Human Factors Question Bank

S.
P SINGH ,(BAMEL- LA ,PE &JE) ,BBA, MBA, SIX SIGMA YELLOW BELT &BLACK BELT
Question Bank: Human Factors
09.1. General.
1. Accidents and engineering faults are

a) Insignificant and decreasing
b) Significant and increasing
c) Insignificant and increasing
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1 page 4 para 2.2)
2. Murphy's law is perpetuated mainly by
a) Violations
b) Poor aircraft design
c) Complacency
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1 page 8 para 3.1)
3. Murphy's law can be regarded as the notion
a) If something can go wrong it will'.
b) It can never happen to me
c) If some thing goes wrong I am certain to get the blame
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1 page 8 para 3.1 in box)
4. A company's safety policy should be defined in
a) In CAP 716
b) The maintenance schedule
c) The Maintenance Organization Exposition.
d) None is correct
(Introduction 1, page 6, last Para)
5. Which of the following is least associated with the study of human factors?
a) Ergonomics
b) Health and Safety.
c) Human error
d) None is correct
(Maslow hierarchy of needs, Ch 3, page 6, fig 13 Safety & pschsiogical needs Ch3 page 6 fig 1.3)
6. The incident where a 737 lost oil from both engines is a direct result of
a) Poor design
b) human error
c) Engine vibration
d) None is correct
(Chapter 6 page 6 para 2.6.1, 3rd in box)
7. If a 737 had both engines serviced and lost oil from both engines in flight. This
a) Can be expected to happen statistically due to the number of aircraft in service
b) Would be a direct result of human error
c) Can be considered an acceptable probability
d) None is correct
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S.P SINGH ,(BAMEL- LA ,PE &JE) ,BBA, MBA, SIX SIGMA YELLOW BELT &BLACK BELT
(Chapter 1, page 6, para 2.6.1, 3rd in box)
8. What do you do when someone is hypothermic?

a) Warm them up.
b) Feed them sweet things because of their diabetes
c) Give them a drink because of dehydration
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1, page 5, para 2.3)
9. The percentage of accidents attributable to aircraft maintenance and inspection causes is
a) Now less significant due to the introduction of more sophisticated aircraft
b) Significant and rising
c) Now less significant due to more advanced maintenance practices
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1 page 5, para 2.3)
10. What happened to contribute towards the incident in 1995 where a Boeing 737 lost oil pressure and had
to divert?
a) Both warning indications were faulty, due to crossed connections
b) The HP rotor drive covers of both engines had not been refitted after a boroscope inspection.
c) The boroscope inspection had been inadequate
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1 page 6 para 2.6.1)
11. What is the most common cause of in-flight engine shutdown?
a) Incomplete installation.
b) Improper fault isolation, inspection or test
c) Foreign object damage
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1 AIRINDIA H/F manual introduction page 16 fig 7)
12. Most engineering related incidents are due to
a) Installing dirty connectors
b) Installing components incorrectly
c) Installing worn or old components
d) None is correct
(Chapter 1 AIRINDIA H/F manual introduction page 16 point 1)
13. What causes the most aircraft accidents?
a) Technical faults
b) Communication
c) Misunderstanding between ATC and pilot on approach
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk- Chapter 7 page 1 first para line 2 &3)
09.2. Human Performance and Limitations.
14. 70 - 80% of the total focusing ability of the eye is carried out by the
a) Iris
b) cornea
c) Lens
d) None is correct
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(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 2, para 2.2)
15. At what distance should a person without hearing difficulties be able to hear an average conversational
voice in a quiet room
a) 2 metres (6 feet)
b) 3 metres (9 feet)
c) 1 metre (3 feet)
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 11, para 3.10.1)
16. A perforated ear drum could occur if
a) You were subjected to intermittent noise above 25 kHz
b) You blew your nose excessively
c) you were subjected to continuous noise below 8 kHz.
d) None is correct
17. How long is the short term memory good for remembering 7 items?
a) 30 to 60 seconds
b) Up to 30 seconds.
c) Above 60 seconds
d) 10 to 20 seconds
18. What is white finger?
a) A disorder of the finger which may occur through continuous use of pneumatic tools because of
reduced blood flow.
b) A reaction when the white blood cells die and contaminate the fingers
c) A skin disorder caused by extensive contact with oils and solvents
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 7, para 5.2 (VWF))
19. When someone is working in an enclosed space (such a fuel tank), another person should be outside the
space in constant communication to
a) Provide instructions to the tradesman
b) Ensure compliance with the maintenance manual
c) For safety reasons
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 7, para 6)
20. The scientific study of measurements of the human body is known as
a) Ergonomics
b) Physiology
c) Anthropometrics
d) None is correct
21. How long can the aural reflex protect the ear from loud noise?
a) 5 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 15 minutes.
d) None is correct
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22. What part of the eye controls the amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye?
a) The pupil
b) The iris.
c) The cornea
d) None is correct
23. Learning of a routine by repeated practice is known as

a) Cognitive learning
b) Motor programming
c) Episodic memory
d) None is correct
24. The ear is used to detect
a) Speed
b) Neither acceleration or speed
c) Acceleration
d) None is correct
25. Light enters the eye through the
a) Cornea
b) Visual cortex
c) Retina
d) None is correct
26. To focus on a near object, the lens of the eye must
a) Be widened
b) Be flattened
c) Be thickened
d) None is correct
27. Which type of memory is most susceptible to interference from external influences?
a) Long term
b) Ultra short term
c) Short term
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 15, para 4.5.5 & 4.5.6)
28. Peripheral vision is detected by the
a) Cones
b) Fovea
c) Rods
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 (2nd in box))
29. Extreme discomfort experienced by a maintenance engineer due to working in a confined space is
known as
a) Claustrophobia
b) Acrophobia
c) Agoraphobia
d) None is correct
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30. What part of the eye is colour sensitive?
a) The rods
b) The cones
c) The iris
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 (1st inbox))
31. What type of lens is used to overcome short sightedness?

a) Concave
b) Bi-focal
c) Convex
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.7.2 (Fig 6))
32. The type of memory which is most easily influenced by a person's expectations of what should have
happened is the
a) Long term memory
b) Semantic memory
c) Episodic memory
d) None is correct
33. The inability for the eyes to accommodate sufficiently is known as
a) Presbyopia
b) Hypermetropia
c) Myopia
d) None is correct
34. An aircraft maintenance engineer who wears glasses or contact lenses should
a) Not require their duties to be restricted providing they wear their glasses/contact lenses at all times
they carry out their duties
b) Have their duties restricted accordingly
c) Not require their duties to be restricted providing they have frequent checks to ensure the adequacy of
their glasses/contact lenses
d) None is correct
35. Ultra short term memory has a duration of about
a) 10 to 20 seconds
b) 80 – 100 milliseconds
c) 2 seconds
d) None is correct
36. What type of lens is used to correct long sightedness?
a) Concave
b) Convex
c) Bi-focal
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 4, para 2.7.1(Fig. 5))
37. Visual Acuity is the ability
a) To differentiate between different colours
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b) To detect objects in the peripheral vision
c) Of the eye to discriminate sharp detail at varying distances.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.4 in box & 2.6.2 in box)
38. The 'working memory' is
a) Long term memory
b) Short term memory.
c) Ultra short term memory
d) None is correct
39. Colour defective vision affects

a) Almost 1 in 10 of men.
b) More women than men
c) Almost 1 in 10 of women
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 6, para 2.11.2 in box)
40. At lower light levels, the visual sensing is performed mainly by the
a) Fovea
b) cones
c) Rods
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 (2nd in box))
41. If an image formed on the retina of the eye is inverted relative to the viewers normal perception of the
image, the viewer will
a) Become disoriented and dizzy
b) Consciously mentally revert the image so as to make sense of his/her surroundings
c) Behave and feel normal.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 & 2)
42. People with colour defective vision usually have difficulty differentiating between
a) Red and green
b) Blue and yellow
c) Blue and green
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 6, para 2.11.2 (in box))
43. The 'cocktail party effect' is descriptive of
a) Selective attention
b) Divided attention
c) Focused attention
d) None is correct
44. Hypermetropia is the medical name for
a) Short sightedness
b) Long sightedness
c) Deafness
d) None is correct
45. What range of sound is usually impaired first with the onset of presbycusis?
a) High pitch sound
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b) Low pitch sound
c) Mid range sound
d) None is correct
46. The amount of light which is allowed to enter the eye can vary by a factor of
a) 500:1
b) 5:1
c) 1:5
d) None is correct
47. Presbyopia often effects the eyes of people after the age of
a) 55
b) 40
c) 70
d) None is correct
48. From what age does hearing ability normally begin to decline?
a) 40
b) 50
c) 30
d) None is correct
49. A person with 20/40 vision has
a) Worse eyesight as a person with 20/20 vision
b) Better eyesight than a person with 20/20 vision
c) The same eyesight as a person with 20/20 vision
d) None is correct
50. Long term memory capacity is usually
a) Unlimited
b) 4 – 8 years
c) 12 months
d) None is correct
51. The inability for the eyes to accommodate sufficiently is known as
a) Myopia
b) Hypermetropia
c) Presbyopia
d) None is correct
52. Ultra short term memory has a duration of about
a) 10 to 20 seconds
b) 2 seconds
c) 80 – 100 milliseconds
d) None is correct
53. The memory can be aided by
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a) A checklist.
b) Memory checking
c) Mind logging
d) None is correct
54. In AWN 47 what is the recommended hearing test?
a) The ability to hear an average conversation voice at a distance of 10 feet
b) The ability to hear a certain noise at 8 feet
c) The ability to hear an average conversation voice at a distance of 6 feet
d) None is correct
55. Iconic memory

a) Stores sounds and lasts up to 2 seconds
b) Stores visual information and lasts up to 1/2 second
c) Stores visual information and lasts up to 2 seconds
d) None is correct
56. The first stage in information processing is
a) Decision
b) Memorizing
c) perception.
d) None is correct
57. Information, if not rehearsed is lost in
a) 10 - 20 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 30 – 40 seconds
d) None is correct
58. What is the CAA standard for vision?
a) Acceptable uncorrected vision
b) Acceptable corrected vision
c) 18/20 vision
d) None is correct
59. In the human eye most of the refraction required to bring an image into focus on the retina is
accomplished by the
a) Lens
b) Cornea
c) Iris
d) None is correct
60. The average capacity of the working memory is about
a) 7 chunks of information
b) 4 chunks of information
c) 12 chunks of information
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d) None is correct
61. The retina is situated
a) Behind the cornea with the lens
b) In front of the cornea
c) At the back of the eye with the optic nerve.
d) None is correct
62. Motor programme refers to
a) Motivational computer software
b) A task that has been carried out so many times that it becomes automatic.
c) A task that becomes programmed into short term memory
d) None is correct
63. Memory which can be influenced by a persons expectations of what should have happened is
a) Echoic
b) Semantic
c) Episodic
d) None is correct
64. Information in the long term memory
a) Is easily transferred to the short term memory
b) Is easily lost
c) Is only available under hypnosis
d) None is correct
65. How many things can be stored in the short term memory?
a) 0 - 5
b) 9 - 15
c) No limit
d) None is correct
66. In the eye, the cones are used mainly in
a) Bright light to give fine detail.
b) Bright light levels and they give poor colour vision
c) Low light levels and they give poor colour vision
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 3, para 2.5.1 (1st in box))
67. A person suffering from presbyopia would normally
a) Wear spectacles when reading or carrying out close detail work.
b) Have defective colour vision and not be allowed to carry out maintenance work on cable looms
c) Be short sighted and need to wear spectacles to see objects more than 30 cm away
d) None is correct
68. Noise signals are carried to the brain by the
a) Sensory nerve
b) Auditory nerve
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c) Eustachian nerve
d) None is correct
69. Attention Getters are designed to
a) To gain the operators attention whilst allowing them to continue with the task in hand
b) To make the operator focus his/her attention fully on the task in hand
c) Get the operators full attention
d) None is correct
70. At what maximum frequency does the human ear hear?
a) 16 kHz
b) 8 kHz
c) 20 kHz
d) None is correct
71. Motor programmes

a) Are behaviour subroutines
b) Require conscious thought to engage
c) Are stored as working rules in long term memory.
d) None is correct
72. The pupil of the eye grows smaller
a) In condition of reduced light
b) To focus the fovea
c) In condition of increased light
d) None is correct
73. Conductive deafness can be caused by damage to the
a) Cochlea
b) Otoliths
c) Semi circular canals
d) None is correct
74. Detail is best sensed by the _________and movement best sensed by the__________.
a) The periphery and the periphery
b) The periphery and fovea
c) The fovea and periphery
d) None is correct
75. If a person is colour blind, which colours would be most difficult to see?
a) Red and green
b) Blue and red
c) Yellow and red
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 6, para 6)
76. Myopia is _____________________ and a ____________ lens is needed to correct it.
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a) Long sightedness and concave
b) Short sightedness and convex
c) Short sightedness and concave
d) None is correct
77. The most common cause of myopia is
a) Weak accommodation
b) A shortened eyeball
c) An elongated eyeball
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 5, para 2.7.2(Fig 6))
09.3. Social Psychology.
78. What is peer group pressure?

a) The influence the House of Lords have over the House of Commons
b) Our behaviour influenced by our friends and colleagues
c) The influence an individual has over a group of people
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 9, para 4.4.4 point 6th)
79. A regular behaviour of an individual is known as

a) The norm
b) Habit
c) Culture
d) None is correct
80. In a discussion, the person who is most likely to be agreed with is
a) The person who repeats the point most times
b) The most argumentative person
c) The person with the highest status
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 6, para 3.4.2(Fig 13)
81. An engineer who has developed his own way of performing a task
a) Is in regular violation
b) Is improving maintenance efficiency
c) Should be commended for his resourcefulness
d) None is correct
82. The aim of human factors programs within an organizations is
a) To safeguard the health and safety of maintenance personnel by reducing accidents in the workplace
b) To optimize the relationship between maintenance personnel and systems with a view to improving
safety, efficiency and well-bring
c) To reduce costs by increasing efficiency, safety and quality and decreasing waste through human
error
d) Systems with a view to improving safety, efficiency and well-bring
83. An aircraft engineer who has 'responsibility'
a) Must be licensed on the particular type of aircraft
b) Are liable to be called to account as being in charge or control of, or answerable for something
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c) Is in a management position within their company hierarchy
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 2, para 2.1 (in box))
84. The impact of human factors and human error is most important to
a) Technicians and engineers
b) Planners and managers
c) It is equally important to technicians, engineers, planners and managers
d) None is correct
85. Where are the responsibilities of Licensed Aircraft Engineers laid down
a) AWN 3
b) The Air Navigation Order
c) CAP 715
d) None is correct
86. Diffusion of responsibility may occur
a) To an individual working as a member of a team
b) With certain people whether they are working in a team or alone
c) To an individual working alone
d) None is correct
87. Risky shift' is

a) The probability of being assigned to a work task which involves some element of risk or physical
danger
b) The name given to an inadequate shift handover
c) The tendency for a group of workers to arrive at a course of action which is riskier than that which
any individual member might pursue.
d) None is correct
88. To ensure that a technician remains reasonably current on the aircraft types to which they hold
authorizations, they are required that
a) They have appropriate continuation/refresher training only
b) They are involved in at least 6 months of actual aircraft maintenance experience in any 2 year period
only
c) They are involved in at least 6 months of actual aircraft maintenance experience in any 2 year period
and they have appropriate continuation/refresher training.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 6, page 1, para – Fig 21)
89. The difference between what a person 'can' do and what he 'will' do is largely determined by his
a) Motivation
b) Educational and training
c) Physical and mental health
d) None is correct
90. Whose responsibility is it that an engineer remains current on new technology and procedures?
a) The organization’s
b) The CAA’s
c)The engineer's.
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d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 6, para 3.1/3.2/3.3 & 3.4)
91. According to Maslow, safety needs (protection from potentially dangerous objects or situations)
a) Is the last need of human after all other needs have been satisfied
b) Is second only to physiological needs (food drink, oxygen etc.).
c) Is the most primal need of humans
d) None is correct
92. The symptoms of de-motivation are very similar to the symptoms of
a) Stress
b) Tiredness
c) Mental illness
d) None is correct
93. The desire of an individual to 'conform' to a group by allowing one's opinions, attitudes and actions to be
affected by prevailing conditions is known as
a) Peer pressure.
b) Esteem needs
c) Culture issues
d) None is correct
94. A person with low self-esteem is

a) More likely to conform to peer pressure
b) Less likely to conform to peer pressure
c) Conformity to peer pressure is not affected by level of self-esteem
d) None is correct
95. Motivation is
a) A reward or punishment designed to reduce errors
b) A reward or punishment designed to increase work rate
c) The thing that drives someone to do something.
d) None is correct
96. Peer pressure is
a) The perceived pressure to carry out a task in the same way your colleagues would
b) The perceived pressure to conform to what you believe your colleagues expect of you
c) None
d) None is correct
97. The eyesight of an engineer is the responsibility of
a) The Quality Manager
b) The optician
c) The engineer
d) None is correct
98. A good team is one where every member has
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a) An opinion
b) An input
c) A job
d) None is correct
99. AWN 47 states that the engineer
a) Is responsible for health and safety
b) Is responsible for the work he has signed for
c) Does not report for work if unfit.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 5 & 6)
100. An effective group work is when
a) Everyone contributes in some way
b) Everyone discusses ideas and opinions
c) Everyone has a job to do
d) None is correct
101. Which of the following defines a peer pressure situation?
a) Your supervising manager pressuring you to complete the current task on time
b) Your girlfriend telling you to go out with her
c) Your colleagues pressuring you to work faster so they can go home.
d) None is correct
102. Successful working teams have the following attributes

a) Members participate in team activities but retain their own individual requirements.
b) All the members participate in team activities and discussions
c) All the team members work in isolation and therefore provide highly individual solutions to the same
problems
d) None is correct
103. Good aircraft maintenance supervisory judgment is usually based upon
a) Knowledge and experience and reference to approved data
b) The evidence available and forceful management ability
c) Knowledge and experience and reference to course notes
d) None is correct
104. Organizational culture (whether good or bad) is best described as
a) The way we do things around here'.
b) Written procedures
c) Team resource management
d) None is correct
105. In an organization which practices human factors there is
a) Punishment for all violations
b) No blame unless there is a deliberate violation.
c) A no blame culture
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d) None is correct
106. A person can be said to be motivated if
a) They cut corners to get the job done quickly
b) They are on a productivity bonus
c) They are taking action to achieve something
d) None is correct
107. Group polarisation can result in
a) A group making a more cautious or extreme decision.
b) A group making a better decision than the individual
c) Members of the group not talking to one another
d) None is correct
108. The ideal behaviour of a professional aircraft engineer is
a) Goal directed rather than person directed
b) Both person and goal directed
c) Neither person or goal directed
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 3, page 5, para 3.4.2, Fig 13)
09.4. Factors Affecting Performance
109. Information on drugs and alcohol can be found in

a) BCARs
b) AWN 47
c) AWN 3
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 2, para 1.5.2 & page 18, para 6.3.3 & 6.4.3)
110. If you have been prescribed new medicine by your doctor you should
a) Continue with your normal shift pattern
b) Take 3 days off work to try out the new medication
c) Give the new medication a 24 hour trial
d) None is correct
111. After a general anaesthetic you should
a) Return to work as soon as possible
b) Not return to work for at least 24 to 48 hours (depending on the individual).
c) Take at least 7 days off work
d) None is correct
112. Your doctor has prescribed you tranquillizers as you are suffering from depression. You should
a) Not tell your employer and carry on work as normal
b) Tell your employer and carry on work as normal
c) Not work at all when taking the tranquillizers
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17 & 18, para 6.4.3)
113. The use of 'pep' pills by an aircraft engineer
a) Is recommended only when working late or on night shift
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b) As they stimulate the senses and make you less prone to accidents
c) Can only be used if prescribed by your doctor should never be done (except for coffee)
d) Should never be done (except for coffee).
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 18, para 6.4.3 point 6)
114. You are taking SUDAFED to relief nasal congestion. You should
a) Stay away from work until you no longer require the SUDAFED
b) Continue to take them at work because SUDAFED has no side effects
c) Avoid making engineering decisions or performing licensed duties.
d) None is correct
115. What is slow wave sleep?
a) Paradoxical sleep
b) Stage 2- 4 sleep
c) REM
d) None is correct
116. Phase 3/4 sleep
a) Can be induced by alcohol
b) Occurs only once per sleep cycle
c) Is most beneficial for the body's restoration.
d) None is correct
117. Human error can be caused by
a) High body temperature
b) Normal body temperature
c) Low body temperature.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 5, para 4.1 (Fig 19))
118. What meal is most recommended after a long shift?

a) High carbohydrates.
b) Low carbohydrates
c) High protein
d) None is correct
119. Long shift work will
a) Initially decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability but eventually increase your diagnostic and
maintenance ability as you get used to it
b) Always decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability
c) Always increase your diagnostic and maintenance ability
d) None is correct
120. The circadian cycle body temperature
a) Does not vary
b) Varies by 1.5°C
c) Varies by 1.5°F
d) None is correct
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121. Acute stress is
a) Intense stress of long duration
b) Typically intense but of short duration
c) A frequently reoccurring stress or of long duration
d) None is correct
122. Chronic stress is
a) A frequently reoccurring stress or of long duration.
b) Typically intense but of short duration
c) Intense stress of long duration
d) None is correct
123. Smoking cannabis
a) Subtly impairs performance for up to 24 hours
b) Has only a short term affect upon performance
c) Has a noticeable affect on a persons behaviour and performance for up to 24 hours
d) None is correct
124. Performance is
a) Inversely proportional to the individuals state of arousal.
b) Directly proportional to the individuals state of arousal
c) Greatest only at one optimum level of arousal but diminishes as arousal decreases or increases
d) None is correct
125. Missing a break in an effort to get a job done within a certain time frame
a) Can be done by those actually doing the job providing the supervisors take regular breaks
b) Can be counterproductive, as fatigue diminishes motor skills, perception, awareness and standards.
c) Can be done providing adequate rest period is available at the end of the shift
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 13 & 14, para 5.3.2 & 5.3.3)
126. Tiredness causes visual acuity to

a) Decrease
b) Visual acuity is not affected by tiredness
c) Increase
d) None is correct
127. Narrowing of attention occurs at
a) Low levels of arousal
b) Both high and low levels of arousal
c) High levels of arousal.
d) None is correct
128. The blood/alcohol limit is
a) 20 milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood for commercial aircrew, air traffic controllers and
80 milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood for maintenance engineers.
b) 40 milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood
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c) 20 milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood for commercial aircrew, air traffic controllers
and maintenance engineers
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 16, para 6.1 & 6.2))
129. Paradoxical sleep is also known as
a) Stage 3 sleep
b) Stage 4 sleep
c) REM sleep.
d) None is correct
130. When taking medicine for the first time
a) Take the first dose at least 24 hours before any duty to ensure that it does not have any adverse
effects.
b) Absent yourself from work for the duration of use of the medicine
c) Consult a doctor if you need to carry out any duties
d) None is correct
131. For a man to maintain his fitness and health the conducive maximum recommended alcohol intake is
a) 3 - 4 units per week
b) 28 units per week
c) 28 units per day
d) None is correct
132. Human Circadian rhythms cycle on a
a) 25 hour timescale
b) 8 hour timescale
c) 24 hour timescale
d) None is correct
133. Removal of alcohol from the blood stream
a) Can be speeded up by sleeping
b) Cannot be speeded up
c) Cannot be speeded up by drinking strong coffee
d) None is correct
134. For a person with normal Circadian rhythms, the body temperature will be lowest
a) Between 4 and 6 o'clock in the morning
b) Upon waking
c) At midday
d) None is correct
135. If a maintenance engineer has a cold or flu he should
a) Only absent himself from duty if his work contract includes sickness pay
b) Only absent himself from duty if there are no staff shortages at his workplace or within his work team
c) Absent himself from duty until fully recovered, regardless of other factors.
d) None is correct
136. Consumption of alcohol
a) Increases mental and physical reaction times
18
b) Has no affect upon mental and physical reaction times
c) Decreases mental and physical and reaction times
137. Alertness and performance is reduced when the body temperature is
a) Above normal
b) Below normal
c) Either above or below normal
d) None is correct
138. A good rule of thumb for an adequate amount of sleep is
a) One hour of high quality sleep is good for two hours of activity.
b) Two hours of high quality sleep is good for one hour of activity
c) One hour of high quality sleep is good for one hour of activity
d) None is correct
139. Finding that familiar tasks (such as programming the video recorder) seems more complicated than
usual, could be an early indication of
a) Acute stress
b) Chronic fatigue
c) Cold or flu
d) None is correct
140. The only permitted stimulant is
a) Bromine
b) Caffeine
c) Amphetamine
d) None is correct
141. Large amounts of caffeine can
a) Cause anxiety, headaches and stress
b) Reduce anxiety and stress
c) Improve alertness and increased awareness
d) None is correct
142. The symptoms of stress are

a) Violence, sickness, absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse
b) Indications of improved work performance
c) Irritability, forgetfulness, sickness, absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse.
d) None is correct
143. Sleeping tablets can
a) Slow reaction and dull the senses.
b) Increase alertness after waking the following morning
c) Help REM sleep and realign circadian rhythms
d) None is correct
19
144. Information for certifying staff when medically unfit is found in
a) AWN 3
b) AWN 47
c) ANO
d) None is correct
145. What effect would the consumption of 3 - 5 units of alcohol?
a) Loss of quality of sleep
b) Low REM sleep
c) A drop in body temperature
d) None is correct
146. Circadian Rhythms control
a) Body temperature.
b) Urine output
c) Sleeping patterns
d) None is correct
147. A stimulant allowed to be taken without a doctor's prescription is
a) Bromine
b) Caffeine.
c) Antihistamine
d) None is correct
148. The conditions laid down in AWN 47 are applicable to aircraft engineers
a) Who sign for work completed
b) When under the influence of drink or drugs
c) For their safety at work
d) None is correct
149. The cycles of body temperature, sleep requirement and alertness are called
a) Earth cycles
b) Circadian rhythms
c) Ecto - meridian cycles
d) None is correct
150. The intake of caffeine in moderate quantities can result in

a) Anxiety, headaches and negative mood states
b) Lack of sleep and subsequent disruption to the circadian rhytms
c) A temporary increase in the ability to sustain vigilance and increased alertness
d) None is correct
151. In theory, human error is most likely to occur
a) When the body temperature is at its lowest.
b) During very hot weather
c) When the body temperature is stable
20
d) None is correct
152. An individual suffering from stress when confronted with a task within his capability is likely to think
the task is
a) Too demanding
b) Not demanding enough
c) Someone else's responsibility
d) None is correct
153. AWN 47 does not mention
a) Pep’s
b) Sudafed
c) Melatonin
d) None is correct
154. 3 - 4 units of alcohol taken before sleep reduces
a) Both b & c
b) Quantity of sleep
c) Quality of sleep
d) None is correct
155. Which is important in sleep?
a) Quantity
b) Quality
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d) None is correct
156. Stressors in the environment of noise and heat will cause
a) No loss of attention
b) A total loss of attention
c) A loss of attention and a distraction
d) None is correct
1(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 4, para 2.3.2)
157. When going from day shift to night shift, efficiency
a) Stays the same
b) Will drop off after the first four weeks
c) Will drop off in the first four weeks
d) None is correct
158. When working on aircraft, the consumption of alcohol

a) Is permissible providing the drink driving limit is not exceeded
b) You cannot work on aircraft even 8 hours after consuming large quantities of alcohol.
c) A certain amount is permissible
d) None is correct
159. Hypoxia can
a) Cause a person to slip into a coma if they are not quickly warmed up again
21
b) Impair the sensitivity of the rods and hence have a detrimental effect on eyesight
c) Improve the night vision of the cones of the eyes
d) None is correct
160. You are taking prescribed drugs
a) Carry on working, as long as you know the primary and secondary side effects.
b) Do not work
c) Work and don’t care about other things
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 17, para 6.4.1(in box))
161. How many stages of sleep are there?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) None is correct
162. REM sleep can also be referred to as
a) Paranormal sleep
b) Slow wave sleep
c) Paradoxical sleep
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 4, page 11, para 5.1.2 (point 5))
163. The presence of something damaging to ones health would be an example of a
a) Psychological stressor
b) Reactive stressor
c) Physical stressor
d) None is correct
164. Aircraft engineers can take common sense steps to maintain their fitness and health. These are known as
a) Self-improvement measures
b) Positive self-improvement
c) Positive measures
d) None is correct
165. The amount of stress experienced with a particular task is dependent on
a) The perceived demand and actual ability
b) The perceived demand and perceived ability
c) The actual demand and actual ability
d) None is correct
09.5. Physical Environment.
166. Environmental stresses are

a) Caused by noise, fumes, heat and vibration
b) Tolerated by everyone equally
c) Not normally cumulative
22
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 1, para introduction)
167. Employers must provide their employees with personal ear protectors if the noise level reaches
a) 70 dB
b) 85 dB
c) 60 dB
d) None is correct
168. The maximum allowable noise dose is
a) 85 dB
b) Any combination of noise and time which exceeds 90 dB TWA
c) 90 dB for 24 hours
d) None is correct
169. Environmental capture' is a type of error possible when an engineer does the same job repeatedly
a) But on different types of aircraft
b) On the same type of aircraft
c) In a short timescale
d) None is correct
170. In the UK, an air-side ramp vehicle driver is most likely to go deaf in
a) The left ear
b) Both ears
c) The right ear
d) None is correct
171. Up to what proximity to an aircraft with engines running is the use of ear protection recommended for
maintenance personnel?
a) 200 - 300 metres.
b) 20 - 30 metres
c) 2 - 3 metres
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 2, page 9, para 3.5.2 (Table 1))
172. Studies have shown that working outside in a temperature of 55°F will have what effect on hand
dexterity
a) Around 50%.
b) Very slight
c) None
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 9, page 1, para 1.1.1 (item 6))
173. When working with bright lights consideration should be given to
a) Blurred image
b) Shadows
c) Glare
d) None is correct
174. Which of the following is true?
a) Noise affects the standard of work proportionally with the level of the noise
b) Noise does not affect a person’s standard of work
c) Noise does affect the standard of work with certain people
23
d) None is correct
175. The effect on an engineer of environmental noise is
a) It improves concentration and quality of work
b) It decreases concentration and quality of work
c) It has no affect on concentration of quality of work
d) None is correct
176. Excess noise in a working environment can
a) Raise resistance to other stresses
b) Not affect performance
c) Lower resistance to other stresses
d) None is correct
177. If the temperature is - 15°C and you are working on the line, you should
a) Rotate engineers regularly and have a supervisor keep an eye on them
b) Carry on regardless of the weather to keep the aircraft flying
c) Stop all maintenance until the weather improves
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 6, para 4.6 & 4.7)
178. Cold stress can be influenced by
a) Insufficient vitamins in the diet
b) A drop in body temperature
c) The wind chill factor
d) None is correct
179. Environmental stresses in an extreme high temperature and noisy environment causes
a) Attention to be disturbed and distributed.
b) No loss of attention or distraction
c) Total loss of attention
d) None is correct
180. Which of the following environments is best suited to aircraft maintenance?
a) Working outside, at night, in the rain
b) Working outside, in the direct midday sun
c) Working inside in a well lit, comfortable hangar
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 5, page 8, para 7.4 (Fig 20))
181. Intense or loud noise may lead to
a) Deafness
b) Fatigue.
c) No effects
d) None is correct
182. Facility lighting in a hangar should be

a) No brighter than 10 lux
24
b) Provided by fixed light units giving light to shadow ratio of 3:1
c) Portable so that individual tasks may be well lit
d) None is correct
183. When tasks are being designed, the maximum mass an engineer should lift is
a) 32 kg
b) 23 kg
c) 50 kg
d) None is correct
184. Sensing and perception errors are most likely to result from
a) Distraction of other engineers
b) Poor lighting or noise.
c) Lack of adequate training
d) None is correct
185. Task lighting in a hangar is mainly
a) Provided by fixed lighting
b) Provided by fluorescent tubes
c) Portable so that individual tasks may be well lit
d) None is correct
09.6. Tasks.
186. When inspecting an airframe structure for small cracks, to avoid a crack being missed you should
a) Hold the version stationary for several seconds on each area to allow the eye to focus
b) Not use a mirror as mirrors absorb and refract light and may obscure a crack
c) Constantly move the eye across and around the area of interest to avoid the crack falling into the eye's
natural blind spot
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 6, page 5, para 3.6 (point))
187. When a person moves from a poorly lit area to a well lit area, what is the minimum time they should
allow for the eyes to adapt?
a) 7 minutes
b) 7 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) None is correct
188. Itemized checklists should be dealt with
a) In any order, provided all steps are completed
b) Item by item, in order, to cover every step diligently
c) As memorized
d) None is correct
25
189. The main disadvantage of carrying out critical inspections under very bright artificial light is
a) Glare
b) Shadows
c) Filtered light
d) None is correct
190. When carrying out a visual inspection, an engineer is likely to make a parallax error when
a) Inspecting a component using a 5x or 10x magnifying glass
b) Using precision measuring instruments such as a vernier gauge or AVO meter
c) Nothing
d) None is correct
09.7. Communication
191. What constitutes a good work handover?

a) A written and verbal account of the work done
b) A written and documentation of the work done
c) A verbal account of the work done
d) None is correct
192. A good shift handover should include details of
a) Tasks that have been completed; persons who carried out the tasks; tasks to be carried out and general
company and technical information
b) Tasks that have been completed; tasks in progress, their status, any problems encountered etc.; tasks
to be carried out and tools required to carry out the tasks
c) Tasks that have been completed; tasks in progress, their status, any problems encountered etc.; tasks
to be carried out and general company and technical information.
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 4 & 5, para 2.2, 2.3 & 2.4)
193. A good practice for a shift handover is for shifts to be specifically rostered so there is an overlap of
a) 2 - 3 hours
b) 5 - 10 minutes
c) 20 - 30 minutes
d) None is correct
194. Asynchronous' communication includes
a) Immediate voice communication by radio link
b) Technical manuals, memos, Advisory Circulars and Airworthiness Directives
c) Face-to-face communications
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 2, para 1.1.3 (point 3 first item))
195. The most effective form of communication is
a) Verbal communication
b) Written communication
c) Explicit communication
d) None is correct
26
196. What is the most important means of communication in aircraft maintenance engineering?
a) Written
b) Implicit
c) Verbal
d) None is correct
197. If you are given a task that you are unsure of you should
a) Consult the appropriate approved data
b) Ask someone who has done it before
c) Consult type course notes
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 6, para 3.2 (point 6, 7 & 8))
198. The alerting system for an important system failure should be
a) An aural warning
b) A flashing visual signal, preferably red
c) A dolls-eye indicator
d) None is correct
09.8. Human Error.
199. The SHEL model of human factors takes into account

a) Software, hardware, environment and liveware
b) Software, hardware, efficiency and liveware
c) Software, hardware, environment and location
d) None is correct
200. What part of the SHEL model would the writing and interpretation of maintenance manuals fit into?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Environment
d) None is correct
201. The 'error chain' theory refers to
a) A chain of errors within an organisations can be investigated, and similar errors prevented by
determining a common link between them
b) A company is only as good as its weakest employee or employees, and removal of that/those
employee from the chain should prevent errors.
c) Errors are caused by a chain of linked events, and the breaking of one link in the chain will prevent
the error.
202. What part of the SHEL model would the aircraft design fit into?
a) Liveware
b) Hardware
c) Environment
d) None is correct
27
203. Which part of the SHEL model is most difficult to protect from errors by 'designing out' or to 'work
around'
a) Liveware
b) Software
c) Environment
d) None is correct
204. A violation in an aircraft maintenance procedure
a) Is usually carried out with the best intentions from a genuine desire to 'get the job done'
b) Is always considered an act of vandalism or sabotage
c) Is always carried out to satisfy some personal need, often unrelated to the actual task
d) None is correct
205. Which type of human error is easiest to correct?
a) Constant error
b) Reversible error
c) Variable error
d) None is correct
206. In the 'slips, lapses and mistakes' definition of errors, forgetting to replace an engine cowling would be
considered a
a) Mistake
b) Lapse
c) Slip
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 4, para 1.4.3 (point))
207. In the 'slips, lapses and mistakes' definition of errors, a mistake would typically occur at the
a) Storage (memory) stage
b) Execution stage
c) Planning stage
d) None is correct
208. On a task that is complex, an engineer uses his own procedures due to pressure. This is legally termed
a) Modification
b) Initiative
c) Violation
d) None is correct
209. Visual inspection by an 'experienced' maintenance engineer is
a) Knowledge and rule base behaviour
b) Skill and knowledge based behaviour
c) Skill and rule based behaviour
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 3, para 1.2.1 (Fig 22) & para 2.6 page 9)
210. Troubleshooting is
28
a) Rule based
b) Skill based
c) Knowledge based
d) None is correct
211. A violation is
a) An unintentional error
b) A deliberate departure from the rules
c) An intentional act of sabotage
d) None is correct
212. A mistake is
a) A deliberate departure from the rules
b) An intentional act of sabotage
c) An unintentional error
d) None is correct
213. Whilst working on an aircraft a spanner placed on the wing surface is kicked off and subsequently falls
into an open engine cowl, breaking off a sensor connector. This is an example of
a) A skill based error
b) Murphy's law
c) A punishable occurrence
d) None is correct
214. An experienced engineer fits the wrong seal during a routine component change. This is
a) Skill based
b) Rule based
c) Knowledge based
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.5.1 (point 2) & Chapter 7, page 7, para 4.3 (in box))
215. An engineer is working on a wing and kicks a spanner off into an engine cowl and breaks a sensor. This
is
a) Knowledge based error
b) Skill based error
c) Rule based error
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8, page 5, para 1.5.1 (in box point 1))
216. The difference between a mistake and a violation is
a) A mistake is less serious than a violation
b) A violation is not deliberate
c) Mistake is unintentional and a violation is deliberate
d) None is correct
217. An experienced engineer is fitting a valve. A required seal is not fitted. What type of error is this?
a) Knowledge based
b) Rule based
c) Skill based
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 7, page 7, para 4.3 (in box) & Chapter 7, para 1.5.1 (point 2 inbox)
29
218. The hub of the SHEL model of human factors is
a) Liveware
b) Hardware
c) Environment
d) None is correct
219. A type 1 visual inspection error occurs when

a) A faulty item is missed
b) A good item is incorrectly identified as faulty
c) A duplicate inspection is not carried out
d) None is correct
220. What is a latent failure?
a) A mistake that has already been made, but has not yet caused an accident
b) Receiving bad instruction from a manager who is out of touch with maintenance
c) A failure which could not have been predicted
d) None is correct
(CAA.co.uk, Chapter 8 page 7, para 1.6.2)
221. What happens when you break the 'chain of error'?
a) Accident happens
b) Pilot submits report within 72 hours
c) Accident does not happen
d) None is correct
222. If an engineer forgets to fit a seal to an engine drain plug, he or she has
a) Made an error of commission
b) Committed a violation
c) Made an error of omission.
d) None is correct
223. An engineer is performing a task in less than ideal conditions in order to meet an operational deadline is
a) Committed a routine error
b) Committing a situational violation
c) Making a rule based slip
d) None is correct
224. An engineer who has developed his or her own method of performing a complex task
a) Should be commended for his/her resourcefulness
b) Is performing a rule based behaviour
c) Is violating on a regular basis
d) None is correct
225. Error tolerance in maintenance progress refers to
a) Performance of tasks specifically designed to identify errors during a maintenance task
b) Ability of a system to remain functional after a maintenance error
c) Process of eliminating the contributing factors to error
d) Both b & c
30
09.9. Hazards in the Workplace.
226. Engineers often work on raised platforms, ladders etc. What dangers can this contribute to?
a) Staging may be made of wood
b) Ladder may slip and man falls
c) Two workers may be carrying out maintenance on the same lift
d) None is correct
227. Risk assessment and management is

a) Reduction of risks to a tolerable standard and monitoring the situation
b) The investigation of risks and totally removing them and the monitoring of new work practices
c) Choosing a cheaper supplier or manufacturer for parts
d) None is correct
228. When carrying out a risk assessment
a) A hard hat should be worn
b) It is necessary to identify where equipment/procedures might fail
c) Nothing
d) None is correct
31
A. P. AVIATION ACADEMY; AME COLLEGE, HYDERABAD

MASTER ANSWER KEY: MODULE 9: HUMAN FACTORS
1 b 47 b 93 a 139 b 185 c
2 c 48 c 94 a 140 b 186 c
3 a 49 a 95 c 141 a 187 a
4 c 50 a 96 b 142 c 188 b
5 b 51 c 97 c 143 a 189 a
6 b 52 b 98 b 144 b 190 b
7 b 53 a 99 c 145 a 191 a
8 a 54 c 100 a 146 a 192 c
9 b 55 b 101 c 147 b 193 c
10 b 56 c 102 a 148 b 194 b
11 a 57 a 103 c 149 b 195 c
12 b 58 b 104 a 150 c 196 a
13 b 59 b 105 b 151 a 197 a
14 b 60 a 106 c 152 c 198 a
15 a 61 c 107 a 153 c 199 a
16 a 62 b 108 b 154 a 200 b
17 d 63 c 109 b 155 c 201 c
18 a 64 b 110 c 156 c 202 b
19 c 65 b 111 b 157 c 203 a
20 c 66 a 112 c 158 b 204 a
21 c 67 a 113 d 159 b 205 a
22 b 68 b 114 c 160 a 206 b
23 b 69 c 115 b 161 a 207 c
24 c 70 c 116 c 162 c 208 c
25 a 71 c 117 c 163 c 209 b
26 c 72 c 118 a 164 c 210 a
27 c 73 a 119 b 165 b 211 b
28 c 74 c 120 c 166 a 212 c
29 a 75 a 121 b 167 b 213 b
30 b 76 c 122 a 168 b 214 b
31 a 77 c 123 a 169 b 215 b
32 c 78 c 124 a 170 c 216 c
32
33 a 79 b 125 b 171 a 217 b
34 c 80 c 126 a 172 a 218 a
35 c 81 a 127 c 173 c 219 b
36 b 82 d 128 a 174 c 220 a
37 c 83 b 129 c 175 b 221 c
38 b 84 c 130 a 176 c 222 c
39 a 85 a 131 b 177 c 223 b
40 c 86 a 132 a 178 c 224 c
41 c 87 c 133 b 179 a 225 b
42 a 88 c 134 a 180 c 226 b
43 a 89 a 135 c 181 b 227 a
44 b 90 c 136 a 182 b 228 b
45 a 91 b 137 b 183 b
46 b 92 a 138 a 184 b
33

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Question Bank: Human Factors

1. Accidents and engineering faults are

8. What do you do when someone is hypothermic?

09.2. Human Performance and Limitations.

23. Learning of a routine by repeated practice is known as

31. What type of lens is used to overcome short sightedness?

39. Colour defective vision affects

55. Iconic memory

71. Motor programmes

09.3. Social Psychology.

78. What is peer group pressure?

79. A regular behaviour of an individual is known as

87. Risky shift' is

94. A person with low self-esteem is

102. Successful working teams have the following attributes

109. Information on drugs and alcohol can be found in

118. What meal is most recommended after a long shift?

126. Tiredness causes visual acuity to

142. The symptoms of stress are

150. The intake of caffeine in moderate quantities can result in

158. When working on aircraft, the consumption of alcohol

09.5. Physical Environment.

166. Environmental stresses are

182. Facility lighting in a hangar should be

191. What constitutes a good work handover?

09.8. Human Error.

199. The SHEL model of human factors takes into account

219. A type 1 visual inspection error occurs when

09.9. Hazards in the Workplace.

227. Risk assessment and management is

A. P. AVIATION ACADEMY; AME COLLEGE, HYDERABAD

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