ME-1 A 1
17 NAT ME-1 10 to 10 1
18 MCQ ME-1 B 1
19 MCQ ME-1 A 1
20 MCQ ME-1 B 1
21 NAT ME-1 245 to 246 1
22 MCQ ME-1 A 1
23 MCQ ME-1 D 1
24 NAT ME-1 800 to 800 1
25 MCQ ME-1 C 1
26 MCQ ME-1 D 2
27 NAT ME-1 0 to 0 2
28 MCQ ME-1 C 2
29 MCQ ME-1 A 2
30 MCQ ME-1 B 2
31 MCQ ME-1 A 2
32 MCQ ME-1 C 2
33 NAT ME-1 285 to 289 2
34 NAT ME-1 675 to 684 2
35 NAT ME-1 14.7 to 15.1 2
36 NAT ME-1 72 to 75 2
37 NAT ME-1 Mark to all 2
38 NAT ME-1 10 to 10 2
39 MCQ ME-1 B 2
40 NAT ME-1 1.50 to 1.52 2
41 MCQ ME-1 A 2
42 NAT ME-1 5.013 to 5.015 2
43 NAT ME-1 370 to 390 2
44 NAT ME-1 1.70 to 1.72 2
45 NAT ME-1 3 to 3 2
46 MCQ ME-1 B 2
47 NAT ME-1 0.26 to 0.29 2
48 NAT ME-1 28.71 to 28.73 2
49 MCQ ME-1 D 2
50 MCQ ME-1 A 2
51 NAT ME-1 15 to 15 2
52 NAT ME-1 31 to 31 2
53 NAT ME-1 11.95 to 12.05 2
54 NAT ME-1 2.04 to 2.07 2
55 NAT ME-1 105 to 107 2
56 MCQ GA D 1
57 MCQ GA D 1
58 MCQ GA D 1
59 MCQ GA B 1
60 MCQ GA A 1
61 MCQ GA C 2
62 MCQ GA D 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA B 2
65 MCQ GA A 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Mechanical Engineering 4th feb 2017 session 2

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100

















Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 NAT ME-2 0.75 to 0.75 1
2 NAT ME-2 0 to 0 1
3 NAT ME-2 5 to 5 1
4 MCQ ME-2 C 1
5 MCQ ME-2 B 1
6 MCQ ME-2 A 1
7 NAT ME-2 49.9 to 50.1 1
8 NAT ME-2 110 to 110 1
9 MCQ ME-2 A 1
10 NAT ME-2 218 to 222 1
11 NAT ME-2 1.99 to 2.01 1
12 NAT ME-2 0.99 to 1.01 1
13 MCQ ME-2 D 1
14 MCQ ME-2 B 1
15 MCQ ME-2 A 1
16 MCQ ME-2 D 1
17 MCQ ME-2 C 1
18 NAT ME-2 7.9 to 8.1 1
19 MCQ ME-2 D 1
20 MCQ ME-2 D 1
21 MCQ ME-2 B 1
22 NAT ME-2 6.3 to 7.0 1
23 MCQ ME-2 D 1
24 NAT ME-2 5 to 5 1
25 MCQ ME-2 C 1
26 NAT ME-2 225 to 227 2
27 NAT ME-2 93 to 95 2
28 NAT ME-2 0 to 0 2
29 MCQ ME-2 B 2
30 NAT ME-2 243 to 244 2
31 NAT ME-2 15 to 16 2
32 NAT ME-2 119 to 121 2
33 NAT ME-2 6 to 6 2
34 NAT ME-2 0 to 0 2
35 MCQ ME-2 C 2
36 NAT ME-2 0.49 to 0.51 2
37 MCQ ME-2 B 2
38 NAT ME-2 7.25 to 7.75 2
39 NAT ME-2 19 to 21 2
40 NAT ME-2 627 to 629 2
41 NAT ME-2 19.9 to 20.1 2
42 NAT ME-2 3.5 to 3.7 2
43 MCQ ME-2 B 2
44 NAT ME-2 -201 to -197 2
45 MCQ ME-2 C 2
46 MCQ ME-2 D 2
47 MCQ ME-2 A 2
48 MCQ ME-2 Mark to all 2
49 NAT ME-2 30 to 30 2
50 MCQ ME-2 B 2
51 NAT ME-2 40 to 40 2
52 NAT ME-2 8.5 to 10.0 2
53 NAT ME-2 29.03 - 29.03 2
54 MCQ ME-2 B 2
55 NAT ME-2 1.45 to 1.53 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA A 1
58 MCQ GA D 1
59 MCQ GA C 1
60 MCQ GA B 1
61 MCQ GA D 2
62 MCQ GA A 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA D 2
65 MCQ GA B 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-1

Q.1 Which of the following is CORRECT with respect to grammar and usage?
Mount Everest is ____________.

(A) the highest peak in the world
(B) highest peak in the world
(C) one of highest peak in the world
(D) one of the highest peak in the world
Q.2 The policeman asked the victim of a theft, “What did you ?”
(A) loose (B) lose (C) loss (D) louse
Q.3 Despite the new medicine’s ______________ in treating diabetes, it is not ______________widely.
(A) effectiveness --- prescribed (B) availability --- used
(C) prescription --- available (D) acceptance --- proscribed
Q.4 In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe and unripe mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. Of
the unripe fruits, 45% are apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total of
5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples?
(A) 2029198 (B) 2467482 (C) 2789080 (D) 3577422
Q.5 Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km away
from where I live. Arun is farther away than Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I live. From
the information provided here, what is one possible distance (in km) at which I live from Arun’s
place?
(A) 3.00 (B) 4.99 (C) 6.02 (D) 7.01
Q.6 A person moving through a tuberculosis prone zone has a 50% probability of becoming infected.
However, only 30% of infected people develop the disease. What percentage of people moving
through a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does not show symptoms of disease?
(A) 15 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 37
1/2
Q.7 In a world filled with uncertainty, he was glad to have many good friends. He had always assisted
them in times of need and was confident that they would reciprocate. However, the events of the
last week proved him wrong.
Which of the following inference(s) is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
passage?
(i) His friends were always asking him to help them.
(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his friends would let him down.
(iii) He was sure that his friends would help him when in need.
(iv) His friends did not help him last week.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only
Q.8 Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra. Pavithra’s brother Shiva is older than Leela. When Pavithra
and Shiva are visiting Leela, all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins more often than Leela does.
Which one of the following statements must be TRUE based on the above?
(A) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and Pavithra, he often loses.
(B) Leela is the oldest of the three.
(C) Shiva is a better chess player than Pavithra.
(D) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.
1 1 1
If 𝑞𝑞 −𝑎𝑎 and 𝑟𝑟 −𝑏𝑏 and 𝑠𝑠 −𝑐𝑐
Q.9
= = = , the value of abc is .
𝑟𝑟 𝑠𝑠 𝑞𝑞
(A) (𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟)−1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) r+q+s
Q.10 P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can finish the task in 25 days, working alone for 12
hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12
hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all days.
What is the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7 days from the start of the project?
(A) 10:11 (B) 11:10 (C) 20:21 (D) 21:20
2/2
GATE 2016 SET-1 Mechanical Engineering (ME)

Q.1 The solution to the system of equations
2 5 𝑥 2
=
−4 3 𝑦 −30
is
(A) 6, 2 (B) −6, 2 (C) −6, −2 (D) 6, −2
Q.2 If 𝑓 𝑡 is a function defined for all t ≥ 0, its Laplace transform F(s) is defined as
∞ 𝑠𝑡 ∞ −𝑠𝑡
(A) 0
𝑒 𝑓 𝑡 d𝑡 (B) 0
𝑒 𝑓 𝑡 d𝑡
∞ 𝑖𝑠𝑡 ∞ −𝑖𝑠𝑡
(C) 0
𝑒 𝑓 𝑡 d𝑡 (D) 0
𝑒 𝑓 𝑡 d𝑡
Q.3 𝑓 𝑧 = 𝑢 𝑥, 𝑦 + 𝑖 𝑣 𝑥, 𝑦 is an analytic function of complex variable 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖 𝑦 where

𝑖 = −1. If 𝑢 𝑥, 𝑦 = 2 𝑥𝑦, then 𝑣 𝑥, 𝑦 may be expressed as
(A) − 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + constant (B) 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + constant
(C) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + constant (D) − 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + constant
Q.4 Consider a Poisson distribution for the tossing of a biased coin. The mean for this distribution is µ.
The standard deviation for this distribution is given by
(A) 𝜇 (B) 𝜇2 (C) µ (D) 1/𝜇
Q.5 Solve the equation 𝑥 = 10 cos(𝑥) using the Newton-Raphson method. The initial guess is
𝑥 = 𝜋/4. The value of the predicted root after the first iteration, up to second decimal, is ________
Q.6 A rigid ball of weight 100 N is suspended with the help of a string. The ball is pulled by a
horizontal force F such that the string makes an angle of 30 with the vertical. The magnitude of
force F (in N) is __________
30
100 N
ME (Set-1) 1/11
Q.7 A point mass M is released from rest and slides down a spherical bowl (of radius R) from a height
H as shown in the figure below. The surface of the bowl is smooth (no friction). The velocity of the
mass at the bottom of the bowl is
M
R
(A) 𝑔𝐻 (B) 2𝑔𝑅 (C) 2𝑔𝐻 (D) 0
Q.8 The cross sections of two hollow bars made of the same material are concentric circles as shown in
the figure. It is given that 𝑟3 > 𝑟1 and 𝑟4 > 𝑟2 , and that the areas of the cross-sections are the same.
J1 and J2 are the torsional rigidities of the bars on the left and right, respectively. The ratio J2/J1 is
(A) > 1 (B) < 0.5 (C) =1 (D) between 0.5 and 1
Q.9 A cantilever beam having square cross-section of side a is subjected to an end load. If a is increased
by 19%, the tip deflection decreases approximately by
(A) 19% (B) 29% (C) 41% (D) 50%
Q.10 A car is moving on a curved horizontal road of radius 100 m with a speed of 20 m/s. The rotating
masses of the engine have an angular speed of 100 rad/s in clockwise direction when viewed from
the front of the car. The combined moment of inertia of the rotating masses is 10 kg-m2. The
magnitude of the gyroscopic moment (in N-m) is __________
Q.11 A single degree of freedom spring mass system with viscous damping has a spring constant of
10 kN/m. The system is excited by a sinusoidal force of amplitude 100 N. If the damping factor
(ratio) is 0.25, the amplitude of steady state oscillation at resonance is ________mm.
Q.12 The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES NOT depend on
(A) coil diameter
(B) material strength
(C) number of active turns
(D) wire diameter
ME (Set-1) 2/11
Q.13 The instantaneous stream-wise velocity of a turbulent flow is given as follows:

u( x, y, z, t )  u ( x, y, z)  u( x, y, z, t )
The time-average of the fluctuating velocity u ( x, y, z, t ) is
(A) 𝑢′/2 (B) − 𝑢/2 (C) zero (D) 𝑢/2
Q.14 For a floating body, buoyant force acts at the

(A) centroid of the floating body
(B) center of gravity of the body
(C) centroid of the fluid vertically below the body
(D) centroid of the displaced fluid
Q.15 A plastic sleeve of outer radius r0 = 1 mm covers a wire (radius r = 0.5 mm) carrying electric
current. Thermal conductivity of the plastic is 0.15 W/m-K. The heat transfer coefficient on the
outer surface of the sleeve exposed to air is 25 W/m2-K. Due to the addition of the plastic cover, the
heat transfer from the wire to the ambient will
(A) increase
(B) remain the same
(C) decrease
(D) be zero
Q.16 Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to heat and work?
(i) They are boundary phenomena
(ii) They are exact differentials
(iii) They are path functions
(A) both (i) and (ii) (B) both (i) and (iii) (C) both (ii) and (iii) (D) only (iii)
Q.17 Propane (C3H8) is burned in an oxygen atmosphere with 10% deficit oxygen with respect to the
stoichiometric requirement. Assuming no hydrocarbons in the products, the volume percentage of
CO in the products is __________
Q.18 Consider two hydraulic turbines having identical specific speed and effective head at the inlet. If
the speed ratio (N1/N2) of the two turbines is 2, then the respective power ratio (P1/P2)
is _____________
Q.19 The INCORRECT statement about regeneration in vapor power cycle is that
(A) it increases the irreversibility by adding the liquid with higher energy content to the steam
generator
(B) heat is exchanged between the expanding fluid in the turbine and the compressed fluid before
heat addition
(C) the principle is similar to the principle of Stirling gas cycle
(D) it is practically implemented by providing feed water heaters
ME (Set-1) 3/11
Q.20 The “Jominy test” is used to find

(A) Young’s modulus (B) hardenability
(C) yield strength (D) thermal conductivity
Q.21 Under optimal conditions of the process the temperatures experienced by a copper work piece in
fusion welding, brazing and soldering are such that
(A) Twelding > Tsoldering> Tbrazing (B) Tsoldering > Twelding > Tbrazing
(C) Tbrazing >Twelding > Tsoldering (D) Twelding > Tbrazing > Tsoldering
Q.22 The part of a gating system which regulates the rate of pouring of molten metal is
(A) pouring basin (B) runner (C) choke (D) ingate
Q.23 The non-traditional machining process that essentially requires vacuum is

(A) electron beam machining (B) electro chemical machining
(C) electro chemical discharge machining (D) electro discharge machining
Q.24 In an orthogonal cutting process the tool used has rake angle of zero degree. The measured cutting
force and thrust force are 500 N and 250 N, respectively. The coefficient of friction between the
tool and the chip is _________
Q.25 Match the following:

P. Feeler gauge I. Radius of an object
Q. Fillet gauge II. Diameter within limits by comparison
R. Snap gauge III. Clearance or gap between components
S. Cylindrical plug gauge IV. Inside diameter of straight hole
(A) P–III, Q–I, R–II, S–IV (B) P–III, Q–II, R–I, S–IV
(C) P–IV, Q–II, R–I, S–III (D) P–IV, Q–I, R–II, S–III
Q.26 Consider the function 𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 in the domain [−1, 2]. The global minimum of 𝑓(𝑥)
is ____________
Q.27 If 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥) satisfies the boundary value problem 𝑦 ′′ + 9 𝑦 = 0, 𝑦 0 = 0, 𝑦 𝜋/2 = 2, then

𝑦 𝜋/4 is ________
ME (Set-1) 4/11
Q.28 The value of the integral

∞
sin 𝑥
d𝑥
𝑥2 + 2𝑥 + 2
−∞
evaluated using contour integration and the residue theorem is
(A) – 𝜋 sin(1)/e (B) −𝜋 cos(1)/e (C) sin(1)/e (D) cos(1)/e
Q.29 Gauss-Seidel method is used to solve the following equations (as per the given order):
𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 + 3𝑥3 = 5
2𝑥1 + 3𝑥2 + 𝑥3 = 1
3𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 + 𝑥3 = 3
Assuming initial guess as 𝑥1 = 𝑥2 = 𝑥3 = 0, the value of 𝑥3 after the first iteration is __________
Q.30 A block of mass m rests on an inclined plane and is attached by a string to the wall as shown in the
figure. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block is 0.25. The string can
withstand a maximum force of 20 N. The maximum value of the mass (m) for which the string will
not break and the block will be in static equilibrium is ____________ kg.
Take cosand sin
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
Q.31 A two-member truss PQR is supporting a load W. The axial forces in members PQ and QR are
respectively
L
P Q
30
60
W
R
(A) 2𝑊 tensile and 3𝑊 compressive

(B) 3𝑊 tensile and 2𝑊 compressive
(C) 3𝑊 compressive and 2𝑊 tensile
(D) 2𝑊 compressive and 3𝑊 tensile
ME (Set-1) 5/11
Q.32 A horizontal bar with a constant cross-section is subjected to loading as shown in the figure. The
Young’s moduli for the sections AB and BC are 3E and E, respectively.
For the deflection at C to be zero, the ratio P/F is ____________
Q.33 The figure shows cross-section of a beam subjected to bending. The area moment of inertia
(in mm4) of this cross-section about its base is __________
10
R4 R4
8 All dimensions are in mm
10
10
Q.34 A simply-supported beam of length 3L is subjected to the loading shown in the figure.
P P
L L L
A
It is given that P = 1 N, L = 1 m and Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa. The cross-section is a square
with dimension 10 mm × 10 mm. The bending stress (in Pa) at the point A located at the top surface
of the beam at a distance of 1.5L from the left end is _____________
(Indicate compressive stress by a negative sign and tensile stress by a positive sign.)
Q.35 A slider crank mechanism with crank radius 200 mm and connecting rod length 800 mm is shown.
The crank is rotating at 600 rpm in the counterclockwise direction. In the configuration shown, the
crank makes an angle of 90 with the sliding direction of the slider, and a force of 5 kN is acting on
the slider. Neglecting the inertia forces, the turning moment on the crank (in kN-m) is __________
800 mm
200 mm 90
5 kN
ME (Set-1) 6/11
Q.36 In the gear train shown, gear 3 is carried on arm 5. Gear 3 meshes with gear 2 and gear 4. The
number of teeth on gear 2, 3, and 4 are 60, 20, and 100, respectively. If gear 2 is fixed and gear 4
rotates with an angular velocity of 100 rpm in the counterclockwise direction, the angular speed of
arm 5 (in rpm) is
4
2
3
5
(A) 166.7 counterclockwise (B) 166.7 clockwise

(C) 62.5 counterclockwise (D) 62.5 clockwise
Q.37 A solid disc with radius a is connected to a spring at a point d above the center of the disc. The
other end of the spring is fixed to the vertical wall. The disc is free to roll without slipping on the
ground. The mass of the disc is M and the spring constant is K. The polar moment of inertia for the
disc about its centre is J = 𝑀𝑎2 /2.
M, J
K
d
a
The natural frequency of this system in rad/s is given by

2 𝐾 (𝑎+𝑑)2 2𝐾 2 𝐾 (𝑎+𝑑)2 𝐾 (𝑎+𝑑)2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 𝑀 𝑎2 3𝑀 𝑀 𝑎2 𝑀 𝑎2
Q.38 The principal stresses at a point inside a solid object are 1 = 100 MPa, 2 = 100 MPa and 3 = 0
MPa. The yield strength of the material is 200 MPa. The factor of safety calculated using Tresca
(maximum shear stress) theory is nT and the factor of safety calculated using von Mises (maximum
distortional energy) theory is nV. Which one of the following relations is TRUE?
(A) nT = ( 3/2)nV
(B) nT = ( 3)nV
(C) nT = nV
(D) nV = ( 3)nT
ME (Set-1) 7/11
Q.39 An inverted U-tube manometer is used to measure the pressure difference between two pipes A and
B, as shown in the figure. Pipe A is carrying oil (specific gravity = 0.8) and pipe B is carrying
water. The densities of air and water are 1.16 kg/m3 and 1000 kg/m3, respectively. The pressure
difference between pipes A and B is __________kPa.
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
Q.40 Oil (kinematic viscosity, ν𝑜𝑖𝑙 = 1.0 × 10−5 m2/s) flows through a pipe of 0.5 m diameter with a
velocity of 10 m/s. Water (kinematic viscosity, ν𝑤 = 0.89 × 10−6 m2/s) is flowing through a model
pipe of diameter 20 mm. For satisfying the dynamic similarity, the velocity of water (in m/s)
is __________
Q.41 A steady laminar boundary layer is formed over a flat plate as shown in the figure. The free stream
velocity of the fluid is Uo.. The velocity profile at the inlet a-b is uniform, while that at a
𝑦 𝑦 2
downstream location c-d is given by 𝑢 = 𝑈𝑜 2 
− 
.
y

b d Uo
Uo 
a c
The ratio of the mass flow rate, 𝑚𝑏𝑑 , leaving through the horizontal section b-d to that entering
through the vertical section a-b is ___________
Q.42 A steel ball of 10 mm diameter at 1000 K is required to be cooled to 350 K by immersing it in a

water environment at 300 K. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 1000 W/m2-K. Thermal
conductivity of steel is 40 W/m-K. The time constant for the cooling process 𝜏 is 16 s. The time
required (in s) to reach the final temperature is __________
ME (Set-1) 8/11
Q.43 An infinitely long furnace of 0.5 m × 0. 4 m cross-section is shown in the figure below. Consider
all surfaces of the furnace to be black. The top and bottom walls are maintained at temperature
T1 = T3 = 927 oC while the side walls are at temperature T2 = T4 = 527 oC. The view factor, F1-2 is
0.26. The net radiation heat loss or gain on side 1 is_________ W/m.
Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 × 10−8 W/m2-K4
Q.44 A fluid (Prandtl number, Pr = 1) at 500 K flows over a flat plate of 1.5 m length, maintained at
300 K. The velocity of the fluid is 10 m/s. Assuming kinematic viscosity, ν = 30 × 10−6 m2/s, the
thermal boundary layer thickness (in mm) at 0.5 m from the leading edge is __________
Q.45 For water at 25 C, d𝑝s /d𝑇s = 0.189 kPa/K (𝑝s is the saturation pressure in kPa and 𝑇s is the
saturation temperature in K) and the specific volume of dry saturated vapour is 43.38 m3/kg.
Assume that the specific volume of liquid is negligible in comparison with that of vapour. Using
the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, an estimate of the enthalpy of evaporation of water at 25 C
(in kJ/kg) is __________
Q.46 An ideal gas undergoes a reversible process in which the pressure varies linearly with volume. The
conditions at the start (subscript 1) and at the end (subscript 2) of the process with usual notation
are: 𝑝1 = 100 kPa, 𝑉1 = 0.2 m3 and 𝑝2 = 200 kPa, 𝑉2 = 0.1 m3 and the gas constant,
R = 0.275 kJ/kg-K. The magnitude of the work required for the process (in kJ) is ________
Q.47 In a steam power plant operating on an ideal Rankine cycle, superheated steam enters the turbine at
3 MPa and 350 oC. The condenser pressure is 75 kPa. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
________ percent.
Given data:
For saturated liquid, at P = 75 kPa, h f  384.39 kJ/kg, v f  0.001037 m3/kg, sf = 1.213 kJ/kg-K
At 75 kPa, hfg = 2278.6 kJ/kg, sfg = 6.2434 kJ/kg-K
At P = 3 MPa and T = 350 oC (superheated steam), h  3115.3 kJ/kg, s  6.7428 kJ/kg-K
ME (Set-1) 9/11
Q.48 A hypothetical engineering stress-strain curve shown in the figure has three straight lines PQ, QR,
RS with coordinates P(0,0), Q(0.2,100), R(0.6,140) and S(0.8,130). 'Q' is the yield point, 'R' is the
UTS point and 'S' the fracture point.
160 (0.6, 140)
Engg. Stress (MPa)

140 (0.8, 130)
120 R
(0.2, 100) S
100
80
Q
60
40
20 P
(0, 0)
0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1
Engg. Strain (%)
The toughness of the material (in MJ/m3) is __________
Q.49 Heat is removed from a molten metal of mass 2 kg at a constant rate of 10 kW till it is completely
solidified. The cooling curve is shown in the figure.
1100
Temperature (K)
(0s, 1023K)
1000
900 (20s, 873K)
(10s, 873K)
800
700
600 (30s, 600K)
500
0 10 20 30 40
Time (s)
Assuming uniform temperature throughout the volume of the metal during solidification, the latent
heat of fusion of the metal (in kJ/kg) is __________
Q.50 The tool life equation for HSS tool is 𝑉𝑇 0.14 𝑓 0.7 𝑑0.4 = Constant. The tool life (T) of 30 min is
obtained using the following cutting conditions:
V = 45 m/min, f = 0.35 mm, d = 2.0 mm
If speed (V), feed (f) and depth of cut (d) are increased individually by 25%, the tool life (in min) is
(A) 0.15 (B) 1.06 (C) 22. 50 (D) 30.0
Q.51 A cylindrical job with diameter of 200 mm and height of 100 mm is to be cast using modulus
method of riser design. Assume that the bottom surface of cylindrical riser does not contribute as
cooling surface. If the diameter of the riser is equal to its height, then the height of the riser (in mm)
is
(A) 150 (B) 200 (C) 100 (D) 125
Q.52 A 300 mm thick slab is being cold rolled using roll of 600 mm diameter. If the coefficient of
friction is 0.08, the maximum possible reduction (in mm) is __________
ME (Set-1) 10/11
Q.53 The figure below represents a triangle PQR with initial coordinates of the vertices as P(1,3),
Q(4,5) and R(5,3.5). The triangle is rotated in the X-Y plane about the vertex P by angle  in
clockwise direction. If sin = 0.6 and cos = 0.8, the new coordinates of the vertex Q are
(A) (4.6, 2.8) (B) (3.2, 4.6) (C) (7.9, 5.5) (D) (5.5, 7.9)
Q.54 The annual demand for an item is 10,000 units. The unit cost is Rs. 100 and inventory carrying
charges are 14.4% of the unit cost per annum. The cost of one procurement is Rs. 2000. The time
between two consecutive orders to meet the above demand is _______ month(s).
Q.55 Maximize Z=15X1 + 20X2

subject to
12X1 + 4X2 ≥ 36
12X1 − 6X2 ≤ 24
X1, X2 ≥ 0
The above linear programming problem has
(A) infeasible solution (B) unbounded solution
(C) alternative optimum solutions (D) degenerate solution
ME (Set-1) 11/11
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA A 1
4 MCQ GA A 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA B 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ ME-1 D 1
2 MCQ ME-1 B 1
3 MCQ ME-1 A 1
4 MCQ ME-1 A 1
5 NAT ME-1 1.53 : 1.59 1
6 NAT ME-1 55 : 60 1
7 MCQ ME-1 C 1
8 MCQ ME-1 A 1
9 MCQ ME-1 D 1
10 NAT ME-1 199 : 201 1
11 NAT ME-1 19.9 : 20.1 1
12 MCQ ME-1 B 1
13 MCQ ME-1 C 1
14 MCQ ME-1 D 1
15 MCQ ME-1 A 1
16 MCQ ME-1 B 1
17 NAT ME-1 13.7 : 14.9 1
18 NAT ME-1 0.24 : 0.26 1
19 MCQ ME-1 A 1
20 MCQ ME-1 B 1
21 MCQ ME-1 D 1
22 MCQ ME-1 C 1
23 MCQ ME-1 A 1
24 NAT ME-1 0.49 : 0.51 1
25 MCQ ME-1 A 1
26 NAT ME-1 -5.1 : -4.9 2
27 NAT ME-1 -1.05 : -0.95 2
28 MCQ ME-1 A 2
29 NAT ME-1 -6 : -6 2
30 NAT ME-1 4.95 : 5.05 2
31 MCQ ME-1 B 2
32 NAT ME-1 3.9 : 4.1 2
33 NAT ME-1 1873 :1879 2
34 NAT ME-1 -1 : 1 2
35 NAT ME-1 0.9 : 1.1 2
36 MCQ ME-1 C 2
37 MCQ ME-1 A 2
38 MCQ ME-1 C 2
39 NAT ME-1 -2.21 : -2.19 ; 2.19 : 2.21 2
40 NAT ME-1 22.0 : 22.5 2
41 NAT ME-1 0.32 : 0.34 2
42 NAT ME-1 42.0 : 42.5 2
43 NAT ME-1 24528 : 24532 2
44 NAT ME-1 6.00 : 6.25 2
45 NAT ME-1 2400 : 2500 2
46 NAT ME-1 14.75 : 15.25 2
47 NAT ME-1 25.8 : 26.1 2
48 NAT ME-1 0.849 : 0.851 2
49 NAT ME-1 49.9 : 50.1 2
50 MCQ ME-1 B 2
51 MCQ ME-1 A 2
52 NAT ME-1 1.90 : 1.94 2
53 MCQ ME-1 A 2
54 NAT ME-1 1.9 : 2.1 2
55 MCQ ME-1 B 2
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA A 1
4 MCQ GA A 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA B 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ ME-1 D 1
2 MCQ ME-1 B 1
3 MCQ ME-1 A 1
4 MCQ ME-1 A 1
5 NAT ME-1 1.53 : 1.59 1
6 NAT ME-1 55 : 60 1
7 MCQ ME-1 C 1
8 MCQ ME-1 A 1
9 MCQ ME-1 D 1
10 NAT ME-1 199 : 201 1
11 NAT ME-1 19.9 : 20.1 1
12 MCQ ME-1 B 1
13 MCQ ME-1 C 1
14 MCQ ME-1 D 1
15 MCQ ME-1 A 1
16 MCQ ME-1 B 1
17 NAT ME-1 13.7 : 14.9 1
18 NAT ME-1 0.24 : 0.26 1
19 MCQ ME-1 A 1
20 MCQ ME-1 B 1
21 MCQ ME-1 D 1
22 MCQ ME-1 C 1
23 MCQ ME-1 A 1
24 NAT ME-1 0.49 : 0.51 1
25 MCQ ME-1 A 1
26 NAT ME-1 -5.1 : -4.9 2
27 NAT ME-1 -1.05 : -0.95 2
28 MCQ ME-1 A 2
29 NAT ME-1 -6 : -6 2
30 NAT ME-1 4.95 : 5.05 2
31 MCQ ME-1 B 2
32 NAT ME-1 3.9 : 4.1 2
33 NAT ME-1 1873 :1879 2
34 NAT ME-1 -1 : 1 2
35 NAT ME-1 0.9 : 1.1 2
36 MCQ ME-1 C 2
37 MCQ ME-1 A 2
38 MCQ ME-1 C 2
39 NAT ME-1 -2.21 : -2.19 ; 2.19 : 2.21 2
40 NAT ME-1 22.0 : 22.5 2
41 NAT ME-1 0.32 : 0.34 2
42 NAT ME-1 42.0 : 42.5 2
43 NAT ME-1 24528 : 24532 2
44 NAT ME-1 6.00 : 6.25 2
45 NAT ME-1 2400 : 2500 2
46 NAT ME-1 14.75 : 15.25 2
47 NAT ME-1 25.8 : 26.1 2
48 NAT ME-1 0.849 : 0.851 2
49 NAT ME-1 49.9 : 50.1 2
50 MCQ ME-1 B 2
51 MCQ ME-1 A 2
52 NAT ME-1 1.90 : 1.94 2
53 MCQ ME-1 A 2
54 NAT ME-1 1.9 : 2.1 2
55 MCQ ME-1 B 2

Q.1 The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is ________ than the volume of a cube of side 1 unit.
(A) least (B) less (C) lesser (D) low
Q.2 The unruly crowd demanded that the accused be _____________ without trial.
(A) hanged (B) hanging (C) hankering (D) hung
Q.3 Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used correctly:
(i) A prone is a dried plum.

(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart disease.
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (i) and (ii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Q.4 Fact: If it rains, then the field is wet.
Read the following statements:

(i) It rains
(ii) The field is not wet
(iii) The field is wet
(iv) It did not rain
Which one of the options given below is NOT logically possible, based on the given fact?
(A) If (iii), then (iv). (B) If (i), then (iii).
(C) If (i), then (ii). (D) If (ii), then (iv).
Q.5 A window is made up of a square portion and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of
the triangular portion coincides with the upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the window is
6 m, the area of the window in m2 is ___________.
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
1/3

Q.6 Students taking an exam are divided into two groups, P and Q such that each group has the same
number of students. The performance of each of the students in a test was evaluated out of 200
marks. It was observed that the mean of group P was 105, while that of group Q was 85. The
standard deviation of group P was 25, while that of group Q was 5. Assuming that the marks were
distributed on a normal distribution, which of the following statements will have the highest
probability of being TRUE?
(A) No student in group Q scored less marks than any student in group P.
(B) No student in group P scored less marks than any student in group Q.
(C) Most students of group Q scored marks in a narrower range than students in group P.
(D) The median of the marks of group P is 100.
Q.7 A smart city integrates all modes of transport, uses clean energy and promotes sustainable use of
resources. It also uses technology to ensure safety and security of the city, something which critics
argue, will lead to a surveillance state.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of surveillance states.

(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart city.
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in hand in a smart city.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities promote surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only (D) (i) only
Q.8 Find the missing sequence in the letter series.
B, FH, LNP, _ _ _ _.
(A) SUWY (B) TUVW (C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ
Q.9 The binary operation □ is defined as a □ b = ab+(a+b), where a and b are any two real numbers.
The value of the identity element of this operation, defined as the number x such that a □ x = a, for
any a, is .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
2/3
Q.10 | (| |)|
Which of the following curves represents the function = ln(| |) for | |<2 ?
Here, represents the abscissa and represents the ordinate.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3/3

Q.1 The condition for which the eigenvalues of the matrix
2 1
𝐴=
1 𝑘
are positive, is
(A) 𝑘 > 1/2 (B) 𝑘 > −2 (C) 𝑘 > 0 (D) 𝑘 < −1/2
Q.2 The values of x for which the function

𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 4
𝑓 𝑥 =
𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 4
is NOT continuous are
(A) 4 and −1 (B) 4 and 1 (C) −4 and 1 (D) −4 and −1
Q.3 t
Laplace transform of cos( t ) is
s
(A)
s 2
2

(B)
s 22
s
(C) 2
s 2

(D)
s 2
2
Q.4 A function 𝑓of the complex variable 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖 𝑦, is given as 𝑓 𝑥, 𝑦 = 𝑢 𝑥, 𝑦 + 𝑖 𝑣 𝑥, 𝑦 , where

𝑢 𝑥, 𝑦 = 2𝑘𝑥𝑦 and 𝑣 𝑥, 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 . The value of k, for which the function is analytic, is _____
Q.5 Numerical integration using trapezoidal rule gives the best result for a single variable function,
which is
(A) linear (B) parabolic (C) logarithmic (D) hyperbolic
Q.6 A point mass having mass M is moving with a velocity V at an angle to the wall as shown in the
figure. The mass undergoes a perfectly elastic collision with the smooth wall and rebounds. The
total change (final minus initial) in the momentum of the mass is
V

(A) −2𝑀𝑉 cos 𝜃 𝑗 (B) 2𝑀𝑉 sin 𝜃 𝑗 (C) 2𝑀𝑉 cos 𝜃 𝑗 (D) −2𝑀𝑉 sin 𝜃 𝑗
ME (Set-2) 1/14
Q.7 A shaft with a circular cross-section is subjected to pure twisting moment. The ratio of the
maximum shear stress to the largest principal stress is
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 0
Q.8 A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with closed-ends is subjected to internal pressure. The ratio of
circumferential (hoop) stress to the longitudinal stress is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0
Q.9 The forces F1 and F2 in a brake band and the direction of rotation of the drum are as shown in the
figure. The coefficient of friction is 0.25. The angle of wrap is 3/2 radians. It is given that R = 1 m
and F2 = 1 N. The torque (in N-m) exerted on the drum is _________
Q.10 A single degree of freedom mass-spring-viscous damper system with mass m, spring constant k and
viscous damping coefficient q is critically damped. The correct relation among m, k, and q is
2𝑘 𝑘
(A) 𝑞 = 2𝑘𝑚 (B) 𝑞 = 2 𝑘 𝑚 (C) 𝑞 = (D) 𝑞 = 2
𝑚 𝑚
Q.11 A machine element XY, fixed at end X, is subjected to an axial load P, transverse load F, and a
twisting moment T at its free end Y. The most critical point from the strength point of view is
F
T
P
X Y
(A) a point on the circumference at location Y

(B) a point at the center at location Y
(C) a point on the circumference at location X
(D) a point at the center at location X
ME (Set-2) 2/14
Q.12 For the brake shown in the figure, which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) Self energizing for clockwise rotation of the drum

(B) Self energizing for anti-clockwise rotation of the drum
(C) Self energizing for rotation in either direction of the drum
(D) Not of the self energizing type
Q.13 The volumetric flow rate (per unit depth) between two streamlines having stream functions 1 and
2 is
(A) 1+2 (B) 12 (C) 1/2 (D) 1−2
Q.14 Assuming constant temperature condition and air to be an ideal gas, the variation in atmospheric
pressure with height calculated from fluid statics is
(A) linear (B) exponential (C) quadratic (D) cubic
Q.15 A hollow cylinder has length L, inner radius r1, outer radius r2, and thermal conductivity k. The
thermal resistance of the cylinder for radial conduction is
ln(r2 / r1 ) ln(r1 / r2 ) 2 kL 2 kL
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 kL 2 kL ln(r2 / r1 ) ln(r1 / r2 )
Q.16 Consider the radiation heat exchange inside an annulus between two very long concentric cylinders.
The radius of the outer cylinder is 𝑅o and that of the inner cylinder is 𝑅i . The radiation view factor
of the outer cylinder onto itself is
𝑅i 𝑅i 𝑅i 1/3 𝑅
(A) 1 − (B) 1 − (C) 1 − (D) 1 − 𝑅 i
𝑅o 𝑅o 𝑅o o
Q.17 The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of

(A) temperature and pressure
(B) volume and pressure
(C) entropy and pressure
(D) temperature only
Q.18 The heat removal rate from a refrigerated space and the power input to the compressor are 7.2 kW
and 1.8 kW, respectively. The coefficient of performance (COP) of the refrigerator is ______
ME (Set-2) 3/14
Q.19 Consider a simple gas turbine (Brayton) cycle and a gas turbine cycle with perfect regeneration. In
both the cycles, the pressure ratio is 6 and the ratio of the specific heats of the working medium is
1.4. The ratio of minimum to maximum temperatures is 0.3 (with temperatures expressed in K) in
the regenerative cycle. The ratio of the thermal efficiency of the simple cycle to that of the
regenerative cycle is _________
Q.20 In a single-channel queuing model, the customer arrival rate is 12 per hour and the serving rate is
24 per hour. The expected time that a customer is in queue is _______ minutes.
Q.21 In the phase diagram shown in the figure, four samples of the same composition are heated to
temperatures marked by a, b, c and d.
At which temperature will a sample get solutionized the fastest?

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
Q.22 The welding process which uses a blanket of fusible granular flux is
(A) tungsten inert gas welding (B) submerged arc welding
(C) electroslag welding (D) thermit welding
Q.23 The value of true strain produced in compressing a cylinder to half its original length is
(A) 0.69 (B) − 0.69 (C) 0.5 (D) − 0.5
Q.24 The following data is applicable for a turning operation. The length of job is 900 mm, diameter of
job is 200 mm, feed rate is 0.25 mm/rev and optimum cutting speed is 300 m/min. The machining
time (in min) is __________
ME (Set-2) 4/14
Q.25 In an ultrasonic machining (USM) process, the material removal rate (MRR) is plotted as a function
of the feed force of the USM tool. With increasing feed force, the MRR exhibits the following
behavior:
(A) increases linearly
(B) decreases linearly
(C) does not change
(D) first increases and then decreases
Q.26 A scalar potential 𝜑 has the following gradient: 𝛻𝜑 = 𝑦𝑧𝑖 + 𝑥𝑧𝑗 + 𝑥𝑦𝑘 . Consider the integral
𝐶
∇𝜑. d𝑟 on the curve 𝑟 = 𝑥𝑖 + 𝑦𝑗 + 𝑧𝑘 .
𝑥=𝑡
The curve C is parameterized as follows: 𝑦 = 𝑡 2 and 1 ≤ 𝑡 ≤ 3.
𝑧 = 3𝑡 2
The value of the integral is ________
Q.27 3 𝑧−5
The value of
Γ
d𝑧 along a closed path Γ is equal to 4 𝜋 𝑖 , where 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖𝑦 and
𝑧−1 𝑧−2
𝑖 = −1. The correct path Γ is
(A) 𝑦 (B) 𝑦
Γ Γ
𝑥 𝑥
0 1 2 0 1 2
(C) 𝑦 (D) 𝑦
Γ
Γ
𝑥 𝑥
0 1 2 0 1 2
Q.28 The probability that a screw manufactured by a company is defective is 0.1. The company sells
screws in packets containing 5 screws and gives a guarantee of replacement if one or more screws
in the packet are found to be defective. The probability that a packet would have to be replaced
is _________
ME (Set-2) 5/14
𝜋
Q.29 The error in numerically computing the integral 0 (sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥) d𝑥 using the trapezoidal rule
with three intervals of equal length between 0 and 𝜋 is ___________
Q.30 A mass of 2000 kg is currently being lowered at a velocity of 2 m/s from the drum as shown in the
figure. The mass moment of inertia of the drum is 150 kg-m2. On applying the brake, the mass is
brought to rest in a distance of 0.5 m. The energy absorbed by the brake (in kJ) is __________
2m
2 m/s
2000 kg
Q.31 A system of particles in motion has mass center G as shown in the figure. The particle i has mass mi
and its position with respect to a fixed point O is given by the position vector ri. The position of the
particle with respect to G is given by the vector i. The time rate of change of the angular
momentum of the system of particles about G is
(The quantity 𝝆𝑖 indicates second derivative of 𝝆𝑖 with respect to time and likewise for 𝒓𝑖 ).
(A) 𝑖 𝒓𝑖 × 𝑚𝑖 𝝆𝑖 (B) 𝑖 𝝆𝑖 × 𝑚𝑖 𝒓𝑖
(C) 𝑖 𝒓𝑖 × 𝑚𝑖 𝒓𝑖 (D) 𝑖 𝝆𝑖 × 𝑚𝑖 𝝆𝑖
ME (Set-2) 6/14
Q.32 A rigid horizontal rod of length 2L is fixed to a circular cylinder of radius R as shown in the figure.
Vertical forces of magnitude P are applied at the two ends as shown in the figure. The shear
modulus for the cylinder is G and the Young’s modulus is E.
P
L
R
L
P
L
A
The vertical deflection at point A is

(A) 𝑃𝐿3 /(𝜋𝑅 4 𝐺) (B) 𝑃𝐿3 /(𝜋𝑅 4 𝐸) (C) 2𝑃𝐿3 /(𝜋𝑅 4 𝐸) (D) 4𝑃𝐿3 /(𝜋𝑅 4 𝐺)
Q.33 A simply supported beam of length 2L is subjected to a moment M at the mid-point x = 0 as shown
in the figure. The deflection in the domain 0 ≤ x ≤ L is given by
−𝑀𝑥
𝑤= 𝐿−𝑥 𝑥+𝑐 ,
12 𝐸𝐼𝐿
where E is the Young’s modulus, I is the area moment of inertia and c is a constant (to be
determined) .
y
M
L L
The slope at the center x = 0 is
(A) 𝑀𝐿/(2𝐸𝐼) (B) 𝑀𝐿/(3𝐸𝐼) (C) 𝑀𝐿/(6𝐸𝐼) (D) 𝑀𝐿/(12𝐸𝐼)
ME (Set-2) 7/14
Q.34 In the figure, the load P = 1 N, length L = 1 m, Young’s modulus E = 70 GPa, and the cross-section
of the links is a square with dimension 10 mm × 10 mm. All joints are pin joints.
The stress (in Pa) in the link AB is ___________
(Indicate compressive stress by a negative sign and tensile stress by a positive sign.)
Q.35 A circular metallic rod of length 250 mm is placed between two rigid immovable walls as shown in
the figure. The rod is in perfect contact with the wall on the left side and there is a gap of 0.2 mm
between the rod and the wall on the right side. If the temperature of the rod is increased by 200 o C,
the axial stress developed in the rod is __________ MPa.
Young’s modulus of the material of the rod is 200 GPa and the coefficient of thermal expansion is
10−5 per oC.
ME (Set-2) 8/14
Q.36 The rod AB, of length 1 m, shown in the figure is connected to two sliders at each end through pins.
The sliders can slide along QP and QR. If the velocity VA of the slider at A is 2 m/s, the velocity of
the midpoint of the rod at this instant is ___________ m/s.
Q.37 The system shown in the figure consists of block A of mass 5 kg connected to a spring through a
massless rope passing over pulley B of radius r and mass 20 kg. The spring constant k is 1500 N/m.
If there is no slipping of the rope over the pulley, the natural frequency of the system
is_____________ rad/s.
Q.38 In a structural member under fatigue loading, the minimum and maximum stresses developed at the
critical point are 50 MPa and 150 MPa, respectively. The endurance, yield, and the ultimate
strengths of the material are 200 MPa, 300 MPa and 400 MPa, respectively. The factor of safety
using modified Goodman criterion is
3 8 12
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
2 5 7
ME (Set-2) 9/14
Q.39 The large vessel shown in the figure contains oil and water. A body is submerged at the interface of
oil and water such that 45 percent of its volume is in oil while the rest is in water. The density of
the body is _________ kg/m3.
The specific gravity of oil is 0.7 and density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
Q.40 Consider fluid flow between two infinite horizontal plates which are parallel (the gap between them
being 50 mm). The top plate is sliding parallel to the stationary bottom plate at a speed of 3 m/s.
The flow between the plates is solely due to the motion of the top plate. The force per unit area
(magnitude) required to maintain the bottom plate stationary is _________ N/m2.
Viscosity of the fluid µ = 0.44 kg/m-s and density = 888 kg/m3.
ME (Set-2) 10/14
Q.41 Consider a frictionless, massless and leak-proof plug blocking a rectangular hole of dimensions
2𝑅 × 𝐿 at the bottom of an open tank as shown in the figure. The head of the plug has the shape of
a semi-cylinder of radius R. The tank is filled with a liquid of density  up to the tip of the plug.
The gravitational acceleration is g. Neglect the effect of the atmospheric pressure.
g
R R R
L
F F
Sectional view A-A
A
The force F required to hold the plug in its position is
𝜋 𝜋
(A) 2𝜌𝑅 2 𝑔𝐿 1 − (B) 2𝜌𝑅 2 𝑔𝐿 1 +
4 4
𝜋
(C) 𝜋𝑅 2 𝜌𝑔𝐿 (D) 2
𝜌𝑅 2 𝑔𝐿
Q.42 Consider a parallel-flow heat exchanger with area 𝐴p and a counter-flow heat exchanger with area
𝐴c . In both the heat exchangers, the hot stream flowing at 1 kg/s cools from 80 C to 50 C. For the
cold stream in both the heat exchangers, the flow rate and the inlet temperature are 2 kg/s and
10 C, respectively. The hot and cold streams in both the heat exchangers are of the same fluid.
Also, both the heat exchangers have the same overall heat transfer coefficient. The ratio 𝐴c /𝐴p
is _________
Q.43 Two cylindrical shafts A and B at the same initial temperature are simultaneously placed in a
furnace. The surfaces of the shafts remain at the furnace gas temperature at all times after they are
introduced into the furnace. The temperature variation in the axial direction of the shafts can be
assumed to be negligible. The data related to shafts A and B is given in the following Table.
Quantity Shaft A Shaft B

Diameter (m) 0.4 0.1
Thermal conductivity (W/m-K) 40 20
Volumetric heat capacity (J/m3-K) 2×106 2×107
The temperature at the centerline of the shaft A reaches 400 C after two hours. The time required
(in hours) for the centerline of the shaft B to attain the temperature of 400 C is _______
Q.44 A piston-cylinder device initially contains 0.4 m3 of air (to be treated as an ideal gas) at 100 kPa
and 80 oC. The air is now isothermally compressed to 0.1 m3. The work done during this process
is ________ kJ.
(Take the sign convention such that work done on the system is negative)
Q.45 A reversible cycle receives 40 kJ of heat from one heat source at a temperature of 127 C and 37 kJ
from another heat source at 97 C. The heat rejected (in kJ) to the heat sink at 47 C is __________
ME (Set-2) 11/14
Q.46 A refrigerator uses R-134a as its refrigerant and operates on an ideal vapour-compression
refrigeration cycle between 0.14 MPa and 0.8 MPa. If the mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.05
kg/s, the rate of heat rejection to the environment is _________ kW.
Given data:
At P = 0.14 MPa, h  236.04 kJ/kg, s  0.9322 kJ/kg-K
At P = 0.8 MPa, h  272.05 kJ/kg (superheated vapour)
At P = 0.8 MPa, h  93.42 kJ/kg (saturated liquid)
Q.47 The partial pressure of water vapour in a moist air sample of relative humidity 70% is 1.6 kPa, the
total pressure being 101.325 kPa. Moist air may be treated as an ideal gas mixture of water vapour
and dry air. The relation between saturation temperature (𝑇s in K) and saturation pressure (𝑝s in
kPa) for water is given by ln(𝑝s /𝑝𝑜 ) = 14.317 − 5304/𝑇s , where 𝑝𝑜 = 101.325 kPa. The dry
bulb temperature of the moist air sample (in C) is __________
Q.48 In a binary system of A and B, a liquid of 20% A (80% B) is coexisting with a solid of 70% A
(30% B). For an overall composition having 40% A, the fraction of solid is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.60 (D) 0.75
Q.49 Gray cast iron blocks of size 100 mm × 50 mm × 10 mm with a central spherical cavity of diameter
4 mm are sand cast. The shrinkage allowance for the pattern is 3%. The ratio of the volume of the
pattern to volume of the casting is _________
Q.50 The voltage-length characteristic of a direct current arc in an arc welding process is
𝑉 = 100 + 40𝑙 , where 𝑙 is the length of the arc in mm and V is arc voltage in volts. During a
welding operation, the arc length varies between 1 and 2 mm and the welding current is in the range
200-250 A. Assuming a linear power source, the short circuit current is_________ A.
Q.51 For a certain job, the cost of metal cutting is Rs. 18𝐶/𝑉 and the cost of tooling is Rs. 270𝐶/(𝑇𝑉),
where 𝐶 is a constant, 𝑉 is the cutting speed in m/min and 𝑇 is the tool life in minutes. The Taylor's
tool life equation is 𝑉𝑇 0.25 = 150. The cutting speed (in m/min) for the minimum total cost
is _______
ME (Set-2) 12/14
Q.52 The surface irregularities of electrodes used in an electrochemical machining (ECM) process are
3 µm and 6 µm as shown in the figure. If the work-piece is of pure iron and 12V DC is applied
between the electrodes, the largest feed rate is ___________mm/min.
Conductivity of the electrolyte 0.02 ohm-1mm-1

Over-potential voltage 1.5 V
Density of iron 7860 kg/m3
Atomic weight of iron 55.85 gm
Assume the iron to be dissolved as Fe+2 and the Faraday constant to be 96500 Coulomb.
Q.53 For the situation shown in the figure below the expression for H in terms of r, R and D is
(A) 𝐻= 𝐷 + 𝑟2 + 𝑅2
(B) 𝐻= 𝑅 + 𝑟 + (𝐷 + 𝑟)
(C) 𝐻= 𝑅 + 𝑟 + 𝐷2 − 𝑅2
(D) 𝐻= 𝑅 + 𝑟 + 2𝐷 𝑅 + 𝑟 − 𝐷 2
Q.54 A food processing company uses 25,000 kg of corn flour every year. The quantity-discount price of
corn flour is provided in the table below:
Quantity (kg) Unit price (Rs/kg)

1-749 70
750-1499 65
1500 and above 60
The order processing charges are Rs. 500/order. The handling plus carry-over charge on an annual
basis is 20% of the purchase price of the corn flour per kg. The optimal order quantity (in kg)
is _____________
ME (Set-2) 13/14
Q.55 A project consists of 14 activities, A to N. The duration of these activities (in days) are shown in
brackets on the network diagram. The latest finish time (in days) for node 10 is __________
E(4)
3 10
J(2) M(3)
B(3) 6 8
K(3)
F(2)
A(2) L(2) N(2)

C(4) 9 11 12
1 2 4
G(4) I(5)
D(2) 7 H(4)
ME (Set-2) 14/14
1 MCQ GA B 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA D 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ ME-2 A 1
2 MCQ ME-2 C 1
3 MCQ ME-2 A 1
4 NAT ME-2 -1.1 : -0.9 1
5 MCQ ME-2 A 1
6 MCQ ME-2 D 1
7 MCQ ME-2 B 1
8 MCQ ME-2 D 1
9 NAT ME-2 2.2 : 2.3 1
10 MCQ ME-2 B 1
11 MCQ ME-2 C 1
12 MCQ ME-2 A 1
13 MCQ ME-2 D 1
14 MCQ ME-2 B 1
15 MCQ ME-2 A 1
16 MCQ ME-2 D 1
17 MCQ ME-2 D 1
18 NAT ME-2 3.9 : 4.1 1
19 NAT ME-2 0.79 : 0.81 1
20 NAT ME-2 2.4 : 2.6 1
21 MCQ ME-2 C 1
22 MCQ ME-2 B 1
23 MCQ ME-2 B 1
24 NAT ME-2 7.4 : 7.6 1
25 MCQ ME-2 D 1
26 NAT ME-2 725.9 : 726.1 2
27 MCQ ME-2 B 2
28 NAT ME-2 0.39 : 0.43 2
29 NAT ME-2 0.175 : 0.195 2
30 NAT ME-2 14.1 : 14.3 2
31 MCQ ME-2 B 2
32 MCQ ME-2 D 2
33 MCQ ME-2 C 2
34 NAT ME-2 -1 : 1 2
35 NAT ME-2 239.9 : 240.1 2
36 NAT ME-2 0.95 : 1.05 2
37 NAT ME-2 9.9 : 10.1 2
38 MCQ ME-2 D 2
39 NAT ME-2 860 : 870 2
40 NAT ME-2 26.3 : 26.5 2
41 MCQ ME-2 A 2
42 NAT ME-2 0.91 : 0.95 2
43 NAT ME-2 2.4 : 2.6 2
44 NAT ME-2 -55.6 : -55.4 2
45 NAT ME-2 63 : 65 2
46 NAT ME-2 8.90 : 8.95 2
47 NAT ME-2 19.5 : 19.9 2
48 MCQ ME-2 A 2
49 NAT ME-2 1.08 : 1.10 2
50 NAT ME-2 423 : 428 2
51 NAT ME-2 57.8 : 58.0 2
52 NAT ME-2 51.0 :52.0 2
53 MCQ ME-2 D 2
54 NAT ME-2 1499 : 1501 2
55 NAT ME-2 14 : 14 2
1 MCQ GA B 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA D 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ ME-2 A 1
2 MCQ ME-2 C 1
3 MCQ ME-2 A 1
4 NAT ME-2 -1.1 : -0.9 1
5 MCQ ME-2 A 1
6 MCQ ME-2 D 1
7 MCQ ME-2 B 1
8 MCQ ME-2 D 1
9 NAT ME-2 2.2 : 2.3 1
10 MCQ ME-2 B 1
11 MCQ ME-2 C 1
12 MCQ ME-2 A 1
13 MCQ ME-2 D 1
14 MCQ ME-2 B 1
15 MCQ ME-2 A 1
16 MCQ ME-2 D 1
17 MCQ ME-2 D 1
18 NAT ME-2 3.9 : 4.1 1
19 NAT ME-2 0.79 : 0.81 1
20 NAT ME-2 2.4 : 2.6 1
21 MCQ ME-2 C 1
22 MCQ ME-2 B 1
23 MCQ ME-2 B 1
24 NAT ME-2 7.4 : 7.6 1
25 MCQ ME-2 D 1
26 NAT ME-2 725.9 : 726.1 2
27 MCQ ME-2 B 2
28 NAT ME-2 0.39 : 0.43 2
29 NAT ME-2 0.175 : 0.195 2
30 NAT ME-2 14.1 : 14.3 2
31 MCQ ME-2 B;D 2
32 MCQ ME-2 D 2
33 MCQ ME-2 C 2
34 NAT ME-2 -1 : 1 2
35 NAT ME-2 239 : 241 ; -241 : -239 2
36 NAT ME-2 0.95 : 1.05 2
37 NAT ME-2 9.9 : 10.1 2
38 MCQ ME-2 D 2
39 NAT ME-2 860 : 870 2
40 NAT ME-2 26.3 : 26.5 2
41 MCQ ME-2 A 2
42 NAT ME-2 0.91 : 0.95 2
43 NAT ME-2 2.4 : 2.6 2
44 NAT ME-2 -55.6 : -55.4 2
45 NAT ME-2 63 : 65 2
46 NAT ME-2 8.90 : 8.95 2
47 NAT ME-2 19.5 : 19.9 2
48 MCQ ME-2 A 2
49 NAT ME-2 1.08 : 1.10 2
50 NAT ME-2 423 : 428 2
51 NAT ME-2 57.8 : 58.0 2
52 NAT ME-2 51.0 :52.0 2
53 MCQ ME-2 D 2
54 NAT ME-2 1499 : 1501 2
55 NAT ME-2 14 : 14 2

Q.1 Based on the given statements, select the appropriate option with respect to grammar and usage.
Statements
(i) The height of Mr. X is 6 feet.
(ii) The height of Mr. Y is 5 feet.
(A) Mr. X is longer than Mr. Y.
(B) Mr. X is more elongated than Mr. Y.
(C) Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y.
(D) Mr. X is lengthier than Mr. Y.
Q.2 The students ___________ the teacher on teachers’ day for twenty years of dedicated teaching.
(A) facilitated (B) felicitated (C) fantasized (D) facillitated
Q.3 After India’s cricket world cup victory in 1985, Shrotria who was playing both tennis and cricket
till then, decided to concentrate only on cricket. And the rest is history.
What does the underlined phrase mean in this context?

(A) history will rest in peace (B) rest is recorded in history books
(C) rest is well known (D) rest is archaic
Q.4 ½ ½
Given (9 inches) = (0.25 yards) , which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) 3 inches = 0.5 yards (B) 9 inches = 1.5 yards
(C) 9 inches = 0.25 yards (D) 81 inches = 0.0625 yards
Q.5 S, M, E and F are working in shifts in a team to finish a project. M works with twice the efficiency
of others but for half as many days as E worked. S and M have 6 hour shifts in a day, whereas E
and F have 12 hours shifts. What is the ratio of contribution of M to contribution of E in the
project?
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:4 (D) 2:1
1/3
GATE 2016 General Ap
ptitude - GA Set-3
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
Q.6 Thee Venn diagrram shows thhe preferencee of the studeent populatioon for leisuree activities.
Froom the data given,

g the num
mber of studdents who lik
ke to read boooks or play ssports is ____
__.
(A)) 44 (B) 51 (C) 79 (D) 108
Q.7 Soccial science disciplines were

w in existtence in an amorphous
a f
form until thhe colonial period when
theyy were instittutionalized. In varying degrees, theyy were intennded to furthher the colon nial interest.
In the
t time of globalization
g and the econnomic rise of postcoloniaal countries llike India, co
onventional
wayys of knowleedge producttion have beccome obsolette.
Whhich of the foollowing can be logicallyy inferred from

m the above statements?
(i) Soccial science disciplines

d have become obsolete.
(ii) Soccial science disciplines
d had a pre-colo
onial origin.
(iii) Soccial science disciplines
d allways promoote colonialissm.
(iv) Soccial science must
m maintaiin disciplinarry boundariees.
(A)) (ii) only (B) (i) and (iii)) only
(C)) (ii) and (ivv) only (D) (iii) and (ivv) only
Q.8 Tw or, the reflecttion of a walll clock without number

wo and a quarrter hours baack, when seeen in a mirro
marrkings seemeed to show 1:30. What iss the actual cu
urrent time shown
s by thee clock?
(A)) 8:15 (B) 11:15 (C) 12:15 (D) 12:45
Q.9 M and N start from

f the sam
me location. M travels 10
0 km East annd then 10 km
m North-Easst. N travels
5 km
k South andd then 4 km South-East. What is thee shortest disstance (in km m) between M and N at
the end of their travel?
(A)) 18.60 (B) 22.50 (C) 20.61 (D) 25.00
2/33
Q.10 A wire of length 340 mm is to be cut into two parts. One of the parts is to be made into a square and
the other into a rectangle where sides are in the ratio of 1:2. What is the length of the side of the
square (in mm) such that the combined area of the square and the rectangle is a MINIMUM?
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 120 (D) 180
3/3

Q.1 A real square matrix A is called skew-symmetric if
(A) AT = A
(B) AT = A-1
(C) AT = A
(D) AT = A+A-1
Q.2 log e (1+4𝑥)

Lt is equal to
𝑥→0 e 3𝑥 −1
(A) 0 1 4 (D) 1
(B) 12 (C) 3
Q.3 Solutions of Laplace’s equation having continuous second-order partial derivatives are called
(A) biharmonic functions
(B) harmonic functions
(C) conjugate harmonic functions
(D) error functions
Q.4 The area (in percentage) under standard normal distribution curve of random variable Z within
limits from −3 to +3 is __________
Q.5 3
The root of the function f(x) = x +x1 obtained after first iteration on application of Newton-
Raphson scheme using an initial guess of x0=1 is
(A) 0.682 (B) 0.686 (C) 0.750 (D) 1.000
ME (Set-3) 1/13
Q.6 A force F is acting on a bent bar which is clamped at one end as shown in the figure.
The CORRECT free body diagram is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.7 The cross-sections of two solid bars made of the same material are shown in the figure. The square
cross-section has flexural (bending) rigidity I1, while the circular cross-section has flexural rigidity
I2. Both sections have the same cross-sectional area. The ratio I1/I2 is
(A) 1/𝜋 (B) 2/𝜋 (C) 𝜋/3 (D) 𝜋/6
ME (Set-3) 2/13
Q.8 The state of stress at a point on an element is shown in figure (a). The same state of stress is shown
in another coordinate system in figure (b).
(a) (b)
The components (xx,yy,xy) are given by
(A) (𝑝/ 2, −𝑝/ 2, 0 ) (B) (0 , 0 , 𝑝)
(C) ( 𝑝, −𝑝 , 𝑝/ 2 ) (D) (0 , 0 , 𝑝/ 2)
Q.9 A rigid link PQ is undergoing plane motion as shown in the figure (VP and VQ are non-zero). VQP is
the relative velocity of point Q with respect to point P.
Which one of the following is TRUE?

(A) VQP has components along and perpendicular to PQ
(B) VQP has only one component directed from P to Q
(C) VQP has only one component directed from Q to P
(D) VQP has only one component perpendicular to PQ
Q.10 The number of degrees of freedom in a planar mechanism having n links and j simple hinge joints
is
(A) 3 𝑛 − 3 − 2𝑗
(B) 3 𝑛 − 1 − 2𝑗
(C) 3𝑛 − 2𝑗
(D) 2𝑗 − 3𝑛 + 4
Q.11 The static deflection of a spring under gravity, when a mass of 1 kg is suspended from it, is 1 mm.
Assume the acceleration due to gravity g =10 m/s2. The natural frequency of this spring-mass
system (in rad/s) is_____________
Q.12 Which of the bearings given below SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust load?
(A) Deep groove ball bearing
(B) Angular contact ball bearing
(C) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing
(D) Single row tapered roller bearing
ME (Set-3) 3/13
Q.13 A channel of width 450 mm branches into two sub-channels having width 300 mm and 200 mm as
shown in figure. If the volumetric flow rate (taking unit depth) of an incompressible flow through
the main channel is 0.9 m3/s and the velocity in the sub-channel of width 200 mm is 3 m/s, the
velocity in the sub-channel of width 300 mm is _____________ m/s.
Assume both inlet and outlet to be at the same elevation.
Q.14 For a certain two-dimensional incompressible flow, velocity field is given by 2𝑥𝑦 𝑖 − 𝑦 2 𝑗. The
streamlines for this flow are given by the family of curves
(A) 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 = constant (B) 𝑥𝑦 2 = constant
(C) 2𝑥𝑦 − 𝑦 2 = constant (D) 𝑥𝑦 = constant
Q.15 Steady one-dimensional heat conduction takes place across the faces 1 and 3 of a composite slab
consisting of slabs A and B in perfect contact as shown in the figure, where k𝐴 , k 𝐵 denote the
respective thermal conductivities. Using the data as given in the figure, the interface temperature
T2 (in °C) is __________
Q.16 Grashof number signifies the ratio of

(A) inertia force to viscous force
(B) buoyancy force to viscous force
(C) buoyancy force to inertia force
(D) inertia force to surface tension force
ME (Set-3) 4/13
Q.17 The INCORRECT statement about the characteristics of critical point of a pure substance is that
(A) there is no constant temperature vaporization process
(B) it has point of inflection with zero slope
(C) the ice directly converts from solid phase to vapor phase
(D) saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are identical
Q.18 For a heat exchanger, ∆Tmax is the maximum temperature difference and ∆Tmin is the minimum
temperature difference between the two fluids. LMTD is the log mean temperature difference. Cmin
and Cmax are the minimum and the maximum heat capacity rates. The maximum possible heat
transfer (Qmax) between the two fluids is
(A) Cmin LMTD (B) Cmin ∆Tmax (C) Cmax ∆Tmax (D) Cmax ∆Tmin
Q.19 The blade and fluid velocities for an axial turbine are as shown in the figure.
Blade speed
150 m/s
300 m/s 150 m/s

65
Entry Exit
The magnitude of absolute velocity at entry is 300 m/s at an angle of 65 to the axial direction,
while the magnitude of the absolute velocity at exit is 150 m/s. The exit velocity vector has a
component in the downward direction. Given that the axial (horizontal) velocity is the same at entry
and exit, the specific work (in kJ/kg) is__________
Q.20 Engineering strain of a mild steel sample is recorded as 0.100%. The true strain is
(A) 0.010% (B) 0.055% (C) 0.099% (D) 0.101%
Q.21 Equal amounts of a liquid metal at the same temperature are poured into three moulds made of
steel, copper and aluminum. The shape of the cavity is a cylinder with 15 mm diameter. The size of
the moulds are such that the outside temperature of the moulds do not increase appreciably beyond
the atmospheric temperature during solidification. The sequence of solidification in the mould
from the fastest to slowest is
(Thermal conductivities of steel, copper and aluminum are 60.5, 401 and 237 W/m-K, respectively.
Specific heats of steel, copper and aluminum are 434, 385 and 903 J/kg-K, respectively.
Densities of steel, copper and aluminum are 7854, 8933 and 2700 kg/m3, respectively.)
(A) Copper - Steel - Aluminum
(B) Aluminum - Steel - Copper
(C) Copper - Aluminum - Steel
(D) Steel - Copper - Aluminum
ME (Set-3) 5/13
Q.22 In a wire-cut EDM process the necessary conditions that have to be met for making a successful cut
are that
(A) wire and sample are electrically non-conducting
(B) wire and sample are electrically conducting
(C) wire is electrically conducting and sample is electrically non-conducting
(D) sample is electrically conducting and wire is electrically non-conducting
Q.23 Internal gears are manufactured by
(A) hobbing
(B) shaping with pinion cutter
(C) shaping with rack cutter
(D) milling
Q.24 Match the following part programming codes with their respective functions
Part Programming Codes Functions

P. G01 I. Spindle stop
Q. G03 II. Spindle rotation, clockwise
R. M03 III. Circular interpolation, anticlockwise
S. M05 IV. Linear interpolation
(A) P – II, Q – I, R – IV, S – III (B) P – IV, Q – II, R – III, S – I

(C) P – IV, Q – III, R – II, S – I (D) P – III, Q – IV, R – II, S – I
Q.25 In PERT chart, the activity time distribution is

(A) Normal (B) Binomial (C) Poisson (D) Beta
Q.26 2 1 0
The number of linearly independent eigenvectors of matrix 𝐴 = 0 2 0 is _________
0 0 3
 F  r  ds, where C is a circle of radius

Q.27 4
The value of the line integral 𝜋
units is ________
C
Here, 𝐹 𝑥, 𝑦 = 𝑦 𝑖 + 2𝑥 𝑗 and 𝑟 ′ is the UNIT tangent vector on the curve C at an arc length s
from a reference point on the curve. 𝑖 and 𝑗 are the basis vectors in the x-y Cartesian reference. In
evaluating the line integral, the curve has to be traversed in the counter-clockwise direction.
ME (Set-3) 6/13
Q.28 lim𝑥→∞ 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 1 − 𝑥 is
(A) 0 (B) ∞ (C) 1/2 (D) −∞
Q.29 Three cards were drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that they are a king, a queen, and
a jack is
16 64 3 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5525 2197 13 16575
Q.30 An inextensible massless string goes over a frictionless pulley. Two weights of 100 N and 200 N
are attached to the two ends of the string. The weights are released from rest, and start moving due
to gravity. The tension in the string (in N) is __________
200 N
100 N
Q.31 A circular disc of radius 100 mm and mass 1 kg, initially at rest at position A, rolls without
slipping down a curved path as shown in figure. The speed v of the disc when it reaches position B
is _________ m/s.
ME (Set-3) 7/13
Q.32 A rigid rod (AB) of length 𝐿 = 2 m is undergoing translational as well as rotational motion in the
x-y plane (see the figure). The point A has the velocity 𝑉1 = 𝑖 + 2𝑗 m/s. The end B is constrained to
move only along the x direction.
V2
B
V1
=45
A
The magnitude of the velocity V2 (in m/s) at the end B is __________
Q.33 A square plate of dimension L × L is subjected to a uniform pressure load p = 250 MPa on its
edges as shown in the figure. Assume plane stress conditions. The Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa.
The deformed shape is a square of dimension 𝐿 − 2 𝛿. If 𝐿 = 2 m and 𝛿 = 0.001 m, the Poisson’s

ratio of the plate material is __________
Q.34 Two circular shafts made of same material, one solid (S) and one hollow (H), have the same length
and polar moment of inertia. Both are subjected to same torque. Here, S is the twist and S is the
maximum shear stress in the solid shaft, whereas H is the twist and H is the maximum shear stress
in the hollow shaft. Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) S = H and S = H
(B)S > H and S > H
(C)S < H and S < H
(D)S = H and S < H
ME (Set-3) 8/13
Q.35 A beam of length L is carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length. The flexural rigidity
of the beam is EI. The reaction at the simple support at the right end is
w
𝑤𝐿 3𝑤𝐿 𝑤𝐿 𝑤𝐿
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 8 4 8
Q.36 Two masses m are attached to opposite sides of a rigid rotating shaft in the vertical plane. Another
pair of equal masses m1 is attached to the opposite sides of the shaft in the vertical plane as shown
in figure. Consider m = 1 kg, e = 50 mm, e1 = 20 mm, b = 0.3 m, a = 2 m and a1 = 2.5 m. For the
system to be dynamically balanced, m1 should be ________ kg.
Q.37 A single degree of freedom spring-mass system is subjected to a harmonic force of constant
3𝑘
amplitude. For an excitation frequency of , the ratio of the amplitude of steady state
𝑚
response to the static deflection of the spring is __________
k
m 𝐹 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔𝑡
ME (Set-3) 9/13
Q.38 A bolted joint has four bolts arranged as shown in figure. The cross sectional area of each bolt is
25 mm2. A torque T = 200 N-m is acting on the joint. Neglecting friction due to clamping force,
maximum shear stress in a bolt is ______ MPa.
Q.39 Consider a fully developed steady laminar flow of an incompressible fluid with viscosity µ through
a circular pipe of radius R. Given that the velocity at a radial location of R/2 from the centerline of
the pipe is U1, the shear stress at the wall is KµU1/R, where K is __________
Q.40 The water jet exiting from a stationary tank through a circular opening of diameter 300 mm
impinges on a rigid wall as shown in the figure. Neglect all minor losses and assume the water level
in the tank to remain constant. The net horizontal force experienced by the wall
is ___________ kN.
Density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
ME (Set-3) 10/13
Q.41  x ˆ y ˆj , where iˆ and ĵ are

For a two-dimensional flow, the velocity field is u = i 2
x y
2 2
x  y2
the basis vectors in the x-y Cartesian coordinate system. Identify the CORRECT statements from
below.
(1) The flow is incompressible.
(2) The flow is unsteady.
y
(3) y-component of acceleration, a y =
x  y2
2

2
 ( x  y)
(4) x-component of acceleration, a x =
x 2
 y2 
2
(A) (2) and (3) (B) (1) and (3) (C) (1) and (2) (D) (3) and (4)
Q.42 Two large parallel plates having a gap of 10 mm in between them are maintained at temperatures
T1 = 1000 K and T2 = 400 K. Given emissivity values, 𝜀1 = 0.5, 𝜀2 = 0.25 and Stefan-Boltzmann
constant  = 5.67 × 10−8 W/m2-K4, the heat transfer between the plates (in kW/m2) is __________
_________
Q.43 A cylindrical steel rod, 0.01 m in diameter and 0.2 m in length is first heated to 750 oC and then
immersed in a water bath at 100 oC. The heat transfer coefficient is 250 W/m2-K. The density,
specific heat and thermal conductivity of steel are  = 7801 kg/m3, c = 473 J/kg-K, and
k = 43 W/m-K, respectively. The time required for the rod to reach 300 oC is ________ seconds.
Q.44 Steam at an initial enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg and inlet velocity of 100 m/s, enters an insulated
horizontal nozzle. It leaves the nozzle at 200 m/s. The exit enthalpy (in kJ/kg) is __________
Q.45 In a mixture of dry air and water vapor at a total pressure of 750 mm of Hg, the partial pressure of
water vapor is 20 mm of Hg. The humidity ratio of the air in grams of water vapor per kg of dry air
(gw/kgda) is __________
Q.46 In a 3-stage air compressor, the inlet pressure is 𝑝1 , discharge pressure is 𝑝4 and the intermediate
pressures are 𝑝2 and 𝑝3 ( 𝑝2 < 𝑝3 ). The total pressure ratio of the compressor is 10 and the pressure
ratios of the stages are equal. If 𝑝1 = 100 kPa, the value of the pressure 𝑝3 (in kPa) is __________
ME (Set-3) 11/13
Q.47 In the vapour compression cycle shown in the figure, the evaporating and condensing temperatures
are 260 K and 310 K, respectively. The compressor takes in liquid-vapour mixture (state 1) and
isentropically compresses it to a dry saturated vapour condition (state 2). The specific heat of the
liquid refrigerant is 4.8 kJ/kg-K and may be treated as constant. The enthalpy of evaporation for the
refrigerant at 310 K is 1054 kJ/kg.
The difference between the enthalpies at state points 1 and 0 (in kJ/kg) is ____________
Q.48 Spot welding of two steel sheets each 2 mm thick is carried out successfully by passing 4 kA of
current for 0.2 seconds through the electrodes. The resulting weld nugget formed between the
sheets is 5 mm in diameter. Assuming cylindrical shape for the nugget, the thickness of the nugget
is________mm.
Latent heat of fusion for steel 1400 kJ/kg

Effective resistance of the weld joint 200 
Density of steel 8000 kg/m3
Q.49 For an orthogonal cutting operation, tool material is HSS, rake angle is 22°, chip thickness is
0.8 mm, speed is 48 m/min and feed is 0.4 mm/rev. The shear plane angle (in degrees) is
(A) 19.24 (B) 29.70 (C) 56.00 (D) 68.75
Q.50 In a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness a hole of 10 mm diameter needs to be punched. The yield
strength in tension of the sheet material is 100 MPa and its ultimate shear strength is 80 MPa. The
force required to punch the hole (in kN) is __________
Q.51 In a single point turning operation with cemented carbide tool and steel work piece, it is found that
the Taylor’s exponent is 0.25. If the cutting speed is reduced by 50% then the tool life changes by
______ times.
ME (Set-3) 12/13
Q.52 Two optically flat plates of glass are kept at a small angle  as shown in the figure. Monochromatic
light is incident vertically.
If the wavelength of light used to get a fringe spacing of 1 mm is 450 nm, the wavelength of light
(in nm) to get a fringe spacing of 1.5 mm is _________
Q.53 A point P (1, 3, −5) is translated by 2𝑖 + 3𝑗 − 4𝑘 and then rotated counter clockwise by 90 about
the z-axis. The new position of the point is
(A) (−6, 3, −9) (B) (−6, −3, −9) (C) (6, 3, −9) (D) (6, 3, 9)
Q.54 The demand for a two-wheeler was 900 units and 1030 units in April 2015 and May 2015,
respectively. The forecast for the month of April 2015 was 850 units. Considering a smoothing
constant of 0.6, the forecast for the month of June 2015 is
(A) 850 units (B) 927 units (C) 965 units (D) 970 units
Q.55 A firm uses a turning center, a milling center and a grinding machine to produce two parts. The
table below provides the machining time required for each part and the maximum machining time
available on each machine. The profit per unit on parts I and II are Rs. 40 and Rs. 100, respectively.
The maximum profit per week of the firm is Rs._________
Type of machine Machining time required for Maximum machining time available
the machine part (minutes) per week (minutes)
I II
Turning Center 12 6 6000
Milling Center 4 10 4000
Grinding Machine 2 3 1800
ME (Set-3) 13/13
1 MCQ GA B 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA D 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ ME-2 A 1
2 MCQ ME-2 C 1
3 MCQ ME-2 A 1
4 NAT ME-2 -1.1 : -0.9 1
5 MCQ ME-2 A 1
6 MCQ ME-2 D 1
7 MCQ ME-2 B 1
8 MCQ ME-2 D 1
9 NAT ME-2 2.2 : 2.3 1
10 MCQ ME-2 B 1
11 MCQ ME-2 C 1
12 MCQ ME-2 A 1
13 MCQ ME-2 D 1
14 MCQ ME-2 B 1
15 MCQ ME-2 A 1
16 MCQ ME-2 D 1
17 MCQ ME-2 D 1
18 NAT ME-2 3.9 : 4.1 1
19 NAT ME-2 0.79 : 0.81 1
20 NAT ME-2 2.4 : 2.6 1
21 MCQ ME-2 C 1
22 MCQ ME-2 B 1
23 MCQ ME-2 B 1
24 NAT ME-2 7.4 : 7.6 1
25 MCQ ME-2 D 1
26 NAT ME-2 725.9 : 726.1 2
27 MCQ ME-2 B 2
28 NAT ME-2 0.39 : 0.43 2
29 NAT ME-2 0.175 : 0.195 2
30 NAT ME-2 14.1 : 14.3 2
31 MCQ ME-2 B 2
32 MCQ ME-2 D 2
33 MCQ ME-2 C 2
34 NAT ME-2 -1 : 1 2
35 NAT ME-2 239.9 : 240.1 2
36 NAT ME-2 0.95 : 1.05 2
37 NAT ME-2 9.9 : 10.1 2
38 MCQ ME-2 D 2
39 NAT ME-2 860 : 870 2
40 NAT ME-2 26.3 : 26.5 2
41 MCQ ME-2 A 2
42 NAT ME-2 0.91 : 0.95 2
43 NAT ME-2 2.4 : 2.6 2
44 NAT ME-2 -55.6 : -55.4 2
45 NAT ME-2 63 : 65 2
46 NAT ME-2 8.90 : 8.95 2
47 NAT ME-2 19.5 : 19.9 2
48 MCQ ME-2 A 2
49 NAT ME-2 1.08 : 1.10 2
50 NAT ME-2 423 : 428 2
51 NAT ME-2 57.8 : 58.0 2
52 NAT ME-2 51.0 :52.0 2
53 MCQ ME-2 D 2
54 NAT ME-2 1499 : 1501 2
55 NAT ME-2 14 : 14 2
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA C 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA D 2
7 MCQ GA A 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA B 2
1 MCQ ME-3 C 1
2 MCQ ME-3 C 1
3 MCQ ME-3 B 1
4 NAT ME-3 99.6 : 99.8 1
5 MCQ ME-3 C 1
6 MCQ ME-3 A 1
7 MCQ ME-3 C 1
8 MCQ ME-3 B 1
9 MCQ ME-3 D 1
10 MCQ ME-3 B 1
11 NAT ME-3 99 : 101 1
12 MCQ ME-3 C 1
13 NAT ME-3 0.99 : 1.01 1
14 MCQ ME-3 B 1
15 NAT ME-3 67 : 68 1
16 MCQ ME-3 B 1
17 MCQ ME-3 C 1
18 MCQ ME-3 B 1
19 NAT ME-3 50 : 54 1
20 MCQ ME-3 C 1
21 MCQ ME-3 C 1
22 MCQ ME-3 B 1
23 MCQ ME-3 B 1
24 MCQ ME-3 C 1
25 MCQ ME-3 D 1
26 NAT ME-3 2:2 2
27 NAT ME-3 15.9 : 16.1 2
28 MCQ ME-3 C 2
29 MCQ ME-3 A 2
30 NAT ME-3 130 : 135 2
31 NAT ME-3 19.9 : 20.1 2
32 NAT ME-3 2.9 : 3.1 2
33 NAT ME-3 0.18 : 0.22 2
34 MCQ ME-3 D 2
35 MCQ ME-3 B 2
36 NAT ME-3 1.9 : 2.1 2
37 NAT ME-3 0.49 : 0.51 2
38 NAT ME-3 39.9 : 40.1 2
39 NAT ME-3 2.6 : 2.7 2
40 NAT ME-3 8.76 : 8.78 2
41 MCQ ME-3 B 2
42 NAT ME-3 10.9 : 11.2 2
43 NAT ME-3 42 : 45 2
44 NAT ME-3 84 : 86 2
45 NAT ME-3 16.9 : 17.1 2
46 NAT ME-3 460 : 470 2
47 NAT ME-3 1095 : 1130 2
48 NAT ME-3 2.85 : 2.95 2
49 MCQ ME-3 B 2
50 NAT ME-3 4.9 : 5.1 2
51 NAT ME-3 14 : 18 2
52 NAT ME-3 674 : 676 2
53 MCQ ME-3 A 2
54 MCQ ME-3 D 2
55 NAT ME-3 39000 : 41000 2

GATE 2016 2018 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper and Answer Key

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GATE 2016 2018 Mechanical Engineering Question Paper and Answer Key

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QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) principle, principal (B) principal, principle

(A) cleanliness (B) punctuality (C) frugality (D) greatness

(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 100 (D) 700

(A) 1125 (B) 2250 (C) 2924 (D) 4500

(A) 63 (B) 72 (C) 81 (D) 90

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) -3 and 3 (B) -1 and 1 (C) -1 and 3 (D) 1 and 3

(A) 210 and 140 (B) 162.5 and 187.5

(A) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 2 (B) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| − 1

Q.10 Consider the following three statements:

(A) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is false.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

there exists a value  in this interval such that  f ( x)dx 

(A) f ( )(b  a) (B) f (b)(  a)

Q.4 F ( z) is a function of the complex variable z  x  iy given by

𝐹(𝑧) = 𝑖 𝑧 + 𝑘 𝑅𝑒(𝑧) + 𝑖 𝐼𝑚(𝑧).

For what value of k will F ( z) satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations?

The tensions in the strings are

(A) increases linearly with the true strain

(A) groove (B) spot (C) fillet (D) plug

Q.14 A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the

Q.15 Interpolator in a CNC machine

(A) controls spindle speed

uavg d = 0.1 m uavg

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.27 The value of the integral

(A) 9.45 (B) 18.88 (C) 37.78 (D) 75.50

(A) 240 (B) 240 (C) 375 (D) 375

The glue used at the interface fails if

(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 4.0

(A) unsteady and one-dimensional

Q.38 F ( s) is the Laplace transform of the function

Q.40 A machine of mass 𝑚 = 200 kg is supported on two mounts, each of stiffness

Property data for saturated steam and water are:

Q.51 The minimum value of 3𝑥 + 5𝑦

Job Processing time (days) Due date (days)

(All dimensions are in mm)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) complemented, complemented (B) complimented, complemented

(A) undiminished (B) damaged (C) illegal (D) uncertain

Q.3 Find the missing group of letters in the following series:

(A) UVWXY (B) TUVWX (C) STUVW (D) RSTUV

(A) The circle has the largest area.

(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

(A) 1096 (B) 1111 (C) 1243 (D) 2486

(A) 50 (B) 89 (C) 146 (D) 175

What is the house number?

(A) 54 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) 76

(A) Two T will occur.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0

 x 3  0 , y0  1 , the value of y 1

(A) 5 (B) 20 (C) 500 (D) 2000

Q.7 In a single degree of freedom underdamped spring-mass-damper system as shown in the

(A) Transmissibility will increase.