Incisive NB for low six anterior teeth?.

A. 27 gauge short needle***

B. just give when penetrate the bone
C
Length of tracheal tube from…………..to………………?.
A. from tip of nose to EAM { EAM..external audiatory meatus}
B. ala of nose to EAM
The distal tip of a properly positioned tracheal tube will be located in the mid -trachea, roughly 2 cm (1 in) above the bifurcation
.of the carina
Alveolar fracture of 9 year children with bone loss, which graft?
a. corticocancellous bone graft
b. cancellous bone graft***

Short central incisor need apicectomy, at least?

A. 2 mm***
B. 1mm
.C 5mm
In Mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, which start INVADE? .
a. Streptococcus***
b. Staphylococcus
c. Bacteriods

Infection in lower Incisors, Canine, and premolars spread of infection?

A. Lingual coritcal plate of bone +++ { due to external oblique ridge}
B. Buccal cortical palate above mylohyoid muscle
C. Buccal cortical palate below mylohyoid muscle
D. Lingo-Buccal cortical plate below mylohyoid muscle
Anterior disc displacement, in closed position disc VEIW?.
A. anterior medial***
B. anterior lateral
C. anterior straight
D. in normal position
Nine years old patient 16 kg how many carpules 1/10,000?
A 3*** 7mgX 16kg=112mg…..112/36mg in one carpule = 3
B5
C8 for lignocaine
D 10
Most common malignant tumor in submandibular and sublingual salivary .
gland?
A. mucoepidermoid carcinoma 12%
mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignancy of the parotid gland and is the second most common of
the submandibular gland after adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. adenocystic carcinoma***25%
C. adenoid carcinoma
In patient with liver encephalopathy assessment?
A. PT { prothrombin time }***
B. APPT
C. clotting fibrin
D. INR
Antibiotic for actinomycosis? .
A penicillin***
B clindamycin
C flagyl
Battles sign?
A. bruise infront of the ear
B. zygomatic fracture
C. basilar fracture*** {common in lefort III, bruise behind ear, ecchymosis at mastoid
}process
The best antibiotic of choice to treat acute sinusitis in allergic patient?.
a. Ceftazidime
}b. Ampicillin { patient allergy to penicillin
Penicillins, cephalosporins, and macrolides seem to be equally efficacious.[17] A 10- to 14-day regimen of
amoxicillin 500 mg 3 times a day is recommended by many as first-line therapy
c. Trimethoprim \ sulfamethaxozole
d. Metronidazole
Normal Number of platelet? .
A
B 150,000-450,000mm³***
C
D
Most common complication of { TMJ arthrotomy } ? .
A maloclussion***
B infection
C fibrous adhesion
D facial nerve weakness
Second goal of Incision and Drianage

relief of pain

patient 55y come to minor surgery assessment BP 146/90 after 10 min

148/90?
A. normal as age
B. pre hypertention This hypertension stage is defined as a systolic blood pressure
between 120 and 139 or a diastolic pressure between 80 and 89.
C. type 1 hypertenion***If your systolic blood pressure is between 140 and 159 or
your diastolic pressure is between 90 and 99, you are considered to be in hypertension
stage 1.
D. type2 hypertention If your systolic pressure is 160 or higher or your diastolic
.pressure is 100 or higher, you have hypertension stage 2

During BSSO bulk of buccal bone fracture, what do you do?

a. Remove fracture part and continous
b. Complete as your plan
c. Fix fracture part and re do after healing
d. Just fix a bone and re do after 2year
A patient has horizontal midface deformity with deficiency in the malar and
zygomatic regions with intact nasal bone. Diagnosis her condition?
a. High level lefort 1 fracture
b. Quadrangular lefort 2 fracture
c. Lefort 2 fracture with rhinoplasty
D. Lefort 3 fracture

In an upright position, blood from medial cantus, lateral nose and upper lip
drains into?
A. Inferiorly to the facial vein***
B. Superiorly to facial vein
C. Cavernous sinus
D. Pterygoid venous plexus
One is true about {facial nerve branches}?
A. frontal and zygomatic branch deficit more than any branches
B. mandibular branch superficial to ………………………….
C. frontal branch on zygomatic arch…………………………
D. crossover frontal and branches and 80%
The five soft plate muscles arise from?
A. Hard palate
B. Palatal bone
C. Base of skull
***D. Palato-pharyngeal arch
Best plain film to show orbital rim and lateral orbital rim as well as sinuses?

A. Caldwell view
B. Water view ++ { sinuses view }
C. Lateral oblique view
Increase serum sodium level?
a. Dehydration***
b. Renal problem
c. Liver problem
d. GIT problem
COPD 75y patient for extraction of 3 teeth you will give?
a. 2.5 L oxygen
b. 4L oxygen***
c. 6L oxygen
d. No need if it is only COPD
The aim of (controlled) oxygen therapy is to raise the PaO2 without worsening the
acidosis. Therefore, give oxygen at no more than 28% (via venturi mask, 4 L/minute)
or no more than 2 L/minute (via nasal prongs) and aim for oxygen saturation 88-92%
for patients with a history of COPD until arterial blood gases (ABGs) have been
checked. Low-flow supplemental oxygen administration via nasal canula at rates of 2
to 4 L/minute is appropriate even in patients with severe disease. Oxyen theapy is an
important therapeutic agent for hypoxemic patients. It can improve survival in COPD
patients when uses continuously
During implant placement surgery, the head of the implant fractured but the
surgeon was able to seat the healing abutment. What are the surgeon?
options?
a. As the internal apparatus is fine nothing further need be done
b. Removal of the implant***
c. Place another bigger implant

How much of minimal cortical thickness is required around an implant? .

a. 1mm*** { minimal thickness of bone around implant }
b. 2mm { space between implant and adjacent teeth }
c. 3mm { space between two implant }
d. 4mm

Sublingual Space is bounded posteriorly? .

A. Communicated with submandibular space***
B. Mylohyiod muscle
The sublingual space communicates posteriorly around the posterior free border of the
Infections of the sublingual space ]2[.mylohyoid muscle with the submandibular space
may also erode through the mylohyoid, or spread via the lymphatics to the
.submandibular and submental spaces
Old year patient with deficient alveolar ridges required construction of full
denture and was determined by the surgeon to undertake Dean ’s method of
{alveoloplasty} (augmentation). Disadvantage of Dean"s method is

A Reduced ridge thickness*** which interfere with implant placement later

Augmentin 625mg consists of? .

A 500mg Ampicillin and 125mg Clavunic acid
***B 500mg Amoxicillin and 125mg Clavunic acid

Prosthodontist desire to make an angulation of implant 30 degree how to

manage it
a. Place implant straight
b. 15 degree angulation
c. 30 degree angulation
Prediction of operation time in {third molar surgery} depend on?
a. Depth of impaction and approximation of teeth to vital structures
b. Age of patient
***c. Root pattern shape and angulation

Difficulty in 3molar impaction depend on?

a) Depth of impaction and age of the patient.
b) Near to vital structures and inclination of tooth.
c) Root form***.
.d) Bone dense and 2nd molar position
Oroantral communication 4mm managed by marzix buccal sliding flap?
a. Decrease vestibular depth***
b. Bone exposure on either side
The least effective vasoconstrictor? .
A. Norepinephrine.
B. Epinephrine.
C levonordeferrin
***D. Octapressin/ Felypressin
In an unconscious patient with intact pharyngeal reflexes, after trauma
management airway, which method should be avoided?
a. Nasopharyngeal airway***.
b venture mask***
c. Bifid nasal canula.
.d. Oropharyngeal airway
Following BSSO .
The TMDs { temporal mandibular dysfunctions } commonly seen are?
Retro positioned chin
Deviation of the mandible .
***Posterior displacement of the condyle in high mandibular plane angle case
In true asymmetrical of mandible? .
A. Incisor midline doesn’t coincide to symphysis midline in centric occlusion
B. No functional shift
C. Mid-symphysis doesn’t coincide with mid-sagittal plane***
D. Bilateral end to end crossbite

Patient with {skeletal class 2} {maxilla protruded and mandible retruded} .

with good chin how to make correction?
a. Advancement genioplasty
b. Increase orthodontically class 2 condition and maxillary setback
c. Orthodontically increase and protrude incisors to class 3
***d. Mandibular advancement and reduction Genioplasty

lesion 4cm found below ear lobe. The lesion is

A. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying .A
connective tissue.. sebaceous cyst*** .
B. Attached to skin but movable and not attached to underlying
connective tissue.. epidermoid cyst.
C. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying
connective tissue.. sebaceous cyst.
D. Attached to skin not movable and attached to underlying
.connective tissue.. epidermoid cyst
Curettage and enucleation? .
a. Indicated in OKC*** {high recurrence rate} usually treated by enucleation
and curettage
enucleation with application of Carnoy's solution as for treatment of
OKC( chemical cauterization )
b. Removal of bone from 5mm -1cm
c. Treatment of Dentigerous cyst (enuculeation only)
.
In which condition there is no need for ORIF for ZMC fractures?
a. Medial displacement
b. Lateral displacement
***c. lack displacement
d. inward displacement
Orbital floor trauma which gaze cause diplopia? .
a. Upward and lateral*** result from paralysis occulomotor nerve
b. Upward and medial
c. Downward and lateral

Most likely cause of myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome is?.

A. Bruxism following stress++ ok
B. Internal derangement with reduction
C. Internal derangement without reduction

One of the features is seen in renal failure? .

a. Hypocalcemia***
b. Hypokalemia.
c. Hypernatremia
d. alkalosis

A hypertensive patient is scheduled for surgery

What antihypertensive drugs should be STOP ON the morning of
surgery?
a) Thiazide diuretics
***b) ACE Inhibitors
Patients on angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin II
receptor blockers (ARB) have about a 50% risk of developing hypotension
during surgery, and a significant proportion of those episodes could be severe
c) Calcium channel blockers

Which of the following values would you term to be hypertensive? .

normal value 120/80
a. 135/85
***b. 140/90
c. 145/95
d. 150/95

A girl 18y is predisposed to fainting attacks and gives a positive .

history of syncope and shortness of breath. Her examination reveals
a mid systolic click and a late systolic murmur. The dental treatment
for such a patient? Heart Disease
No change in management
Dealing as Infective prophylaxis
Local anesthesia without VC
}Give SABE prophylaxis*** {mitral valve prolapse

What is the size of Maxillary Sinus? .

***A. 14 ML
B. 20ML
C. 9ML
Antibiotic for empiric treatment in end stage renal deficiency is?
A. Flagyl
***B. Doxycillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Penicillin
Patient has been treated for rheumatoid arthritis was taking .
steroids for the last year and he needs multiple tooth extraction. The
surgeon should?
***A. Give supplement of steroid 100-150mg before surgery
B. Give 75mg steroid supplement
C. Give 25mg steroid supplement
D. Proceed extraction without steroid supplement

Diabetes Mellitus period of control evaluation? .

***a. HbA1c
b. FBS
c. GTT
d. 24 hour serum creatinine

A 45 year old man has an asymptomatic impacted mandibular third .

molar detected on radiograph. What are the treatment options that
you would choose from?
a. Surgical extraction mandatory
b. Just observe and follow up on a 6 monthly basis
c. Wait and watch for several years
d. No treatment required

Surgeon wants to place an immediate implant after extraction. The .

role of resorbable membrane in this case?
***a. Should be used to prevent tissue in growth in the socket space
b. Should be used only in case of bone grafting when primary closure is
not possible
c. Should not be used if primary closure is achieved
d. Is used only to prevent crestal bone loss

How much of minimal cortical thickness is required around an .

implant?
***a. 1mm minimium amount of bone around implant
b. 2mm distance between implant and bone
c. 3mm distance between two implant
.d. 4mm

The following day of inserting an implant in #22, the patient returns .

complaining of numbness. Management is?
A. Remove the implant
B. Surgical exploration of the area
C. Keep the implant in site since the numbness will resolve spontaneously
in few days
***D. Follow up for few days to and remove implant if numbness persists

. :Antibiotic of choice for treatment of osteomyelities is .

Penicillin*** 1st drug of the choice in case of osteomyelitis .
Ceftazine
.Clindamycine if patient allergy to penicillin

The optimum speed of rotation when preparing a tap for inserting an

implant is
***A. 30-40rpm
B. 40-60rpm
C. 60-80rpm
D. 80-100rpm
.
A patient 13y required extraction of decayed tooth and had history of
easy bleeding .Hematological picture includes increases BT
{bleeding time}, elevated APTT and normal PT {prothrombin time}.
His condition is?
a. Deficiency Factor VIII hemophilia A
***b. Von Willebrand disease
.c. Thrombocytopenic purpura
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
The aPTT will be prolonged if there is deficiency or an inhibitor of factors in the
intrinsic or common pathways, including high molecular weight kininogen (HMWK);
prekallikrein; factors V, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII; prothrombin; and fibrinogen. A
prolonged aPTT is also seen in individuals with lupus anticoagulant. In VWD
diagnosis, the aPTT is prolonged only if factor VIII is sufficiently decreased.13 Most
individuals with type 3 or type 2N VWD and approximately 25% to 50% of
individuals with type 1 VWD will have a prolonged aPTT. Therefore laboratory tests
for VWD should be performed if clinical suspicion is strong, even if aPTT is
normal.13
Prothrombin Time (PT)
The PT measures the time for clot formation after the addition of tissue factor
(thromboplastin) and calcium to citrated blood. PT is prolonged with deficiencies of
factors II, V, VII, X, and fibrinogen; liver disease; warfarin use; and vitamin K
deficiency. PT is within the reference range in individuals with VWD.

A patient 14y with impacted third molar bilateral with soft tissue and
bony impaction chance of eruption is
a. 10 – 30%
b. 30 – 50%
c. 50 – 80%
d. 100%

Prosthodontist desire angulation of implant 30 degree?

a. Place implant straight
***b. 15 degree angulation
c. 30 degree angulation
d. Revaluate

Lateral pharyngeal space {infection} posterior compartment can

lead to?
a. External jugular vein thrombosis
***b. Carotid artery rupture
c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
d All of above
Calvarial bone formed by?
a. Intramembraneous ossification*** flat bone
b. Endochondral ossification long bone

Chances of Tumor development with impacted 3rd molar? .

increases with age
***decreases with age
no change with age

Most common flap in oral surgery

Envelope flap

A patient with history of uncontrolled hyperthyroidism requires

surgery. Which is the LA of the choice?
a. Lidocaine
***b. Mepivacaine
c. Propoxycaine
d.Bupivacaine

Local anaesthetic which can be only injected IV?

a. Tetracaine
b. Benzocaine
c. Prilocaine
***d. Etidocaine

A patient who cannot maintain the airway has a tendency for .

vomiting. Best method to prevent aspiration of vomiting is by
employing?
***a. A cuffed ET tube
b. Laryngeal mask
.

Adrenaline dose in intubated patient is? .

A. 1 mg in 1 ML
B. 1 mg in 10 ML
C. 2.5 mg 2.5 ML
***D. 2.5 mg in 10 ML
Endotracheal Tube: 2-2.5mg epinephrine is diluted in 10cc NS and given
.directly into the ET tube
Patient with hyperventilation during dental treatment how to .
management?
}A. Diazepam++ {benzodiazepam anticonvulsant
B. Ranitidine
C. O2
D. bronchodilator

TMJ ankylosis to patient, Induced by inhalation anesthetic after 60 .

minutes patient produces crowing sound and severe chest wall
movement. Drug which will be not be useful is?
a. ( IV) Propofol
b. (IV) lidocaine
c. Fentanyl*** should be avoided in weak and shallow breath

First skeletal muscles to contract after using succinylcholine .

during general anesthesia is?
***A. Eyelids
B. Shoulder
C. Hands
D. Abdomen

A patient with Class 1 molar relation has severe retrogenthia and a .

severe disparity in the anterior posterior relation of her mandible to
maxilla relation. What Treatment plan?
a. Genioplasty procedure
b. Mandibular advancement with genioplasty
***}c. Lefort 1 {for maxilla correction} with mandibular advancement {md.correct

Maximum range of interincisal opening? .

A. 35mm
***f=35-45mm / m=45-55mm} B. 45mm{
C. 55mm
D 65mm

Prevention or Management of alar base widening in maxillary .

osteotomy by?
a. Single layer of closure of mucosal incision
b. Alar Cinch suture with non resorbable suture
c. Nasal septum suture to nasal spine
d. By avoiding superior placement of maxilla

Carcinoma alveolar bone and buccal mucosa, management by .

mandibulectomy with SND2.Reconstruction of choice
Supraomohyoid Neck Dissection
a. Fibula osteocutaneous free flap
b. Temporalis flap
c. Sternoclediomastoid muscle flap
d. Skin graft

Most common affliction of the Sublingual salivary gland? .

a. Sialolith submandibular salivary gland
b. Mucocele minor salivary gland lower lip
c. Ranula sublingual salivary gland
d. Pleomorphic adenoma parotid gland

.
Patient with Treacher Collins syndrome { deficiency in malar and .
zygomatic bone } needed correction of mandibular deficiency which
included 12mm advancement. Best approach is

A. BSSO
B. Inverted L osteotomy ++ extra oral
C. Intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy
D. Extraoral vertical ramus osteotomy

In which condition there is no need for ORIF for ZMC fractures? .

a. Medial displacement
b. Lateral displacement
c. Inferior displacement
d. No displacement
e. inward displacement

Towne’s( AP) view { sinuse"s view} is similar to? .

***A. Antero-posterior view
B. Postero-anterior view
C. Water view

Greenstick fracture? .
a. Fracture of one side of the bone without fracture of the other side***
. b. incomplete fracture
c. Will cause severe displacement of while fixation

Sulfer granules its denotes in which bacteria? …actinomycesis

Screw of compression plate should be

***a. Parallel to fracture line
in case of Lag Screw b. Perpendicular to fracture line

Management of symphseal and parasymphseal fracture

Frist line of treatment soft tissue sarcoma
• Surgery is the most common treatment for soft-tissue sarcomas. If possible,
the doctor will remove the cancer and a safe margin of the healthy tissue
around it. It is important to obtain a margin free of tumor to decrease the
likelihood of local recurrence and give the best chance for eradication of the
tumor. Depending on the size and location of the sarcoma, it may, rarely, be
necessary to remove all or part of an arm or leg.[citation needed]
• Radiation therapy may be used either before surgery to shrink tumors or after
surgery to kill any cancer cells that may have been left behind. In some cases,
it can be used to treat tumours that cannot be surgically removed. In multiple
studies, radiation therapy has been found to improve the rate of local control,
but has not had any influence on overall survival.[citation needed]
•Chemotherapy may be used with radiation therapy either before or after
surgery to try to shrink the tumor or kill any remaining cancer cells. The use of
chemotherapy to prevent the spread of soft-tissue sarcomas has not been
proven to be effective. If the cancer has spread to other areas of the body,
chemotherapy may be used to shrink tumors and reduce the pain and
discomfort they cause, but is unlikely to eradicate the disease.
A combination of Taxotere and Gemzar could be an effective chemotherapy
regimen in patients with advanced soft-tissue sarcoma.

Pediatric Patient go to general anesthesia how long before surgery

should stop feeding
a. 2h
b. 4h
c.6h
d. 8h

Which is the best way to monitor osteomyelitis

nuclear medicine for assessing patients with osteomyelitis

normal 12-18breath/min} Normal respiratory rate in adult {

a. 12-14 breath/ minute .

***b. 14-16 breath/minute
c. 16-18 breath/minute
d. 18-20 breath/minute
.6
Primary passive support of the mandible is from ?
a- Masseter muscle
b- Medial pterygoid muscle
c- Lateral pterygoid muscle

Penicillin is?
a- Narrow spectrum (Ab)***
b- Broad spectrum (Ab)
c- Highly toxic (Ab)

Antibiotic of choice in management of osteomyelitis?

a- Penicillin*** 1st drug of choice in management of osteomyelitis
b- Metronidazole
c- Clindamycine . .only if patient is allergy from penicillin

Gain access of bone at lingual plate in mandibular 3rd molar?

Antero-posterior
Vertical
Horzontially
Mesiodistally

What is the Peck graft in nasal tip correction?

This is an onlay graft in the region of the nasal tip. Layers of cartilage are placed in
the domal region to increase projection. The graft material is either conchal or septal
cartilage. The graft is secured to the dome by sutures. This Technique can increase
projection by 2-6 mm

Most common cause of postoperative hypotension?

a- Pain & anxiety***
b- Effect of anesthesia on the myocardium***
c- Hypoxia

Which of the following drugs cannot be given via endotracheal route?

a- Naloxone {reverse rigidity caused by fentanyl during GA}
b- Atropine {conscious sedation with little depression CNS}
c- Glycopyrolate*** The typical endotracheal dose of medications is 2 to 3
times the IV dose. Four medications can be given via the ET tube: lidocaine,
epinephrine, atropine, and naloxone (LEAN).

Patient is on aspirin and needs multiply extraction best management is?

a- Stop aspirin 3 days before .. aspirin stop 5- 10 days
b- Stop aspirin 10 days before***
c- Stop aspirin 6 hours before .. in case of heparin
Forceps used for extraction of badly decayed mandibular molar?
1. Number 23 also Number 16
2. Number 88
3. Number 286

Cyst usually do not cause?

1. Destruction of cortical plate of bone
2. Resorption of root of adjacent tooth
3. Expansion of cortical plate of bone
4.

Potentiated for evaluation of maxillofacial injury the primary assessment is?

Airway obstruction***

Most common nerve disturbance seen in zygomatic maxillary complex fracture?

Infraorbital nerve***

Incision & drainage for retropharyngeal abcess done at?

1. Angle of the mandible
2. Anterior or { posterior } to sternocleidomastoid muscle
3. Lateral to the pterygomandibular raphae
4. Intra-oral***

Treatment of the actinomycosis?

1. Incision & drainage and long term penicillin therapy***
2. Short term therapy and I & D
3. ................................................................
4.
Speed of the hand piece?
1. 120-200 rpm
2. 1200-2000 rpm
3. 12.000-20.000 rpm***
4. 120.000-200.000 rpm

Omens score 8 sub normality expealed?

1. CNS, CVS, GIT
2. CNS, CVS
3. GIT, Pulmonary system
4. CVS, CNS, Skeletal ***

Intraosseous carcinoma may develop from (commonly)?

1. OKC ( odontogenic keratocyst )
2. CEOT ( calcifying epithelium odontogenic tumor )
3. Dentigerous cyst
4. ……………………………………………
Early stage carcinoma at base of the tongue planned for FND & radiotherapy
which is the best technique to reduce the dose of radiation to the mandible
submental …….therapy
buccal therapy …………

After treatment of ameloblastoma with enucleation and curettage how long will it
take to recur
year 1
years 3
years 5
years 10

Brisk bleeding from coronal flap for impacted third molar surgery result from
Facial artery
Retromolar artery
Lingual artery
Buccal artery

Nasopharyngeal airway length clinically measured from

Ala of the nose to external audiatory meatus
Tip of the nose to external auditory meatus
..………………………………………………
……………………………………………………

In patient with anterior disc displacement without reduction, disk is displaced

Antero-medially
Antero-laterally
Anterior- straight

Lip adhesion is done best at

First few weeks of life
months 1-3

Carcinoma destruction alveolar buccal bone best reconstruction flap is

Fibula flap
Sternocleidomastoid muscle flap
Temporal fascia flap
***Fibuloosseouscartiligenous flap
Best muscle relaxant in patient with MIN is
Vecumcunonium may cause prolonged paralysis
Succinylcholine contraindication
Mivacunonium hypotension
Pancunonium contraindication
Atracunonium

Lidocaine 2% {lignocaine} with 1:50,000 epinephrine can be identified by

Green Band

-:Red band
lignocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine 3%

-:Green band
lignocaine {lidocaine} with 1:50,000 epinephrine %2

-:Yellow band
prilocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine %4

-:Blue band
mepivacaine , bupivacaine, lignocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine 0.5%

-:Brown band
mepivacaine with 1:20,000 levonordephrine %3

Adolescent patient with accentuned epiglottic the best way to rescue breathing
ET intubation
Tracheostomy
Oropharyngesal airway
Air mask

-:Glascow coma scale classification

.…Best eye response score 4
No eye opening score …1
Eye opening to pain score… 2
Eye opening to verbal command score… 3
Eye opening spontaneously score… 4
…Best verbal response score 5
No verbal response score… 1
Incomprehensible sound score… 2
Inappropriate words score… 3
Confused score… 4
Orientated score… 5
…Best motor response score 6
No motor response score… 1
Extension to pain score… 2
Flexion to pain score… 3
Withdrawal from pain score… 4
Localizing pain score… 5
Obeys command score… 6

According to glascow scale classification what is the score

Patient can open his eye in response to speech score 3/4 11/15
Localized pain score 5/6
Produce inappropriate word score 3/5

Number of receptor in CVS affected by epinephrine

1
2
3
4
5

-:Class II hemorrhage
Pulse rate > 100 pulse/minute
Normal systolic blood pressure
Decrease pulse pressure
Respiratory rate 20-30 breath/minute
Urinary output 20-30 ml/hour
Blood loss 750-1500 ml

-:Class I hemorrhage
Pulse rate < 100 pulse/minute
Normal systolic blood pressure
Increase or normal pulse pressure
Respiratory rate 14-20 breath/minute
Urinary output > 30ml/hour

-:Class III hemorrhage

Pulse rate > 120 pulse/minute
Decrease systolic blood pressure
Decrease pulse pressure
Respiratory rate 30-40 breath/minute
Urinary output 5-15ml/hour

-:Class IV hemorrhage
Pulse rate > 140 pulse/minute
Decrease systolic blood pressure
Decrease pulse pressure
Respiratory rate > 35 breath/minute
Urinary output is negligible
Peck graft only for nasal tip reconstruction?

Patient with asympatomatic lip discoloration since one year?

Due to melanoses { melanoma macules*** }

Reversed of fentanyl which produced chest rigidity?

Naloxone***

Premedication not a part of…………………………?

Ranitidine
Atropine
Metachlopromide*** is a medication used mostly for stomach and esophageal
problems.[2] It is commonly used to treat and prevent nausea and vomiting, to help
with emptying of the stomach in people with delayed stomach emptying, and to help
with gastroesophageal reflux disease.[3] It is also used to treat migraine headaches

Post operative hypotension caused by

Hypoxia
Pain & anxiety
Effect of anesthesia on the myocardium***

Class 3 orbital trauma?

Avulsion of the CT from its bony…………………….

Reason for prophylactic antibiotic during third molar surgery?

To avoid dry socket formation and infection***

Fastest recovery from inhalation anesthesia ?

Sevoflurane*** fastest onset and offset
Desflurane
Halothane

Antibiotic that is given in ethmodial maxillary sinusitis?

Penicillin
Clindamycin
Ampicillin***

Fluid during surgical shock?

Normal saline solution
RL solution*** {Ranger"s Lactate Solution}
Dextrose
The best way to rescue in rapid, shallow breathing hyperventalition?

Oxygen mask
Cuffed airway
Nasal airway
Polythene bag***

Type of conscious sedation used in apprehensive, hypertension patient?

Nitrous oxide N2O

Diazepam
Midazolam

Bone resection is not done in case of?

Ameloblastoma
Odontogenic myxoma
Calcifiying epithelium odontogenic tumor
Odontogenic keratocyst *** {enucleation & curettage}

Disadvantage of buccal sliding flap?

Alteration of buccal sulcus depth***

A lump of 4mm below ear?

Fixed to underlying tissue but movable, not fixed to overlying skin sebaceous cyst
Fixed to underlying tissue but movable, not fixed to overlying skin epidermoid cyst
Fixed to the skin, movable and free from the underlying tissue sebaceous cyst***
Fixed to the skin, movable and free from the underlying tissue epidermoid cyst
The direction of disc movement in internal dearrangement ?
Anterior direction***
Posterior direction
Medially direction
Laterally direction

Passive support for the mandible come from?

Lateral pterygoid muscle
Medial pterygoid muscle
Spheno mandibular ligament***
Stylo mandibular ligament
masseter muscle

Best anesthesia in hyperthyroidism patient without vasoconstriction?

Mepivacaine*** {because it has least V.D. compare to another type L.A.}
Bupivacaine
Prilocaine
Propoxycaine

The temperature of the bone during implant placement?

-42-47 degree*** {should not exceed 47 degree/ in more than 1 minute}

Anterior segmental osteotomy done in the anterior region but no stimulation to

……………………..by the anterior teeth osteotomy done at?

3mm***
5mm
7mm
10mm
Greater palatine nerve block in children is given?

1-2 mm posterior to the molar teeth toward the midline

3-4 mm posterior to the molar teeth toward the midline
10 mm posterior to the molar tooth toward the midline***
10 mm posterior to the deciduous second molar

A case of malignant cancer on the lower lip without lymph

node involved how to management this case?

Chemotherapy
Surgical procedure*** { wide surgical excision..in case of earlobe }
Observation
Radiotherapy

1:200,000 epinephrine how much mg of epinephrine?

0.01mg
0.004mg
0.008mg
0.005mg*** {1000 water / 200.000 = 0.005mg }

Primary management of maxillofacial injury is done due to?

Airway difficulty due to blood and foreign bodies***

Associated cervical spine injury

Commonly impacted primary tooth?

Maxilla canine
Mandible canine
Maxilla molar
Mandible molar*** The most commonly affected teeth are the deciduous mandibular
second molars

Horzontial pattern there is a risk of?

Vomitus***
Tongue fall back { unconscious patient }
Patient with short neck , class II malocclusion retrognathia of the mandible for
mandibular advancement?

Blind awake nasotracheal intubation

Blind awake fibro-optic nasotracheal intubation***
…………………………………………………..

Antibiotic is given in actinomycesis?

Penicillin*** IV route
Clindamycin in case of allergy to penicillin
Doxycycline used in end stage renal disease
………………………………………….

What is the true about craniofacial dysostosis?

Apart of the dysostosis + ………………………***
Breaking down the name, "craniofacial" refers to the skull and face, and "dysostosis"
refers to malformation of bone. Now known as Crouzon syndrome, the characteristics
can be described by the rudimentary meanings of its former name. What occurs is that
an infant's skull and facial bones, while in development, fuse early or are unable to
expand. Thus, normal bone growth cannot occur. Fusion of different sutures leads to
different patterns of growth of the skull.
Examples include: trigonocephaly (fusion of the metopic suture), brachycephaly
(fusion of the coronal suture), dolichocephaly (fusion of the sagittal suture),
plagiocephaly (unilateral premature closure of lambdoid and coronal sutures),
oxycephaly (fusion of coronal and lambdoidal sutures), Kleeblattschaedel (premature
closure of all sutures).

Secondary finding in the dentigerous cyst?

Ameloblastoma***
Pathiological …………………………………

Reasons for post- operative pain after surgical removal of impacted lower third
molar releated to?
Type of impaction
Root form
Relation to the ramus

Lag screw?
Drill free
Threaded at terminal end
Threaded completely

Most interfragmentary compression?

Tension band
Lag screws
Compression plates
……………...screw

Disturbance of the nerve in ZMC fracture?

Infraorbital nerve***
Zygomatic branch of facial nerve
Drainage of the medial eye, lateral nose, upper lip in an upright position?
Inferior facial vein***
Superior facial vein
Pterygoid venous plexus
Cavernous sinus

Incision to be given during apicectomy in the anterior teeth with crown?

Semilunar incision
Sulcular incision
Submarginal incision***

Osteotomy opening size for endodontic treatment in single rooted teeth using
microscopic evaluation and for instrumentation?
3mm
5mm***
7mm
10mm

Serum electroloytes in addision disease?

Potassium Low serum sodium, high serum potassium,

Serum electroloytes in peutz jegheris syndrome?

sodium
low serum iron Iron deficiency anemia should also be suspected in any patient either
experiencing chronic blood loss or recovering from acute blood loss. Patients affected
by inherited diseases with chronic blood loss, such as hereditary hemorrhagic
telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome) and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome,
Only absolute indication for removal of the tooth?

Tooth luxated but root broken

Root near to the vital structure
More than 3rd of the root form***

Sternocleidomastoid muscle pedicled clavicle graft for the reconstruction of the

mandible disadvantage is?

Cell not viable

Size and shape cannot be alteraded ***
Donor site morbidity
Immediate loading implant placement at # 10 Rt side what do you use?

Open excess & elevator

Open excess & forceps
Closed excess & elevator
Closed excess & forceps***

The container of soft tissue biopsy contain ?

10% formalin

The investigation & diagnosis of the vesicles?

Incisional biopsy & immunofluorescence***

Excisional biopsy & immunofluorescence of the rupture vesicles
……………………………………………………………………

The fusion of the anterior mandible in children is done by?

Fibrous tissue*** {endochondral ossification & fibrocartilage}

Cartilaginous joint***
Fibrous joint
Fibrocartilage***

During the { pre-auricular incision } the damage occur to?

Deep temporal vein and artery

Superficial temporal vein and artery
Temporal branch of the facial nerve and auriculotemporal nerve***

The effect of chemotherapy on the white blood cells?

Decrease number of WBCs***

Decrease number and function of WBCs***
Decrease function of WBCs

The best imaging modality of soft tissue TMJ?

MRI***
CT scan
Arthrography

The posterior border of the sublingual space communicate posterior with?

Submental space
Submandibular space***

What type of cells which enter 3rd day during wound healing to replace platelets
promoting growth factors?
Macrophage*** { PMNL enter after 24hour / mononucleoidal cell enter2-3hours }
Monocyte
Leucocyte
Megalocyte

Most of the odontogenic infection are caused by?

Normal oral flora***
Anaerobic gram positive rod
Invading exogenous bacteria to oral cavity

The use of the prolabium in the management of bilateral cleft lip?

Lip length
Columella lengthening***
Philtral Length

Patient with excessive gingival show during?

Horizontial maxilla excess***
Long lip length
Excess smile
Length crown

Patient with hyperventilation rapid & shallow breath how to manage ?

Breathing into the bag***

O2 breath

Battles signs seen in?

Basilar skull fracture, associated with lefort III fracture, Bruise at mastoid process behind the ear

While investing cancellous bone graft from the ilium in the anterior region the
access of the cortex should be? Anterior iliac crest 25-50cc / posterior iliac crest 75-
100cc
Expansion of the medial and lingual cortex
Medial and lateral cortex should be pedicled on the muscle
Medial and lateral cortex should be pedicled by the oblique osteotomy
Decaped the cortex and pedicled the cortex entire medial on lateral***

Gardener syndrome the true statement is ? multiply intestinal polp

Multiple intestinal polyp are premalignant*** pigmentation Gardener
Jaw Osteotom"s are premalignant multiple osteoma syndrome
Medial wall of the orbital is formed by
Ethmoidal bone
Lacrimal bone
Frontal bone
All of above

In space infection { submental, sublingual, submandibular }& respiratory

obstruction methods of diagnosis
***CT scan
MRI
Soft tissue x-ray of cervical & chest x-ray

Discoloration of the malar region in 15 years old patient what is the management
Biopsy The most common way of diagnosis of malar rash is to undergo blood tests,
urine tests, and biopsy of the kidneys. Such examinations help the doctors to get a fair
idea of the general factors causing malar rash and also aids the acquisition of the
knowledge of the patient’s medical history. Besides these, advanced and specific
medical tests such as X-ray of the face, neck or chest, C-reaction protein test, anti-
nuclear antibody test, ANA, Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate test help in the specific
.detection of the cause of butterfly rash
Wait & watch
Endocrine assessment

Deficiency of infra orbital region and zygomatic region with normal nasal tip what
is the recommended surgery

High lefort I
Lefort II
Lefort III
Quadrilateral lefort II

Thin mandible distal extension with tooth as abutment type of implant use

Root form implant

Blade form implant
Trans mandibular implant

?.…………Next to suxomethonium in G.A. for

Vecuronium Vecuronium bromide, sold under the brand name Norcuron among
to provide skeletal muscle others, is a medication used as part of general anesthesia
It is also used to help with ]1[.or mechanical ventilation during surgery relaxation
succinylcholine) is generally ( however, suxamethonium ;endotracheal intubation
]1[.It is given by injection into a vein ]1preferred if this needs to be done quickly.[

Effects are greatest at about 4 minutes and last for up to an hour

Racuronium
Pancuronium
Atracurium
Succinyl choline cause skeletal muscle contraction first in which organ

Eye
Shoulder
Hand
Abdomen
Normal respiratory rate in normal health patient

breath/minute 16-14
breath/minute 12-10
breath/minute 18-16
breath/minute 14-12

Dropping of the eyelid is known as

Proptosis
} Ptosis*** { result from paralysis ooculomotor n. w supply levator muscle

Orbital cellulitis is due to

Dental infection
***Paranasal sinuses infection
.……………………………
.……………………………

After 3 days from using general anesthesia calcium is released in which condition

}Muscle spasm*** {2nd to malignant hyperthermia

Dysarrythmia
Myalgia
Muscle dystrophic

Structure not seen in infratemporal space

Foramen ovale
Foramen rotundum
Carotid sheath the posterior border of the infratemporal fossa
Internal maxillary artery and vein

In adolescents length of philtrum is

***Count to the length of the commissure / higher than the commissure
……………………………More than
.…………………………… Less than

if lip is involved with carcinoma how to reconstruction the lip which flap is used
80%

Bernard flap
Common odontogenic infection

Buccal space infection

Vestibular abcess
Pharyngo mandibular space infection

Maxillary molar infection generally perforated

Above the buccinator muscle

Below the buccinator muscle

Grossily decayed mandibular molar is removed with which forceps

Forceps number 23 and 17

Forceps number 88
Forceps number 282

In chemotherapy

***WBCs count is decreased

WBCs function is impaired
WBCs count is decrease and function is lowered
In adult patient there are brown patches on the lip, the diagnosis is

Malignant melanomia
***Melanomia macules

Primary response after trauma

***Tachycardia with increase serum CO2

Bradycardia with decrease serum CO2
Tachycardia with increase serum O2
Bradycardia with decrease serum O2

To remove cancellous bone graft from iliac crest last method is

}Scooping from the cortex {remove from medial & lateral wall

Cupar technique is

Anterior segmental maxillary osteotomy through buccal mucosa while preserve palatal mucosa
Negligible urine output then blood loss will be

10-15%
15-30%
30-40%
More than 40%

Angulation of bevel in apicectomy

less than 10 degree*** or perpendicular to long axis of the tooth

degree 45
degree 90

The amount of osteotomy need for instrumentation in periapical surgery

mm0.2
mm0.5
mm0.7
mm10

Diplopia ( douple vision ) in upward gaze is due to the involvement of which nerve

Cranial nerve III

………………………………………There is 4mm of transverse deff

...………………………………………………Ortho
………………………… Surgical assisted expansion
Both answer
..………………………………………………………

For sinus bone grafting

mm……………….4mm10..…………………
mm………………4mm12...…………………
mm………………6mm10.……………………
mm………………6mm12………………………

Percussion of the primary tooth usually due to

Periapical infection
Root resorption
Pulpitis
Ankylosis
Bilumillar zone { zone releated to TMJ }is present

}Posterior to the disc*** {highly vascular, innervated zone

Anterior to the disc
Medial to the disc
Lateral to the disc

When bicortical screw { screw catch two cortical plate of bone } is used the two
holes on the buccal and lingual cortical plate of bone and the fracture segment

mm with 0.8mm on each hole1.6

mm with 0.6mm on each hole3.2
mm with 0.4mm on each hole0.8

Causes of ptosis

Damage occulomotor nerve which innervate levator palpebrae superiorus muscle

Tricyclic antidepressant ( TCA ) with noradrenaline cause

Hypotension
Hypertension crisis*** …also same result with adrenaline
Depression

TMJ is innervated by

Facial nerve
***Auriculotemporal nerve

Nerve passing through internal acoustic meatus

***Facial nerve
Trochlear nerve
Abducent nerve

The primary objective from treatment of infection

}Remove cause of infection {get rid off source of infection

Treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism

Surgical removal of parathyroid gland

Treatment involve polytheniclainary
Increase bleeding time, increase APTT, normal PT

Thrombocytopenic purpura
***Von willbrand"s disease
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

After eating if the patient has to go to neutralize gastric acid we use

Digene
***Sodium citrate
ranitidine
Ameprazole

Patient have severe infection, trismus which is the best flap to extract the impacted
tooth

Envelop flap
Ward"s flap
Modified ward"s flap
Triangular flap

Sterilization of local anesthesia cartridge in propylene alcohol

Sloughing of gingival tissue

Intra-oral ulceration
Edema
Paresthesia
} if paresthesia is not given then the answer will be edema {

Patient having zygomatico-orbital-ethmodial , naso-orbital-ethmodial, mandibular

fracture pan facial trauma method of intubation in this theatre is

Submental intubation
***Cricothyroid intubation
Nasotracheal intubation
Orotracheal intubation

While tapping the implant, the speed should be

rpm20-10
rpm30-20
rpm40-30
rpm60-50

Antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated with

***Surgically placed pulmonary shunt

Cardiac defebrillators

Classification of monostatic fibrous lymphoma

…………………………………………………
.……………………………………………………

Lesion in the mastoid region under the ear lobe

Sebaceous cyst attached to deepest tissue and unattached to the overlying skin
***Sebaceous cyst attached to the skin and not fixed to the underlying tissue
Epidermoid cyst attached to deepest tissue and unattached to the overlying skin
Epidermoid cyst attached to the skin and not fixed to the underlying tissue

In the arthroscopy the needle inserted in

***Superior joint space

Inferior joint space

.……………………………………………………………………

Stain cancer cells*** light>>>normal cell / dark>>>cancer cell

Discolor cancer cells
Discolor normal mucosa
Stain normal mucosa

Teissne technique

…………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………

Toluidene with 1% Acetic acid %1

Toluidene with 5% Acetic acid %5
Toluidene with 5% Acetic acid %1
Toluidene with 1% Acetic acid %5

First apply 1% acetic acid then wash with 1% toluidene